AP BIOLOGY Scoring Guide

Topic Questions Units 1-8

1. Researchers claimed that a particular organelle originated from a free-living prokaryotic cell that was engulfed by a
larger cell, as shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. A model showing a cell engulfing a smaller cell

Which of the following provides evidence to best support the researchers’ claim?
(A) The organelle has a phospholipid membrane.
(B) The organelle has protein in the membrane.
(C) The organelle has a double membrane.
(D) The organelle has an internal aqueous environment that is similar to the cytosol of the larger cell.

2. A researcher proposes a model of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction in which a reactant is converted to a product. The
model is based on the idea that the reactant passes through a transition state within the enzyme-substrate complex
before the reactant is converted to the product.

Which of the following statements best helps explain how the enzyme speeds up the reaction?
The enzyme’s active site binds to and stabilizes the reactant, which decreases the free-energy change of
(A)
the reaction.
The enzyme’s active site binds to and stabilizes the transition state, which decreases the activation
(B)
energy of the reaction.
The enzyme’s active site binds to and stabilizes the product, which increases the amount of energy
(C)
released by the reaction.
The enzyme’s active site binds to and stabilizes both the reactant and the product at the same time,
(D)
which increases the reaction’s equilibrium constant.

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3. The illustration shows the active transport of hydrogen ions through a membrane protein.

Which of the following best predicts the effect of not having available to supply energy to this process?
(A) ions will stop moving through the protein.
(B) ions will move in the other direction through the protein.
(C) ions will continue to move through the protein in the original direction but at a slower rate.
(D) ions will begin to move through the phospholipid portion of the membrane in the original direction.

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4. Figure 1 shows a model of how a channel protein influences the movement of a particle across a cell’s plasma
membrane.

Figure 1. A section of a cell’s plasma membrane, showing a channel protein and a concentration gradient across the
membrane

An investigator wants to understand whether a newly found membrane protein is involved in membrane transport of
a certain particle. Which investigation will help determine whether the new membrane protein is a channel protein
involved in membrane transport?
Add small nonpolar molecules to the extracellular space and measure the direction of particle movement
(A)
of the molecules.
(B) Measure the rate of extracellular fluid movement into the intracellular space.
(C) Add more of the proteins to the plasma membrane and measure the rate of the particle movement.
Remove from the intracellular space and measure the rate of the particle movement into the
(D)
intracellular space.

5. Alcohol dehydrogenase ( ) is an enzyme that aids in the decomposition of ethyl alcohol into
nontoxic substances. Methyl alcohol acts as a competitive inhibitor of ethyl alcohol by competing for the same
active site on . When attached to , methyl alcohol is converted to formaldehyde, which is toxic in the
body.

Which of the following statements best predicts the effect of increasing the concentration of substrate (ethyl
alcohol), while keeping the concentration of the inhibitor (methyl alcohol) constant?

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(A) There will be an increase in formaldehyde because activity increases.

Competitive inhibition will be terminated because ethyl alcohol will bind to methyl alcohol and decrease
(B)
activity.
(C) The peptide bonds in the active site of the enzyme will be denatured, inhibiting the enzyme.
Competitive inhibition will decrease because the proportion of the active sites occupied by substrate will
(D)
increase.

6. The protein is made up of amino acids linked together in a chain. Some humans produce a version of
the protein in which phenylalanine (an amino acid) has been deleted from position 508 of the amino acid
chain.

Which of the following best predicts how the amino acid deletion will affect the structure of the protein?
(A) It will have no observable effect on the structure of the protein.
It will affect the primary structure of the protein, but the other levels of protein structure will
(B)
not be affected.
It will affect the secondary and tertiary structures of the protein, but the primary structure will
(C)
not be affected.
(D) It will affect the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of the protein.

7. The relative amount of in a cell at various stages of the cell cycle is shown in Figure 1 .

Figure 1. Amount of per cell during different stages of the cell cycle, relative to the beginning of the
stage

Which of the following best describes how the amount of in the cell changes during phase?

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(A) The amount of doubles as the is replicated.

(B) The amount of slightly increases as a result of new organelle synthesis.
(C) The amount of does not change while the cell grows.
(D) The amount of is halved as the cell divides into two daughter cells.

8. Amylase is a protein that catalyzes the conversion of starch to simple sugars. Amylase activity in an aqueous
solution can be measured by using iodine as a starch indicator. A solution containing iodine and starch will have a
dark-blue color, whereas a solution containing iodine but no starch will have a light-brown color. The color change
of an iodine solution from dark blue to light brown can be used to measure the rate at which starch is converted to
simple sugars.

A student designs an experiment to investigate the effect of environmental on amylase function. The design of
the experiment is presented in Table 1.

Table 1. An experiment for investigating the effect of on amylase function

Test Tube Environmental Starch Added Amylase Added Iodine Added Pretreated by Boiling
5 Yes Yes Yes No
6 Yes Yes Yes No
7 No Yes Yes No
7 Yes No Yes No
7 Yes Yes Yes Yes
7 Yes Yes Yes No
8 Yes Yes Yes No
9 Yes Yes Yes No

Which of the following statements best justifies the inclusion of test tube as a control in the experiment?
(A) It will provide a measurement of amylase activity at an acidic .
(B) It will provide a measurement of amylase activity at a basic .
(C) It will show the color change that occurs in the absence of enzyme activity.
(D) It will show the color change that occurs in the absence of the amylase protein.

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9.

Which statement best describes the effect on water transport across the cell membrane if the aquaporin in the figure
ceases to function?
(A) Water molecules will no longer be able to move across the cell membrane.
(B) Water molecules will still be able to move across the cell membrane but at a slower rate.
(C) Water molecules will only be able to enter the cell by active transport.
Water molecules will move across the cell membrane at a faster rate without the aquaporin regulating
(D)
their flow.

10. Aquaporins are channel proteins that facilitate the transport of water across the cell membrane. One group of
researchers hypothesizes that without functional aquaporins, no water will be able to enter the cell. A different
group proposes an alternative hypothesis, stating that even with nonfunctional aquaporins, a small amount of water
will still cross the cell membrane. An experiment is set up in which plant cells with mutated (nonfunctional)
aquaporins and plant cells with normally functioning aquaporins are both placed in distilled water.

Which of the following data would support the alternative hypothesis?

(A) Cells with functional aquaporins exhibit low turgor pressure and are hypertonic.
(B) Cells with functional aquaporins exhibit high turgor pressure and are hypotonic.
(C) Cells with mutated aquaporins exhibit an absence of turgor pressure and are completely plasmolyzed.
(D) Cells with mutated aquaporins exhibit moderate turgor pressure and are hypertonic.

11. A researcher claims that increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels cause increased growth rates in plants.

Which of the following statements best supports the researcher’s claim?

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Atmospheric carbon dioxide is produced by the burning of fossil fuels, which are formed from the
(A)
remains of living organisms such as plants.
Atmospheric carbon dioxide is a byproduct of cellular respiration, which is a metabolic process that
(B)
occurs in plants and other living organisms.
Atmospheric carbon dioxide typically enters plant leaves through stomata, which plants rely on for
(C)
regulating gas exchange with the atmosphere.
Atmospheric carbon dioxide is the raw material for photosynthesis, which plants rely on for producing
(D)
sugars and other organic compounds.

12. A researcher claims that the synthesis of from and inorganic phosphate is essential to cellular
function.

Which of the following statements best helps justify the researcher’s claim?
is a small molecule that some cells release into their environment as a way of communicating
(A)
with other cells.
hydrolysis is an energy-releasing reaction that is often coupled with reactions that require an input
(B)
of energy.
(C) Inorganic phosphate is a substance that cells typically acquire from their environment.
(D) synthase is a mitochondrial enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of and to .

13. A researcher claims that different metabolic pathways allow bacteria to use different molecules as sources of matter
and energy.

Which of the following statements best helps justify the researcher’s claim by providing a relevant example?
(A) Rhizobia bacteria form close associations with the roots of bean plants.
(B) E. coli bacteria reproduce in liquid media containing either glucose or galactose.
(C) The antibiotic rifampicin inhibits the growth of some bacterial strains but not of others.
(D) Some viruses that infect bacteria reproduce by either the lysogenic cycle or the lytic cycle.

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14. A researcher claims that some bacteria contain factors that influence the function of a particular enzyme but other
bacteria do not. To test the claim experimentally, the researcher will grow two different bacterial strains in separate
liquid cultures and isolate the contents of the cells in each culture. The researcher will add different combinations of
cellular contents, substrate, and enzyme to test tubes containing a buffer solution adjusted to the optimal of the
enzyme and then measure the rate of product formation. The design of the researcher’s experiment is presented in
Table 1.

Table 1. An experiment for investigating the influence of bacterial factors on enzyme function

Test Source of Cellular Cellular Contents Substrate Enzyme

Tube Contents Added Added Added
1 Strain 1 No Yes Yes
2 Strain 1 Yes No Yes
3 Strain 1 Yes Yes No
4 Strain 1 Yes Yes Yes
5 Strain 2 No Yes Yes
6 Strain 2 Yes No Yes
7 Strain 2 Yes Yes No
8 Strain 2 Yes Yes Yes

Which of the following statements best justifies the inclusion of test tubes 3 and 7 in the experiment?
(A) They will show whether the isolated cellular contents have enzymatic activity.
(B) They will show whether environmental affects the function of the enzyme.
(C) They will show the rate of product formation in the absence of bacterial factors.
(D) They will show the rate of product formation in the absence of the substrate.

15. A researcher claims that only a portion of the light energy captured by green plants is available for growth and
repair.

Which of the following observations best helps justify the researcher’s claim?
Light-capturing pigment molecules in green plants absorb red, blue, and violet light but reflect green
(A)
light.
The energy of a photon of light is proportional to its frequency and inversely proportional to its
(B)
wavelength.
As light energy is converted to chemical energy by metabolic processes, some of the energy is lost as
(C)
heat.
Captured energy is stored in the molecular bonds of organic molecules, including simple sugars and
(D)
starch.

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16. The carbohydrates glucose, galactose, and fructose have the same chemical formula but different
structural formulas, as represented in the figure.

Which of the following statements about glucose, galactose, and fructose is most likely true?
The carbohydrates have the same properties because they have the same number of carbon, hydrogen,
(A)
and oxygen atoms.
The carbohydrates have the same properties because they each have a single carbon-oxygen double
(B)
bond.
The carbohydrates have different properties because they have different arrangements of carbon,
(C)
hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.
The carbohydrates have different properties because they have different numbers of carbon-carbon
(D)
bonds.

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17.

Which of the following statements best describes how organisms such as rabbits obtain the carbon necessary for
building biological molecules?
Rabbits eat plants and use energy absorbed from the plants to make carbon atoms from electrons,
(A)
protons, and neutrons in the air.
Rabbits eat plants and break down plant molecules to obtain carbon and other atoms that they rearrange
(B)
into new carbon-containing molecules.
Rabbits eat plants and use water absorbed from the plants to hydrolyze , which the rabbits breathe
(C)
in from the air and use as a carbon source.
Rabbits eat plants and make carbon-containing molecules by using carbon atoms that the plants
(D)
absorbed from the soil and stored in the cells of their leaves.

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18. Researchers performed an experiment to determine the effect of certain genetic mutations on mitosis in tropical fruit
fly embryos. They determined the percentage of cells in each of four phases of mitosis as shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Percent of cells in phases of mitosis

Which of the following patterns is shown by the data?

(A) Mutant 1 cells are more similar to mutant 3 cells than to wild-type cells.
(B) In wild-type cells, the percent of cells in anaphase is twice the amount of those in telophase
(C) In mutant 3 cells, more time is spent in prophase/prometaphase than in the later stages of mitosis.
(D) The percent of mutant 2 cells in anaphase is higher than that of mutant 1 cells.

19. What is the expected percent change in the content of a typical eukaryotic cell as it progresses through the
cell cycle from the start of the phase to the end of the phase?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

20. Plant cell walls are composed of cellulose, while fungal cell walls are composed of chitin. A group of scientists
hypothesize that this difference means the cell wall has largely different functions in plant cells and fungal cells.
Alternatively, another group of scientists hypothesize that despite their biochemical differences, plant and fungal
cell walls serve similar functions.

Which of the following observations would best support the alternative hypothesis described above?

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Plant cell walls are found just outside the plasma membrane, while fungal cell walls are found just
(A)
beneath the plasma membrane.
(B) In both plant cells and fungal cells, the cell wall surrounds the outside of the cell membrane.
(C) Some plant cells have secondary cell walls that confer additional rigidity, while fungal cells do not.
(D) Photosynthesis occurs in plant cells, but it does not occur in fungal cells.

21. Cholesterol is an important component of animal cell membranes. Cholesterol molecules are often delivered to body
cells by the blood, which transports the molecules in the form of cholesterol-protein complexes. The complexes
must be moved into the body cells before the cholesterol molecules can be incorporated into the phospholipid
bilayers of cell membranes.

Based on the information presented, which of the following is the most likely explanation for a buildup of
cholesterol molecules in the blood of an animal?
(A) The animal’s body cells are defective in exocytosis.
(B) The animal’s body cells are defective in endocytosis.
(C) The animal’s body cells are defective in cholesterol synthesis.
(D) The animal’s body cells are defective in phospholipid synthesis.

22. TABLE 1. PHOTOPIGMENTS IN CYANOBACTERIA

Pigment Color of Reflected Light

Chlorophyll Green
Phycocyanin Blue
Allophycocyanin Blue
Phycoerythrin Red

Cyanobacteria contain a variety of pigment molecules, as shown in Table 1. As a result, the color of cyanobacteria
cultures can vary significantly based on the relative amount of each pigment produced.

A researcher placed a culture of cyanobacteria under green lights. Within a few weeks, the appearance of the
cyanobacteria changed from green to red. The researcher claimed the color change in the culture was the result of an
adaptation allowing greater photosynthesis.

Which of the following provides the best reasoning to justify the researcher’s claim?
In green light, more chlorophyll a molecules are produced, reflecting more light to other cyanobacteria
(A)
to be used for photosynthesis.
In green light, more phycoerythrin molecules are produced, allowing more green light to be absorbed,
(B)
thus increasing photosynthesis.
In green light, cyanobacteria that have more phycocyanin molecules are less likely to survive and
(C)
reproduce.
In green light, cyanobacteria that have more allophycocyanin molecules are more likely to survive and
(D)
reproduce.

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23. Figure 1 shows the number of chromosomes observed in an actively dividing human cell at each stage of cell
division.

Figure 1. Number of chromosomes in a human cell at different stages of cell division

Which of the following presents a correct interpretation of the changes in chromosome number depicted in Figure
1?
replication occurs between metaphase and anaphase, doubling the number of chromosomes.
(A) Between telophase and cytokinesis, the cell divides in two, with each cell receiving half of the replicated
chromosomes.
New chromosomes formed during prophase are doubled during anaphase and are recombined before
(B)
cytokinesis.
Chromosomes enter metaphase containing two chromatids attached by a centromere. During anaphase,
(C) the chromatids are separated, each becoming a chromosome. Cytokinesis distributes the chromosomes
into two separate cells.
At anaphase a cell contains two identical copies of each chromosome, but following telophase, one of
(D)
the copies is broken down into nucleotides.

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24. Water is constantly diffusing into the cytosol of freshwater single-celled organisms. In order to maintain the proper
solute concentrations in the cytosol, contractile vacuoles pump out the excess water. An experimenter placed single-
celled organisms into various saline concentrations and recorded the used by the contractile vacuole. The data
are shown in the graph.

Of the following, which additional investigation can be used to determine when the cells are in an isotonic solution?
(A) Decreasing the salinity of the environment a little at a time until the usage reaches a maximum
(B) Decreasing the salinity of the environment a little at a time until usage reaches a minimum
(C) Increasing the salinity of the environment a little at a time until usage reaches a maximum
(D) Increasing the salinity of the environment a little at a time until the usage reaches a minimum

25. A researcher designs an experiment to investigate the effect of environmental temperature on the function of an
enzyme. For each trial included in the experiment, the researcher will add the enzyme and its substrate to an
aqueous buffer solution and then measure the amount of product formed over 20 minutes.

Which of the following must remain the same for all trials of this experiment?
(A) The initial concentration of the substrate
(B) The final concentration of the product
(C) The three-dimensional structure of the enzyme
(D) The temperature of the aqueous buffer solution

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26. Researchers compared similar proteins from related organisms in different habitats. They found that the proteins
from organisms living in harsh environments had a greater number of cysteine amino acids than did proteins from
organisms not living in harsh environments. The structure of cysteine is shown. Bonds can form between the sulfur
atom of different cysteine amino acids ( bonds).

Figure 1. Chemical structure of cysteine

Which of the following best describes the effect of a greater number of cysteine amino acids on the stability of the
proteins?
(A) The change has no effect on the stability of the protein because only one type of amino acid is involved.
The change leads to increased protein stability because of an increased number of bonds in the
(B)
tertiary structure of the proteins.
The change leads to decreased protein stability because of an increased number of bonds in the
(C)
tertiary structure of the proteins.
The change leads to increased protein stability only when the added cysteine amino acids are next to
(D)
other cysteine amino acids in the primary structure.

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27. Figure 1 represents a nucleic acid fragment that is made up of four nucleotides linked together in a chain.

Figure 1. Nucleic acid fragment

Which of the following characteristics of Figure 1 best shows that the fragment is and not ?
(A) The to orientation of the nucleotide chain
(B) The identity of each nitrogenous base
(C) The charges on the phosphate groups
(D) The type of bond linking the nucleotides together

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28.

