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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
PHYSICS

Q. 23 (CST-07) (Hydrogen Spectrum) down with speed 3 m/s w.r.t ground, then the
magnitude of velocity of man with respect to
1. Total energy of an electron in excited state of
the rain will be
hydrogen atom is –3.4 eV. The kinetic and
potential energy of electron in this state is (1) 1 m/s (2) 7 m/s
(1) K = +10.2 eV, U = –13.6 eV (3) 5 m/s (4) 4 m/s
(2) K = 3.4 eV, U = – 6.8 eV 2. A person is walking on road with the speed 2
m/s in east direction rain is falling with the
(3) K = – 3.4 eV, U = –6.8 eV
speed 2 2 m/s with respect to ground and at
(4) K = – 6.8 eV, U = +3.4 eV
an angle 45° with vertical towards east, then
2. The magnitude of potential energy of an the velocity of man with respect to rain will be
electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen (take vertical axis as z-axis)
atom is (r0 is Bohr radius)
(1) –2iˆ (2) –2 ˆj
h2 h2
(1) (2)
64  2 mr02 32 2 mr02 (3) –2kˆ (4)  2kˆ
3. To a person walking at the rate of 3 m/s, the
h2 h2
(3) (4) rain appears to fall vertically. When he
16  2 mr02 4  2 mr02
increases his speed to 7 m/s in same direction,
3. What is the potential energy of an electron it appears to meet him at an angle 53° with
present in N-shell of the Be3+ ion? vertical the speed of rain w.r.t ground is
(1) –27.2 eV (2) –13.6 eV (1) 3 2 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) –6.8 eV (4) –3.4 eV (3) 4 m/s (4) 3 m/s
Q. 29 (CST-07) (Young’s Modulus) Q. 15 (CST-07) (Potential Energy of a Dipole in
1. The Young’s modulus of a wire of length l and an External Field)
radius r is Y. The length and radius are
reduced to l/6 and r/6, then its Young’s 1. Potential energy stored in an uniform electric
r
modulus will be field E by a dipole of electric dipole moment
r
(1) 3 Y (2) Y/6 P is given by
r r r r
(3) 6 Y (4) Y (1) U  P  E (2) U  –P  E
2. Young’s modulus of perfectly rigid body is r
r r r dE
(1) Finite value (2) Infinite (3) U  –P·E (4) U  P
dr
(3) Zero (4) One r
2. A dipole of electric dipole moment P is placed
3. The force required to double the length of the r
in uniform electric field of intensity E . The
steel wire of area of cross-section 5 × 10–5 m2
possible values of  for which dipole is in
(Y = 20 × 1010 N/m2) in N is
stable equilibrium and unstable equilibrium
(1) 105 (2) 106
respectively are (where  is angle between
(3) 107 (4) 108 electric field and dipole moment of dipole)
Q. 1 (CST-07) (Relative Velocity) (1) 90°, 0° (2) 0°, 180°
1. A person is walking on road with the speed 4 (3) 90°, 180° (4) 180°, 120°
m/s along east. The rain is falling vertically

