MDSP ELEMENTS NO.

9
1. The phenomenon of “weld decay" is associated with: D. Oxy-acetylene
A. Brass ANSWER: D
B. Manganese steels 12. A plug gauge is used to measure
C. Aluminum alloys A. Taper bores
D. Stainless steels B. Cylindrical bores
ANSWER: D C. Spherical holes
2. Which of the following timber is used for sports goods? D. Screw threads
A. Mulberry ANSWER: D
B. Mahogany 13. Choose the one that will have the highest cutting speed.
C. Sal. A. Cast iron
D. Deodar B. Tool steel
ANSWER: A C. Brass
3. A knoop indenter is a diamond ground to a: D. Aluminum
A. Prismoidal form ANSWER: D
B. Pyramidal form 14. When large number of components are turned and parted
C. Cylindrical form off from a bar, the chuck generally used is:
D. Needle form A. Four jaw chuck
ANSWER: B B. Two jaw chuck
4. The process commonly for thermoplastic materials is: C. Collet chuck
A. Die-casting D. Magnetic chuck
B. Injection moulding ANSWER: D
C. Shell moulding 15. Gear tooth vernier is used for measuring:
D. Mold forming A. Gear tooth profile
ANSWER: B B. Module
5. The most important element that controls the physical C. Pith line thickness of gear tooth
properties of steel is: D. Gear tooth thickness
A. Silicon ANSWER: A
B. Manganese 16. Undercutting is:
C. Tungsten A. An operation of cutting extreme deep groove
D. Carbon B. An operation of cutting a groove next to a shoulder on a
ANSWER: D piece of work
6. The imperfection in the crystal structure of metal is known C. Cutting form the base of a work piece
as; D. An operation of cutting extreme wide threads
A. Dislocation ANSWER: C
B. Slip 17. Laser welding is widely used in:
C. Fracture A. Process industry
D. Impurity B. Structural work
ANSWER: A C. Heavy industry
7. Polysters belong to the group of: D. Electronic industry.
A. Thermoplastic plastics ANSWER: D
B. Phenolics 18. Unlike materials or materials of different thickness can be
C. All of the above butt welded by:
D. Thermosetting plastics A. Control of pressure and current
ANSWER: D B. Adjusting time duration of current
8. The effect of alloying zinc to copper is: C. Adjusting initial gap
A. To increase hardness D. All of the above
B. To impart free-machining properties ANSWER: A
C. To improve hardness and strength 19. In arc welding operations the current value is decided by:
D. To increase strength and ductility A. Thickness of plate
ANSWER: D B. Voltage across the plate
9. Projection welding is: C. Size of the electrode
A. Continuous spot welding process D. Length of welded portion
B. Multi spot welding process ANSWER: C
C. Used to form 20. Arc blow takes place in:
D. Used to make mesh A. Gas welding
ANSWER: B B. Arc welding when straight polarity is used
10. In resistance welding, the pressure is released: C. Arc welding when reverse polarity is used
A. Just at the time of passing the current D. Welding stainless steel
B. During heating period ANSWER: D
C. After the weld cools 21. For a completely corrosion-resistant stainless steel, what
D. After the completion of currents minimum percentage of chromium in the alloy is required?
ANSWER: C A. 3.2%
11. Grey cast iron is best welded by: B. 7.3%
A. MIG C. 11%
B. Submerged arc D. 15%
C. TIG ANSWER: C
 MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 9
22. What for is a rammer used? ANSWER: A
A. A tool used in welding for cleaning purpose 32. What is a gate?
B. A tool used in press work to lift the pressure A. A passage through which metal is poured into the
components mould
C. A tool used in foundry to pack the sank in B. A passage through which metal rises when the mould is
mould filled
D. A measuring tool C. A passage that finally leads molten metal from the
ANSWER: D runner into the mould cavity
23. What for is a swab used? D. A vent hole to allow for the hot gases to escape
A. A tool used on shaper ANSWER: D
B. A tool used in foundry for moistening the sand 33. What for are core prints provide?
C. The tool used in foundry for smoothening the A. To form trade marks of company on castings
mould B. To produce castings with specific surface
D. A tool used in foundry for repairing the mould design
ANSWER: D C. To form seat to support and hold the core
