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Practice and Class Questions

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9 views46 pages

Practice and Class Questions

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abhishek.p6296
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
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Q.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding New Development Bank
(NDB)?
1. It is also known as BRICS bank with headquarters in Beijing.
2. Egypt and Uruguay have been admitted as prospective members of NDB.
3. The membership is open to all members of UN, in accordance with provisions of Articles
of Agreement of NDB.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c)3 only
(d)2 and 3

Answer (c)

Q. With reference to BRICS, consider the following statements:


1. The inaugural BRIC Summit took place in Yekaterinburg (Russia).
2. Its ‘Contingent Reserve Arrangement’ (CRA) provides short-term liquidity support to the
member countries to mitigate the BoP crisis situation.
3. As a part of the Fortaleza Declaration, the BRICS countries agreed on creating the New
Development Bank.
4. Since its inception, India has hosted BRICS Summit only twice.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Answer (c)

Q Which of the following countries is/are the members of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organization as well as BRICS?
1. India
2. Iran
3. China
4. Russia
Select the correct answer using the code give below:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Answer (d)
Q. With reference to Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following
statements:
1. It is an intergovernmental organisation with its headquarters located in Shanghai.
2. Iran accepted as its permanent member during Samarkand summit of 2022.
3. India participated for the first time as a full member at Ufa Summit 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer (a)

With reference to Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), Consider the following


statements:
1. India is a founding member of SCO.
2. Regional anti-terrorism structure (RATS) is an initiative of SCO.
3. SCO Secretariate is situated in Samarkand, Uzbekistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

Answer (a)

Consider the following statements regarding OIC (Organization of Islamic Cooperation)?


1. The organization was setup in 1969 after summit in Morocco
2. The decisions regarding membership and granting of observer status are taken by
majority.
3. The headquarters of the organization is in Jeddah.

Which of the following statements are correct:


(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer (b)

Consider the statements regarding Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):


1. It is an intergovernmental organization with headquarters at Baghdad.
2. It is the second largest organization after the United Nations.
3. It endeavours to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of
promoting international peace.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Answer (b)

Q. Which of the following is/are Non-OPEC oil producing countries?


1. Russia
2. Iran
3. Oman
4. South Sudan
5. Venezuela
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

Answer (b)

Consider the following statements regarding The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
Countries (OPEC):
1. It is a permanent, intergovernmental Organization, created at the Baghdad Conference.
2. It established OPEC fund as a multilateral development finance institution to fund
member countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

Q. Consider the following statements Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity


(IPEF):
1. The IPEF member countries together represent 40% of the global GDP.
2. It provides flexibility to members to either join or not join different pillars under it.
3. The U.S. Department of Commerce is spearheading different pillars under it.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer (b)

Q. Consider the following statements regarding Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT):
1. It is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, whether for military or peaceful
purposes.
2. For the treaty to enter into force, it must be signed and ratified by 44 specific nuclear
technology holder countries known as Annex 2 countries.
3. Though all the Annex 2 countries have signed the treaty few countries are yet to ratify the
same.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer (b)

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Nuclear Suppliers group?
1. It is a multilateral export control regime that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation.
2. It is popularly also known as London Club.
3. There are two-set of guidelines under it which are binding on members.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Answer (c)

Consider the following statements Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile
Proliferation (HCOC):
1. It is the only normative instrument to verify the spread of ballistic missiles.
2. The Code does not call for the destruction of any missiles
3. It is meant to supplement Missile Technology Control Regime and the membership is
restricted to its members.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Answer (b)

Q. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Wassenaar Arrangement ?


1. It is a multilateral export control regime on transfers of conventional arms and dual-use
goods and technologies.
2. It operates on a voluntary basis and decisions are made by consensus.
3. India and China were the latest addition to the arrangement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Answer (b)

Consider the following statement regarding Arms trade Treaty:


1. It regulates the international trade in conventional arms.
2. Both India and China have ratified the treaty.
Which of above statement is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Paris Club?


1. It is a formal group of mostly western creditor countries.
2. It was established via Rome statute.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)
Consider the following statements regarding iCET:
1. The aim is to expand strategic technology partnerships and defence industrial
cooperation between India and the US.
2. It will be spearheaded by department of science from respective countries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

Consider the following statements regarding International criminal police organization


(INTERPOL) ?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization coordinating with police force of 194 countries.
2. India has been a founding member of INTERPOL.
3. NIA is designated as National Central bureau of India.
Which of the following statements are incorrect:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 only

Answer (d)

India is not a founding member of Interpol, it joined the organisation in 1949. Interpol was
founded in 1923.

Metaverse initiative for law enforcement was recently launched by which international
Organisation?
(a) NATO
(b) EUROPOL
(c) INTERPOL
(d) Law Enforcement Intelligence Unit

Answer (c)

Consider the following statements regarding International Monetary Fund (IMF):


1. The organisation was established in the aftermath of Great Depression.
2. IMF funds come from member quotas, multilateral and bilateral borrowing agreements.
3. IMF uses Special Drawing Right as a loan facility to fund member countries foreign
exchange reserve.

How Many of the above statements are correct:


(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer (b)

With reference to Financial Stability Board (FSB), consider the following statements:

1. It was established in 2009 at G20’s Pittsburg summit as a successor to Financial Stability


Forum.
2. It has launched Extractives-Led Local Economic Diversification (ELLED) program in
collaboration with United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
3. It is hosted and funded by the International Monetary Fund.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer (a)

Q. With reference to United Nations Security Council (UNSC), consider the following
statements:

1. All the member states of United Nations are obligated to comply with Council’s decisions.
2. A retiring non-permanent member is eligible for immediate re-election.
3. India has been a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council for eight terms.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer (b)
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Financial Intermediary Fund?
1. It is a fund for pandemic prevention, preparedness and response.
2. It will provide long-term financing to low- and middle-income countries.
3. The World Health Organization will provide the secretariat for the fund.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

Answer (b)

Q. Consider the following statement regarding UNITE AWARE:


1.India and UN have launched technology platform to ensure the safety and security of
peacekeepers.
2. It will be rolled out at all the UN Peacekeeping missions that are currently operational.
Which of the following statement is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

With reference to UN Global Counter Terrorism Strategy, consider the following


statements:
1. It was adopted by all the UN member states by consensus in 2006 to counter terrorism.
2. The General Assembly reviews the Strategy every two years, making it a living document
attuned to Member States’ counter-terrorism priorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

Q. Consider the following statements regarding Raisina Dialogue:


1. It is a premier conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics to discuss challenging issues
facing the global community.
2. The dialogue has participation from South Asian head of states only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

Q. Consider the following statements regarding Southern African Development Community:


1. It aims to achieve economic development, peace and security of the peoples of
Southern Africa.
2. Recently India Exim Bank has concluded a Master Risk Participation Agreement for
with FirstRand Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

BAPA+40 was in news recently, it is related to:


(a) International law on the manipulation of sports competitions signed between countries.
(b) Cyber-Security initiative of European Union.
(c) UN Conference on South-South Cooperation.
(d) Guideline for countries to deal with the issue of dwindling wages of workers, inflation
and unemployment.