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Physics

3. Potential energy stored in a uniform electric 2. Which of the following equation represents a
r
field E by a dipole of electric dipole moment transverse wave travelling along y-axis? (Here
r r r symbols have usual meaning)
P is minimum when angle between P and E
is (1) x = Asin(ky – t)
(1) 180° (2) 90° (2) y = Asin(kx – t)
(3) 270° (4) 0° (3) x = Asin(ky – t)
r
4. A dipole of dipole moment P is placed in (4) y = Asin (ky cos t)
r
uniform electric E such that potential energy of 3. A wave equation y = f(x – vt) represents a
interaction of dipole with electric field is wave travelling in
minimum, then (choose correct statement) (1) + x-axis (2) + y-axis
(1) Dipole is in stable equilibrium (3) – x-axis (4) – y-axis
(2) Dipole is in unstable equilibrium Q. 10 (CST-08) (Motion in a Vertical Circle)
(3) Dipole is in neutral equilibrium 1. A small bob of mass m is connected through a
(4) Both options (2) and (3) massless rod of length l as shown in diagram
Q. 43 (CST-07) (Equipotential Surface) given below. Velocity is given to the bob so
that it can just complete a vertical circle. The
1. Equipotential surfaces are (choose correct its velocity at the topmost point will be
statement)
(1) Parallel to electrostatic field lines
(2) Inclined to electric field lines at 45°
(3) Perpendicular to electric field lines
(4) Both options (1) and (2)
2. Work done in moving a positive charge of
magnitude q0 on the surface of a charged
spherical conductor of radius R from one point
(1) 2gl (2) gl
to another point
(1) Always zero (3) 3gl (4) Zero
(2) Depends on the magnitude of charge q 2. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to the end of the
(3) Depends on the radius of sphere R string of 1 m length. It is whirled in a vertical
(4) Both options (2) and (3) circle. If the velocity of the stone at the top be
10 m/s. What is the tension in the string at that
3. A charged conductor is shown in figure
instant? (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 50 N (2) 90 N
(3) 70 N (4) 110 N
3. A pendulum bob has a speed 6 m/s while
passing through its lowest position, length of
the pendulum is 2 m, then its speed when it
makes an angle of 60° with the vertical is (g =
10 m/s2)
Choose the correct statement. (1) 2 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(1) Surface of the conductors are always (3) 4 m/s (4) 5 m/s
equipotential irrespective of its shape Q. 11 (CST-08) (Application of Newton’s Third
(2) Electric field lines are always perpendicular Law)
to the equipotential surface
1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
(3) Electric field lines will be parallel to the
the action reaction pair?
surface of charged conductor
(1) Action and reaction acts on 2-different
(4) Both options (1) and (2)
bodies
Q. 19 (CST-08) (Wave)
(2) Action and reaction both occur
1. Which of the following equations represents a simultaneously
travelling wave? (Here symbols have usual (3) Both magnitude as well as direction of
meaning) action and reaction are same
(1) y = Asinx cost (2) y = Asin(15x – 2t) (4) Action and reaction is always of same
(3) y = Aex cos(t – ) (4) y = Ae–x cos(vt + 7) nature

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Physics

2. A man is standing still. The force by the man 3. A man is at rest in the middle of a frozen
r
on the earth is F1 . The force by the earth on perfectly smooth pond. He can get himself to
r the shore by making use of Newton’s
the man is F2 . Which one of the following is
(1) First law
true?
r r r r (2) Second law
(1) F1  F2 (2) F1  –F2 (3) Third law
r r r r
(3) | F1 |  | F2 | (4) | F1 |  | F2 | (4) Law of gravitation
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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04 (Physics)
Answer Key