24. What for is a gagger used? D. To direct the floe of molten material during
A. A tool used in clearing welds pouring
B. A tool used in clearing material before welding ANSWER:C
C. A tool used in foundry for cleaning of castings 34. The equipment that is used in pit for supply of air is known
D. A shaped metal accessory as:
ANSWER: C A. Fan
25. What for are bellows used? B. Hand blower
A. Used in foundry in moistening the mould C. Air cylinder
B. Used in foundry for cleaning of castings D. Centrifugal blower
C. Used in foundry for blowing loose sand ANSWER: D
D. Used in foundry for smoothening and cleaning out 35. Tumbling is done so as to:
depression in the mould. A. Clean the surface of small parts
ANSWER: D B. Stress reliever the components
26. Permeability of a foundry sand is: C. Get surface finish
A. Capacity to hold moisture D. To plate the surface
B. Porosity to allow the escape of gases ANSWER: A
C. Distribution of binder in sand 36. The purpose of inoculation is:
D. Fineness of sand A. To clean the casting
ANSWER: A B. To decrease the melting temperature of a cast metal
27. What for arc metal patterns used? C. To change the chemical composition of a cast metal
A. Precision castings D. To modify the structure and properties of a cast metal
B. Small castings ANSWER: D
C. Large castings 37. Least shrinkage allowance is provided in the case of which
D. Large scale production of castings of the following?
ANSWER: D A. Brass
28. An important factor to be considered while designing a B. Cast iron
core print is: C. White cast iron
A. Pattern material D. Aluminum
B. Type of mould ANSWER: C
C. Moulding sand characteristics 38. The draft allowance on metallic pattern as compared to
D. Pouring temperature wooden one is:
ANSWER: C A. More
29. Which of the following metals can be suitably welded by B. Same
TIG welding? C. Less
A. Aluminum D. More or less depending on size
B. Magnesium ANSWER: C
C. All of the above 39. Select one that is not an angle measuring device.
D. Stainless steel A. Bevel protector
ANSWER: C B. Sine bar
30. Weld spatter refers to: C. Combination square
A. Welding electrode D. Angle iron
B. Filler material ANSWER: D
C. Shield 40. Dilatometer is used to find out which property of moulding
D. Welding defect sand.
ANSWER: D A. Permeability
31. A sprue is: B. Hot strength
A. A tool used in mould repairing C. Fineness
B. A process of cleaning castings. D. Moisture content
C. A chemical that is added to molten materials for sound ANSWER: C
castings 41. The mould for casting ferrous materials in continuous
D. A vertical passage through the cope casting process is made of:
 MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 9
A. Low carbon steel D. The formation of oxides on the molten
B. High carbon steel metal surface
C. Medium carbon steel ANSWER: D
D. Copper 52. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is:
ANSWER: D A. 110°
42. What for is rotameter used? B. 120°
A. Rpm of engines C. 30°
B. Rotation of shafts D. 60°
C. Twist due to torque applied on shafts ANSWER: C
D. Flow of liquids and gases 53. A twist drill is specified by:
ANSWER: D A. Its diameter and lip angle
43. The impedance of piezo-electric crystals Is: B. Its shank and diameter
A. Negligible C. Shank, material and flute size
B. Low D. Shank, material and diameter
C. High ANSWER: D
D. Very low 54. Broaching operation is generally used In automobile
ANSWER: C industry as:
44. Hot wire anemometers are generally for: A. It is an automatic machine
A. Measuring pressure of fluids B. It is a mass production machine
B. Measuring velocity of air stream C. Semi-skilled operators can be employed
C. Measuring temperature of moving fluid D. Operations is completed in one stroke
D. Measuring thermal conductivity of solids ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 55. Select the one that is gear finishing process:
45. Ornaments are cast by: A. Gear shaving
A. Die casting B. Gear shaping
B. Pressed casting C. Gear hobbing
C. Gravity casting D. Gear milling
D. Continuous casting ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 56. Formed milling operation of cutting gears can be used for
