Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants (b) wheat

(c) Datura
1.What is the function of filiform apparatus in an (d) Caesalpinia
angiospermic embryo sac? Answer:(b) wheat
(a) Brings about opening of the pollen tube
(b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid 8.Plants with ovaries having only one or a few
(c) Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into ovules are generally pollinated by
a synergid (a) bees
(d) None of these (b) butterflies
Answer:(b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid (c) birds
(d) wind
2.The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the Answer:(d) wind
time of fertilisation is
(a) 8 – celled 9.Which of the following is not a water pollinated
(b) 7 – celled plant ?
(c) 6 – celled (a) Zostera
(d) 5 – celled (b) Vallisneria
Answer:(b) 7 – celled (c) Hydrilla
(d) Cannabis
3.Polygonum type of embryo sac is Answer:
(a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled (d) Cannabis
(b) 8 – nucleate, 8 – celled
(c) 7 – nucleate, 7 – celled 10.Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large,
(d) 4 – nucleate, 3 – celled attractively coloured flowers are associated with
Answer:(a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled (a) hydrophily
(b) entomophily
4.Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers (c) ornithophily
are present in (d) anemophily
(a) Helianthus Answer:(b) entomophily
(b) Commelina
(c) Rosa 11.Endospermic seeds are found in
(d) Gossypium (a) castor
Answer:(b) Commelina (b) barley
(c) coconut
5.Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting (d) all of these
is assured in Answer:(d) all of these
(a) Commelina
(b) Zostera 12.
(c) Salvia In albuminous seeds, food is stored in _______ and
(d) Fig in non albuminous seeds, it is stored in _______.
Answer:(a) Commelina (a) endosperm, cotyledons
(b) cotyledons, endosperm
6.Male and female flowers are present on different (c) nucellus, cotyledons
plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in (d) endosperm, radicle
(a) papaya Answer:(a) endosperm, cotyledons
(b) bottle gourd
(c) maize 13.Persistent nucellus is called as _______ and is
(d) all of these. found in _______.
Answer:(a) papaya (a) perisperm, black pepper
(b) perisperm, groundnut ‘
7.Feathery stigma occurs in (c) endosperm, black pepper
(a) pea
(d) endosperm groundnut 20.From among the sets of terms given below,
Answer:(a) perisperm, black pepper identify those that are associated with the
gynoecium.
14.Indentify the wrong statement regarding post- (a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
fertilisation development. (b) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(a) The ovary wall develops into pericarp. (c) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into (d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
tegmen. Answer:(a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
(c) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into
endosperm. 21.Science of cultivation, breeding, marketing and
(d) The ovule develops into seed. arrangement of flowers is called
Answer:(b) The outer integument of ovule develops (a) arboriculture
into tegmen. (b) floriculture
(c) horticulture
15.Polyembryony commonly occurs in (d) anthology
(a) banana Answer:(b) floriculture
(b) tomato
(c) potato 22.Nonessential floral organs in a flower are
(d) citrus. (a) sepals and petals
Answer: (d) citrus. (b) anther and ovary
(c) stigma and filament
16.An embryo may sometimes develop from any (d) petals only.
cell of embryo sac other than egg. It is termed as Answer:(a) sepals and petals
(a) apospory
(b) apogamy 23.The stamens represent
(c) parthenogenesis (a) microsporangia
(d) parthenocarpy (b) male gametophyte
Answer:(b) apogamy (c) male gametes
(d) microsporophylls.
17. Answer:(d) microsporophylls
Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.
(a) Stamen Question 24.
(b) filament Anther is generally
(c) pollen grain (a) monosporangiate
(d) androecium (b) bisporangiate
Answer:(c) pollen grain (c) letrasporangiate
(d) trisporangiate.
18.The outermost and innermost wall layers of Answer:(c) letrasporangiate
microsporangium in an anther are respectively
(a) endothecium and tapetum 25.The anther wall consists of four wall layers where
(b) epidermis and endodermis (a) tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
(c) epidermis and middle layer (b) middle layers lie between endothecium and
(d) epidermis and tapetum. tapetum
Answer:(d) epidermis and tapetum. (c) endothecium lies inner to middle layers
(d) tapetum lies next to epidermis.
19.During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in Answer:(b) middle layers lie between endothecium
(a) endothecium and tapetum
(b) microspore mother cells
(c) microspore tetrads 26.The innermost layer of anther is tapetum whose
(d) pollen grains function is
Answer:(b) microspore mother cells (a) dehiscence
(b) mechanical
(c) nutrition (d) Focke
(d) protection. Answer:(a) Nawaschin
Answer:
33.If an endosperm cell of an angiosperm contains
24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in
27.Callase enzyme which dissolves callose of pollen each cell of the root will be
tetrads to separate four pollens is provided by (a) 8
(a) pollens (b) 4
(b) tapetum (c) 16
(c) middle layers (d) 24
(d) endothecium. Answer:(c) 16
Answer:(b) tapetum
Question 34.
28.In angiosperms various stages of reductional The cells of endosperm have 24 chromosomes. What
division can best be studied in will be the number of chromosomes in the gametes ?
(a) young anthers (a) 8
(b) mature anthers (b) 16
(c) young ovules (c) 23
(d) endosperm cells. (d) 32
Answer: Answer:(a) 8
(a) young anthers
Question 35.
29.Study of pollen grains is called The true embryo develops as a result to fusion of
(a) micrology (a) two polar nuclei of embryo sac
(b) anthology (b) egg cell and male gamete
(c) palynology (c) synergid and male gamete
(d) pomology (d) male gamete and antipodals.
Answer: Answer:
(c) palynology (b) egg cell and male gamete