Figure 1. Nucleic acid segments

and are nucleic acids that can store biological information based on the sequence of their nucleotide
monomers. Figure 1 shows a short segment of each of the two types of nucleic acids.

Which of the following best describes a structural difference between and ?

contains four types of nitrogenous bases, whereas contains only two types of nitrogenous
(A)
bases.
(B) The backbone of contains deoxyribose, whereas the backbone of contains ribose.
A molecule is composed of two parallel strands with the same to directionality, whereas an
(C)
molecule is composed of only one to strand.
(D) Phosphate groups provide rigidity to , but is flexible and contains no phosphate groups.

29. Which of the following statements best supports the claim that certain organelles within eukaryotic cells evolved
from free-living prokaryotic cells?
(A) The cytoplasm of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes is surrounded by a plasma membrane.
Eukaryotes and prokaryotes both contain ribosomes, but the ribosomes of eukaryotes are more complex
(B)
in structure than those of prokaryotes.
Eukaryotes exchange segments of internal membranes between the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi
(C)
apparatus, but prokaryotes have no such internal membranes.
Some organelles contain their own that is more similar to prokaryotic in structure and
(D)
function than to the eukaryotic found in the cell's nucleus.

30. Which of the following statements best helps explain the reaction specificity of an enzyme?

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(A) The free energy of the reactants is greater than the free energy of the products.
(B) The equilibrium constant of the reaction is much greater than 1.
(C) The shape and charge of the substrates are compatible with the active site of the enzyme.
(D) The concentration of the enzyme inside living cells is greater than the concentration of substrate.

The epinephrine signaling pathway plays a role in regulating glucose homeostasis in muscle cells. The signaling pathway
is activated by the binding of epinephrine to the beta-2 adrenergic receptor. A simplified model of the epinephrine
signaling pathway is represented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway in muscle cells

31. Based on Figure 1, which of the following statements best describes the epinephrine signaling pathway?
(A) It involves the opening and closing of ion channels.
(B) In involves enzymes activating other enzymes.
(C) It involves changes in the expression of target genes.
(D) It involves protons moving down a concentration gradient.

32. Which of the following statements best describes the role of adenylyl cyclase in the epinephrine signaling pathway?
(A) It converts a polymer to its monomer subunits.
(B) It moves substances across the plasma membrane.
(C) It accelerates the production of a second messenger.
(D) It transfers phosphate groups from to protein substrates.

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33. Which of the following outcomes will most likely result from the irreversible binding of to the G protein?

(A) The intracellular concentration of glycogen will increase.

(B) The intracellular concentration of activated protein kinase A will increase.
(C) The intracellular concentration of cyclic will increase.
(D) The intracellular concentration of glucose-1-phosphate will increase.

34. A researcher claims that the epinephrine signaling pathway controls a catabolic process in muscle cells. Which of
the following statements best helps justify the researcher’s claim?
(A) Epinephrine is a signaling molecule that binds to a transmembrane protein.
(B) The G protein in the epinephrine signaling pathway consists of three different subunits.
(C) Phosphorylase kinase catalyzes the hydrolysis of .
(D) Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the conversion of glycogen to glucose-1-phosphate.

35. Cyclic phosphodiesterase is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of cyclic to a different molecule.
Which of the following best predicts the effect of inhibiting cyclic phosphodiesterase in a muscle cell
stimulated by epinephrine?
(A) The concentration of cyclic will decrease because adenylyl cyclase will no longer be activated.
(B) The G protein will diffuse out of the cell because it will no longer bind to the plasma membrane.
(C) Phosphorylase kinase will remain active because protein kinase A will no longer be deactivated.
(D) Glycolysis will stop because epinephrine signaling will no longer stimulate glycogen breakdown.

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36. Figure 1 is a proposed model of the feedback system controlling erythrocyte (red blood cell) production.

Figure 1. Model of erythrocyte production control

Air is less dense at very high elevations, so less oxygen is available than in the denser air at sea level. Based on the
model in Figure 1, if a person travels from sea level to a high elevation location, which of the following correctly
predicts the response to the decreased blood oxygen level?
(A) More erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, decreasing production of erythrocytes.
(B) More erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, increasing production of erythrocytes.
(C) Less erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, decreasing production of erythrocytes.
(D) Less erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, increasing production of erythrocytes.

37. Ethylene causes fruits to ripen. In a signaling pathway, receptors activate transcription factors, which ultimately
leads to ripening.

Which of the following best supports the claim that ethylene initiates the signal transduction pathway that leads to
ripening of fruit?
(A) Ethylene is a simple gaseous molecule, which makes it easily detected by receptors.
(B) Fruit will ripen in closed containers without exposure to air.
(C) Ethylene synthesis is under both positive and negative feedback regulation.
(D) Loss-of-function mutations in ethylene receptors result in changes to the ripening process.

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38. The molecular structures of linoleic acid and palmitic acid, two naturally occurring substances, are shown in the
figure.

Based on the molecular structures shown in the figure, which molecule is likely to be solid at room temperature?
Linoleic acid, because the absence of carbon-carbon double bonds allows the molecules to pack closely
(A)
together.
Linoleic acid, because the presence of carbon-carbon double bonds prevents the molecules from packing
(B)
closely together.
Palmitic acid, because the absence of carbon-carbon double bonds allows the molecules to pack closely
(C)
together.
Palmitic acid, because the presence of carbon-carbon double bonds prevents the molecules from packing
(D)
closely together.

39. Organelles such as mitochondria and the endoplasmic reticulum have membranes that compartmentalize reactions
and other metabolic processes. To function properly, the organelles must move substances across their membranes.

Which of the following statements describes a feature shared by mitochondria and the endoplasmic reticulum that
increases the efficiency of their basic functions?
(A) They have rigid, nonfluid membranes.
(B) They have highly folded membranes.
(C) They have membranes composed of many carbohydrates.
(D) They have double membranes, with one membrane enclosed within the other.

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40. Gelatin is a protein that is derived from collagen which is found in the bones, skin, and connective tissue of animals.
To investigate the ability of various enzymes to digest gelatin, a group of students set up an assay involving camera
film. Camera film contains gelatin and appears black when exposed to light but turns clear as the gelatin gets broken
down. The students incubated pieces of exposed camera film in test tubes, each containing one of three different
enzyme solutions (trypsin, lipase, or amylase) as indicated in Figure 1. The students recorded the time it took for the
enzymes to digest the gelatin in each test tube, turning the film from black to clear.

Figure 1. Diagram of experimental setup.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate control for this experiment?
(A) A test tube containing no camera film
(B) A test tube containing only a piece of exposed camera film
(C) A test tube containing a piece of exposed camera film submerged in water
(D) A test tube containing a piece of exposed camera film and all three enzyme solutions

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41. Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that control cellular responses through several different signaling pathways.
One of the signaling pathways involves the glucocorticoid receptor, an intracellular protein that is activated by
binding to a glucocorticoid molecule. A simplified model of the glucocorticoid receptor signaling pathway is
represented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. A simplified model of the glucocorticoid receptor signaling pathway

Which of the following statements best predicts the effect of a mutation that results in a loss of the glucocorticoid
receptor’s ligand binding function?
(A) The transduction of the glucocorticoid signal across the plasma membrane will be blocked.
(B) The glucocorticoid receptor will remain associated with the accessory proteins.
(C) The rate of diffusion of glucocorticoid molecules into the cell will increase.
(D) The concentration of glucocorticoid receptors inside the nucleus will increase.

42. All eukaryotic cells contain at least one Golgi complex, typically located in the cytoplasm and near the endoplasmic
reticulum.

Which of the following best describes a process that occurs within the Golgi complex?
(A) Enzymatic modification of newly synthesized integral membrane proteins
(B) Synthesis of cytosolic proteins based on the nucleotide sequences of
(C) Degradation of proteins by hydrolytic enzymes contained within the complex
(D) Synthesis of various types of lipids

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43. Glycogen synthetase kinase 3 beta is a protein kinase that has been implicated in many types of cancer. Depending
on the cell type, the gene for glycogen synthetase kinase 3 beta can act either as an oncogene or as a
tumor suppressor.

Which of the following best predicts how mutations can lead to the development of cancer?
(A) Cells with inactive fail to trigger apoptosis.
(B) Cells with inactive fail to proceed past the checkpoint.
(C) Cells with overactive are more likely to repair damage.
(D) Cells with overactive have longer cell cycles.

44. The enzyme hexokinase catalyzes the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, which is an important step in
glycolysis. The reaction involves the transfer of a phosphate group from to glucose.

Either a glucose molecule or a water molecule can fit in the active site of hexokinase. The presence of a water
molecule in hexokinase’s active site would result in the hydrolysis of to instead of the conversion of
glucose to glucose-6-phosphate.

Which of the following statements best helps explain the reaction specificity of hexokinase?
Both glucose and water are polar molecules that form favorable interactions with charged and polar
(A)
amino acid side chains in hexokinase’s active site.
Both glucose and water have oxygen atoms that can form covalent bonds with the phosphorus atoms of
(B)
phosphate groups.
Glucose is an energy-rich organic molecule that can be broken down by glycolysis to produce ,
(C)
whereas water is an inorganic molecule.
Glucose has the right shape and charge to cause hexokinase to undergo a structural change needed for
(D)
catalysis, whereas water does not.

45. Water and ammonia interact to form hydrogen bonds, as represented in the figure.

Which statement best helps explain the formation of the hydrogen bond represented in the figure?

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(A) The oxygen has a partial positive charge, and the nitrogen has a partial negative charge.
The nitrogen has a partial negative charge, and the hydrogen attached to the oxygen has a partial positive
(B)
charge.
The hydrogen attached to the oxygen has a partial negative charge, and the nitrogen also has a partial
(C)
negative charge.
The nitrogen has a partial positive charge, and the hydrogen attached to the oxygen also has a partial
(D)
positive charge.

46. Changing the shape or morphology of the mitochondrial inner membrane can change the efficiency of
mitochondrial function.

Which of the following outcomes will most likely result from a change in the shape of the mitochondrial inner
membrane from a highly folded surface to a smooth, flat surface?
Mitochondria will become more efficient because the inner mitochondrial membrane will become more
(A)
permeable to ions.
(B) Mitochondria will become more efficient because the total volume of the mitochondria will increase.
Mitochondria will become less efficient because the inner mitochondrial membrane will become less
(C)
permeable to large molecules.
Mitochondria will become less efficient because the surface area of the inner mitochondrial membranes
(D)
will decrease.

47. In chloroplasts, is synthesized from plus inorganic phosphate in a reaction catalyzed by

synthase molecules that are embedded in the thylakoid membrane.

Which of the following statements provides evidence to support the claim that no will be synthesized in the
absence of a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane?
Blocking electron flow from one carrier to the next in the electron transport chains blocks formation of a
(A)
proton gradient in the thylakoid.
Increasing the proton concentration difference across the thylakoid membrane is not associated with a
(B)
parallel increase in the rate of synthesis.
No is synthesized when channel proteins that allow the free passage of protons are inserted into
(C)
the thylakoid membrane.
No is synthesized while the Calvin cycle is synthesizing carbohydrates and using and
(D)
at a high rate.

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48. The figure shows a process by which a cell might absorb food from its surrounding environment and break it down
for use as a source of energy and matter. The process involves lysosomes, which are membrane-bound organelles
that contain hydrolytic enzymes. Activation of the hydrolytic enzymes requires an acidic , and lysosomes
maintain an internal acidic by using ion pumps.

Which of the following outcomes will most likely result from a loss of ion pump function in the cell’s lysosomes?
The internal of the lysosomes will decrease, which will prevent the activation of hydrolytic enzymes
(A)
and interfere with the intracellular digestion of food.
The internal of the lysosomes will increase, which will prevent the activation of hydrolytic enzymes
(B)
and interfere with the intracellular digestion of food.
The internal of the lysosomes will decrease, which will activate hydrolytic enzymes and enhance the
(C)
intracellular digestion of food.
The internal of the lysosomes will increase, which will activate hydrolytic enzymes and enhance the
(D)
intracellular digestion of food.

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49. Which of the following claims is scientifically accurate and consistent with an observation that a decrease in
lysosome production within a cell leads to a decline in mitochondrial activity?
(A) A lack of lysosomes will cause a decrease in the synthesis of enzymes necessary for cellular respiration.
Fewer lysosomes will be available to break down macromolecules to provide the necessary nutrients for
(B)
cellular respiration.
(C) Fewer lysosomes will be available to store materials required for the functioning of the mitochondria.
(D) Lysosomes will not be available to modify proteins so that they are targeted to the mitochondria.

50. A cell’s membrane potential is maintained by the movement of ions into and out of the cell. A model showing the
influence of membrane proteins on the movement of sodium ( ) and potassium ( ) ions across the plasma
membrane is presented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Section of a cell’s plasma membrane, showing ion concentrations and membrane proteins

Based on the model presented in Figure 1, which of the following outcomes will most likely result from a loss of
protein function?

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(A) The membrane potential will be disrupted by an increase in concentration inside the cell.
(B) The membrane potential will be disrupted by an increase in concentration inside the cell.
The membrane potential will be maintained by the pump moving more ions into the
(C)
cell.
(D) The membrane potential will be maintained by the diffusion of ions into the cell.

51. The figure shows a model of the exchange of matter between the organisms that live together in an aquarium. The
model includes matter exchange between plants, fish, and bacteria. The bacteria are represented as rod-shaped
organisms living in the gravel at the bottom of the aquarium.

Which of the following statements best describes how molecules released by the fish become nutrients for the
plants?
The carbon dioxide molecules released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to oxygen atoms, which
(A)
are used by the plants to make water molecules.
The oxygen molecules released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to ammonia molecules, which
(B)
are used by the plants to make lipids and fatty acids.
The nitrites released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to carbon dioxide molecules, which are
(C)
used by the plants to make carbohydrates.
The ammonia molecules released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to nitrates, which are used by
(D)
the plants to make proteins and nucleic acids.

52. Vertebrate immune responses involve communication over short and long distances. Which of the following
statements best helps explain how cell surface proteins, such as proteins and T cell receptors, mediate cell
communication over short distances?

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(A) The proteins receive electrical signals from nerve cells.

(B) The proteins leave the cell and travel in the bloodstream to other cells.
(C) The proteins interact directly with proteins on the surfaces of other cells.
(D) The proteins bind to molecules secreted by cells located in other parts of the body.

53. The endosymbiont theory proposes a model for the evolution of mitochondria. According to the model, an ancestral
eukaryote engulfed a small, free-living prokaryotic organism. The engulfed prokaryote then formed an
endosymbiotic relationship with the eukaryotic host.

Which of the following observations best supports the model?

(A) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes acquire nutrients from the surrounding environment.
Organelles such as mitochondria and the endoplasmic reticulum have membranes composed of
(B)
phospholipids.
(C) Mitochondria and some prokaryotes share similar metabolic reactions that produce .
(D) Eukaryotes evolved after prokaryotes and have more complex structures.

54. Which of the following statements best predicts the effect of increasing the permeability of the mitochondrial
membranes to large molecules?
production will increase because of an increase in the rate at which proteins diffuse out of
(A)
mitochondria.
production will increase because of an increase in the mixing of mitochondrial and cytosolic
(B)
substances.
production will decrease because of an increase in the occurrence of uncontrolled chemical
(C)
reactions.
production will decrease because of an increase in the surface area of the mitochondrial
(D)
membranes.

55. Muscle cells have high demands. Which of the following is a scientific claim about how the structure of the
mitochondria in muscle cells should be different than it is in other cells because of the high energy demands of
mitochondria?
The inner membrane of the mitochondria in muscle cells should have more folds to increase the surface
(A)
area, allowing more to be synthesized.
The inner membrane of the mitochondria in muscle cells should be more permeable to large enzymes,
(B)
allowing the same reactions to occur in both compartments of the mitochondria.
The outer membrane of the mitochondria in muscle cells should be thicker, allowing more rapid
(C)
diffusion of molecules into the mitochondria.
The outer membrane of the mitochondria of muscle cells should have more folds, increasing the surface
(D)
area for faster diffusion of molecules from the cytoplasm.

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56. In addition to the pigments commonly associated with photosynthesis, a certain photosynthetic species contains two
additional pigment types.

Which of the following best supports the claim that this species is better adapted to environmental changes than
other photosynthetic species are?
(A) The increased pigment concentration better facilitates energy production within the cells of the species.
The pigment combination allows the organism to absorb heat as well as light, making better use of
(B)
available energy.
The additional pigments allow the species to outcompete other species for the wavelengths of light
(C)
commonly used in photosynthesis.
The additional pigments allow the species containing them to harvest energy from wavelengths of light
(D)
that the other photosynthetic species cannot use.

57. Muscle contraction depends on hydrolysis. During periods of intense exercise, muscle cells rely on the
supplied by three metabolic pathways: glycolysis, mitochondrial respiration, and the phosphagen system. Figure 1
shows the rates at which the three metabolic pathways produce following the start of an intense period of
exercise.

Figure 1. production by three metabolic pathways following the start of an intense period of exercise

Which of the following correctly uses the data to justify the claim that the phosphagen system is an immediate,
short-term source of for muscle cells?

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production by the phosphagen system increases and decreases rapidly following the start of the
(A)
exercise period.
production by the phosphagen system increases gradually and continuously throughout the entire
(B)
exercise period.
The produced by the phosphagen system contains more energy per molecule than does the
(C)
produced by the other pathways.
hydrolysis in muscle cells occurs immediately after the start of the exercise period but stops
(D)
before the end of the exercise period.

58. A small protein is composed of 110 amino acids linked together in a chain. As shown in Figure 1, the first and last
five amino acids in the chain are hydrophobic (have nonpolar and uncharged -groups), whereas the remaining 100
amino acids are hydrophilic (have charged or polar -groups). The nature of the -group determines if the amino
acid is hydrophobic or hydrophilic.