46. During MIG welding the metal is transformed in the form cutting which type of gears?
of: A. Spur
A. Continuous flow of molten metal B. Worm
B. A fine spray of metal C. All of the above
C. Solution D. Bevel
D. Electron beam ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 57. Water should be run at a speed of
47. A collimated light beam is used for producing heat in: A. 70-90 m/min
A. MiG welding B. 40 to 120 m/min
B. TIG welding. C. 300 m/min
C. Plasma welding D. 90-180 m/min
D. Laser welding ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 58. A machine tool in which metal is removed by means of a
48. Wipping is the process of: revolving cutter with many teeth, each tooth having a
A. Cleaning the welded surface after the welding cutting edge which removes Its share of the stock.
operation is over A. Milling machine
B. Applying flux during welding process B. Lathe
C. Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy C. Drill
D. Low temperature welding D. Grinder
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
49. In which of the following process hydraulic fluid acts as 59. Welding operation in which a non-ferrous filler metal melts
transfer media? at a temperature below that of the metal joined but is
A. Electron beam machining heated above 450℃
B. Electro-discharge machining A. Fillet weld
C. Iron beam machining B. Soldering
D. Water jet machining C. Brazing
ANSWER: D D. TIG welding
50. Sweep pattern is used for moulding parts having ANSWER: C
A. Rectangular shape 60. The process of checking or producing checkers on the
B. Uniform symmetrical shape surface of a piece by rolling checkered depressions into the
C. Compiicated shape having intricate details surface.
D. None of the above A. Indexing
ANSWER: B B. Knurling
51. Drossing C. Quenching
A. A method of cleaning the castings D. Soldering
B. An inspection of method for castings ANSWER: B
C. A method of deoxidation of molten metal '
 MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 9
61. Steels can be strengthened all of the following, EXCEPT: 71. Broken tap can be removed by.
A. Annealing A. Chamfering
B. Quenching and tempering B. Deleting
C. Work hardening C. Damaging
D. Age precipation D. Electro-discharge machine
ANSWER: A ANSWER: D
62. Modulus of resilience is: 72. Are conical gears, that is, gears in the shape of cones, and
A. The same as the modulus of elasticity are used to connect shafts having intersecting axes.
B. A measure of the materials ability to store strain energy A. Helical gear
C. Reciprocal of modulus of elasticity B. Bevel gear
D. Measure of the deflection of a member C. Spur gear
ANSWER: B D. Worm gear
63. Percentage reduction of area while performing tensile test ANSWER: B
on cast iron may be of the other of: 73. Bevel gears may be classified as being either of the straight-