30.Several pollen grains form a unit designated as Question 36.

pollinium in Family Father of Indian embryology is
(a) Asteraceae (a) P. Maheshwari
(c) Asclepiadaceae Pollen (b) Swaminathan
(b) Cucurbitaceae (c) R. Misra
(d) Brassicaceae (d) Butler
Answer: Answer:
(c) Asclepiadaceae Pollen (a) P. Maheshwari

31.Triple fusion in Capsella bursa pastoris is fusion Question 37.

of male gamete with The portion of embryonal axis between plumule
(a) egg (future shoot) and cotyledons is called
(b) synergid (a) hypocotyl
(c) secondary nucleus (b) epicotyl
(d) antipodal. (c) coleorhiza
Answer:(c) secondary nucleus (d) coleoptile.
Answer:(b) epicotyl
32.Double fertilisation was first discovered in 1898
by _______ in Fritillaria and Lilium. 38.Coleoptile and coleorhiza are the protective
(a) Nawaschin sheaths _______ covering _______ and _______
(b) Strasburger respectively.
(c) Amici (a) plumule, epicotyl
(b) radicle, plumule 45.What is the function of germ pore ?
(c) plumule, radicle (a) Emergence of radicle
(d) radicle, hypocotyl (b) Absorption of water for seed germination
Answer:(c) plumule, radicle (c) Initiation of pollen tube
(d) All of these .
39._______ is not an endospermic seed. Answer:(c) Initiation of pollen tube
(a) Pea
(b) Castor 46._______of the pollen grain divides to form two
(c) Maize male gametes.
(d) Wheat (a) Vegetative cell
Answer:(a) Pea (b) Generative cell
(c) Microspore mother cell
40.Endosperm is completely consumed by the (d) None of these
developing embryo in Answer:(b) Generative cell
(a) pea and groundnut
(b) maize and castor 47.The three cells found in a pollen grain when it is
(c) castor and groundnut shed at 3-celled stage are
(d) maize and pea. (a) 1 vegetative cell, 1 generative cell, 1 male
Answer:(a) pea and groundnut gamete
(b) 1 vegetative cell, 2 male gametes
41.Pollen grain is a (c) 1 generative cell, 2 male gametes
(a) megaspore (d) either (a) or (b).
(b) microspore Answer:
(b) microspore (b) 1 vegetative cell, 2 male gametes
(d) microsporangium.
Answer:(b) microspore 48.Megasporangium along with its protective
integuments is called
42.How many pollen mother cells should undergo (a) ovary
meiotic division to produce 64 pollen grains ? (b) ovule
(a) 64 (c) funicle
(b) 32 (d) chalaza
(c) 16 Answer:(b) ovule
(d) 8
Answer:(c) 16 49.Mature ovules are classified on the basis of
funiculus. If micropyle comes to lie close to the
43.How many meiotic divisions are required for the funiculus the ovule is termed as
formation of 100 pollen grains ? (a) orthotropous
(a) 100 (b) anatropous
(b) 50 (c) hemitropous
(c) 25 (d) campylotropous
(d) 26 Answer:(b) anatropous
Answer:(c) 25
50.When micropyle, chalaza and hilum lie in a
44.One of the most resistant biological material straight line, the ovule is said to be
present in the exine of pollen grain is (a) anatropous
(a) pectocellulose (b) orthotropous
(b) sporopollenin (c) amphitropous