A mutation results in the production of a version of the small protein that is only 105 amino acids long, as shown in
Figure 2. Five of the hydrophobic amino acids are missing from one end of the chain.

Which of the following best depicts the tertiary structures of the two proteins in water? The diagrams in the options
are not drawn to the same scale as those in Figure 1 and Figure 2.

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(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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59. Figure 1 shows a model of a signal transduction cascade, initiated by the binding of a ligand to the transmembrane
receptor protein .

Figure 1. Model of signal transduction cascade incorporating protein

A mutation changes the shape of the extracellular domain of transmembrane receptor protein produced by
the cell. Which of the following predictions is the most likely consequence of the mutation?
Production of activated molecule 1 will stop, but production of activated molecules 2 and 3 will
(A)
continue.
(B) The molecule that normally binds to protein will no longer attach, deactivating the cellular response.
The molecule that normally binds to protein will not enter the cell, thus no cellular response will
(C)
occur.
Since protein is embedded in the membrane, the mutation will be silent and not affect the cellular
(D)
response.

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60. Cancer cells behave differently than normal body cells. For example, they ignore signals that tell them to stop
dividing.

Which of the following conditions will most likely cause a normal body cell to become a cancer cell?
(A) The environment already contains cancer cells.
(B) The environment has an abundance of nutrients.
(C) The environment lacks signals that would otherwise tell the cell to stop dividing.
(D) The environment contains mutagens that induce mutations that affect cell-cycle regulator proteins.

61. A team of biologists develop a new drug, and one team member hypothesizes that the drug is incapable of freely
passing across the plasma membrane and requires the help of membrane proteins to enter cells. Alternatively,
another biologist on the team hypothesizes that the drug can diffuse passively across the plasma membrane like
and can.

Which of the following, if true about the drug, best supports the alternative hypothesis that the new drug will exhibit
simple diffusion across plasma membranes?
(A) The drug is a small nonpolar molecule.
(B) The drug is a small charged molecule.
(C) The drug is a large polar molecule.
(D) The drug is a large charged molecule.

62. Notch is a receptor protein displayed on the surface of certain cells in developing fruit fly embryos. Notch’s ligand
is a membrane-bound protein called Delta that is displayed on the surface of adjacent cells. When Notch is activated
by its ligand, the intracellular tail of the Notch protein becomes separated from the rest of the protein. This allows
the intracellular tail to move to the cell’s nucleus and alter the expression of specific genes.

Which of the following statements best explains Delta’s role in regulating cell communication through the Notch
signaling pathway?
(A) Delta transmits a chemical signal to all the cells of a developing embryo.
(B) Delta allows the cells of a developing embryo to communicate without making direct contact.
(C) Delta restricts cell communication to short distances within a developing embryo.
(D) Delta determines which cells in a developing embryo express the gene that encodes the Notch protein.

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63.

Which of the following conclusions is most clearly supported by the representations of nucleic acid and nucleic
acid ?
(A) Nucleic acid contains only purines, whereas nucleic acid contains only pyrimidines.
(B) Nucleic acid contains the sugar ribose, whereas nucleic acid contains the sugar deoxyribose.
(C) Nucleic acid contains positively charged phosphate groups, whereas nucleic acid does not.
(D) Nucleic acid contains adenine-thymine base pairs, whereas nucleic acid does not.

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64. Students conducted a controlled experiment to investigate whether sawdust provides enough nutrients to support
plant growth. The students separated ten nearly identical sunflower seedlings into two groups. They grew the
seedlings in the first group in potting soil and the seedlings in the second group in sawdust composed mostly of
cellulose. After twenty days, the students recorded observations about the seedlings in each group. The students’
observations are presented in the table.

Mean Seedling
Treatment Group Observations
Height
Seedlings in potting The leaves have a dark green color and are normal in
soil size.
Seedlings in sawdust The leaves have a grayish color and are small in size.

The observed differences between the groups most likely resulted from differences in the ability of the seedlings to
produce which of the following monomers?

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(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

65. Which of the following statements best explains the processes of passive and active transport?
Passive transport is the net movement of substances down a concentration gradient that requires
(A) metabolic energy. Active transport is the movement of substances up a concentration gradient that does
not require energy.
Passive transport is the net movement of substances down a concentration gradient that does not require
(B) metabolic energy. Active transport is the movement of substances up a concentration gradient that
requires energy.
Passive transport is the net movement of substances up a concentration gradient that requires metabolic
(C) energy. Active transport is the movement of substances down a concentration gradient that does not
require metabolic energy.
Passive transport is the net movement of substances up a concentration gradient that does not require
(D) metabolic energy. Active transport is the movement of substances down a concentration gradient that
requires energy.

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66. A researcher claims that different enzymes exhibit maximal function over different ranges. To test the claim,
the researcher carries out an experiment that includes three different enzymes: pepsin, salivary amylase, and
arginase. The results of the experiment are represented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. The effect of on three different enzymes

Which of the following actions will provide the most appropriate negative control for the experiment?
(A) Repeating the experiment with a fourth enzyme
(B) Repeating the experiment at several different temperatures
(C) Repeating the experiment with denatured enzymes
(D) Repeating the experiment using several different methods for measuring

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67. Figure 1 represents a common process that occurs in organisms.

Figure 1. Structural formula for a common biological reaction

Which of the following is an accurate description of the process shown in Figure 1 ?

(A) The linking of amino acids with an ionic bond as an initial step in the protein synthesis process
(B) The formation of a more complex carbohydrate with the covalent bonding of two simple sugars
(C) The hydrolysis of amino acids with the breaking of covalent bonds with the release of water
(D) The formation of a covalent peptide bond in a dehydration synthesis reaction

68.

Figure 1. Formation of a peptide bond

Which of the following best describes the formation of the bond shown in Figure 1 ?

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An ionic bond is formed between a carbon atom of one amino acid and the nitrogen atom of the other
(A)
amino acid.
An ionic bond is formed when the negative charge of an group is balanced by the positive charge of
(B)
a hydrogen ion.
A covalent bond is formed between a carbon atom and a nitrogen atom along with the formation of
(C)
.
(D) A covalent bond is formed that replaces the hydrogen bond between the group and the atom.

69. The enzyme peroxidase is found in many organisms. It catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide into water
and oxygen gas. The rate of peroxidase activity at different values was assessed by students in the lab. The
students’ results are shown in graph 1.

Graph 1. Effect of on peroxidase activity

If the experiment is repeated at 11, the observed activity level of the enzyme will most likely be
(A) the same as the level at 7
(B) lower than the level at 9
(C) greater than the level at 9
(D) between the levels observed at 5 and 7.

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70.

Which of the following best describes the numbered areas?

(A) Areas 1 and 3 are polar, since the membrane molecules are aligned with water molecules.
(B) Area 2 is polar, since water has been excluded from this area of the membrane.
(C) Areas 1 and 3 are hydrophilic, since membrane molecules formed covalent bonds with water.
(D) Area 2 is nonpolar, since hydrogen bonds between the adjacent lipids hold the membrane together.

71. The model below shows the structure of a portion of a plasma membrane in an animal cell.

Which statement best explains the orientation of the phospholipid molecules in this model?

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The nonpolar portions of the phospholipid molecules are attracted to the internal and external
(A)
environments.
The hydrophilic phosphate groups of the phospholipid molecules are attracted to the aqueous internal
(B)
and external environments.
The embedded proteins attract the fatty acid tails of the phospholipids, so the tails point away from the
(C)
internal and external aqueous environments.
The fatty acid tails of the phospholipid molecules are hydrophilic and are repelled by the internal and
(D)
external aqueous environments.

72. A scientist claims that Elysia chlorotica, a species of sea slug, is capable of photosynthesis.

Which of the following observations provides the best evidence to support the claim?
(A) Elysia chlorotica will die if not exposed to light.
(B) Elysia chlorotica grows when exposed to light in the absence of other food sources.
(C) Elysia chlorotica grows faster when exposed to light than when placed in the dark.
(D) Elysia chlorotica grows in the dark when food sources are available.

73. Researchers propose a model to explain variation in phytoplankton cell sizes in a marine environment. They base
their model on the idea that smaller cells absorb nutrients more efficiently. The researchers predict that the mean
diameter of phytoplankton cells will change by 50 micrometers for every 5-kilometer increase in distance from the
shore because of a gradual decrease in nutrient availability. To test their model, the researchers determine that the
phytoplankton cells found closest to shore have a mean diameter of 900 micrometers.

Based on the model, what will be the mean diameter of the phytoplankton cells that are found 25 kilometers from
shore?
(A) 650 micrometers
(B) 875 micrometers
(C) 925 micrometers
(D) 1150 micrometers

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74. In an experiment, cells were isolated from an aquatic plant and suspended in pond water, a sucrose sugar solution,
or distilled water. All of the cells were then viewed under a microscope. Compared with the cell in the pond water,
the cell in the sugar solution appeared shriveled, and the cell in the distilled water appeared inflated. The results of
the experiment are represented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. The results of an experiment using aquatic plant cells

Which of the following statements best explains the observations represented in Figure 1 ?
There was a net movement of sucrose out of the cell suspended in the sugar solution and a net
(A)
movement of sucrose into the cell suspended in the distilled water.
There was a net movement of sucrose into the cell suspended in the sugar solution and a net movement
(B)
of sucrose out of the cell suspended in the distilled water.
There was a net movement of water out of the cell suspended in the sugar solution and a net movement
(C)
of water into the cell suspended in the distilled water.
There was a net movement of water into the cell suspended in the sugar solution and a net movement of
(D)
water out of the cell suspended in the distilled water.

75. In flowering plants, plasmodesmata are narrow channels through cell walls that connect the cytoplasms of adjacent
cells. An explanation of how plant cells communicate across cell walls will most likely refer to the diffusion
through plasmodesmata of which of the following?
(A) Membrane-bound organelles
(B) Condensed, duplicated chromosomes
(C) Branched polysaccharides
(D) Small, water-soluble molecules

76. Which of the following best describes the structures of carbohydrates?

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(A) They only occur as disaccharides.

(B) They occur as monomers, chains of monomers, and branched structures.
(C) They only occur as long and branched structures.
(D) They occur as chains of monomers that hydrogen bond with complementary chains of monomers.

77. Polypeptides are continuously being formed and degraded. One of these processes is shown.

Figure 1. Polypeptide reaction

Which statement is the most accurate description of the reaction shown in Figure 1?
(A) It represents monomers linked by dehydration synthesis.
(B) It represents a polypeptide chain that folds to form the tertiary structure.
(C) It represents a polypeptide chain that is denatured into the primary structure.
(D) It represents a polypeptide chain that is broken down through a hydrolysis reaction.

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78. The transport of a substance across a plasma membrane of a specific organelle requires energy. The rate at which
the transport takes place also depends on temperature. A scientist isolated the specific organelle and then used the
following treatments to determine the conditions that will result in the maximal transport. All treatments contained
the extracted organelle and were maintained at .

The data from this experiment indicate that maximal rate of transport of protein at occurs at an
concentration of .

Figure 1. The four concentrations used in the experiment

Which procedure should be done next to gather data needed to meet the scientist’s objective?
(A) Incubate samples with the same four concentrations at .
(B) Incubate samples containing of at four temperatures other than .

(C) Incubate samples containing of at four temperatures other than .

Incubate samples containing of at and determine the rate of transport for
(D)
four other proteins.

79. In a certain signal transduction pathway, the binding of an extracellular molecule to a cell-surface protein results in
a rapid increase in the concentration of cyclic inside the cell. The cyclic binds to and activates
cytosolic enzymes that then activate other enzymes in the cell.

Which of the following statements best describes the role of cyclic in the signal transduction pathway?
(A) It acts as a signaling molecule that passes the signal from the cell to other cells.
(B) It acts as a receptor that carries the signal from outside the cell to inside the cell.
(C) It acts as a second messenger that helps relay and amplify the signal within the cell.
(D) It acts as a channel protein that transmits the signal across the cell’s nuclear membrane.

80. Cells contain smaller components called organelles that are necessary for a cell’s survival. Organelle functions have
often been compared to components of larger systems.

Which of the following functional differences between the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum is
explained by the structural differences between them?

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(A) Rough breaks down toxic substances, and smooth only transports them out of the cell.
(B) Rough can synthesize and package lipids for export, and smooth cannot.
(C) Rough can produce , and smooth cannot.
(D) Rough can synthesize and package proteins for export, and smooth cannot.

81. A student claims that the chromosome contains the sex-determining region gene, known as the gene,
which causes male fetuses to develop testes.

Which of the following provides correct information about cell signaling that supports the claim?
The gene produces a protein that binds to specific regions of in certain tissues, which
(A)
affects the development of these tissues.
The gene produces a protein that deletes portions of the chromosome in males so that male
(B)
characteristics can develop.
The gene produces an segment that is exported from specific cells and targets the
(C)
developing gonads.
(D) The gene is found only in tissues of the developing gonads.

82. A spherical bacterial cell has a radius of . The human egg cell has a radius of .

Which statement correctly indicates the cell that is able to more efficiently exchange materials with the external
environment and provides a correct explanation?
(A) The egg cell, because it has the smallest surface-to-volume ratio.
(B) The egg cell, because it has the largest surface-to-volume ratio.
(C) The bacterial cell, because it has the smallest surface-to-volume ratio.
(D) The bacterial cell, because it has the largest surface-to-volume ratio.

83. Figure 1 is a diagram of water molecules at the air-water interface at the surface of a pond.

Figure 1. Alignment of water molecules at air-water interface

Based on Figure 1, which of the following best describes how the properties of water at an air-water interface
enable an insect to walk on the water's surface?

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Covalent bonds between water molecules and the air above provide cohesion, which causes tiny bubbles
(A)
to form under the feet of the insect.
Ionic bonds between molecules at the surface of the water provide an electric charge, which attracts the
(B)
feet of the insect, keeping it on the surface.
Polar covalent bonds between molecules at the surface of the water provide adhesion, which supports
(C)
the weight of the insect.
Hydrogen bonds between molecules at the surface of the water provide surface tension, which allows the
(D)
water surface to deform but not break under the insect.

84. Two different models of a living cell are represented in the figure.

Of the two cells represented in the figure, which would likely be more efficient at exchanging substances with the
surrounding environment?
(A) Cell A, because it has the larger surface-area-to-volume ratio.
(B) Cell A, because it has the smaller surface-area-to-volume ratio.
(C) Cell B, because it has the larger surface-area-to-volume ratio.
(D) Cell B, because it has the smaller surface-area-to-volume ratio.

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85. A researcher claims that increasing the environmental temperature by will double the rate of an enzyme-
catalyzed reaction. To test the claim, the researcher designs an experiment that uses a particular enzyme isolated
from plants. The design of the experiment is presented in Table 1. For each test tube in the experiment, the
researcher will measure the rate of product formation.

Test Tube Temperature ( ) Substrate Added Enzyme Added Pretreated by Boiling

1 15 Yes Yes No
2 25 No Yes No
3 25 Yes No No
4 25 Yes Yes No
5 25 Yes Yes Yes
6 35 Yes Yes No

Which of the following statements best helps justify the inclusion of test tube 5 as a control in the experiment?
(A) It will provide a measurement of product formation in the absence of the substrate.
(B) It will provide a measurement of product formation in the presence of a denatured enzyme.
(C) It will show the effect of doubling the amount of substrate on the rate of product formation.
(D) It will show the effect of increased enzyme activity on the rate of product formation.

86. Which of the following best describes how amino acids affect the tertiary structure of a protein?
(A) The number of amino acids determines the tertiary structure of the protein.
The interactions of the different -groups with other -groups and with their environment determine
(B)
the tertiary structure of the protein.
The -group of the last amino acid that is added to a growing polypeptide chain determines the next
(C)
amino acid that is added to the chain.
The sequence of the amino acids in the polypeptide chain determines the protein’s primary structure but
(D)
has no effect on its tertiary structure.

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87. Protein digestion in humans is primarily carried out by three enzymes. Pepsin is found in the stomach ,
where it aids in the breakdown of large proteins into smaller peptides, while trypsin and chymotrypsin are found in
the small intestine , where they aid in the further breakdown of the proteins into amino acids and dipeptides
that can be absorbed into the bloodstream. Graph 1 shows the effect of on the activity levels of the three
enzymes.

Graph 1. Relative activity of pepsin, trypsin, and chymotrypsin at 0 through 11

Which of the following best predicts how the structure and function of pepsin will change as it enters the small
intestine?
(A) Pepsin will not change in shape and will continue to break down proteins in the small intestine.
(B) Pepsin will not change in shape but may not work due to the basic environment of the small intestine.
Pepsin will change in shape because of the basic environment of the small intestine; therefore, its
(C)
enzymatic activity will decrease.
Pepsin will change in shape because of the presence of trypsin and chymotrypsin in the small intestine,
(D)
both of which act as competitive inhibitors.

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88. The coagulation cascade controls blood clot formation in response to blood vessel injury. Thrombin is an enzyme
that plays a key role in regulating the coagulation cascade. A simplified model of thrombin’s role in regulating the
coagulation cascade is represented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. A simplified model of thrombin’s role in regulating the coagulation cascade

Argatroban is a competitive inhibitor of thrombin. Which of the following effects on the coagulation cascade is
most likely to result from inhibiting thrombin activity with argatroban?
(A) The activation of clotting factors will be blocked.
(B) The rate of fibrin formation will decrease.
(C) Thrombin will be converted to prothrombin.
(D) The rate of blood clot formation will increase.