Answer (c)

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Currency Monitoring List?
1. It is a biannual report released by the United States Treasury Department.
2. Once on the list a country remains there for at least two consecutive reports.
3. India along with China have been removed from the list recently.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Answer (b)
Q. ‘Stone Ghost’, sometimes seen in news, is

(a) a ransomware which attacked banking apps.


(b) an anti-drone system indigenously developed by DRDO.
(c) a nuclear warhead deployed by China in Indian Ocean.
(d) a secret database for intelligence sharing.

Answer (d)

Q. With reference to World Food Price Index, consider the following statements:
1. It is a measure of the annual change in international prices food commodities which is
released by Food and Agriculture Organization.
2. Sugar price is one of the sub index included in the World Food Price index.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (b)

Q. With reference to the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO), consider the
following statements:

1. It is a self-funded agency of the United Nations for intellectual property (IP) services.
2. It releases the Global Innovation Index annually to rank economies on the Innovation
Index.
3. United Nations Economic and Social Council is its parent organisation.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer (c)
Q Which of the following is/are the Organs of the United Nations?
1. Economic and Social Council
2. International labour organization
3. World health organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

Answer (a)

Q Which of the following statements is/are correct about the UNSC?


1. All five permanent members have exercised the right of veto at one time or another.
2. A permanent member can exercise veto by abstention.
3. As compared to other organs of United Nations, only the Security Council has the power
to make decisions that member states are obligated to implement under the UN Charter.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

Answer (b)

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Interim Security Force:
1. It was established by United nations security council for Abyei region.
2. It is funded through same account as that of general assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

Q Consider the following statements regarding UN peacekeeping Force:


1. It is guided by the principles of consent, impartiality and non-use of force.
2. Decisions about establishment, maintenance operations are taken by UN general
assembly.
3. The first two peacekeeping operations deployed by the UN are still operational.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

Answer (b)

Q. The term “provisional measure of Protection” sometimes seen in the news is related to
which of the following?
(a) UN Security Council
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) World Trade organization
(d) International labour Organization

Answer (b)

Consider the following statements:


1.The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is one of the specialised agencies of the United
Nations.
2.The ICJ can only deal with a dispute when the States concerned have recognized its
jurisdiction.
3.The ICJ can use its jurisdiction to look into a war crime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Answer (a)

Q. Consider the following statements regarding International Court of Justice (ICJ):


1. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
2. Its advisory proceeding is available only to general assembly and security council of UN.
3. It is allowed to investigate and rule on acts of sovereign States.
Which of the following statement is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer (a)
Q. With reference to UN human rights council (UNHRC); consider the following statements:
1. Members of the council serve for a period of three years and are not eligible for
immediate re-election after serving one term.
2. The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) solely based on information provided by the State
under review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (d)

Q “Build Back better” world is an initiative of which of the following?


a) United Nations
b) G7
c) G20
d) World bank

Answer (b)

With reference to Group of Seven (G7) consider the following statements:


1. Most of the G7 countries had high levels of gross debt.
2. The permanent secretariat of G7 is located in Paris.
3. Recently a “pandemic fund” was introduced for pandemic prevention and response by
G7.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer (b)

Q. Crypto- Asset Reporting Framework (CARF)’ is recently seen in the news is formulated by
which of the following groupings?
(a) European Union (EU)
(b) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
(c) Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
(d) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

Answer (a)
Which of the following statements are correct regarding North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(NATO)?
1. It works on the principle of collective defence.
2. For accession of new members, it follows an open door policy
3. The accession protocol need to be ratified by exiting member states by majority.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

Answer (a)

Q. Consider the following statements:


1. Israel shares its land border only with two countries.
2. Both Israel and Palestine are part of the Levant region.
3. Rafah is the only crossing point between Egypt and the Gaza Strip.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
 The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term referring to a large area in
the Eastern Mediterranean region of West Asia. It includes present-day Israel,
Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Palestinian territories and most of Turkey, south-west of
the middle Euphrates.
 The Rafah border crossing between the Gaza Strip and Egypt has opened for the first
time since the Israel- Hamas war broke out in early October, 2023. The crossing is
the main entrance and exit point to the tiny
 Palestinian enclave from Egypt.

Q. With reference to the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), consider the following
statements:
1. It is mandatory for the member states of the IORA to adhere to the principles enshrined
in the Charter of
the Association.
2. The secretariat of the IORA is hosted by the Government of the Republic of Mauritius.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA):
 It is an intergovernmental organization of the states on the rim of the Indian Ocean.
 It was established in 1997 with an aim to strengthen regional cooperation and
sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region.
 The IORA’s apex body is the Council of Foreign Ministers (COM) which meets
annually.
 The Council of Ministers has established a ‘Troika’ consisting of the chair, vice-chair
and previous chair.
 All sovereign states of the Indian Ocean Rim are eligible for the membership of the
Association.
 To become members, the states must adhere to the principles and objectives
enshrined in the Charter of the Association.
 The Secretariat of the IORA is hosted by the Government of the Republic of
Mauritius, which is based in the Cyber City, Ebène (Mauritius).

Note: Pakistan is not a member of the IORA.

Q. With reference to the World Health Organization (WHO), consider the following
statements:
1. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations, working to improve public health at the
global level.
2. It launched an ambitious initiative the Triple Billion targets to eliminate polio by 2023.
3. Its headquarter is situated at Geneva (Switzerland).
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
The World Health Organization (WHO):
 Founded in 1948, WHO is a United Nations agency that connects nations, partners
and people to promote health, keep the world safe and serve the vulnerable – so
everyone, everywhere can attain the highest level of health.
 The Triple Billion targets are an ambitious initiative to improve the health of billions
by 2023.
 The goals of the Triple Billions are simple and straightforward. By 2023, WHO
proposes to achieve: (a) 1 billion more people benefitting from universal health
coverage; (b) 1 billion more people better protected from health emergencies; and
(c) 1 billion more people enjoying better health and well-being.
 Its headquarter is situated at Geneva (Switzerland).
Q. With reference to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961, consider the
following
statements:
1. It was drafted under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The premises of the diplomatic missions and the private residence of the diplomats
cannot be searched
by the host country without the permission of the head of the mission.
3. All the members of the United Nations are party to the Vienna Convention.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961:
 It is an international treaty which puts forth a framework for diplomatic interactions
between independent nations and aims to ensure the ‘development of friendly
relations among the nations.’
 It is fundamental to the conduct of foreign relations and ensures that the diplomats
can conduct their duties without threat of influence by the host government.
 It was drafted under the aegis of the United Nations.
 The premises of a diplomatic mission (including the private residence of the
diplomats) are inviolable and must not be entered by the host country, except by the
permission of the head of the mission. The diplomats must not be liable to any form
of arrest or detention.
 The diplomats are immune from the civil and criminal jurisdiction of the host state,
with exceptions for professional activities outside the diplomat's official
functions.

Note: South Sudan is not a party to the Vienna Convention.