(c) suberin (d) campylotropous.
(d) cellulose. Answer:(b) orthotropous
Answer:(b) sporopollenin
51.Fragrant flowers with well developed nectaries
are an adaptation for
(a) hydrophily 58.During the process of fertilisation the pollen tube
(b) anemophily of the pollen grain usually enters the embryo sac
(c) entomophily through
(d) none of these (a) integument
Answer:(c) entomophily (b) nucellus
(c) chalaza
52.Pollen kitt is generally found in (d) micropyle
(a) anemophilous flowers Answer:(d) micropyle
(b) entomophilous flowers
(c) ornithophilous flowers 59.Fusion of one of the male gametes with egg
(d) malacophilous flowers nucleus is referred to as
Answer:(b) entomophilous flowers (a) generative fertilisation
(b) syngamy
53.Which of these is a condition that makes flowers (c) vegetative fertilisation
invariably autogamous ? (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) Dioecy Answer:(d) both (a) and (b)
(b) Self incompatibility
(c) Cleistogamy  60.The total number of nuclei involved in
(d) Xenogamy double fertilisation in angiospersm are
Answer: (a) two
(c) Cleistogamy (b) three
(c) four
54.Heterostyly as a contrivance for cross-pollination (d) five
is found in Answer:(d) five
(a) Pennisetum
(b) Impatiens Human Reproduction
(c) Primula vulgaris
(d) Oenothera 1.Ovulation in the human female normally takes
Answer:(c) Primula vulgaris place during the menstrual cycle
(a) at the mind secretory phase
55.The part of gynoecium that determines the (b) just before the end of the secretory phase
compatible nature of pollen is (c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase
(a) stigma (d) at the end of the proliferative phase.
(b) style Answer: (d) at the end of the proliferative phase.
(c) ovary
(d) synergids 2. After ovulation Graafian follicle regresses
Answer:(a) stigma into
(a) corpus atresia
56.Part of the gynoecium which receives the pollen (b) corpus callosum
is called (c) corpus luteum
(a) style (d) corpus albicans
(b) stigma Answer:(c) corpus luteum
(c) ovule
(d) ovary 3.Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian
Answer:(b) stigma egg is covered by a membrane known as
(a) chorion
57.Growth of pollen tube towards embryo sac is (b) zona pellucida
(a) chemotropic (c) corona radiata
(b) thigmotaxis (d) vitelline membrane.
(c) geotropic Answer:(c) corona radiata
(d) none of these
Answer:(a) chemotropic
 4.Which one of the following events is correctly (d) uterus.
matched with the time period in a normal Answer:(c) Fallopian tube
menstrual cycle ?
(a) Release of egg : 5 th day 10.Besides activating the egg another role of a
(b) Endometrium regenerates : 5 – 10 days sperm is to carry to egg
(c) Endometrium secretes nutrients for (a) RNA
implantation: 11 – 18 days (b) mitochondria
(d) Rise in progesterone level : 1 – 15 days (c) DNA
Answer:(b) Endometrium regenerates : 5 – 10 (d) ribosomes.
days Answer:(c) DNA