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89. Researchers determined the average amount of time that a particular type of eukaryotic cell spends in each phase of
the cell cycle. The data collected by the researchers are represented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. The average amount of time spent by a particular type of eukaryotic cell in each phase of the cell cycle

Based on Figure 1, what percent of the time required to complete a full cycle do the cells typically spend in
interphase?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

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90. A model of the plasma membrane showing several biological molecules, including a transmembrane protein, is
shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Phospholipid bilayer with transmembrane protein

Which statement best explains why correct protein folding is critical in the transmembrane protein shown above?
(A) Interactions of the hydrophobic and hydrophilic amino acids help to anchor the protein in the membrane.
Interactions of the peptide bonds of the protein with the membrane will affect the rate at which
(B)
substances can cross the membrane.
(C) Interactions of the protein and phospholipids increase membrane fluidity.
Interactions of the quaternary structure of the protein will increase hydrogen bonding in the membrane
(D)
and make the membrane less fluid.

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91. Researchers have proposed a model of the process by which a newly synthesized protein is transported to the
plasma membrane and secreted into the extracellular space. The model is represented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. A model of the intracellular transport of a newly synthesized secreted protein

Based on the model, the newly synthesized protein is transported directly from the endoplasmic reticulum to which
of the following?
(A) The nucleus
(B) The plasma membrane
(C) The Golgi complex
(D) The extracellular space

92. Researchers studying cell cycle regulation in budding yeast have observed that a mutation in the CDC15 gene
causes cell cycle arrest in telophase when the yeast cells are incubated at an elevated temperature. Which of the
following statements best predicts the effect of the cell cycle arrest on proliferating yeast cells?
(A) The yeast cells will transition out of but will fail to complete the phase.
(B) The yeast cells will initiate mitosis but will fail to complete the phase.
(C) The yeast cells will replicate their chromosomes but will fail to complete cytokinesis.
(D) The yeast cells will replicate their organelles but will fail to complete the S phase.

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93. A group of researchers cultured yeast cells in a nutrient-rich environment and a nutrient-poor environment and
observed the duration of the stages of their cell cycles. The results of their study are summarized in Table 1.

Table 1. Duration (in minutes) of yeast cell cycle phases in a nutrient-rich environment and a nutrient-poor
environment

Cell Cycle Stages Nutrient-rich environment Nutrient-poor environment

and 23 33
Mitosis 48 61
20 57
Cytokinesis 5 10

The cell cycle of yeast cells grown in the nutrient-poor environment is approximately what percent of the cell cycle
of yeast cells grown in the nutrient-rich environment?
(A) 168
(B) 127
(C) 179
(D) 160

94. An African violet grower observes that genetically identical African violet plants growing near the walls of the
greenhouse have white flowers, that plants growing farther away from the walls have pale blue flowers, and that
plants growing nearest the center of the greenhouse have dark blue flowers.

Which of the following best explains the differences in flower color of the African violets in the greenhouse?
(A) Warmer temperatures result in genotypic alterations, which result in flower color differences.
The plants along the walls of the greenhouse are homozygous recessive and therefore have white
(B)
flowers.
An enzyme responsible for flower color does not fold correctly in cooler temperatures, and the
(C)
greenhouse is warmest in the center.
More light is available along the walls of the greenhouse, so the flowers need less pigment to absorb
(D)
sunlight for photosynthesis.

95. Some scientists claim that amphibians are currently experiencing a period of mass extinction.

Which of the following should be included in an alternative hypothesis that would best support this claim?

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The current extinction rate of amphibians compared with the background rate of extinction as
(A)
determined by the fossil record
The extinction rate of amphibians in the century compared with the extinction rate of amphibians
(B)
during the century
The number of species of amphibians currently alive compared with the number of amphibian species
(C)
known to be extinct
The number of new amphibian species being discovered per year compared with the number of
(D)
amphibian species becoming extinct during the same time period

96.
A small number of lizards from a mainland population have been deposited on four isolated islands because of the
effects of a rare strong storm.

Which of the following best predicts the outcome of these lizards reproducing for many generations on the islands?
(A) Courtship rituals specific to each island lizard species prevent the lizards from interbreeding.
(B) Speciation results from bottleneck events that happened before the ancestral species reached the islands.
The different species that currently exist are the result of hybridization between lizards from different
(C)
islands.
(D) The isolation prevents gene flow; thus, the lizards on different islands experience prezygotic isolation.

97. Antigens are foreign proteins that invade the systems of organisms. Vaccines function by stimulating an organism’s
immune system to develop antibodies against a particular antigen. Developing a vaccine involves producing an
antigen that can be introduced into the organism being vaccinated and which will trigger an immune response
without causing the disease associated with the antigen. Certain strains of bacteria can be used to produce antigens
used in vaccines.

Which of the following best explains how bacteria can be genetically engineered to produce a desired antigen?
(A) The gene coding for the antigen can be inserted into plasmids that can be used to transform the bacteria.
(B) The bacteria need to be exposed to the antigen so they can produce the antibodies.
The of the antigen has to be transcribed in order for the produced to be inserted into the
(C)
bacteria.
(D) The of the antigen has to be translated in order for the protein to be inserted into the bacteria.

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98. Arsenic is a toxic element found in both aquatic and terrestrial environments. Scientists have found genes that allow
bacteria to remove arsenic from their cytoplasm. Arsenic enters cells as arsenate that must be converted to arsenite
to leave cells. Figure 1 provides a summary of the arsenic resistance genes found in the operons of three different
bacteria. E. coli is found in environments with low arsenic levels. Herminiimonas arsenicoxydans and
Ochrobactrum tritici are both found in arsenic‑rich environments.

Figure 1. Operons found in three selected bacteria for arsenic removal

Researchers claim that bacteria that live in environments heavily contaminated with arsenic are more efficient at
processing arsenic into arsenite and removing this toxin from their cells. Justify this claim based on the evidence
shown in Figure 1.
There are multiple operons controlling the production of proteins that process and remove arsenite from
(A) cells in both H. arsenicoxydans and O. tritici. In contrast, E. coli has only one operon devoted to arsenic
removal.
Both H. arsenicoxydans and O. tritici contain the gene that codes for a repressor that turns on the
(B)
operon to eliminate arsenite from the cell.
Both O. tritici and E. coli contain the gene, which codes for a protein that helps remove arsenite
(C)
from the cell.
(D) Both H. arsenicoxydans and O. tritici. have more arsenic resistance genes than has E. coli.

99. A current challenge for doctors involves the bacterial strain Clostridioides difficile, which no longer responds to
traditional antibiotic treatments.

Which of the following best explains why this particular strain of bacteria is resistant to antibiotic treatment?

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(A) Mutations creating new alleles occur more frequently in this species of bacteria than in other species.
(B) The bacteria have high genetic variability and high reproductive rates.
(C) Crossing over during meiosis increased genetic variability in the bacteria.
(D) The bacteria are able to recognize and destroy the antibiotics by breaking them down extracellularly.

100. Commercial bananas are grown as a monoculture, with all banana plants cloned from one original banana plant. The
commercial strains of bananas are seedless, so each new banana plant has to be manually planted from a cutting of
an existing banana root. In the 1950s, the Gros Michel banana strain, the dominant export banana at that time, was
destroyed by the fungus Fusarium oxysporum. A new Fusarium resistant variety, the Cavendish banana, was
developed and is currently the banana strain grown for export. Recently, a Fusarium strain that successfully attacks
the Cavendish strain has been documented.

Which of the following best provides reasoning supporting a method that would help protect commercial banana
crops from infection by pathogenic organisms such as Fusarium fungi?
The commercial banana strains should be exposed to -rays to encourage random mutations that will
(A)
then be passed to offspring, producing resistance to pathogenic organisms.
The Cavendish banana plants should be exposed to pathogenic organisms under controlled conditions,
(B)
so the plants can be encouraged to mutate and develop resistance to the pathogens.
The commercial banana strains should not be grown in monocultures, since many pathogenic organisms
(C)
are able to evolve rapidly in response to a single selective pressure.
Growing the Cavendish strain under different conditions will allow natural selection to produce the
(D)
variation needed to resist infection by pathogenic organisms.

101. Erwin Chargaff investigated the nucleotide composition of . He analyzed from various organisms and
measured the relative amounts of adenine ( ), guanine ( ), cytosine ( ), and thymine ( ) present in the of
each organism. Table 1 contains a selected data set of his results.

Table 1. Nucleotide composition of sample from selected organisms

Organism Relative Amounts of Bases

Octopus 33.2 17.6 17.6 31.6 35.2 64.8

Chicken 28.0 22.0 21.6 28.4 43.7 56.4
Rat 28.6 21.4 20.5 28.4 42.9 56.0
Grasshopper 29.3 20.5 20.7 29.3 41.2 58.6
Wheat 27.3 22.7 22.8 27.1 45.5 54.4

Which of the following statements best explains the data set?

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Since the and the add up to approximately 50 percent in each sample, adenine and guanine
(A)
molecules must pair up in a double-stranded molecule.
Since the and the are approximately the same in each sample, adenine and thymine molecules
(B)
must pair up in a double-stranded molecule.
Since the is greater than the in each sample, molecules must have a poly-
(C)
tail at one end.
Since the and the add up to approximately 50 percent in each sample, cytosine and thymine
(D)
molecules must both contain a single ring.

102. A model that represents a process occurring in a cell of a particular organism is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Process occurring in a cell

Which of the following correctly explains the process shown in Figure 1 ?

replication is occurring because replication is semi-conservative and the new strand is a copy of
(A)
the template strand.
Initiation of transcription is occurring because a strand of is being produced from a
(B)
template strand.
(C) Translation is occurring because the two strands have separated and a new strand is being produced.
Alternative splicing of is occurring because the strand is being synthesized from only
(D)
one strand of .

103. The bird, Parus major, is commonly found in man-made habitats. During the summer these birds primarily feed on
insects, and in the winter, when insects are scarce, they forage in gardens and bird feeders for seeds, nuts, and
berries. Recently, climate change has led to a decrease in food available from gardens, and scientists have observed
that the average beak length of the birds has increased.

Which of the following best explains the directional shift in beak length in these birds?
(A) Longer beaks allow the birds to better fend off predators.
(B) Longer beaks increase the fitness of the birds in wild habitats.
(C) Longer beaks allow the birds to better access seeds in bird feeders.
(D) Longer beaks decrease the fitness of the birds in wild habitats.

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104. In eastern gray squirrels, Sciurus carolinensis, the allele for black fur is dominant to the allele for gray fur .
In a particular population of gray squirrels, 64% have black fur and 36% have gray fur. A researcher calculated the
allelic frequencies to be and . Five years later, the researcher returned to the location and
determined the allelic frequencies within the squirrel population to be and .

Which of the following could best explain the increase in the frequency of the allele in the population after five
years?
(A) The frequency of the allele increased because it is the dominant allele.
(B) The frequency of the allele increased because squirrels with gray fur exhibited greater fitness.
(C) The frequency of the allele increased due to the selective pressures of the environment.
The frequency of the allele increased because black squirrels randomly mate with other eastern gray
(D)
squirrels.

105. A scientist studying phenotypic variation in a species of butterfly observed that genetically identical caterpillars
grown in similar cages but exposed to different colored lights developed into butterflies with differences in wing
color and body size, as shown in Table 1.

Table 1. Effect of Exposing Identical Caterpillars to Specific Colors of Light

Phenotype of Adult Caterpillars Exposed to Red Caterpillars Exposed to Blue

Butterfly Light Light
Wing color Darker Lighter
Body size Smaller Larger

Which of the following best explains the cause of the phenotypic variation observed in the butterflies?
(A) Different mutations occurred in the caterpillars that were exposed to different colors of light.
(B) The energy used to grow a larger body results in butterflies with lighter colored wings.
Individual caterpillars evolved adaptations to survive in each of the light conditions they were exposed
(C)
to.
There was differential gene expression of wing color and body size in response to the colors of light the
(D)
caterpillars were exposed to.

106. Paleoclimatic analysis has generated a claim that there is a possible correlation between an extinction event around
29 million years ago that allowed grasslands to become abundant and the adaptive radiation of several groups of
butterflies.

Which of the following proposes the best alternative hypothesis for the claim?

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Climate analysis conducted by sampling pollen preserved in amber shows an increase in grass pollen
(A) 29 million years ago, but there is no significant difference between speciation rate, as well as species
richness with regard to butterflies, before and after 29 million years ago.
Climate analysis conducted by sampling pollen preserved in amber shows an increase in grass pollen
(B) 29 million years ago, which indicates there was an increase in grasslands that correlates to an increase in
butterfly speciation during the same time period.
There is a correlation between the rapid and wide-ranging decrease in species richness of insects in
(C) general 29 million years ago and the increase in species richness and diversity among the butterfly
population during the same time period.
Evidence of rapid speciation among butterfly species 29 million years ago is evenly distributed among
(D)
all environments of that period.

107. A gene that influences coat color in domestic cats is located on the chromosome. A female cat that is
heterozygous for the gene ( ) has a calico-colored coat. In a genetics experiment, researchers mate a calico-
colored female cat ( ) with an orange-colored male cat ( ) to produce an generation. The researchers
record observations for the cats in the generation and plan to use the data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-
fit test for a model of -linked inheritance. The data for the chi-square goodness-of-fit test are presented in Table 1.

Table 1. Data for the chi-square goodness-of-fit test

Phenotype Genotype Observed Expected

Calico-colored female 15 10
Orange-colored female 6 10
Black-colored male 11 10
Orange-colored male 8 10

The researchers calculate a chi-square value of 4.6 and choose a significance level of . Which of the
following statements best completes the chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
(A) The null hypothesis can be rejected because the chi-square value is greater than the critical value.
(B) The null hypothesis can be rejected because the chi-square value is less than the critical value.
(C) The null hypothesis cannot be rejected because the chi-square value is greater than the critical value.
(D) The null hypothesis cannot be rejected because the chi-square value is less than the critical value.

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108. Researchers observed selected internal structures of four different microscopic organisms as part of a larger study
on the divergence between eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Their observations are recorded in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Selected cellular structures in four organisms

Which organism would the researchers most likely predict to be the most distantly related to eukaryotes?
(A) Organism I
(B) Organism II
(C) Organism III
(D) Organism IV

109. In humans, one allele of the gene, called , can result in a high tolerance of cholesterol.
Cholesterol is a vital substance for humans but may lead to heart disease in an older adult with a history of high
cholesterol diets. High cholesterol diets are becoming more prevalent in the United States. Currently only about 2%
of humans carry the allele.

Which of the following states a valid null hypothesis about the future distribution of alleles in future
generations in the United States?
The allele was the result of chance mutations so it is not possible to predict how its
(A)
frequency will change in the future.
As high cholesterol diets become more common in the United States, individuals with the
(B) allele will have a better survival rate from heart disease than those without the allele, so the allele will
increase in frequency.
The low frequency of the allele indicates it is probably a recessive allele, so it will become
(C)
less frequent as the dominant allele becomes more frequent.
The variant protects an individual from a condition that is only common among humans beyond
(D) reproductive age, so the frequency of the allele will likely not change much in the future because it is not
influenced by natural selection.

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110. Red-green color blindness in humans is caused by a recessive allele located on the chromosome. Figure 1 shows
the potential offspring of a female who is red-green color-blind and a male with full-color vision. All of the possible
male offspring would be color-blind, and all of the possible female offspring would have full-color vision.

If during the production of male gametes an error in meiosis occurred, sperm containing both an and a
chromosome could be produced.

Potential Offspring With No Error in Potential Offspring With Error in

Meiosis Meiosis

Figure 1. Possible offspring of a female who is red-green color-blind and a male who has full-color vision.

How would the extra chromosome affect the male offspring produced by the gamete?
None of the potential offspring would be male, because the potentially male zygote would have two
(A)
chromosomes, and the chromosome would be ignored.
The male offspring would all be red-green color-blind, because of interference from alleles on the
(B)
chromosome.
(C) The male offspring would have full-color vision, because of the presence of the extra chromosome.
There would be no change to the phenotypes of the possible offspring, because the extra chromosome
(D)
would not be active.

111. Students analyzed several photosynthetic eukaryotic organisms in the laboratory to determine their phylogenetic
relationships. The organisms were Spirogyra (a green alga), a moss, a spruce tree, and an apple tree. Table 1
compares several characteristics in the organisms ( indicates the trait is present, indicates the trait is absent).

Table 1. Characteristics present in four photosynthetic species

Green Alga Moss Spruce Tree Apple Tree

Cell wall composed of cellulose
Vascular tissue
Roots
Seeds enclosed in fruit
Flagellated sperm cells

Which of the following rows of data listed in table 1 best supports the possibility of a common ancestor for the
organisms listed there?

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(A) Vascular tissue

(B) Seeds enclosed in fruit
(C) Cell wall composed of cellulose
(D) Flagellated sperm cells

112. Two species of fish that live in extremely cold environments produce near-identical antifreeze glycoproteins, called
. Scientists have determined the origins of the gene in both species. Selected characteristics of the
two fish species are provided in Table 1.

Table 1. Characteristics of two fish species producing nearly identical antifreeze glycoproteins

Fish Species Order Location Evolutionary origin of the Gene

Boreogadus saida Gadiformes Arctic No sequence identity with trypsinogen
Dissostichus mawsoni Perciformes Antarctic Pancreatic trypsinogen

Based on the information in Table 1, which of the following statements best describes the production of nearly
identical in these two species of fish?
(A) The fish eat the same type of food, which resulted in the evolution of similar digestive proteins.
The fish live in environments with similar selective pressures, and those that produce are
(B)
better able to survive.
The Antarctic fish species evolved into a separate species after being geographically isolated from the
(C)
Arctic population because of commercial fishing.
(D) The production of similar was due to random splicing of exons in both species.