A. 50% tooth type or the .
B. 25% A. Curve tooth type
C. 0% B. Helical tooth type
D. 15% C. Square tooth type
ANSWER: C D. None of these
64. Belt slip may take place because of: ANSWER: A
A. Loose load 74. The teeth of gears are curved but lie In the same general
B. Driving pulley too small direction as the teeth of straight bevel gears.
C. Heavy belt A. Straight bevel gears
D. All of the above B. Worm gears
ANSWER: D C. Zerol bevel gears
65. The curve that is generally used as the profile of gear teeth: D. Helical gears
A. Hypoid ANSWER: C
B. Epicycloid 75. Is the same as spiral gears, except that the axis of the pinion
C. Involute is offset relative to the gear axis.
D. Cycloid A. Bevel gears
ANSWER: C B. Trochoid gears
66. In roller chain drive, the center-to-center distance between C. Ratchet gear
the sprockets, as a general rule, should be between times D. Hypoid gear
the pitch. ANSWER: D
A. 30 to 50 76. Zerol bevel gears for maximum smoothness and quiteness
B. 45 to 65 should be run at_____
C. 60 to 80 A. 900 fpm
D. 75 to 95 B. 1000 fpm
ANSWER: A C. 1200 fpm
67. A partial bearing is one in which: D. 1400 fpm
A. The bearing is supplied with less oil than full bearing ANSWER: B
B. The bearing encloses less than 360 deg of the journal 77. For peripheral speeds above ground gears should be used.
C. The bearing is slightly loaded A. 6000 fpm
D. The bearing is supplied with oil intermittently B. 7000 fpm
ANSWER: B C. 8000 fpm
68. Aluminum has a rake angle of _______. D. 9000 fpm
A. 10 to 15 deg ANSWER: C
B. 12 to 18 deg 78. Spiral bevel and hypoid gears are recommended for
C. 14 to 20 deg applications where peripheral speeds exceed _______.
D. 16 to 22 deg A. 1000 fpm
ANSWER: A B. 1200 fpm
69. In general the length of engagement is more than _____ C. 1300 fpm
times the nominal diameter a 50 to 55 percent thread is D. 1400 fpm
satisfactory. ANSWER: A
A. 1/2 79. Hypoid gears are recommended for industrial applications:
B. 3/4 A. When maximum smoothness of operation is desired
C. 4/5 B. For high reduction ratios where compactness of design,
D. 2 smoothness of operation, and maximum strength are
ANSWER: A important.
70. Is recommended for the larger thread diameters and for C. For non-intersecting shafts
some fine pitch threads. D. All of these
A. Reaming ANSWER: D
B. Piercing 80. ________ gears may be used for both speed- reduction and
C. Hobing speed-increasing drives.
D. None of these A. Bevel gears
ANSWER: A B. Hypoid gears
 MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 9
C. A and B D. 0.007 in
D. Worm gears ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C 90. In general, the same tooth proportions used for Gleasons
81. As a general rule, the amount of metal under the root System spiral bevel gears may be used for spiral bevel gears
should be equal to the __________. with spiral angle of from, say, 20 ____ to.
A. Partial depth of tooth A .45 deg
B. Whole depth of tooth B. 60 deg
C. Twice the tooth C. 14.5 deg
D. Thrice the tooth D. 90 deg
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
82. On webless type ring gears, the minimum stock between 91. The direction of rotation of a bevel gear is determined as
the root line and the bottom of tap drill holes should be _______.
_______ of the tooth deep. A. Clockwise direction
A. 1/2 B. Counterclockwise
B. 1/3 C. Opposite direction
C. 1/4 D. The same direction
D. 3/4 ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B 92. Spiral angle should be selected to give a face contact ratio
83. Spiral bevel and hypoid gears should, in general, be of _____ to assure smooth tooth action and quiet gears.
mounted on anti-friction bearings in an ______ case. A. 1.10
A. Water tight B. 1.20
B. Oil tight C. 1.25
C. Soluble tight D. 1.30
D. Rubber tight ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 93. The axial thrust load produced on the bearings of a bevel
84. For both straddle mounted and overhung mounted gears gear is equal to the axial component of the normal load on
the spread between bearings should never be less than the ________.
_______of the pitch diameter of the gear. A. Tooth thickness
A.70% B. Tooth surface
B.80% C. Tooth angle
C.90% D. None of these
D.100% ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B 94. The material most commonly used in the manufacture of
85. On overhung mounted gears the spread should be at least bevel gears is
______ the overhung. A. Alloy
A. 1/2 times B. Stainless
B. 2 1/2 times C. Wrought iron
C. 3 times D. Steel
D. 4 times ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 95. There are 8 cutters in the series for each diametral pitch to
86. The basic pressure angle of bevel gears is cover the full range from ______ pinion to a crown gear.
A. 5 deg A. 18-tooth
B. 10 deg B. 16-tooth
C. 15 deg C. 14-tooth
D. 20 deg D. 12-tooth
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
87. For basic pressure angle of 20 degrees, the number of teeth 96. Class A Bevel gears- Precision gears recommended for
for no undercut are _____ teeth in the pinion. peripheral speeds above
A. 14 or more A. 1000 fpm
B. 15 or more B. 2000 fpm
C. 16 or more C. 3000 fpm
D. 17 or more D. 4000 fpm
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
88. Spiral angle of spiral bevel gears is ______. 97. The face width should not normally exceed one-third of the
A. 30 deg pitch cone distance or ______ the pitch.
B. 35 deg A. 2 times
C. 40 deg B. 3 times
D. 45 deg C. 4 times
ANSWER: B D. 5 times
89. To assure successful operation, bevel gears must be rigidly ANSWER: B
mounted within the housing such that the deflection of one 98. Pressure angle of worm gears is _______.
gear relative to the other does not exceed _______ either A. 10 degrees
axially or tangential to the pitch diameters. B. 15 degrees
A. 0.004 in C. 20 degrees
B. 0.005 in D. 25 degrees
C. 0.006 in ANSWER: C
 MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 9
99. The minimum recommended worm pitch diameter is 0.25 108. The brake lining operating at temperature _____, sintered
inch and the maximum is ______. mixture containing ceramics are used.
