MODULE 1

Which of the following statements best describes facilitated diffusion?

A. Energy requiring
B. Involves shifting of solvent
C. Carrier-specific
D. The movement against a concentration gradient

The following describes active transport, except:

A. Higher to lower concentration gradient
B. Follow saturation kinetics
C. Carrier mediated
D. Expenditure of energy

Movement of particles in the body which is also means solvent shifts is referred to
as_____.
A. Passive diffusion
B. Facilitated transport
C. Active transport
D. Bulk transport

Elements that exist in two or more crystalline forms are said to be ______.
A. Amphoteric
B. Polymorphic
C. Amorphous
D. Allotropic

This allotrope of Phosphorous is made by heating phosphorus at 200 degrees Celsius

under a pressure of 1,200 atm?
A. Black phosphorus
B. White phosphorus
C. Red phosphorus
D. Yellow phosphorus

Which of the following elements are amphoteric?

I. Beryllium
II. Zinc
III. Aluminum
IV. Calcium
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. III, IV
D. I,II

Enthalpy in thermodynamics means:

A. Latent heat
B. Heat content
C. Degree of total molecular randomness
D. Heat of fusion
A law that states that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero
temperature is zero.
A. Zeroth
B. First
C. Second
D. Third

Which elements belong to Group VII-A?

A. F, Br
B. Na Ca
C. F, Na
D. Na, F

Which group is referred to as “alkali metals”?

A. Group I-A
B. Group II-A
C. Group IV-A
D. Group III-A

Which is the lightest of all metals?

A. Platinum
B. Lithium
C. Nickel
D. Gold

The following elements form basic hydrides, EXCEPT _______________.

A. Calcium
B. Sulfur
C. Strontium
D. Magnesium

Which of the following elements is the MOST electronegative?

A. I
B. Br
C. CI
D. F

Which of the following elements are referred to as the triad of Group VIII?
I. Co
II. Mn
III. Ni
IV. Fe
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV
D. II, III, IV
Which of the following elements are referred to as volatile metals?
I. Cadmium
II. Mercury
III. Beryllium
IV. Zinc
A. I, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III

Which statements BEST describe the properties of elements in the Periodic Table,
from the upper right corner, going down and then to the left?
I. Elements increase in metallic character
II. Elements become more electronegative
III. Elements become more basic.
IV. Elements become less electronegative
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, IV

Which group in the periodic table is referred to as the chalcogens?

A. II-B
B. VI-A
C. I-B
D. I-A

Which group is referred to as “coinage”?

A. Group 0
B. Group II-B
C. Group I-B
D. Group III-A

Which of the following statements best describe elements in the Periodic Table?
I. Helium is the first element in Group I-A
II. Non-metals occupy the upper right area of the Periodic Table
III. Metals are located in the left area of the Periodic Table
IV. Diagonally related elements are known as “bridge elements”
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV

Which of the following elements is the MOST metallic?

A. Br
B. I
C. Cl
D. F
Which of the elements is the MOST reactive?
A. Cl
B. Br
C. F
D. I

Arrange the elements according to increasing electronegativity

A. I> Br > Cl > F
B. C > Br > F > I
C. Br > Cl > I > F
D. F > Cl > Br > I

Which of the alkali metals melts above 100 ⁰C?

A. Rubidium
B. Lithium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

The modern periodic table of elements was prepared by:

A. Antoine Lavoisier
B. Dobereiner
C. Mendeleev
D. Moseley

The following compose group V cations, EXCEPT _______.

A. Manganese
B. Lithium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

When water undergoes electrolysis forming hydrogen and oxygen molecules, which
of the following phrases BEST describes this occurrence?
A. Substitution reaction
B. Chemical change
C. Physical change
D. evaporation

What is liberated when potassium permanganate is reacted with hydrochloric acid?

A. Manganous oxide
B. Hypochlorous acid
C. Chlorine
D. Hydrogen

The following react with water forming an acid solution, EXCEPT:

A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Nitrogen dioxide
Which of the following refers to a kind of chemical reaction whereby a substance splits
into simpler substance?
A. Decomposition reaction
B. Single replacement reaction
C. Double replacement reaction
D. Combinations reaction

Which law describes the relationships between pressure, volume and temperature of
gases as depicted in the equation: PV=nRT?
A. Law of definite proportions
B. Ideal gas law
C. Gay-Lussac’s law
D. Boyle’s law

When acids are in solution, which of the following is released?

A. Positrons
B. Neutrons
C. Protons
D. Electrons

Which of the following elements is NOT found as component of extracellular fluids in

humans?
A. Calcium ion
B. Sodium ion
C. Iodine in form of iodide
D. Chlorine in form of chloride

The following are conditions that lead to metabolic acidosis, except.

A. diabetic acidosis
B. renal failure
C. diarrhea
D. hypertension

Replacement therapy is needed when there is _______________.

I. heavy loss of water
II. prolonged fever
III. a fracture
IV. Diarrhea
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, III, IV

Which salt is found in the bicarbonate buffer system of the extracellular fluid of the
human body?
A. Magnesium bicarbonate
B. Potassium bicarbonate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Sodium chloride
The factors that may affect the pH of a buffer solution are as follows, EXCEPT:
A. Presence of neutral salts
B. Constant temperature
C. Dissolution of atmospheric CC2
D. Ionic strength changes of solution

Which of the following refers to the amount of a strong acid or base that must be added
to a liter of solution to change the pH by one unit?
A. Ionization constant
B. Equilibrium constant
C. Concentration
D. Buffer capacity

Which of the following is correct regarding the handling and storage of radioactive
materials?
I. Radioactive materials should never be touched by hand
II. Sufficient protective clothing must be used while handling the materials
III. Radioactive materials should be kept in suitable labeled containers
IV. Should be cost effectiveness
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
A. II, III, IV

Beta particles penetrate tissue up _______________cm.

A. 100
B. 10
C. 1000
D. 1

Which of the following statements is NOT true about half-life of radioisotopes?

A. The faster the isotope decays, the more stable it is
B. Half-life is the time it takes for the amount of radioactivity to reduce 50%
C. The faster the isotope decays, the more unstable it is
D. The half-life is unique for any given isotopes

1 becquerel is equivalent to _______________.

A. 2.7 x 10-5 curie
B. 2.7 x 10-11 curie
C. 2.7 x 10-6 curie
D. 2.7 x 10-10 curie

Which type of radiation has no mass and no charge but has the greatest penetrating
power?
A. Beta radiation
B. Gamma radiation
C. sun rays
D. Alpha radiation
Petrolatum USP is NOT soluble in _______________
A. Chloroform
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Ether
D. benzene

Which of the following is not a solvent for polyethylene glycol?

A. Ethyl alcohol
B. n-propanol
C. water
D. mineral oil

Which of the following is NOT soluble or miscible in alcohol USP?

A. Ether
B. Phenobarbital
C. Formaldehyde
D. Acacia

Which is NOT true for Mineral Oil USP?

A. Immiscible with castor oil
B. It is a mixture of liquid hydrocarbon obtained from petrolatum
C. An antioxidant may be added to prevent peroxide formation
D. Miscible with alcohol

Which is true for alcohols?

A. Water solubility increase as the molecular weight increases.
B. Polarity decreases with increase in number of hydroxyl groups.
C. Water solubility decreases with the branching of the carbon chain of alcohol.
D. Water solubility increases with an increase in the number of hydroxyl groups

Which is true to the alkaloid quinine sulphate?

A. Has a sweet and pleasant taste.
B. May be dissolved in water by addition of a small amount of sulphuric acid to convert
it to more soluble bisulfate
C. This alkaloid is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
D. Is not damaged by exposure to light

Surfactants have:
A. Water solubilizing and fat solubilizing groups in the same molecule.
B. Positive and negative charges
C. Water solubilizing groups only
D. Fat solubilizing groups only.

Compounds that result from a combination of electron donor and a metal forming a
ring structure is called a/an ________.
A. Chelate
B. Prodrug
C. Lactam ring
D. ligand
Which of the following preparation is made up of a combination of non-ionic and
cationic surfactant with iodine?
A. Strong Iodine solution
B. Povidone-iodine
C. Iodine in potassium iodine solution
D. Tincture of Iodine

A complex structure whereby the interactant is a surfactant a molecule that is

composed of both a non polar and a polar portion?
A. Micelle
B. Self-associated aggregate
C. Clathrate
D. Inclusion complex

What is formed when an atom or cation acts as the center about which anions or
molecules arrange themselves?
A. Covalent compounds
B. Ionic compounds
C. Complexes
D. Ionic-covalent compounds

What is the common name of Calcium sulfate dehydrate?

A. Fluorspar
B. Limestone
C. Talc
D. Selenite

What is the chemical name of quartz?

A. Silicon dioxide
B. Magnesium oxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Aluminum oxide

Which of the following characterize Ammoniated Mercury?

I. Volatilizes at red heat
II. Occurs as white amorphous powder
III. Soluble in water and alcohol
IV. Decomposes without fusion
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, IV
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I, III, IV

Which of the following binary compounds is called arsine?

A. CH3
B. AsH3
C. PH3
D. NH3
What is the chemical formula of calomel?
A. HgCI
B. HgO
C. HgCI2
D. SnCI4

Cream of tartar is known chemically as ________.

A. Potassium bitartrate
B. Sodium bitartrate
C. Sodium carbonate
D. Potassium nitrate

Amalgams are alloys of which of the following elements?

A. Mercury
B. Iron
C. Copper
D. zinc

Which of the following compounds exhibits amphoteric properties making it suitable to

prevent systemic alkalosis?
A. Aluminum hydroxide
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Barium sulfate

Upon addition with potassium ferrocyanide, which ion produces Turnbull’s blue
precipitate?
A. Stannic
B. Ferric
C. Stannous
D. Ferrous

Which of the following characterizes of Calcium containing antacids?

A. Calcium is odorless
B. Calcium does not cause alkalosis
C. Calcium does not have amphoteric properties and does not cause systemic
alkalosis.
D. Calcium does not have amphoteric properties.

Simethicone is a component of several antacid formulation, how is it chemically

classified?
A. Wax
B. Ketone
C. Silicone
D. alcohol
Which among the following compounds in incorporated in certain topical preparation
as a solar ray protective or sun block?
A. barium sulfate emetic
B. titanium dioxide
C. sodium nitrate
D. antimony chloride

Which among the following salts is used as an electrolyte replenisher in dehydration?

A. Sodium carbonate
B. Sodium iodine
C. Sodium sulfate
D. Sodium chloride

In the process of purifying water by chlorination what is the rationale of adding chlorine
dioxide?
A. To ensure the pH of the water is 7
B. To destroy unpleasant odor and taste
C. To further disinfect the water
D. To act as a bleaching agent

What is the chemical composition of muriatic acid?

A. Acetic acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Nitric acid

What is saltpeter?
A. Calcium nitrate
B. Magnesium nitrate
C. Sodium nitrate
D. Potassium nitrate

Which of the following common names is the other name for Beryl?
A. Borax
B. Salt Peter
C. Marble
D. Aquamarine

Which of the following elements is found in Grignard reagent?

a. Co
b. Pb
c. Fe
d. Mg

Which of the following is a constituent of a mixture commonly known as Bordeaux

mixture a well-known fungicide?
A. Ferric sulfate
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Cupric sulfate
D. Silver nitrate
Which of the following is the chemical name for Baker’s ammonia?
A. Ammonium hydroxide
B. Ammonium chloride
C. Ammonium carbonate
D. Ammonium molybdate

Fuller’s earth is known as

A. Hydrated magnesium aluminum silicate
B. Floridin
C. Aluminum Magnesium silicate
D. B and C

What is the IUPAC name of valproic acid?

A. 2-Methylpropanoic acid
B. 2-Ethylbutanoic acid
C. 2-Propylpentanoic acid
D. 2-Butylhexanoic acid

What is the systematic name of acetone?

A. Propanone
B. 4-hexanone
C. 2-butanone
D. 3-pentanone

Which of the following is the formula for aldehydes?

A. RCOOH
B. RCOX
C. RCHO
D. ROH

What could be another name for lactic acid?

A. Bichloroacetic acid
B. Dihydroxy succinic acid
C. Ethandioic acid
D. 2- hydroxyl propionic acid

Hydroxybenzoic acid is more commonly known as _______________.

A. Citric acid
B. Oxalic acid
C. Salicylic acid
D. Acetic acid

What is another name for phenylmethanol?

A. Chloratone
B. Benzyl alcohol
C. Diphenylethanol
D. Carvacrol
Paracetamol chemically is a/an _______________.
A. Salicylate derivative
B. Azocaine derivative
C. Aniline derivative
D. Pyrazolone derivative

Which of the following local anesthetic are benzoic acid derivatives?

A. Procaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Etidocaine

Which of the following anesthetics are amino esters?

I. Cocaine
II. Lidocaine
III. Benzocaine
IV. Prilocaine
A. III, IV
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II

Which of the following is NOT an alcohol?

A. Terpin hydrate
B. Sorbitol
C. Menthol
D. Eucalyptol

Which of the following functional group is susceptible to hydrolysis?

A. R---CO---R
B. R---COOH
C. R---O---R
D. R---COOR

Which of the following statements describe cis- and trans isomerism?

I. Occurs only in organic compounds.
II. Occurs in both organic and inorganic compounds.
III. Trans-alkenes have lower solubility in inert solvents than their cis
counterparts.
IV. Cis-and trans-isomers often have different physical properties.
A. I, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III
Which statement best characterize stereoisomers?
I. They do not differ in the order of their atoms.
II. They differ in the order and kind of atoms.
III. They differ in the spatial arrangement of their atoms.
IV. They do not differ in their configuration.
A. I, III
B. III, IV
C. II, III
D. I, III

Which of the following enzymes is involved in the process of sulfonation?

A. Sulfatases
B. Sulfotransferase
C. DT-diaphorases
D. Monoamine oxidase

In sulfate conjugation, this endogenous group is transferred during biotransformation

to the xenobiotics:
A. Sulfide
B. Sulfhydryl
C. Sulfonate
D. Sulfate

This antifungal antibiotic is obtained from Streptomyces noursei?

A. Amphotericin B
B. Griseofulvin
C. Clindamycin
D. Nystatin

For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the following antifungal agents can
be administered by intravenous route?
A. Miconazole
B. Amphotericin B
C. Ketoconazole
D. Clioquinol

Which of the following agents is NOT used for local candidiasis?

A. Nystatin
B. Miconazole
C. Gentian violet
D. Griseofulvin

The ring common among penicillin and cephalosporins is _______________.

A. Beta lactam ring
B. Thiazole ring
C. Benzene ring
D. Phenothialazine ring
Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation?
A. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
B. Benzyl penicillin
C. Methicillin
D. Benzathine penicillin

Sensitivity of Gram-negative bacilli to amoxicillin is attributed to its _________.

A. Carboxyl group
B. Nitro group
C. Hydroxyl group
D. Amino group

Which among the following is an alternative inhibitor for patient allergic to penicillin?
A. Aureomycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Oxacillin
D. Spectinomycin

Which of the following is a first-generation urinary tract anti-infective?

A. Nalidixic acid
B. Griseofulvin
C. Salicylic acid
D. Norfloxacin

Which of the following is chemically a fluoroquinolone?

A. Econazole
B. Methanamine
C. Pipemedic acid
D. Norfloxacin

Gerhard Domagk found out that Prontosil, a red dye is converted to _____. The
metabolite is responsible for the dye’s antimicrobial activity?
A. Sulfacetamide
B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Sulfanilamide
D. Sulfapyridine

Which of the following combination therapy is the treatment of choice for Pneumocystis
carinii pneumonia (PCP)?
A. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
B. Emetine and dehydroemetine
C. Metronidazole and iodoquinol
D. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action of PABA Trimethoprim?

A. Inhibits protein synthesis
B. Competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA
C. Folate reductase inhibitor
D. Destruction of bacterial cell wall
The combination Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole is also KNOWN as _________.
A. Cotrimazine
B. Clotrimazole
C. Miconazole
D. Cotrimoxazole

Which of the following combination therapy is the most effective against

toxoplasmosis?
A. Emetine and dehydroemetine
B. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
C. Metronidazole and iodoquinol
D. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

Which of the following are classified as amebicides?

I. Emetine and dehydroemetine
II. Nitroimidazole derivatives such as Metronidazole
III. Arsenal compound Carbarsone
IV. Dimercaprol
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV

Reactive reduction metabolites of Metronidazole believed to be responsible for

triggering lethal effect on the microorganism include
I. Nitroxide
II. Nitroso
III. Hydroxylamine
IV. Iodoquinol
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, IV

Piperazine citrate, gentian violet, pyrvinium pamoate and thiabendazole are examples
of ______.
A. Antibiotics
B. Antiseptics
C. Anthelmintic
D. Dyes
Which are the uses of antimalarial?
I. Prevention of infection in individuals visiting a malaria-endemic region.
II. Treatment of malaria in individuals with suspected or confirmed infection.
III. Prevention of antimalarial resistance.
IV. Routine intermittent treatment of certain groups in endemic regions.
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV
D. I, III, IV

Which of the following antimalarial are used to treat cases of chloroquine- resistant P.
falciparum?
I. Pyrimethamine
II. Sulfonamide
III. Mefloquine
IV. Atovaquone
A. II, III
B. I, III
C. I, II
D. III, IV

Which of the following are classified as GABA receptor-modulator?