Q. Consider the following statements:


1. The World Bank draws its financial resources primarily from the quota subscriptions of its
members.
2. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) exclusively admits the countries that are the
members of UN
Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific.
3. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) was proposed by China to improve the
economic and
social outcomes in Asia.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
 The World Bank acquires most of its financial resources by borrowing on the
‘international bond market’.
 The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) was proposed by China to improve
the economic and social outcomes in Asia.
 The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank, established in
1966, which is headquartered in Manila (Philippines). The Bank admits the members
of the UN Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and
non-regional developed countries.
Note: It is the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which acquires most of its funds from the
quota subscriptions of its members.

Q. With reference to the Solomon Islands, consider the following statements:


1. It is located in the south-western region of the Pacific Ocean.
2. It consists of a double chain of volcanic islands and coral atolls in Melanesia.
3. India has set-up a permanent military base in the Solomon Islands to counter China’s
‘String of Pearls’
strategy.

How many of the above statements are correct?


A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
About the Solomon Islands:
 The Solomon Islands is a country in the south-western Pacific Ocean.
 It consists of a double chain of volcanic islands and coral atolls in Melanesia.
 The country comprises most of the Solomons chain— except for Buka and
Bougainville, two islands at the north-western end that form an autonomous region
of Papua New Guinea.
 Once a British protectorate, the Solomon Islands achieved independence as a
republic in 1978.
 Honiara, on the north coast of the Guadalcanal Island, is Solomon Islands’ capital and
the largest city.
Note: There is no military base set-up by India in the Solomon Islands.

Q40. With respect to the UN Convention against Transnational organised crimes (UNTOC),
consider the following statements:
1. It was the first international convention to fight transnational organized crime,
trafficking of human beings, and terrorism.
2. India has signed but not ratified the convention.
3. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) acts as custodian of the
UNTOC and its protocols.
4. Its decisions are legally binding on its member countries.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Answer: C
Explanation:
UN Convention against Transnational organised crimes (UNTOC):
 It is also called the Palermo Convention, which was adopted in 2000 as a multilateral
treaty against transnational organized crime.
 Its decisions are legally binding on the member states.
 India has signed and ratified the convention.
 The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) acts as custodian of the
UNTOC and its protocols.

Q41. ‘Camp David Accords’ sometimes mentioned in news, is associated with


A. a pair of interim agreements for the safe transportation of grain and foodstuffs from
Ukrainian ports.
B. resolution of disputed islands between China and Philippines.
C. extraction of critical mineral resources from Arctic Sea.
D. framework for a peace in the Middle East region.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Camp David Accords were a series of agreements negotiated between Egypt, Israel and
U.S. in 1978. These accords laid the groundwork for peace between Egypt and Israel, which
had been in a state of conflict since the establishment of the state of Israel in 1948.

Q42. With reference to the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC),
consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent and intergovernmental organization created by the Baghdad
conference.
2. Approval of a new member country requires agreement by three-quarters of OPEC's
existing members, including all of the founding members.
3. The OPEC Fund for International Development is the only globally mandated
development institution that provides financing from member countries to non-member
countries exclusively.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC):
 It is an organization enabling the co-operation of leading oil-producing countries in
order to collectively influence the global oil market and maximize profit.
 It was founded, in 1960, in Baghdad by the first five members (Iran, Iraq, Kuwait,
Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela).
 The OPEC Fund for International Development (the OPEC Fund) is the only globally
mandated development institution that provides financing from member countries
to non-member countries exclusively.
 Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
 OPEC has 12 member countries: five in the Middle East (West Asia), six in Africa, and
one in South America.
 Approval of a new member country requires agreement by three-quarters of OPEC's
existing members, including all five of the founders.

Q43. With reference to the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS),
consider the following statements:
1. It was established by Government of fifteen West African Countries by the signing of
Treaty of Lagos.
2. It aims to create a single, large trading bloc through economic cooperation.
3. The Authority of Heads of State of ECOWAS is the supreme institution of the
Community whose decisions are binding on the community.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS):
 The Heads of State and Government of fifteen West African Countries established
the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) when they signed the
ECOWAS Treaty (Treaty of Lagos) in 1975 in Lagos, Nigeria.
 The only Arabic-speaking Member Mauritania withdrew in 2000. Mauritania
recently signed a new associate-membership agreement in 2017.

 It was set up to foster the ideal of collective self-sufficiency for its member states.
As a trading union, it is also meant to create a single, large trading bloc through
economic cooperation.
 Headquarters: Abuja, Nigeria.
 It aims to promote co-operation and integration, leading to the establishment of an
economic union in West Africa in order to raise the living standards of its peoples,
and to maintain and enhance economic stability, foster relations-among Member
States and contribute to the progress and development of the African continent.
 The Authority of Heads of State and Government of ECOWAS is the supreme
institution of the Community and is composed of Heads of State and/or Government
of Member States. Decisions of the Authority are binding on the Member States
and Institutions of the Community.

Q44. With reference to the India-ASEAN (The Association of Southeast Asian Nations)
relations, consider the following statements:
1. A Free Trade Agreement between India and the ASEAN was signed in 2009.
2. India has a favourable trade balance with the ASEAN.
3. India is a member of the ASEAN Regional Forum.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ASEAN (The Association of Southeast Asian Nations) –India Free Trade Agreement
(AIFTA):
The initial Framework Agreement was signed in 2003 in Bali (Indonesia) and the final
Agreement was signed in 2009. It came into effect in 2010.
The 10 member ASEAN region accounted for 11.3% of India’s global trade in 2022-23. The
ASEAN-India trade took over a decade to double the value of trade. The bilateral trade was
$57 billion in 2010-11, when the Free Trade Agreement (FTA) came into effect, and rose to
$131 billion, only in 2022-23. While India’s exports to the ASEAN increased from $ 25.63
billion in 2010-11 to $ 43.51 billion in 2022-23, its imports also increased from $ 30.61
billion to $ 87.59 billion in the same periods.
India’s trade balance with the ASEAN has deteriorated after the implementation of the
FTA. India’s trade deficit with the region was $7.5 billion per annum and after the pact, it
has ballooned to $43.57 billion in FY 23. This indicates that the ASEAN has gained a trade
surplus on the current account, and India has witnessed a trade deficit.
Established in 1994, the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) is an important platform for security
dialogue in the Indo-Pacific. It provides a setting in which the members can discuss current
security issues and develop cooperative measures to enhance peace and security in the
region.
The ARF is characterized by consensus-based decision-making and frank dialogue.
It comprises 27 members:
 The 10 ASEAN member states [Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia,
Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam];
 10 ASEAN Dialogue Partners [Australia, Canada, China, the European Union (EU),
India, Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea (ROK), Russia and the United
States];
 Bangladesh, the Democratic People's Republic of Korea, Mongolia, Pakistan, Sri
Lanka, Papua New Guinea and Timor-Leste.
Q45. Consider the following statements with reference to the International Criminal Police
Organization (INTERPOL):
1. The National Investigating Agency is the National Central Bureau for INTERPOL in
India.
2. In the New Delhi Session of INTERPOL, ‘Metaverse’, designed for law enforcement
worldwide, was launched.
3. ‘Red Notice’ is issued to provide warning about a person’s criminal activities.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
The International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL):
It is an intergovernmental organization, formed in 1923, which facilitates worldwide police
cooperation and crime control. The General Assembly is its governing body. In each country,
a National Central Bureau (NCB) provides the central point of contact for the General
Secretariat and other NCBs. An NCB is run by the national police officials.
The headquarter of INTERPOL is situated at Lyon (France).
India’s Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the National Central Bureau for INTERPOL in
India and coordinates all international police cooperation requirements of the Indian law
enforcement agencies, via INTERPOL channels.
India, which joined INTERPOL in 1949, had hosted the 90th INTERPOL General Assembly in
Delhi, in October, 2022. Significant resolutions passed at the meeting included those aimed
at strengthening the collaborative response to disrupt financial crime and corruption,
combating the menace of online child sexual exploitation and promoting diversity within the
INTERPOL itself. INTERPOL’s first ‘Global Crime Trend Report’ was released.
The global police organization at the New Delhi session, unveiled the first ever Metaverse,
specifically designed for law enforcement worldwide. Fully operational, the INTERPOL
Metaverse allows the registered users to tour a virtual facsimile of the INTERPOL General
Secretariat headquarter in Lyon (France), without any geographical or physical boundaries,
interact with other officers via their avatars, and even take immersive training courses in
forensic investigation and other policing capabilities. The INTERPOL Metaverse is provided
through the INTERPOL Secure Cloud, ensuring its neutrality.
INTERPOL notices are the international requests for cooperation or alerts allowing the police
in the member countries to share critical crime-related information.
Red Notice: To seek the location and arrest of the persons wanted for prosecution or to
serve a sentence.
Yellow Notice: To help locate the missing persons, often minors, or to help identify the
persons who are unable to identify themselves.
Blue Notice: To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location or activities
in relation to a criminal investigation.
Black Notice: To seek information on unidentified bodies.
Green Notice: To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is
considered to be a possible threat to public safety.
Orange Notice: To warn of an event, a person, an object or a process representing a serious
and imminent threat to public safety.
Purple Notice: To seek or provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices and
concealment methods used by the criminals.
INTERPOL – United Nations Security Council Special Notice: Issued for entities and
individuals who are the targets of the UN Security Council Sanctions Committees.