A. 1 inch A. 750°F to 1000°F
B. 2 inch B. 560°F to 900°F
C. 3 inch C. 800°F to 1200°F
D. 4 inch D. 400°F to 789°F
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
100. The shape of the worm thread in the normal plane is 109. Hydrodynamic brakes is the major type of
defined as that which is produced by a symmetrical A. Air brake
double-conical cutter or grinding wheel having a straight B. Fluid brake
elements and an included angle of _________. C. Electric brake
A. 30 deg D. Spot brake
B. 35 deg ANSWER: B
C. 40 deg 110. Types of brakes that are capable of stopping the motion of
D. 45 deg a machine member as well as retarding its motion.
ANSWER: C A. Electrical brake
101. ME Board April 1999 B. Fluid brake
A shaft is used to connect or disconnect at will is called C. Air brake
A. Clutch D. Mechanical brake
B. Bearing ANSWER: D
C. Brake shaft 111. It is considered as the simplest type of mechanical brake.
D. Lock shaft A. Differential brake
ANSWER: A B. Block brake
102. ME Board April 1998 C. Band brake
The frictional forces depends on coefficient of friction and D. Brake shoe
A. Torque ANSWER: C
B. Weights of object 112. The friction devices used to connect shafts.
C. Normal force A. Brakes
D. Moment B. Clutches
ANSWER: C C. Spring
103. Friction devices used to regulate the motion of bodies and D. Holder
with clutches. ANSWER: B
A. Rollers 113. A clutch that has a disadvantage of heavier rotary masses.
B. Brakes A. Multiple disc clutch
C. Babbitt B. Disc clutch
D. Holders C. Cone clutch
ANSWER: B D. None of these
104. The part of the total frictional energy that is stored in the ANSWER: A
brake parts, principally in the drum or disk has been 114. The overrunning clutch
variously estimated at _____. A. Should be oiled
A. 56% B. Should be repacked with grease
B. 86% C. Can not be lubricated
C. 90% D. Contains no lubricant
D. 75% ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D 115. The overrunning clutch
105. The part of an automobile disc clutch that presses against A. Transmits cranking force to the engine flywheel
the flywheel is referred to as B. Is one way clutch
A. Contact plate C. Prevents the engine flywheel form driving the starting
B. Friction plate motor
C. Pressure plate D. All of the above
D. Sliding plate ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 116. Clutch, gear box, differential etc. are the parts of
106. The brake capacity to absorb energy is known as A. Charging system
A. Energy B. Transmission system
B. Resistance brake C. Cooling system
C. Power D. None of these
D. Braking torque ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 117. In motor vehicles, it is very common practice to use a
107. If the band warps partly around the brake wheel or drum A. Multiple clutch
and brake action is obtained by pulling the band tight onto B. Hydraulic clutch
the wheel. This type of brake is known as C. Cone clutch
A. Block brake D. Single plate clutch
B. Band brake ANSWER: D
C. Clutch 118. The clutch finger is pushed by
D. Centrifugal brake A. Clutch fork
ANSWER: B B. Clutch
 MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 9
C. Clutch bearing 129. The principal parts of a hydraulic brake system are the
D. None of these master cylinder and the
ANSWER: C A. Multi cylinder
119. A hydraulic clutch doesn’t incorporate a B. Wheel cylinder
A. Clutch plate C. Brake wire
B. Oil plate D. Brake shoe
C. Vacuum plate ANSWER: B
D. None of these 130. In the mechanical brake system the main function is of
ANSWER: A A. Spring
120. The lining of a brake shoe B. Cam
A. Can be changed C. Shoe adjuster
B. Can not be fitted D. Shoe rivets
C. Can be fitted with spring ANSWER: B
D. None of these 131. In motor vehicles, these is a ______ in addition of foot
ANSWER: A brake.