I. Benzodiazepines
II. Barbiturates
III. Chloral hydrate
IV. Ethanol
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV
D. I, III, IV

An example of a barbiturate with intermediate action?

A. Phenobarbital
B. Thiopental
C. Pentobarbital
D. Amobarbital

The onset and duration of barbiturate action is a function of its ____

A. Lipid solubility
B. Renal excretion
C. Plasma binding
D. Mode of administration
Which of the following statements best characterize gamma amino butyric acid?
I. It is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.
II. It is biosynthesized from glutamic acid.
III. High levels of GABA may be linked to anxiety or mood disorders.
IV.GABA is degraded by a pyridoxal-dependent enzyme, GABA
transaminase,producing butyric acid and succinic acid semialdehyde.
A. III, IV
B. II, III
C. I, IV
D. I, II

Which of the following are benzodiazepine derivatives used as anxiolytics?

I. Imidazopyridine
II. Chlordiazepoxide
III. Alprazolam
IV. Diazepam
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV

What are the risks of the long-term use of benzodiazepines?

I. Developing tolerance
II. Developing acute stress reactions
III. Developing dependence
IV. Developing serious sleep problems
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. I, IV
D. III, IV

Which of the following antineoplastic agents are alkylating agents?

I. Nitrosoureas
II. Purine antagonists
III. Methyl hydrazine
IV. Taxanes
A. I, III
B. III, IV
C. II, III
D. I, II

Which of the following antineoplastics is NOT considered as antimetabolite?

A. Methotrexate
B. Thioguanine
C. Fluouracil
D. Cytarabine
Which of the following progesterone derivative is used in the treatment of endometrial
cancer?
A. Goserelin
B. Tamoxifen
C. Flutamide
D. Depo-vera

Which of the following antineoplastic agents are obtained from biological sources?
I. Vinblastine
II. Nitrogen mustard
III. Alkyl sulfonate
IV. Paclitaxel
A. III, IV
B. I, III
C. I, II
D. II, III

Which of the following is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an anti-depressant

drug?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Thioridazine
C. Tranylcypromine
D. Clozapine

The following are used as preservatives, except

A. Methyl Paraben
B. Benzoic acid
C. Potassium Sorbate
D. Undecylenic acid

Which of the following is the expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile of Fagus
grandiflora?
A. Tyloxapol
B. Guaifenesin
C. Potassium iodide
D. Emetine

Which of the following anesthetics is NOT volatile liquid?

A. Halothane
B. Ethyl chloride
C. Ether
D. Cyclopropane

Derivatives of benzylsulfonyl urea are useful as _______________.

A. Diuretics
B. Oral hypoglycemic
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. spasmolytics
Which of the following angiotensin II receptors blockers has the greatest
bioavailability?
A. Irbesartan
B. Losartan
C. Candesartan
D. Olmesartan

Inhaled aminoglycoside for the treatment of Pseudomonal infections in patients with

cystic fibrosis.
A. Neomycin
B. Tobramycin
C. Netilmicin
D. Streptomycin

Amount of solute in a given quantity of solvent is referred to as _______________.

B. Solvation
C. Volume
D. Solubility
E. Concentration

The milliequivalent weight of an acid depends on its_______________.

A. Number of moles
B. Number of replaceable hydroxyl ions
C. Molecular weight
D. Number of replaceable hydrogen atom

What is the problem encountered with the preparation of Silver Nitrate solution? It
____.
A. Dissolved and liquefies
B. Is reduced by light
C. Is oxidized by light
D. Is absorbed

Iodometry is employed in the analysis of:

A. Acids
B. Reducing reagents
C. Oxidizing reagents
D. Complex salts

In quantitative analysis, a burette with a glass stopcock is used to accurately measure

_____ solutions.
A. Acid
B. Blank
C. Alkali
D. Buffer
Which of the following may cause precipitation of barbiturates?
A. Ethyl alcohol
B. Nitric acid
C. Fehling’s solution
D. Magnesia mixture

When observing changes in the crystalline form of a drug, the best method to be used
is ___.
A. Visual appraisal
B. X-ray diffraction
C. Microscopic examination
D. Differential thermal analysis

In the bisulfite method of analysis, which among apparatus listed is used in the assay
of aldehyde or ketones content of volatile oils?
A. Babcock bottle
B. Cassia flask
C. Biuret
D. Distilling apparatus

Chlorides may be precipitated by _______________.

A. Potassium nitrate
B. Calcium chloride
C. Sodium nitrate
D. Silver nitrate

When Ferric salts react with ammonium thiocyanate, Ferric thiocyanate is produced.
This compound has a characteristic _______________color.
A. Dark blue
B. Light violet
C. Dark yellow
D. Blood red

Which of the following is described as one-gram equivalent weight of solute in a liter

of solution?
A. Formal solution
B. Molal solution
C. Normal solution
D. Molar solution

Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly determined by which of the

following analytical methods?
A. Nuclear magnetic resonance
B. Mass spectrophotometry
C. Optical rotation
D. Pk Determination
What is the valence of chromium in Potassium Chromate? The compound’s chemical
formula is K2Cr04
A. 6
B. 5
C. 8
D. 7

Prostaglandins are hormone-like chemicals produced by our cells in response to

inflammation. They closely resemble:
A. Proteins
B. Porphyrins
C. Lipids
D. Enzymes

Which statement best describes the chemistry of fats?

A. fats are steroids with one or more hydroxyl groups
B. fats are esters of glycerin and fatty acids
C. fats are compounds of glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and
choline.
D. Fats are polypeptides

What is the term used when a cofactor that is firmly bound to an apoenzyme?
A. Prosthetic group
A. Transferase
B. Holoenzyme
C. Coenzyme

Which of the following is the least stable vitamin?

A. Vitamin A
B. Niacin
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Folic acid

Which sugar is inherent in nucleic acids RNA or DNA?

A. Arabinose
B. Glucose
C. Ribose
D. Maltose

The determination of partition coefficient is important because this:

I. Predicts where drug will concentrate in the body.
II. Predicts adverse drug interactions in the body.
III. Predicts solubility of a drug in water and fatty tissues in the body.
IV. Predicts how well a chemical ingredient will mix with creams in consumer
products.
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, IV
C. I, II, III
D. I, III, IV
The major organ for drug metabolism is the:
A. Liver
B. Small intestines
C. Kidney
D. Lung

Prodrugs are developed to increase _______________.

A. Water solubility
B. Oral absorption
C. Duration of action
D. Potency

All of the following physicochemical constants are important to predict the solubility of
a compound, except the_______________.
A. pH of a solution
B. pKa of the compound
C. dielectric constant
D. valence of the atoms

What is the role of citric acid in promoting the analgesic potency of Fentanyl
effervescent tablets?
A. It improves palatability of the Fentanyl buccal tablet so it can be used
in children
B. It increases salivary pH
C. It promotes the formation of Fentanyl free base needed for absorption.
D. It promotes dissolution of Fentanyl into saliva.

Which one of the following acids will undergo the least amount of ionization in water?
A. Acetic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Salicylic acid
D. Boric acid

A drug receptor may be all of the following, EXCEPT?

A. Isolable enzyme
B. Functional component of all cell membrane
C. Nucleic acid
D. A chelate

This waxy substance is obtained from head of whales and oftentimes used in the
preparation of cosmetic creams and candles?
A. Spermaceti
B. Carrageenan
C. Fucoidan
D. prostaglandins
All of the following substances naturally obtained from opium extract, EXCEPT?
A. Thebaine
B. Papaverine
C. Codeine
D. Methadone

Mescaline is classified as _____________ derivative.

A. Steroid
B. Xanthine
C. Indole-ethylamine
D. Phenyl-ethylamine

Which of the following is a sulphated polysaccharide compound extracted from brown

algae active herpes simplex virus?
A. Alginic acid
B. Fucoidan
C. Eudistomin
D. Carrageenan

Which of the following are B-carboline derivatives isolated from sponges?

A. Fucoidan
B. Carrageenan
C. Alginic acid
D. Eudistomin

Which of the following are obtained as products of hydrolysis of Carrageenan?

I. Galactose
II. Glucose
III. Arabinose
IV. Xylose
A. I, II, III
B. III, IV
C. II, IV
D. II, III, IV

Which among the listed compounds is a polysaccharide found to be a useful plasma

expander?
A. Dextran
B. Sorbitol
C. Starch
D. Dextrose

These substances absorb moisture from the air but does not dissolve in it.
A. Hygroscopic
B. Dehydrating substance
C. Efflorescent
D. Deliquescent
Which of the following describes potential energy?
A. Boiling water
B. Water inside a big dam
C. Water flowing over a dam
D. Burning gasoline

Which of the following pharmaceutical products requires that; the method of

preparation must be reflected in the label?
A. Sterile water for injection USP
B. Bacteriostatic water for injection USP
C. Purified water USP
D. Milk of magnesia

Which of the following represents the index of the protective power of colloids?
A. Nuggets
B. Lumina
C. Poise
D. Zsigmondy
 MODULE 2

This organelle, found proximal to the endoplasmic reticulum, which receives and acts
on proteins and membrane lipids to further modify them and then transports these on
to other parts of the cell through budding vesicles.
A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi Apparatus
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondria

These organelles have digestive vesicles and contain enzymes that break down
proteins and nucleic acids.
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes
C. Nucleus
D. Lysosomes

The initial stage of protein synthesis, known as transcription occurs in the

______________.
A. Cytoplasm
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Ribosomes
D. Nucleus

Which of the following is true about Taxanes?

A. Taxol, a naturally occurring Taxane, is an antimalarial drug
B. Taxanes were isolated from plants of the genus Taxus
C. Taxanes bind to the microtubules and enhance their depolymerization.
D. Paclitaxel, Docetaxel, Sinigrin, Prunasin, Cabazitaxel are examples of Taxanes.

What are the anticancer agents that are derived from the bark of Pacific Yew. These
agents stabilize the microtubule polymer and protect it from disassembly.
A. Podophyllotoxins
B. Camptothecins
C. Vinca alkaloids
D. Taxanes

Which of the following antibiotics are protein synthesis inhibitors?

A. Nystatin, Polymyxin. Amphotericin B
B. Chloramphenicol, Clindamycin, Gentamicin
C. Rifampin, Actinomycin D, Mitomycin C
D. Bacitracin, cephalosporins, Penicllins

Paclitaxel is an antineoplastic agent isolated from the bark of a plant. What is the
biological source of Paclitaxel?
A. Taxus brevifolia
B. Camptotheca acuminata
C. Catharantus roseus
D. Vinca rosea
D-glucose and D-mannose are both hexoses. What type of isomers are they?
A. Enantiomers
B. Epimers
C. Aldose-ketose
D. diastereomers

Starch, Cellulose, and Inulin are complex sugars hydrolyzed by certain enzymes to
form simple sugars. They are classified as ________________.
A. Heteroglycans
B. Trisaccharides
C. Homoglycans
D. Disaccharides

Which of the following complex sugars are homoglycans?

A. Cellulose, starch, inulin
B. Heparin, agarose
C. Cellobiose, hyaluronic acid
D. Glycogen, agar

Which of the following is a chemical test for monosaccharides?

A. Benedict’s test
B. Keller-Killiani text
C. Biuret test
D. Seliwanoff’s test

Which of the following is a test for reducing sugars?

A. Biuret test
B. Sudan red
C. Molisch’s test
D. Fehling’s test

Which of the following is a test for ketoses?

A. Keller- Killiani
B. Bial’s test
C. Seliwanoff’s
D. Molisch

This metabolic product is used as an acidulant, especially in infant, feeding formula.

A. High-fructose sweeteners
B. Xylose
C. Lactic acid
D. mannitol

This carbohydrate is used as a self-binding tablet diluent and disintegrating agent.

A. Xylose
B. High-fructose sweeteners
C. Powdered cellulose
D. Lactic acid
Which complex carbohydrates are characterized by their amino and uronic acid
contents?
A. Glucosamines
B. Glycosaminoglycans
C. Glycoproteins
D. Neuramines

Heparin vs Heparan
I. Heparin is a fraction of Heparan
II. Heparin consists of repeating disaccharide of glucosamine and iduronate,
that is heavily sulfated
III. Heparin has a great affinity to antithrombin III, a plasma protein that inhibits
proteases involved in the formation of blood clots
IV. Heparin is prepared from intestinal mucosa, which is rich in Heparan sulfate
proteoglycans
A. 2 statements are correct
B. All statements are incorrect
C. 3 statements are correct
D. All statements are correct

Carbohydrates are our body’s immediate source of metabolic energy. Select the
statement that BEST describes carbohydrates.
A. Phosphoglyceraldehyde is the first carbohydrate formed in photosynthesis.
B. Sugars are amorphous powders, water-soluble, and sweet tasting substances.
C. The more complex, high-molecular-weight heteroglycans are represented by
starch, inulin and cellobiose.
D. Cellulose compose of glucose and fructose units, forms the primary cell walls in
plants

Soft, fluffy staple fiber that grows around the seeds of plants of the genus Gossypium
in the family Malvaceae
A. Pyroxylin
B. Cotton
C. Flax
D. Hemp

A flammable mixture of cellulose nitrate, usually with less than 12.5% Nitrogen, that is
soluble in a mixture of ether and alcohol
A. Pyroxylin
B. Cotton
C. Flax
D. Hemp

The fiber in seeds of Cannabis sativa

A. Pyroxylin
B. Cotton
C. Flax
D. Hemp
A member of the genus Linum, which is a food and fiber crop cultivated in cooler
regions of the world
A. Pyroxylin
B. Cotton
C. Flax
D. Hemp

Select the carbohydrate that is administered as an intra-articular injection in cases of

osteoarthritis.
A. Keratin sulfate
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Heparin
D. Beta-D-hexosaminidase-A

What is the mechanism of action of malt extract as an aid in digesting starch?

A. Converts into water-soluble sugars NOT less than 5 times its weight of starch.
B. Contains papain that hydrolyzes starch
C. Contains emulsin that hydrolyzes starch.
D. Contains lactase that converts 50 times its weight of potato starch into sugar.

The enzyme in the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle that catalyzes the condensation of
oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA.
A. Citrate synthase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Aconitase
D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

The enzyme in the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle that catalyzes the carboxylation of
pyruvate to give oxaloacetate.
A. Citrate synthase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Fumarase
D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Which of the following is false about Glycolysis?

A. The first part of glycolysis works on the six-carbon molecule, preparing it for
oxidation.
B. The third part involves the oxidation of glyceraldehyde -3- phosphate molecules to
yield energy.
C. The second part of glycolysis splits the six-carbon molecule into three two-carbon
fragments.
D. One glucose molecule generates two molecules of pyruvate and two units of ATP.

What is the chemical reaction involved in the conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-

phosphate to 1,3-bis-phosphoglycerate.
A. Phosphoryl shift
B. Aldol cleavage
C. Isomerization
D. Reduction-oxidation
What is the chemical reaction involved in the conversion of 3- phosphpglycerate to 2-
phosphoglycerate?
A. Phosphoryl shift
B. Aldol cleavage
C. Isomerization
D. Reduction-oxidation

What is the chemical reaction involved in the conversion of fructose-1,6-bis-phosphate

to glyceraldehyde-3-P and dihydroxyacetone phosphate.
A. Aldol cleavage
B. Phosphoryl shift
C. Isomerization
D. Reduction-oxidation

What are the end product of Glycolysis?

A. Phosphoenolpyruvate
B. Pyruvate
C. Fructose-6-phosphate
D. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

In Gluconeogenesis, non-sugar precursors are converted to glucose. These

precursors are:
A. Glycerol, lactic acid, pyruvic acid
B. Glycerol, lactate, pyruvate, glycogenic amino acids
C. Pyruvic acid, lactic acid, acetic acid
D. Sucrose, lactic acid, pyruvic acid

Glycogen metabolism is controlled by certain hormones. These hormones are:

A. Epinephrine, insulin
B. Epinephrine, glucagon
C. Epinephrine, glucagon, insulin
D. Insulin, glucagon

Develops when the body is starved with glucose during prolonged fasting or starvation
A. Ketosis
B. Diabetes Insipidus
C. Wilson’s Disease
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

Beta cells of the pancreas are gone. No insulin is produced. This condition is controlled
by daily injections of insulin
A. Diabetes Mellitus Type II
B. Diabetes Insipidus
C. Wilson’s Disease
D. Diabetes Mellitus Type I
A normal amount of insulin is produced, either it is not released fast enough when
blood sugar rises or the target tissues have a reduced responsiveness
A. Diabetes Mellitus Type I
B. Diabetes Insipidus
C. Ketosis
D. Diabetes Mellitus Type II

Select the site of pyruvate formation during glycolysis.

