VAJIRAM & RAVI

Institute for IAS Examination

Current Affairs Test – 14

(CA3324)

Answer Key
&
Detailed Answer Explanation
 PowerUp Current Affairs Test – 14 (CA3324) - Answer Key
1. (c) 11. (b) 21. (a) 31. (c) 41. (b) 51. (a) 61. (d) 71. (b) 81. (a) 91. (c)
2. (a) 12. (b) 22. (c) 32. (d) 42. (b) 52. (b) 62. (d) 72. (c) 82. (a) 92. (b)
3. (d) 13. (d) 23. (b) 33. (a) 43. (d) 53. (c) 63. (b) 73. (d) 83. (c) 93. (c)
4. (c) 14. (a) 24. (b) 34. (c) 44. (a) 54. (d) 64. (b) 74. (c) 84. (c) 94. (b)
5. (c) 15. (a) 25. (a) 35. (b) 45. (d) 55. (d) 65. (a) 75. (b) 85. (c) 95. (a)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (a) 46. (b) 56. (d) 66. (d) 76. (c) 86. (a) 96. (c)
7. (b) 17. (c) 27. (a) 37. (d) 47. (c) 57. (a) 67. (b) 77. (d) 87. (d) 97. (d)
8. (b) 18. (a) 28. (a) 38. (c) 48. (a) 58. (c) 68. (b) 78. (d) 88. (c) 98. (c)
9. (c) 19. (d) 29. (b) 39. (c) 49. (c) 59. (a) 69. (b) 79. (c) 89. (b) 99. (a)
10. (d) 20. (b) 30. (d) 40. (c) 50. (b) 60. (a) 70. (c) 80. (b) 90. (a) 100. (b)

Q1.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A few years after gaining independence, India undertook its first general election, conducted between
October 1951 and February 1952. A total of 4,500 seats went to polls in the first elections, 489 of these
for the Lok Sabha from 401 constituencies and about 4,000 for State legislative assemblies. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● It was the first time one-sixth of the world’s population was casting its franchise to elect its political
representatives. For the country as a whole, about 60% of registered voters exercised their franchise;
this, despite the high level of illiteracy. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, a voter had to be residing in India for a minimum of
180 days and be 21 years of age to vote. However, to include refugees under the franchise, the
Secretariat of the Constituent Assembly decided to register all refugees in the electoral rolls “on the
mere declaration by them of their intention to reside permanently in the town or village concerned
irrespective of the actual period of residence.” This had them covered under the 1950 Act in the
absence of a Constitution which would set the date for the country to turn into a Republic. So, statement
3 is correct.
● Many political parties competed during the first election. National party recognition was given to 14
parties, while 53 in total contested the election. The Communist Party of India (CPI) emerged as the
runner-up in India’s first general election. It contested 49 seats in the Lok Sabha polls and won 16,
emerging as the second biggest party after the Congress, although it secured only 3.29% votes. So,
statement 4 is correct.
So, only three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

First general election in India:

● The ballot papers were the size of a Re 1 currency note. They were pink in colour, with
“Election Commission India” inscribed on them. They displayed a serial number with
two letters of the alphabet denoting the state — BR for Bihar, AS for Assam, etc.
● The ballots also had serial numbers printed in black and the national crest in white. The
papers for Lok Sabha elections had a thick vertical bar of olive green colour; those for
state Assemblies had a chocolate-coloured bar.
● Voters were to collect the ballots at the polling station and put them in the boxes of
candidates of their choice.
Relevance: The Lok Sabha elections are to be held in India.

Q2.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The "Hubble tension" refers to a discrepancy between the measurements of the rate of expansion of
the universe, known as the Hubble constant.
● The Hubble constant, denoted as H0, describes the rate at which galaxies are moving away from each
other due to the expansion of the universe.
● If a researcher wants to estimate the Hubble constant, they have two main avenues. These are the
Cosmic Distance Ladder (CDL) and the Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB).
● Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB):
○ CMB is a sea of photons, the particles of light, present throughout the universe. They are left over
from the Big Bang, its afterglow.
○ Scientists have measured temperature changes in the CMB and studied its large-scale properties
using complicated trigonometry.
○ Based on these studies, cosmologists have estimated space to be expanding at around 68
kilometres per second per megaparsec ((km/s)/Mpc). That is, an object one megaparsec (3.26
million lightyears) away is moving away at 68 km/s)/Mpc.
● Cosmic Distance Ladder (CDL):
○ It is a set of techniques used to measure the distance to objects that are close, further away, or
very far away from the earth. One object in particular is the Cepheid variable star.
○ The Cepheid variables have a unique feature: their brightness varies in a predictable way over
time.
○ Based on how bright a Cepheid variable is, scientists can estimate how far away it is. Using this,
cosmologists have estimated based on various Cepheid variables (and other such objects) is 73
(km/s)/Mpc.
● Thus, these measurements have yielded slightly different values for the Hubble constant. This
discrepancy is known as the Hubble tension.

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 ● The significance of the Hubble tension is that it could potentially indicate unknown physics or systematic
errors in the measurements.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In a recently published study, scientists from Germany and the U.K. led with a radical explanation
for the Hubble tension.

Q3.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The precautionary principle: According to British environmentalist Norman Myers, the precautionary
principle is becoming an established principle for policymakers tackling environmental problems. The
principle says “where there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific certainty
shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent such environmental
degradation.”
○ The precautionary principle rejects the claim that uncertainty justifies inaction and its ambition
is to empower policymakers to take anticipatory action even under scientific uncertainty.
○ Precautionary principles bridge the gap between weakly understood causes of potentially either
grave or irreversible environmental damages and potentially costly policy interventions. These
principles provide a moral justification for acting even though causation is unclear.
● The prevention principle: This principle requires preventive measures be taken to anticipate and avoid
environmental damage before it happens.
● The polluter pays principle: This principle holds that the person who causes pollution should bear the
costs of the damage caused and any remedy required. It plays a significant role in environmental
management, acting as a deterrent and directing accountability for harm.
● The integration principle: This principle requires that environmental protection is integrated into all
other policy areas, in line with promoting sustainable development. That is to say all government
departments have responsibilities to protect our environment.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, on banning safaris in core areas in Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, the Supreme
Court invoked precautionary principle.

Q4.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Kerogen is a waxy mixture of hydrocarbon compounds that is the primary organic component of oil
shale. It is a hydrocarbon that is insoluble in normal solvents, such as carbon tetrachloride, but which
yield liquid or gaseous petroleum when heated. Chemically, it includes a range of complex
hydrocarbons, with traces of many other elements, including sulphur, nitrogen and various radioactive
and heavy metals. So, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

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 ● It is generally deposited in anoxic reducing stagnant conditions, most commonly found in marshes,
swamps, meres, salt marshes and lagoons and is particularly characteristic of deltas. In these
environments, vegetation may accumulate as laterally extensive horizons of peat many metres thick. So,
statement 2 is correct.
○ During subsequent burial, peat undergoes extensive compaction and diagenesis, changing first
into brown coal (lignite), then bituminous coal, then anthracite and finally graphite, as it enters
the realm of metamorphism.
● It can be deposited from three possible sources: as the remains of a lake (lacustrine), of a larger marine
ecosystem or of a terrestrial ecosystem. Rocks surrounding the kerogen can become warmer, more
compactified over time, exerting forces on it that cause it to break down. Lacustrine kerogen yields
waxy oils; marine kerogen, oil and gas and terrestrial kerogen, light oils, gas and coal.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q5.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Bead Shaped Activated Carbon is a highly spherical activated carbon made from petroleum pitch.
Developed using Kureha's original technologies, its excellent strength and flowability enables wide-
ranging uses, including air deodorizing, gas adsorption and water purification. So, points 1 and 3 are
correct.
● A study has found that the carbon beads were effective in restoring gut health and had a positive impact
on liver, kidney and brain function in rats and mice. They were also found to be safe for human use. So,
point 2 is correct.
○ Innovative carbon beads reduce harmful bacteria and inflammation in animal models, which are
linked to liver cirrhosis and other serious health issues.
● The positive impact of these carbon beads in animal models will probably be seen in humans, which is
exciting not just for the treatment of liver disease but potentially any health condition that is caused or
exacerbated by a gut microbiome that doesn't work as it should. This might include conditions such as
irritable bowel syndrome which is on the rise in many countries.
So, all three of the above are potential uses of carbon beads.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, researchers found that Carbon beads help restore healthy gut microbiomes and reduce
liver disease progression.

Q6.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that “no person shall be deprived of his life or personal
liberty except according to the procedure established by law.”

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 ○ The Constitution does not put an absolute embargo on the deprivation of life or personal liberty
but such a deprivation must be according to the procedure, in the given circumstances, fair and
reasonable.
● The ‘right to sleep’/‘right to blink’ is a basic human requirement, in as much as, non-providing of the
same, violates a person’s human rights. It affects a person’s health, may impair his mental faculties and
cognitive skills.
● The Bombay High Court deprecated Enforcement Directorate (ED) for questioning a senior citizen for a
whole night in a money laundering case. The high court said that 'right to sleep' under Article 21 (Right
to life with dignity) of the Constitution, is a basic human right and cannot be violated.
○ The Court concluded that the sudden awakening without any justification affected the basic
rights of an individual. Thus, the right to sleep was very clearly acknowledged as a part of the
right to life of a person. ‘Right to sleep’ falls under Article 21 (Right to life with dignity) of the
Constitution.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Bombay High Court stated the right to sleep as 'basic human requirement'.

Q7.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Bumblebees are large, hairy, social bees belonging to the family Apidae (subfamily Bombinae). They occur
throughout much of the world but are most common in temperate climates. They are known for their ability
to collect nectar from flowers and pollinate plants.
● Bumble bees don’t make honey, they only produce a honey-like substance called nectar to feed the
few hundred bees in their nest. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Unlike honey bees, which dance to direct co-workers to good flowers, bumbles don’t appear to jive.
Bumblebees are not pests. Unlike honey bees, they can sting more than once, but unless one does
something to upset them such as disturb their home, they rarely do so. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● Features:
○ Bumblebees are robust and hairy, average about 1.5 to 2.5 cm (about 0.6 to 1 inch) in length and
are usually black with broad yellow or orange bands.
○ There is variation in coloration among bumblebees and some species have bands of red, yellow
and black.
○ They often nest in the ground, commonly in deserted bird or mouse nests. So, statement 1 is
correct.
○ Most Bombus species are social bees; i.e., they live in organized groups. Each nest has a queen,
drones (males) and workers.
○ Bumblebees have four wings; the two rear wings are small and usually attached to the forewings
by a row of hooks called hamuli.
○ A bumblebee’s value lies in its pollination powers. They pollinate 80% of wildflowers and 84% of
crops.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
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 Knowledge Box

India’s first pollinator park:

● India’s first pollinator park opened in Uttarakhand’s Haldwani, Nainital. The park aims
to conserve various pollinator species, create awareness among the general public
about their importance and to promote further research on various aspects of
pollination.
● The park has more than 40 pollinator species with displays on the mechanism of
pollination of plant species by various species of butterflies, honey bees, birds, insects,
moths, beetles, wasps and small mammals.
Relevance: Recently, according to a new study, bumblebees appear to be quite resistant to common pesticides.

