JEE (Main)

PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 13 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (03.00 p.m. to 06.00 p.m)
w

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

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PART : MATHEMATICS
1. Let () be the centroid of the triangle formed by the lines 15x –y = 82, 6x –5y = -4 and 9x + 4y = 17.
Then  + 2 and 2– are the roots of the equation
(1) x2 – 14x + 48 = 0 (2) x2 – 10x + 25 = 0
(3) x2 – 13x + 42 = 0 (4) x2 – 7x + 12 = 0
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Solving pair wise given equations we get vertices of BC as
A (6,8), B (1,2), C(5–7)
6  1 5
= 4
3
82–7
 1
3
 Centroid G (4,1)
sum of roots =  + 2 + 2 – 
= 3 +  = 13
product of roots ( + 2) (2 – )
= 6 × 7 = 42
 equation is x2 – 13x + 42 = 0

 1 2 3
 
2. Let for A =  3 1 , |A| = 2. If |2 adj (2 adj (2A))| = 32 n , then 3n +  is equal to
 1 1 2

(1) 11 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 12

NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
 1 2 3
 
Sol. A =  3 1 , |A| = 2
 1 1 2

 |A| = 1 (6 – 1) –  (4 – 3) + 1 (2– 9) = 2
 5 –  – 7 = 2 = – 4
Now | 2 adj (2adj 2A)| = 32n
 23 |2adj 2A|2 = 32n
 23·26 |2A|4 = 25n
 29· 212 |A|4 = 25n
 225 = 25n  n = 5
 3n +  = 15 – 4 = 11 Ans.

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3. The statement p  ~ q   ~ p  q   ~ p  ~ q  is equivalent to _____.

(1) p  ~ q  (2) ~ p  q (3) p  q (4) ~ p  ~ q 
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. p ~ q  ~ p  q  ~ p ~ q
 p ~ q  ~ p  (q  ~ q)
 p ~ q  ~ p  t 
 p ~ q ~ p
 ~ q  p  ~ p ~ q
 t  ~ p ~ q
 ~ p ~ q

 x2 
4. The range of f(x) = 4 sin 1  is
 1 x2 
 
(1) [0, 2) (2) [0, ] (3) [0, ) (4) [0, 2]
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
x2 1
Sol. =1–
1 x 2
1 x2
x2
0 <1
1 x2
 x2 
 0  sin 1  < 
 1 x2  2
 
 x2 
 0  4 sin 1  < 2
 1 x2 
 

5. The random variable X follows binomial distribution B (n, p), for which the difference of the mean and
the variance is 1. If 2P(X = 2) = 3P(x = 1), then n2 P(x > 1) is equal to
(1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 11 (4) 12
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. np – npq = 1 and
2n C2P2 (1  P)n2 = 3n C1P(1  P)n 1
 np2 = 1
1
p= ,n=4
2
 1   5 
= n2 P( X  1)  1614 C0 ( )4 4 C1( )4  = 161 
1
  11
 2 2   16 

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6. Let the centre of a circle C be () and its radius r < 8. Let 3x + 4y = 24 and 3x – 4y = 32 be two
tangents and 4x + 3y = 1 be a normal to C. Then ( – + r) is equal to
(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 5
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. (, ) is centre & 3x + 4y = 24 & 3x – 4y = 32 are tangents
3  4  24 3 – 4  32
 
5 5
3 + 4 – 24 = ± (3 – 4 – 32)
(+) sign (–) sign
8 + 8 = 0 6 = 56
28
=–1 
3
 4x + 3y = 1 is normal  4 + 3 = 1
 = – 1 then  = 1  C(1, –1)
28 112 109
 then  1 – 3    
3 3 9
 28  109 
C , 
 3 9 
3  4  24
C(1, –1) then r  5
5
84 436
 2
 28  109 
C ,  then r  3 9 5
 3 9  5

 C(, ) = C(1, –1),  = 5   –  + r = 7 Ans.


7. Let a1, a2, a3 …….. be a G.P of increasing positive numbers . Let the sum of its 6th and 8th terms be 2
1
and the product of its 3rd and 5th terms be . Then 6 (a2 +a4) (a4 + a6) is equal to
9
(1) 3 3 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 3
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. a6 + a8 =2  ar5 + ar7 = 2
1 1
& a3 .a5 =  a2 . r2 r4 =
9 9
1
 ar3 =
3
1 2 1 4
by (1) r + r =2
3 3
r + r = 6  r + r2 – 6 = 0
2 4 4

 (r2 + 3) (r2 – 2) = 0
1 1
 r2 = 2  ar .2=  ar =
3 6
Now 6(a2 + a4) (a4 + a6) = 6 (ar + ar3) (ar3 + ar5)
 1 1  1 1  1 2 1 2
= 6    .2  = 6 .
 6 3  3 3  6 3
=3

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8. The area of the region {(x, y) : x2  y  |x2 –4|, y  1) is

3
(1)
4

4 2 1  (2)
4
3

4 2 1  (3)
3
4
 
4 2 1 (4)
4
3
4 2 1 
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol.