Q46. Consider the following statements:


1. Article 99 of the United Nations Charter mandates the Secretary General to bring to
the notice about any matter threatening international peace.
2. Article 41 of the United Nations Charter authorizes the Security Council to imposed
sanctions on the nations in case of ‘Act of Aggression’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
The United Nations Charter: It is the founding document of the United Nations, which was
signed on 26th June, 1945, in San Francisco, at the conclusion of the United Nations
Conference on International Organization.
The UN Charter is an instrument of international law, and the UN Member States are bound
by it.
The UN Charter codifies major principles of international relations, from sovereign equality
of the States to the prohibition of use of force in international relations.
The International Court of Justice, the principal judicial organ of the UN, functions in
accordance with the Statute of the International Court of Justice, which is annexed to the
UN Charter, and forms an integral part of it.
Article 99 of the UN Charter states that, “The Secretary General may bring to the attention
of the Security Council any matter which, in his opinion, may threaten the maintenance of
international peace and security.”
Chapter VII of the Charter: Action with Respect to Threats to the Peace, Breaches of the
Peace, and Acts of Aggression. In this chapter, Article 41 authorizes the Security Council to
impose measures not involving the use of armed forces. In some cases, the Security Council
can resort to imposing sanctions or even authorize the use of force to maintain or restore
international peace and security.
The Security Council may decide what measures, not involving the use of armed force, are
to be employed to give effect to its decisions, and it may call upon the Members of the
United Nations to apply such measures. These may include complete or partial interruption
of economic relations and of rail, sea, air, postal, telegraphic, radio, and other means of
communication, and the severance of diplomatic relations.
All members of the United Nations agree to accept and carry out the decisions of the
Security Council.
While other organs of the United Nations make recommendations to the Member States,
only the Security Council has the power to make decisions that the Member States are then
obligated to implement under the Charter.

Q47. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘European Union’:
1. Croatia and Ukraine are the new members of the European Union.
2. To become a member of the European Union, the country must fulfill the
‘Copenhagen Criteria’ of 1993.
3. France and Germany were the founding members of the European Union.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ukraine and Moldova both applied to join the European Union (EU) in February, 2022, after
Russia launched its full-scale invasion of Ukraine.
The European Union (EU):
It is a political and economic union of 27 European countries.

The Maastricht Treaty of 1993 laid the foundation of the European Union.
Belgium, France, West Germany, Italy, Luxembourg and the Netherlands were the founding
members of the EU.
It was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2012, for its contribution to the advancement of
peace and reconciliation, democracy and human rights in Europe.
The United Kingdom became the only country to leave the EU in 2023.
Certain criteria must be met for accession. These criteria (known as the Copenhagen
Criteria) were established by the Copenhagen European Council in 1993 and strengthened
by the Madrid European Council in 1995.
The criteria are:
Stability of institutions guaranteeing democracy, the rule of law, human rights and respect
for and protection of the minorities.
Functioning market economy and the ability to cope with competitive pressure and market
forces within the EU.
The ability to take on the obligations of membership, including the capacity to effectively
implement the rules, standards and policies that make up the body of EU law (the ‘acquis’),
and adherence to the aims of political, economic and monetary union.

Q48. Regarding the ‘Financial Stability Board’, consider the following statements:
1. It has released the ‘Crypto-asset Intermediaries Report’ to regulate the multi-
function crypto-asset intermediaries (MCIs) operating globally.
2. The Financial Stability Board was established by the Group of Seven (G7)
intergovernmental forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Financial Stability Board (FSB)’s latest report on ‘Crypto-asset Intermediaries’ sought
measures to enhance cross-border cooperation and information sharing among the local
authorities. This is to effectively regulate and address the gaps in the multi-function crypto-
asset intermediaries (MCIs), operating globally.
The report highlights potential risks associated with the MCIs that combine different
activities within the platform. This subjects them to structural vulnerabilities, amplified by
“lack of effective controls and operational transparency, poor or no disclosures, and
conflicts of interest.”
The report defines the MCIs as individual firms, or groups of affiliated firms that offer a
range of crypto-based services, products and functions, which primarily revolve around
operating of the trading platform. The examples include Binance, Bitfinex and Coinbase. In
the traditional financial landscape, the functions are provided by separate entities, instead
of the same entity. This prevents potential conflict of interest and promotes market
integrity, investor protection and financial stability.
The Financial Stability Board:
It is an international body that monitors and makes recommendations about the global
financial system.
It was established in 2009 (at G20’s Pittsburg Summit) as the successor to the Financial
Stability Forum (FSF).
It promotes international financial stability. It does so by coordinating the national financial
authorities and the international standard-setting bodies, as they work towards developing
strong regulatory, supervisory and other financial sector policies. All G20 countries are its
members.
It is hosted and funded by the Bank for International Settlements. The Board is based in
Basel (Switzerland), and is established as a ‘not-for-profit association’ under the Swiss law.