Question 5.If mammalian ovum fails to get 11.Preparation of sperm before penetration of
fertilised, which one of the following is unlikely ovum is
? (a) spermiation
(a) Corpus luteum will distintegrate. (b) cortical reaction
(b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines. (c) spermiogenesis
(c) Estrogen secretion increases. (d) capacitation.
(d) Primary follicle starts developing. Answer:(a) spermiation
Answer:(c) Estrogen secretion increases.
12 Spermiation is the process of the release of
6.A human female reaches menopause aroung sperms from
the age of (a) seminiferous
(a) 50 years (b) vas deferens
(b) 15 years (c) epididymis
(c) 70 years (d) prostate gland
(d) 25 years. Answer:(a) seminiferous
Answer:(a) 50 years
13.Mature Graafian follicle is generally present
MCQ On Human Reproduction Class 12 Pdf in the ovary of a healthy human female around
Question 7. (a) 5-8 day of menstrual cycle
A reaction of granules content which harden the (b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
zona pellucida and ensures sure block to (c) 18-23 day of menstrual cycle
polyspermy is (d) 24-28 day of menstrual cycle.
(a) acrosomal reaction Answer:(b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
(b) cortical reaction
(c) acrosin reaction 14.Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due
(d) bindin reaction. to
Answer: (a) its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
(b) cortical reaction (b) reactions within the uterine environment of
the female
8.Which part of the sperm plays an important (c) reactions within the epididymal environment
role in penetrating the egg membrane ? of the male
(a) Allosome (d) androgens produced in the uterus.
(b) Tail Answer:(a) its contact with zona pellucida of the
(c) Autosome ova
(d) Acrosome
Answer: (d) Acrosome 15.Which one of the following is not a male
accessory gland ?
9.In oocyte secondary maturation occurs in (a) Seminal vesicle
(a) ovary (b) Ampulla
(b) abdominal cavity (c) Prostate
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) Bulbourethral gland 22.Identify the odd one from the following
Answer:(b) Ampulla (a) Labia minora
(b) Fimbriae
16.Which among the following has 23 (c) Infundibulum
chromosomes ? (d) Isthmus
(a) Spermatogonia Answer:(a) Labia minora
(b) Zygote
(c) Secondary oocyte 23.Temperature of the scrotum which is
(d) Oogonia necessary for the functioning of testis is always
Answer:(c) Secondary oocyte ________ around below body temperature.
(a) 2°C
Question 17. (b) 4°C
Which of the following hormones is not (c) 6°C
secreted by human placenta ? (d) 8°C
(a) hCG Answer:(a) 2°C
(b) Estrogens
(c) Progesterone 24.Which of the following is correct about
(d) LH mammalian testes ?
Answer:(d) LH (a) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Leydig’s
cells
18.The vas deferens receives duct from the (b) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Seminiferous
seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as tubules
(a) epididymis (c) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules,
(b) ejaculatory duct Leyding’s cells
(c) efferent ductule (d) Graafian follicle, leyding’s cells,
(d) ureter Seminiferous tubule
Answer:(b) ejaculatory duct Answer: (c) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules,
Leyding’s cells
19.Urethral meatus refers to the
(a) urinogenital duct 25.The nutritive cells found in seminiferous
(b) opening of vas deferens into urethra tubules are
(c) external opening of the urinogenital duct (a) Leydig’s cells
(d) muscles surrounding the urinogenial duct. (b) atretic follicular cells
Answer:(c) external opening of the urinogenital (c) Sertoli cells
duct (d) chromaffin cells.
Answer:(c) Sertoli cells
Question 20.
Morula is a developmental stage 26.Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary
(a) between the zygote and blastocyst hormone known as
(b) between the blastocyst and gastrula (a) LH
(c) after the implantation (b) FSH
(d) between implantation and parturition. (c) GH
Answer:(a) between the zygote and blastocyst (d) prolactin.
Answer:(b) FSH
21.The membranous cover of the ovum at
ovulation is 27.The head of the epididymis at the head of the
(a) corona radiata testis is called
(b) zona radiata (a) cauda epididymis
(c) zona pellucida (b) vas deferens
(d) chorion. (c) caput epididymis
Answer:(a) corona radiata (d) gubernaculum.
Answer:(c) caput epididymis
28.Seminal plasma in humans is rich in (b) fetus is bom and cervix and vagina
(a) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes contraction to normal condition happens
(b) glucose and certain enzymes but has no (c) fetus is bom and contraction of uterine wall
calcium prevents excessive bleeding
(c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in (d) placenta is expelled out.
calcium Answer:(d) placenta is expelled out.
(d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
Answer:(d) fructose, calcium and certain 35.After birth, colostrum is released from
enzymes. mammary glands which is rich in
(a) fat and low in proteins
29.Prostate glands are located below (b) proteins and low in fat
(a) gubernaculum (c) proteins, antibodies and low in fat
(b) seminal vesicles (d) proteins, fat and low in antibodies.
(c) epididymis Answer:
(d) bulbourethral glands (c) proteins, antibodies and low in fat
Answer:(b) seminal vesicles
36.Spot the odd one out from the following
30.The function of the secretion of prostate structures with reference to the male
gland is to reproductive system.
(a) inhibit sperm activity (a) Rate testis
(b) attract sperms (b) Epididymis
(c) stimulate sperm activity (c) Vasa efferentia
(d) none of these. (d) Isthmus
Answer:(c) stimulate sperm activity Answer:(d) Isthmus