A. Liver
B. Muscles
C. Heart
D. Lungs

Classify: Prostaglandins
A. Sphingolipid
B. Fatty acid
C. Glyceryl ester
D. Terpene

Which of the following is the major storage form of fatty acids?

A. Ester of a long chain alcohol.
B. Ester of a monohydric alcohol
C. Triglyceride
D. Ester of polyhydric alcohol

Essential fatty acids are vital but are not synthesized in the body. Identify the essential
fatty acids for humans.
A. Linolenic acid (omega-6) and Linoleic acid (omega-3)
B. Linoleic acid (omega-6) and alpha-Linolenic acid (omega-3)
C. Oleic acid, Linolenic acid
D. Stearic acid, Linoleic acid

Which of the following is an omega-3 fatty acid?

A. Alpha-linoleic acid
B. Beta-linolenic acid
C. Oleic acid
D. Alpha-linolenic acid

This carrier molecule transports activated fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial
membrane.
A. Carnitine
B. Chylomicron
C. Aldimine
D. GLUT
Lipids are biomolecules with diverse functions. Which of the following is true about
lipids and lipid-derivatives?
A. Thromboxanes prevent clotting
B. Prostaglandins stimulate gastric acid secretion
C. Eicosanoids act as messenger inside cells and between neighboring cells.
D. Linoleoyl-CoA is derived from archidonyl-CoA

Which of the following statements best describes fatty acid metabolism?

A. Fatty acid metabolism is not related to carbohydrate metabolism.
B. Fatty acids and their CoA esters are able to freely cross the inner mitochondrial
membrane
C. The release of fatty acids and their subsequent beta-oxidation is a primary source
of metabolic energy for the cell.
D. Fatty acid catabolism is not under hormonal control.

Determine the intermediate product formed in the biosynthesis of fatty acids, when
malonyl-CoA reacts with Acetyl-CoA the product undergoes reduction and elimination
of carbon dioxide.
A. Caproyl-CoA
B. Butyryl-CoA
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. Glycerophosphate

Number of mg of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the free acids and

hydrolyze the esters in 1g sample
A. Saponification Value
B. Acetyl Value
C. Acid Value
D. Peroxide Value

Refers to the difference between saponification and acid value

A. Ester Value
B. Acetyl Value
C. Hydroxyl Value
D. Iodine Value

Number of mg of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the acetic acid freed by

the hydrolysis of acetylated fat
A. Hydroxyl Value
B. Acetyl Value
C. Peroxide Value
D. Acetyl Value

Number of mg of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the acid combined by

acylation of the sample
A. Peroxide Value
B. Iodine Value
C. Hydroxyl Value
D. Acetyl Value
Measures the degree of unsaturation of the oil
A. Peroxide Value
B. Saponification Value
C. Iodine Value
D. Hydroxyl Value

Find the hormones used in the diagnosis of pancreatic disorders.

A. Cholecystokinin, secretin
B. Secretin and Gastrin
C. Choleccystokinin and Insulin
D. Gastrin and calcitonin

Analyze which oil is suitable for painting.

A. Coconut oil
B. Orange oil
C. Castor oil
D. Linseed oil

Amino acids are classified based on their side chains. Classify Glutamine and Aspartic
acid.
A. Sulfur-containing side chain
B. Aromatic side chain
C. Carboxylic acid
D. Basic side chain

Proteins are composed of monomer units called amino acids. The amino acids are
linked together by __________ bonds.
A. Peptide
B. H-bonds
C. Ionic bonds
D. Dipole-dipole

Identify the chemical bond that joins amino acids together in a protein molecule.
A. Peptide
B. H-bonds
C. Ionic bonds
D. Dipole-dipole

What are the functional groups that are distinct amino acids?
A. Amino acid and carboxylic acid groups
B. Amino and hydroxyl groups.
C. Hydroxyl and carboxylic acid groups
D. Methyl and carboxylic acid groups.

This is described as the simplest amino acid.

A. Serine
B. Alanine
C. Glycine
D. Lysine
These are examples of transport and storage proteins:
A. Ribonuclease, Hexokinase
B. Actin, Myosin
C. Hemoglobin, Myoglobin, serum Albumin
D. Keratin, Actin

Ninhydrin Test is:

A. Based on the reaction of cupric ions of the reagent with the N of the peptide bonds,
forming a purple or violet colored complex.
B. Based on the nitration of proteins, which leads to the formation of a yellow
precipitate that turns to orange on treatment with an alkali,
C. Based on the reaction between the phenolic group of a protein with mercuric sulfate
in the presence of sodium nitrite and sulfuric acid resulting in the formation of a red
colored solution.
D. Based on the reaction between the reagent and the amino group of the free amino
acid of the test sample, which leads to the oxidation of the compound and its
deamination, and resulting in the formation of a deep blue colored solution.

The amino acid Tyrosine is converted to catecholamine. These are:

A. Norepinephrine and epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine
C. Norepinephrine, dopamine
D. epinephrine, dopamine

The most abundant of the serum immunoglobulins is:

A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgA

Which of the following enzymes is important for the control of infections because it
hydrolyzes bacterial cell walls?
A. Carbonic anhydrase
B. Lysozyme
C. Lactase dehydrogenase
D. Kinase

Enzymes employ different catalytic strategies while performing their roles. Which of
the following is the strategy of restriction endonucleases?
A. Utilization of the free energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP.
B. Achievement of a high absolute rate of reaction that is suitable for integration with
other physiological processes
C. Attainment of a high degree of specificity
D. Promotion of a reaction that is immeasurably slow at neutral pH.

Fumarase is an example of:

A. Hydrolase
B. Ligase
C. Transferase
D. Lyase
Enzymes employ different catalytic strategies while performing their roles. Which of
the following is the strategy of carbonic anhydrase?
A. Attainment of a high degree of specificity
B. Achievement of a high absolute rate of reaction that is suitable for integration with
other physiological processes.
C. Promotion of a reaction that is immeasurably slow at neutral pH.
D. Utilization of the free energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP.

Zymogens are inactive forms of enzymes. The zymogen of the enzyme trypsin is ___.
A. Fibrinogen
B. Pepsinogen
C. Trypsinogen
D. procarboxypeptidase

Classify nucleoside monophosphate kinase

A. Ligase
B. Hydrolase
C. Lyase
D. Transferase

Enzyme inhibitors are employed in medicine for the treatment of diseases. Identify the
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that finds clinical application in the treatment of glaucoma
by reducing intraocular pressure.
A. Celecoxib
B. Sulfanilamide
C. Acetazolamide
D. pirenoxine

The coenzyme of aminotransferases is:

A. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
B. Pyridoxal phosphate
C. Flavin adenine dinucleotide
D. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate

This polymer of ribonucleotides is responsible for transcribing the complementary DNA

message.
A. rRNA
B. tRNA
C. hnRNA
D. mRNA

Identify the stage in protein synthesis when the anticodon of tRNA recognizes the
codon on mRNA.
A. Termination
B. Transcription
C. Translation
D. Elongation
Which of the following are complementary base pairs in DNA?
A. Adenine- Thymine, Cytosine—Guanine
B. Adenine –Thymine, Cytosine—Uracil
C. Uracil— Thymine, Cytosine— Guanine
D. Uracil— Thymine, Adenine – Guanine

What is the complementary sequence for this DNA segment: CATCAA?

A. CGAATU
B. CUAGUU
C. GTAGTT
D. TTAGTT

One of the causes of this genetic condition is the absence of adenosine deaminase,
an enzyme in the purine degradation pathway
A. Severe combined immunodeficiency
B. Neural tube defects
C. Gout
D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

DNA polymerase plays an important role in _______________.

A. Termination
B. Primer binding
C. Replication fork formation
D. Elongation

Select the sequence of the mRNA segment synthesized from this DNA template
strand:
---CTCCGCCCGACG-----
A. GAGGCGGGCUGC
B. GAGGCGGCCUGC
C. GACGCGGGCUGG
D. GAGCCGGGCUGC

Folates are important precursors of DNA nucleotides. During pregnancy, supplements

containing folates must be taken to prevent:
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B. Severe combined immunodeficiency
C. Gout
D. Neural tube defects

Pick the one that does not belong to the group.

A. Telomeres
B. Okazaki fragments
C. Leading strand
D. Lagging strand
The coenzyme that is required for transamination, a reaction catalyzed by
aminotransferases.
A. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
B. Pyridoxal phosphate
C. Flavin adenine dinucleotide
D. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate

Select the vitamin that requires bile salts and dietary lipids for its efficient absorption
from the intestinal tract.
A. Vit C
B. Vit K
C. Vit A
D. Vit E

Evaluate which compound is converted to cholecalciferol

A. 5-dihydrocholesterol
B. 6-dehydrocholesterol
C. 7-dihydrocholesterol
D. 7-dehydrocholesterol

It is a non-polar vitamin, a mixture of tocopherols. Serves as an antioxidant in

biomembranes, protecting phospholipids and embedded proteins against the oxidative
attack of free radicals
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin E
C. Biotin
D. Riboflavin

It is made by gut bacteria. Serves as a co-factor in carboxylation reactions

A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin E
C. Biotin
D. Riboflavin

Co-factor in numerous biochemical index reactions, where its ability to accept and
donate electrons one at a time is valuable
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin A
D. Riboflavin

Vitamin required for the clotting of blood

A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin A
D. Riboflavin
Retinol, Retinal, Retinoic acid are the 3 forms of the vitamin. Retinal serves as an
important co-factor for the protein rhodopsin, a visual pigment in rod cells.
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin A
D. Riboflavin

This method of evaluating crude drugs involves the use of the organs of senses. The
analyst evaluates the macroscopic appearance of the drug, its odor and taste, the
sound or “snap” of the fracture, and the feel of the drug to the touch.
A. Microscopic method
B. Biological method
C. Organoleptic method
D. Chemical method

This method of evaluating crude drugs makes use of physical constants, such as
optical rotation, to the active constituents of drugs.
A. Physical method
B. Chemical method
C. Biological method
D. Organoleptic method

Peppermint oil is isolated from the fresh leaves of Mentha piperita. Determine the best
method to isolate the oil.
A. Enfleurage
B. Extraction with a volatile solvent
C. Expression
D. Steam Distillation

What type of terpenes are retinol and phytol?

A. Monoterpenes
B. Diterpenes
C. Triterpenes
D. Sesquiterpenes

This group of terpenes are composed of 20 carbon atoms.

A. Sesquiterpenes
B. Diterpenes
C. Triterpenes
D. Tetraterpenes

What special secretory structures are found in Pinus palustris?

A. Modified parenchyma cells
B. Schizogenous intercellular spaces
C. Vittae
D. Glandular hairs
Isoprene is a
A. 5-carbon compound with the formula: CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2CH3
B. 3-carbon compound with the formula: CH2=C=CH2
C. 4-carbon compound with the formula: CH2=CH-CH=CH2
D. 5-carbon compound with the formula: CH2=C(CH3)-CH=CH2

The volatile oils from Caraway and Buchu are chemically classified as:
A. Peroxides
B. Phenols
C. Ketones
D. Ethers

The volatile oils from Lavender oil and Wintergreen are chemically classified as:
A. Ketones
B. Phenols
C. Aldehydes
D. Esters

The Alkaloidal test reagent is a solution of potassium bismuth iodide and gives and
orange colored precipitate.
A. Dragendorff’s
B. Mayer’s
C. Wagner’s
D. Hager’s

Classify Ergonovine and Reserpine.

A. Imidazole
B. Purine
C. Steroidal
D. Indole

Family name of Atropa belladonna

A. Papaveraceae
B. Fabaceae
C. Solanaceae
D. Berberidaceae

Find the pairs that are NOT correctly matched.

A. Lobelia inflata – hyoscine
B. Hyoscyamus niger – hyoscyamine
C. Erythroxylum coca – cocaine
D. Datura stramonium – hyoscyamine

Select the pair that is NOT correctly matched.

A. Tobacco – nicotine for smoking cessation
B. Belladonna – spasmolytic agent
C. Datura – anticholinergic agent
D. Coca- local analgesic
An anti-diabetic herbal medicine.
A. Banaba
B. Yerba Buena
C. Tsaang gubat
D. Lagundi

What is the scientific name of Bignay?

A. Hibiscus sabdariffa
B. Abelmoschus esculentus
C. Ehretia microphylla
D. Antidesma bunius

What is the scientific name of Tawa-Tawa?

A. Taxus brevifolla
B. Ehratia microphilla
C. Abelmoschus asculentus
D. Grammatophyllum scriptum

Select the correct triad of “health foods”

A. Symphytum officinale – Comfrey – hepatotoxic
B. Spirulina maxima – spirulina – fertility drug
C. Glycyrrhiza glabra – licorice – antidiabetic
D. Oenothera biennis – Evening Primrose – analgesic

Which hormone is considered as the plant growth and metabolic inhibitor, acts as an
antagonist to gibberellic acid, and increases the tolerance of plants to stress?
A. Abscisic acid
B. Gibberellins
C. Auxins
D. Ethylene

This substance is converted to phenylalanine in the Shikimic Acid Pathway.

A. Anthranilic acid
B. Chorismic acid
C. Para-hydroxyphenylpyruvic avid
D. Phenylpyruvic acid

The Shikimic acid pathway is a biogenetic pathway that leads to the formation or
folates and _____.
A. Aromatic compounds
B. Alipahatic compounds
C. Branched compounds
D. Cyclic compounds

Glucovanillin is classified as a/an _______. It is mainly used as a/an ____________.

A. Aldehyde, flavor
B. Flavonol, antibacterial
C. Anthraquinone, cathartic
D. Saponin, analgesic
What is the hypotensive constituent isolated from Rauwolfia serpentina?
A. Reserpine
B. Scopolamine
C. Emetine
D. Codeine

Which of the following Scientific Name- Constituent- use is correct?

A. Datura stramonium—Scopolamine—Flavor
B. Glycyrrhiza glabra—limonene— Expectorant
C. Catharanthus roseus—Quinine-anticancer
D. Citrus sinensis—Limonene -flavor

Which vaccine is recommended for children 2-3 months of age.

A. Live Oral Poliovirus Vaccine
B. Covid-19 Vaccine
C. Rabies Vaccine
D. Hepatitis B Vaccine

Identify the vaccine, which is a sterile suspension of inactivated virus strains that are
grown separately in primary cultures of Rhesus monkey kidney tissues, bathed in a
complex nutrient fluid containing more than 50 ingredients.
A. Influenza virus vaccine
B. Rabies Vaccine
C. Poliomyelitis vaccine
D. Smallpox vaccine
 MODULE 3

This/these drugs are indicated for the treatment of motion sickness?

I. Dimenhydrinate
II. Meclizine
III. Memantine
A. I, II, and III
B. I and II
C. II
D. III

A patient was prescribed Varenicline. This drug used for ________.

A. Obesity prevention
B. Drug rehabilitation
C. Smoking cessation
D. Treatment of alcohol withdrawal symptoms

To differentiate the drugs Heparin and Warfarin, which of the following is/are TRUE?
I. Heparin is administered parenterally while warfarin is given orally.
II. Dosage strength of both heparin and warfarin are expressed in “Units”.
III. They are both anticoagulants.
IV. They have the same antidotes in cases of overdose.
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. I and III
D. II and III

Which of the following drugs belongs to the same pharmacologic class as Drug
LMWH?
A. Vasopressin
B. Terazosin
C. Warfarin
D. Enoxaparin

Which of the following would be the indication of Drug LMWH to the patient?
A. CHF treatment
B. DVT treatment
C. AMI treatment
D. BPH treatment

How are low molecular weight heparins (LMWH) administered?

A. Oral
B. subcutaneous
C. intramuscular
D. intravenous
Before the drug Rosuvastatin is given, which of the following parameters should be
monitored in relation to a known adverse effect of this drug?
A. Liver function test
B. Blood glucose level
C. Kidney function test
D. Blood pressure

A patient with pneumonia has a sputum culture that is positive for a beta-lactamase
positive staphylococcal strain. What is the BEST choice of penicillin therapy for this
patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Penicillin G
D. Oxacillin

Which anti-diabetic drug works as a competitive reversible inhibitor of DPP-4, reducing

enzymatic inactivation of the incretin hormones, GLP-1 and GIP?
A. Metformin
B. Nateglinide
C. Pioglitazone
D. Sitagliptin

Which of the following beta-blockers has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?

A. Timolol
B. Propanol
C. Nebivolol
D. Pindolol

The following are 3rd generation Cephalosporin EXCEPT________.