Q49. Consider the following statements:


1. Saudi Arabia, Eritrea, Ethiopia and Yemen are the countries sharing border with the
Red Sea.
2. The Red Sea is an inlet of the India Ocean, connected through the Bab-el-Mandeb
Strait and the Gulf of Aqaba.
3. The Sinai Peninsula is located to the south of the Red Sea.
How many of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation:

The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. Its
connection to the ocean is in the south, through the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait and the Gulf of
Aden.
It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal. It is bordered with Saudi
Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea and Djibouti.
Jordan shares boundary with the Red Sea through the Gulf of Aqaba.
To the north of the Red Sea, lies the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of
Suez (leading to the Suez Canal). It is underlain by the Red Sea Rift, which is part of
the Great Rift Valley.
The Sinai Peninsula, is a peninsula in Egypt, and the only part of the country located in
Asia. It is between the Mediterranean Sea to the north and the Red Sea to the south, and
is a land bridge between Asia and Africa.

Q50. With reference to the ‘Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons’ (NPT),
which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Under the Treaty, only NPT nuclear weapon states can have nuclear material and
technology for civilian and defense purposes.
B. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), entrusted with the key verification
responsibilities, is a party to the Treaty.
C. The Comprehensive Safeguards Agreement (CSA) is required to be signed only by the
nuclear weapon state, party to the Treaty.
D. India, Pakistan and Israel never joined the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear
Weapons (NPT).
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (also known as the Nuclear Non-
Proliferation Treaty, or NPT) is an international agreement designed to prevent the spread
of nuclear weapons, promote cooperation between the states on peaceful uses of nuclear
energy and advance nuclear disarmament. The NPT was opened for signature in 1968, and
the Treaty went into force in 1970. 191 countries are now a party to the NPT. The Treaty’s
term was originally 25 years, but it was extended indefinitely at a review conference in
1995.
The NPT distinguishes between ‘nuclear weapons states’ (NWS) and ‘non-nuclear weapons
states’ (NNWS). The nuclear weapons states are the five states that possessed nuclear
weapons when the Treaty was signed in 1968: The United States, the Soviet Union, the
United Kingdom, France and China. The Russian Federation replaced the Soviet Union as an
NWS after the disintegration of the Soviet Union. Independent former Soviet states have
joined the NPT as NNWS. With the exception of the five states recognized as NWS in the
Treaty, the states may only join the NPT as NNWS.
Non-Proliferation: The NPT prohibits the NNWS from developing or acquiring nuclear
weapons, and prohibits the NWS from transferring nuclear weapons or control of such
weapons to the non-nuclear states. The NWS are also prohibited from assisting,
encouraging, or inducing the NNWS to attain nuclear weapons.
Peaceful Use: The NPT allows for the exchange of nuclear material, technology and
expertise to the NNWS for use in civilian nuclear programmes, as long as they do not
develop nuclear weapons. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) monitors non-
nuclear weapons states’ civil nuclear programmes to ensure that they are not developing
nuclear weapons.
While the IAEA is not a party to the NPT, it is entrusted with key verification
responsibilities under the Treaty. Each non-nuclear weapon State party is required to
conclude a Comprehensive Safeguards agreement (CSA) with the IAEA to enable the IAEA to
verify the fulfilment of their obligation under the Treaty, with a view to preventing diversion
of nuclear energy from peaceful uses to nuclear weapons or other nuclear explosive devices.
Four UN member states have never accepted the NPT, three of which possess or are
thought to possess nuclear weapons: India, Israel and Pakistan. In addition, South Sudan,
founded in 2011, has not joined. North Korea joined the NPT in 1985, but withdrew in 2003.

Q1. Consider the following statements:


1. Only three Indian States share land border with Bhutan.
2. Assam shares the longest land border with Bhutan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
 The Bhutan–India border is an open international border, separating the Kingdom
of Bhutan from the Republic of India. The border is 699 km long, and adjoins four
Indian States, viz., Assam (267 km), Arunachal Pradesh (217 km), West Bengal (183
km) and Sikkim (32 km).
 Both nations have committed to move forward with the construction of a 58 km
cross-border railway connection, linking Gelephu in Bhutan and Kokrajhar in Assam.

Q2. With reference to BRICS, consider the following statements:


1. The inaugural BRIC Summit took place in Yekaterinburg (Russia).
2. Its ‘Contingent Reserve Arrangement’ (CRA) provides short-term liquidity support to
the member countries to mitigate the BoP crisis situation.
3. As a part of the Fortaleza Declaration, the BRICS countries agreed on creating the
New Development Bank.
4. Since its inception, India has hosted BRICS Summit only twice.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Answer: C
Explanation:
 BRICS is an intergovernmental organization (founded in 2009), comprising Brazil,
Russia, India, China, South Africa, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United
Arab Emirates.
 Its creation was initiated by Russia.
 The group is not a formal multilateral organization like the United Nations, the World
Bank, or the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).
 The Heads of States and the governments of the member nations convene annually
with each nation, taking up a one-year rotating chairmanship of the group.
 The founding countries of Brazil, Russia, India and China held the first summit in
Yekaterinburg in 2009, with South Africa joining the bloc a year later.
 Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates joined the
organization on 1st January 2024, (finalized during the 15th BRICS Summit).
 The BRICS CRA (Contingent Reserve Arrangement) proposes to provide short-term
liquidity support to the members through currency swaps to help mitigating the BoP
(Balance of Payments) crisis situation, in case such a situation arises.
 As a part of the Fortaleza Declaration (during the 6th BRICS Summit, held in Fortaleza,
Brazil), the BRICS countries agreed on creating the New Development Bank.
Note: India has hosted BRICS Summit thrice since its inception.

Q3. With reference to the Arctic Council, consider the following statements:
1. It was established through the Ottawa Declaration.
2. One of its aim is to promote cooperation, coordination and interaction among the
Arctic Indigenous People.
3. Every Arctic Council decision requires the consensus of all Arctic States.
4. It has a dedicated budget arrangement, fully funded by the World Bank.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Arctic Council:
 The Arctic Council is a leading intergovernmental forum, promoting cooperation,
coordination and interaction among the Arctic States; the Arctic Indigenous People;
and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on the issues of
sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic.
 It was formally established in 1996 through the Ottawa Declaration.
 All Arctic Council decisions and statements require consensus of the eight Arctic
States.
 Members: Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian
Federation, Sweden and the United States.
 The Chairmanship of the Arctic Council rotates every two years among the Arctic
States.
 The Arctic Council is a forum. It has no programming budget. All projects or
initiatives are sponsored by one or more Arctic States. Some projects also receive
support from other entities.

Q4. With reference to the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR),
consider the following statements:
1. The 1951 Refugee Convention and its 1967 Protocol form the basis of the UNHCR.
2. The Global Refugee Forum, co-hosted by the UNHCR and the World Bank, promotes
cooperation and solidarity with refugees and affected host countries.
3. It has won the Nobel Peace Prize twice.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation:
The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR):
 It leads international action to protect the people forced to flee conflict and
persecution, and those denied a nationality.
 It was established by the UN General Assembly in 1950, in the aftermath of the
Second World War, to help millions of people who had lost their homes.
 It won the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 1954 and 1981.
 The 1951 Refugee Convention and its 1967 Protocol are the key legal documents
that form the basis of the UNHCR’s work. They define the term 'refugee' and outline
their rights and the international standards of treatment for their protection.
 Headquarter: Geneva (Switzerland).
 The Global Refugee Forum provided the international community with the
opportunity to come together around the shared objective of increasing cooperation
and solidarity with the refugees and affected host countries. The 2019 Forum was
co‐hosted by the UNHCR and Switzerland, and co-convened by Costa Rica, Ethiopia,
Germany, Pakistan and Turkey.