Q. 23 (CST-07) (Hydrogen Spectrum) Q. 43 (CST-07) (Equipotential Surface)

1. (2) 1. (3)
2. (3) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (4)
Q. 29 (CST-07) (Young’s Modulus) Q. 19 (CST-08) (Wave)
1. (4) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (3)
3. (3) 3. (1)
Q. 1 (CST-07) (Relative Velocity)
Q. 10 (CST-08) (Motion in a Vertical Circle)
1. (3)
1. (4)
2. (4)
2. (2)
3. (1)
3. (3)
Q. 15 (CST-07) (Potential Energy of a Dipole in
Q. 11 (CST-08) (Application of Newton’s Third
an External Field)
Law)
1. (3)
1. (3)
2. (2)
2. (2)
3. (4)
3. (3)
4. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
CHEMISTRY
Q. 57. (CST-07) (Reactions involving R – O Bond Cleavage) Q.100. (CST-07) (Green Chemistry)
1. Correct order of acidic strength of the given 1. In Green chemistry, bleaching of paper by
compounds is chlorine gas is replaced by
(1) H2O2 (2) Liquid CO2
(3) Tetrachloroethane (4) Ethene
2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Organic solvents such as benzene, toluene,
carbon tetrachloride are non-toxic in nature.
(2) Hydrogen peroxide is used for the purpose
(1) (II) > (I) > (III) (2) (I) > (II) > (III) of bleaching clothes in the process of
(3) (III) > (II) > (I) (4) (III) > (I) > (II) laundary
2. Correct order of acidic strength of the given (3) Green chemistry, in a nutshell, is a cost
compound is effective approach which involves reduction
in material, energy consumption and waste
generation
(4) Water has high specific heat and low
volatility
3. Fluoride ion concentration above 2ppm in drinking
water causes
(1) Damage to kidney
(2) Laxative effect
(1) (IV) > (I) > (II) > (III) (2) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)
(3) Brown mottling of teeth
(3) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I) (4) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)
(4) Methemoglobinemia
3. Which of the following is most acidic? Q. 85. (CST-07) (The Valence Shell Electron Pair
(1) ClCH2COOH (2) C6H5COOH
Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory)
(3) C6H5CH2COOH (4) HCOOH
4. Correct order of acidic strength of the given 1. In ion, the number of lone pair(s) of
compound is electrons on chlorine atom is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
2. Total number of lone pair of electron(s) in ClF3
is
(1) 9 (2) 7
(3) 11 (4) 3
3. The correct geometry and hybridisation for
ion respectively are
(1) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
(1) Tetrahedral, sp3
(2) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)
(3) (III) > (II) > (IV) > (I) (2) Square planar, sp2d
(4) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III) (3) Triangular planar, sp2
(4) Octahedral, sp3d2

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Chemistry

4. In which of the following pairs, the two species Q.78. (CST-08)(Oxides of Nitrogen)
are iso-structural? 1. The gas evolved on heating of ammonium
dichromate is
(1) BF3 and NF3 (2) SO32– and
(1) NH3 (2) NO2
(3) SF4 and XeF4 (4) and XeO3 (3) N2 (4) N2O
Q.95. (CST-07) (Particle Nature of Electromagnetic 2. In which of the given reaction Nitrogen gas is
Radiation: Planck’s Quantum Theory) evolved?

1. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle with (1) NH4Cl + NaNO2 

mass 0.1 g and velocity 100 ms–1 is (2) NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2 
(1) 6.63 × 10–35 m (2) 6.63 × 10–34 m 
–32
(3) 6.63 × 10 m (4) 6.63 × 10–31 m (3) Pb(NO3)2  
2. The mass of a photon with wavelength 3.6 Å is (4) HNO3 + P4O10 
(1) 6.135 × 10–31 kg (2) 3.071 × 10–29 kg 3. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is
(3) 3.071 × 10–31 kg (4) 6.135 × 10–33 kg linear in shape?
3. The correct equation for de Broglie wavelength (1) N2O3 (2) N2O4
is
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O
h h
(1)   (2)  Q.70. (CST-08)(Entropy)
mv m
1. The change in entropy of an ideal gas when its
h h
(3)   (4)  1 mol expands isothermally and reversibly at
v mv 2 25°C from a volume of 4L to 10 L is approximately
Q.58. (CST-08) (Commercial Cells or Batteries) (1) 5.68 J/K (2) 7.66 J/K
1. Consider the following cells (3) 6.44 J/K (4) 8.32 J/K
(a) Nickel-Cadmium cell 2. For a perfectly crystalline substance, its entropy
(b) Lechlanche cell would be zero
(c) Lead storage battery (1) When rG value becomes zero
(d) Mercury cell (2) At zero kelvin temperature
The total number of secondary cell(s) is (3) At zero degree celsius
(1) 1 (2) 2 (4) When total entropy of universe becomes
(3) 3 (4) 4 infinite
2. The electrolyte used in lead-storage battery is 3. If H and S values for a reaction are 128 kJ
(1) 40% solution of hydrochloric acid and 64 JK–1 respectively, then the temperature
(2) Molten lead chloride at which the equilibrium is achieved, would be
(3) 38% solution of sulphuric acid (1) 200 K (2) 2 K
(4) A paste of zinc oxide and lead
(3) 2000 K (4) 20000 K
3. Consider the given statements I and II and
choose the correct options. Q.76. (CST-08) (Valence Bond Theory (VBT))
Statement I: Anode used in mercury cell is 1. All of the following are outer orbital complexes
made up of zinc-mercury amalgam. except
Statement II: The cell potential of mercury cell (1) [CoF6]3– (2) [Ni(CO)4]
is 1.1V.
(3) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(1) Both the statements I and II are correct
(2) Both the statements I and II are incorrect 2. Which of the following central metal ions will
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is form the complex with highest spin only
correct magnetic moment if ligand is F–?
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) Sc3+ (2) Cr2+
incorrect
(3) Mn2+ (4) Ti2+
4. The anode used in dry cell is made up of
3. Choose the diamagnetic species from the
(1) Zinc metal
following.
(2) Graphite
(1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [Mn(CN)6]3–
(3) Carbon rod surrounded by powdered MnO2
(4) Paste of MnO2 and Zinc amalgam (3) [MnCl6]3– (4) [FeF6]3–
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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
CHEMISTRY
Answer Key
Q. 57. (CST-07) (Reactions involving R – O Bond Cleavage) Q.58. (CST-08) (Commercial Cells or Batteries)
1. (3) 1. (2)
2. (2)
3. (1) 2. (3)
4. (2) 3. (4)
Q.100. (CST-07) (Green Chemistry) 4. (1)
1. (1) Q.78. (CST-08) Oxides of Nitrogen
2. (1)
1. (3)
3. (3)
2. (1)
Q.85. (CST-07) (The Valence Shell Electron Pair
Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory) 3. (4)
1. (1) Q.70. (CST-08)(Entropy)
2. (3) 1. (2)
3. (1)
2. (2)
4. (4)
Q.95. (CST-07) (Particle Nature of Electromagnetic 3. (3)
Radiation: Planck’s Quantum Theory) Q.76. (CST-08)(Valence Bond Theory (VBT))
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (4) 2. (3)
3. (1)
3. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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BOTANY