A. Cefixime
B. Cefotaxime
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Cefazolin

Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are aminopenicillins. Which of the following comparisons

is/are true?
I. They both have similar spectrum
II. Hypersensitivity reaction may occur for both.
III. Ampicillin is better absorbed orally compared to Amoxicillin.
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. I and III

Hepatitis B is a viral infection severely affecting the liver cells. Which of the following
drugs would be indicated for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Niclosamide
C. Entecavir
D. Meropenem
Iopamidol, an iodine containing compound is used as a _____________.
A. Household chemical
B. Disinfectant
C. Food supplement
D. Contrast media

Atracurium is classified as a/an _______.

A. Anticoagulants
B. Anesthetic agents
C. Antipsychotic drugs
D. Neuromuscular blockers

A cancer patient receives Granisetron during chemotherapy. The drug is given to

_______.
A. Increase immune system of the patient
B. Reduce duration of neutropenia
C. Prevent nausea and vomiting
D. Increase appetite of patient

A patient asked the pharmacist about the use of the drug Fondaparinux. What is the
correct response?
A. It is an NSAID indicated for moderate to severe pain.
B. It is an antibiotic to prevent infection.
C. It is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
D. It dissolves any clot that will develop.

Glutathione is an antioxidant commonly used today as a skin lightening agent. Which

of the following is/are TRUE regarding IV glutathione?
I. It affects the production of melatonin
II. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is as adjunct treatment in cisplatin
chemotherapy.
III. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is for skin lightening.
A. III
B. I and II
C. II
D. I, II and III

Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding Mebendazole?

I. It is a medication for ascariasis.
II. It is poorly absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.
III. It is administered parenterally.
A. I and II
B. I
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
Which of the following is/are true regarding Tetrahydrozoline?
I. It has an otic preparation
II. It is a vasoconstrictor
III. It is an adrenergic antagonist
A. II
B. III
C. I, II and III
D. II and III

The anti-inflammatory effect of aspirin is due to_______.

A. An antiplatelet effect
B. Its acidity
C. The stimulation of endogenous hydrocortisone production
D. The inhibition of the synthesis of prostaglandins

Which of the following is a Monoclonal Antibody?

A. Docetaxel
B. Bevacizumab
C. Erlotinib
D. Pegfilgrastim

Which of the following is a “fat-soluble vitamin”?

A. Riboflavin
B. Alpha-tocopherol
C. Vitamin B6
D. Cyanocobalamin

Which of the following is used as a treatment of Taenia saginata infection?

A. Niclosamide
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Mebendazole
D. Primaquine

Indication for prescribing the drug Febuxostat to a patient.

A. High uric acid
B. Low hemoglobin
C. High Low Density Lipoprotein
D. High Triglyceride

Which of the following is/are true about Co-trimoxazole

I. It is a combination of Trimethoprim and Sulfisoxazole
II. The drugs are antibacterial agents
III. Topical preparations are locally available
A. I and II
B. II
C. I, II and III
D. I
Which of the following is/are True about Sildenafil?
I. It causes priapism
II. It is indicated for erectile dysfunction
III. It is a PDE 5 inhibitor
A. I and II
B. III
C. I, II and III
D. II

The sputum sample of a 55-year-old patient with pneumonia is positive for a

staphylococcal strain that is beta-lactamase positive. Which is the BEST choice of
penicillin therapy in this patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Penicillin G
D. Oxacillin

A patient has allergies to beta-lactam antibiotics. Without skin testing, which of the
following is not a beta-lactam antibiotic to which the patient may not be allergic to?
A. Cefalexin
B. Nafcillin
C. Meropenem
D. Doxycycline

The following are 3rd generation Cephalosporin EXCEPT________.

A. Cefixime
B. Cefotaxime
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Cefazolin

The pharmacist was asked to compare Amoxicillin and Ampicillin. Which of the
following statements are TRUE regarding the two?
I. They both have similar spectrum
II. Hypersensitivity reaction may occur for both.
III. Ampicillin is better absorbed orally compared to Amoxicillin.
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. I and III

Which of the following are TRUE about Streptomycin?

I. Mechanism of action is similar to Erythromycin
II. Belongs to Aminoglycosides
III. Effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
A reversible cholestatic hepatitis with fever and jaundice has been observed as an
adverse reaction in patients taking Erythromycin _____________.
A. Estolate
B. Base
C. Ethylsuccinate
D. Stearate

What is the enzyme inhibitor commonly combined with Ampicillin?

A. Sulbactam
B. Tazobactam
C. Beta-lactamase
D. Clavulanic acid

Which of the following medicines will bring down the patient’s cholesterol levels?
I. Atorvastatin
II. Cholestyramine
III. Fenofibrate
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III

Increased levels of this lipoprotein is associated with a decreased risk of

atherosclerosis
A. Very Low Density
B. Low Density
C. High Density
D. Triglycerides

What adverse effect may result from the intake of HMG CoA reductase inhibitors?
A. Bleeding
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Hypertensive crisis

A physician called up the pharmacy to as regarding availability of antiplatelet agents

on stock.
Which of the following items would the physician be referring to?
I. Cilostazol
II. Aspirin
III. Clopidogrel
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II and III
D. I and III
Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Thrombolytics dissolve clots, example is Aspirin. Antithrombotic reduces thrombus
formation, example is Reteplase
B. Thrombolytics dissolve clots, example is Reteplase. Antithrombotic reduces
thrombus formation, example is Aspirin.
C. Thrombolytics reduces thrombus formation, example is Aspirin. Antithrombotic
dissolves clots, example is Reteplase.
D. Thrombolytics reduces thrombus formation, example is Reteplase. Antithrombotic
dissolves clots, example is Aspirin.

Which of the following is an inhalational-type general anesthetic?

A. Succinylcholine
B. Propofol
C. Sevoflurane
D. Ketamine

These is/are non-opioid IV preparation that can be used to produce general

anesthesia?
I. Meperidine
II. Thiopental
III. Midazolam
A. I and II
B. II
C. I
D. II and III

The nurse administered Naloxone for a patient at the ER. Which of the following
physical assessment data is important to indicate the effectiveness of the drug?
A. Reduction of body temperature
B. Seizure has stopped
C. Respiratory rate has normalized
D. (-) chest pain

When a certain additive alters the inherent characteristic of an IV drug, this is _____.
A. Pharmacodynamic incompatibility
B. Pharmaceutical incompatibility
C. Pharmacokinetic incompatibility
D. Therapeutic incompatibility

The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibility EXCEPT________.

A. Evolution of gas
B. Photolysis
C. Gel formation
D. immiscibility
Anti-TB drugs are usually administered in combination. This is to achieve __ among
the agents.
A. Antagonism
B. Synergism
C. Potentiation
D. Enhancement of bioavailability

When a drug which has no effect or has a different effect enhances the effect of a
second drug, this is ________________.
A. Antagonistic interaction
B. Potentiation interaction
C. Synergistic reaction
D. Addition interaction

The following are pharmacokinetic interactions involving food EXCEPT______.

A. Fats decreasing gastric emptying time
B. Grapefruit juice interfering with the metabolism of certain drugs.
C. Green leafy vegetables antagonizing the effect of warfarin.
D. Probenecid competes with the active tubular secretion of Penicillins

A student pharmacist was reviewing a new order of Aldactone for a patient who is
receiving an ACE inhibitor. Which of the following significant interaction should be
noted by the student pharmacist?
A. Aldactone may antagonize the action of the ACE inhibitor.
B. Both drugs may interact to cause an elevation in blood potassium levels
C. Both drugs may interact to cause an elevation in uric acid levels
D. Both drugs may interact to cause a decrease blood sugar levels

If a patient takes Griseofulvin with high fat meal, this will most likely result to
____________.
A. Increase in the absorption of griseofulvin
B. Decrease the elimination of griseofulvin
C. Potentiates the side effects of griseofulvin
D. Decrease the absorption of griseofulvin

Miconazole is a potent inhibitor of CYP2C9. What would be the resulting effect when
a topical preparation (cream) of miconazole interacts with another drug that will
metabolized by CYP2C9?
A. No interaction is likely to happen since systemic absorption of miconazole from the
cream is so low
B. Concentration of the drug that will interact with miconazole will increase
C. A pharmacodynamics interaction will be expected
D. Concentration of the drug that will interact with miconazole will decrease

Melissa is taking ampalaya supplements. This may potentially have an additive

pharmacodynamic effect with what medication she is taking?
A. Antihypertensive agent
B. Antiasthma drugs
C. Antidiabetic agents
D. Antidepressants
Digoxin toxicity due to the depletion of electrolytes brought by intake of diuretics, such
as thiazides, is an example of _____.
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction
B. Pharmaceutical interaction
C. Both pharmacological and pharmaceutical interaction
D. Pharmacodynamic interaction

Which of the following factors will directly lead to a drug interaction?

I. Multiple pharmacologic effect of drugs
II. Pharmacokinetic variability of a patient
III. Pharmacoeconomics evaluation of drugs
A. II and III
B. I, II and III
C. I and II
D. I

What is the significant interaction involving Orlistat and a fat-soluble vitamin, such as
Vit. D?
A. Decrease in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins
B. Decrease in the absorption of orlistat
C. Increase in the absorption of orlistat
D. Increase in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins

Tyramine rich food taken together with MAO inhibitors lead to

I. Accumulation of pressor amines
II. Non-metabolism of Tyramine
III. Increase in blood pressure
A. I, II, III
B. I, II
C. I, IIII
D. II and III

In drug interactions, the “drug affected by the interaction” is the

A. Inactive Drug
B. Precipitant Drug
C. Active Drug
D. Object Drug

Which of the following is/are TRUE?

I. Levodopa inhibits the peripheral metabolism of Carbidopa
II. Carbidopa inhibits the peripheral metabolism of Levodopa
III. Immediate release tablets can be crushed for NGT administration
IV. Immediate release tablets cannot be crushed for NGT administration
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I and II
When a drug alters the absorption of another drug, this is
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction
B. Physico-chemical interaction
C. Pharmacodynamic interaction
D. Pharmaceutical interaction

Which of the following is rational?

I. Aspirin given with Warfarin to enhance anticoagulation
II. Multiple anti-hypertensives to control hypertension
III. Giving Levofloxacin with antacids to decrease GI distress
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II
D. I

What is the interaction between Warfarin and Vitamin K?

A. Antagonistic
B. Additive
C. Potentiation
D. Synergistic

If Drug A inhibits the excretion of Drug B, then there will be a/an

A. Decrease in blood levels of Drug A
B. Decrease in blood levels of Drug B
C. Increase in blood levels of Drug A
D. Increase in blood levels of Drug B

Which of the following can increase the clearance of another drug?

I. Grapefruit Juice
II. Phenytoin
III. Cigarette Smoke
IV. Carbamazepine
A. III
B. I, II and III
C. II and III
D. I

If Drug A induces the metabolism of Drug B, then there will be a/an

A. Decrease in blood levels of Drug A
B. Decrease in blood levels of Drug B
C. Increase in blood levels of Drug A
D. Increase in blood levels of Drug B
Which of the following medications may affect the absorption of Doxycycline?
I. Warfarin
II. Aluminum and Magnesium Hydroxide
III. Ferrous Sulfate
IV. Vitamin C
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II, III and IV

Which of the following drugs may cause a decrease in the effectiveness of

Ciprofloxacin?
A. Ferrous sulfate tablets
B. Levocetirizine
C. Vitamin B complex
D. Levetiracetam

Which of the following study designs would be most appropriate in determining the
efficacy of the drug?
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Randomized controlled study
C. Cohort study
D. Case-control study

Which of the following is/are TRUE when conducting clinical trials?

I. Serious Adverse Drug Reaction can happen.
II. Children can be test subjects.
III. Placebo can be used for comparison.
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I

Which of the following phases of clinical trials would usually involve healthy human
subject?
A. Phase 4
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 1
D. Phase 3

The hospital pharmacist has reviewed several clinical papers concerning the benefits
of a new formulary drug and is preparing summary comparing the findings for
publication. Which term is used to describe this type of review?
A. Meta-analysis
B. Double blind study
C. Peer review
D. Dimensional analysis
A study was approved that aims to determine the relationship between a newly
approved formulary drug and ulcer. Record of patients diagnosed with peptic ulcer
disease versus controls over the period from July 2009- July 2019 was used. This is
an example of a __ study?
A. Cross-sectional
B. Cohort
C. Retrospective
D. Prospective

Which of the following parameters should be considered when storing medications?

I. Temperature
II. Air velocity
III. Particle count
IV. Relative humidity
A. I, II, and IV
B. II and III
C. I
D. I and IV

In a compounding extemporaneous preparations, the beyond use date per USP

guideline for water containing oral preparations (when stored at cold temperature), is
_________.
A. no longer than 30 days
B. no longer than 7 days
C. no longer than 14 days
D. no longer than 24 days

For “medical information sources”, what category would journal articles belong?
A. Company provided literature
B. Tertiary literature
C. Primary literature
D. Secondary literature

Which of the following refer to drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant
patient harm when used In error?
A. Non-formulary drugs
B. High-alert medications
C. Look-alike, sound-alike drugs
D. High value medication

Which of the following conditions may contribute to drug administration errors?

I. Failure to check the patient’s identity prior to administration
II. Counterchecking of the drug by a 2nd nurse prior to administration
III. Storage of “Look-alike” preparations side by side in the patient’s medication
cabinet
A. II
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
Which of the following drugs would be best subjected to Therapeutic Drug Monitoring?
I. Phenytoin
II. Gentamicin
III. Carbamazepine
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III

Which of the following procedures/equipment is used to assess the patient’s

pulmonary function?
A. Angiogram
B. EEG
C. Peak Flow Measurement
D. 2D Echo test

A patient who undergoes serum enzyme testing is found to have an increased

aspartate aminotransferase level. Which of the following is the possible underlying
causes of this abnormality?
A. Acute kidney failure
B. Hepatitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Which of the following procedures/equipment is used to determine pulmonary

function?
A. EEG
B. Spirometry
C. MRI
D. Angiogram

Which of the following are TRUE regarding specific gravity;

I. Water is used as a standard for the specific gravities of liquids and solids.
II. Urine specific gravity is a measure of solute in the urine.
III. Substances that have a specific gravity greater than 1 are heavier than
water.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II, III
D. II and III

Which of the following refers to an acquired abnormal response that is not expected
to result from a known pharmacologic action, and is mediated by immunological
mechanism?
A. Primary pharmacologic effect
B. Hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type A ADR
D. Drug interaction
The following are manifestations of “extrapyramidal symptoms” EXCEPT________.
I. Akinesia
II. Anuria
III. Akathisia
A. I
B. III
C. II
D. I and III

Which of the following may cause drug-induced kernicterus in the neonates?

A. Isoniazid
B. Sulfisoxazole
C. Doxycycline
D. Chloramphenicol

Which of these oral hypoglycemic drugs can cause weight loss?

A. Exenatide
B. Metformin
C. Gliclazide
D. Pioglitazone

A diabetic patient suffering from hypertension is having enalapril. However, he

complained of severe dry cough which has been associated to the drug. Which would
be the best alternative for enalapril for this patient?
A. Indapamide
B. Losartan
C. Amlodipine
D. Captopril

Which of the following is the adverse effect associated with Streptomycin?

A. Optic neuritis
B. Hepatitis
C. Ototoxicity
D. Peripheral neuropathy

All the following characteristics about Type B ADR is/are TRUE, EXCEPT________.
I. Dose dependent
II. Unpredictable ADR
III. Unrelated to the pharmacological effect of the drug
A. I and III
B. I
C. III
D. II
Which of the following can cause drug-induced liver injury. Which of the following?
I. Isoniazid
II. Rifampicin
III. Pyrazinamide
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and II

Which of the following adverse effects is associated with Ethambutol?

A. Optic neuritis
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Hepatitis
D. Ototoxicity

Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of

chloramphenicol?
A. Phototoxicity
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Alopecia
D. Staining of teeth

What government agency issues this a Yellow Prescription?

A. PDEA
B. DOH
C. FDA
D. DDB

How many copies of the Yellow Prescription are issued when used?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2

Which of the following is not true for extended-release products?

A. They have shorter interval for succeeding doses.
B. These drug products should not be crushed when administered.
C. “Dose dumping” may occur.
D. Their bioavailability profile is more complicated compared to immediate release
forms.

Which of the following is NOT an advisable mode of administration for potassium

supplements?
A. Oral solutions
B. IV Bolus
C. Modified-release tablet, po
D. IV infusion
In monitoring the inventory of drugs in the pharmacy, which of the following
transactions will DECREASE the “Stock onhand” of Drug XYZ?
I. Dispensing of Drug XYZ during a routine fill
II. Return of Drug XYZ to pharmacy from the nursing unit
III. Return of Drug XYZ to the supplier after a recall order.
A. II and III
B. I, II and III
C. I
D. I, and III

The IV fluid “D50W” means_____.

A. 0.5% Dextrose in Water
B. 50% Dextrose in Water
C. 5% Dextrose in Water
D. 0.05% Dextrose in Water

Which of the following needles has the smallest diameter?