1 2

 2
   
1
1 2   x3   2x 3  
A  2  3  x 2 dx   4  2x 2 dx   2  3x     4x  
0   3   3  
 1  
 0 1

 1 
 2 3    4 2 
4 2 2  2 2
 4     2

 4 2 
4 4 2 1
   
 3  3 3    3 3  3
  

x  3 y 1 z  5
9. The line, that is coplanar to the line   is
3 1 5
x 1 y  2 z  5 x 1 y  2 z  5
(1)   (2)  
1 2 4 1 2 5
x 1 y  2 z  5 x 1 y  2 z  5
(3)   (4)  
1 2 5 1 2 5
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. Check by option
– 3  1 1– 2 5 – 5 – 2 –1 0
option (2)  –3 1 5 = –3 1 5
–1 2 5 –1 2 5
– 2 –1 0
= – 2 –1 0 = 0
–1 2 5
 option (2) is correct

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10. The plane, passing through the points (0, -1, 2) and (-1, 2, 1) and parallel to the line passing through
(5,1,-7) and (1,-1,-1), also passes through the point
(1) (2, 0, 1) (2) (1, -2, 1) (3) (0, 5, -2) (4) (-2, 5, 0)
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Any plane passing through (0,–1,2) is a(x – 0) + b (y + 1) + c (z –2) = 0 ... (1)
It also passes through (–1, 2,1)
 – a + 3b – c = 0
a – 3b + c = 0 ... (2)
Dr's of line joining points A (5,1,–7) & B (1,–1,–1) are 4, 2, –6
Plane (1) || to AB  4a + 2b – 6c = 0
 2a + b – 3 c = 0 ... (3)
a – 3b + c = 0 ... (2)
a b c
  
1 9  3  2  6  1
a b c
  
8 5 7
 Required plane is 8x + 5y + 7z = 9
Clearly (–2, 5, 0 ) satisfying the plane so Ans. (4)

cxecx
eax  cos( bx) 
11. If Lim 2  17, then 5a2 + b2 is equal to
x 0 1  cos( 2x )
(1) 72 (2) 64 (3) 76 (4) 68
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
cxecx
eax  cos( bx) 
Sol. Lim 2  17,
x 0 1  cos( 2x )
by L-H rule

aeax  b sin bx 
2

c cx
e  xecx.c 
lim  17
x 0 2 sin 2x
c
a 0
2

a2eax  b2 cos bx 
2
e 
2

c 2  cx c 2  cx
e  xce cx 
lim  17
x 0 4 cos 2x
c2 c2
a2  b2  
2 2  17
4
 a2 + b2 + 4a2 = 68
 5a2 + b2 = 68

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12. Let for a triangle ABC,
AB  2î  ĵ  3k̂
CB   î   ĵ  k̂
CA  4 î  3 ĵ  k̂

if  > 0 and the area of the triangle ABC is 5 6 , then CB.CA is equal to
(1) 120 (2) 54 (3) 60 (4) 108
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
1
Sol. Ar of ABC = CB  CA  5 6
2
AB  BC  CA  O
 –2i + j + 3k – i – j – k + 4i + 3j + k = O
 –2 –  + 4 = 0   = 2
1–+3=0=4
3–+=0  =3+
i j k
Now CB  CA  2 4 3  
4 3 
= ( – 9)i + (2 + 12) j – 10k
( – 9)2 + (2 + 12)2 + 100 = 600
 52 + 30 – 275 = 0
2 + 6 – 55 = 0
( + 11) ( – 5) = 0  =5
Now
CB  CA = (2i + 4j + 8k)· (4i + 3j + 5k)
= 8 + 12 + 40 = 60 Ans.

13. If the system of equations

2x + y – z = 5
2x – 5y + z = 
 x + 2y – 5z = 7
has infinitely many solutions, then ( +)2 + ( – )2 is equal to
(1) 912 (2) 916 (3) 904 (4) 920
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. 2x + y – z = 5
2x – 5y + z = 
 x + 2y – 5z = 7
for infinite solution D = D1 = D2 = D3 = 0
2 1 1
D  2 5   0
1 2 5
2(25 – 2) – (–10 – ) –1 (4 + 5) = 0

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50 – 4 + 10 +  – 9 = 0   = 17
5 1 1
D1    5 17  0
7 2 5
5(25 – 34) –  (–5 + 2) + 7 (17 – 5) = 0
– 45 + 3 + 84 = 0  µ = – 13
Now ( + )2 + ( – )2 = (17 – 13)2 + (17 + 13)2
= 16 + 900 = 916

14.  
let S = {zC : z  i z 2  Rez  }. Then  z is equal to
zS
2

7 5
(1) 4 (2) (3) (4) 3
2 2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. Let Z = x + iy
x – iy = i(x2 – y2 + (2xy)i + x)
=( – 2xy) + i(x2 + x– y2)
x = – 2xy--------(1)
x(1 + 2y) = 0
1
x = 0, y = 
2
–y = x2 + x –y2 ---------(2)

If x = 0 , y2 – y =x2 + x  y = 0, 1
1 1 1 3
If y =  ,   x2  x  x2  x   0
2 4 2 4
1 3
X = ,
2 2
1 i 3 i
Possible Z = 0 + i 0, 0 + i  , 
2 2 2 2
2 1 10
z =0,1, ,
2 4
2 1 10
Sum of values of z = 1    1 3  4
2 4
5
 1 
15. The coefficient of x5 in the expansion of  2x 3  2  is .
 3x 
26 80
(1) (2) (3) 8 (4) 9
3 9
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
1
Sol. Tr 1 = 5 c r (2x 3 )5r ( 2 )r
3x

Power of x = 15 – 3r – 2r = 5 r=2
1 80
coefficient = 5 c 2 (23 )( ) 
9 9

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

 4
e 4   e – x (tan 50 x )dx
0
16. The value of 
is
4
e
–x
tan 49

x  tan 51 x dx
0
(1) 25 (2) 49 (3) 50 (4) 51
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
/4 /4

  e tan x dx
–/ 4
e  e – x (tan50 x )dx e–  / 4  –x 50

0 0
Sol. /4
= = 50
 –x / 4 
 e tan 
/ 4 –x
  e tan x 
50
–x e tan50 x 

49
x sec 2 x dx  dx
  50  50 
0
 0 0 
17. Let N be the foot of perpendicular from the point P(1, –2, 3) on the line passing through the point (4,5,8)
and (1, –7, 5). Then the distance of N from the plane 2x –2y + z + 5 = 0 is
(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 7
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
   4  7  5 5  8 
Sol. N , , 
  1  1  1 
3 5  7 2  5
Dr's of AN  , ,
 1  1  1
Dr's of BC = 3,12,3
 AN  BC
9 12– 5  7 32  5
  0
 1  1  1
–54 + 108 = 0
N (2,–3, 6)
Perpendicular distance of N form 2x – 2y + z + 5 = 0 is
4665 21
 7
4  4 1 3