CST-07: Q.No.111 (Ecosystem - Function) Maximum peak is shown by which pigment?

1. Primary production per unit time is (1) Carotenoid in 400-500 nm region
(1) Secondary productivity (2) Chlorophyll b in 400-500 nm region
(2) Quaternary productivity (3) Chlorophyll a in 600-700 nm region
(3) Tertiary productivity (4) Chlorophyll b in 600-700 nm region
(4) Primary productivity 2. In 600-700 nm region of wavelength of light,
2. Which of the following is the correct expression for highest peak of absorption is seen by
primary production? (1) Chlorophyll a (2) Chlorophyll b
(1) Primary production = Biomass/area (3) Carotenoid (4) Xanthophyll
Biomass 3. In 400-500 nm region of wavelength of light,
(2) Primary production = highest peak of absorption is seen by
area × time
(1) Chlorophyll a (2) Chlorophyll b
(3) Primary production = Primary productivity /
time (3) Carotenoid (4) Xanthophyll
(4) Primary production = Primary productivity ×
area CST-07: Q.No.133 (Molecular Basis of Inheritance:
3. The rate of formation of new organic matter by Replication)
consumer is 1. The DNA dependent DNA polymerases catalyse
(1) Primary production polymerization only in one direction, that is
(2) Secondary production (1) 2  3 (2) 5  3
(3) Secondary productivity (3) 3  5  3  2
(4) Quaternary productivity 2. The DNA replication is continuous on the template
strand with polarity
CST-07: Q.No.130 (Photosynthesis in Higher Plants: (1) 2  3 (2) 3  2
Photosynthetic Pigments) (3) 5  3  3  5
1. Absorption spectrum of different photosynthetic 3. Okazaki fragments are ___A___ fragments of
pigments is shown in the following diagram DNA synthesized on the template strand with
polarity ___B___.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and
B
A B

(1) Discontinuous 3  5

(2) Continuous 5  3

(3) Discontinuous 5  3

(4) Continuous 3  5
Wavelength of light in nanometres (nm)

