Prayas JEE (2024)

SHORT PRACTICE TEST – 02

DURATION : 60
DURATION 90 Minutes
Minutes DATE : 04/06/2023 M. MARKS : 96

Topic Covered
Physics : Vector & Calculus, Units and Dimension, Motion in a Straight line.
Chemistry : Redox reactions & Electrochemistry.
Mathematics : Sequence and Series: Definition of sequence & series ; Arithmetic Progression,
Geometric Progression, Harmonic Progression, Introduction of Means.

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 1-hour duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 24 questions. The maximum marks are 96.
4. There are three subjects in the question paper, Subject I, II, and III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 8 questions in each part.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Marks will be deducted for a wrong response.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the
bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified
area may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

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 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
1. A person walks along an east-west street and a OA AB BC CD
graph of his displacement from home is shown in (1) + 0 + +
figure. His average velocity for the whole-time (2) – 0 + 0
interval is:
(3) + 0 – +
(4) – 0 – 0

5. The variation of velocity of a particle moving along

a straight line is illustrated in the figure.
The distance travelled by the particle in 4 second is
(1) 0 (2) 23 m/s
(3) 8.4 m/s (4) None of these

2. From the following velocity time graph of a body

the distance travelled by the body and its
displacement during 5 seconds in metres will be:
(1) 60 m (2) 25 m
(3) 55 m (4) 30 m

6. The displacement – time plot of a moving object is

shown in the figure. The average velocity of the
object during the first 10 seconds is

(1) 75, 75 (2) 110, 70

(3) 110, 110 (4) 110, 40

3. The displacement-time graph of a moving particle (1) 0 (2) 2.5 ms–1

is shown. The instantaneous velocity of the particle
(3) 5 ms–1 (4) 2 ms–1
is negative at the point:

7. Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown.

The corresponding velocity time graph is:

(1) D (2) F
(3) C (4) E

4. The graph between the displacement x and time t for

a particle moving in a straight line is shown in
figure. During the interval OA, AB, BC and CD, the
acceleration of the particle is:

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8. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of
water is h below the top of the well.
If v is velocity of sound, the time T after which the
splash is heard is given by.
h h h
(1) T = (2) T = +
v g v
h h h 2h
(3) T = + (4) T = +
v g 2g v

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
9. The limiting equivalent conductivity of NaCl, KCl 13. Which of the following sequence is correct with
and KBr are 126.5, 150.0 and 152.0 S cm2 eq–1 reference to the oxidation number of iodine?
respectively. The limiting equivalent ionic (1) I2 < ICl < HI < HIO4
conductivity of Br– is 76 S cm2 eq–1. The limiting (2) HIO4 < ICl < I2 < HI
equivalent ionic conductivity (S cm2 eq–1) of Na+ is (3) I2 < HI < ICl < HIO4
(1) 25.5 (2) 52.5 (4) HI < I2 < ICl < HIO4
(3) 75.5 (4) 57.5
14. Electrode potential will be maximum for hydrogen
10. On passing 3 faradays of electricity through three
electrode at pH (at the room temperature)
electrolytic cells connected in series containing Ag+,
Ca2+ and Al3+ ion respectively, the molar ratio in (1) 4 (2) 3
which three metal ions are liberated at the electrode (3) 2 (4) 5
is
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1 15. Given:
(3) 6 : 3 : 2 (4) 3 : 4 : 2 (i) Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu; E° = 0.337 V
(ii) Cu2+ + e– → Cu+; E° = 0.153 V
11. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed
Standard electrode potential (E°) for the reaction,
to react completely with one mole of ferrous oxalate
Cu+ + e– → Cu, will be
in acidic solution is
(1) 3/5 (2) 2/5 (1) 0.52 V (2) 0.90 V
(3) 4/5 (4) 1/5 (3) 0.30 V (4) 0.38 V

12. Passage of one ampere current through 0.1 M 16. Specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at
Ni(NO3)2 solution using Ni electrodes bring in the 23ºC is 0.012 ohm–1 cm–1. Resistance of cell
concentration of solution to ______ in 60 seconds. containing the solution at same temperature was
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.05 M found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant is
(3) 0.2 M (4) 0.025 M (1) 0.0616 cm–1 (2) 0.66 cm–1
–1
(3) 6.60 cm (4) 660 cm–1

SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
17. If a1, a2, ...., a15 are in arithmetic progression and 19. The maximum sum of the series
a1 + a8 + a15 = 15, then a2 + a3 + a8 + a13 + a14 is 1 2
20 + 19 + 18 + ... is
equal to 3 3
(1) 25 (1) 310 (2) 300
(2) 35 (3) 320 (4) 340
(3) 10
(4) 15 20. The sum of the first 20 terms common between the
series 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + ... and 1 + 6 + 11 + 16 +
18. If the ratio of sum of n terms of two A.P.’s be ... is
5n + 3 : 7n + 1, then the ratio of their 7th term is (1) 4000
(1) 53 : 12 (2) 4200
(2) 17 : 23 (3) 4220
(3) 19 : 18 (4) 4020
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21. The sum of p terms of an A.P. is q and the sum of 1 1 1 
log 5  + + +.... 
q terms is p. The sum of p + q terms is 23. The value of 0.2  4 8 16  is
(1) –(p + q) (2) 0 (1) 4
(2) log 4
(3) p – q (4) p+q
(3) log 2
(4) log 5
100
22. Let an be the nth term of an A.P. If  a2r =  and 24. Sum of infinite terms of a G.P. is 20 and sum of
r =1 their squares is 100, then the value of common
100
ratio of the G.P. is
 a2r −1 =  , then the common difference of the 3 4
r =1 (1) (2)
A.P. is 4 5
3 5
 − (3) (4)
(1) (2) – 5 7
200
 −
(3) (4) –
100

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