113. Female European corn borer moths (Ostrinia nubilalis) produce the sex pheromone tetradecenyl acetate (
), which attracts males of their species. can be produced in two forms, and , each with
a different three-dimensional shape. Researchers have discovered two different strains of the European corn borer
moth living in the same area. Females of the strain produce primarily the form of and females of
the strain produce primarily the form of . Males of both strains are more attracted to the form of
produced by the females of the same strain.

Which of the following best predicts a long-term effect of the differences between the and strains?
The difference between the forms of the sex pheromone produced by and strains will
(A)
act as a prezygotic reproductive barrier leading to sympatric speciation.
The difference between the forms of the sex pheromone produced by and strains will
(B)
act as a postzygotic reproductive barrier, leading to allopatric speciation.
Since the and strains are both part of the same species, they will produce fertile offspring, leading
(C)
to a single strain that produces both forms of .
Since the and strains are found in the same geographic area, they will hybridize, leading to a single
(D)
strain that produces the dominant form of .

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114.

Figure 1. Model of crossing over between homologous chromosomes, indicating crossing over rate of selected loci.

During prophase replicated homologous chromosomes pair up and undergo synapsis. What testable question is
generated regarding synapsis and genetic variability by Figure 1 ?
(A) Is the distance between two gene loci related to crossover rate?
(B) Does crossing over occur more often in some chromosomes than in others?
(C) Is crossing over inhibited by methylation?
(D) Is crossing over promoted by methylation?

115. Scientists have found that methylation suppresses crossing-over in the fungus Ascobolus immersus. Which of
the following questions is most appropriately raised by this specific observation?
(A) Is the level of genetic variation in the gametes related to the amount of methylation observed?
(B) Without crossing-over, will gametes be viable and be able to produce zygotes?
(C) Does methylation result in shorter chromosomes?
(D) Is this species of fungus a diploid organism?

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116. A model of a process involving nucleic acids is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Model of a process involving nucleic acids

Which of the following best explains what process is represented in Figure 1 ?

(A) New strands are being synthesized in the to direction from their templates.
(B) New strands are being synthesized in the to direction from their templates.
(C) A new strand is being synthesized in the to end from its template.
(D) Two new strands are being synthesized in both directions from their templates.

117. One of the oldest known mammalian fossils belongs to a small furry species, Hadrocodium wui, that lived 195
million years ago. For the following 100 million years, only a small number of groups of mammalian fossils are
found in the fossil record. By 65 million years ago, the nonavian dinosaurs were extinct. By 55 million years ago,
there were 130 mammal genera, including 4,000 different species that occupied a wide variety of habitats.

Which of the following best describes the cause of the rapid increase in the number of mammalian species between
65 and 55 million years ago?

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It took over 100 million years for enough random mutations to occur in the genomes of early mammals
(A)
to provide the variation needed for the observed speciation.
It took over 100 million years for the early mammals to disperse over a wide enough geographic area to
(B)
allow allopatric speciation to occur.
After the dinosaur extinction, many ecological niches became available, leading to the adaptive radiation
(C)
of mammals.
After the dinosaur extinction, mammal population sizes increased, allowing species to become more
(D)
easily detectable in the fossil record.

118. Figure 1 shows some relevant details of a model of how a deoxynucleotide, in this case , is added to a
growing strand of .

Figure 1. Model showing details of adding a deoxythymidine monophosphate ( ) nucleotide to a growing

strand of

The features of this model provide evidence for which explanation of why all growing strands are synthesized in a
to direction?
(A) The two strands need to be antiparallel to bond properly.
(B) Thymine and adenine would not bond properly if the strand grew from to .
The translation of occurs in the to direction; therefore, the growing strand must
(C)
also grow in the to direction.
The phosphate group, attached to the carbon of the , forms a covalent bond with the oxygen
(D)
atom attached to the carbon of the growing strand.

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119. African elephants, Loxodonta africana, are often hunted illegally for their tusks. Both male and female elephants
have tusks, although the tusks are much larger in the males. Researchers have followed the elephant population in
Gorongosa National Park in Mozambique for many years. Figure 1 shows the percent of tuskless female elephants
expected in wild populations throughout the species’ range, as well as the percent of tuskless females that survived
the hunting between 1977 and 1992 (those over 25 years old) and the percent of female elephants born after 1992
without tusks in the park. The data are based on 200 known female elephants in the park.

Figure 1. Comparison of the frequency of tuskless females by age cohort

Which of the following best describes the process responsible for the change in the percent of tuskless female
elephants in the Gorongosa National Park population shown in Figure 1 ?
(A) Human hunting of elephants with tusks between 1977 and 1992.
(B) Sexual selection for females without tusks between 1977 and 1992.
(C) Tusklessness in female elephants is a dominant trait that is only expressed in females.
After 1992, female elephants from neighboring populations merged, with the population in the park
(D)
adding more tuskless individuals to the population.

120. Histone methyltransferases are a class of enzymes that methylate certain amino acid sequences in histone proteins.
A research team found that transcription of gene decreases when histone methyltransferase activity is inhibited.

Which scientific claim is most consistent with these findings?

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(A) methylation inhibits transcription of gene .

(B) Histone modifications of genes are usually not reversible.
(C) Histone methylation condenses the chromatin at gene so transcription factors cannot bind to .
Histone methylation opens up chromatin at gene so transcription factors can bind to more
(D)
easily.

121. Researchers studying the evolutionary relationships of three species of snails collected the data shown in Table 1.

Table 1. Comparison of selected characteristics of three snail species

Species A Species B Species C

Location of Fossils North America North America Europe
Shell Orientation Counterclockwise Counterclockwise Clockwise
Shell Composition Calcium Carbonate Calcium Carbonate Calcium Carbonate
Trophic Level Carnivore Carnivore Detritivore

Analysis

Which of the following data sets is most likely to provide reliable information about the evolutionary relationships
among these three snail species?
(A) Shell composition and shell orientation
(B) Trophic level and analysis
(C) Location of fossils and shell orientation
(D) Shell composition and location of fossils

122. A scientist is attempting to provide support for the hypothesis that was the first genetic material. Which of
the following would be a workable alternate hypothesis?
, like , is a carrier of genetic information and contains the nitrogen bases adenine, guanine,
(A)
and cytosine.
can be observed to self-replicate without the assistance of proteins, while always requires
(B)
protein-based enzymes to replicate.
exists in both single-stranded and double-stranded configurations; however, it is less stable
(C)
compared with .
Transfer and ribosomal are products of transcription, but they are not translated as is
(D)
.

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123. Scientists investigated the role that beak depth plays in the ability of one species of seed-eating finch to reproduce.
The scientists calculated the average beak depth of finches in mating pairs and then observed whether or not the
pairs produced at least one offspring that survived to the next season. The data are represented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Beak depth and offspring survival in a species of finch

Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the following best describes the concept illustrated?
(A) Parental pairs with a specific beak depth had the highest reproductive fitness.
(B) Parental pairs with a specific beak depth ate the most nutritious seeds.
(C) Finches with a certain beak depth rarely find mates.
(D) Increasing average beak depth results in increasing finch fitness.

124. Researchers examined the ability of cultures of the bacterium Pseudomonas aeruginosa to adapt to the antibiotics
ceftazidime and avibactam when they are administered together. The researchers grew four replicate cultures in
growth medium with no antibiotics added (control) and four additional replicate cultures in the same growth
medium with added ceftazidime and avibactam. At the conclusion of the experiment, samples of the replicates
exposed to the antibiotics were removed and their genomes were sequenced. All of the antibiotic-resistant mutants
were missing three genes ( , , ). It is known that one of these three genes makes wild-type P.
aeruginosa susceptible to the two antibiotics. However, the researchers do not know which gene it is.

Which of the following experiments would specifically determine which gene is responsible for ceftazidime-
avibactam sensitivity in P. aeruginosa ?

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Clone the three deleted genes from a wild-type P. aeruginosa strain, and insert these sequences into the
(A)
mutant bacterial strains to restore sensitivity to ceftazidime-avibactam.
Delete genes that are homologous to the three deleted genes in other bacterial species, and determine if
(B)
doing so also confers ceftazidime-avibactam resistance in those bacteria.
Perform gene knockout (targeted mutation) of either the , , or gene on separate
(C) cultures of the wild-type P. aeruginosa. For each individual mutant, determine whether or not
ceftazidime-avibactam resistance has occurred.
Perform gene knockout (targeted mutation) of both the and genes of the wild-type P.
(D) aeruginosa in a single culture, and then determine if ceftazidime-avibactam resistance has occurred in
the mutant strain.

125. Over many years of a breeding program, a zoo has an established population of foxes that is well adapted for living
in captivity. A representative sample of wild foxes from the neighboring forest was used to start the zoo population.
A study was conducted to compare the behavior of the zoo fox population with the wild fox population in the
neighboring forest. The behaviors of equal numbers of foxes from each population were assessed. Each fox’s
behavior was scored on a continuum from docile to aggressive based on its interaction with a trained behaviorist.
The data is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Aggressive behavior in zoo and wild fox populations

The phenotypic variation in behavior between the two populations can best be described as resulting from
(A) sexual selection
(B) natural selection
(C) artificial selection
(D) genetic drift

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126. Finch beak depth was measured before and after a severe drought in 1977. The averaged results are shown in Figure
1. After the drought, there were fewer seeds available for the finches to eat and the seeds that did remain were larger
and harder to crack open. Researchers claim that when large, hard seeds are the predominate food source, the
average beak depth of these finches tends to increase in subsequent generations.

Figure 1. Finch beak depth before and after the 1977 drought

Using the evidence provided, which of the following best justifies the researchers' claim?
Finch beak depth increased after the drought because the overall numbers of finches decreased, reducing
(A)
competition for resources.
Finch beak depth increased as a consequence of selective pressure after the drought because the
(B)
remaining seeds were larger and harder.
Finch beak depth increased after the drought due to intraspecific competition since finches with deeper
(C)
beaks attract more mates.
Finch beak depth increased after the drought due to increased predation since finches with deeper beaks
(D)
can fight off predators more effectively.

127. Gaucher disease type 1 ( ) is a recessive genetic disease that affects 1 in 900 individuals in a particular
population. is caused by a mutation in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase.

Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, calculate the frequency of the wild-type (nonmutant)
allele for the enzyme glucocerebrosidase.
(A) 0.001
(B) 0.033
(C) 0.967
(D) 0.999

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128. Students subjected three samples of five different molecules to gel electrophoresis as shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Gel electrophoresis of three prepared samples

Which of the following statements best explains the pattern seen on the gel with regard to the size and charge of
molecules and ?
(A) Molecules and are positively charged, and molecule is smaller than molecule .
(B) Molecules and are positively charged, and molecule is larger than molecule .
(C) Molecules and are negatively charged, and molecule is smaller than molecule .
(D) Molecules and are negatively charged, and molecule is larger than molecule .

129. Which of the following statements best explains how a condition of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium results in a
population that exhibits stable allele frequencies (i.e., a nonevolving population) ?
(A) Large populations are not subject to natural selection.
(B) Random mating prevents gene flow from changing allele frequencies.
(C) Without migration or mutation, new alleles cannot be introduced to the population.
(D) In the absence of selection, allele frequencies in a population will not change.

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130. Dr. Robert Hazen has worked to develop a hypothesis that explains the origin of life on Earth. His work has focused
on hydrothermal vents, which are cracks in the ocean floor. Water heated by molten rock beneath the crust escapes
from these vents at very high temperatures, producing hot, high‑pressure environments at the vents on the ocean
floor.

In order to provide evidence that these vents may be areas where life originated, which of the following states a null
hypothesis Hazen might have used to begin his research?
Organic molecules were transported to the hydrothermal vents via a meteorite, thereby seeding them
(A)
with precursors for more complex molecules.
The temperatures and pressures found in hydrothermal vents resemble conditions described in currently
(B)
accepted origins of life hypotheses.
Organic waste sinking to the ocean floor would have used the unique hot water environment as an
(C)
energy source to begin manufacturing food.
Chemosynthetic organisms can best develop in the hydrothermal environment, manufacturing nutrients
(D)
for other living things to feed on.

131. In a large, isolated population of an insect species, a specific gene locus has one dominant allele and one
recessive allele . The genotype frequencies of the gene were collected for ten generations, as shown in Table 1.

Table 1. Genotypic frequencies over ten generations in an insect species

Generation 1 0.47 0.43 0.10

Generation 5 0.32 0.60 0.08
Generation 10 0.20 0.75 0.05

Which of the following could best account for the change in genotypic frequencies over the ten generations?
Because the allele is unstable, over the course of the study most of the alleles mutated to become
(A)
alleles.
The population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which allows for changes in genotypic frequencies
(B)
every generation.
(C) The population is not exhibiting random mating between individuals.
(D) The population is becoming extinct because the allele is disappearing.

132. In a long‑term study of a population of gray squirrels, researchers observed that most of the squirrels had gray fur.
However, there were some individuals in the population with white fur (albino). Genetic analysis revealed that the
albino condition is expressed by individuals who are homozygous recessive . Over a ten-year period, the
average frequency of albino squirrels in the population was 0.18. If the population is assumed to be in Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium, the average frequency of the dominant allele is closest to which of the following?

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(A) 0.42
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.58
(D) 0.75

133. Genetic engineering techniques can be used when analyzing and manipulating and . Scientists used gel
electrophoresis to study transcription of gene and discovered that strands of three different lengths are
consistently produced.

Which of the following explanations best accounts for this experimental result?
Gel electrophoresis can only be used with (not ), so experimental results are not
(A)
interpretable.
(B) polymerase consistently makes the same errors during transcription of gene .
(C) Gene is mutated, so polymerase does not always transcribe the correct sequence.
(D) Pre- of gene is subject to alternative splicing, so three sequences are possible.

134. A model showing two possible arrangements of chromosomes during meiosis is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Two possible arrangements of chromosomes during meiosis

Which of the following questions about genetic diversity could most appropriately be answered by analysis of the
model in Figure 1 ?

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(A) Does crossing-over generate more genetic diversity than the fusion of gametes does?
(B) Does methylation prevent independent assortment during metaphase ?
How does the independent assortment of the two sets of homologous chromosomes increase genetic
(C)
diversity?
(D) Do daughter cells that are not genetically identical to parent cells produce viable zygotes?

135. The Russian blue is a rare breed of cat that is susceptible to developing cataracts on the eyes. Scientists hypothesize
that this condition is inherited as a result of a mutation. Figure 1 shows a pedigree obtained in a study of cats owned
by members of the Russian Blue Club in Sweden.

Figure 1. Pedigree of Russian blue cats owned by Russian Blue Club

Based on the inheritance pattern shown in Figure 1, which of the following best predicts the nature of the original
mutation?
(A) A recessive mutation on the X chromosome
(B) A recessive mutation on a somatic chromosome
(C) A dominant mutation on the X chromosome
(D) A dominant mutation on a somatic chromosome

136. Many scientists claim that the synthesis of the first organic molecules from inorganic precursors was possible
because of the highly reducing atmosphere found on primitive Earth.

Which of the following is an appropriate null hypothesis that could be used when investigating the claim?

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(A) The level of atmospheric oxygen on modern Earth is significantly higher than on primitive Earth.
(B) Organic molecules were transported to primitive Earth by a meteorite or other celestial event.
The synthesis of organic molecules from inorganic molecules is possible under current atmospheric
(C)
oxygen levels as well as those found on primitive Earth.
The absence of a significant quantity of atmospheric oxygen is required for the synthesis of organic
(D)
molecules from inorganic precursors.

137. Insulin is a hormone produced by some pancreatic cells. Scientists have isolated the sequence that codes for
human insulin production.

Which of the following best predicts the effect of inserting this gene into the of a bacterial cell?
The recombinant bacterium will produce human insulin using its own transcription and translation
(A)
machinery.
The recombinant bacterium will not transcribe the human insulin gene because this gene is not normally
(B)
found in the bacterial genome.
(C) The recombinant bacterium will transcribe the gene but will be unable to translate the .
(D) The recombinant bacterium will die because it has been exposed to foreign .

138. The enzyme lactase aids in the digestion of lactose, a sugar found in the milk of most mammals. In most mammal
species, adults do not produce lactase. Continuing to produce lactase into adulthood in people is called lactase
persistence. A number of different alleles have been identified that result in lactase persistence. Figure 1 shows the
percentage of people in different geographic areas parts of the Old World that exhibit lactase persistence.

Figure 1. Distribution of lactase persistence in Europe, North Africa, and parts of Asia

Which of the following best explains the distribution of lactase persistence in the areas shown in Figure 1 ?

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(A) Lactase persistence developed because people were malnourished in Europe.

Lactase persistence alleles are present in all human populations and are expressed when lactose is
(B)
consumed.
Mutations conferring lactase persistence likely arose independently in different geographic areas and
(C)
offered a selective advantage.
The mutations that cause lactase persistence are detrimental to humans and will eventually disappear
(D)
from the gene pool.

139. In sweet pea plants, purple flower color is dominant over red flower color and long pollen grain shape is dominant
over round pollen grain shape. Two sweet pea plants that are heterozygous for both flower color and pollen grain
shape are crossed with one another. A geneticist is surprised to observe that there are far fewer round, purple
offspring and long, red offspring than were predicted by the expected phenotypic ratio.