Q8.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues:
○ It is an advisory body to the Economic and Social Council. It has the mandate to discuss
indigenous issues related to economic and social development, culture, environment, education,
health and human rights.
○ According to its mandate, the Permanent Forum will:
■ provide expert advice and recommendations on indigenous issues to the Council, as well
as to programmes, funds and agencies of the United Nations, through ECOSOC;
■ raise awareness and promote the integration and coordination of activities related to
indigenous issues within the UN system;
■ prepare and disseminate information on indigenous issues
○ The first meeting of the Permanent Forum was held in May 2002 and yearly sessions take place
in New York.
○ The Permanent Forum is one of three UN bodies that is mandated to deal specifically with
indigenous peoples’ issues. The others are the Expert Mechanism on the Rights of Indigenous
Peoples and the Special Rapporteur Rights of Indigenous Peoples. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
● UN Women:
○ It is the United Nations entity dedicated to gender equality and the empowerment of women.
A global champion for women and girls, UN Women was established to accelerate progress on
meeting their needs worldwide.
○ The General Assembly, the Economic and Social Council and the Commission on the Status of
Women constitute the multi-tiered intergovernmental governance structure for the normative
support functions and to provide normative policy guidance to the UN Women. So, statement 2
is correct.

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 ○ It works globally to make the vision of the Sustainable Development Goals a reality for women
and girls and stands behind women’s equal participation in all aspects of life, focusing on four
strategic priorities:
■ Women lead, participate in and benefit equally from governance systems
■ Women have income security, decent work and economic autonomy
■ All women and girls live a life free from all forms of violence
■ Women and girls contribute to and have greater influence in building sustainable peace
and resilience and benefit equally from the prevention of natural disasters and conflicts
and humanitarian action.
○ UN Women also coordinates and promotes the UN system’s work in advancing gender equality
and in all deliberations and agreements linked to the 2030 Agenda. The entity works to position
gender equality as fundamental to the Sustainable Development Goals and a more inclusive
world.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the 23rd session of the UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues in New York was held.

Q9.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Plastic pollution has become a significant challenge to ecosystems and human health across the globe.
Plastics, ubiquitous in our modern lives, have infiltrated every corner of our planet. Plastics can
contaminate the environment through ocean currents, atmospheric winds and terrestrial processes,
leading to their widespread dispersion.
● Plastic particles/debris of size ranging from 1 to 5000 μm and 1–1000 nm are referred to as microplastics
(MPs) and nanoplastics (NPs), respectively and collectively referred to as MNPs. Thus, nanoplastics are
far smaller than microplastics. Nanoparticles can penetrate the aquatic food chains by low-trophic
species such as algae and bacteria. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ Over 80% of microplastics are produced on land, with less than 20% originating from the sea.
● Many scientific researchers say that nanoplastics are far more toxicologically active than microplastics.
This is, primarily, due to their smaller size and more penetrative physical characteristics. It is probable
that nanoplastics are more damaging than microplastics as they are small enough to permeate through
biological membranes. Despite this, the potential human health effects of nanoplastic exposure remains
under-studied. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, several studies have demonstrated that Microplastics and Nanoplastics (MNP) enter the
human body via ingestion, inhalation and skin contact, where they interact with tissues and organs.

Q10.
Answer: d
Explanation:

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 ● Puma is a large brownish New World cat comparable in size to the jaguar, the only other large cat of the
Western Hemisphere. The puma, a member of the family Felidae, has the widest distribution of any New
World mammal, with a range extending from southeastern Alaska to southern Argentina and Chile.
● It lives in a variety of habitats, including desert scrub, chaparral, swamps, and forests, but it avoids
agricultural areas, flatlands, and other habitats lacking cover (vegetative or topographic). Six subspecies
of Puma concolor are recognized by most classifications. Pumas living near the Equator are generally
smaller than those living farther north and south.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Garden to hunt strategy:

● Pumas’ hunting strategies might be superior than earlier believed. A new study has
suggested that wild cats might utilise a sly hunting strategy known as ‘garden to hunt,’
meaning they fertilise the soil in their hunting spots with their kills to attract more
prey.
● Pumas hunt only in select areas that give them an advantage. The animal carcasses of
their prey are helping the animals create nutrient-rich hotspots that may continue to
improve their future hunting success over time.
● These nutrients in the soil increase plant quality and attract ungulates (large mammals
with hooves). These changes may even influence where ungulates like elk congregate
and feed, given their preference for nitrogen-rich food, the paper said.
● These habitats are also conducive to future stalk-and-ambush puma hunting. Pumas
contribute over a million kg of meat to ecosystems every day, improving the quality of
soil and plant life, feeding hundreds of species, and supporting the health of their
ecosystems and our planet’s overall web of life. Nutrient distribution via puma impacts
overall ecosystems, including influencing soil and plant chemistry and diversity the
distribution and variety of invertebrates and the makeup of wildlife scavenger
communities, such as fox.
Relevance: Pumas’ hunting strategies might be superior than earlier believed. A new study has suggested that
the wild cats might utilise a sly hunting strategy known as ‘garden to hunt’.

Q11.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Gross fixed capital formation (GFCF), also called "investment", is defined as the acquisition of produced
assets (including purchases of second-hand assets), including the production of such assets by
producers for their own use, minus disposals. So, statement 1 is not correct.
○ The term "produced assets" means that only those assets that come into existence as a result of
a production process are included. It therefore does not include, for example, the purchase of
land and natural resources.

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 ● GFCF refers to the growth in the size of fixed capital in an economy. Private GFCF can serve as a rough
indicator of how much the private sector in an economy is willing to invest. Overall GFCF also includes
capital formation as a result of investment by the government. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the failure of private investment to pick up pace has been one of the major issues plaguing
the Indian economy.

Q12.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Palestine, area of the eastern
Mediterranean region, comprising parts of
modern Israel and the Palestinian
territories of the Gaza Strip (along the
coast of the Mediterranean Sea) and the
West Bank (west of the Jordan River).
● It is bounded on the east by the Jordan
River, on the north by the border between
modern Israel and Lebanon, on the west
by the Mediterranean Sea (including the
coast of Gaza) and on the south by the
Negev, with its southernmost extension
reaching the Gulf of Aqaba. So, statement
1 is correct.
○ The Palestinian territories are made up of the areas known as Gaza and the West Bank. Both of
which are ruled over and controlled by different governments. The climate in both Gaza and the
West Bank can be roughly described as Mediterranean.
● Recently, because of the veto by the United States of America, the application of Palestine for its full
membership at the United Nations has been rejected. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● India’s support for the Palestinian cause is an integral part of the nation’s foreign policy. In 1974, India
became the first Non-Arab State to recognize Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) as the sole and
legitimate representative of the Palestinian people. In 1988, India became one of the first countries to
recognize the Palestinian State. In 1996, India opened its Representative Office in Gaza, which was later
shifted to Ramallah in 2003. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the United States of America vetoed a resolution backing full United Nations membership
for Palestine.

Q13.
Answer: d
Explanation:

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 ● Tachyons are hypothetical subatomic particles that move faster than the speed of light. The term
"tachyon" was coined by physicist Gerald Feinberg in 1967.
● The existence of the tachyon, though not experimentally established, appears consistent with the
theory of relativity, which was originally thought to apply only to particles traveling at or less than the
speed of light.
● Just as an ordinary particle such as an electron can exist only at speeds less than that of light, so a tachyon
could exist only at speeds above that of light, at which point its mass would be real and positive. Upon
losing energy, a tachyon would accelerate; the faster it traveled, the less energy it would have. Tachyons
would slow down if they gained energy and accelerate if they lost energy.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Types of particles:
● Quarks are matter particles that form in groups of two or three to make larger
aggregates. They are bound tightly together due to a fundamental force called the
“strong force.” This quark-binding makes up both the protons and neutrons within the
nucleus of an atom.
● Leptons are also matter particles but differ from quarks because they don’t participate
in the strong force. Electrons that whirr around an element’s nucleus are an example of
a lepton.
● Bosons are the force-carrying or force-mediating particles. Quarks and leptons
exchange them to create the fundamental forces.
Relevance: Recently, Physicists proposed the radical idea that our universe is dominated by tachyons, a
hypothetical kind of particle that always moves faster than light.

Q14.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● There was a direct relationship between the global price of crude oil and the international price of
gold (positive correlation) and an inverse relationship between the external value of the U.S. dollar
and the international price of gold (negative correlation). Simply put, whenever global oil prices shot
up, the price of gold also rose. Similarly, whenever the U.S. dollar declined in value against the currencies
of its major trading partners, gold appreciated in price. So, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
○ Rise in international crude oil prices signalled the spectre of global inflation, which led to an
increase in the demand for gold as a hedge against inflation, gold being a real asset unlike
financial assets and hence not subject to loss of value. Similarly since the global price of gold is
expressed in U.S. dollars, its depreciation meant the global price of gold had to rise.

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 ● Gold’s price is determined by supply and demand factors. The production of gold by producing countries
and the cost of mining gold are factors to be considered on the supply side. Since most of the available
gold in the world has already been mined, new production will involve digging deeper into the bowels
of the earth, which is expensive, as goldmining is both energy and labour intensive. So when the prices
of crude oil and natural gas rise, it contributes to the rise in the price of gold.
○ However, more than gold’s supply, its demand contributes to periodic spikes in its price. The
demand for gold can be broken up into institutional, investor, consumer and industrial demand.
It is institutional demand in the form of central banks’ demand for gold that drives its price up to
record levels each day. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In recent weeks gold has witnessed phenomenal price increase, with expectations to rise further.

Q15.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● DURGA-2 (Directionally Unrestricted Ray Gun Array) system, it is a Directed Energy Weapon (DEW)
prototype developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It damages or
destroys its target using focused energy by means of lasers, microwaves or particle beams.
● DEW are also called laser weapons. They can neutralise any drone or ballistic missile attacks from the
skies or even at the originating location as it can travel at the speed of the light. It can deflect the path
of the missiles and can even destroy a fighter aircraft.
● These weapons have several advantages over conventional munitions.
○ They transmit lethal force at the speed of light (about 300,000 kilometers per second).
○ Their beams are not affected by the constraining effects of gravity or atmospheric drag.
○ They are extremely precise.
○ Their effects can be tailored by varying the type and intensity of energy delivered against targets.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is reported to be testing a
prototype of its DURGA-2 (Directionally Unrestricted Ray Gun Array) system.

Q16.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) and social media platforms presented a “Voluntary
Code of Ethics for General Election 2019” that was adopted and extended to all the elections held in
India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● As political parties increasingly took to social media, Election Commission of India (ECI), in 2019, set up
a committee under Deputy Election Commissioner Umesh Sinha for this purpose, which suggested
changes to the Representation of People Act (RPA), 1951 (deals with conduct of Lok Sabha and state
assembly elections) to cover social media posts in the 48-hour period before polling, when conventional
campaigning is banned.

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 ● It directs social media platforms to:
○ Voluntarily undertake information, education and communication campaigns to spread
awareness about elections and electoral laws.
○ Create a high-priority dedicated grievance redressal channel for acting on cases reported by
Election Commission of India; So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Acknowledge and process valid legal orders by ECI within three hours for violations reported
under section 126 of RPA, 1951 (curbs campaigning in the 48 hours preceding polling) and
expeditiously upon other valid legal requests. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the X platform withheld posts by various political parties on the orders of Election
Commission of India (ECI) under the ‘Voluntary Code of Ethics’ for Social Media Platforms (SMP).