Q5. With reference to the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations, 1963, consider the
following statements:
1. It provides that the consular officers shall have the right to visit a national of the
sending State who is in prison, custody or detention.
2. India has signed but not ratified the Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Vienna Convention on Consular Relations, 1963:
 It is an international treaty that provides the framework for consular relations
between the sovereign states.
 It outlines the roles, privileges and protections granted to the consular officers and
their offices.
 The Convention provides that “the consular officers shall be free to communicate
with the nationals of the sending State and to have access to them.” Foreign
nationals, who are arrested or detained, be given notice “without delay” of their
right to have their embassy or consulate notified of that arrest, and “the consular
officers shall have the right to visit a national of the sending State who is in prison,
custody or detention, to converse and correspond with him and to arrange for his
legal representation.”
 India has both signed and ratified the Vienna Convention.

Q6. With reference to the Suez Canal, consider the following statements:
1. It is a man-made canal which connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
2. It is operated and maintained by the International Seabed Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A

Explanation:
The Suez Canal:
 It is a man-made canal which connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea,
creating the shortest route for shipping between Europe and Asia.
 It is the world’s biggest shipping bottleneck situated in Egypt.
 It begins from Port Said and ends at the Suez Port.
 It is operated and maintained by the state-owned Suez Canal Authority (SCA) of
Egypt.
 It is critical for the global economy, as it accounts for 13% of the global shipping.

Q7. With reference to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), consider the
following statements:
1. The foundation of NATO was officially laid down in1949 with the signing of the
Washington Treaty.
2. Its membership is open to all the sovereign states of the United Nations.
3. It invoked the ‘Principle the Collective Defence’, for the first time, after the 9/11
terrorist attacks against the United States.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
 The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a political and military alliance of
28 European countries and two countries in North America (The United States and
Canada).
 It was set up in 1949 by the US, Canada and several western European nations to
ensure their collective security against the Soviet Union. The foundations of the
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) were officially laid down in April, 1949,
with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty, more popularly known as the
Washington Treaty.
 NATO's core tasks are: Deterrence and defence; Crisis prevention and management;
and Cooperative security.
 Under the ‘Principle of Collective Defence’, an attack against one or several of NATO
members is considered as an attack against all. The Principle of Collective Defence is
enshrined in Article 5 of the Washington Treaty.
 NATO invoked Article 5, for the first time in its history, after the 9/11 terrorist
attacks against the United States.
 NATO membership is open to any other European country, which adheres to the
principles of NATO and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area.
Note: NATO membership is not open to all the members of the United Nations.

Q8. With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following
statements:
1. It is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1989 on the initiative of the G20.
2. ‘Forty plus Nine’ recommendations of the FATF provide the international standards
against money laundering and terrorist financing.
3. Only Iran and North Korea are part of the FATF’s Black List.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
 The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization
founded in 1989 on the initiative of the G7 to develop the policies to combat
money laundering.
 In 2001, its mandate was expanded to include terrorism financing.
 The FATF maintains the FATF Black List (Formally called the "Call for action") and the
FATF Grey List.
 The FATF's Forty Recommendations on money laundering of 1990 are the primary
policies issued by the FATF and the Nine Special Recommendations (SR) on Terrorism
Financing (TF). Together, they are called “40+9”.
 As of December, 2022, the countries in the Black List are Iran, Myanmar and North
Korea.

Q9. With reference to the ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting - Plus (ADMM-Plus),
consider the following statements:
1. It is a platform for ASEAN and the ‘Plus Countries’ aimed at strengthening security
and defence cooperation in the region.
2. The inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Laos.
3. One of its aim is to facilitate the implementation of the Vientiane Action Programme.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
About the ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting - Plus (ADMM-Plus):
 The ADMM-Plus is a platform for ASEAN (The Association of Southeast Asian
Nations) and its eight Dialogue Partners, Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand,
the Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States (collectively referred to as the
“Plus Countries”), to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace, stability
and development in the region.
 The inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Ha Noi (Viet Nam), in 2010.
 Since 2017, the ADMM-Plus meets annually, to allow enhanced dialogue and
cooperation among ASEAN and the Plus Countries in the midst of an increasingly
challenging regional security environment.
 One of its aim is to facilitate the implementation of the Vientiane Action Programme,
which calls for ASEAN to build a peaceful, secure and prosperous ASEAN, and to
adopt greater outward-looking external relation strategies with our friends and
Dialogue Partners.
Q9. With reference to the International Court of Justice (ICJ), consider the following
statements:
1. It is the sole principal organ of the United Nations situated outside of New York.
2. Non-UN members cannot join the ICJ's statute.
3. The Court entertains only contentious cases.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
The International Court of Justice (ICJ), often referred to as the World Court, stands as a
crucial organ within the United Nations (UN) framework. It is the sole principal organ of the
United Nations situated outside of New York. The Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands,
serves as the ICJ's seat.
As per Article 93 of the UN Charter, all 193 UN members are automatically parties to the
ICJ's statute. Non-UN members can also join, for example: Switzerland in 1948 and Nauru
in 1988.
It has the following jurisdictional powers: Advisory jurisdiction, jurisdiction in contentious
cases and the incidental jurisdiction. Contentious cases involve settling disputes among the
countries and determining state responsibility for the crimes committed in violation of the
international law. The ICJ holds incidental jurisdiction to issue interim measures for the
protection of parties' rights during ongoing disputes. Advisory proceedings are limited to
specific UN organs and agencies. The General Assembly or the Security Council can request
opinions, and the Court decides on relevant contributors.

Q10. Consider the following:


1. Meghalaya
2. Tripura
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Assam
5. Nagaland
How many of the above-mentioned Indian states share a land border with Myanmar?
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. All five
Answer: A
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
The border between India and Myanmar runs for 1,643 km in the four states of Mizoram,
Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.

Q11. With reference to the Free Movement Regime (FMR), consider the following
statements:
1. It allows individuals to travel upto 16 km inside the other country without a visa.
2. It is valid for 2 years for individuals.
3. The FMR was implemented as part of the India’s Look East policy.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Free Movement Regime (FMR) is a mutually agreed arrangement between the two
countries that allows the tribes living along the border on either side to travel upto 16 km
inside the other country without a visa.
It is usually valid for a year, and the person can stay for upto two weeks per visit.
The FMR was implemented in 2018 as part of the India’s Act East policy, at a time when
diplomatic relations between India and Myanmar were on the upswing.