A. 23 G x 1 in
B. 30 G x ½ in
C. 21 G x 2 in
D. 27 x 1 1/4 in

Pregnancy test kits yield a positive result when this hormone is present in the urine.
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone
C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D. Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone

Peripheral vein injection may be considered a suitable route for IV administration when
___.
I. A non-irritating drug is given
II. Given in a short term basis
III. Hypertonic solution are given
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

Which of the following is a positive inotropic agent?

A. Lanoxin
B. Isproterenol
C. Plavix
D. Actilyse

Which of the following is the route of administration of sodium nitroprusside?

A. Injectable
B. Sublingual tablet
C. Transdermal
D. Oral, sustained-release tablet
Which of the following is not a diuretic?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Spironolactone
C. Desmopressin
D. Mannitol

Causes of Megaloblastic Anemia

I. Iron deficiency
II. Vitamin B12 deficiency
III. Folic acid deficiency
A. III
B. I, II and III
C. I
D. II and III

Which of the following is/are true regarding the condition BPH?

I. It is a malignancy in the prostate
II. It can be treated using alpha blockers
III. It presents with an elevated PSA
A. III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. I, II and III

PHARMACEUTICAL CALCULATIONS:
Synacthen 250 mcg/mL is equivalent to____.
A. Synacthen 0.025 mg/ mL
B. Synacthen 0.25 mg/ mL
C. Synacthen 2.5 mg/ mL
D. Synacthen 0.0025 mg/ mL

The dimensions of the nicotine transdermal patch system are 4.7 cm by 4.8 cm. What
would be the corresponding dimensions in inches?
A. 18.5 inches X 18.9 inches
B. 11.94 inches X 12.19 inches
C. 47 inches X 48 inches
D. 1.85 inches X 1.89 inches
If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the active drug, how many inhalation doses can be
delivered, if each inhalation dose contains 90 micrograms?
A. 22 doses
B. 222 doses
C. 500 doses
D. 50 doses

How many colchicine tablets, each containing 500 micrograms, maybe prepared from
45 grams of colchicine?
A. 9000 tablets
B. 900 tablets
C. 90000 tablets
D. 90 tablets

The usual dose range of dimercaprol is 2.5 – 5 mg/kg of body weight. What would be
the dose range for a person weighing 165 lbs?
A. 0.187 g – 0.375 g
B. 412.5 g – 825 g
C. 41. 5 g – 82.5 g
D. 187.5 g – 375 g

Cetuximab has a loading dose of 400 mg/m2 administered as an intravenous infusion

over a 120- minute period. Using an IV set that delivers 15 drops/mL, calculate the
dose for a patient with a BSA of 1.5m2.
A. 600 mg
B. 4 grams
C. 640 mg
D. 40 mg
If there is an order for a particular Dangerous Drug (DD) with a preparation of 10 mg/2
mL ampule, how many mL would be needed if the dose is 0.05 mg/kg/dose? The
patient is 110 lbs.
A. 1 mL
B. 0.05 mL
C. 0.25 mL
D. 0.5 mL

If a topical cream contains 1.8% (w/w) hydrocortisone, how many milligrams of

hydrocortisone should be used in preparing 15 g of the cream?
A. 8.33 mg
B. 83.3 mg
C. 27 mg
D. 270 mg

What is the percentage strength (w/v) of the drug solution if 80 mL of the solution
contains 20g of drug?
A. 4%
B. 2%
C. 25%
D. 15%

Express half-NSS to parts per million.

A. 4500 ppm
B. 9000 ppm
C. 4.5 ppm
D. 9 ppm
A prescription requires the preparation of a 60 mL solution of 1:10,000 from a stock
solution of 1:750. How much of solution will be used in compounding this prescription?
A. 4.5 mL
B. 1.3 mL
C. 6.1 mL
D. 2.4 mL

Calculate the final strength of alcohol when you combined the following mixtures:
500mL of 50% alcohol, 400 mL of 20% alcohol, and enough nonalcoholic mixture to
make 1000mL.
A. 28%
B. 33%
C. 43%
D. None of these

How many grams of petrolatum (diluent) should be added to 250 g of 25% ichthammol
ointment to make a 5% ointment?
A. 1250 g
B. 1000 g
C. 1500 g
D. None of these

How many grams of zinc oxide (active) should be added to 3200 g of 5% zinc oxide
ointment to prepare an ointment containing 20% Zinc oxide?
A. 800g
B. 4000g
C. 600g
D. None of these
To the normal potassium (AW=39) levels in the blood ranges from 13.65 to 19.5 mg%.
Express the range in milliequivalents/liter.
A. 4 to 5.5 mEq/L
B. 4.5 to 6 mEq/L
C. 3.5 to 5 mEq/L
D. 3 to 4.5 mEq/L

A patient received 100mL of an infusion at 10 drops/ minute with an administration set

that delivered 60 drops/mL. Calculate the duration of the infusion in hours.
A. 12 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 5 hours

If an intravenous fluid is adjusted to deliver 30 milligrams of the medication to patient

per hour, how many milligrams are delivered per minute?
A. 30 mg
B. 0.25 mg
C. 0.5 mg
D. 1800 mg

A nutritional product contains 10 grams of carbohydrates, 15 grams of proteins and 5

grams of fat in each 100-mL serving. What is the caloric content of one serving?
A. 177 kcal
B. 238 kcal
C. 145 kcal
Given: 1 liter of D10W (as source of calories in TPN). Calculate the total kilocalories

In a bottle of 10-proof alcoholic beverage, the ABV (alcohol by volume) is _____.

A. 0.2
B. 0.05
C. 0.1
D. 0.15

How much tax must be paid on a drum that contains 50 wine gallons of 95% alcohol,
at a fixed rate of P15 pesos per proof gallon?

Which of the following is appropriate when deriving the net profit of Pharmacy for a
given period?
A. Subtract expenses from gross profit
B. Add liabilities with the owner’s equity
C. Subtract inventory cost from the total value of good to be sold
D. Add purchases to the beginning inventory of a specified period
What would be the selling price of a compounded product if the following Base costs
were
computed:
• Labor (15 minutes) – Php28.95
• Supplies – Php 27.90
• Electricity – Php 1.50
• Depreciation cost of equipment to be used – Php 84.20
• Mark-up is at 60%
A. Php 185.56
B. Php 142.55
C. Php 249.63
D. Php 228.08

If the Beyond Use Date (BUD) of the compounded preparation is 24 hours, what
should be the BUD in the label if it was prepared 9AM January 1, 2021?
A. 12 AM January 2, 2021
B. 9 PM January 1, 2021
C. 9 AM January 2, 2021
D. 9 PM January 2, 2021
 MODULE 4

What would most likely be the reason for the drug’s increasing plasma concentration
towards reaching the therapeutic range?
A. Decreasing clearance of the drug thru time
B. Faster absorption of drug thru time
C. Faster distribution of the drug to the receptor sites
D. Giving of maintenance doses

Which of the following refers to the form of parenteral administration that involves
injecting drugs such as methotrexate to the spinal cord?
A. Intravenous
B. Intra-arterial
C. Intrathecal
D. Intra-articular

The peak concentration for an intravenous bolus dose would be obtained ____.
A. After the excretion phase
B. Immediately after the dose is given
C. After the metabolism phase
D. After the distribution phase

Which are TRUE regarding local effect of drugs?

I. Drug is administered at the site where the pharmacological response is
desired.
II. Drug preparations intended to produce local effects have minimal absorption
to the systemic circulation.
III. Anti-asthma drugs administered via inhalational route produce local effects.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III

Which of the following forms of a drug is favorably absorbed?

I. Non-ionized
II. Water soluble
III. Ionized
IV. Lipids soluble
A. III and IV
B. I and II
C. I and IV
D. II and III

The most important organ for the absorption of orally administered drugs
A. Liver
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach
D. esophagus
How much of a 500mg dose is bioavailable if the administered drug has an absolute
bioavailability of 0.80?
A. 400mg
B. 80mg
C. 100mg
D. 40mg

A newly admitted hospital patient has been taking a brand of digoxin tablets 250 mcg,
that are 60% bioavailable. The hospitalist wishes to administer a comparable IV dose
using an injection containing digoxin, 0.5 mg/2ml. What is the equivalent dose?
A. 0.15 mL
B. 0.6 mL
C. 150 mL
D. 4.1 mL

Which of the following is established when pharmaceutical equivalents display

comparable bioavailabilities when studied under similar experimental conditions?
A. Drugs are biosimilar
B. Drugs are racemic mixtures
C. Drugs are generic equivalents
D. Drugs are bioequivalent

Which of the following drugs will cross cell membranes easily?

I. Polar drugs
II. Non-polar drugs
III. Lipophilic drugs
IV. Hydrophilic drugs
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
Which of the following is TRUE regarding acidic drugs?
I. They exist mainly in the ionized form at the stomach
II. They exist in a non-ionized form at an acidic environment.
III. They exist mainly in the polar form in an acidic urine.
A. I
B. III
C. II
D. I, II and III

Which of the following is/are the ideal characteristic/s of a drug when given to
breastfeeding woman?
I. Long half-life
II. High molecular weight
III. High lipid solubility
A. III
B. II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

Drug metabolism happens in most cases, to convert the drug to a compound that
is______.
I. More polar
II. More nonpolar
III. More lipid-soluble
IV. More water-soluble
A. II and IV
B. I and IV
C. I and III
D. II and III

Pharmacokinetic variations in Drug Metabolizing Enzymes (DME) are considered

significant if _____.
I. Active metabolites are formed
II. The drug has a very wide margin of safety
III. Parent drug is a prodrug that requires activation by the DME
A. I, II and III
B. II
C. III
D. I and III

What is the order of reaction in which the concentration of a drug is decreasing at a

rate that is proportional to the concentration of the drug remaining?
A. First
B. Zero
C. Third
D. Second
Which of the following are the reasons for formulating prodrugs?
I. Improve bioavailability of the drug
II. Develop cheaper therapeutic alternative
III. Promotes site-specific delivery of the drug
A. I
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV

A drug was withdrawn from the market due to reports of cardiac arrhythmia caused by
unusually high level of the said drug. Which of the following BEST explains this effect?
A. Intake of drugs that enhances its excretion
B. Intake of drugs that are used to treat cardiac arrhythmia
C. Intake of drugs that enhances its metabolism
D. Intake of drugs that inhibits it metabolism

Which of the following would be the implication if the drug has an increased clearance
in a patient?
A. A lower dose is needed to achieve the target concentration
B. A higher dose is needed to achieve the target concentration
C. A faster administration rate is needed to achieve the target concentration
D. A slower administration rate is needed to achieve the target concentration

If the enzyme capacity in newborns and infants is reduced, what possible effects would
this have on the clearance and elimination half-life of drugs?
A. Increase in clearance and increase in elimination half-life
B. decrease in clearance and increase in elimination half-life
C. Increase in clearance and decrease in elimination half-life
D. decrease in clearance and decrease in elimination half-life

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding weakly acidic drugs in an
alkaline urine?
I. Weakly acidic drugs in alkaline media will exist primarily in its ionized form,
which cannot be reabsorbed easily.
II. Weakly acidic drugs in alkaline media will exist primarily in its lipophilic form,
which cannot be reabsorbed easily.
III. Weakly acidic alkaline media will exist primarily in its nonpolar form, which
cannot be reabsorbed easily.
A. II
B. I
C. III
D. II and III
The following are TRUE regarding significant organ impairment on pharmacokinetic
variables EXCEPT________.
A. Renal impairment increases clearance for drugs primarily dependent on the kidney
for elimination
B. Hepatic impairment may lead in the failure of transforming the drug to its active
metabolite
C. Cardiac impairment reduces volume of distribution
D. Hepatic impairment prolongs half-life for drugs highly dependent on the liver for
elimination

The renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of ________.

A. Tubular reabsorption
B. Renal blood flow
C. Active renal secretion
D. Glomerular filtration rate

What percent of drug is removed per hour if the elimination rate constant is 0.25/hr?
A. 0.75%
B. 0.25%
C. 25 %
D. 0.42

What would most likely be the reason for the drug’s increasing plasma concentration
towards reaching the therapeutic range?
A. Decreasing clearance of the drug thru time
B. Faster absorption of drug thru time
C. Faster distribution of the drug to the receptor sites
D. Giving of maintenance doses

Which of the following factors can contribute to a longer duration of a drug?

I. Decreased protein binding
II. Greater tubular reabsorption
III. Reduced polarity
A. II and III
B. I, II and III
C. I and III
D. I and II

A study was carried out in isolated, perfused animal hearts. In the absence of other
drugs, pindolol, a β-adrenoceptor ligand, caused an increase in heart rate. In the
presence of highly effective β stimulants, however, pindolol caused a dosedependent,
reversible decrease in heart rate. Which of the following expressions best describes
pindolol?
A. A chemical antagonist
B. An irreversible antagonist
C. A partial agonist
D. A physiologic antagonist
Cholinoceptor - mediated responses to cholinergic agonists include the following
EXCEEPT______.
A. Decreased glandular secretion
B. Bronchoconstriction
C. Decrease in heart rate
D. Miosis

What receptors are stimulated that would cause the constriction of arterioles?
A. Beta-1
B. Alpha-1
C. Beta-2
D. Alpha-1

Clonidine acts selectively on what type of receptor?

A. Beta-2
B. Alpha-2
C. Beta-1
D. Alpha-1

Adrenergic peripheral responses are mediated by what type of receptors?

I. Alpha receptor
II. Beta-receptor
III. Muscarinic receptors
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

Which are long acting beta2-selective agonists?

I. Theophylline
II. Salmeterol
III. Formoterol
IV. Salbutamol
A. II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I and IV

Which of the following drugs is NOT classified as a muscle relaxant?

A. Pregabalin
B. Baclofen
C. Dantrolene
D. Orphenadrine

Neuromuscular blockers act mainly on what type of receptors?

A. Beta receptors
B. Nicotinic receptors
C. Alpha receptors
D. Muscarinic receptors
Which of the following are TRUE?
I. Adrenergic agonist increases peristalsis
II. Adrenergic agonist decreases peristalsis
III. Cholinergic agonist increases peristalsis
IV. Cholinergic agonist decreases peristalsis
A. II and IV
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and IV

Which of the following is/are true regarding the difference of dopamine vs.
dobutamine?
I. Dopamine is an adrenergic agonist agent while dobutamine is an adrenergic
antagonist agent.
II. Dopamine has greater versatility in its effects vs. dobutamine.
III. Dopamine is a synthetic catecholamine while dobutamine is a natural
catecholamine.
A. I
B. I, II and III
C. II
D. I, and III

Which of the following is/are examples of cholinergic agents?

I. Neostigmine
II. Ipratropium
III. Dicyclomine
A. I
B. II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of anticholinergics?

I. Enhances the sympathetic nervous system
II. Enhances parasympathetic nervous system
III. Enhances the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
A. I
B. II
C. II and III
D. I and III

Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug?

A. Pilocarpine
B. Rivastigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Homatropine
Which of the following poisons would be indicated for treatment by Physostigmine?
A. Muscarinic antagonists
B. Muscarinic agonists
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Carbamates

Which element is used in the treatment of bipolar disease?

A. Manganese
B. Selenium
C. Lithium
D. iron

Which of the following group of drugs are known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms?
A. Narcotics
B. Anti-neoplastics
C. Anti-psychotics
D. Anti-arrhythmias

Which of the following medications has/have been CORRECTLY classified?

I. Phenytoin – hydantoins
II. Succinimides – ethosuximide
III. Phenobarbital - opioids
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. III
D. II

Which of the following is the drug of choice for absence seizure?

A. Carbamazepine
B. Gabapentin
C. Ethosuximide
D. Phenobarbital

Which of the following is/ are inhaled anesthetic/s?

I. Ketamine
II. Sevoflurane
III. Propofol
IV. thiopental
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. II
D. I, II, III and IV
Which of the following drugs are known to lower plasma lipid levels?
I. Statins
II. Fibrates
III. Bile-acid binding resins
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and II

Which of the following has both antiarrhythmic and antimalarial properties?

A. Primaquine
B. Disopyramide
C. Quinidine
D. procainamide

Adenosine is classified as a/an_________.

A. Diuretic
B. Antiarrhythmic
C. Tocolytic
D. Antidiabetic medicine

Which of the following is the action of Acetazolamide?

A. Antidiabetic
B. Diuretic
C. Antibacterial
D. Analgesic

Beractant is a _______.
A. Pulmonary surfactant
B. Adrenergic blocker
C. Antiepileptic agent
D. Tocolytic agent

Which of the following are inhaled corticosteroids?

A. Formoterol and dexamethasone
B. Prednisone and budesonide
C. Fluticasone and budesonide
D. Dexamethasone and fluticasone

Which is an antitussive?
A. Carbocisteine
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Dextromethorphan
D. Bromhexine
Which of the following are Methylxanthines?
I. Theobromine
II. Caffeine
III. Theophylline
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II and III

The following are glucocorticoids EXCEPT_______.