Q17.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Airborne disease:
● According to World Health Organisation, the descriptor "through the air" can be used for infectious
diseases where the main type of transmission involves the pathogen travelling through the air or being
suspended in the air, in line with other terms such as "waterborne" diseases, which are understood
across disciplines and by the public.
● The World Health Organization and around 500 experts have agreed for the first time what it means for
a disease to spread through the air. Agencies have historically required high levels of proof before calling
diseases airborne, which required very stringent containment measures; the new definition says the
risk of exposure and severity of disease should also be considered.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the World Health Organization has established a definition for airborne transmission of
diseases.

Q18.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Tiger cats are small spotted cats that quietly stalk Central and South America, perfectly adapted for
clambering in trees and hunting small prey. They are among the shyest and smallest wild cats in the
Americas and much smaller than most domestic house cats.
● Until recently, they were split into two species: the northern tiger cat (Leopardus tigrinus) and the
Atlantic Forest tiger cat(Leopardus guttulus). Researchers recently concluded that the family includes a
third species: the clouded tiger cat (Leopardus pardinoides). So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Clouded Tiger Cat:
○ It is a new species of forest-dwelling tiger cat. Its scientific name is Leopardus pardinoides.
○ The tiger cat is of the size of a domestic cat and has a distinct spotted coat. It is a newly discovered
species of the Tiger cat in Brazil.

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 ○ The clouded tiger cat is a small wildcat, roughly the size of a domestic housecat and is
characterized by its distinctive spotted coat which provides camouflage in its natural habitat.
So, statement 3 is correct.
○ It is found in the cloud forests of the southern Central American and Andean Mountain chains,
which stretch from Costa Rica through Panama, Colombia, Peru, Bolivia and Argentina. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The recently discovered species of the tiger cat is facing threats from deforestation and illegal
hunting.

Q19.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty,
also called the Washington Treaty in 1949. It sought to create a counterweight to Soviet armies stationed
in central and eastern Europe after World War II.
● The Washington Treaty, gets its power from Article 51 of the United Nations Charter, “which reaffirms
the inherent right of independent states to individual or collective defence.”
● At the very heart of the alliance is the concept of “collective security”: an attack on any of the members
is seen as an attack on all of them and demands collective action. This was deemed necessary in 1949
amid the Cold War rivalry between the then Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) and the United
States of America, over ideological and economic superiority.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) completed 75 years of its inception.

Q20.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Candidates Tournament is the final event in the World Championship cycle before the World
Championship match itself. It is the second most important tournament in the World Championship
cycle, as the winner of the Candidates Tournament plays the reigning world champion in the
championship match. FIDE (International Chess Federation) has organized the World Championship cycle
since 1948 and the Candidates Tournament since 1950. Since 2013, the Candidates Tournament has
occurred every two years. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● Gukesh D from India was the winner of the Candidates Tournament 2024. He will play Ding Liren for the
World Champion title. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, in Candidates Chess, Vidit Gujrathi beats World No 3 Nakamura; Gukesh defeats
Praggnanandhaa in battle of prodigies.

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Q21.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Types of megaliths:
● There are large numbers of megaliths found all over the world. The types of megalithic structures can be
divided into two categories, the “Polylithic type” and the “Monolithic type”.
● Three basic types of megaliths can be identified in India:
○ Megaliths associated with chamber tombs;
○ Megaliths unchambered tombs and
○ Megaliths not associated with burials.
● The Chamber tombs usually consisted of a chamber composed of two or four vertical slabs of stone,
topped by a horizontal capstone.
● If the chamber was found to be fully underground it is called a cist, if it was semi-subterranean it is
called a dolmenoid cist and if it was found to be fully above the ground it is known as a dolmen. The
Unchambered burials are of three types, viz., pit burials, urn burials and the sarcophagus burials.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

About Dolmenoid Cists:

● A dolmenoid cist echoes the form of the cist; except that it is partially above the ground.
There are four orthostats arranged, often in the interlocking manner, but part of it
extends below the ground surface, to form a chamber and is surmounted by a heavy
capstone.
● One of the orthostats usually has a porthole that might be circular or U-shaped. Outside
the chamber, there is often a coursed masonry wall of stone blocks.
● This wall is covered by stone slabs with one end resting on the ground and the top end
on the capstone.
● In this case, too, there is usually a passage made by two slabs flanking the porthole.
● They are usually low in height and rarely exceed 1.2m in height.
● The porthole is just above the ground outside in most cases, though the bottom of the
chamber within is below the ground level.
Relevance: Recently, a team of archaeologists claimed to have discovered a unique Iron Age megalithic site at
Mulugu district, Telangana.

Q22.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Voice over New Radio (VoNR)/Voice over 5G (Vo5G) allows voice calls over 5G networks instead of the
current standard that uses 4G. To use Vo5G, the essential requirements are: a phone that supports Vo5G,
a carrier that offers Vo5G and a 5G signal.

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 ● VoNR aims to eliminate the notorious call drop issues, particularly during transitions between 5G and
4G networks. Lower packet loss contributes to better reliability, minimising the occurrence of voice
cutouts during calls. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ In simple terms, packet loss happens when data packets traveling through a network go missing,
failing to reach their destination. It’s like sending a letter only to discover parts of it mysteriously
vanished in transit, causing disruptions in everything from video calls to online gaming.
● VoNR opens doors to industry-specific applications. It embeds 5G voice services to remote diagnostics
in telemedicine or real-time language translation services. It can be used to perform live event
broadcasting with immersive audio and interactive gaming experiences with integrated voice
functionalities. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

How is VoNR better than VoLTE?

● VoNR brings clear advances over VoLTE with 5G’s substantially higher bandwidth and
lower latency compared to 4G LTE.
● It utilises more advanced audio codecs that provide superior clarity and fidelity based
on 5G’s increased data capacity.
● It promises faster call connection times, ensuring a seamless and prompt user
experience.
Relevance: Tech enthusiasts are itching for a new calling standard to match the next-gen speeds by utilising
Voice over 5G (Vo5G).

Q23.
Answer: b
Explanation:
When a mosquito feeds on blood, it also swallows any viruses or parasites living in the blood. These viruses and
parasites can be transferred to the next person the mosquito bites through its saliva. Any disease that is spread
in this way from mosquito to human (or animal) is known as a 'mosquito-borne disease'.
● Common types of mosquito-borne diseases include Malaria, Dengue, West Nile virus, Chikungunya,
Yellow fever and Zika. So, points 1, 3 and 5 are correct.
● Typhoid is a life-threatening infection caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi. It is usually spread
through contaminated food or water. Once Salmonella Typhi bacteria are ingested, they multiply and
spread into the bloodstream. So, point 2 is not correct.
● Sleeping sickness is a vector-borne parasitic disease. It is caused by protozoans of the genus
Trypanosoma, transmitted to humans by bites of tsetse flies (glossina) which have acquired the parasites
from infected humans or animals. So, point 4 is not correct.
So, only three of the above are mosquito-borne diseases.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Chikungunya:
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 ● It is a viral disease transmitted to humans via infected Aedes aegypti mosquitoes.
Symptoms typically include fever, joint pain, headache, muscle pain, joint swelling and
rash. In most cases, a patient's condition improves within a week, however occasionally
the joint pain may last for months or even years. It shares some clinical signs with Zika
and dengue, leading to potential misdiagnosis in areas where these diseases are
prevalent.
Yellow fever:
● It is a viral disease of typically short duration. In most cases, symptoms include fever,
chills, loss of appetite, nausea, muscle pains (particularly in the back) and headaches.
Symptoms tend to improve within five days, however approximately 30,000 people
around the world die from yellow fever every year. It is an acute viral haemorrhagic
disease transmitted by infected Aedes aegypti mosquitoes. The 'yellow' in the name
refers to the jaundice that affects some patients.
Zika:
● It is a mosquito-borne disease caused by the Zika virus. In many cases there are no
symptoms, but it can present in a similar way to dengue fever. Symptoms might include
fever, red eyes, joint pain, headache and a maculopapular rash. Women who are
infected by Zika virus during pregnancy can bear children with serious health
conditions, including microcephaly, which can cause life-long disabilities.
Relevance: Maharashtra witnessed over 3,500 cases of mosquito-borne diseases before the arrival of Monsoon.

Q24.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Dissolved organic carbon (DOC) is defined as the organic matter that is able to pass through a filter
(filters generally range in size between 0.7 and 0.22 um). Conversely, particulate organic carbon (POC) is
that carbon that is too large and is filtered out of a sample. So, statement 1 is correct.
● DOC is a fraction of the total organic matter in water. It has a very complex effect on the quality of water.
High concentrations of DOC can reduce the pH of water, making it acidic and also can act as a carrier
for other contaminants, including heavy metals. It also deteriorates the taste and odour of water, making
it unfit for consumption. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Enhanced levels of DOC act as a breeding ground for harmful microbial growth. If the groundwater high
in DOC feeds the freshwater lakes and water bodies, it can result in eutrophication and deteriorating
water quality. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Aquifer Storage and Recovery (ASR):

● The water from surface sources is injected to the local aquifer through recharge wells
/ shafts and is stored there for future use.
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 ● It is a water resources management technique for actively storing water underground
during wet periods for recovery when needed, usually during dry periods. The
timeframe can range from months to decades.
● It has been piloted in some states of India, under the Managed Aquifer Recharge
interventions.
Relevance: Recently, a study stated that the groundwater quality can be improved even when mixed with
nitrate-laden surface water.

Q25.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● A bank account serves as a financial repository managed by a bank or financial institution, where
transactions such as deposits, withdrawals and transfers are recorded. It offers a secure means of
storing funds with convenient accessibility.
○ On the other hand, a demat account serves as a secure digital vault for holding various
securities. It stores securities in electronic format, a process known as dematerialisation,
effectively converting physical shares into digital assets.
● Demat accounts are regulated by securities market regulators such as the Securities and Exchange Board
of India (SEBI) in India, while bank accounts are regulated by banking regulators such as the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI). So, statement 1 is correct.
● Demat accounts do not generate interest or returns on the securities held in the account. Returns are
generated based on the performance of the securities held. Whereas bank accounts may earn interest
on the funds deposited, depending on the type of account and prevailing interest rates. Some bank
accounts also offer rewards or cashback on transactions. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q26.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme (EMPS), 2024 will support the adoption of electric two-
wheelers and three-wheelers through demand incentives while pushing for the development of an
electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing ecosystem in the country. So, statement 1 is correct.
● EMPS comes on the heels of the conclusion of the second iteration of Faster Adoption and Manufacturing
of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles scheme or FAME II, which played a pivotal role in influencing the shift in
focus of consumers and industry towards electric mobility. The single capping system enabled FAME to
provide higher incentives to more expensive vehicles. EMPS reduces monetary support substantially,
increasing the price of vehicles.
○ Delhi-based think tank Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) estimated that EMPS will lead
to an average incentive reduction of 63 per cent for two-wheelers, 37 per cent for e-autos and
38 per cent for e-rickshaws.

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 ● The central incentive to EVs is given directly to the manufacturers on sales of registered vehicles so that
the consumer enjoys an automatic discount during purchase. EMPS asks for re-registration of Original
Equipment Manufacturers (OEM), their dealers and vehicles on an online portal to be eligible for
subsidies. Vehicles manufactured before the certification approval will not receive discounts, making it
challenging for OEMs to liquidate their already existing vehicle stocks. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Ministry of Heavy Industries announced the Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme
2024.