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Botany

CST-07: Q.No.135 (Environmental Issues: Air 3. What percent of the individuals in F1 generation do
pollution and Its Control) not carry any gene for the disease phenylketonuria
1. All of the following are the released products from if both parents are heterozygous for the trait?
smokestacks of thermal power plants, smelters (1) 50%
and other industries, except (2) 25%
(1) Particulate matter (3) 75%
(2) Gaseous air pollutants (4) 0
(3) Harmless gases CST-08: Q.No.127 (Sexual Reproduction in
(4) Solid waste Flowering Plants: Post-Fertilization:
2. Catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol Structures and Events)
because lead in the petrol 1. Antipodal cells are also known as
(1) Reduce the emission of poisonous gases (1) Synergid
(2) Give the dust particles a negative charge (2) Nucellus
(3) Inactivates the catalyst (3) Polar cells
(4) Remove the particulate pollutants (4) Vegetative cells
3. In scrubber, the exhaust is passed through 2. Endosperm provides nourishment to the
(1) Negatively charged electrodes developing
(2) Spray of water or lime (1) Nucellus
(3) Corona discharge (2) Seed
(4) Platinum-palladium catalyst (3) Embryo
CST-07: Q.No.121 (Mineral Nutrition: Metabolism of (4) Embryo sac
Nitrogen) 3. An aquatic plant that does not undergo water
1. The process in which ammonium ion reacts with - pollination is
ketoglutaric acid and forms glutamic acid is (1) Hydrilla
(1) Transamination (2) Water lily
(2) Ammonification (3) Vallisneria
(3) Nitrification (4) Zostera
(4) Reductive amination CST-08: Q.No.131 (Molecular Basis of Inheritance:
2. In reductive amination, reactants are The DNA)
1. Free-OH group in a dsDNA molecule is present
(1) -ketoglutaric acid and glutamic acid
 (1) In every nucleotide
(2) Glutamate and NH4
(2) In every base pair

(3) NH4 and -ketoglutaric acid (3) At 3' end of each strand
(4) Glutamic acid and NADP (4) At 5' end of each strand
3. During reductive amination, enzyme glutamate 2. How many free -OH groups are there in a single
dehydrogenase is used and DNA strand with 20 nucleotides?
(1) NADPH is oxidized to NADP (1) 20 (2) 40
(2) NADP is reduced to NADPH (3) 2 (4) 1
(3) NADPH is reduced to NADP 3. If a DNA molecule has 24 base pairs, then
(4) NADP is oxidized to NADPH (1) It has 2 antiparallel DNA strands with 24
CST-07: Q.No.105 (Principles of Inheritance and nucleotides each.
Variation: Genetic Disorders) (2) It has only one DNA strand with 48
1. Phenylketonuria is a nucleotides.

(1) Sex-linked recessive disease (3) It has only one DNA strand with 24
nucleotides.
(2) Sex-linked dominant trait
(4) It has 2 antiparallel DNA strands with 12
(3) Autosomal recessive trait nucleotides each.
(4) Chromosomal disorder CST-08: Q.No.134 (Photosynthesis in Higher
2. What is the probability of the affected individual in Plants: Photorespiration)
F1 generation, if both the parents are heterozygous 1. Which organelle is involved in aerobic respiration?
for the Phenylketonuria?
(1) Golgi body (2) Peroxisomes
(1) 3/4 (2) 1
(3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast
(3) 2/4 (4) 1/4