A. Betamethasone
B. Methylprednisolone
C. Dexamethasone
D. Fludrocortisone

Which of the following is secreted by pancreatic beta-cells to facilitate glucose and

amino acid transport for normal cellular metabolic processes?
A. Estradiol
B. Testosterone
C. Vasopressin
D. Insulin

Which of the following oral hypoglycemic drugs is associated with lactic acidosis?
A. Acarbose
B. Metformin
C. Glibenclamide
D. Rosiglitazone

Sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitors are drugs that are used to

treat______.
A. Hypertension
B. Psychosis
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Type 2 diabetes

Which of the following drugs promotes the release of endogenous insulin?

A. Metformin
B. Acarbose
C. Glipizide
D. Pioglitazone
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding insulin?
I. It is less safe to use in pregnant women compared to oral hypoglycemic
agents.
II. Its most common route of administration is by intramuscular.
III. It can be prescribed to Non-insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus patients if
uncontrolled by oral hypoglycemic agents.
A. II
B. I, II and III
C. III
D. I and II

The primary receptor subtypes stimulated Histamine are__________.

I. Histamine 1
II. Histamine 2
III. NMDA receptor
A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. II and III
D. I and II

Which antagonizes the action of histamine at the H1 receptors?

A. Prazosin
B. Atenolol
C. Famotidine
D. Diphenhydramine

5-HT3 antagonist are used as an ________.

A. Antidiabetic
B. Anticancer
C. Antiemetic
D. Antiasthma

Which is the mechanism of action of aspirin in exerting its analgesic and anti-
inflammatory effect?
A. Irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-2 enzymes
B. Irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 enzymes
C. Binds with mu receptors in the brain
D. Irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 and 2 enzymes

The following are classified as Eicosanoids EXCEPT_______.

I. Histamine
II. Prostaglandins
III. Leukotrienes
A. III
B. II
C. I
D. I and II
Which of the following is a 1st Generation H1 antagonists?
A. Montelukast
B. Cetirizine
C. Desloratadine
D. Promethazine

Which of the following adverse effects has been associated with Rofecoxib which led
to its withdrawal from the market?
A. Increased risk of hepatotoxicity
B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
C. Increased risk of neurotoxicity
D. Increased risk of nephrotoxicity

Which of the following is NOT an effect of NSAIDs?

A. Decreased renal blood flow
B. Increased platelet aggregation
C. Allergic reaction
D. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

Poisons may enter the human body through which of the following routes of exposure?
I. Orally by ingestion
II. By inhalation
III. From mother to infant via transplacental route
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

Which of the following information regarding emesis is/are TRUE?

I. Vomiting following the use of emetic agents may lead to aspiration
pneumonia.
II. The use of emesis to reduce absorption is not effective 4-6 hours after
ingestion unless there is a delay in its absorption.
III. Emesis is indicated for caustic poisons.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. I
D. II

Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?

A. Atropine
B. Deferoxamine
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil

Ethanol may be used to manage poisoning due to_____.

A. Methanol
B. Antidepressants
C. Narcotics
D. Carbon monoxide
Which of the following can BEST manage salicylate overdose?
A. Use of cathartics
B. Induce emesis
C. Urinary alkalinization
D. Urinary acidification

Which of the following drugs are associated with pulmonary toxicity?

A. Bleomycin
B. Methotrexate
C. Doxorubicin
D. Cisplatin

Which of the following would be the mechanism of action of sodium thiosulfate to

counteract the effects of cyanide?
A. Enhances the conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
B. Combines with cyanide to form cyanocobalamin
C. Neutralization through chelation with cyanide
D. Competitive antagonism with cyanide

Which of the following will be indicated for methanol poisoning?

A. Pralidoxime
B. Succimer
C. Fomepizole
D. Sodium nitrite

Which of the following toxidromes would be consistent to the effect of the insecticide?
I. Increased sweating
II. Bronchodilation
III. Drooling
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. I, II and III

Which of the following antidotes needs be administered to the patient suffering from
organophosphate poisoning?
A. Cyproheptadine
B. Atropine
C. Physostigmine
D. Flumazenil

What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides?

A. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
B. Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
C. Disruption of membrane permeability
D. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
Gentamicin has NO activity against________?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Anaerobes
C. Enterobacteriaceae
D. Staphylococci

Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of chronic Hepatitis B
infection?
A. Entecavir
B. Recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Meropenem
D. Amphotericin B

In the assay of antibiotics, which of the following is TRUE if Drug A results to a

significantly larger zone of inhibition vs. Drug B at equivalent doses against the same
organism?
A. Drug A is safer than Drug B
B. Drug B is more effective than Drug A
C. Drug B is safer than Drug A
D. Drug A is more effective than Drug B

Which of the following is NOT an antiparasitic drug?

A. Metronidazole
B. Diloxanide
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Polymyxin E

Which of the following is classified as a mitotic inhibitor?

A. Vincristine
B. Methotrexate
C. Rituximab
D. Imatinib

Which of the following drugs are indicated to treat cancer?

A. Capecitabine
B. Cyproheptadine
C. Asenapine
D. Sertraline

Which of the following are used for osteoporosis?

I. Sevelamer
II. Alendronate
III. Raloxifene
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
Which of the following elements is used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Gold
B. Magnesium
C. Iron
D. Selenium

Which of the following is a stimulant laxative?

A. Bisacodyl
B. Lactulose
C. Docusate
D. Psyllium

Which of the following are true regarding lactulose?

I. It prevents portal systemic encephalopathy
II. It is bulk-forming laxative.
III. It decreases blood ammonia levels.
A. II and III
B. II and IV
C. I and II
D. I and III

Which of the following drugs may cause cross-sensitivity with penicillin?

A. Doxycycline
B. Amikacin
C. Clindamycin
D. Imepenem
 MODULE 5
ANGLE OF REPOSE:
A powder was poured through the funnel and formed a cone 3.3 cm high and 9 cm in
diameter. What is the angle of repose?

BULK VOLUME:
A selected powder has a true density of 3.5 g/cc. Experimentally, 2.5 g of the powder
measures 40 mL in a cylindrical graduate. Calculate the true volume, void, porosity,
apparent density, and bulkiness.

TONICITY:
Calculate the amount of NaCl (in mg) needed to make 60mL of an isotonic solution
containing 0.15g of Drug A (D1%=0.070OC)
E-VALUE:
How many milligrams of sodium chloride should be used to prepare the following
prescription? (Ephedrine SO4 E = 0.23)
Rx.
Epinephrine sulfate------0.5g
NaCl-------------------------q.s
Purified water ad------50 mL
Make isotonic solution
Sig. Eye drops

Identify the weak intermolecular forces, examples of which are the Keesom-Debye,
and London forces.
A. Ion-dipole, ion-induced dipole forces
B. Van der Waals forces
C. Hydrogen bonds
D. Repulsive and attractive forces

Identify the forces that account in part for the solubility of ionic crystalline substances
in water and are presumed to account for the solubility of iodine in a solution of KI.
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Repulsive and attractive forces
C. Ion-dipole, ion- induced dipole forces
D. Electrovalent forces

Identify the weak electrostatic forces that bring about condensation of nonpolar gas
molecules to form liquids and solids when molecules are bought quite close to one
another.
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Van der Waals forces
C. Ion-dipole, ion-induced dipole forces
D. Repulsive and attractive forces

Select the statement that BEST describes the solubility of solids in liquids.
A. The solubility of a solid in an ideal solution depends on the temperature, melting
point of the solid, and molar heat of fusion.
B. Ideal solubility is affected by the nature of the solvent.
C. In an ideal solution, the heat of fusion is NOT equal to the heat of solution.

Find the statement that is INCORRECT regarding the influence of some factors on the
solubility of solids.
A. The configuration of a solid molecule has NO effect on its solubility.
B. A symmetric arrangement in the crystal may render a solid less soluble than
unsymmetric one.
C. Solubility depends in part on the work required to separate the particles of the
crystalline solute.
D. Solubility increases with decreasing particle size.
Calculate the approximate E value of boric acid. (MW 61.84, Liso 1.8)
A. 0.6
B. 0.5
C. 0.8
D. 0.7

Calculate the approximate E value of hydrous zinc sulfate (MW 287.56, Liso 2.5)
A. 0.29
B. 0.25
C. 0.15
D. 0.42

A prescription requires 100 mL of a 1 percent solution of apomorphine hydrochloride

(MW 312.79) that is isotonic with blood serum. The freezing point lowering of the drug
is 0.08 degrees C and that of 1 percent sodium chloride is 0.58 degrees C. how many
grams of sodium chloride will be added to make 100 mL of isotonic solution?
A. 0.44 g
B. 0.76 g
C. 0.88 g
D. 0.52 g

Identify the Law/ Principle which states that when the reaction is reversible, delta S=0.
A. Gibbs Free Energy
B. Ideal Gas Law
C. Henry’s Law
D. Faraday’s Law

Find the antifoaming agent.

A. Sodium stearate
B. Dodecyl sulfate
C. Polysorbate 20
D. Castor oil
Analyze and identify the arbitrary scale of values by means of which it is possible to
establish a range of optimum efficiency for each class of surfactant.
A. Surface potential
B. Zeta potential
C. Nernst potential
D. Hydrophilic-lipophilic Balance

Identify the property that is measure from the bulk volume and the weight of the dry
powder in graduated cylinder.
A. True density
B. Relative density
C. Bulk density
D. Granule density

Identify the ratio of the void volume to the bulk volume of the powder.
A. Density
B. Surface Area
C. Porosity
D. Void volume

Select the Non-Newtonian liquids

A. Virgin coconut oil, Gold Colloid
B. Tobramycin, Chloramphenicol Palmitate Suspension
C. Olive Oil, Chloroform
D. Ethyl alcohol, Mayonnaise

Select the viscometers which can be used for both Newtonian and Non- Newtonian
system.
A. Cone and Plate, Capillary
B. Cup and Bob, Cone and Plate
C. Cone and Plate, Falling Sphere
D. Capillary, Falling Sphere

Identify the statement/mathematical expression, which does NOT express the First
Law of Thermodynamics.
A. States that energy is conserved
B. Forms of energy can be interconverted, but the sum of energies remains constant
C. ΔE is equal to zero for a cyclic process in a closed system.
D. ΔE = EB + EA

Select the concept that explains the thermodynamics state of a perfect crystal at
absolute zero.
A. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
B. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
C. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
D. 1st, 2nd, 3rd Laws of Thermodynamics
Identify the property of particles, which is determined by allowing the powder to flow
through a funnel and fall free onto a surface, then measuring the height and diameter
of the cone, results of which are used to calculate this particular property.
A. Bulk volume
B. Angle of repose
C. Bulkiness
D. Porosity

Select the oral dosage form, which contains one or more active ingredients that are
unstable in the water phase but stabilized in oil-in-water dispersions; either or both
phases may contain dissolved solids.
A. Oral emulsion
B. Elixir
C. Syrup
D. Oral drops

Select the oral dosage form that contains one or more active ingredients that are
dissolved in a suitable base.
A. Oral emulsion
B. Linctus
C. Oral solution
D. Elixir

Identify the pharmaceutical dispersed system that is a low-viscosity liquid preparation

intended for application to the skin.
A. Suspension
B. Gel
C. Emulsion
D. Lotion

Analyze which drug delivery system achieves slow release of drug over an extended
period of time.
A. Site-specific release
B. Sustained release
C. Delayed-release
D. Receptor-targeting

The following are advantages of transdermal drug delivery systems, EXCEPT

_______.
A. NOT suitable for all drugs
B. Avoid the risk and inconvenience of parenteral therapy
C. Avoid the first-pass effect
D. Provides the capacity for multiday therapy with a single application, thereby
improving patient compliance
Select the statement that BEST describes pharmaceutical aerosols.
A. Enhances drug stability and therapeutic activity.
B. Protects the drug thermal degradation.
C. All kinds of drug may be formulated as aerosols.
D. These are pressurized dosage forms that contain one or more active ingredients,
which upon activation emit a fine dispersion of liquid and/or solid materials in a
gaseous medium.

Select the delivery system, which does NOT produce or maintain uniform drug levels
within the therapeutic range but is more effective for patient compliance than
conventional dosage forms.
A. Sustained release
B. Delayed release
C. Site-specific release
D. Receptor release

Determine the effect of overwetting to resulting granules.

A. Granules will be dry
B. Granules will be hard
C. Granules will be soft
D. Granules will be soggy

Identify the method of preparing powders that consists of enclosing the powder
enclosed in a container, which rotates and mixes the powder ingredients.
A. Sifting
B. Tumbling
C. Mechanical mixing
D. Trituration

Analyze which method of preparing powders may be employed both to comminute

and mix the ingredients; for comminution purposes, a porcelain or Wedgewood mortar
with a rough inner surface is preferred; and for chemicals that may satin the porcelain
or Wedgewood surface, a glass mortar is preferred.
A. Sifting
B. Mechanical mixing
C. Trituration
D. Tumbling
This is a tablet formulation for CT Acetaminophen prepared by the wet granulation
method. One tablet contains:
Acetaminophen ................................ 300mg
Polyvinylpyrrolidone ..........................22.5 mg
Lactose ............................................. 61.75 mg
Alcohol (200 proof) ........................... 4.5 ml
Stearic acid ....................................... 9.0mg
Talc ................................................... 13.5mg
Corn starch ....................................... 43.25mg
To make 10,000 tablets, calculate the amount of Acetaminophen to be weighed (in
grams).
A. 2,000 g
B. 3,100 g
C. 3, 000 g
D. 1,600 g

Analyze and select the basic product formulation for a tablet.

A. active ingredient, solvent, emulsifier, lubricant.
B. Active ingredient, diluent or filler, binder, disintegrant, lubricant
C. Active ingredient, solubilizing agent, binder, disintegrant, filler
D. Active ingredient, diluent, lubricant

Select the technique for solving flavoring problems that involves forming a complex of
the drug with ion-exchange resins or complexing agents.
A. Chemical
B. Physiological
C. Physical
D. Blending

Identify the technique for solving flavoring problems, that involves formation of an
insoluble compound with the offending drug; or increasing the viscosity of the fluids to
limit contact of the drug with the tongue.
A. Physiological
B. Overshadow
C. Physical
D. Chemical

Determine the role of lactose, cellulose, kaolin, mannitol in a tablet formation.

A. Lubricants
B. Diluents
C. Glidants
D. Binders
Choose the coloring principles that are used as colors for food and cosmetics and are
NOT obtained from a biological source.
A. Nitroso-dyes
B. Alizarin
C. Chlorophyll
D. Anattenes

Classify tablets that are prepared by compressing granular materials that have the
capacity to release gas when in contact with water.
A. Enteric-coated tablets
B. Buccal tablets
C. Effervescent tablets
D. Multiple compressed tablets

Determine the role of corn, potato starch, gums, and algins in a tablet formulation.
A. Flavors
B. Lubricants
C. Sweetening agents
D. Disintegrants

Determine the role of aspartame in a tablet formation.

A. Flavor
B. Disintegrants
C. Color
D. Sweetening agent

In a product formulation, determine the excipient which provides bulks and enables
accurate dosing of potent ingredients.
A. Diluent
B. Binder
C. Disintegrant
D. Glidant

Identify the coating defect: Which results in a film that is rough and nonglossy
A. Cratering
B. Bridging
C. Orange peel effect
D. Blistering

Classify Glycyrrhiza as a pharmaceutical necessity.

A. Emulsifying agent
B. Flavoring agent
C. Ointment base
D. Diluting agent
Classify ethyl cellulose as a pharmaceutical excipient.
A. Disintegrant
B. Suspending agent
C. Sweetening agent
D. Tablet binder

Determine the method of coating tablets that involves putting a thin, skintight, plastic-
like material over the compressed tablet to produce coated tablets that have
essentially the same weight, shape, and size as the original compressed tablet.
A. Compression Coating
B. Fluid bed
C. Enteric coating
D. Film coating

Disadvantages of sugar-coating tablets

I. Tedious
II. Time-consuming
III. Does not require the expertise of highly skilled technicians
A. I
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III

Select the BEST remedy for a capsule defect where the active ingredient prescribed
dissolves in an acid medium.
A. Seal the capsule properly.
B. Coat the capsules with polyvinyl acetate phthalate.
C. Add magnesium stearate
D. Reduce particle size.

Classify white petrolatum as an ointment base.

A. Emulsion base (w/o type)
B. Emulsion base (o/w type)
C. Absorption base
D. Hydrocarbon base

Classify Anhydrous Lanolin as an ointment base.

A. Water-soluble base
B. Emulsion base (o/w type)
C. Emulsion base (w/o type)
D. Absorption base

Classify Anhydrous Lanolin as a pharmaceutical excipient.

A. Glidant
B. Vehicle
C. Lubricant
D. Ointment base
Identify the components of White Ointment
A. White wax, jojoba oil
B. White wax, beeswax
C. White wax, spermaceti
D. White wax, white petrolatum

Determine which is NOT a good characteristic of a suppository base.