31.Lower narrow end of uterus is called 37.Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is
(a) urethra contributed by
(b) cervix (i) seminal vesicle
(c) clitoris (ii) prostate
(d) vulva. (iii) urethra
Answer:(b) cervix (iv) bulbourethral gland
(a) (i) and (ii)
32.Bartholin’s glands are situated (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(a) on the either side of vagina in humans (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) on either side of vas deferens in humans (d) (i) and (iv)
(c) on either side of penis in humans Answer:(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) on either side of Fallopian tube in humans.
Answer:(a) on the either side of vagina in 38.In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
humans division, the male germ cells differentiate into
the
33.In human adult females oxytocin (a) spermatids
(a) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin (b) spermatogonia
(b) causes strong uterine contractions during (c) primary spermatocytes
parturition (d) secondary spermatocytes.
(c) is secreted by anterior pituitary Answer:(d) secondary spermatocytes.
(d) stimulates growth of mammary glands.
Answer:(b) causes strong uterine contractions 39.How many sperms are formed from a
during parturition secondary spermatocyte ?
(a) 4
34.The third stage of parturition is called “after- (b) 8
birth”. In this stage (c) 2
(a) excessive bleeding occurs
(d) 1 (d) basal body.
Answer:(c) 2 Answer :(a) lysosome

40.How many sperms are formed from 4 46.Which of the following contains the actual
primary spermatocytes ? genetic part of a sperm ?
(a) 4 (a) Whole of it
(b) 1 (b) Tail
(c) 16 (c) Middle piece
(d) 32 (d) Head
Answer: Answer:
(c) 16 (d) Head

41.In spermatogenesis, reduction division of 47.The sperms undergo physiological

chromosome occurs during conversion of maturation, acquiring increased motility and
(a) spermatogonia to primary spermatocytes fertilising capacity in
(b) primary spermatocytes to secondary (a) seminiferous tubules
spermatocytes (b) vasa efferentia
(c) secondary spermatocytes to spermatids (c) epididymis
(d) spermatids to sperms. (d) vagina.
Answer: (b) primary spermatocytes to Answer:(c) epididymis
secondary spermatocytes
48.At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in
42.Which of the following groups of cells in the a human female ?
male gonad, represent haploid cells ? (a) At puberty
(a) Spermatogonial cells (b) During menarch
(b) Germinal epithelial cells (c) During menopause
(c) Secondary spermatocytes (d) During embryonic development
(d) Primary spermatocytes Answer:
Answer:(c) Secondary spermatocytes (d) During embryonic development

43.The process of release of spermatozoa from 49.1st polar body is formed at which stage of
Sertoli cells into cavity of the seminiferous oogenesis ?
tubules is called (a) 1st meiosis
(a) spermiogenesis (b) 2nd mitosis
(b) spermatogenesis (c) 1st mitosis
(c) spermatocytogenesis (d) Differentiation
(d) spermiation. Answer:(a) 1st meiosis
Answer :(d) spermiation.
50.Which one is released from the ovary ?
44.The principal tail piece of human sperm (a) Primary oocyte
shows the microtubular arrangement of (b) Secondary oocyte
(a) 7 + 2 (c) Graafian follicle
(b) 9 + 2 (d) Oogonium
(c) 11 + 2 Answer:(b) Secondary oocyte
(d) 13 + 2
Answer:(c) 11 + 2 51.During oogenesis, each diploid cell produces
(a) four functional eggs
45. Acrosome is a type of (b) two functional eggs and two polar bodies
(a) lysosome (c) one functional egg and three polar bodies
(b) flagellum (d) four functional polar bodies.
(c) ribosome Answer:
(c) one functional egg and three polar bodies
52.In oogenesis haploid egg is fertilised by Answer:
sperm at which stage ? (b) growth phase
(a) Primary oocyte
(b) Secondary oocyte 58.The solid mass of 8-16 cells formed from
(c) Oogonium zygote after successive mitotic divisions is
(d) Ovum called
Answer: (a) blastula
(b) Secondary oocyte (b) gastrula
(c) morula
53.Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is (d) none of these.
(a) corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline Answer:
membrane (c) morula
(b) zona pellucida, corona rodiata and vitelline
membrane 59.Implantation takes place after __________ of
(c) vitelline membrane, zona pellucida and fertilisation.
corona radiata (a) 5 days
(d) zona pellucida, vitelline membrane and (b) 6 days
corona radiata. (c) 7 days
Answer: (d) 8 days
(a) corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline Answer:
membrane (c) 7 days

54. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an 60Structure connecting the fetus to placenta is
endocrine gland after ovulation ? (a) umbilical cord
(a) Stroma (b) amnion
(b) Germinal epithelium (c) yolk sac
(c) Vitelline membrane (d) chorion.
(d) Graafian follicle Answer :(a) umbilical cord
Answer:(d) Graafian follicle
61. Which of the following hormones is not a
55.The sex of the fetus will be decided at secretory product of human placenta ?
(a) fertilisation by male gamete (a) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) implantation (b) Prolactin
(c) fertilisation by female gamete (c) Estrogen
(d) the start of cleavage. (d) Progesterone
Answer:(a) fertilisation by male gamete Answer:(b) Prolactin

56.What is true about cleavage in the fertilised 62. Urine test during pregnancy determines the
egg in humans ? presence of
(a) It starts while the egg is in Fallopian tube. (a) human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
(b) It starts when the egg reaches uterus. (b) estrogen
(c) It is meroblastic (c) progesterone
(d) It is identical to the normal mitosis. (d) luteinising hormone.
Answer:(a) It starts while the egg is in Fallopian Answer:(a) human chorionic gonadotropin
tube. hormone

57.Cleavage differs from mitosis in lacking 63.In the event of pregnancy, the corpus luteum
(a) synthetic phase persists under the influence of
(b) growth phase (a) LH
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) FSH
(d) none of these. (c) chorionic gonadotropin
(d) progesterone.
Answer: (d) eyebrows.
(c) chorionic gonadotropin Answer:(b) gill slits

64.During the development of embryo, which of 70.Delivery of developed fetus is scientifically

the following occurs first? called
(a) Differentiation of organ (a) parturition
(b) Differentiation of tissue (b) oviposition
(c) Differentiation of organ system (c) abortion
(d) Differentiation of cells (d) ovulation.
Answer:(d) Differentiation of cells Answer:(a) parturition