Q12. With reference to the International Labour Organization (ILO), consider the following
statements:
1. It is the only tripartite UN agency that sets labour standards.
2. The ILO is a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group (UNSDG).
3. The Global Wage Report is published by the ILO.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation:
The International Labour Organization (ILO) is the only tripartite UN agency which brings
together the governments, employers and the workers, to set labour standards, develop
policies and devise programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
In 1946, the ILO became a specialized agency of the newly formed United Nations. It is
headquartered in Geneva (Switzerland). In 1969, the ILO received the Nobel Peace Prize for
improving fraternity and peace among the nations, pursuing decent work and justice for the
workers, and providing technical assistance to other developing nations.
The ILO’s Constitution permits any member of the United Nations to become a member of
the ILO. The ILO is also a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group
(UNSDG).
Reports released by the ILO: World Employment and Social Outlook, World Social
Protection Report, Global Estimates of Modern Slavery, Global Wage Report and Global
Employment Trends for Youth.

Q13. Consider the following pairs:


S.N. Region often in news Country
1. Kerman Iraq
2. Erbil Syria
3. Idlib Iran
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. Only one pair
B. Only two pairs
C. All three pairs
D. None
Answer: D
Explanation:
Idlib is in Syria; Kerman is in Iran; and Erbil is in Iraq.

Q14. Consider the following:


1. Lithuania
2. Norway
3. Russia
4. Belarus
5. Slovakia
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with the Baltic Sea?
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. All five
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Baltic Sea is an arm of the Atlantic Ocean, that is enclosed by Denmark, Estonia, Finland,
Germany, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Russia, Sweden, and the North and Central European
Plain.
It separates the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of the continental Europe. It is a shelf
sea and marginal sea of the Atlantic, with limited water exchange between the two, making
it an inland sea.
Q15. With reference to the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS),
consider the following statements:
1. The aim of the ECOWAS is to promote economic co-operation and integration
among all African countries.
2. Recently, Burkina Faso and Mali have joined the ECOWAS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both l and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) was set-up to foster the ideal of
collective self-sufficiency for its member states. As a trading union, it is also meant to create
a single, large trading bloc through economic cooperation.
Headquarters: Abuja (Nigeria).
The aim of the ECOWAS is to promote co-operation and integration, leading to the
establishment of an economic union in West Africa to raise the living standards of its
people, and to maintain and enhance economic stability, foster relations among the
Member States and contribute to the progress and development of the African continent.
Recently, the military regimes of Burkina Faso, Mali and Niger announced their
withdrawal from the West African Bloc ECOWAS.

Q38. Consider the following pairs:


S.N. Place Country
1. Haifa Israel
2. Al Ghuwaifat Jordan
3. Piraeus Italy
4. Haradh UAE
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Answer: A
Explanation:
Recently, the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) was announced on the
sidelines of the G20 meeting in New Delhi, when a ‘Memorandum of Understanding’ was
signed between the European Union and seven countries, namely India, the US, Saudi
Arabia, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), France, Germany and Italy.
The Corridor will include a shipping route connecting Mumbai and Mundra (Gujarat) with
the UAE, and a rail network connecting the UAE, Saudi Arabia and Jordan with the Israeli
port of Haifa to reach the shores of the Mediterranean Sea. Haifa will then be connected by
sea to the port of Piraeus in Greece, to eventually be connected to Europe.

Q39. With reference to the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC),
consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent and intergovernmental organization created by the Baghdad
Conference.
2. The approval of a new member country requires agreement by three-quarters of the
OPEC's existing members, including all of the founding members.
3. The OPEC Fund for International Development is the only globally mandated
development institution that provides financing from the member countries to the non-
member countries exclusively.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC):
 It is an organization enabling the co-operation of leading oil-producing countries, in
order to collectively influence the global oil market and maximize profit.
 It was founded in 1960 in Baghdad by the first five members (Iran, Iraq, Kuwait,
Saudi Arabia and Venezuela).
 The OPEC Fund for International Development (The OPEC Fund) is the only globally
mandated development institution that provides financing from the member
countries to the non-member countries exclusively.
 Its headquarter is in Vienna (Austria).
 The OPEC has 12 member countries: Five in the Middle East (West Asia); Six in Africa;
and One in South America.
 The approval of a new member country requires agreement by three-quarters of the
OPEC's existing members, including all five of the founders.

Q40. Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Relief and Works
Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA):
1. It is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions, and serves for the cause of
the Palestine refugees only.
2. It manages the refugee camps and provides security to the refugees.
3. The UNRWA has a mandate to resettle the Palestine refugees.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: D
Explanation:
 The United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA) is
funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from the UN Member States. The
UNRWA also receives some funding from the Regular Budget of the United
Nations, which is used mostly for international staffing costs.
 The Agency’s services encompass education, health care, relief and social services,
camp infrastructure and improvement, micro-finance and emergency assistance,
including in the times of armed conflict.
 It has contributed to the welfare and human development of four generations of the
Palestine refugees, defined as the “persons whose normal place of residence was
Palestine during the period 1st June 1946 to 15th May 1948, and who lost both
home and means of livelihood as a result of the 1948 War.” The descendants of the
Palestine refugee males, including the legally adopted children, are also eligible for
registration.
 In addition to the Palestine refugees, the UN General Assembly has also mandated
the UNRWA to offer services to certain other persons who require humanitarian
assistance, on an emergency basis, as and when required.
 The Agency’s responsibility is limited to running education, health, relief and social
services, micro-finance and emergency assistance programmes, which are located
inside and outside the camps. The UNRWA does not manage refugee camps and is
not responsible for protecting the physical safety or security of the Palestine
refugees, or maintaining law and order in the five fields of the UNRWA operations.
The Agency cannot guarantee any individual's physical security. Ensuring the
physical security of the Palestine refugees, residing in any of the UNRWA's five
fields, is the responsibility of the respective host state or authority.
 The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) does not have a
mandate over the Palestine refugees within the UNRWA fields of operations
(Lebanon, Jordan, Syria, the West Bank, including East Jerusalem, and the Gaza
Strip). This is not a decision on the part of either the UNRWA or the UNHCR, but
rather the result of the decisions of the international community enshrined in the
1951 Refugee Convention and the UNHCR Statute.
 The UNRWA does not have a mandate to resettle the Palestine refugees and has
no authority to seek lasting durable solutions for the refugees.
 The UNRWA is a humanitarian organization and, unlike the UNHCR, has no authority
to seek durable solutions for the refugees that fall under its mandate (i.e., the
Palestine refugees), including return to the country of origin.