  
         2
18. Let a = 2, b = 3 and the angle between the vectors a and b be . Then a  2b  2a – 3b is
4
equal to
(1) 441 (2) 882 (3) 841 (4) 482
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
    
Sol. a  2, b 3. a b =
4


   2
        2
Now a  2b  2a – 3b = 2a  a – 3a  b  4b  a – 6b  b 
 
  2 22 
7 a  b = 4 9 a b sin2 = 49.4. 9.
4
1
2
= 882

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Let ,  be the roots of the equation x  2x  2  0 . Then 14 + 14 is equal to

2
19.
(1) – 64 (2) – 128 (3) – 128 2 (4) – 64 2
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. += 2  = 2
2 +2 = ( + )2 – 2  = – 2
4 +4 = (2 + 2)2 – 2()2 = 4 – 8 = – 4
8 +8 = (4 + 4)2 – 2 ()4 = 16 – 2 = – 16
6 +6 = (2 + 2) (4 + 4) – ()2 (2 + 2) = – 2 (– 4 – 4) = 16
14 + 14 = (8 + 8) (6 + 6) – ()6 (2 + 2)
= (– 16) (16) – 26 . (– 2)
= – 256 + 8.16
= 8  16 = – 128

20. All words, with or without meaning, are made using all the letters of the word "MONDAY" . These words
are written as in a dictionary with serial numbers. The serial number of the word "MONDAY" is
(1) 324 (2) 326 (3) 327 (4) 328
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. given :- MONDAY
A, D, M, N, O, Y
A – 5! – – – – – = 120
D 5! = 120
MA 4! = 24
MD 4! = 24
MN 4! = 24
MOA 3! =6
MOD 3! =6
MONA 2! =2
MONDAY =1
327

21. The remainder, when 7103 is divided by 17, is

NTA Ans. (12)
Reso Ans. (12)
Sol. 7 = 7.(49)51 = 7. (51–2)51
103

= 7(51 – 251) = 17k – 7. 551

= 17k – 56(17 – 1)12
= 17k – 56(17 + 1)
= 17m–51–17+12
So Remainder 12

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22. Let [] denote the greatest integer Then  1  2   3       120 is equal to _____ .
NTA Ans. (825)
Reso Ans. (825)
Sol. If x[n2,(n + 1)2) then  x = n
 (r  1)   2r 
10 10
required value = 2
 r 2 .r = 2
r
r 1 r 1

10.11.21 10.11
= 2  = 770 + 55 = 825
6 2

23 The mean and standard deviation of the marks of 10 students were found to be 50 and 12 respectively.
Later, it was observed that two marks 20 and 25 were wrongly read as 45 and 50 respectively. Then the
correct variance is ______ .
NTA Ans. (269)
Reso Ans. (269)
5

x
i 1
i
Sol. x  50
10
 x i = 500

correct sum = x i – (45 + 50) + (20 + 25)

= 4450

2 =
x 2
x
2

50

 144 =
x 2
 2500
10
 x 2
= 10  2644 = 26440

 correct x 2
= x 2
– (452 + 502) + (202 + 252)
= 26440 – (2025 + 2500) + (400 + 625)
= 22940

x 
2
2  x 
correct variance = – 
n  n 
 
2
22940  450 
= –  
10  10 
= 2294 – 2025
= 269

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dy 4x x2
24. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation 
  x  1
dx x 2  1
y
2
5
2
, x  1 such that

y2 
2
9
     
loge 2  3 and y 2   loge        , , ,   N , then  is equal to _____ .

NTA Ans. (6)

Reso Ans. (6)
dy 4x x2
Sol. 
dx x 2  1 
y 5
x 1 2
2  
, x  1 which is linear in y

  x 2  12
4x
I.f. e
 x2 1
dx
 e2 lnx
2
1

Solution is y. x 2  1    
2 x2
x  1 dx  c
2 2

 
5
x2  1 2

    x  2 dx  c
y x2  1 
2

x 1 2

yx  1  x  1  2 ln x  x 2  1  c

2
 2 2
 

 y(2) =
2
9
 
ln 2  3


2
9
ln 2  3 . 9  3  2 ln2  3   c

c 3

  
y x 2  1  x 2  1  2 ln x  x 2  1  3
2

 
Put x 2
    
y 2 .1  1  2 ln 2  1  3
y 2   2 ln 2  1 1  3
= ln       
 = 2,  = 1,  = 3  .. = 6 Ans,


2 n  n 
25. Let fn     sink 1 x   2k  1 sink 1 x  cos x dx, n  N. Then f21 – f20 is equal to
0  k 1  k 1 
NTA Ans. (41)
Reso Ans. (41)

 n
2
 n 
Sol. 
0  k 1

 k 1



fn   sink 1 x  2k  1 sink 1 x  cos x dx


Let sin x = t  cosxdx = dt

1 n   n 
fn   
0


 k 1
t k 1 




 k 1
2k  1 tk 1  dt


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1 n
2k 1   n 2k  1 2k  3 
= 2 
0  
 k 1
t 2  
  
  k 1
2
t 2  dt


 n 2k  3 
n 2k 1  2k – 1 2 
Let 
k 1
t 2 y  
 k 1 2
t  dt  dy

 
n n2

= 2 y dy  2.
0 2
 n2

 I21 – I20 = 212 – 202 = 21 + 20 = 41 Ans.