65.The structures derived from ectoderm are 1. Which of the following is ART?
(i) pituitary gland (a) IUDs
(ii) cornea (b) GIFT
(iii) kidneys (c) ZIFT
(iv) notochord (d) Both (b) & (c)
(a) (i) and (iii) Answer:(d) Both (b) & (c)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) 2. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian
(d) (ii) and (iv). Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
Answer:(c) (i) and (ii) females
(a) who cannot produce an ovum
66.Gastrula is the embryonic stage in which (b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
(a) cleavage occurs (c) who cannot provide suitable environment for
(b) blastocoel form fertilisation
(c) germinal layers form (d) all of these
(d) villi form. Answer:(a) who cannot produce an ovum
Answer:(c) germinal layers form
3. Which method can be used for women that
Question 67. cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable
In the development of the human body, the environment ?
ectoderm is responsible for the formation of (a) IUD
(a) lens of the eye (b) GIFT
(b) nervous system (c) IUI
(c) sweat glands (d) ICSI
(d) all of these. Answer: (b) GIFT
Answer:(d) all of these.
4.Which of these can be used to cure infertility
68.The first movements of the fetus and in couples where male partner has very low
appearance of hair on its head are usually sperm count ?
observed during which month of pregnancy ? (a) IUD
(a) Fourth month (b) GIFT
(b) Fifth month (c) IUI
(c) Sixth month (d) None of these
(d) Third month Answer:(c) IUI
Answer:(b) Fifth month
5.The method of directly injecting a sperm into
69.The early stage human embryo distinctly ovum in assisted reproductive technology is
possesses called
(a) gills (a) GIFT
(b) gill slits (b) ZIFT
(c) external ear (pinna) (c) ICSI
(d) ET 12.The correct surgical procedure as a
Answer: (c) ICSI contraceptive method is
(a) ovariectomy
6. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a (b) hysterectomy
population will (c) vasectomy
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate (d) castration.
(b) result in decline in growth rate Answer: (c) vasectomy
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) result in an explosive population. 13.RCH stands for
Answer: (b) result in decline in growth rate (a) routine check-up of health
(b) reproduction cum hygiene
7. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally (c) reversible contraceptive hazards
conceive due to the (d) reproductive and child health care.
(a) suppression of gonadotropins Answer:(d) reproductive and child health care.
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins .
(c) suppression of gametic transport Chapter 4 Biology Class 12 MCQ Question
(d) suppression of fertilisation. 14.
Answer: (a) suppression of gonadotropins Amminocentesis is a technique used to
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism
8.A national level approach to build up a in embryo
reproductively healthy society was taken up in (b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
our country in (c) determine any hereditary genetic
(a) 1950s abnormality in embryo
(b) 1960s (d) all of these.
(c) 1980s Answer:(a) determine errors in amino acid
(d) 1990s metabolism in embryo
Answer: (a) 1950s
15.Which of the following cannot be detected in
9.Emergency contraceptives are effective if used a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
within, (a) Jaundice
(a) 72 hrs of coitus (b) Down’s syndrome
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation (c) Cystic fibrosis
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation (d) Colourblindness
(d) 72 hrs of implantation. Answer:(a) Jaundice
Answer:(a) 72 hrs of coitus
16.In which of the following weeks of
10.From the sexually transmitted diseases pregnancy CVS is done ?
mentioned below, identify the one which does (a) 12th – 14th week
not specifically affect the sex organs. (b) 8th – 10th week
(a) Syphilis (c) 5th – 7th week
(b) AIDS (d) None of these
(c) Gonorrhea Answer:(b) 8th – 10th week
(d) Genital warts
Answer:(b) AIDS 17.Causes for increased population growth in
india is/are
11.Condoms are one of the most popular (a) increase in birth rate
contraceptives because of the following reasons. (b) decrease in death rate
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination. (c) lack of education
(b) They do not interfere with coital act. (d) all of these.
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs. Answer:(d) all of these.
(d) All of the above
Answer:(d) All of the above
18.Which of the following pairs contributes to (d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas
an increase in population ? others are not.
(a) Natality and immigration Answer:(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others
(b) Mortality and emigration are diseases.
(c) Natality and emigration
(d) Mortality and immigration 24.Which one of the following groups includes
Answer: (a) Natality and immigration sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria
only ?
Question 19. (a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
Which of the following is correct regarding the (b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
consequences of lower population ? (c) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
(a) It increases the poverty of a country. (d) Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis
(b) It leads to shortage of food supply. Answer:(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
(c) It results in unemployment
(d) All of these Question 25.
Answer: (d) All of these Confirmatory test for STDs is
(a) ELISA
20.The best way to decrease population of a (b) PCR
country is (c) DNA hybridisation
(a) to educate people (d) all of these.
(b) to have better houses Answer:(d) all of these.
(c) to kill people on a large scale
(d) to practice and implement familay planning. 26.Hepatitis B is transmitted through
Answer:(d) to practice and implement familay (a) blood transfusion
planning. (b) intimate physical contact
(c) sexual contact
21.Which of the following correctly describes (d) all of these
the measures Answer:(d) all of these
that can be used to control over-population ?
(a) Educating people about the advantages of a 27.The common means of transmission of AIDS
small family is
(b) Raising the age of marriage (a) sexual intercourse
(c) Encouraging family planning programme (b) blood transfusion
(d) All of these (c) placental transfer
Answer:(d) All of these (d) all of these.
Answer:(d) all of these.
22.Which of the following is not a characteristic
of an ideal contraceptive ? 28.Which of the following STDs are not