Q41. Consider the following statements with reference to the International Court of
Justice (ICJ):
1. It can decide on the cases involving breaches of the international law on its own.
2. For the judges, the elections are conducted every three years, and the retiring judges
are not eligible for re-election.
3. For the first time under the Genocide Convention, South Africa filed a case against
Israel in the ICJ.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: D
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
 The International Court of Justice (ICJ) cannot automatically decide all the cases
involving breaches of the international law. It can only decide the cases that are
brought before it by the States that consent to its jurisdiction.
 The Court is composed of 15 judges, all of whom are elected to nine-year terms of
office by the UN General Assembly and the Security Council. The elections are held
every three years for one third of the seats, and the retiring judges may be re-
elected.
 The Court can rule on two types of cases: “contentious cases” are the legal disputes
between the States; and “advisory proceedings” are the requests for advisory
opinions on legal questions referred to it by the United Nations organs and certain
specialized agencies.
 The Genocide Convention was the first human rights treaty adopted by the UN
General Assembly in 1948, and has been in effect since 1951.
 The Convention defines genocide as five acts:
(i) Killing the members of a group;
(ii) Causing serious bodily or mental harm;
(iii) Inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about their physical
destruction;
(iv) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within a group; and
(v) Forcibly transferring the children of the group to another group — committed with
the intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnic, racial or religious group.
 This is not the first case the Court will hear under the Genocide Convention. In
2022, Ukraine filed a case against Russia, and in 2019, the Gambia filed a case
against Myanmar with respect to the Rohingya.
 The Myanmar case was the first time that a State invoked the Court’s jurisdiction to
seek redress for genocidal acts committed against the citizens of another State. The
Court agreed that the Gambia had standing to bring the case.

Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban


Treaty’ (CTBT):
1. It is a multilateral Treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, whether for military or
peaceful purposes.
2. For the Treaty to enter into force, it must be signed and ratified by nuclear
technology holder countries, known as the Annex 2 countries.
3. Though all the Annex 2 countries have signed the Treaty, a few countries are yet to
ratify the same.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
 The Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral Treaty that bans all
nuclear explosions, whether for military or peaceful purposes.
 Notably, for the Treaty to enter into force, it must be signed and ratified by 44
specific nuclear technology holder countries, eight of which have yet to ratify the
agreement. These are: China, Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, North Korea, Pakistan and the
United States, according to the UN.
 The Preparatory Commission for the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty
Organization (CTBTO) was set up in 1996, with its headquarters in Vienna (Austria).
 The aforementioned States are the members of the Conference on Disarmament
(CD) with nuclear power and/or research reactors.
 Of the 44 States included in Annex 2 required for entry into force of the CTBT, all
have signed with the exceptions of the Democratic People’s Republic of Korea
(DPRK), India and Pakistan.
 Five of the 44 Annex 2 States have signed, but not ratified the CTBT. These are:
China, Egypt, Iran, Israel and the United States. The United States and China are the
only remaining NPT (Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty) Nuclear Weapon States that
have not ratified the CTBT.

Q43. Consider the following statements regarding the Global Biofuel Alliance:
1. Only national governments are part of this Alliance.
2. All G20 countries are members of this Alliance.
3. India is the largest producer of biofuels in the world.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: D
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
 The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) is a multi-stake holder alliance of governments,
international organizations and industries, an initiative by India as the G20 Chair,
bringing together the biggest consumers and producers of biofuels to drive
development and deployment of biofuels.
 The initiative aims to position biofuels as a key to energy transition, and contribute
to jobs and economic growth.
 There are 22 countries and 12 international organizations which have already agreed
to join the Alliance:
(i) Eight G20 countries: Argentina, Brazil, Canada, India, Italy, Japan, South Africa and
the USA.
(ii) Four G20 invitee countries: Bangladesh, Singapore, Mauritius and the UAE.
(iii) Ten non-G20 countries: Iceland, Kenya, Guyana, Paraguay, Seychelles, Sri Lanka,
Uganda, Finland, Tanzania and the Philippines.
(iv) Twelve international organizations: The Asian Development Bank, the World
Economic Forum, the World LP Gas Association, the UN Energy for All, the United Nations
Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO), the Biofutures Platform, the International
Civil Aviation Organization, the International Energy Agency, the International Energy
Forum, the International Renewable Energy Agency, the World Biogas Association and the
World Bank.
 Brazil, the US and India together account for 85 per cent of ethanol (common
biofuel) production.

Q44. Consider the following countries:


1. Saudi Arabia
2. Yemen
3. Somalia
4. Djibouti
5. Egypt
How many of the above-mentioned countries share border with the Red Sea?
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. All five
Answer: C
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
The bordering countries of the Red Sea are Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Sudan, Eritrea and
Djibouti.
Q45. The ‘Three Brotherhood Alliance’ was in the news recently. It is associated with
which of the following countries?
A. Syria
B. Sudan
C. Myanmar
D. Yemen
Answer: C
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
 The Three Brotherhood Alliance comprises the Myanmar National Democratic
Alliance Army; the Arakan Army; and the Ta’ang National Liberation Army.
 The Alliance is fighting against the military regime in Myanmar.

Q46. Consider the following pairs:


S.N. Area of conflict mentioned in the news. Country where it is located.
1. Khan Yunis Lebanon
2. Panjgur Iran
3. Erbil Iraq
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
Section: international-relations
Explanation:
 Khan Yunis is a city in the southern Gaza Strip; it is the capital of the Khan Yunis
Governorate in the Gaza Strip, Palestine.
 Iran carried out a surprise attack in Panjgur, a border town in Pakistan’s
Baluchistan.
 Syria’s Daesh Terrorist Group’s suicide bombers struck the crowds gathered near the
tomb of the revered IRGC (The Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps) general Qasem
Soleimani in Kerman (Iran) in January, 2024. In response, Iran launched ballistic
missiles into Syria’s Idlib region.
 In Iraq, the IRGC claimed responsibility for targeting an alleged Israeli facility. Iran
launched a missile strike, into Erbil, resulting in the destruction of Mossad's (Israel's
external security agency) spy headquarters in the Kurdistan region.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN):
1. It is an intergovernmental organization of eight Southeast Asian countries.
2. In 2023, Maldives became a full-time member of the ASEAN.
3. India is a free trading partner of the ASEAN.
4. The ASEAN Catalytic Green Finance Facility supports the environmentally sustainable
projects managed by the World Bank.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

18. With reference to India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), consider the
following statements:
1. It was launched at the 15th BRICS Summit, which was hosted by South
Africa.
2. The project forms a part of the Partnership for Global Infrastructure
and Investment.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. With reference to G20, consider the


following statements:
1. It was founded after the Asian financial crisis, as a forum of the Finance
Ministers and the Central Bank Governors.
2. The African Union has been made a full member of the G20 during the Delhi
Summit.
3. The Joint Capital Markets Initiative was launched by the G20 members to finance the
infrastructure projects in the developing nations.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

20. Consider the following statements with reference to the African Union (AU):
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed after replacing the Organization of African
Unity (OAU).
2. It launched the Great Green Wall Initiative to restore Africa’s degraded landscapes.
3. Its secretariat is located at Addis Ababa (Ethiopia).
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
21. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. New Zealand
3. The United Kingdom
4. The United States of America
5. France
6. Germany
How many of the above are part of ‘Five
Eyes’ intelligence alliance?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All six

22. With reference to the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), consider the
following statements:
1. It is a self-funded agency of the United Nations.
2. The United Nations Economic and Social Council is its parent
organization.
3. Its headquarter is situated at Geneva (Switzerland).
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

23. With reference to the Global Biofuel Alliance, consider the following statements:
1. India, Brazil and the US are the founding members of the Alliance.
2. It is an alliance of the governments, international organizations and
industry to facilitate adoption of biofuels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

24. With reference to the Global Innovation


Index 2023, consider the following
statements:
1. The Index is released biannually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Singapore is the most innovative economy in the 2023 Index.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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