121. Due to air effect, the hydraulic brakes become A. Hand brake
A. More effective B. Hydraulic brake
B. Ineffective C. Mechanical brake
C. Possible D. Band break
D. None of these ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B 132. Which of the following are also used in the suspension
122. The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is system?
A. About 90 percent A. Shock absorbers
B. 60 – 80 percent B. Brake shoes
C. 50 – 60 percent C. Cams
D. 40 – 50 percent D. Block brakes
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
123. The SAE recommends an angle of _____ fore cone clutches 133. There are _____ plates in a multiple plate clutch.
faced with leather or asbestos or having cork inserts. A. More than one
A. 7.50° B. Less than four
B. 9.5° C. More than ten
C. 12. 5° D. Less than one
D. 14.5° ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 134. Hydraulic clutches are used in ______ vehicles.
124. Why does clutch creates noise? A. Costly
A. A clutch release bearing is either dry or defective B. Foreign made
B. Clutch spring is broken C. Cheap
C. Clutch is faulty D. Affordable
D. All of the above ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D 135. Which of the following is mounted inside the clutch?
125. What faults developed in the brakes? A. An engine
A. Brakes do not work properly B. Gear box propeller shaft
B. Brakes do not disengage C. Both the rear axle
C. Brakes make noise D. All of the above
D. All of the above ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 136. Which clutch is suitable for mine hoists and other services
126. Which of the following types of brakes are also changed where heavy loads are accompanied by severe shock?
while replacing brake lining? A. Band clutch
A. Brakes do not work properly B. Block clutch
B. Brakes do not disengage C. Centrifugal clutch
C. Brakes make noise D. Expanding ring clutch
D. All of the above ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B 137. It is used to protect a machine in case of jamming and for
127. Power brakes require ______ power. overload protection of motors and engine.
A. Brakes do not work properly A. Dry fluid clutch
B. Brakes do not disengage B. Magnetic clutch
C. Brakes make noise C. Eddy clutch
D. All of the above D. Slip clutch
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
128. What type of oil is used in the hydraulic brake system? 138. Refers to the simplest type of brakes.
A. Brakes do not work properly A. Differential brakes
B. Brakes do not disengage B. Block brakes
C. Brakes make noise C. Band brakes
D. All of the above D. Brake shoe
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
139. The practical length of shoe is limited to about
 MDSP ELEMENTS NO. 9
A. 75° 149. The act of keeping some pressure on the clutch pedal at the
B. 90° time of driving is known as,
C. 120° A. Hydraulic clutch
D. 180° B. Slip of the clutch
ANSWER: C C. Riding on clutch
140. If the angle of contact is _____, the pressure between the D. Clutch adjustment
brake shoe and the drum cannot be considered uniform. ANSWER: C
A. Less than 45 deg. 150. Which of the following shortcomings in the cone clutch
B. Less than 80 deg. because of which the clutch is not used?
C. Greater than 60 deg. A. Clutch slips quickly
D. Greater than 120 deg. B. It occupies more space
ANSWER: C C. Adjustment has to be done early
141. It is used to stop the motion of a moving object. D. All of the above
A. Clutch ANSWER: D
B. Breaks
C. Band clutch
D. Band brake
ANSWER: B
142. The effectiveness of the brake may greatly decrease shortly
after it begins to act continuously, a phenomenon called:
A. Creep
B. Pressurized
C. Fade
D. Worn-out
ANSWER: C
143. Type of brake under the category of power brake is known
as
A. Servo brake
B. Band brake
C. Differential brake
D. Brake shoe
ANSWER: A
144. Clutches which are designed to transmit torque for one
direction of rotation of the driver and then free-wheel or
transmit essentially no torque when the direction of the
driver rotation is reversed.
A. Magnetic clutches
B. Trip clutches
C. Overrunning clutches
D. Slip clutches
ANSWER: C
145. The reason for noise at the time of engaging brake.
A. Back plate being loose or bent
B. Brake shoe being loose or bent
C. Brake drum could be defective
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
146. When the vehicle runs brake drum becomes hot because of
friction of the shoe. This fault is known as ______.
A. Brake lining
B. Brake winding
C. Back plate
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
147. The maintenance of mechanical brake is
A. Expensive
B. Economical
C. Costly
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
148. What is the most common defect on clutch?
A. Slip of the clutch
B. Clutch does not disengage properly
C. Clutch creates noise
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D