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Botany

2. Photorespiration involves (4) Excess amount of inorganic nitrogen is toxic

(1) Synthesis of sugar to plants
(2) Only one organelle 3. In plants, organic and inorganic materials are
transported through
(3) Production of ATP
(1) Xylem only
(4) Loss of fixed carbon as CO2
(2) Sieve cells only
3. What is common between photorespiration and
aerobic respiration? (3) Both xylem and phloem
(1) Site of the process that is chloroplast (4) Sieve tube only
(2) Utilization of oxygen CST-08: Q.No.123 (Cell Cycle and Cell Division:
Mitosis)
(3) ATP production
1. Aster is comprised of which of the following
(4) Occurrence in all photosynthetic plants components?
CST-08: Q.No.120 (Transport in Plants: (1) Centrosome only
Uptake and Transport of mineral nutrients)
(2) Centrosome and the microtubules radiating
1. Read the following statements and choose the out from it at the poles
option which is true for them.
(3) Centrosome and the microtubules radiating
Statement-1: In xylem, much of nitrogen travels out from it at the equator
in organic forms.
(4) Microtubules only
Statement-2: Some mineral elements are carried
through xylem as organic compounds. 2. Which of the following event takes place during
prophase?
(1) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) Aster formation
(2) Both the statements are correct
(2) Chromosomal alignment on metaphasic plate
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
(3) Chromatid movement towards the poles
(4) Only statement-2 is correct
(4) Reformation of nucleolus, golgi complex and
2. The sap that travels through xylem has some ER
nitrogen as inorganic ions because
3. Two asters together with spindle fibres form
(1) Nitrogen is transported through xylem in
inorganic forms too (1) Cell plate
(2) Organic form of nitrogen cannot exist in xylem (2) Cleavage furrow
(3) Nitrogen is found in plant only as inorganic (3) Mitotic apparatus
compounds (4) Equitorial plate

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BOTANY

CST-07: Q.No.111 (Ecosystem - Function) 2. (4)

1. (4) 3. (2)
2. (1) CST-08: Q.No.127 (Sexual Reproduction in
3. (3) Flowering Plants: Post-Fertilization :
Structures and Events)
CST-07: Q.No.130 (Photosynthesis in Higher Plants:
Photosynthetic Pigments) 1. (4)
1. (2) 2. (3)
2. (1) 3. (2)
3. (2) CST-08: Q.No.131 (Molecular Basis of Inheritance:
The DNA)
CST-07: Q.No.133 (Molecular Basis of Inheritance:
Replication) 1. (3)
1. (2) 2. (4)
2. (4) 3. (1)
3. (3) CST-08: Q.No.134 (Photosynthesis in Higher
Plants: Photorespiration)
1. (3)
2. (4)
CST-07: Q.No.135 (Environmental Issues: Air
pollution and Its Control) 3. (2)
1. (4) CST-08: Q.No.120 (Transport in Plants:
Uptake and Transport of mineral nutrients)
2. (3)
1. (2)
3. (2)
2. (1)
CST-07: Q.No.121 (Mineral Nutrition: Metabolism of
Nitrogen) 3. (3)
1. (4) CST-08: Q.No.123 (Cell Cycle and Cell Division:
Mitosis)
2. (3)
1. (2)
3. (1)
2. (1)
CST-07: Q.No.105 (Principles of Inheritance and
Variation: Genetic Disorders) 3. (3)
1. (3)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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CST-07: Q.No.171 (Excretory Products and their 4. Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a
Elimination: Urine Formation) specific ________ nucleotide sequence in the
1. Substances like glucose, amino acids, Na+ in DNA.
Filtrate are reabsorbed by Select the option to fill the blank correctly.
(1) Active process (2) Passive process (1) Ori
(3) Osmosis (4) Facilitated transport (2) Selectable marker
2. Absorption of bicarbonate ions from filtrate takes (3) Cloning
place in PCT by (4) Palindromic
(1) Simple diffusion CST-07: Q.No.174 (Biotechnology - Principles and
(2) Facilitated diffusion Processes: Tools of Recombinant
(3) Active transport DNA Technology)
(4) Osmosis 1. Statement-I: Introduction of a piece of DNA into
host cell is called transformation.
3. In PCT and other parts of renal tubules, water is
reabsorbed by Statement-II: Introduction of recombinant plasmid
into host cell makes it a recombinant cell.
(1) Simple diffusion (2) Facilitated diffusion
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Osmosis (4) Active transport
(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is
CST-07: Q.No.175 (Biotechnology - Principles and incorrect
Processes: Tools of Recombinant DNA
Technology) (3) Statemnet-I is incorrect and statement-II is
correct
1. Restriction enzymes are obtained from
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) Prokaryotes (2) Amoeba
2. If a student has used Pst I/ Pvu I restriction enzyme
(3) Yeast (4) Viruses in pBR322 for insertion of a foreign gene, he/she
2. Each restriction endonuclease functions by _____ could select the recombinant by growing the
the length of a DNA sequence. transformants on medium containing
Choose the correct option to fill the blank (1) Ampicillin
correctly. (2) Tetracycline
(1) Eliminating (3) Kanamycin
(2) Adding (4) Chloramphenicol
(3) Inspecting 3. Which of the following could be used as selectable
(4) Modifying marker in pBR322?
3. Which enzyme cuts each of the two strands of the a. ampR
double helix at specific points in their sugar- b. tetR
phosphate backbones?
c. LacZ gene
(1) DNA ligase
Choose the correct option.
(2) Restriction endonuclease
(1) a and b only (2) a and c only
(3) DNA polymerase
(3) a, b and c (4) b and c only
(4) RNA polymerase