Which of the following statements provides the most reasonable prediction to account for the deviation from the
expected results?
(A) In sweet pea plants, the gene for flower color and the gene for pollen grain shape are genetically linked.
(B) In sweet pea plants, the genes for flower color and for pollen grain shape both exhibit codominance.
Several mutations occurred spontaneously producing a deviation from the expected phenotypic ratios of
(C)
the offspring.
The genes for flower color and pollen grain shape are inherited independently because of the law of
(D)
independent assortment.

140. Both liver cells and lens cells have the genes for making the proteins albumin and crystalline. However, only liver
cells express the blood protein albumin and only lens cells express crystalline, the main protein in the lens of the
eye. Both of these genes have enhancer sequences associated with them.

The claim that gene regulation results in differential gene expression and influences cellular products (albumin or
crystalline) is best supported by evidence in which of the following statements?
(A) Liver cells possess transcriptional activators that are different from those of lens cells.
(B) Liver cells and lens cells use different polymerase enzymes to transcribe .
(C) Liver cells and lens cells possess the same transcriptional activators.
(D) Liver cells and lens cells possess different general transcription factors.

141. Low doses of antibiotics are often added to livestock feed to increase production. Studies have shown that bacterial
populations constantly exposed to the sublethal doses can evolve resistance to the antibiotics. A research group
claimed that when a population of bacteria are constantly exposed to sublethal doses of streptomycin, their fitness
declines due to the increased energy requirements for survival in the presence of the antibiotic. For subsequent
studies, the researchers wish to determine whether adding a low, sublethal dose of an additional antibiotic causes
further decline in the fitness of the bacteria.

Which of the following best represents the next step the researchers should take with respect to experimental
design?

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Group 1: high dose of streptomycin low dose of additional antibiotic

(A)
Group 2: low dose of streptomycin high dose of additional antibiotic
Group 1: low dose of streptomycin no dose of additional antibiotic
(B)
Group 2: low dose of streptomycin low dose of additional antibiotic
Group 1: no dose of streptomycin no dose of additional antibiotic
(C)
Group 2: low dose of streptomycin low dose of additional antibiotic
Group 1: low dose of streptomycin low dose of additional antibiotic
(D)
Group 2: high dose of streptomycin high dose of additional antibiotic

142. Hemoglobin is a highly conserved protein used by all mammals to transport oxygen. Table 1 was constructed by
comparing the amino acid sequence in the hemoglobin molecules from five different mammal species.

Table 1. Hemoglobin amino acid differences among five different mammal species

Species 1 Species 2 Species 3 Species 4 Species 5

Species 1 – 21 11 13 5
Species 2 – 18 17 20
Species 3 – 3 10
Species 4 – 12
Species 5 –

Which of the following best describes the importance of the number of amino acid differences indicated in Table 1
?
(A) They reflect the different environments where the organisms were captured.
(B) They reflect the number of base pair changes in the .
(C) They reflect random changes due to translation errors.
(D) They reflect the number of oxygen molecules each hemoglobin molecule carries.

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143. Scientists want to determine whether the rapid economic growth in China between 1950 and 2000 caused a mass extinction o
animal species during that time period. A mass extinction event is considered to occur when the rate of species extinction far
exceeds the background extinction rate. The scientists collected data on the number of extinctions of selected vertebrate spec
in China between 1950 and 2000, as shown in Table 1. Extinction rates were ascertained by measuring the average percent o
species lost .

Table 1. The average percent of extinctions of 252 protected vertebrate species in 2,365 counties in China from 1950
2000.

Amphibians and
Mammals Birds Background Rate
Reptiles
Average

Which of the following is the null hypothesis most relevant for evaluating the data in Table 1 ?
There is no significant difference between the extinction rate of animals between 1950 and 2000 in
(A)
China and the background extinction rate.
There is no significant difference between the extinction rates of mammals, birds, amphibians, and
(B)
reptiles in China.
There is a significant difference between the extinction rate for mammals in China and the background
(C)
extinction rate for mammals.
Because of climate change, habitat loss, pollution, and excessive exploitation of resources, China
(D)
experienced a mass extinction event between 1950 and 2000.

144. Table 1 shows the stage and number of cells and chromosomes per cell at the end of the stage in a
organism.

Table 1. Cell and chromosome count during selected phases of meiosis

Stage Number of Cells Number of Chromosomes per Cell

Prophase 1 24
Metaphase 1 24
Anaphase 1 24
Telophase 1 24
Beginning of Prophase 2 12

Which of the following statements correctly describes the chromosomes in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis
?

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Each daughter cell contains 12 chromatids. Each chromatid is one of two from a single chromosome
(A)
with the other one of the pair found in the other daughter cell.
Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Since the
(B) chromosomes were randomly divided, one daughter cell may contain both of a pair of homologous
chromosomes, while the other cell contains both of another pair of homologous chromosomes.
Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Each chromosome is
(C) one of a pair of homologous chromosomes from the parent cell, with the other homologue found in the
other daughter cell.
Each daughter cell contains 24 separate chromatids. Since every two chromatids were originally joined,
(D) forming one homologous chromosome, the number of chromatids is divided by two to determine the
number of chromosomes.

145. Both mitosis and meiosis begin with a parent cell that is diploid. Which of the following best describes how mitosis
and meiosis result in daughter cells with different numbers of chromosomes?
In mitosis, the chromosomes consist of a single chromatid, which is passed to two haploid daughter
(A) cells. In meiosis, the chromosomes consist of two chromatids during the first round of division and one
chromatid during the second round of division, resulting in two haploid daughter cells.
In mitosis, synapsis of homologous chromosomes results in four haploid daughter cells after one
(B) division. In meiosis, synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs during the second division and
results in four diploid daughter cells.
Mitosis produces one identical daughter cell after one round of division. Meiosis has two rounds of
(C) division and doubles the number of chromosomes in the second round of division, producing four
diploid cells.
Mitosis produces two identical diploid daughter cells after one round of division. Meiosis produces four
(D)
haploid daughter cells after two rounds of division.

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146. In order to determine the effects of age on the accumulation of mitochondrial mutations, mitochondrial
samples from young mice (3 months) and old mice (30 months) were observed for mutations.

Table 1. Number of mitochondrial mutations in base pairs

Mouse Young Old

A 1
B 1
C 3
D 2
E 4
F 10
G 15
H 12
I 9
J 11

Which of the following is a correct analysis of this data set?

There is an increase in the mean number of mutations for the two age groups of 9.0 mutations per
(A)
base pairs. This is more critical in male mammals since mitochondria are paternally inherited.
There is an increase in the mean number of mutations for the two age groups of 9.0 mutations per
(B)
base pairs. This is more critical in female mammals since mitochondria are maternally inherited.
There is an increase in the mean number of mutations for the two age groups of 9.2 mutations per
(C)
base pairs. This is more critical in male mammals since mitochondria are paternally inherited.
There is an increase in the mean number of mutations for the two age groups of 9.2 mutations per
(D)
base pairs. This is more critical in female mammals since mitochondria are maternally inherited.

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147. Figure 1 illustrates a model of the molecules involved in replication and their placement relative to each
other.

Figure 1. Model including molecules involved in replication

Which of the following correctly explains where replication will begin on the strand oriented ,
reading from left to right?
replication will be randomly initiated along the unwound portion of the strand since base
(A)
pairing will occur.
(B) replication cannot occur since there is already base pairing with the template strand.
replication will be initiated immediately to the left of the , since polymerase requires
(C)
an primer.
replication will be initiated at the site of the topoisomerase since that is where begins to
(D)
uncoil.

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Researchers were modeling the effects of repeated cycles of isolation with occasional interbreeding among five
hypothetical fish species (species A, B, C, D, and E) found in two separate lakes (lakes and ) that are occasionally
joined by flooding, as shown in Figure 1. The research team indicated that species A would be considered to be the single
common ancestor of species B, C, D, and E.

Figure 1. Current locations of populations of fish species A, B, C, D, and E

148. Which of the following mechanisms could most likely account for the origin of species in Lake ?
(A) Allopatric speciation
(B) Directional selection
(C) Stabilizing selection
(D) Sympatric speciation

149. Which of the following data could best support the claim that species B arose from a speciation event in Lake ?
(A) All of the fish species occupy the same niches in their respective lakes.
analysis shows fewer differences between species A and species B in Lake than between
(B)
species B and the populations in Lake .
(C) Species A and species B have similar body shapes due to convergent evolution in their habitats.
Individuals of species A from Lake can mate and produce viable offspring with individuals of species
(D)
A from Lake .

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150. Figure 1 illustrates the and chromosomes during meiosis and meiosis of normal spermatogenesis in a
mammal species.

Figure 1. and chromosomes during meiosis and meiosis

If the normal spermatogenesis is disrupted, the gametes can have different chromosomes than expected. Which of
the following is the most likely cause of one of the four gametes having two chromosomes and one having
neither an nor a chromosome?
(A) Nondisjunction of the chromosomes during meiosis
(B) Nondisjunction of both the and chromosomes during meiosis
(C) Nondisjunction of the chromosome during meiosis
(D) Nondisjunction of the chromosome during meiosis

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151. Nondisjunction during meiosis can negatively affect gamete formation. A model showing a possible nondisjunction
event and its impact on gamete formation is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Model of a nondisjunction event

Which of the following best describes the most likely impact on an individual produced from fertilization between
one of the daughter cells shown and a normal gamete?
Because nondisjunction occurred in anaphase , all gametes will be normal and the resulting individual
(A)
will be phenotypically normal.
Because nondisjunction occurred in anaphase , all gametes will have an abnormal chromosome number
(B)
and the individual will likely exhibit phenotypic evidence of the nondisjunction event.
Because nondisjunction occurred in anaphase , all gametes will be normal and the resulting individual
(C)
will be phenotypically normal.
Because nondisjunction occurred in anaphase , all gametes will have an abnormal chromosome
(D)
number and the individual will likely exhibit phenotypic evidence of the nondisjunction event.

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152. An experiment was performed to determine the mode of inheritance of two mouse genes, one for fur color and one
for fur length. It is known that black fur ( ) is dominant over white fur ( ) and that long fur ( ) is dominant over
short fur ( ). To determine how the genes are inherited, a cross was performed between two true-breeding mice, one
with long black fur and one with short white fur. Their progeny, the generation, all had long black fur. Five
male-female pairs were then crossed with one another. The generation phenotypes for each cross are shown in
Table·1.

Table 1. Number of generation phenotypes for five crosses

Phenotype Cross 1 Cross 2 Cross 3 Cross 4 Cross 5

Long black fur 6 5 5 6 7
Long white fur 1 1 0 2 2
Short black fur 0 2 1 1 1
Short white fur 2 3 3 2 2

Which of the following is the mean number per cross of generation offspring that are the result of crossing over?
(A) 1
(B) 2.2
(C) 2.4
(D) 5.8

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153. Figure 1 represents a metabolic process involving the regulation of lactose metabolism by E. coli bacteria. Lactose
is utilized for energy by E. coli when glucose is not present. Allolactose is an isomer of lactose that is in the
environment of these bacteria when lactose is present. The site prevents the binding of polymerase
when glucose is present in the environment. The , , and genes code for proteins needed for lactose
metabolism.

Figure 1. Model of lac operon, comparing repressed and active states

Which is a scientific claim that is consistent with the information provided and Figure 1 ?
(A) The presence of excess lactose blocks the functioning of polymerase in this operon.
(B) When bound to the operator, the repressor protein prevents lactose metabolism in E. coli.
(C) The binding of the repressor protein to the operator enables E. coli to metabolize lactose.
(D) Allolactose acts as an inducer that binds to the operator, allowing E. coli to metabolize lactose.

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154. Phytochromes are molecules that change light stimuli into chemical signals, and they are thought to target light-
activated genes in plants. A study was conducted to determine how certain cell proteins were made in a plant cell
using a phytochrome. Figures 1 and 2 represent findings from the study.

Figure 1. Phytochrome response to exposure to red light

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Figure 2. Phytochrome response to exposure to far‑red light

Use the response models shown in Figures 1 and 2 to justify the claim that phytochromes regulate the transcription
of genes leading to the production of certain cellular proteins.
When inactive phytochrome is activated by red light to become phytochrome , it is transported
into the nucleus where it binds to the transcription factor at the promoter. This stimulates
(A)
transcription, ultimately leading to protein production. Far-red light inactivates the phytochrome, which
will turn transcription off by not binding to .
Far-red light activates phytochrome , causing it to travel to the nucleus where it binds to at the
(B) promoter. This stimulates transcription, ultimately leading to protein production. Red light inactivates
the phytochrome, which will turn transcription off by not binding to .
, and not , is activated by red light, causing it to bind to the promoter and stimulate
(C)
transcription and translation of cellular proteins.
binds to the promoter only in the presence of red light and . Any time is bound to the
(D)
promoter, is transcribed, initiating transcription of various other proteins in the cell.

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155. Pigeons demonstrate sex determination, such that a genotype produces a male and a genotype
produces a female. The gene for feather color is located on the chromosome, and the red allele is dominant over
the brown allele. Three crosses between brown male pigeons and red female pigeons were performed, and the
results are shown below.

Table 1. Offspring from three separate crosses of a brown male pigeon and a red female pigeon

Number of Offspring
Phenotype Cross 1 Cross 2 Cross 3
Red 11 9 7
Brown 9 11 13

Which of the following is the mean number of male offspring produced by the three crosses?
(A) 27
(B) 20
(C) 11
(D) 9

156. Antibiotics can be used to kill the specific pathogenic bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, that causes
tuberculosis. The appearance of antibiotic-resistant strains has made it more difficult to cure M. tuberculosis
infections. These antibiotic-resistant bacteria survive and pass on the genes to their offspring, making the resistant
phenotype more common in the population.

analysis indicates that the genes for antibiotic resistance are not normally present in bacterial chromosomal
.

Which of the following statements best explains how the genes for antibiotic resistance can be transmitted between
bacteria without the exchange of bacterial chromosomal ?
(A) The antibiotic-resistant bacteria release a hormone that signals neighboring bacteria to become resistant.
(B) The genes for antibiotic resistance are located on a plasmid that can be passed to neighboring bacteria.
The antibiotic-resistant bacteria are the result of bacteria that specifically modify their own
(C)
chromosomal to neutralize the antibiotics.
The antibiotic alters the bacterial genome of each bacterium, which results in an antibiotic-resistant
(D)
population.

157. Which of the following statements best explains the structure and importance of plasmids to prokaryotes?

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Plasmids are circular, single-stranded molecules that transfer information from the prokaryotic
(A)
chromosome to the ribosomes during protein synthesis.
Plasmids are circular, double-stranded molecules that provide genes that may aid in survival of
(B)
the prokaryotic cell.
Plasmids are single-stranded molecules, which are replicated from the prokaryotic chromosome,
(C)
that prevent viral reproduction within the prokaryotic cell.
Plasmids are double-stranded molecules that are transmitted by conjugation that enable other
(D)
prokaryotic cells to acquire useful genes.

158. A student crosses a pure-breeding line of red-flowered poinsettias with a pure-breeding line of white-flowered
poinsettias. The student observes that all the plants in the generation have pink flowers. The student then crosses
the plants with one another and records observations about the plants in the generation. The student will use
the data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of incomplete dominance. The setup for the
student’s chi-square goodness-of-fit test is presented in Table 1.

Table 1. A chi-square goodness-of-fit test for incomplete dominance

Phenotype Observed Expected

Red flowers 64 56
Pink flowers 107 112
White flowers 53 56

The critical value for a chi-square test with a significance level of and 2 degrees of freedom is 5.99.
Which of the following statements best completes the student’s chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
(A) The calculated chi-square value is 1.53, and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
(B) The calculated chi-square value is 1.53, and the null hypothesis can be rejected.
(C) The calculated chi-square value is 98, and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
(D) The calculated chi-square value is 98, and the null hypothesis can be rejected.

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159. Molecular biologists are studying the processes of transcription and translation and have found that they are very
similar in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, as summarized in Table 1.

Table 1. Comparison of Selected Features of Transcription and Translation

Feature of Protein Synthesis Prokaryotes Eukaryotes

Transcription
polymerase Present Present
Synthesized Synthesized
Location Cytoplasm Nucleus
Translation
Large Ribosomal Subunit
Small Ribosomal Subunit
Present Present
Location Cytoplasm Cytoplasm

Based on the information in Table 1, which of the following best predicts a key difference in prokaryotes and
eukaryotes with regard to transcription and translation?
(A) The two processes will occur simultaneously in prokaryotes but not eukaryotes.
(B) Prokaryotic is shorter than eukaryotic .
(C) Eukaryotic contains more coding regions than prokaryotic .
(D) The processing of by eukaryotes is required for the to leave the nucleus.

160. Humans vary in their ability to taste the bitter chemical compound phenylthiocarbamide ( ). The taster
phenotype is dominant to the nontaster phenotype. Researchers tested the taster phenotype of individuals
from an isolated population. In the sample, 780 individuals were able to taste and 70 individuals were not
able to taste .

Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of the non-taster allele?
(A) 0.08
(B) 0.29
(C) 0.41
(D) 0.71

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161. Figure 1 compares two models of speciation, A and B.

Figure 1. A comparison of two speciation models

Which of the following best explains how the ecological conditions are likely to be different in the two models?
In model A the ecological conditions remain unchanged for long periods of time and then change
(A)
drastically; in model B the ecological conditions change drastically from generation to generation.
In model A the ecological conditions remain unchanged; in model B the ecological conditions change
(B)
gradually over long periods of time.
In model A the ecological conditions are changing drastically from generation to generation; in model B
(C)
the ecological conditions remain unchanged.
In model A the ecological conditions change gradually over a long period of time; in model B the
(D)
ecological conditions remain unchanged for long periods of time and then change drastically.