26. Let A = {–4, –3, –2, 0, 1, 3, 4} and R = {(a, b)  A × A : b = |a| or b2 = a + 1 } be a relation on A. then the
minimum number of elements, that must be added to the relation R so that it becomes reflexive and
symmetric, is
NTA Ans. (7)
Reso Ans. (7)
Sol. A = {–4, –3, –2, 0, 1, 3, 4}
R = {(a, b)  A × A : b = |a| or b2 = a + 1}
= {(–4, 4), (–3, 3),(0,0), (1,1), (3,3), (4,4), (0,1) (3,–2)}
For reflexive relation (–4, –4), (–3, –3) (–2, –2) must be added
For symmetric relation (4, –4) , (3, –3) (1,0), (–2, 3) must be added
 Total number of elements = 7

27. For x  (–1, 1], then number of solution of the equation sin–1x = 2 tan–1x is equal to
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. Number of solution = 2
Alternate method
2x
Sin-1 x = sin-1 x  (1,1]
1 x2
2x
x=
1 x2
x = 0, 1
10
28. Let f(x) =  k x , x  R. If 2f(2) + f'(2) = 119 (2)
k 1
k n + 1 then n is equal to

NTA Ans. (10)

Reso Ans. (10)
10
Sol. f(x) =  k x , x  R.
k 1
k
2f(2) + f'(2) = 119 (2)n + 1

f(x) = x + 2x2 + 3x3 + ..... + 10x10 (A.G.P.)

 f x  
x 1  x10 10x11

  ... (1)
1  x 2 1  x
f ' x  
1 x 2 1 11x10   x  x11 21 x   10(1 x 11x10  x11) ... (2)
1 x 4 1 x 2
 f(2) = 2 (1 –210) + 20.210
f'(2) = 83·210 – 3
 2f(2) + f'(2) = 119.210 + 1
 n = 10 Ans.

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29. Total numbers of 3-digit numbers that are divisible by 6 and can be formed by using the digits 1,2,3,4,
5 with repetition, is
NTA Ans. (16)
Reso Ans. (16)
Sol.
Case-1 Unit digit is 2

(i) 2 2 =4
(ii) 2 2 =4
Case-2 Unit digit is 4

(i) 2 2 =4
(ii) 2 2 =4
Total number = 16

3
30. The foci of hyperbola are (± 2, 0) and its eccentricity is. A tangent, perpendicular to the line 2x + 3y =
2
6, is drawn at a point in the first quadrant on the hyperbola. If the intercepts made by the tangent on the
x – and y – axes are a and be respectively, then |6a| + |5b| is equal to _______.
NTA Ans. (12)
Reso Ans. (12)
3
Sol. s(± 2, 0) e=
2
4
ae = 2,  a = , b2 = a2 (e2 – 1)
3
16  9  16 5
b2    1  
9 4  9 4
20
b2 
9
9x 2 9y 2
 Hyperbola is  1
16 20
Line  to 2x + 3y = 6 is
3x – 2y +  = 0
3 
2y = 3x +   y = x 
2 2
Condition of tangency
2 16 9 20 16
 .  
4 9 4 9 9
64 8
2  
9 3

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8
 Tangent line is 3x – 2y  =0
3
8
y = 0 then a = ±
9
4
x = 0 then – b = ±
3
16 20 36
Now 6a  5b     12
3 3 3

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 JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 13 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
fww

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

SUBJECT: PHYSICS

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PART : PHYSICS

31. To radiate EM signal of wavelength  with high efficiency, the antennas should have minimum size equal
to 
 
(1) (2) (3)  (4) 2
4 2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)

32. In an electromagnetic wave, at an instant and at a particular position, the electric field is along the
negative z-axis and magnetic field is along the positive x-axis. Then the direction of propagation of
electromagnetic wave is :
(1) positive z-axis (2) positive y-axis
(3) negative y-axis (4) at 45º angle from positive y-axis
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
 
Sol. Direction of propagation of EM wave will be in the direction of E  B .

33. The distance travelled by an object in time t is given by s = (2.5)t2. The instantaneous speed of the object
at t = 5 s will be :
(1) 12.5 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1 (3) 62.5 ms–1 (4) 25 ms–1
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. V = 5t = 25 m/s

34. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. The distance from the mean position when its's kinetic energy
becomes equal to its potential energy is
1 1
(1) 2 A (2) A (3) A (4) 2A
2 2
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. K.E. = P.E.
1
2
 1

m2 A 2  x 2  m2 x 2  x = 
2
A
2
 a 
35. In the equation  X  2  [Y – b] = RT, X is pressure, Y is volume, R is universal gas constant and T is
 Y 
a
temperature. The physical quantity equivalent to the ratio is :
b
(1) Energy (2) Pressure gradient
(3) Coefficient of viscosity (4) Impulse

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NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. X and a/Y2 have same dimensions
Y and b have same dimensions
 [a] = [ML5T–2] ; [b] = [L3]
[a]/[b] = [ML2T–2] which is dimensions of energy.

36. The mean free path of molecules of a certain gas at STP is 1500 d, where d is the diameter of the gas
molecules. While maintaining the standard pressure, the mean free path of the molecules at 373 K is
approximately.
(1) 1098 d (2) 1500 d (3) 2049 d (4) 750d
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
RT
Sol. formula of mean free path is  
2d2NAP
 T
1500 d 273
    2049 d
 373
37.