Q27.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Fiscal Monitor series provides an overview of latest public finance developments, updates the
medium-term fiscal outlook and assesses fiscal implications of policies relevant to the global economy.
● It is prepared twice a year by the International Monetary Fund’s (IMF) Fiscal Affairs Department. Its
projections are based on the same database used for the World Economic Outlook (WEO) and the Global
Financial Stability Report (GFSR). The fiscal projections for individual countries have been prepared by
IMF desk economists and, in line with the WEO guidelines.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The International Monetary Fund recently stated in its Fiscal Monitor that industrial policy
approaches pursued by certain countries to drive innovation in specific areas were not a solution for boosting
economic growth.

Q28.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Baobab Tree is a long-lived deciduous, small to large tree with broad trunks and compact tops which is
also known as the upside-down tree. It is one of nine species of deciduous trees belonging to the family
Hibiscus which is also known as mallow. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Features:
○ It can live to become thousands of years old.
○ They only have very faint growth rings. Mature trees have massive trunks that are bottle-shaped
or cylindrical and tapered from bottom to top.
■ With a diameter of around nine metres, 30 feet, the tree has a water-storing trunk and
can grow up to a height of 18 metres or 59 feet.
■ Naturally, its thick fleshy trunks often serve as water reserves or temporary shelters and
have even been used as prisons, burial sites and stables. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ The fruit of the tree is round or oval-shaped and is highly nutritious. It is also known as the ‘Tree
of Life’.
○ The tree, which is one of the most long-lived vascular plants, consists of large flowers that are
reproductive for a maximum period of 15 hours. The African baobab is considered as the oldest
known angiosperm tree.

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 ○ While its large gourd-like woody fruit, which contains a tasty mucilaginous pulp, is used to
produce refreshing juice, the tree’s youngest leaves are also edible. So, statement 3 is not
correct.
● Distribution: There are 9 species of baobab tree. Two are native to mainland Africa, six to Madagascar
and one to Australia. Mandu, in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, is perhaps the only place in India
where baobab trees are found in abundance. So, statement 4 is not correct.
● Ecological significance: Baobabs are keystone species in Madagascar's unique landscapes. Their
massive trunks and extensive root systems are vital for storing water in arid environments, providing a
critical resource for both the trees and the surrounding ecosystem during drought periods. This ability
to store water enables baobabs to support a wide array of life, from microorganisms to larger animals,
fostering biodiversity in their habitats.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, in a groundbreaking conservation endeavour, the Global Society for the Preservation of
Baobabs and Mangroves (GSPBM) has initiated a mission to rejuvenate them.

Q29.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● A Wigner crystal is the solid phase of electrons, first predicted by Eugene Wigner in 1934. It is one of the
first proposed many-body phases stabilised by the electron-electron interaction.
● Wigner Crystals are not like typical crystals. Unlike the common crystals formed by atoms or molecules,
Wigner Crystals are composed entirely of electrons. These negatively charged particles, which are
known for their role in electricity and chemical bonding, can, under specific circumstances, arrange
themselves into a lattice structure, creating a crystal made purely of electrons.
● Formation:
○ The conditions required for the formation of Wigner Crystals are quite stringent. They occur at
very low electron densities, where the repulsive Coulomb forces between the electrons
dominate over their kinetic energy.
○ This means that the electrons must be spread out enough so that their mutual repulsion causes
them to settle into a fixed pattern, minimising their potential energy.
● A true Wigner crystal, instead of following the familiar laws of physics in the everyday world, would
follow the laws of quantum physics, in which the electrons would act not like individual particles but
more like a single wave.
● Wigner crystal is stable at extremely low densities. If the density increases, the kinetic energy becomes
important and eventually, the crystal melts.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, scientists have for the first time successfully visualised the elusive Wigner crystal, a strange
kind of matter that is made entirely of electrons.

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Q30.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Mount Etna, sometimes referred to simply as Etna, is an active volcano on the east coast of Sicily, the
largest island in the Mediterranean Sea, lying just off the toe of the Italian “boot”. Etna’s peak is the
highest in Italy south of the Alps and it is Europe’s largest and one of the most active volcanoes.
● Etna has been a World Heritage Site since 2013, and according to UNESCO, the volcano’s eruptive history
can be traced back 500,000 years. At least 2,700 years of this activity have been documented.
● Recently, Mount Etna has been sending up almost perfect rings of smoke into the air. The rings are a
rare phenomenon that scientists refer to as volcanic vortex rings,
● Vortex rings are generated when gas, predominantly water vapour, is released rapidly through a vent
in the crater. The rings can remain in the air for up to 10 minutes, but tend to disintegrate quickly if
conditions are windy and turbulent.
○ In more recent times, volcanic vortex rings have been observed at volcanoes such as Redoubt in
Alaska, Tungurahua in Ecuador, Pacaya in Guatemala, Eyjafjallajökull and Hekla in Iceland,
Stromboli in Italy, Aso and Sakurajima in Japan, Yasur in Vanuatu, Whakaari in New Zealand and
Momotombo in Nicaragua.
○ Volcanic vortex rings are “not as rare as is often said” and “Etna is a particularly prolific producer
of such rings”.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Mount Etna volcano has been sending up almost perfect rings of smoke into the air which
are a rare phenomenon that scientists refer to as volcanic vortex rings.

Q31.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Blockchain for Impact (BFI) was set up during the 2nd wave of the COVID pandemic in India, was created
to help support those in need of help. As a healthcare fund, BFI initially worked towards strengthening
the Indian healthcare system through a sustained supply of medical equipment, vaccines, and relief kits.
However, after the COVID wave, the focus transitioned towards early identification and prevention
activities which sufficed in capacity building, genome sequencing, adding hospital beds, vaccination, and
awareness campaigns. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The BFI-Biome Virtual Network is launched to nurture cutting-edge biomedical science and innovation
and accelerate the impact of transformative scientific advances in moving the needle for key
healthcare challenges in India. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It has a robust pipeline of biomedical innovations in several critical areas such as infectious disease
diagnostics, antimicrobial resistance, cell therapy, immuno-oncology, regenerative tissues and digital
health technology.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms (C-CAMP) has joined the Blockchain for
Impact (BFI) Biome Virtual Network Program.

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Q32.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Summit of the Future: It is a multilateral solution for a better tomorrow to be hosted by the United
Nations General Assembly (UNGA) on 22-23 September 2024.
● It is a once-in-a-generation opportunity to enhance cooperation on critical challenges and address gaps
in global governance, reaffirm existing commitments including to the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs) and the United Nations Charter and move towards a reinvigorated multilateral system that is
better positioned to positively impact people’s lives.
● It aims to agree on a concise, action-oriented Outcome Document (“A Pact for the Future”) in advance
by consensus through intergovernmental negotiations and endorsed by Heads of State/Government at
the Summit.
● It also aims to build upon the SDG Summit and deliver an action-oriented Pact for the future to
accelerate progress towards the Sustainable Development Goals. It is an important opportunity to
accelerate the implementation of the 2030 Agenda and its SDGs.
● The aim of the Summit is two fold:
○ accelerate efforts to meet our existing international commitments and
○ take concrete steps to respond to emerging challenges and opportunities.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the UN Secretary-General highlighted multilateral development bank reform as a key
theme at the upcoming Summit of the Future.

Q33.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Ministry of Panchayati Raj in India observes April 24 as National Panchayati Raj Day each year. The
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 was enacted on this day and in that honour, this day is
celebrated every year in India. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● India's three-tiered administrative structure is known as the Panchayati Raj system. It is a decentralised
formation of governance, where local bodies or Gram Panchayats are empowered through self-
governance and independence in decision-making.
● This day celebrates the national local self-governance and democratic decentralization. The Ministry of
Panchayati Raj, the nodal ministry, works on the mission of empowerment, enablement and
accountability of Panchayati Raj Institutions to ensure inclusive development with social justice and
efficient delivery of services.
So, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-
I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

2024 National Panchayati Raj Day:

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 ● The Ministry of Panchayati Raj organised a National Colloquium on “Governance at the
Grassroots after Three Decades of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment” on 24th April
2024 in observance of National Panchayati Raj Day.
● This one-day Colloquium offered a unique platform to assess achievements, identify
challenges and explore opportunities for enhancing grassroots governance and public
service delivery through Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
● It discussed the evolution of principles of good governance in rural areas and pathways
for strengthening PRIs as vehicles for effective public service delivery.
Relevance: Recently, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj organised a National Colloquium on “Governance at the
Grassroots after Three Decades of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment” on 24th April 2024.

Q34.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a mobile-first payment system developed in India by the National
Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It makes it easy to send and receive by just scanning a QR code or
using a user’s phone number. Unlike most digital payment systems, the amount gets directly debited to
the linked bank account.
● List of countries that officially support UPI payment:
○ Sri Lanka. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Mauritius. So, point 3 is correct.
○ France. So, point 2 is correct.
○ United Arab Emirates. So, point 4 is correct.
○ Singapore
○ Bhutan
○ Nepal
● France is one of the first countries in the European region to access UPI payments, that too at the iconic
Eiffel Tower in collaboration with Lyra. The government of France has confirmed that more merchants
across France and Europe will soon start accepting UPI payments, which will be a big development,
especially for Indian travellers.
● United Arab Emirates (UAE) being the third-largest trade partner of India, recently announced a
partnership with the Government of India regarding the adoption of UPI payments in the country just a
few days ago in collaboration with Mashreq, a major bank in UAE.
● Sri Lanka and Mauritius are the latest islands to adopt India’s UPI payment system in 2024, helping
Indian tourists send and receive money in these countries.
● NPCI is in talks to extend UPI to Myanmar but it's not yet implemented. So, point 5 is not correct.
So, only four of the above countries officially allow UPI payments.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

About UPI:
● UPI can be used on BHIM, a first-party app. It can also be accessed via third-party
platforms such as Google Pay, Amazon Pay, PhonePe, BharatPe and a lot more. Most
banks that officially operate in India support UPI payment and unlike a credit or debit
card payment, there is no charge involved in UPI payment.
● To prevent fraudulent activities, NCPI has thought of various features like how the
account is directly linked to the phone number and if the SIM card is removed, UPI
ceases to work and at times, one might also face downtime due to service issues. To
solve that, NCPI came up with UPI Lite, which does not require a PIN or Internet to
make transactions. However, there is a limit of Rs 500 per transaction and Rs 4,000 limit
per day.

Q35.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Copyright refers to the right given by the law to creators of literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works
and producers of cinematograph films and sound recordings. Essentially, it’s a bundle of rights that
includes rights of reproduction, communication to the public, adaptation and translation of a work. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● The Copyright Act, 1957 aims to safeguard creative works considered to be a creator’s intellectual
property. A copyrighted work will be considered “infringed” only if a substantial part is made use of
without authorisation. In cases of infringement, the copyright owner can take legal action and is entitled
to remedies such as injunctions and damages.
○ It lists acts that don’t constitute infringement, even in cases where one has a copyright over the
work. It exempts “a fair dealing with any work” from being termed “infringement” if it’s for
private or personal use, like research, criticism or review, or reporting of current events and
affairs. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Act says that fair use is an exception to copyright infringement in educational uses. Further, it said
textbooks don’t fall under the Copyright Act, 1957. The reason was that to qualify as a work in which a
copyright can exist, it must be original. For example, an original literary, artistic, dramatic, or musical
work. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ The books printed which are non-literary in nature, would not fall within the ambit of the
Copyright Act, 1957.
○ It also exempts the publication of short passages from published literary or dramatic works in a
collection intended for bona fide or genuine instructional use.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: Recently, the High Court of Andhra Pradesh ruled that under the fair use doctrine, even if the books
printed by the publisher are assumed to be pirated copies, it would not mean copyright infringement.