A. Remains stable in rectal fluids
B. Nontoxic and nonirritating to the mucous membrane
C. Stable on storage
D. Compatible with a variety of drugs

Find the incorrect statement about Theobroma Oil.

A. The beta crystal is its stable form with a melting point approaching 35 degrees.
B. Requires a fusion temperature of 40-50OC to prevent a change in crystal form and
melting point.
C. It is a naturally occurring alkaloid.
D. The alpha form is metastable with a melting point of 30 degrees C.

Identify the glass container that is composed of relatively high proportions of sodium
oxide and calcium oxide; has a relatively lower concentration of migratory oxides;
considered to be of relatively good chemicals resistance for only one use; and suitable
for solutions that are buffered and have a pH 7 or are not reactive with the glass.
A. Type III
B. NP
C. Type II
D. Type I

Analyze which sterilization method allows the sterilization of packaged finished

products that are ready for shipment because sterilizing material permeates sealed
plastic films and cartons.
A. Dry heat
B. Ionizing radiation
C. Gas sterilization
D. Membrane filtration

Evaluate which sterilization method is the most dependable and widely used
sterilization method uses moist heat, which coagulates cellular proteins of
microorganisms; parenterals or injectable products (in their containers) are sterilized
by this method.
A. Ionizing radiation
B. Steam sterilization
C. Membrane filtration
D. Gas sterilization
Select the range of sodium ion concentration in a TPN preparation
A. 5-10 mEq
B. 100-120 mEq
C. 40-60 mEq
D. 8-16 mEq

Identify the unit operation that includes evaluation of the drug for uniformity, stability,
and other factors, followed by the development of an appropriate drug delivery system.
A. Compression
B. Granulation
C. Formulation
D. Coating

Identify the use of Potassium Diformate in veterinary medicine

A. Anti-acidic agent
B. Antiparasitic
C. Sedative
D. Strong antimicrobial

Identify the pharmaceutical ingredient that prevents drying of preparations due to its
ability to retain moisture.
A. Binder
B. Humectant
C. Surfactant
D. Levigating agent

Determine the important property of a drug product on which drug absorption and
physiologic availability are largely dependent.
A. Tablet disintegration
B. Tablet dissolution
C. Tablet hardness
D. Content uniformity

Select the principal category to which clay, silica gel, colloids, metals, activated
charcoal, activated alumina belong.
A. Adsorbent
B. Humectant
C. Preservative
D. Stiffening agent

Select the principal category to which Glycerin, honey, glucose syrup, egg yolk, sugar
alcohols belong.
A. Humectant
B. Suppository base
C. Stiffening agent
D. Tablet binder
Classify acacia as a pharmaceutical excipient.
A. Vehicle
B. Solubilizing agent
C. Humectant
D. Suspending agent

Classify compounds that are of low solubility and high permeability, such that their
bioavailability is limited by their solvation rate.
A. BCS Class I
B. BCS Class IV
C. BCS Class III
D. BCS Class II

In the BCS, how are Glibenclamide and Acecoflenac classified?

A. Class IV
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class I

How are compounds of low solubility and low permeability; poor bioavailability, usually
NOT well absorbed from the intestinal mucosa classified in the biopharmaceutics
classification system?
A. BCS Class I
B. BCS Class II
C. BCS Class III
D. BCS Class IV

Identify the physical property that has a characteristic frequency, wavelength, and
wave number.
A. Optical rotatory dispersion
B. Circular dichroism
C. Refractive index
D. Electromagnetic radiation

Select the principal category to which methylparaben belongs.

A. Suppository base
B. Antifungal preservatives
C. Humectant
D. Stiffening agent

Preservatives interfere with microbial growth and metabolism through one or more of
these mechanisms, EXCEPT________.
A. Hydrolysis
B. Reversible protein precipitation
C. Lysis and cytoplasmic leakage
D. Oxidation of cellular constituents
Find the classification of Complexes.
A. Metal complexes, Organic complexes Inclusion/Occlusion compounds
B. Metal and Quinhydrone complexes
C. Organic and Quinhydrone complexes
D. Metal and Organic complexes

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid is a
A. Tridentate
B. Monodentate
C. Bidentate
D. Hexadentate

JURISPREDENCE

Identify RA 3720
A. Newborn Screening Act
B. Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
C. Pharmacy Act
D. Expanded Senior Citizens Act

Identify the Core List

A. List of drugs that are for special medical patients such as cancer patients
B. List of drugs that meet the health care needs of majority of the population.
C. List of medical devices needed by majority of the population
D. List of drugs for geriatric patients

Choose which explains why generic drugs are as effective and safe as brand-name
medicines.
A. Both are of the same dosage form
B. Both contain the same active ingredients, both have the same risks and benefits,
both are of the same strength, stability, and quality, both are the same in terms of
safety and effectiveness.
C. Both have the same benefits
D. Both are of the same strength, dosage form, and quality.

Select the components of an erroneous prescription.

A. When only the brand name is written in the prescription
B. When the generic name is NOT legible, and the brand name is legible
C. When the brand name and generic name are NOT legible
D. When the generic name is enclosed within a parenthesis, and the brand name is
NOT

Select which explains why generic drugs cost less than brand-name medicines.
A. Generic drugs DO NOT need to repeat animal and clinical studies required of brand-
name medicines; multiple applications for a single generic drug are often approved,
creating competition in the market, resulting in lower prices; and waivers are
granted for the non-biologic strengths.
B. Ingredients used are of lower quality
C. Less amounts of active ingredients are used.
D. Manufactured under lower standards as the brand-name medicine.
Select the components of a violative prescription
A. When the generic and brand names are both legible
B. When the brand name is NOT enclosed within a parenthesis
C. When the generic name is enclosed within a parenthesis
D. Only the brand name is written on the prescription, with the phrase, “No substitution”

Identify the law violated when Sampaguita Pharmacy was found selling counterfeit
medicines.
A. RA 9502
B. RA 6675
C. RA 8203
D. RA 9944

Identify the law violated when impure Gold Supermarket, a Category B establishment,
was found selling prescription and non-prescription drugs.
A. RA 10840
B. RA 9502
C. RA 10918
D. RA 9165

Select the description of “Refilling of a Prescription”.

A. Filling a prescription order for a second time
B. Dispensing a repeat prescription order dated 2 years ago.
C. Dispensing the remaining balance of medicines ordered in the prescription.
D. Compounding a prescription order for the fourth time.

Select the statement that BEST describes Category B pharmaceutical establishments.

A. Retail outlets selling prescription medicines.
B. Supermarket selling prescription drugs placed in shelves together with OTC
medicines.
C. Where the supervising pharmacist must be physically present for a minimum of two
(2) hours per week; includes satellite institutional pharmacies, fourth, fifth, and sixth
class municipal units involved in the procurement, distribution, dispensing, and
storage of pharmaceutical products; Retail outlets selling household remedies;
institutions providing telepharmacy services; and nontraditional outlets of
pharmaceutical products.
D. Drug establishments where the supervising pharmacist must be physically present
during the entire operational hours of the establishments.

Identified the law violated by Pharmacy Watson that has an LTO on display dated
March 19, 2004.
A. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
B. Philippine Pharmacy Act
C. Universally Accessible, Cheaper and Quality Medicines Act
D. Generics Act of 1988
Identify the components of the “Essential Health Benefit Package” in the Universal
Health Care Law
A. Primary care, medicines, laboratory tests, food allowance
B. Preventive, curative, rehabilitative services.
C. Diagnostic and laboratory tests.
D. Primary care, medicines, diagnostic and laboratory tests, preventive, curative,
rehabilitative services.

Where do senior citizens get their senior citizen card?

A. Office of the Provincial Governor
B. Office of the Mayor
C. Office of the Provincial/Municipal/ City Treasurer
D. Office of Senior Citizen Affairs

The Expanded Senior Citizens Act of 2010 is______.

A. RA 11223
B. RA 6675
C. RA 9502
D. RA 9994

Identify the S- license issued to retailers of drug preparations containing Controlled

Chemicals
A. S-3
B. S-1
C. S-5
D. S-4

Select the Act that as promulgated, repealing Dangerous Drug Act.

A. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act
B. Dangerous Medicines Act
C. Universal Health Care Act
D. Pharmacy Act

A physician, dentist, veterinarian, or practitioner authorized to prescribe any

Dangerous Drug shall issue a prescription in ______.
A. One (1) original copy only
B. One (1) original and three (3) triplicate copies.
C. One (1) original and two (2) duplicate copies.
D. One (1) original and one (1) duplicate copy.

Identify cosmetics which are regulated as drugs.

A. Lip balms, Mouthwashes, Antiperspirants, Diaper ointments
B. Skin moisturizers, perfumes, nail polishes
C. Hair colors, toothpastes
D. Shampoos, Lipsticks
Determine the function of demulcents in Hydroxypropyl Methylcellulose Ophthalmic
Solution, which is used as a wetting solution for contact lenses.
A. Decrease the irritating effect of the lens on the cornea
B. Harden the lens, providing these with mechanical support
C. Serve as decongestant when lacrimation is inadequate
D. Make the wetting solution viscous, which helps the lens stay in place
 MODULE 6

Which one is not found in prokaryotic cell?

A. Cell membrane
B. Plasmids
C. Mitochondria
D. Chromosomes

Which of the following is NOT domain in the three-domain system?

A. Archaea
B. Animalia
C. Bacteria
D. Eukarya

Bacterial death will result from damage to all the following structures, EXCEPT?
A. Plasma membrane
B. Vacuoles
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acid

Which of the following is a process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a
virus?
A. Sporulation
B. Conjugation
C. Transformation
D. Transduction

Which of the following is the formation of dormant form of bacteria when conditions
are inhospitable?
A. Mutation
B. Polymorphism
C. Germination
D. Sporulation

A process by which bacterial endospore return to its vegetative state:

A. Polymorphism
B. Mutagenicity
C. Germination
D. Sporulation
Methicillin- resistant Staph aureus (MRSA) is a group of Staphylococcus aureus
strains identified as a major cause of health care infections (HCAIs) such as which of
the following?
I. Wound and soft tissue infection
II. Catheter associated UTI
III. Colitis
IV. Ventilator Associated Pneumonia
A. I, II, IV
B. I, II, III, IV
C. I, II, III
E. II, III, IV

Which of the following enzyme is involved in transcription of DNA?

A. Gluconidase
B. DNA transferase
C. Esterase
D. RNA polymerase

Which of the following is a hybrid plasmid used as cloning vector in genetic engineering
for large pieces of DNA?
A. Cosmids
B. Cos gene
C. Fosmids
D. Lambda phage

The bacterial organelle that is used for motility:

A. Flagella
B. Pili
C. Cilia
D. Pseudopods

The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores

A. Polymerized D-glutamic acid
B. Flagellin
C. Dipicolinic Acid
D. Teichoic Acid

Which of the following is not Grampositive?

A. Corynebacterium
B. Bacillus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Treponema

In gram staining, a bacterial cell that will stain pink to red, the specimen will be labeled
as___.
A. Gram negative
B. Pink is not an observed color in gram stain
C. Gram positive
D. Gram variable
Which of the following lacks a cell wall?
A. Mycoplasma
B. Mycobacterium
C. Clostridium
D. Nocardia

Which of the following is the identified cause of Hansen’s disease?

A. Mycoplasma leprae
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are:

A. Nucleic acids/chitin/peptidoglycans
B. Carbohydrates/amino acids/lipids
C. Carbohydrates/nucleic acids/steroids
D. Lipids/polysaccharides/lactoferrin

Causative agent of typhoid fever is______.

A. Salmonella
B. Aspergillus
C. Shigella
D. Rickettsia typhi

Which among the list is the spirochete causing leptospirosis?

A. Leptospira interrogans
B. Borell burgdorferi
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Mycobacterium leprae

Which of the following microorganisms are used as probiotics?

I. Lactobacillus spp
II. Bacillus fumidus
III. Bifidobacteria
A. I
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic/s of Neisseria?

A. Requires X and V factors
B. Oxidase-positive
C. Cocci
D. Gram-negative
Bacteria prefer warmer temperature but can survive very cold temperature and
preserved in the frozen state are described as ________.
A. Thermophilic
B. Hydrophilic
C. Psychrophilic
D. Mesophilic

A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:

A. Virus
B. Bacillus thuringiensis
C. Bacillus stearothermophilus
D. Clostridium botulinum

The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by:

A. Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days
later
B. Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide
C. The VDRL test
D. Dark field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present

Which of the following is NOT a fungus?

A. Yeast
B. Penicillium
C. Molds
D. Paramecium

Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen for compromised

systems?
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Candidiasis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Genital herpes

Which causes athlete’s foot?

A. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea corporis
C. Tinea pedis
D. Tinea cruces

How is avian flu or bird flu transmitted?

A. Direct or indirect contact with infected birds
B. Inhalation of contaminated aerosols
C. Animal bites viz; clogs, cats
D. Mosquito bites

Which is the reservoir of avian flu?

A. Cattle
B. Butterfly
C. Chicken
D. Birds
Choose the reservoir for chicken pox infection.
A. Pigs
B. Humans
C. Chicken
D. Cattles

Which of the following is common route of transmission for COVID-19, SARS and
common cold?
A. Needlestick injury
B. Handshake
C. Animal bites
D. Contact with contaminated urine

Which of the following drugs should be avoided for patients with dengue hemorrhagic
fever?
A. Insulin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Aspirin
D. Paracetamol

Symptoms of the severe disease known as ebola include the following, EXCEPT____.
A. Frequent urination
B. Muscle pain and weakness
C. Fever and severe headache
D. Diarrhea and vomiting

Which of the following are identified worldwide as ‘ESKAPE’ pathogens?

I. Enterococcus faecium
II. Acinetobacter baumannii
III. Candida albicans
IV. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A. I, II, III, & IV
B. I, II & III
C. II, III & IV
D. I, II & IV

These diseases are Sexually Transmitted Infections, EXCEPT_______.

A. Gonorrhea
B. AIDS
C. Syphilis
D. Hepatitis A

Which of the following is NOT a primarily sexually transmitted disease (STD)?

A. Lymphogranuloma venereum
B. Genital herpes
C. Gonorrhea
D. Trichosomiasis
The following are zoonotic diseases, EXCEPT___.
A. Anthrax
B. Mumps
C. Brucellosis
D. Leptospirosis

An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms.

A. Mite
B. Fomite
C. Arthropod
D. Vector

Which of the following has been identified by DOH as the most common diseases
acquired through ingestion of contaminated drinking water in the Philippines for the
past two years?
I. Typhoid fever
II. Dengue
III. Cholera
A. II, III
B. I, II
C. I, II, III
D. I, III

Which of the following harmful microorganism have been identified to be possibly

found in drinking water?
I. Balantidium
II. Salmonella
III. Mycobacterium
IV. Giardia
A. I, II, & III
B. I, II, & IV
C. II, III, & IV
D. I, II, III, & IV

In microbial assay of antibiotics, what organism is used for penicillin G?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following has been identified to be microbial contaminant in hand cream?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Coliforms
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. Clostridium tetani
Which of the following has been identified to be microbial contaminant in talcum
powder?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Coliforms
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. Clostridium tetani

Which of the following has been identified to be microbial contaminant in mouthwash?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Coliforms
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. Clostridium tetani

Which of the following has been identified to be microbial contaminant in intravenous

fluid?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Coliforms
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. Clostridium tetani

Which of the following substances can sterilize?

A. Alcohols
B. Chlorine
C. Soap
D. Ethylene oxide

Which of the following substances is the LEAST effective antimicrobial agent?

A. Iodine
B. Cationic detergents
C. Soap
D. Phenolics

Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective
antimicrobial activity: 1-soap; 2-Anionic detergent; 3-cationic detergent
A. 1,2,3
B. 3,2,1
C. 2,3,1
D. 3,1,2

Which type of industrial hazard includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration?
A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Ergonomic
D. Biological

Which is due to thiamine deficiency?

A. Cystitis
B. Pellagra
C. Stomatitis
D. Beri-beri
Which of the following elements is associated to improve immune system function?
A. Sodium
B. Chlorine
C. Iodine
D. Zinc

A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:
A. Copper
B. Manganese
C. Chromium
D. Zinc

Vit. B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:

A. Stevens Johnson Syndrome
B. Down Syndrome
C. Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
D. A and B

Epidemiology has the following factors, EXCEPT___.

A. Structure-activity-relationships or SAR
B. Eradication of diseases
C. Distribution of diseases
D. Control of diseases

An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a
specific disease within a susceptible to population during a specific period:
A. Morbidity rate
B. Prevalence rate
C. Mortality rate
D. AOTA

Which of the following factors have been linked with essential hypertension?
I. Obesity
II. Smoking
III. Sex
IV. Stress
A. I, II & III
B. I, II, III, & IV
C. I, III, IV
E. II, III & IV

Which of the following means hardening of the arteries due to build-up of plaque?
A. Buerger disease
B. Varicose
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Aneurysm
Which describe short term expression of alcohol toxicity?
A. Pellagra
B. Chronic alcoholism
C. Cirrhosis
D. Hang-over

Which component of milk has antibodies?