A 1
Input

B
Input 1 0

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

NTA Ans. (1)

Reso Ans. (1)

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Sol. Truth table for NAND gate is

On the basis of given input A and B the truth table is

correct answer is (1).

38. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : An AC circuit undergoes electrical resonance if it contains either a capacitor or an inductor.
Statement II : An AC circuit containing a pure capacitor or a pure inductor consumes high power due to
its non-zero power factor.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. At resonance power factor is = 0, therefore net reactance should be zero, therefore inductor & capacitor
must be present. Also power factor is zero for pure inductor or pure capacitor hence both the component
consume zero average power.

39. A 10C charge is divided into two parts and placed at 1 cm distance so that the repulsive force between
them is maximum. The charges of the two parts are :
(1) 5C, 5C (2) 9C, 1C (3) 8C, 2C (4) 7C, 3C
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Kq(Q  q)
Sol. F=
r2
F is max at q = Q/2 = 10/2 = 5C

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40. Two planets A and B of radii R and 1.5 R have densities  and /2 respectively. The ratio of acceleration
due to gravity at the surface of B to A is :
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 3 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. acceleration due to gravity
GM 4
g 2
 GR
R 3

g2 2 R2 1 3
     1.5 
g1 1 R1 2 4

41. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : For a planet, if the ratio of mass of the planet to its radius increases. the escape velocity
from the planet also increase
Statement II : Escape velocity is independent of the radius of the planet.
In the light of above statement choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Statement 1 is correct & Statement 2 is incorrect

42. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The binding energy per nucleon is practically indepedent of the atomic number for nuclei
of mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) A is true but R is false
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. Binding energy per nucleon is nearly same for nuclei of mass number ranging 30 to 170.

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43. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : A spherical body of radius (5±0.1) mm having a particular density is falling through a liquid
of constant density. The percentage error in the calculation of its terminal velocity 4%
Reason R : The terminal velocity of the spherical body falling through the liquid is inversely proportional
to its radius.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true bot R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Terminal velocity of a sphere
 Vt  r2
Vt r
  2
Vt r

Vt (0.1)
  100%  2  100  4%
Vt 5

Also Vt  r2
Reason R is false Option (3) is correct.

44. An electron is moving along the positive x-axis. If the uniform magnetic field is applied parallel to the
negative z-axis, then
(A) The electron will experience magnetic force along positive y-axis
(B) The electron will experience magnetic force along negative y-axis
(C) The electron will continue to move along the positive x-axis
(D) The electron will move along circular path in magnetic field
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) C and D only (2) B and E only
(3) B and D only (4) A and E only
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
  
Sol. Magnetic force F  e( v  B)
Force will be along negative y-axis.
Magnetic force & velocity are perpendicular therefore path of electron is circle.

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45. The initial pressure and volume of an ideal gas are P0 and V0 . The final pressure of the gas when the
V0
gas is suddenly compressed to volume will be :
4
(Given)  = ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume
1

(1) P0 (4) P0 ( 4) (2) P0(4) (3) 4P0 (4) P0

NTA Ans. (2)

Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. When gas is suddenly compressed, then processes is adiabatic.
Equation of gas for adiabatic process is PV = constant.

V 
 P1V1  P2 V2  P0 V0  P2  0   P2 = P0(4)
 4 
Option (2) is correct
46. Given below are two statement:
Statement I : Out of microwaves, infrared rays and ultraviolet rays, ultraviolet rays are the most effective
for the emission of electrons from a metallic surface.
Statement : II Above the threshold frequency, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is inversely
proportional to the frequency of the incident light.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. Frequency of UV rays is greater than frequencies of microwave & infrared rays therefore it is more
effective for emission of electrons from a metallic surface.
(K)max. = h – 

47. A passenger sitting in a train A moving at 90 km/h observes another train B moving in the opposite
direction for 8 s. If the velocity of the train B is 54 km/h then length of train B is.
(1) 200 m (2) 120 m (3) 320 m (4) 80 m
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
5
Sol. (90 + 54) ×8=
18
 = 320 m

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48. In the network shown below, the charge accumulated in the capacitor in steady state will be

3v 4
+ –

4F
6

6

(1) 7.2C (2) 10.3 C (3) 1.8 C (4)12 C

NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
3
Sol. i
10
3 36
q= 4×6×  = 7.2 C
10 5

49. A vehicle of mass 200 kg is moving along a levelled curved road of radius 70 m with angular velocity of
0.2 rad/s. The centripetal force acting on the vehicle is :
(1) 2240 N (2) 2800 N (3) 174 N (4) 560 N
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Centripetal force F = m2r = 200 × (0.2)2 × 70 = 560N

50. In a Young's double slits experiment, the ratio of amplitude of light coming from slits is 2 : 1. The ratio of
the maximum to minimum intensity in the interference pattern is :
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 9 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 25 : 9
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
A1
Sol. Given that 2
A2
2
Imax .  A1  A 2 
  9
Imin .  A1  A 2 

51. An insulated copper wire of 100 terms is wrapped around a wooden cylindrical core of the cross-sectional
area 24 cm2. The two ends of the wire are connected to a resistor. The total resistance in the circuit is
12. If an extremely applied uniform magnetic field in the core along its axis changes from 1.5 T in one
direction to 1.5 T in the opposite direction, the charge flowing through a point in the circuit during the
change of magnetic field will be –––– C.
NTA Ans. 60
Reso Ans. 60
    2  2NBA
Sol. Charge flows q =  1  = 60 mC
 R  R

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52. A light rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 70 cm. The rope ios pulled with
a force of 52.5 N. The angular acceleration of the cylinder will be –––– rad s–2
NTA Ans. 15
Reso Ans. 15
Sol. Torque
 FR = mR2
F 52 .5
=   15 rad. / m 2
mR 5  0.7

53. A straight wire AB of mass 40 g and length 50 cm is suspended by a pair of flexible leads in uniform
magnetic field of magnitude 0.40 T as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the current required in the
wire to remove the tension in the supporting leads is ––––– A. (Take g = 10 ms–2)

X X XX
XX X X X
A XX X X X B
XX X X X

NTA Ans. 2
Reso Ans. 2
Sol. Bi = mg
40
 10
m g 1000
i  2
B 0. 4  0. 5

3
54. Three point charges q, – 2q and 2q are placed on x- axis at a distance x = 0, x = R and x = R
4
respectively from origin as shown. If q = 2 × 10–6 C and R = 2 cm, the magnitude of net force experienced
by the charge – 2 q is ––––––N.