Q36.
Answer: a
Explanation:
A star campaigner is a famous person with a huge fan following chosen by a political party to contest or
campaign during elections. Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for law relating to expenditure
incurred by ‘leaders of a political party’. These ‘leaders of a political party’ are popularly known as ‘star
campaigners’. These star campaigners are usually the top leaders of a political party but can include other
celebrities as well.
● The star campaigners are picked based on their popularity. The list has to be sent to the Election
Commission of India. There is no specific definition of a star campaigner in the law. And electoral laws
do not stipulate who can or cannot be made a star campaigner.
● The Representation of the People Act provides that a recognised political party (national or State) can
appoint a maximum of 40-star campaigners while a registered unrecognised political party can appoint
up to 20.
● These names are to be communicated to the Election Commission (EC) and Chief Electoral Officer (CEO)
of the States as applicable within seven days from the date of notification of such election.
● In the case of a multi-phase election, a political party can submit a separate list of star campaigners
for different phases. However, it is noticed that all major parties provide a single list for a State that is
applicable for all phases.
● The Election Commission has fixed ₹95 lakh expenses limit for candidates of bigger Lok Sabha
constituencies and up to ₹75 lakh for candidates of smaller constituencies.
○ Political parties cover all costs of star campaigners under the Representation of Peoples Act.
However the star campaigner’s expenses are not deducted from the candidate’s expenditure.
○ Thus it allows the candidates extra spending opportunity beyond the poll panel’s ₹75 - ₹95 Lakh
limit for Lok Sabha polls.
○ The star campaigner has to limit it to general campaigning for the party and avoid referring to
the candidate. In case, the star campaigner shares the stage with the candidate or even takes the
name of the candidate in his speech, his/her charges will have to be borne by the candidate from
his expenses.
● When a Prime Minister or a former Prime Minister is a star campaigner, the expenditure on security
including on bullet-proof vehicles will be borne by the government. But if the Prime Minister is
accompanied by another star campaigner, the candidate has to bear 50 per cent of expenditure on the
security arrangements.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Lok sabha polls are undergoing across the nation.

Q37.
Answer: d
Explanation:

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 ● The Constitution (Twenty-Two Amendment) Act, 1969, inserted new article 244A in the Constitution to
empower Parliament to enact a law for constituting an autonomous State within the State of Assam
and also to provide the autonomous State with a Legislature or a Council of Ministers or both with such
powers and functions as may be defined by that law. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● This autonomous State would have its own Legislature or Council of Ministers or both. This provision
goes a step further than the provisions under the Sixth Schedule, which are already in place in these
areas. The autonomous councils under the Sixth Schedule have elected representatives for more
decentralised governance of these tribal areas, but they have limited legislative powers, do not have
control over law and order and have only limited financial powers. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, in Assam’s Diphu Lok Sabha constituency, candidates have promised the implementation
of Article 244(A) of the Constitution to create an autonomous ‘state within a state’.

Q38.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Viruses are usually highly selective in the cells they infect. This phenomenon, called tropism, occurs
because most viruses have special proteins on their outer surface that make contact with a receptor on
the host cell. Any cell type that makes the receptor can be infected by the virus.
● Transmission of Virus: Transmission is a crucial event in a virus’s life cycle. Successful viruses have
extraordinary adaptations selected through years of evolution to ensure they can jump to new hosts.
● Most human viruses achieve this by ensuring they are present in bodily fluids that contact the outer
environment and subsequently a new host.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a new type of host defence against Zika and dengue infections was revealed.

Q39.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Himalayas along with the related Tibetan Plateau provide considerable ecosystem services and as
the “third pole” are also the source of most of Asia’s major rivers, a fact that has earned it the moniker
of “the world’s water tower.” So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Himalayas contain many of the world’s tallest mountains as well as many of the world’s glaciers.
The resulting meltwater from these glaciers and snowpacks contributes to the water supply for the
people in the surrounding region, much like water towers hold and distribute water for a town or city.
Because the Himalayas play a crucial role in supplying water to the continent, they are sometimes called
the “water towers”. So, statement 2 is not correct.
So, statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, it has been reported that the warming rate in the Himalayas is three times higher than the
global average.

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Q40.
Answer: c
Explanation:
High-Ambition Coalition:
● It is a coalition of around 65 nations which seeks to tackle plastic production. It includes African nations
and most of the European Union. It also wants to end plastic pollution by 2040, phase out “problematic”
single-use plastics and ban certain chemical additives that could carry health risks.
● It will issue statements and arrange events to raise awareness and identify priorities for the negotiation
sessions of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC). It will also undertake inter sessional
work on essential elements and issues to inform the negotiations.
● It is committed to develop an ambitious international legally binding instrument based on a
comprehensive and circular approach that ensures urgent action and effective interventions along the
full lifecycle of plastics.
● At the outset of the plastic treaty negotiations, they have outlined three strategic goals and seven key
deliverables for success. The three goals are:
○ Restrain plastic consumption and production to sustainable levels
○ Enable a circular economy for plastics that protects the environment and human health
○ Achieve environmentally sound management and recycling of plastic waste.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, thousands of negotiators and observers from 175 countries arrived in Ottawa, Canada, to
begin talks regarding the very first global treaty to curb plastics pollution.

Q41.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● A central pay commission is usually constituted at intervals of ten years, “to examine, review, evolve
and recommend changes regarding the principles that should govern the emoluments' structure
including pay, allowances and other facilities/benefits, in cash or kind, as well as the specialized needs
of various Departments, agencies and services, in respect of central government employees”. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● The Central Government periodically constitutes a Pay Commission, to evaluate and recommend
revisions of salaries and pensions, for its employees. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The first pay commission was constituted in 1946 under the chairmanship of Shri Srinivasa
Varadacharia. The first pay commission was based upon the idea of “living wages'' to the employees.
The recommendations were accepted and implemented in 1946. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Indian Railways Technical Supervisors’ Association (IRTSA) has demanded the
immediate setting up of the 8th Central Pay Commission.

Q42.
Answer: b
Explanation:
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 ● Startup Runway Outlet Store: With the aim to align domestic startups with government buyers, the
Government e-Marketplace (GeM) launched the Startup Runway Outlet Store on its platform in
November 2019. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Recognizing global key drivers for startups such as earning recurring revenues, raising capital, boosting
valuation and finding a market fit, Startup Runway offers brand and intellectual property protection
and facilitates startups to exclusively list their innovative products with minimal technical specifications
under 14 globally recognized startup subsectors. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Government e-Marketplace (GeM):

● It facilitates online procurement of common-use Goods & Services required by various
Government Departments / Organisations / Public sector undertakings.
● It aims to enhance transparency, efficiency and speed in public procurement. It
provides the tools of e-bidding, reverse e-auction and demand aggregation to facilitate
the government users, to achieve the best value for their money.
● The purchases through GeM by Government users have been authorised and made
mandatory by the Ministry of Finance
Relevance: Recently, the Government e-marketplace startup runway revolutionised public procurement.

Q43.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Brazilian presidency of the G20 created a Global Mobilization against Climate Change, known as
“Task Force CLIMA”. It will promote a high-level dialogue among governments, financial institutions
and international organisations to enhance global macroeconomic and financial alignment to
implement the goals of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change and the Paris
Agreement.
● It will organise debates to facilitate the exchange of experiences and the identification of converging
elements for the formulation and implementation of comprehensive plans targeting economic and
sustainable transformation.
● It will also organise a panel with notable economists who will examine the national platforms and the
existing public policy frameworks for ecological transformation and present a report with
recommendations on this issue.
● The objective is to outline collaborative strategies based on the previous work of the groups on the
financial track, including regulatory approaches and voluntary commitments to accelerate the
mobilisation of resources for sustainable development and combating climate change.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Brazilian presidency of the G20 created a Global Mobilization against Climate Change,
known as “Taskforce CLIMA”.

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Q44.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Light Detection and Ranging (LiDAR) is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed
laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth. These light pulses combined with other data
recorded by the airborne system, generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of
the Earth and its surface characteristics. So, statement 1 is correct.
● A lidar instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner and a specialized GPS receiver. Aeroplanes
and helicopters are the most commonly used platforms for acquiring lidar data over broad areas.
● Two types of lidar are topographic and bathymetric. Topographic lidar typically uses a near-infrared
laser to map the land, while bathymetric lidar uses water-penetrating green light to measure seafloor
and riverbed elevations. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, archaeologists have unearthed a series of ancient monuments in Ireland believed to be
‘pathways for the dead,’ using the advanced technology of Light Detection and Ranging.

Q45.
Answer: d
Explanation:
95Mat5:
● The lab-made antibody 95Mat5 was discovered after examining 50 billion unique antibodies to find ones
capable of not only recognising the neurotoxin in the venoms of many species but also able to neutralise
its deadly effects.
● When injected into mice that had received lethal doses of venom, 95Mat5 was able to prevent paralysis
and death in all the venoms tested.
● However, 95Mat5 is a single antibody that only works against neurotoxins. To make a universal
antivenom one will require more antibodies. This is because snake venoms don’t just consist of
neurotoxins. The only exception to this antibody was the king cobras’ venom, where the compound
only delayed death.
● Some snake venoms have hemotoxins, which make one bleed and some have cytotoxins, which destroy
skin and bone. To create a universal antivenom, capable of treating any bite from any snake, we still
need to identify additional antibodies that can broadly and potently neutralise the other toxin types, in
the same manner as 95Mat5.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a team including Indian scientists designed a potent antidote to cobra and krait venom
toxins.

Q46.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Global Trade Outlook and Statistics:

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 ○ It is published by the World Trade Organisation. The latest edition of the report foresees a
gradual recovery in world merchandise trade volume in 2024 and 2025. So, pair 1 is correctly
matched.
○ India’s Status:
■ India clocked $451 billion in goods export in FY23 and $394.99 billion in April-February
FY24.
■ India’s share of global goods exports was 1.8% in 2023 and imports was 2.8%. In digitally
delivered services, India’s share rose to 6% in 2023 from 4.4% in 2019.
■ In global commercial services, India’s share in exports is seen at 4.4% in 2023 at $344
billion, up 11% on-year whereas imports were flat at $247 billion.
● State of the Climate in Asia:
○ It is published by the World Meteorological Organisation. It highlights how climate change
impacts are wreaking an ever-increasing human, financial and environmental toll, worsening
food insecurity and poverty and holding back sustainable development.
○ Asia has warmed faster than the global average since 1960, as per the 2023 report. So, pair 2 is
correctly matched.
● Global Report on Food Crisis:
○ It is the flagship publication of the Global Network and is produced by the Food Security
Information Network (FSIN). So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
○ According to the 2024 report, nearly 282 million people faced high levels of acute food insecurity
in 59 countries in 2023, with extreme weather being the second most significant factor driving
the food crisis.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a new World Meteorological Organisation report ‘State of the Climate in Asia’ was
released.