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Zoology

4. If a student has used BamHI restriction enzyme in CST-08: Q.No.161 (Biotechnology - Principles and
pBR322 for insertion of a foreign gene, then he/she Processes: Processes of Recombinant DNA
could select recombinant by growing the Technologies)
transformants on medium containing 1. Which of the following technique is used for
(1) Ampicillin amplification of gene of interest in gene cloning?
(2) Tetracycline (1) Gel electrophoresis (2) PCR
(3) Kanamycin (3) Blotting (4) RFLP
(4) Chloramphenicol 2. In recombinant DNA technology, the formation of
CST-07: Q.No.170 (Digestion and Absorption: rDNA is followed by
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM) (1) Isolation of DNA from host
1. The muscular activities of different parts of the (2) Restriction digestion of isolated DNA
alimentary canal can be moderated by neural (3) Transfering the recombinant DNA into the host
mechanisms, both ____ and through _____.
(4) Isolation of desired DNA fragment by gel
Choose the correct option that fills the blanks electrophoresis
respectively.
3. Transfer of rDNA into host cell is done by
(1) Local; CNS
(1) Vector (2) Selective markers
(2) Local; PNS
(3) Probe (4) Primers
(3) Local; ANS only
CST-08: Q.No.154 (Strategies for Enhancement in
(4) Local, Medulla only Food Production - Animal Husbandry:
2. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive Animal Breeding)
juices is carried out by local hormones produced 1. Mule is the result of
by the _____ and ______ mucosa.
(1) Inbreeding
Choose the correct option that fills the blanks
respectively (2) Cross-breeding
(1) Gastric; Intestinal (3) Out-crossing
(2) Buccal; Gastric (4) Interspecific hybridization
(3) Stomach; Rectal 2. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed by
(4) Pharyngeal; Oesophageal (1) Out-crossing
3. Gastric secretion is stimulated by (2) Cross-breeding
(1) Only neural signals (3) Inbreeding
(2) Both neural signals and local hormones (4) Interspecific hybridisation
(3) Only local hormones 3. When superior male of one breed is mated with
superior female of another breed of same species,
(4) Master endocrine gland only it is called
CST-07: Q.No.157 (Animal Kingdom (Chordates): (1) Cross-breeding
Classification of Protochordata or Acraniates)
(2) Out-crossing
1. Organisms of all of the following classes are cold
blooded, except (3) Inbreeding
(1) Amphibia (2) Aves (4) Interspecific hybridisation
(3) Reptilia (4) Chondrichthyes 4. When mating is performed between male and
female animals of different related species, it is
2. Which of the following class/superclass includes called
organisms that have 2-chambered heart?
(1) Cross-breeding
(1) Mammalia (2) Aves
(2) Inbreeding
(3) Amphibia (4) Pisces
(3) Out-crossing
3. Select the correct option to complete the analogy
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
Internal fertilization : Chondrichthyes :: External
fertilisation : ______ CST-08: Q.No.153 (Excretory Products and their
Elimination: Mechanism of Concentration of
(1) Aves (2) Mammals the Filtrate)
(3) Amphibians (4) Reptiles 1. How much blood is filtered by both the kidneys in
4. Which of the following is a cold blooded animal a minute?
having 3-chambered heart? (1) 1100-1200 mL
(1) Catla (2) Rana (2) 650 mL
(3) Crocodilus (4) Pavo (3) 125 mL
(4) 5000 mL