–2q 2q
q x

x=0
3/4R

NTA Ans. 5440

Reso Ans. 5440

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Sol.

Kq(2q) K ( 2q)(2q)
FBA  2
& FBC = 2
3  R
 R  
4  4

544Kq2
FB = FBC– FBA = = 5440
9R 2

55. A bi convex lens of focal length 10 cm is cut in two identical parts along a plane perpendicular to the
principal axis. The power of each lens after cut is ––––– D.
NTA Ans. 5
Reso Ans. 5
1 2
Sol. P   (  1) 
f R
1  1
P'   (  1) 
f R
P' 1 1 1
  P'    5D
P 2 2 0.1

56. A car accelerates from rest to u m/s. The energy spent in this process is E J. The energy required to
accelerate the car from um m/s to 2u m/s is nE J. The value of n is
NTA Ans. 3
Reso Ans. 3
1 1
Sol. E1 = mu 2  0  mu 2  E
2 2
1 1 3
E2 = m(2u)2  mu 2  mu 2  3E
2 2 2
57. In an experiment with tonometer when a mass of 180 g is attached to the string, it vibrates with
fundamental frequency of 30 Hz . When a mass m is attached, the string vibrates with fundamental
frequency of 50 Hz. The value of m is –––––––g.
NTA Ans. 500
Reso Ans. 500
1 T
Sol. Fundamental frequency f 
2 

f2 T2

f1 T1
2
 50  mg
    m = 500 g
 
30 180g

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58. In the circuit shown, the energy stored in the capacitor is n J. The value of n is

3 4
6F

12V
9 2

NTA Ans. 75
Reso Ans. 75
12
Sol. I1   1A
39

12
I2   2A
42

VA – VC = 3I1 = 3V …..(1)
VA – VD = 2 × 4 = 8V ……(2)
Subtracting equation (1) from equation (2)
VC – VD = 5V V = 5V
1 1
U  CV 2   6  5 2  75 J
2 2

59. Two plates A and B have thermal conductivities 84 Wm –1K–1 and 126 Wm–1 K–1 respectively. They have
same surface area nd same thickness. They are placed in contact along their surfaces. If the
temperatures of the outer surface of A and B are kept at 100 ºC and 0 ºC respectively, then the
temperature of the surface of contact in steady state is –––––– ºC.
NTA Ans. 40
Reso Ans. 40
Sol.

Let the temperature of contact surface is T, then

HA = H B

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K A A(TA  T ) K B A(T  TB )

L L
84(100 – T) = 126 (T – 0)
2(100 – T) = 3T
200 – 2T = 3T
T = 40°C
60. An atom absorbs a photon of wavelength 500 nm and emits another photon of wavelength 600 nm. The
net energy absorbed by the atom in this process in n × 10–4 eV. The value of n is ––––
(Take h = 6.6 × 10–34Js) and c = 3 × 108 m/s
NTA Ans. 4125
Reso Ans. 4125

hc hc  1 1 
Sol. E = E1 – E2 =   hc  
1  2  1  2 

 1 1 
= 6.6 × 10–34 × 3 × 108  9
 9

 500  10 600  10 
=6.6 × 10–20 J

6.6  1020
= eV = 4.125 × 10–1 eV = 4125 × 10—4 eV
1.6  1019

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 JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 13 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
w

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY

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PART : CHEMISTRY
61. Which of the following are the green house gases?
A. Water vapour
B. Ozone
C. I2
D. Molecular hydrogen
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) A and B only (2) A and D only
(3) B and C only (4) C and D only
Ans. NTA (1)
Sol. Based on fact.

62. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Isotopes of hydrogen have almost same chemical properties, but difference in their rates
of reaction.
Reason R: Isotopes of hydrogen have different enthalpy of bond dissociation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Ans. NTA (1)
Sol. Due to difference in bond enthalpy the rate of reaction of isotopes of hydrogen is different.

63. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: SO2 and H2O both possess V-shaped structure.
Statement II: The bond angle of SO2 is less than that of H2O.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Ans. NTA (3)

O
Sol. S
H H
O 119º O 104 º.30'
Hybridisation = sp2 Hybridisation = sp3
no of lone pair = 1 no of lone pair = 2
64. The major product for the following reaction is:
SH
HO
CN
O S
HS CN HO CN
(1) (2)

C NH C NH
S OH
(3) O (4) S

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Ans. NTA : (2)

–
CN
CN HO SH
HO
+S
Sol.
H
–
+ CN
CN HO S
HO S
H

65. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
A. Weak intermolecular forces I. Hexamethylenediamine + adipic acid
of attraction
B. Hydrogen bonding II. AlEt3 + TiCl4
C. Heavily branched polymer III. 2-chloro – 1,3 - butadiene

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Ans. NTA : (1)
Sol. (i) Formation of high density polythene uses Zeigler-Natta catalyst.
(ii) Phenol formaldehyde resin is highly branched.
(iii) Nylon-6,6 is formed by Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid and it has inter molecular H-bonding
due to amide group.