Q47.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● India has started the process of unifying its four airspace regions into one spanning the entire nation in
order to streamline and enhance air traffic management.
● The Airports Authority of India (AAI), the public entity responsible for Air Traffic Management (ATM)
services, started a project named: Indian Single Sky Harmonized Air Traffic Management at Nagpur
(ISHAN).
● The move is expected to benefit the airlines through more seamless operations and increased flight
handling capacity and passengers by reducing congestion and flying times.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Current status of airspace control:

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 ● The AAI provides ATM services over Indian airspace and adjoining oceanic areas
covering over 2.8 million square nautical miles, of which 1.04 million square nautical
miles are continental and 1.76 million square nautical miles are oceanic.
● This airspace is controlled through four flight information regions (FIRs) at Delhi,
Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai and a sub-flight information region at Guwahati.
● FIRs are controlled by a single authority, which is responsible for providing air traffic
services, such as information on weather conditions, visibility, wind and runway
obstacles as well as alerting services, including search and rescue assistance.
● Unifying these FIRs will mean that all of these can be managed and controlled from one
point — in India’s case, Nagpur — which is expected to make air traffic operations more
efficient, safer and seamless, enabling it to handle more capacity.
Relevance: Recently, the Airports Authority of India (AAI) issued invitations for expressions of interest (EoI) to
prepare a detailed project report for the ISHAN.

Q48.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● India delivered the first batch of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles to the Philippines. In January 2022,
the Philippines concluded a $375-million deal with India for three batteries of a shore-based, anti-ship
variant of the BrahMos becoming the first export customer for the joint venture missile between India
and Russia.
● The recent delivery came amid the showdown between the Philippines and China in the South China
Sea which has been ongoing for the last few months and will significantly augment the defensive posture
of the Philippine's armed forces once the systems are operationalised.
● Several countries have expressed interest in acquiring BrahMos systems and discussions are in advanced
stages with Indonesia and Thailand among others.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

About BrahMos:
● BrahMos is a joint venture between the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya. The missile derives its name
from the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers.
● The missile is capable of being launched from land, sea, sub-sea and air against surface
and sea-based targets and has been long inducted by the Indian armed forces.
● The range of the missile was originally capped at 290 km as per obligations of the Missile
Technology Control Regime. Following India’s entry into the club in June 2016, the
range has been extended to 450 - 500 km and work is on to extend it to 600 km and
beyond.
Relevance: Recently, India delivered the first batch of BrahMos to the Philippines.

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Q49.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Sikki, also known as ‘Golden Grass’ for its colour, belongs to the zizanoides grass family. Scientifically
called Chrysopogon zizanioides, it finds mention in ancient Sanskrit texts such as the Ramayana, where
it is referred to as viran, sugandhimool, ushir and nalad. It grows indigenously in the Tarai regions of
Uttar Pradesh and Bihar and has an average height of 3-4 feet. So, statement 1 is correct.
● While the stem is used to make artefacts, the roots are used for extracting oil that is used both for
perfumery and medicinal purposes. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ In the hilly terrains, it is also now grown to arrest soil erosion. However, what Sikki is most known
for is its handicrafts. It has been a source of livelihood for many since antiquity.
● Sikki got the Geographical Identification (GI) tag in 2018. So, statement 3 is correct.
● It is used to make traditional items such as multipurpose baskets, ornaments, show pieces and many
more utility items that are still considered valuable in rural India. For instance, Sikki vermillion boxes
that are considered auspicious are given as part of dowry to brides in the Mithilanchal region of Bihar.
The folklore of the region mentions the significance of Sikki graciously.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Sikki artisans are suffering livelihood losses amid climate change and the failed promise of the
government in providing financial help.

Q50.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Tiger Conservation Coalition is a group of Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs) that have
worked for many years with partners to conserve tigers. Its vision is for a long-term presence of viable
and ecologically functional populations of wild tigers secure in protected habitats, with representation
and links across their indigenous range, respected and valued by neighbouring human communities and
beyond, a magnificent symbol of nature in all its beauty, complexity and wonder for future generations.
● The 10 NGOs in the coalition are the Environmental Investigation Agency (EIA); Fauna & Flora
International (FFI), International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), Natural State, Panthera,
TRAFFIC, United Nations Development Programme (UNPD), Wildlife Conservation Society (WCS), the
World Wild Fund for Nature (WWF) and the Zoological Society of London (ZSL).
● As part of its ambition to support Tiger Range Countries in realising long-term tiger conservation, the
Coalition has announced it will co-host a major conference: Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscapes.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Bhutan and the Tiger Conservation Coalition committed to catalyse US$1 billion for Tigers.

Q51.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) profiling, also known as genetic profiling, is the process where a specific
DNA pattern, called a profile, is obtained from a person or sample of bodily tissue. It examines specific
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 regions of the genome, such as Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) or Variable Number Tandem Repeats
(VNTRs), which exhibit variability between individuals.
● It is a technique that can be used to determine paternity or help solve crimes where the suspect may
have left a sample of body tissue at the crime scene. It can also be used in other organisms to compare
different species for classification purposes.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Genetic engineering: It refers to the direct manipulation of an organism's genome

using advanced DNA technology. It involves the introduction, deletion or modification
of genes within an organism's DNA to produce desirable traits.
● Genome sequencing: It is the process of determining the DNA sequence of an
organism's genome. It involves figuring out the order of bases in an organism's entire
genome.
● DNA barcoding: It is a method of specimen identification using short and standardised
segments of DNA. Every species has its own barcode, just as every person has their
own fingerprint. These DNA barcodes can be compared to a reference library to provide
an ID.
Relevance: The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) will be commencing the genetic profiling of over 400 captive
elephants in Kerala.

Q52.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Geographical Indication (GI) is a sign used on products with a specific geographical origin and possess qualities
or a reputation due to that origin. Typically, such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness
which is essentially attributable to the fact of its origin in that defined geographical locality, region or country.
Under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, GIs are covered as an element of
Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs). They are also covered under the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
● Asharikandi terracotta craft: It is a cluster of terracotta and pottery crafts located in the Dhubri district
of Assam. It has a unique identity due to its age-old tradition of kumbhakaras (potters). The artisans of
Asharikandi use various raw materials such as Hiramati, sand, caustic soda, red soil, firewood and hay to
make terracotta and pottery products. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Banglar muslin: It is one of West Bengal's popular traditional handloom crafts. This finest muslin is
made of cotton, which is spun to create threads that maintain tensile strength at counts (above 300
counts and up to 600 counts) i.e., higher than any other cotton products. So, pair 2 is not correctly
matched.
● Ambaji white marble: It is a type of Indian marble quarried in the mines of Gujarat. It is known for its
milky white colour with map-like black veins on them. Its colour and texture are very attractive. Its
durability and easy maintenance are its best features. It is an Indian Stone and no chemical processing
is required. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

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 ● Rignai Pachra: It is a traditional handloom textile woven by the women of indigenous tribes of Tripura.
It is a handwoven cloth used as tribal women’s upper garment and also as headgear or a stole. The
designs often feature geometric patterns, as well as motifs inspired by nature, such as flowers, animals
and birds. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Banglar muslin has been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag by the Geographical
Indications Registry in Chennai.

Q53.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Punnett Square:
● It is a table in which all of the possible outcomes for a genetic cross
between two individuals with known genotypes are given. It is a
useful tool that helps predict the variations and probabilities
resulting from cross-breeding. It is named after British geneticist
Reginald Punnett.
● It is often used to study the outcomes of cross-breeding but it can
also be used to understand the genetic traits in the offspring of
animals, including humans. Researchers typically use them
together with Mendelian inheritance, a fundamental concept in
genetics discovered by Gregor Mendel.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Punnett squares are a way to predict the possible genetic outcomes of the offspring when two
individuals with known genotypes are crossed.

Q54.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI):
● It is an economic indicator derived from monthly surveys of different companies. The index shows trends
in both the manufacturing and services sectors. It helps in determining whether the market conditions,
as seen by purchasing managers, are expanding, contracting or staying the same. It is used to provide
information regarding the current and future business conditions.
● An increase in PMI indicates an expansion in the manufacturing or service sector, depending on the
specific PMI being measured.
○ PMI above 50: This is generally considered an expansionary zone. The higher the PMI above 50,
the stronger the indication of growth.
○ PMI below 50: This signifies a contractionary zone. The lower the PMI goes below 50, the steeper
the decline in activity is perceived to be.
○ PMI at 50: This indicates no significant change compared to the previous month.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
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Relevance: According to a Purchasing Managers Index (PMI), India’s manufacturing sector activity surged to a
16-year high of 59.1 from 56.9 in the previous month.

Q55.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Clean Energy Transitions Programme (CETP):
● It is an initiative launched by the International Energy Agency (IEA) in 2017. Its primary focus is on
accelerating the global transition towards a net-zero energy system, with a particular emphasis on
supporting major emerging economies. Through the programme, the IEA delivers high-calibre analysis,
technical support and capacity-building initiatives, facilitating the most ambitious overhaul of global
energy systems in modern history. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The CETP’s work is structured across three pillars of activity, with a particular focus on emerging markets
and developing economies.
○ The first of these focuses on supporting emerging and developing countries to establish clean
energy transition goals, in line with the objectives of the 2015 Paris Agreement and the
Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.
○ The second pillar centres on facilitating coordination among multilateral organisations such as
the Group of 20 (G20) and UN-affiliated collaborations.
○ The final pillar showcases the IEA’s work at a global level to enable and accelerate clean energy
transitions. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the International Energy Agency (IEA) launched the Clean Energy Transitions Programme
annual report 2023.

Q56.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Climate Engineering or Geoengineering:
● It is a broad set of methods and technologies aimed at deliberately altering the climate system to
alleviate the impacts of climate change. Among the strategies being considered are simulating the
cooling impact of significant volcanic eruptions by dispersing substantial quantities of reflective particles
into the atmosphere or enhancing the brightness of low clouds over the ocean. Both approaches aim to
deflect a portion of sunlight back into space, thereby mitigating the planet's warming.
● Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI): It includes spraying large quantities of tiny particles into the
earth’s stratosphere to reflect sunlight and keep the earth cooler. Scientists have proposed using
compounds with reflective properties, like sulphur dioxides or finely powdered calcium carbonate, as
aerosols. It is derived from sulphur clouds released during volcanic eruptions. Powerful volcano
eruptions emit a sulphur-rich dust cloud that can reach the stratosphere. It has particles that reflect
sunlight and cause a cooling effect. So, point 1 is correct.
● Brightening of the Marine Clouds: It proposes spraying sea salt into low-lying clouds to increase their
brightness and the ability to reflect sunlight. This could increase the concentration of droplets at the

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 base of a cloud, which in turn will reflect more sunlight before it reaches the earth's surface. So, point 2
is correct.
● Shooting the mirrors into space: Geoengineers are proposing an innovative solution to address climate
change by deploying a colossal mirror,
equivalent in size to Greenland, into space.
This mirror would be strategically positioned
between the Earth and the sun, to deflect
enough sunlight to restore the planet's
climate to pre-industrial levels. So, point 3 is
correct.
● Seeding the sea with iron: Scientists are
exploring the potential of iron as a crucial
element in addressing climate change.
Phytoplanktons, which thrive near the
ocean's surface, have a strong affinity for
iron. These microscopic organisms play a vital
role in carbon sequestration, efficiently drawing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through
photosynthesis. After approximately 60 days, when the phytoplankton die, the carbon they have
absorbed is transported to the ocean floor, effectively removing it from the atmosphere. So, point 4 is
correct.
So, all four of the above technologies can be used in climate engineering.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Climate engineering techniques are being discussed in various environmental organisations to
intervene in the Earth’s climate system to counter climate change.