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162. In fruit flies, purple eyes and ebony body are traits that display autosomal recessive patterns of inheritance. In a
genetics experiment, students cross wild-type flies with flies that have purple eyes and ebony bodies. The students
observe that all the flies in the generation have normal eyes and a normal body color. The students then allow
the flies to mate and produce an generation. The students record observations about the flies in the
generation and use the data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of independent assortment. The
setup for the students’ chi-square goodness-of-fit test is presented in Table 1.

Table 1. The students’ chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of independent assortment

Phenotype Observed Expected

Normal eyes, normal body 187 171
Normal eyes, ebony body 49 57
Purple eyes, normal body 41 57
Purple eyes, ebony body 27 19

The students choose a significance level of . Which of the following statements best completes the next
step of the chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
(A) The calculated chi-square value is 2.11, and the critical value is 7.82.
(B) The calculated chi-square value is 2.11, and the critical value is 11.35.
(C) The calculated chi-square value is 10.48, and the critical value is 7.82.
(D) The calculated chi-square value is 10.48, and the critical value is 11.35.

163. Figure 1 represents part of a process that occurs in eukaryotic cells. There are untranslated regions ( ) in this
sequence.

Figure 1. Cellular process involving nucleic acids

Which of the following best explains the process represented by Figure 1 ?

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(A) The synthesis of in the to direction from

(B) The modification of a protein to produce a functional form of that protein
(C) The translation of an molecule into a polypeptide
(D) The enzyme-regulated processing of pre‑ into mature

164. Rock pocket mice live in the deserts of the American southwest. Ancestral pocket mice all had light-colored coats
that blended in with the region’s rocks and sandy soil, keeping the mice hidden from predatory owls. About 1.7
million years ago, a series of volcanic eruptions spewed out wide trails of black lava into the middle of rock pocket
mouse territory. Currently there are two color morphs of rock pocket mice: light-colored mice that are typically
found in habitats with sandy soil, and dark-colored mice that are typically found in habitats with dark-colored lava
rocks.

Which of the following best justifies the claim that alleles that may be adaptive in one type of environment can be
deleterious in another because of different selective pressures?
Light- and dark-colored mice survive in many environments because they are able to avoid predation by
(A)
moving into tunnels.
Light-colored mice are more likely to survive than dark-colored mice in habitats with lava rocks and
(B)
sandy soil.
Light-colored mice are significantly more susceptible to predation by owls in habitats with lava rocks
(C)
than in habitats with sandy soil.
Dark-colored mice are more likely to survive than light-colored mice in habitats with lava rocks and
(D)
sandy soil.

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165. Figure 1 illustrates processes related to control of transcription and translation in a cell.

Figure 1. Model of a relationship between a transcription factor and selected genes

Which of the following scientific claims is most consistent with the information provided in Figure 1 ?
(A) Gene codes for a transcription factor required for transcription of gene .
(B) A single transcription factor regulates transcription similarly, regardless of the specific gene.
(C) Transcription of genes , , and is necessary to transcribe gene .
(D) Different genes may be regulated by the same transcription factor.

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166. Students observed the distribution of different color phenotypes in northern ravine salamanders (Plethodon
electromorphus) before and after a spring flood. The data are shown in Table 1.

Table 1. Observed number of salamanders by phenotype before and after a spring flood

Salamander Distribution before the Salamander Distribution after the

Flood ( ) Flood ( )
Black phenotype 13 7
Dark-brown
25 14
phenotype
Light-brown
6 3
phenotype

Which of the following is an appropriate null hypothesis regarding the phenotypic frequencies of this population of
salamanders before and after the flood?
More black salamanders survived because they could better hide from predators on the dark muddy soil,
(A)
so the frequency of the black phenotype significantly increased in the population after the flood.
Fewer light-brown salamanders survived because they had a reduced chance of finding mates due to the
(B) high water levels, so the frequency of the light-brown phenotype in the population decreased after the
flood.
More dark-brown salamanders migrated to a new, drier area because of the flood and fewer of them
(C) remained in the original habitat, so the frequency of dark-brown salamander significantly decreased in
the population after the flood.
The proportions of black, dark-brown, and light-brown salamanders before and after the flood are not
(D)
significantly different, and any observed differences are due to random chance.

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Staphylococcus aureus is a pathogenic bacterium that can infect a wide range of host species, including humans. S. aureus
has a particular protein that binds with hemoglobin from the host organism. Hemoglobin is the iron-containing protein
used to transport oxygen in the blood. Since iron is important for growth, S. aureus have evolved the ability to absorb the
iron from the host's hemoglobin.

Different S. aureus strains preferentially infect different hosts and have different amino acid sequences at their
hemoglobin-binding domains (Table 1; letters indicate different amino acids). In an experiment, different S. aureus strains
were mixed with hemoglobin from macaque monkeys and their binding ability was measured (Figure 1). The differences
in amino acid sequences contributed to the differential binding abilities observed.

Table 1. Selected amino acid sequences and preferred host for four strains of S. aureus

S. aureus Strain Amino Acid Sequence Host Species

1 QQFYHYARS Species A
2 RQAYHYART Species B
3 QQAYHYART Macaque
4 RQAAHYQLT Species C

Figure 1. Macaque hemoglobin binding ability of different strains of S. aureus

167. Which of the following processes is most consistent with the differences in the amino acid sequences listed in Table
1?
(A) Each host transcribes and translates this gene differently.
(B) S. aureus develops a mutualistic relationship with each host species.
(C) Changes in amino acid sequence are unrelated to protein function.
(D) Each strain is best adapted to a specific host species.

168. Which of the following experiments would be most appropriate to determine whether populations of S. aureus are
continuously adapting in order to obtain iron from hosts more effectively?

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Grow S. aureus in media with macaque hemoglobin and abundant free iron. Record bacterial growth
(A)
over time and compare it to growth of the original population.
Culture S. aureus bacteria with hemoglobin from a mixture of host species. Then transfer the bacteria to
(B)
media with a known effective antibiotic and record bacterial growth.
Sequence the genes of different S. aureus strains and construct a cladogram representing their
(C)
relatedness.
Culture S. aureus bacteria with hemoglobin from a novel host species as the only source of iron for
(D) many generations, then compare protein structure from bacteria in this culture with bacteria from the
original culture.

169. Table 1 shows a trend of increasing milk yield for cows. Part of the increase in milk production can be attributed to
improved nutrition and health protocols for dairy cows.

Table 1. Average milk production per cow (in kilograms per cow per year)

Year Average Annual Milk Production( )

1924 2,300
1937 2,300
1950 2,600
1963 3,400
1976 4,800
1989 6,400
2002 8,400
2015 10,000

Based on the information provided, which of the following best describes the source of the rapid increase in milk
production from 1976 to 2015 ?
(A) From the 1970s to the early 2000s, dairy cows were not used for beef production.
Starting in the 1970s, farmers increased the selective breeding of cows and bulls for offspring that
(B)
produced more milk.
(C) Reproduction rates in cows and bulls increased significantly in the 1970s.
(D) Cows were healthier after the 1970s, so they lived longer and produced more milk during their lifetime.

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170. In fruit flies, sepia eyes and ebony body are traits that display autosomal recessive patterns of inheritance. To
investigate whether the traits are genetically linked, students cross wild-type flies with a line of flies that have sepia
eyes and ebony bodies. The students observe that all the flies in the generation have normal eyes and normal
bodies. The students allow the flies in the generation to mate and produce an generation. The students then
record observations for the flies in the generation and use the data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-fit test
for a model of independent assortment. The setup for the chi-square goodness-of-fit test is presented in Table 1.

Table 1. Setup for the students’ chi-square goodness-of-fit test

Phenotype Observed Expected

Normal eyes, normal body 231 279
Normal eyes, ebony body 86 93
Sepia eyes, normal body 97 93
Sepia eyes, ebony body 82 31

The students calculate a chi-squared value of 92.86 and compare it with a critical value of 7.82. Which of the
following best completes the chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
The null hypothesis cannot be rejected, and the students should conclude that the data fit a model of
(A)
independent assortment.
The null hypothesis cannot be rejected, and the students should conclude that the data may have resulted
(B)
from genetic linkage.
The null hypothesis can be rejected, and the students should conclude that the data fit a model of
(C)
independent assortment.
The null hypothesis can be rejected, and the students should conclude that the data may have resulted
(D)
from genetic linkage.

171. Australian dragon lizards have a sex-determination system. The male genotype is homogametic ( ), and the
female genotype is heterogametic ( ). However, all eggs incubated at temperatures above tend to develop
into females.

Which of the following best explains how the development of phenotypic female Australian dragon lizards with a
genotype occurs when incubation temperatures are above ?
(A) Lizard embryos with a genotype cannot develop at temperatures above .
(B) At incubation temperatures above , chromosomes are mutated into chromosomes.
At incubation temperatures above , crossing over transfers genes from the chromosome to the
(C)
chromosome, producing females.
Incubation temperatures above inhibit the genes on the chromosome that produce proteins
(D)
necessary for male development.

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172. A student carries out a genetics experiment with fruit flies to investigate the inheritance pattern of the white eye
trait. The student crosses a homozygous white-eyed female with a wild-type male and records observations about
the flies in the generation. The student plans to use the data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a
model based on an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. The student will use one degree of freedom and a
significance level of . The setup for the student’s chi-square goodness-of-fit test is presented in Table 1.

Table 1. Setup for the student’s chi-square goodness-of-fit test

Phenotype Observed Expected

Red-eyed female 53 50
White-eyed male 47 50

The student calculates a chi-square value of 0.36. Which of the following statements best completes the student’s
chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
(A) The critical value is 0.05, and the student cannot reject the null hypothesis.
(B) The critical value is 0.05, and the student can reject the null hypothesis.
(C) The critical value is 3.84, and the student cannot reject the null hypothesis.
(D) The critical value is 3.84, and the student can reject the null hypothesis.

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173. Sickle-cell anemia is an inherited blood disorder in which one of the hemoglobin subunits is replaced with a
different form of hemoglobin. Partial sequences of the gene for normal hemoglobin and for sickle-
cell hemoglobin are shown in Figure 1.

Partial sequence for normal hemoglobin:

Partial sequence for sickle-cell hemoglobin:

Figure 1. Comparison of partial sequences for normal hemoglobin and hemoglobin with a sickle-cell
mutation

Which of the following best describes the type of mutation shown in Figure 1 that leads to sickle-cell anemia?
(A) Insertion
(B) Deletion
(C) Substitution
(D) Frameshift

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174. Trisomy 21 is a condition in which a child is born with an extra chromosome in pair 21. Researchers assessed the
frequency of children born with trisomy 21 by age of the mothers at birth (maternal age) and primary cause of the
error leading to trisomy 21. The findings are presented in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Incidence and primary cause of trisomy 21 by maternal age-group

Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the following is most likely the primary cause of the pattern of frequency of
trisomy 21 births in the selected maternal age-groups?
At older maternal ages, there is an increase in the number of errors during mitosis, which leads to an
(A)
increase in nondisjunction during egg production.
The incidence of nondisjunction errors in meiosis during sperm production is positively correlated with
(B)
increasing maternal age.
At older maternal ages, the incidence of errors in meiosis during egg production increases, which leads
(C)
to an increase in nondisjunction.
Errors in meiosis leading to nondisjunction are more likely to occur during meiosis than during
(D)
meiosis .

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175. Figure 1 illustrates a process that occurs in a certain group of organisms.

Figure 1. Model of spliceosome activity

Which of the following best predicts the importance of this process?

This process is common to all members of Eukarya and allows noncoding regions of to be
(A)
removed so that proteins with the correct amino acid sequence are produced.
This process is common to all members of Archaea and allows these organisms to survive harsh
(B)
environments.
(C) This process is common to all organisms and is a conserved repair mechanism.
(D) This process is common to vertebrates and allows the production of large and complicated proteins.

176. Antibiotics interfere with prokaryotic cell functions. Streptomycin is an antibiotic that affects the small ribosomal
subunit in prokaryotes. Specifically, streptomycin interferes with the proper binding of to in
prokaryotic ribosomes.

Which of the following best predicts the most direct effect of exposing prokaryotic cells to streptomycin?
(A) Amino acid synthesis will be inhibited.
(B) No will be transcribed from .
(C) Posttranslational modifications will be prevented.
(D) Synthesis of polypeptides will be inhibited.

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177. Climate change is disrupting the length of winter in various ecosystems, resulting in less snowfall and milder
winters. Scientists in Finland have been observing the tawny owl, a fairly large owl species that is commonly found
in woodlands across much of Europe and Asia. Typically, the feathers of the upper body are either brown ( ) or
gray ( ). Scientists studying tawny owls in Finland have found that the percentage of tawny owls that have brown
feathers has increased over the past 28 years.

Which of the following best explains why the brown-feathered phenotype in tawny owls has increased over the past
28 years?
Since the brown genotype is dominant, it will eventually eliminate the recessive gray genotype from the
(A)
population.
(B) Darker feather color in tawny owls makes them less visible to predators as they sit in the trees.
(C) With milder winters, the advantage of gray feathers that blend into a snowy environment has decreased.
(D) The directional selection toward a darker phenotype is random and likely due to a bottleneck event.

178. Figure 1 represents part of a process essential to gene expression.

Figure 1. Model of process involved in gene expression.

Which of the following best explains what strand represents?

(A) A complementary sequence, because it contains thymine
(B) The coding strand in this process, because it is being read to
(C) The antisense strand, because it is serving as a template
(D) The pre‑ , because it does not yet have a cap

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179. The California newt, Taricha torosa, lives in the coastal areas around Los Angeles. Which of the following is a
valid null hypothesis relating fitness to survival of a bottleneck event in a coastal area where a small, isolated
population of California newts resides?
Only those salamanders with the lowest evolutionary fitness will be eliminated by the bottleneck effect,
(A)
lowering the allelic frequencies of their traits.
Only those salamanders with the highest evolutionary fitness will survive the bottleneck event, raising
(B)
the allelic frequencies of their traits.
Surviving the bottleneck event will be random, so any change in the allelic frequencies of the
(C)
salamander population is not attributed to fitness.
Surviving the bottleneck event will be random, so there will be no changes to the allelic frequencies due
(D)
to the bottleneck event.

180. In a strain of tomato plants, short plant height and small fruit size are traits that display autosomal recessive patterns
of inheritance. To investigate whether the traits segregate independently, researchers cross a pure-breeding line of
tall tomato plants that have large fruits with a pure-breeding line of short tomato plants that have small fruits. The
researchers observe that all the plants in the generation are tall and have large fruits. The researchers cross the
plants with one another to generate an generation. The researchers record observations for the generation
and will use the data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of independent assortment. The setup
for the chi-square goodness-of-fit test is shown in Table 1.

Table 1. Observed and expected counts of tomato plants in the generation

Phenotype Observed Expected

Tall plant with large fruits 104 90
Tall plant with small fruits 17 30
Short plant with large fruits 26 30
Short plant with small fruits 13 10

The researchers choose a significance level of . Which of the following best completes the chi-square
goodness-of-fit test?
The calculated chi-square value is 9.24, and the critical value is 7.82. The null hypothesis of independent
(A)
assortment can be rejected.
The calculated chi-square value is 9.24, and the critical value is 9.49. The null hypothesis of independent
(B)
assortment cannot be rejected.
The calculated chi-square value is 13.13, and the critical value is 7.82. The null hypothesis of
(C)
independent assortment can be rejected.
The calculated chi-square value is 13.13, and the critical value is 9.49. The null hypothesis of
(D)
independent assortment cannot be rejected.

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181. Nuclear pores regulate the passage of substances into and out of the nucleus. Antibodies such as have
been used to inhibit the movement of substances through the nuclear pores of rat liver cells. Scientists cultured rat
liver cells (eukaryotic) and bacteria cells (prokaryotic) in separate dishes with radioactively labeled amino acids. A
specific gene in both cell types was engineered to synthesize identical polypeptide chains, and translation of this
gene was measured. The procedure was repeated with (the inhibitor) added to each of the two cell
cultures, and translation was monitored again.

Which of the following sets of graphs best summarizes the results of the experiments?

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(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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182. Transposable elements are significant features in the genomes of almost all eukaryotic organisms. The accumulation
of these elements in various species can help determine their relatedness. Table 1 indicates the presence ( ) or
absence ( ) of 5 segments of that have been moved by transposition (transposons) in 6 primate species.

Table 1. Presence or absence of 5 transposons in primate species

Species 1 2 3 4 5
Human
Bonobo
Chimpanzee
Gorilla
Orangutan
Gibbon

Which of the following best predicts how phylogenetic relationships might be revised if transposon 1 was not found
in chimpanzees?
(A) Bonobos would be more closely related to humans than to chimpanzees.
(B) Chimpanzees would be more closely related to humans than to bonobos.
(C) Orangutans would be more closely related to humans than to chimpanzees.
(D) Chimpanzees would be more closely related to gibbons than to gorillas.

183. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a diploid yeast species that can reproduce either sexually or asexually. An experiment
was performed to induce mitotically dividing S. cerevisiae cells in to undergo meiosis. Which of the following
best describes the steps these cells will follow to form gametes?
The first division will result in crossing over between homologous chromosomes, and the second
(A)
division will reduce the original number of chromosomes by half in the daughter cells.
The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second
(B)
division will result in each daughter cell having one-fourth of the original number of chromosomes.
The first division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell, and the second division will double
(C)
the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell.
The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second
(D)
division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.

184. A population of 250 birds inhabit the canopy of a tropical rain forest that has a carrying capacity of 400 birds.

What is the maximum population growth rate if the population grows to 283 in one year?