A. Lactose
B. Cream of milk
C. Colostrum
D. Fructose

Which is referred to as the period between the conception through complete delivery?
A. Transmutation
B. Fertilization
C. Pregnancy
D. implantation

Theories and models used in health promotion programs and interventions include
which of the following?
I. Ecological model
II. Health belief model
III. Stages of change model
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. I, II
D. I, II, III

Public health activities for pharmacists at a micro level include the following.
I. Educating patients and clients on wellness
II. Research and development of health policies for the community
III. Counseling patients about chronic conditions
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II

Which of the following assays will involve total alkaloidal determination?

a. Specific
b. Proximate
c. Extraction
d. Ultimate

What assay method is illustrated in the assay of sodium chloride tablets wherein the
salt precipitated is silver chloride, filtered, dried and residue is weighed?
a. Volumetric method
b. Gravimetric method
c. Complexation method
d. Redox method
Assay of Atropine in Belladona is an example of which of the following?
a. biological method
b. ultimate assay
c. Proximate assay
d. special method

Which of the following terms is used for method of analysis done by separation of the
constituent from the sample then consequently weighing the product?
a. Special method
b. Volumetric analysis
c. Gravimetric analysis
d. Gasometric

Which type of chemical analysis measures percentage content of the component

present in a sample?
a. Quantitative method
b. Qualitative method
c. Proximate method
d. Gravimetric method

If the gram molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. Which of the following will be used
to label the container of a solution containing 49 grams per liter of solution?
a. 0.5N H2SO4
b. 1N H2SO4
c. 1M H2SO4
d. 0.2M H2SO4

Compute for the gram equivalent weight of MgO (mw=40.30)

a. 20.15
b. 0.0403
c. 0.403
d. 0.2015
A sample of Chlorpheniramine maleate weighing 0.502 g was assayed by nonaqueous
titrimetry using 22.2 mL of perchloric acid with normality of 0.1125. Calculate the %
purity of the sample. Each mL of 0.1 N perchloric acid is equivalent to 19.54 mg of
C16H19CLN2. C4H4O4
a. 97.2%
a. 72.9%
b. 27.9%
c. 9.72%

Which of the following is the indicator used in permanganate titration?

a. methyl orange TS
b. Phenolphthalein TS
c. Methyl red
d. Permanganate solution

How much of the alkali solution will be required to neutralize 30 ml of the acid if 1 ml
of HCl is equivalent to 1.5 ml of 0.5N NaOH?
a. 50 mL
b. 40 mL
c. 35 mL
d. 45 mL

What would be the most effective manner of cleaning glass apparatus?

a. rinsing with nitric acid
b. soaking in acetic
c. soaking in detergent
d. treatment with a solution of sodium chromate in sulfuric acid

What chemical reaction is involved during an analysis wherein there occur a change
of valence of reacting substances?
a. Oxidation- reduction
b. Precipitation
c. Neutralization
d. Complexation
In qualitative analysis where would adsorption indicators be used?
a. Complexation reaction
b. Volumetric precipitation
c. Acidimetry
d. Alkalimetry

When an alkaloid is subjected to titration analysis using ultimate assay method, what
are possible types of titrations based on the number of volumetric solutions?
a. Direct titration and blank titration
b. Direct and residual titration
c. Back and blank titration
d. Residual and back titration

What is the acid necessary for permanganate titrations?

a. Nitric acid
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Acetic acid
d. Sulfuric acid

Which among the following list of indicators is not used in acid-base titrations?
a. Methyl red
b. Phenolphthalein
c. Ferric alum
d. Methyl orange

Which of the following are components of a blank titration analysis?

I. Solvent
II. Reagent
III. Indicator
IV. Analyte
a. I, II, III, & IV
b. I, II & IV
c. II, III & IV
d. I, II & III

What assay method is illustrated in the assay of sodium chloride tablets wherein the
salt precipitated is silver chloride, filtered, dried and residue is weighed?
a. Volumetric method
b. Gravimetric method
c. Complexation method
d. Redox method

What is used for quantitative preparation of a standard solution?

a. Volumetric flask
b. Pipet
c. Burette (or Buret)
d. Graduated Cylinder
What is the name of the apparatus used to wash down drops of standard solution
clinging to the tip of the burette?
a. Cassia flask
b. Wash bottle
c. Bobcock bottle
d. Acetylization flask

What is the indicator used in the assay of a weak acid reacting with a strong base?
a. Methyl red TS
b. Phenolphthalein TS
c. Thymol blue
d. Methyl orange TS

In spectrophotometry, Beer’s plot is prepared in order to determine which of the

following aspects?
a. Blank
b. Absorbance of the sample
c. Wavelength
d. Concentration of the sample

Which of the following terms refer to the functional group of an organic molecule that
absorbs maximum radiation in UV or IR regions?
a. Nitrile
b. Moiety
c. Chromophore
d. Carbonyl

Which among the following laws is a fundamental law of fluorometry in the analysis of
drugs?
a. Law of mass action
b. Boyle’s law
c. Beer’s law
d. Newton’s law

The following are units of measurement generally used in spectrometry, EXCEPT___.

a. Milliliter
b. Angstrom
c. Micrometer
d. Nanometer

Which of the following laws in Spectrometry express the mathematical relationship

between light transmittance and thickness of the solution?
a. Lambert or Bouguer’s Law
b. Charles’ Law
c. Beer’s Law
d. Henry’s Law
What special instrumental method is used in the assay of thiamine?
a. Colorimetry
b. Refractometry
c. Fluorimetry
d. Potentiometry

Which of the pharmaceutical formulations will special methods like turbidimetric and
nephelometric assays are applicable?
a. Elixirs
b. Suspensions
c. Solutions
d. Waters

Which of the following physio-chemical properties of a drug are determined by UV/

Visible spectroscopy in pre-formulations and formulations?
I. Partition coefficient
II. Solubility
III. pH
IV. Ionic strength
a. I,II
b. II, IV
c. I,IV
d. III,IV

Determine the distance traveled by the solute, if its Rf value is 0.688 and the solvent
travels 8.0 cm. the sample weight is 1.02 mg.
A. 11.6 cm
B. 5.5 cm
C. 11.8 cm
D. 0.70 cm

What composes the mobile phase in gas chromatography?

a. Nitrogen
b. Alcohol-chloroform mixture
c. inert gas
d. Alcohol-ethyl acetate mixture

Widely used and preferred current assays of biological and pharmaceutical product
a. HPLC
b. TLC
c. GC
d. Gravimetric method
Which of the following are the most basic principles upon which chromatographic
separations take place?
I. Absorption
II. Ion-exchange
III. Adsorption
IV. Partition coefficient
a. I, II, III, & IV
b. II, III & IV
c. I, II & III
d. I, II & IV

Which of the following type of chromatographic analysis utilizes cellulose of filter paper
as the adsorbent?
a. Paper chromatography
b. Gas chromatography
c. Thin layer chromatography
d. Column chromatography

What constitutes the mobile phase used in thin layer chromatography (TLC)?
a. Alumina
b. Cellulose
c. Aqueous salt solution
d. Silica gel

What constitutes the stationary phase used in paper chromatography?

a. Silica gel
b. Aqueous salt solution
c. Alumina
d. Cellulose

High pressure liquid chromatography separations require the following,

EXCEPT______.
a. Nitrogen
b. Column support
c. Mobile phase solvent
d. Internal standard

Determination of ash content of crude drugs is important in detecting the presence of

which of the following possible adulterants?
a. Organic matter
b. Inorganic matter
c. Acids
d. Cellulose

Which of the following will usually compose crude fiber of a drug?

a. Fixed oils
b. Phytosterols
c. Cholesterol
d. Cellulose
Which of the following describes the substances that can rotate a plane of polarized
light?
a. Dextrorotatory
b. Optically active
c. Light sensitive
d. Levorotatory

Koettsdorfer number is the common name for which of the following values?
a. Ester value
b. iodine value
c. Saponification value
d. acid value

The following are established product quality test for injection solution EXCEPT
_________?
a. Particulate Matter Content Determination
b. Sterility Test
c. Ash Content Determination
d. pH Determination

The primary standard used to standardize Karl Fischer reagent is:

a. Potassium Bitartrate
b. Sodium oxalate
c. Sodium carbonate anhydrous
d. Sodium tartrate

Choose the solvent that is used in azeotropic method of water analysis?

a. Alcohol
b. Xylene
c. Ethylene glycol
d. Acetone

What quantitative measure would the iodine value of an oil express?

a. Unsaponifiable matter
b. Phenol content
c. Unsaturated fatty acids
d. Saturated fatty acids

The analyst computation of loss on drying test is 0.08% above the specified maximum
limit. Determine the total weight loss if the retained sample weight is 9.374 g. Product
monograph allow only a 1.5%.
a. 0.140 g
b. 0.150 g
c. 0.0007 g
d. 0.48 g
In what analytical process would Potentiometric method be MOST applicable?
a. Acid value determination
b. Biological assay
c. pH determination
d. Moisture determination

Which of the following processes refers to changing optical active compound to a non-
optically active substance?
a. Epimerization
b. Diazotization
c. Racemization
d. Complexation

Which of the following is used in the analysis of aromatic compounds containing an

amino group in the molecule?
a. Acid-base titration
b. Proximate assay
c. Acetylation process
d. Diazotization titration

Which of the following control function is not a quality control (QC) function?
a. In-process analysis
b. Labeling and packing materials
c. Inventory control
d. Inspection of containers

Functions of Quality Control include the following, EXCEPT _________.

a. Analytical control
b. Inspection control
c. Stock control
d. Audit

Which of the following are identified as functions of quality control as a major

component of GMP?
I. Sampling, specifications, and testing
II. Documentation and Release Control
III. Audit
IV. Stock control
a. II, III & IV
b. I, II & III
c. I, II, III, & IV
d. I, II & IV

What does the principle of total quality mean in pharmaceutical preparations?

a. Production is responsible for quality
b. Use of state-of-the-art equipment
c. Quality is everybody business
d. Quality combines with strict adherence to standards
Good manufacturing practice (GMP) as part of quality assurance simply means -
________.
a. All records and documentation must be in place.
b. Environmental cleanliness and hygiene must be observed.
c. Personnel must be properly trained
d. It is about getting things right all along the time

Which among statements BEST describe qualification as a major component of quality

assurance?
a. Action of proving that any premises systems and items of equipment work correctly
and lead to expected results.
b. Involves evaluation of past experiences of production showing that everything is
unchanged.
c. Documented verification that the system or subsystem preform as intended of its
overall anticipated operating range.
d. A list of detailed requirements with which the materials used, or products obtained
during manufacture must conform.

Pharmaceutical products of good quality and acceptability should possess or exhibit

following characteristics, EXCEPT ____
a. Therapeutically effective
b. Free of adulterants
c. Cheap price
d. Safe

In process verification for continuous improvement of compounded products, criteria

for potency verification of a drug in suspension dosage form preparations include?
I. Strength
II. Purity
III. Quality
IV. Sterility
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. II,III,IV
d. I,II,IV

Quality specifications in terms of physical attributes of pharmaceutical products, in the

form of suspensions include the following, EXCEPT_________.
a. Pour readily and evenly
b. Particles remain fairly constant
c. Clarity should remain clear under temperature range of 4-47 C
d. Should settle slowly
Quality Assessment tools for non-sterile dosage forms specific for suppositories,
troches, lozenges include?
I. Weight and Weight variations
II. Color of preparation
III. Clarity (Visual)
IV. Appearance
a. I, II & III
b. I, II, III, & IV
c. I, III & IV
d. II, & IV only

Titrimetric analysis is widely used in pharmaceutical analysis because of the following

reasons
I. Robustness
II. Cheapness
III. Specificity
IV. High precision
a. I, III, IV
b. III, IV
c. I,II,IV
d. I,IV

Which of the following are included when validating an assay method?

a. Clarity, specificity and accuracy
b. Specificity and accuracy
c. Specificity, precision and accuracy
d. Clarity, precision and accuracy

In methods of analysis which of the following refers to an expression of closeness of

agreement between a series of measurements?
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Robustness
d. Specificity

Which of the following refers to a list of test references which are critical quality
standards for purity and safety of pharmaceutical products?
a. Validation characteristics
b. Descriptions
c. Specifications
d. Assay

Which of the following has been identified to be microbial contaminant in hand cream?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Coliforms
c. Klebsiella pneumonia
d. Clostridium tetani
Which of the following statements are true as results of contamination of biological
products, which can compromise medication or treatment?
I. Loss of potency due to degradation
II. Increase level of bacterial endotoxin
III. Increase medication cost
IV. Shortage of essential drug Product
a. I, II, & III
b. I, II, III, & IV
c. II, III & IV
d. I, II & IV

Which of the following are examples of adventitious agents found to be possible

contaminants of biological products?
I. Ants
II. Fungi
III. Bacteria
IV. Viruses
a. I, II & III
b. I, II, III, & IV
c. I, II & IV
d. II, III & IV

Which of the following microbial contaminant is found in intravenous fluid?

a. Klebsiella pneumonia
b. Serratia spp.
c. Clostridium spp.
d. Enterobacter spp.

Safety and toxicity test are usually conducted for _____

a. Oral liquids
b. Solution in vial
c. C. Plastic tubing
d. Tablets

Safety or toxicity for infusion plastic sets is conducted using:

a. Dogs
b. White mice
c. Food ingestion
d. Rabbits

Which of the following tests can best detect endotoxins in pharmaceutical products?
a. TVC – Pour plate method
b. LAL test
c. Pyrogen test
d. Safety test
In the assay of Dextran injection wherein the activity assayed is the absorption of iron,
what is the test animal used?
a. Rabbit
b. Mice
c. Guinea pig
d. Tissue culture

In the repeat test for pyrogens using a total of eight rabbits, the requirement is met if
the total rise in temperature is:
a. Less than 3.3 Degrees Celsius
b. Equal to 3.3 Degrees Celsius
c. Equal to or less than 3.3 Degrees Celsius
d. Equal to or more than 3.3 Degrees Celsius

Techniques used in the test for the presence of bacteria endotoxins (BET) includes
the following EXCEPT?
a. Gel-clot
b. Gasometric technique
c. Chromogenic
d. Turbidimetric technique

Content uniformity test is to be performed for all tablet products whose active
ingredient is:
a. 50 mg or smaller
b. 130-324 mg
c. 324 mg or more
d. 130 mg or less

USP limit for tablet content uniformity:

a. 90-110%
b. 95-110%
c. 90-100%
d. 85-115%

How many tablets are required as sample when conducting a content uniformity test?
a. 15 tablets
b. 30 tablets
c. 20 tablets
d. 10 tablets

The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) content uniformity test is used to ensure
which quality?
a. Bioequivalence
b. Purity
c. Potency
d. Toxicity
An instrument use to measure the durability of tablets to shipping/transportation
against shock and abrasion.
a. Metal detector
b. Friabilator
c. Top loading balance
d. Colorimeter

The operation speed for paddle in a dissolution apparatus is:

a. 150 rpm
b. 100 rpm
c. 200 rpm
d. 50 rpm

Test used to determine the strength of tablets includes:

a. Content uniformity
b. Hardness
c. Weight variation
d. Both A and B

Which of the following term refers to the characteristics of the drug product to retain
its chemical, physical, therapeutic and toxicologic specification while inside its
container?
a. Shelf-life
b. Quality
c. Expiry date
d. Stability

Which among the statements defines the status of drug beyond expiration date?
a. Has lost 90% of activity
b. Lost 50% of drug activity
c. Lost sufficient activity to be outside USP/NF monograph requirement
d. Activity is below label claim

Potency of a 100 mg tablet at expiry date:

a. 95 mg
b. 90 mg
c. 105 mg
d. 110 mg

Which of the following statements best explain/s the reason behind “First-in first – out”
policy?
a. Assures that the oldest stock is used first and Contains information regarding the
activity of the drug product
b. Contains information regarding the activity of the drug product
c. Prevent contamination and mix ups
d. Assures that the oldest stock is used first
To control finished products in the warehouse of a company. What is the distribution
practice?
a. First-in-first-out
b. First-in-last-out
c. First-expiry-first-out
d. Last-in-first-out

The length of time that a product is within required specification is referred to as what?
a. Expiry date
b. Stability
c. Storage condition
d. Half-life

Which of the following is not considered as a primary packaging component?

a. Vials
b. Packer boxes
c. Caps
d. Bottles

What is the typical range of acceptance criteria for assay results as found in the labeled
claim?
a. 75-100%
b. 85-95%
c. 90-110%
d. 100-110%

Quality of pharmaceutical product is compromised by adulteration which may be

brought about by the following EXCEPT?
a. Weight variation
b. Addition of another article
c. Spoilage due to microorganisms
d. Substitution of ingredients