Q57.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Corporate Sustainability Due Diligence Directive (CSDDD) is an initiative of the European Union (EU). It
is a due diligence requirement that creates a legal liability for EU-based firms arising from any
environmental and human rights violations (including labour rights) within their supply chains.
● This Directive aims to foster sustainable and responsible corporate behaviour and to anchor human
rights and environmental considerations in companies’ operations and corporate governance. The new
rules will ensure that businesses address the adverse impacts of their actions, including in their value
chains inside and outside Europe.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The European Council recently approved the EU’s Corporate Sustainability Due Diligence Directive
(CSDDD).

Q58.
Answer: c
Explanation:

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Bosons:
● These are the particles that carry energy and forces throughout the universe. The standard model of
particle physics divides every particle in the universe and even the larger composite particles fit into two
broad categories; fermions and bosons.
● These are the particles that mediate the fundamental forces. This category includes the photon
(mediator of electromagnetic force), W and Z bosons (mediators of weak nuclear force) and gluons
(mediators of strong nuclear force).
● They take their name from Indian physicist Satyendra Nath Bose who conducted important research in
the 1920s regarding the behaviour of the most famous boson , the photon. One of the key defining
characteristics of bosons relates to a quantum mechanical quality called 'spin' which can be thought of
as the deflection a particle takes as it experiences a magnetic field imparting angular momentum.
Though similar, spin is more complex than angular momentum in the macroscopic world.
● Bosons have whole integer spins including zero. This means the spin values these particles can take are
0, 1, -1, 2, -2, and so on. Mathematically adding two halves together makes a whole integer and similarly,
combining even numbers of fermions creates a larger particle that is a boson.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Higgs boson:
○ It is a fundamental particle in the Standard Model of particle physics. The
existence of the Higgs boson helps explain how other particles in the universe
acquire mass. According to the theory, the universe is filled with a field called
the Higgs field, which interacts with particles as they move through it. Some
particles interact more strongly with the Higgs field than others and this
interaction is what gives them mass. The Higgs boson is the particle associated
with the Higgs field. The Higgs boson was discovered in July 2012 by researchers
at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) at CERN in Switzerland.
● Fermions:
○ They are particles that make up matter and include quarks (which combine to
form protons and neutrons) and leptons (such as electrons and neutrinos).
● Quark:
○ It is one of the fundamental particles in physics. They join to form hadrons, such
as protons and neutrons, which are components of the nuclei of atoms.
● Positrons:
○ They are positively charged subatomic particles having the same mass and
magnitude of charge as the electron. It is the antiparticle of an electron.
Relevance: The Nobel prize-winning physicist Peter Higgs, who proposed the existence of the Higgs boson
particle passed away.

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Q59.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● India is the second largest aquaculture shrimp producer after Ecuador, with an output of 9 lakh tonnes
of shrimp in 2022. Frozen shrimp comprised nearly 70 percent of a record $8.09 billion worth of seafood
exports from the country in FY23. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ Ecuador’s shrimp production was around
1.1 million tonnes in the year 2022.
● In the FY2023, the State of Andhra Pradesh had
the highest production volume of pacific white
leg or vannamei shrimp at over 912 thousand
metric tons in India. The second leading state
was Odisha with a production volume of over 46
thousand metric tons in the same year. In
Andhra Pradesh alone, approximately 100,000
shrimp farms contribute to nearly 70% of
India's total shrimp production. Women are
estimated to occupy around 70% of the 8 million jobs
in the sector, with approximately 200,000 employed
in hatcheries and aquaculture farms, while the
remainder work in processing and freezing facilities.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
● India's total shrimp export volume between January
and May 2023, at approximately 258,000 metric
tons, remains comparable to that of 2022.
○ In the first quarter of 2023, India achieved a
12% increase in export volume compared to
the same period in 2022, reaching 148,267 metric tons. However, there was a subsequent
decline, with a 14% drop in April and an 8% decrease in May, resulting in export volumes falling
below the monthly levels observed in 2022.
● According to the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA), in 2022-23, the main export
item was frozen shrimps. India exported 711099 metric tonnes of frozen shrimp in 2023-23, worth
$5.481 billion. Frozen shrimp contributed around 67% of total marine exports. The major market for
Indian frozen shrimp is the United States of America (USA), which imported 2,75,662 tonnes, followed
by China, which imported 1,45,743 tonnes. So, statement 3 is not correct.
○ Top main Export destination for Indian marine products (2022-23):
■ USA – $2.63 billion
■ China – $1.508 billion
■ European Union -$ 1.26 billion
■ South East Asian countries – $ 1.19 billion
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
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Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India has denied accusations of abusive conditions at shrimp farms made by a human rights group
based in Chicago.

Q60.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Invasive Alien Species:
● In India, the definition of invasive alien species under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (amended in
2022), is narrow. They are defined as “species of animal or plant which is not native to India and whose
introduction or spread may threaten or adversely impact wildlife or its habitat.” Crucially, this leaves
out species within India which might be invasive to a particular region like the chital in Andamans,
which are protected in mainland India, but have become a menace in the island chain.
● The list of invasive wildlife in India is dominated by certain species of fish such as the African catfish,
Nile tilapia, red-bellied piranha, and alligator gar, and turtle species such as the red-eared slider.
○ The Red-eared slider is popular amongst India’s exotic pet owners and many have been
abandoned in local water bodies. This turtle, native to North America, notoriously edges out local
freshwater species, owing to its fast rates of reproduction and the following competition for
food. Increase in its population would lead to extinction of native species. So, point 2 is correct.
○ African catfish (Clarias gariepinus) was brought over from Bangladesh specifically for
aquaculture purposes. It has been reported from several inland systems of India including the
mighty rivers like Ganga, Yamuna, Sutlej, Godavari, Periyar River and the lakes like Vembanad
Lake. In Keoladeo Park, Bharatpur in Rajasthan, the African catfish have been known to prey on
waterfowls and migratory birds as well. So, point 4 is correct.
○ Cotton mealybug (Phenacoccus solenopsis) is an invasive species native to North America,
which has severely affected cotton crops in the Deccan. So, point 5 is correct.
● White-winged wood duck is locally known as deo hans in Assam. This is a critically endangered species
found only in select areas of Nameri National Park. It is not an invasive species. So, point 1 is not correct.
● Bugun Liocichla is a critically endangered species in Arunachal Pradesh. They were first discovered at
Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in 1995 and in 2006, they were described as a new species. The Bugun
community of Sinchung village in West Kameng district has made prominent efforts in the conservation
of Bugun Liocichla. It is not an invasive species. So, point 3 is not correct.
● Aegle marmelos is a slow-growing, medium-sized tree, with a short trunk, thick, soft, flaking bark and
spreading, sometimes spiny branches, the lower ones drooping. It is commonly known as bael and is
native to India. It grows wild in dry forests on hills and plains of central and southern India, Burma,
Pakistan and Bangladesh. It is not an invasive species. So, point 6 is not correct.
So, only three of the above are invasive alien species.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Andaman & Nicobar Islands administration recently sought help from the Wildlife
Institute of India in a bid to manage the teeming population of chital in Ross Island.

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Q61.
Answer: d
Explanation:
White Rabbit Technology:
● It is a technology developed at the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN), in collaboration
with institutes and companies, to synchronise devices in the accelerators down to sub-nanoseconds
and solve the challenge of establishing a common notion of time across a network.
● The main features of the White Rabbit Technology are:
○ sub-nanosecond accuracy and picosecond precision of synchronisation
○ connecting thousands of nodes
○ typical distances of 10 km between network elements
○ Gigabit rate of data transfer
○ fully open hardware, firmware and software
○ commercial availability from many vendors
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN):

● It is the world's largest particle physics laboratory, situated in the northwest suburbs
of Geneva on the Franco-Swiss border. It was established in 1954.
● Its main function is to provide the particle accelerators and other infrastructure needed
for high-energy physics research. It is also noted for being the birthplace of the World
Wide Web.
Relevance: The European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN) recently launched White Rabbit
Collaboration.

Q62.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Unified Payments Interface (UPI is a digital and real-time payment system developed by the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI) and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
At present level of development, it is used for the following purposes:
● The RBI has allowed the deposit of cash in cash deposit machines using UPI. This feature facilitates
convenient cash deposits for users by integrating UPI into the process. So, point 1 is correct.
● UPI also support the following types of non-financial transactions like:
○ Registration for mobile banking. So, point 2 is correct.
○ One Time Password (OTP) generation
○ Set/change PIN
○ Transaction status check
○ Raising disputes/queries
● UPI ID as a payment method can be used for subscribing to an Initial Public Offering (IPO) on the
National Stock Exchange (NSE) or Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). This allows for a seamless and
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 convenient payment process, eliminating the need for traditional payment methods such as cheques or
demand drafts. So, point 3 is correct.
● UPI enables users to invest up to Rs 5 lakh in government bonds through the RBI retail direct platform.
This initiative aims to promote retail participation in government securities and provides individuals with
a convenient and accessible avenue for investment. So, point 4 is correct.
● Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) can currently be used to make UPI transactions only by using the
application provided by the PPI issuer. To provide more flexibility to PPI holders, it is now proposed to
permit the linking of PPIs through third-party UPI applications. This will enable the PPI holders to make
UPI payments like bank account holders. So, point 5 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) permitted payments from Prepaid Payment Instruments
(PPIs) like digital wallets using UPI that too through any third-party app.

Q63.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT):
● It is formed as a statutory and autonomous body as per the provisions of the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI) Act, 1992. It was mainly established to hear appeals against orders passed by the
SEBI or by an adjudicating officer under the SEBI Act, 1992. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● SAT is responsible for adjudicating and resolving appeals concerning orders issued by the Securities
and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(IRDAI) and the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). So, statement 2 is
correct.
● SAT consists of one Presiding Officer and such number of Judicial and Technical members as the Central
Government may determine.
● The person so appointed as the Presiding Officer should meet the following requirements:
○ The retired or sitting judge of the Supreme Court. So, statement 3 is not correct.
○ Chief Justice of the High Court
○ Judge of the High Court, who has completed at least seven years of service as a judge in a high
court.
● Every person aggrieved by any order or decision of SAT can file an appeal to the Supreme Court. An
appeal can only be made on a question of law. So, statement 4 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Central Government appointed retired justice P. S. Dinesh Kumar as the Presiding Officer of the
Securities Appellate Tribunal for four years.

Q64.
Answer: b
Explanation:

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Section 13A of the Income Tax Act of 1961 applies to the political parties. Income from house property, "other
sources, capital gains or received through voluntary contributions" are exempted from total income. But they
must meet prescribed conditions.
● They are exempt from paying income tax but are required to file their Income Tax Returns (ITRs)
annually to the Income Tax Department. They enjoy 100% tax exemption from all sources of income. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● Following are the benefits under tax exemptions granted to political parties in India:
○ Party accounts have to be audited by a Chartered Accountant.
○ Donations of over Rs 2,000 must be made via account payee cheque or electronic transfer. So,
statement 2 is correct.
○ The treasurer or an authorised person should furnish a report of donations of over Rs 20,000 to
Election Commission of India (ECI) on or before the due date for filing returns.
○ Parties must file returns for the previous financial year by the prescribed date.
○ The exemption is valid as long as the treasurer of the party or any other person authorised by the
party submits a declaration of its donations to the ECI before the due date of filing Income Tax
returns.
○ For each voluntary contribution, other than contributions made through electoral bonds in
excess of Rs 20,000 (though this no longer applies), it needs to maintain records of contributions
and the name and address of the donor. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Supreme Court of India has asked the Income Tax Department to not take any ‘coercive
steps’ to recover about Rs 3,500 crore from the political party.