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Zoology

2. Statement-I: The amount of blood filtered by Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
kidneys / minute is 1100-1200 mL. (1) Same (2) Other
Statement-II: The amount of the glomerular filtrate (3) Polypeptide (4) Polysaccharide
formed by kidneys/minute is 125 mL/minute.
3. The rise per base pair in B-DNA is ______ Å.
(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect (1) 3.4 (2) 34
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is (3) 0.34 (4) 3.6
correct 4. What is the pitch length in B-DNA?
(3) Both the statements are incorrect (1) 34 Å (2) 34 nm
(4) Both the statements are correct (3) 3.4 Å (4) 34 cm
3. If A is cardiac output, B is renal blood flow/min, C CST-08: Q.No.174 (Structural Organisation in
is renal plasma flow/min and D is glomerulus Animals- (Animal Morphology)
filtrate, then choose the option which represents COCKROACH)
most likely their correct values. Consider the figure given below and answer the
A B C D following questions.

(1) 5000 mL/min 1100-1200 650 125

mL/min mL/min mL/min

(2) 5000 mL/min 650 mL/min 1100- 125 mL

1200
mL/min

(3) 1100-1200 650 mL/min 5000 125 mL

mL/min mL/min

(4) 650 mL/min 5000 125 1100 1. The unpaired structures among the given options
mL/min mL/min mL/min -
12 mL
is
(1) C and D (2) D and E
4. Glomerular filtration rate in a healthy individual is
approximately (3) A and B (4) B and D
(1) 125 L/min (2) 180 mL/min 2. Which of the following have grinding and incising
region?
(3) 180 L/day (4) 125 mL/min
(1) A (2) E
CST-08: Q.No.163 (Biomolecules-Nucleic Acids)
(3) B (4) C
1. Choose the feature from the following which is
applicable to B-DNA. 3. Select the correct option w.r.t. paired mouth parts.

(1) At each step of ascent the strand turns 63° (1) D and C (2) C and E

(2) At each step of ascent the strand turns 36° (3) B and C (4) A and D

(3) The strand does not turn at each step of ascent 4. The structure responsible for sensing the light is
labelled as
(4) At each step of ascent the strand turns 34°
(1) A (2) B
2. A and G of one strand of DNA compulsorily base
pairs with T and C, respectively, on the ____ (3) C (4) D
strand.
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Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
ZOOLOGY
ANSWER KEY

CST-07: Q.No.171 (Excretory Products and their CST-08: Q.No.161 (Biotechnology - Principles and
Elimination: Urine Formation) Processes: Processes of Recombinant DNA
1. (1) Technologies)
2. (1) 1. (2)
3. (3) 2. (3)
CST-07: Q.No.175 (Biotechnology - Principles and 3. (1)
Processes: Tools of Recombinant DNA CST-08: Q.No.154 (Strategies for Enhancement in
Technology) Food Production - Animal Husbandry:
1. (1) Animal Breeding)
2. (3) 1. (4)
3. (2) 2. (2)
4. (4) 3. (1)
CST-07: Q.No.174 (Biotechnology - Principles and 4. (4)
Processes: Tools of Recombinant DNA CST-08: Q.No.153 (Excretory Products and their
Technology) Elimination: Mechanism of Concentration of
1. (1) the Filtrate)
2. (1) 1. (1)
3. (1) 2. (4)
4. (2) 3. (1)
CST-07: Q.No.170 (Digestion and Absorption: 4. (3)
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM) CST-08: Q.No.163 (Biomolecules-Nucleic Acids)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (1) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (1)
CST-07: Q.No.157 (Animal Kingdom (Chordates): 4. (1)
Classification of Protochordata or Acraniates) CST-08: Q.No.174 (Structural Organisation in
1. (2) Animals- (Animal Morphology)
2. (4) COCKROACH)
3. (3) 1. (2)
4. (2) 2. (3)
3. (3)
4. (1)
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