(a) User-friendly completely curable ?
(b) Irreversible (a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
(c) Easily available (b) Chancroid syphilis, genital warts
(d) Least side-effects (c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
Answer:(b) Irreversible (d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Answer:(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
23.Which of the following is correct regarding
HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis ? 29.World AIDS day is
(a) Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others (a) December 21
are not. (b) December 1
(b) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others (c) November 1
are bacterial. (d) June 11
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are Answer:(b) December 1
diseases.
30.In vitro fertilisation is a technique that 36.Which of the following is not an intrauterine
involves transfer of which one of the following device ?
into the fallopian tube ? (a) Progestasert
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage (b) Multiload-375
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell (c) Norplant
stage (d) Lippes loop
(c) Embro of 32 cell stage Answer:(c) Norplant
(d) Zygote only
Answer:(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 37.What is the work of copper-T ?
8 cell stage (a) To inhibit ovulation
(b) To inhibit fertilisation
31.The test-tube baby programme employs (c) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst
which one of the following techniques ? (d) To inhibit gametogenesis
(a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT) Answer:(b) To inhibit fertilisation
(b) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(c) Gamete intra Fallopian transfer 38.IUDs prevent pregnancy by
(d) All of these (a) inhibiting physiological and morphological
Answer:(a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer uterine changes required for implantation.
(ZIFT) (b) increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa
within uterus
32.The first case of IVF-ET technique success, (c) suppressing motility of sperms as well as
was reported by their fertilising capacity
(a) Louis joy Brown and Banting Best (d) all of these.
(b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards Answer:(d) all of these.
(c) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
(d) Baylis and Starling Taylor. 39.Cu ions released from copper releasing
Answer:(b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards intrauterine devices (IUDs)
(a) prevent ovulation
33.On which of the following facts does the (b) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
method of periodic abstinence is based ? (c) decrease phagocytosis of sperms
(a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of (d) suppress sperm motility.
menstruation. Answer:(d) suppress sperm motility.
(b) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(c) Sperms survive for about 3 days. 40.The birth control device used by women is
(d) All of these (a) diaphragm
Answer:(d) All of these (b) vault
(c) copper T
34.Which of the following is a non-medicated (d) all of these.
intrauterine device (IUD) ? Answer:(d) all of these.
(a) CuT
(b) Lippes Loop 41.The most important component of oral
(c) Cu7 contraceptive pills is
(d) LNG-20 (a) progesterone-estrogen
Answer:(b) Lippes Loop (b) growth hormore
(c) thyroxine
35.Multiload device contains (d) luteinising hormone.
(a) manganese Answer:(a) progesterone-estrogen
(b) iron
(c) copper 42.Progesterone pill helps in preventing
(d) calcium pregnancy by not allowing
Answer:(c) copper (a) ova formation
(b) fertilisation
(c) implantation 48.Which of the following statements is correct
(d) none of these. regarding vasectomy ?
Answer:(a) ova formation (a) It prevents the production of sperm in the
testes.
43.What is true about “Saheli” ? (b) It prevents the production of semen.
(i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow (c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation urethra.
(iii) “Once-a-weak” pill (d) It prevents a man from having an erection.
(iv) Many side effects Answer:(c) It prevents the movement of sperm
(v) High contraceptive value into the urethra.
(vi) Very few side effects value
(vii) Low contraceptive value 49.Which of the following statements is
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi) incorrect regarding the medical termination of
(b) (i), (iii), (v), (vi), (vii) pregnancy (MTP) ?
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (a) These help in getting rid of unwanted
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) pregnancies.
Answer:(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) (b) These help in aborting the pregnancies
which may be harmful to either mother of foetus
44.What is the figure given below showing in or both.
particular ? (c) These contribute in decreasing the human
(a) Ovarian cancer population.
(b) Uterine cancer (d) None of these.
(c) Tubectomy Answer:(d) None of these.
(d) Vasectomy
Answer:(c) Tubectomy 50.Which of the following represents the correct
match of a sexually transmitted disease with its
45.Which of the following birth control pathogen ?
measures can be considered as the safest ? (a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
(a) The rhythm method (b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
(b) The use of physical barriers (c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
(c) Termination of unwanted pregnancy (d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis
(d) Sterilisation techniques Answer:(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
Answer:(d) Sterilisation techniques
51.The sexually transmitted disease, that can
46.Which of the following is the most widely affect both the male and the female genitals and
accepted method of contraception in India at may damage the eyes of babies born of infected
present ? mothers is
(a) Cervical caps (a) AIDS
(b) Tubectomy (b) syphilis
(c) Diaphragms (c) gonorrhoea
(d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices) (d) hepatitis
Answer: (d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices) Answer:(c) gonorrhoea

47.Which of the following is a full proof 52.A sexually transmitted disease symptomised
method contraception ? by the development of chancre on the genitals is
(a) Implantation caused by the infection of
(b) Lactational amenorrhea (a) Treponema pallidum
(c) Condoms (b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(d) Sterilisation (c) human immunodeficiency virus
Answer:(d) Sterilisation (d) hepatitis B virus
Answer:(a) Treponema pallidum