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(A) 0.12
(B) 0.13
(C) 0.35
(D) 0.39

185. The deep ocean floor communities contain very little life. In constant darkness, the water at these depths hovers
around . Sparsely distributed in this environment are hydrothermal vent ecosystems. Superheated water streams
out of the vents at temperatures approaching . These waters are rich in inorganic materials, including carbon
dioxide and hydrogen sulfide. Hydrothermal vent zones have a density of organisms 10,000 to 100,000 times
greater than found on the surrounding seafloor.

Scientists have studied these vents to determine the energy source for these communities and the identity of the
primary producers in the perpetual darkness of the ocean floor. As expected, they found a total absence of
photosynthetic organisms at all vents, identifying mats of bacteria as the producers of the carbon compounds that
are used by the rest of the community for growth, repair, and as an energy source.

Which of the following describes how the vent bacteria harvest energy to produce organic compounds for use by
the vent community?
The bacteria use the heat from the hot water to assemble carbon-based materials from inorganic
(A)
molecules.
(B) The bacteria function as chemoautotrophs, extracting energy from hydrogen-rich inorganic molecules.
Organic matter drifting down from the ocean’s surface is used to make molecules with enough energy to
(C)
sustain the vent community.
The bacteria can recycle the energy from the waste products and dead material produced by the
(D)
heterotrophs of the vent community into energy-rich carbon compounds that can be recycled.

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186. Researchers studied the diversity of macroscopic invertebrates in different areas of watershed ecosystems. They
collected samples from 58 sites along 11 streams in the same geographical area. Their data were classified by
stream type and can be found in Figure 1. The stream-type classifications range from the perennial stream type,
which always has water, to the intermittent stream type, which is dry for more than nine months during the year.

Figure 1. Diversity of macroscopic invertebrates in different stream types. Error bars represent a 95% confidence interval
( two Standard Errors from the mean).

Which of the stream types had a statistically lower macroscopic invertebrate species diversity than the seasonal
streams?
(A) Transitional streams only
(B) Intermittent streams only
(C) Perennial and intermittent streams only
(D) Transitional and intermittent streams only

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187. Interactions among populations determine how they access resources within a community. In Costa Rica, two
different species of mites, Rhinoseius colwelli and Rhinoseius richardsoni, exhibit a high degree of interspecies
competition. Both mite species live within the flowers of plants, and adult male mites tend to kill mites if they
belong to a different species. An experiment was carried out to determine whether these aggressive interactions
have resulted in niche partitioning by R. colwelli and R. richardsoni, of different flower species, with each mite
species living in different plant species. The results are summarized in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Mite Habitat Preferences

Which of the following is an accurate interpretation of the data in Figure 1 ?

(A) R. richardsoni is found significantly more frequently on Species 4 compared to Species 3.
(B) R. colwelli is found significantly more frequently on Species 1 compared to Species 2.
R. richardsoni is found significantly more frequently on Species 3 and Species 4 compared to Species 1
(C)
and Species 2.
R. colwelli is found significantly more frequently on Species 3 and Species 4 compared to Species 1 and
(D)
Species 2.

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188. Phytoplankton (dashed line) are important because they occupy the bottom of the food web absorbing ,
functioning as a carbon sink. A scientist suggests that an El Niño event in early 1998 caused a significant decrease
in the abundance of phytoplankton that year in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.

Figure 1. Relative abundance of plankton over time in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean

Which of the following observations would best support this alternative hypothesis?
(A) Previous dips in plankton abundance coincided with other El Niño events.
(B) Primary consumers also experienced a dip in abundance in early 1998.
(C) After mid-1998, there is no correlation between phytoplankton and zooplankton abundance.
(D) levels in surface waters increased significantly in this region during 1998.

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189. In an experiment, three different animals were exposed to a series of environmental temperatures and their body
temperatures were assessed at multiple temperature points between 10 and 40 degrees Celsius. Ten different
individuals of each type of animal were included in the study to produce an average body temperature profile for
each type of animal. Figure 1 shows the data collected.

Figure 1. Effect of environmental temperature on body temperature of selected animals

Which of the following statements is most consistent with the data in Figure 1 ?
(A) Armadillos tend to be more metabolically active than either gerbils or snakes are.
(B) Armadillos cannot survive at environmental temperatures over .
(C) Snakes are found in terrestrial rather than aquatic environments.
(D) Snakes display behaviors that allow them to absorb or radiate heat as required.

190. A fish population of 250 in a pond has a maximum annual rate of increase of 0.8.

If the carrying capacity of the pond is 1,500 for this species, what is the expected population size after one year?
(A) 167
(B) 417
(C) 450
(D) 500

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191. Fur color is a genetically controlled trait in mice. A population of a species of mouse that typically lives in habitats
with light-colored soil was studied for several generations. The background color of the habitat of this population
became darker after the second generation due to human activity. A researcher sampled approximately 120 mice in
each generation and recorded the fur color phenotypes as shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Fur color phenotype distribution of mice over four generations

The researcher claims that there is no selective advantage to fur color, so light and dark fur color phenotypes are
present in similar frequencies in the fourth generation of this mouse population. Based on the data in Figure 1,
which of the following best evaluates this null hypothesis?
The null hypothesis is rejected, because the change to a darker background color led to an increase in the
(A)
dark-colored fur phenotype.
The null hypothesis is rejected, because there is no significant difference between the frequencies of the
(B)
two phenotypes right after the human-caused change to the habitat in the third generation.
The null hypothesis cannot be rejected, because there is no significant difference between the
(C) frequencies of the two phenotypes right after the human-caused change to the habitat in the third
generation.
The null hypothesis cannot be rejected, because the darker background color caused by the human-
(D)
caused change to the habitat led to a decrease in the light fur color phenotype.

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192. Scientists are studying the two primary vocalizations made by Belding’s ground squirrels (Urocitellus beldingi).
The trill call consists of a series of medium-pitched notes given rapidly, while the whistle call consists of a single
high-pitched note. The objective of the experiment is to determine the function of each vocalization. Recordings of
the calls were played to four different groups of squirrels, and the response of each individual squirrel was
documented. The responses are summarized in Table 1.

Table 1. Response of ground squirrels to recorded vocalizations

Which of the following correctly identifies the dependent variable and the independent variable for the experiment?
The independent variable is the percent of squirrels responding, and the dependent variable is the type of
(A)
alarm call.
The independent variable is the percent of squirrels responding, and the dependent variable is the type of
(B)
response.
The independent variable is the group of squirrels, and the dependent variable is the percent of squirrels
(C)
responding.
The independent variable is the type of alarm, and the dependent variable is the percent of squirrels
(D)
responding.

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193. In an experiment to determine the effect of light availability on species richness in an environment, a grassland was
divided into 26 plots that were assigned to one of two treatment groups:

1. Clipped – plots were mowed to simulate the grazing of herbivores that maintain the low height of grasses.

2. Enclosure – plots were enclosed in fences, and grasses were allowed to grow undisturbed to their maximum
height.

After eight years, data was collected on the amount of light penetration to the soil (bottom light density) and the
number of species in the two treatment groups. Figure 1 shows the averaged light penetration measurements, and
Figure 2 shows the averaged number of species per plot type.

Figure 1. Average bottom light intensity in clipped plots versus enclosed plots

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Figure 2. Richness comparison of two treatments

Which of the following statements is consistent with the data shown in the figures?
(A) Grazing activity in a field decreases the species richness of the field.
(B) Different patterns of energy availability in ecosystems will affect species richness.
(C) Forests that develop a closed canopy with a shaded floor will exhibit increased species richness.
(D) The enclosed plots are more efficient at capturing and distributing energy than the clipped plots.

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194. Zebra mussels are an invasive species that has become widely established throughout the United States. Figure 1
shows the percent change in the population sizes of selected groups of organisms in the Hudson River since the
introduction of zebra mussels. In this study chlorophyll-containing bacteria are considered phytoplankton and all
other bacteria are considered bacterioplankton.

Figure 1. Change in biomass of selected Hudson River organisms after the introduction of zebra mussels

Which of the following hypotheses about the effect of zebra mussels on the Hudson River community is best
supported by the data in Figure 1 ?
(A) Shoreline fish have replaced open water fish as top predators in a stable community.
(B) Zebra mussels have integrated into the existing community with little effect on the community stability.
The reduction in primary productivity has resulted in an unstable community that will eventually
(C)
collapse.
(D) Bacterioplankton have replaced phytoplankton as the energy harvesters in the community.

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195. Researchers were studying species diversity in a savanna rangeland community in southwest Queensland, Australia.
Researchers counted the numbers of plants species in four different categories at two nearby sites within the
savanna rangeland; one lightly grazed by herbivores and one heavily grazed by herbivores (Figure 1).

Figure 1. Plant species richness in lightly and heavily grazed savanna communities.

Which of the following best predicts the results of a drought in the savanna research area with regards to
community resilience to this environmental change?
The heavily grazed area is more likely to recover more quickly from the drought due to reduced
(A)
competition between species.
(B) The lightly grazed area is likely to recover more quickly from the drought due to greater biodiversity.
The lightly and heavily grazed areas are likely to recover at equal rates due to the overlapping categories
(C)
of plant species.
The lightly and heavily grazed areas are likely to recover at equal rates due to the similar climates and
(D)
locations.

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196. Potatoes as a food crop originated in South America. There are over 4,000 variations of potato grown there.
Potatoes were brought to Europe by Spanish colonists in the late 1500s. One variety became the chief crop grown in
much of Ireland by the early 1800s. Table 1 summarizes the spread of potatoes as a food crop.

Table 1. Spread of potatoes as food crop from origin in South America

Time Period Location Number of Potato Varieties Grown (approximate)

Pre–1567 South America 4,000
1567–1800 Europe 12
1840–1850 Ireland 1

The Irish Lumper variety of potato was introduced into Ireland in the early 1800s. The Lumper soon became the
only variety of potato grown in much of Ireland. The potato blight destroyed most of the Lumper crop between
1845 and 1852 resulting in the death of about 1 million Irish from starvation.

A researcher suggests that the Irish monoculture (growing a single crop) of the Lumper potato did not significantly
change the overall resistance of the potato crop in Ireland to diseases. Which of the following observations best
refutes this null hypothesis?
(A) Before the arrival of the potato blight, there were already two other potato plant diseases in Ireland.
The number of fatalities from the Irish potato famine was greater than the rest of the European countries
(B)
combined.
During the early nineteenth century, the vast majority of people in Ireland depended on the Lumper
(C)
potato for food.
Growing more varieties of potatoes increases competition for available resources, which may yield
(D)
fewer potatoes.

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197. A group of biologists were investigating the effects of light color on phototropism (growing toward the light source)
in tomato plants. Four groups of tomato plants were grown in the same greenhouse under identical conditions. Each
group was then placed in a different room, each room having a different color of light, exposed to that single color
of light from different directions for one week at a time. After each week, the biologists counted the number of
tomato plants in the groups that were showing evidence of phototropism. The results are summarized in Table 1.

Table 1. Phototropic responses of plants to different colors of light

Which of the following correctly identifies the dependent and independent variables in this experiment?
The color of the light is the dependent variable, and the percentage of plants showing phototropism is
(A)
the independent variable.
The percentage of plants showing phototropism is the dependent variable, and the color of the light is
(B)
the independent variable.
The direction of the light is the dependent variable, and the percentage of plants showing phototropism
(C)
is the independent variable.
(D) The color of the light is the dependent variable, and the direction of the light is the independent variable.

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In the Florida Everglades, Burmese pythons are an invasive species. They were introduced into southern Florida in 1992.
These pythons feed on many of the native Florida species, establishing the pythons as the top predator in the environment.
By the year 2000, their population had increased dramatically.

Figures 1 and 2 display data collected by ecologists studying the results of the Burmese python invasion. Figure 1 shows
counts of animals collected from nighttime road surveys in southern Florida, which are used to estimate population size.
Figure 2 shows data collected from mosquitoes captured from the wild. sequencing was used to identify the species
of blood that the mosquitoes had in their stomachs, identifying various hosts used by the mosquitoes.

Figure 1. Comparison of observations of selected mammals in 1996 and 2011

Figure 2. Change in host preference by Culex cedecei between 1979 and 2016. Numbers do not add up to one hundred
percent because these represent a subset of all the host species.

In 1996, the native Culex cedecei mosquitoes in southern Florida preferentially took blood meals from white-tailed deer
and raccoons. It was predicted that changes in host population size would alter these host preferences. Additionally, it is
known that cotton rats are often infected by the Everglades virus, which normally exists in animals, but is capable of
infecting humans. Ecologists predict that increased feeding on cotton rats by C. cedecei may significantly increase the
tendency of this virus to infect humans.

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198. Which of the following most accurately explains an impact of Burmese pythons on the Everglades community in
southern Florida using the data provided?
(A) Python parasitism has reduced the population of white-tailed deer and raccoons.
(B) Python predation has caused a trophic cascade that changed the mosquitoes’ niche.
(C) Pythons have a mutual symbiosis with cotton rats, allowing their population to increase.
(D) Intraspecific competition for food between white-tailed deer and raccoons has increased due to pythons.

199. Which of the following populations have significantly decreased in size between 1996 and 2011 ?
(A) White-tailed deer only
(B) Cotton rats and rabbits only
(C) White-tailed deer and raccoons only
(D) White-tailed deer, raccoons, and cotton rats

200. Based on the data, which of the following most accurately matches a potential change with its predicted effects on
the southern Florida ecosystem?
Introduction of a new top predator species that preys solely on Burmese pythons would cause an
(A)
increase in the raccoon population.
(B) If the population of Burmese pythons were to decrease, then the cotton rat population would increase.
If more Burmese pythons are introduced in the Everglades, then mosquitoes will begin feeding on white-
(C)
tailed deer frequently again.
Introduction of a new snake species that competes with the Burmese python for food would lead to an
(D)
increase in the white-tailed deer population.

201. Scientists hypothesize that the invasive Burmese pythons are responsible for recent increases in human Everglades
virus infections. Evaluate this alternate hypothesis using the data provided.
The alternate hypothesis is supported because invasive Burmese pythons caused an increase in the
(A) mosquito population. This enabled them to transmit the Everglades virus at a higher frequency if they
were infected.
The alternate hypothesis is supported because the invasive Burmese pythons caused mosquitoes to
(B) switch to feeding on cotton rats. This means that mosquitoes are more likely to carry the Everglades
virus when they bite humans.
The alternate hypothesis is refuted because humans are used as hosts for only a small percentage of
(C)
mosquito feedings. Humans therefore will not have an increase in Everglades virus infection.
The alternate hypothesis is refuted by the data because the population of cotton rats increased. Since
(D)
there are more cotton rats, they will contain the Everglades virus and prevent it from infecting humans.

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202. Quorum sensing is a form of cell-to-cell communication used by some bacterial species to regulate their behavior
and population size. Staphylococcus aureus uses quorum sensing to activate its virulence genes once its population
reaches a minimum size. Virulence refers to the ability of a pathogen to cause disease.

S. aureus secretes autoinducing peptide , which binds to the receptor on the bacterial cell membrane.
When the S. aureus population is sufficiently large and produces enough , this concentration activates
and stimulates a signal cascade resulting in the production of hemolysin, a toxin used to attack the host organism. In
order to lessen the impact of the toxin produced by an S. aureus infection on patients, scientists created
mimics intended to act as competitive inhibitors of binding at the cell surface.

Figure 1. cascade producing hemolysin toxin

Identify the experimental design that would determine which mimic would most effectively inhibit the
production of hemolysin toxin.
Grow S. aureus in separate culture media containing one mimic each and measure the amount of
(A)
mimic transported into the cells. The most effective mimic will be absorbed the fastest.
Grow S. aureus in separate culture media containing one mimic each and measure the production
(B) of hemolysin toxin. The most effective mimic will be in the culture producing the lowest amount
of hemolysin.
Grow S. aureus in culture media containing hemolysin and measure the production of mimic in
(C)
response to hemolysin intake. The most effective mimic will be produced in the highest amount.
Grow S. aureus in separate culture media containing one mimic each and measure the amount of
(D)
live cells in each culture. The most effective mimic will be the one that killed the most S. aureus.

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203. The population of Japanese sika deer in central Japan was determined each year from 2005 to 2014. The sika deer
population underwent logistic growth starting at 26,000 deer in 2005 and stabilized at 58,000 deer between 2012
and 2014. Based on these data, the for this population was determined to be 0.57. Central Japan contains a
variety of habitats, including forests and grasslands. Sika deer benefit from the resources in grasslands more than
forests; if deforestation occurred, producing more grasslands in the region, the carrying capacity for sika deer
population would increase.

What would the population size of sika deer be one year after the carrying capacity increased to 70,000 as a result
of deforestation? Assume does not change.
The population would grow to 70,000 deer in a year, because they would occupy the entire
(A)
environmental niche.
The population would grow to 91,060 deer in a year, but then they would die off from a lack of
(B)
resources.
The population would grow to 63,667 deer in a year, and the growth rate would decrease the following
(C)
year.
(D) The population would remain at 58,000 deer, since it had already stabilized.

204. Figure 1 shows the changing pattern of human population sizes in rural and urban areas from 1960 to 2016 with
regard to the global population.

Figure 1. Comparison of population size in urban and rural areas from 1960 to 2016

A scientist interested in investigating how human population trends might affect local animal species’ richness
stipulates a null hypothesis that animal biodiversity in rural areas will be unaffected in the future by the human
population trends shown in Figure 1. Which of the following would best refute this null hypothesis?

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(A) More rural areas will become available for animal habitats over time.
(B) Urbanization causes habitat fragmentation.
(C) Urbanization decreases the per person fossil fuel use in urban areas.
(D) Water in urban areas is treated before it is released into the rivers that flow into rural areas.

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