66. Given below are two statements related to Ellingham diagram:

Statement I : Ellingham diagrams can be constructed for formation of oxides, sulfides and halides of
metals.
Statement II : It consists of plots of H vs T for formation of oxides of elements.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Ans. NTA (4)
Sol. S1 : Ellingham diagrams can be constructed for formation of oxides of metals.
S2 : It consists of plots of G vs T for formation of oxides of elements.

67. Better method for preparation of BeF2 among the following is

 
(1) BeH2 + F2  BeF2 (2) (NH4)2 BeF4  BeF4
 
(3) BeO + C + F2  BeF2 (4) Be + F2  BeF2
Ans. NTA (2)
Sol. Thermal decomposition of (NH4)2BeF4 is the best route for the preparation of BeF2
(NH4)2 BeF4  (NH4)2 BeF4 2NH4F + BeF2

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68. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Order of acidic nature of the following compounds is A > B > C.
OH OH OH
Cl

CH3
B
A F C

Reason R : Fluoro is a stronger electron withdrawing group than Chloro group.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Ans. NTA : (3)
Sol. Chlorine at  carbon is more electron withdrawing – than F at  carbon, where CH3 is + group.

69. The naturally occurring amino acid that contains only one basic functional group in its chemical structure
is
(1) Arginine
(2) Histidine
(3) Lysine
(4) Asparagine
Ans. NTA : (4)
Sol. Lysine, Arginine and Histidine are basic amino acids with one extra basic functional group, whereas
Asparagine has additional-amide group, which is not classified as basic functional group.

70. Which of the following complexes will exhibit maximum attraction to an applied magnetic field?
(1) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
(2) [Co(en)3]3+
(3) [Co(H2O)6]2+
(4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
Ans. NTA (3)
Sol.
Complex Electronic No. of unpaired
configuration electrons
[Co(en)6]3+ Co3+: 3d6  t 22,g2,2, e0g, 0 0

[Co(H2O)6]2+ Co2+: 3d7  t 22,g2,1, e1g,1 3

[Ni(H2O)6]2+ Ni2+:3d8  t 22,g2,2, e1g,1 2

[Zn(H2O)6]2+ Zn2+ : 3d10  t 22,g2,2, e2g,2 0

Greater the number of unpaired electrons greater is the interaction in magnetic field.

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71. Identify the correct order of standard enthalpy of formation of sodium halides.
(1) NaI < NaBr < NaCl < NaF
(2) NaI < NaBr < NaF < NaCl
(3) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI
(4) NaCl < NaF < NaBr < NaI
Ans. NTA (1)
Sol. Compound Hf (KJ/mol)
NaF –569
NaCl –400
NaBr –360
NaI –288

72. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Tropolone is an aromatic compound and has 8  electrons.
Statement II :  electrons of > C = O group in tropolone is involved in aromatically.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true
Ans. NTA : (3)
–
O O
OH + OH

Sol.
8 electron 6 electron
non-Aromatic Aromatic

73. Compound A from the following reaction sequence is:

Br

Br2 . CS2 NaNO2/ HCl H3PO2

A. B. A.
0 – 5°C 
Br Br
(1) Salicylic acid
(2) Benzoic acid
(3) Phenol
(4) Aniline
Ans. NTA : (4)
NH2 – –
N2Cl
Br
NH2 Br Br Br
NaNO2 Br
H PO
Sol. Br2 HCl 3 
2

CS2 Br Br
Br Br

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74. Match List-I with List-II

1-Bromopropane is reacted with reagents in List I to give product in List II

List-I – Reagent List-II Product

A. KOH (alc) I. Nitrile
B. KCN(alc) II. Ester
C. AgNO2 III. Alkene
D. H3CCOOAg IV. Nitroalkane

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Ans. NTA : (3)
Alc. KOH

Sol. Br
KCN

Br CN
Ag–O–N O

Br NO2

CH3COOAg
CH3–COO
Br

75. The total number of stereoisomers for the complex [Cr(ox) 2ClBr]3– (where ox = oxalate) is:
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4
Ans. NTA (2)
Sol. [Co(Ox)2ClBr] –3 [M(AA)2ab]
Cl Ox
Ox
Cl Cl
Ox Co Ox Co Co
Br Br
Br Ox Ox
Trans cis-l cis-d

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76. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The diameter of colloidal particles in solution should not be much smaller than wavelength
of light to show Tyndall effect.
Reason R: The light scatters in all directions when the size of particles is large enough.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
Ans. NTA (2)
Sol. The diameter of colloidal particles in solution should not be much smaller than wavelength of light
to show Tyndall effect. Because the light scatters in all directions when the size of particles is large
enough.

77. The correct group of halide ions which can be oxidised by oxygen in acidic medium is
(1) I– only
(2) Br– and I– only
(3) Cl–, Br– and I– only
(4) Br– only
Ans. NTA (1)
Sol. Reduction potential
EIo / I–  0.54 V
2

o
EBr –  1.09 V
2 / Br

EoO2 / H2O  1.23 V

EoCl / Cl –
 1.36 V
2

R.P. is in order Cl2 > Br2 > I2

O.P. is revers in order
So, I– and Br– ion will get oxidised.

78. What happens when methane undergoes combustion in system A and B respectively?
Adiabatic Diathermic
system container
System A System B

Ans. NTA (2)

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79 The covalency and oxidation state oxidation state respectively of boron in [BF 4]–, are
(1) 3 and 5
(2) 4 and 3
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 4 and 4
Ans. NTA (2)
Sol. Covalency = 4

For oxidation number x + 4(–1) = –1

x=3

80. In the wet tests for detection of various captions by precipitation, Ba 2+ cations are detected by obtaining
precipitate of
(1) BaSO4
(2) BaCO3
(3) Ba(OAc)2
(4) Ba(ox) : Barium oxalate
Ans. NTA (2)
Sol. tests for detection of various captions by precipitation, Ba 2+ cations are detected by obtaining
precipitate of BaCO3

81. See the following chemical reaction:

Cr2O72   XH  6Fe2   YCr 3   6Fe3   ZH2O
The sum of X, Y and Z is _________.
Ans. NTA (23)
Sol. Balance reaction is :
Cr2O72–+14H++ 6Fe+2 6Fe+3 + 2Cr+3 + 7H2O
X = 14 Y=2 Z=7
Hence (X+Y+Z) = 14+2+7 = 23

82. A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) is a first order reaction. The initial pressure of the system was found to be 800 mm
Hg which increased to 1600 mm Hg after 10 min. The total pressure of the system after 30 min will be
________mm Hg. (Nearest integer)
Ans. NTA (2200)
Sol. A(g)  2B(g) + C(g)
t=0 800 – –
t = (10 min) 800 – P 2P P
PT = 800 – P + 2P + P
= 800 + 2P = 1600
So P = 400 mm
So t 1 = 10 min
2
Given time 30 min

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C0
So for Ist order Reaction Ct =
(2)n
t 30
n=   3 ; n = number of half life
t 1 10
2

800
Ct = = 100 mm of Hg
( 2) 3
So after 30 min P = 700 mm
PA = 800 – 700 = 100, PB = 1400, PC = 700
PT of reaction mixture = 100 + 1400 + 700 = 2200 mm of Hg

83. 1g of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with excess HCl produces 0.01 mol of CO 2. The molar mass of
M2CO3 is ________ g mol–1. (Nearest integer)
Ans. NTA (100)
Sol. M2CO3 + HCl  2MCl + H2O + CO2
1g 0.02 mole 0.01 mole
POAC on C-atom
Mole of M2CO3 × 1 = Mole of CO2 × 1

 1  0.01  1
1
M.M
molar mass of M2CO3 = 100 g/mol

84. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with unit cell edge length of 4 Å. The radius of
sodium atom is ________× 10–1 Å (Nearest integer)
Ans. NTA (17)
Sol. The relation between edge length and radius in bcc lattice is 4R = 3a
given a = 4A°
4R = 3 x 4
R = 1.732A° = 17.32 × 10–1 = 17

85. At 298 K, the standard reduction potential for Cu 2+/ Cu electrode is 0.34 V.
Given : Ksp Cu(OH)2 = 1 ×10–20
2.303RT
Take  0.059V
F
The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above couple is (-)x × 10–2 V.
The value of x is_________________.
Ans. NTA 25
Sol. pH = 14  pOH = 0
[OH–] = 1
Ksp Cu(OH)2 = [Cu2+] [OH–]2 = 1 ×10–20
[Cu2+] = 10–20
0.059 1
ECu2  |Cu  E0 Cu2  |Cu  log
2 [Cu 2 ]
0.059
= 0.34 – log 1020
2
= – 0.25

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= –25 × 10–2 V.

86. If the formula of Borax is Na2B4Ox (OH)y.zH2O, then x + y + z = ______________.

Ans. NTA 17
Sol. Formula of borax is Na2B4O5(OH)4.8H2O
X + Y + Z = 5 + 4 + 8 = 17

87. 20mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 50 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid solution. The pH of the resulting solution is
___________ ×10–2 (Nearest integer)
Given : pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.76
log 2 = 0.30
log 3 = 0.48
Ans. NTA 458
Sol. NaOH + CH3COOH  CH3COONa + H2O
0.1 M, 20 ml 0.1 M, 50 ml
Millimole = 0.1 × 20 = 2, 0.1 × 50 = 5
L.R. = NaOH
So 0 5 – 2 = (3) (2)
So Resultant solution is Acidic buffer solution
 salt 
So pH = pKa + log  
 acid
2
pH = 4.76 + log
3
pH = 4.76 + (–0.18) = 4.58 = 458 ×10–2

88. Sea water contains 29.25% NaCl and 19% MgCl2 by weight of solution. The normal boiling point of the
sea water is ____________ °C (Nearest integer)
Assume 100% ionization for both NaCl and MgCl2
Given: Kb(H2O = 0.52 K kg mol–1
Molar mass of NaCl and MgCl2 is 58.5 and 95g mol–1 respectively.
Ans. NTA (116)
Sol. Total weight of solute in solution = 29.25 + 19 = 48.25 gm
Total weight of solute in solution = 100 – 48.25 = 51.75 gm
So Tb = i × Kb × m = (i × m) × Kb
29.25
mole of NaCl = = 0.5
58.5
19
Mole of MgCl2 = = 0.2
95
 29.25 1000 19 1000 
Tb =  2    3    0.52
 58.5 51.75 95 51.75 
So Tb Boling point of solution Tb = 100 + Tb = 116
xh
89. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 3s orbital is . The value of x is _______
2
(Nearest integer)
Ans. NTA (0)
Sol. orbital angular momentum for 3s orbital = 0

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90. 0.400 g of an organic compound (X) gave 0.376 g of AgBr in Carius method for estimation of bromine. %
of bromine in the compound (X) is______________.
Given: Molar mass AgBr = 188 g mol–1
Br = 80 g mol–1
Ans. NTA 40
Ag
Sol. Organic compound (X)  AgBr
0.40 gram 0.376 gram
0.376
Mole of AgBr = = 0.002
188
Mole of Br = 0.002
Mass of Br = 0.002 × 80 = 0.16
0.16
% of Br = × 100
0 .4
= 40%

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