Q65.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● San Andreas Fault: It is a major fracture of the Earth’s crust in extreme western North America. It is a
part of the boundary between the Pacific and North American plates and thus is known as a transform
fault. It connects the East Pacific Rise in the Gulf of California with the junction of the Mendocino fracture
zone and the Cascade subduction zone to the north. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● North Anatolian Fault: It stretches across northern Turkey. The fault runs along the boundary between
the Eurasian plate and the smaller Anatolian plate but movement in the area is controlled by collision
of the larger Arabian plate to the south and the Eurasian plate to the north. The fault is a transform fault
with the Anatolian Plate and the Eurasian Plate sliding past each other. So, pair 2 is not correctly
matched.
● Kopili Fault Zone: It is a wide lineament situated in the Northeastern Region (NER) of India. It extends
from the western part of Manipur to the tri-junction of Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. It is
closer to the Himalayan Frontal Thrust. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
So, only one of the above pairs is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a 4.8 magnitude earthquake struck New Jersey, sending tremors throughout the region.

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Q66.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Agni-Prime is a new generation two-stage canisterised solid propellant ballistic missile with a dual
redundant navigation and guidance system. It has a range of 1,000-2,000 km. It is lighter than all the
earlier Agni series of missiles.
● It is also equipped with the Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology.
● It can be transported by road and rail and stored for longer periods, significantly reducing the time
required for preparation and launch. The missile uses a cold launch mechanism and can be fired in salvo
mode.
○ Agni series of missiles constitute the backbone of India’s nuclear weapons delivery which also
includes the Prithvi short-range ballistic missiles and fighter aircraft.
○ India has completed its nuclear triad and operationalised its second strike capability with nuclear-
powered ballistic missile submarine INS Arihant undertaking deterrence patrols.
● Ballistic missiles are powered initially by a rocket or series of rockets in stages, but then follow an
unpowered trajectory that arches upwards before descending to reach its intended target. Ballistic
missiles can carry either nuclear or conventional warheads.
● Ballistic missiles are launched directly into the upper layers of the earth’s atmosphere. They can travel
outside the atmosphere, where the warhead detaches from the missile and falls towards a
predetermined target.
● They are rocket-propelled self-guided weapons systems and can be launched from aircraft, ships and
submarines and land.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The new generation ballistic missile Agni-Prime was successfully flight-tested by the Strategic Forces
Command (SFC) along with the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

Q67.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023:
● According to the Act, all reported births and deaths in the country are to be digitally registered through
the Centre’s portal for the Civil Registration System. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It will provide for use of the birth certificate as a single document to prove the date and place of birth
of a person born on or after the date of commencement of the Registration of Births and Deaths
(Amendment) Act, 2023, for admission to an educational institution, issuance of driving licence,
preparation of voter list, marriage registration, appointment to a post in central or state government
or a local body or public sector undertaking or in any statutory or autonomous body under the central
or state government. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Act states that the national database may be made available to other authorities preparing or
maintaining other databases. Such databases include (i) population register, (ii) electoral rolls, (iii)
ration card and (iv) any other national databases as notified. So, statement 3 is not correct.

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 ○ The use of the national database must be
approved by the Central Government.
Similarly, the state database may be made
available to authorities dealing with other
state databases, subject to state
government approval.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to the Union Ministry of Home
Affairs, parents registering a child's birth must now
include the religion of both the father and mother as
separate entries.

Q68.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Allotment of symbols:
● In every contested election a symbol shall be allotted to a contesting candidate in accordance with the
provisions of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 (Symbols Order) by the
Election Commission of India (ECI) and different Symbols shall be allotted to different contesting
candidates at an election in the same constituency.
○ The Symbols Order defines a "reserved symbol" as one exclusively allocated to contesting
candidates of a recognized political party. A "free or common symbol" refers to any symbol other
than a reserved one.
● Reserved symbols are exclusively designated for candidates nominated by National or State Parties in
their respective constituencies, even if no candidate from these parties is fielded in a particular
constituency. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Free symbols are allotted to independent and unrecognised registered parties based on their requests
and preferences. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Candidates must select symbols from a list of free symbols provided by the ECI. Each candidate
can provide three preferences for free symbols, listed in order of preference. Even if the first
nomination paper is rejected, the preferences indicated on it must still be considered.
● When a recognized political party undergoes a split, the Election Commission decides on the allocation
of symbols. For example, in the initial 1952 elections, the Congress party used a pair of bulls as its
symbol. As the party experienced divisions over time, the current hand symbol was eventually assigned
to it. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the statements given above are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Supreme Court refused to entertain a petition filed by the ruling Bharat Rashtra Samiti (BRS)
party in Telangana challenging the allotment of election symbols to two other parties.

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Q69.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Agreement on Agriculture contains a “due restraint” or “peace clause” which regulates the
application of other World Trade Organisation (WTO) agreements to subsidies in respect of agricultural
products. The provisions provide that Green Box domestic support measures cannot be the subject of
countervailing duty action or other subsidy action under the WTO Agreement on Subsidies and
Countervailing Measures nor can they be subject to actions based on non-violation nullification or
impairment of tariff concessions under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). It was
designed at the 12th Ministerial Conference in Bali in 2013.
● Other domestic support measures which are in conformity with the provisions of the Agreement on
Agriculture may be the subject of countervailing duty actions, but due restraint is to be exercised by
Members in initiating such investigations. Further, in so far as the support provided to individual
products does not exceed that decided in the 1992 marketing year, these measures are exempt from
other subsidy action or nullification or impairment action. Export subsidies conforming to the Agreement
on Agriculture are, to the extent relevant, covered by corresponding provisions. The peace clause
remains in effect for a period of nine years.
● The peace clause protects India’s food procurement programmes against action from WTO members in
case the subsidy ceilings (de minimis) i.e. 10% of the value of food production in the case of India and
other developing countries are breached.
○ Under the global trade norms, a WTO member country's food subsidy bill should not breach the
limit of 10 percent of the value of production based on the reference price of 1986-88.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, India has used the Peace Clause under WTO for the fifth time consecutively.

Q70.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Excise Duty:
● It is a form of tax imposed on goods for their production, licensing and sale. An indirect tax paid to the
Government of India by producers of goods.
● At the central level, excise duty earlier used to be levied as Central Excise Duty, Additional Excise Duty,
etc. However, the Goods and Services Tax (GST), introduced in 2017, subsumed many types of excise
duty.
● Central Excise duty is continued on five Petroleum products as these products are out of GST at present
and will be brought under GST later.
○ Five petroleum products viz. petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), high-speed diesel, natural
gas and aviation turbine fuel have temporarily been kept out and the GST Council shall decide
the date from which they shall be included in GST. So, points 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
● In India, both GST (Goods and Services Tax) and central excise duty apply to tobacco and tobacco
products. So, point 1 is correct.

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 ● Excise duty on alcoholic liquor for human consumption comes under the State Governments. So, point
4 is not correct.
So, only four of the products are subjected to excise duty in India.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Difference between Excise Duty and Goods and Services Tax (GST):
● GST is imposed on the consumption of goods and services, including tobacco, at the
point of sale. On the other hand, central excise duty is levied on the production or
manufacture of tobacco products within the country.
● Parliament has powers to levy excise duties on tobacco and other goods manufactured
or produced in India except alcoholic liquors for human consumption, opium, Indian
hemp and other narcotic drugs and narcotics but including medicinal and toilet
preparations containing alcohol, opium etc. (Entry 84 of List 1 of the Seventh Schedule
of the Constitution).
Relevance: The Supreme Court's Nine-judge Bench is currently deliberating on whether States possess the
authority to regulate and tax 'industrial alcohol'.

Q71.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP):
● It is a centrally sponsored scheme for the comprehensive development of the select villages on the
northern border of India, thus improving the quality of life of people living in identified border villages.
The scheme will not not overlap with the Border Area Development Programme. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
● The aims of the scheme are to identify and develop the economic drivers based on local, natural, human
and other resources of the border villages. Development of growth centres on the “Hub and Spoke
Model” through promotion of social entrepreneurship, empowerment of youth and women through skill
development is also one of the objectives of VVP. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It will cover the border areas of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and
Ladakh. Action plans for identified villages would be prepared by the district administration with
assistance from the proper mechanisms at the block and panchayat levels, to guarantee complete
saturation of federal and state programmes. So, statement 3 is correct.
● The programme envisages focused areas of interventions for the creation of opportunities for livelihood
generation through the promotion of tourism & cultural heritage, road connectivity, drinking water,
electricity including solar and wind energy, mobile and internet connectivity and healthcare
infrastructure and wellness centres etc.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Union Finance Minister has announced the allocation of Rs. 1050 crore for FY25 towards the
Vibrant Villages Program (VVP) in the 2024 interim budget.
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Q72.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Exchange-Traded Derivative (ETD) is a standardised financial contract that is traded in stock exchanges
in a regulated manner. ETDs are essentially contracts, deriving value from the price fluctuations of their
underlying assets. So, statement 1 is correct.
● There are mainly two types of derivatives:
○ Exchange Traded Derivatives (ETDs): They are subjected to standardised terms and conditions
and thus being traded on stock exchanges.
○ Over the Counter (OTC) Derivatives: They are traded between private counter-parties in the
absence of a formal intermediary. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● They are jointly regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI). The regulatory framework for participation in ETCDs involving the rupee is guided by the
provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 and regulations framed thereunder.
The framework mandates that currency derivative contracts involving rupee — both ETDs and OTC —
are permitted only for hedging of exposure to foreign exchange rate risks. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) deferred the implementation of its new norms for the
Exchange-Traded Derivatives market.

Q73.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India are a specific segment of banking created by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) to provide financial services and products to low-income individuals and underserved
communities, including microfinance and micro-enterprise services, as well as other basic banking
services.
● SFBs are registered as public limited companies under the Companies Act, 2013 and governed by
Banking Regulations Act, 1949 and RBI Act, 1934. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ SFBs are granted the scheduled bank status after being operational and are deemed suitable
under section 42 of the RBI Act, 1934. So, statement 2 is correct.
● According to the RBI's guidelines, only listed SFBs can qualify for a universal banking licence in India.
The SFBs intending to convert must have a minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore and a scheduled status
with a satisfactory track record of at least five years. So, statement 3 is correct.
● SFBs, like commercial banks, need to follow Statutory Liquidity Ratio and Cash Reserve Ratio rules. They
are required to maintain a Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) of 15% and cannot lend more than 10% of
their capital to a single borrower. So, statement 4 is correct.
So, all four of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Other facts about the Small Finance Banks (SFBs):

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 ● SFBs are differentiated or niche banks with a minimum net worth of Rs 200 crore, lower
than other Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs).
● Considering their focus on financial inclusion, SFBs are required to lend at least 75
percent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to priority sectors, compared with
40 per cent in the case of other SCBs.
● SFBs are required to open at least 25% of their branches in unbanked rural centres.
● Deposit insurance provided by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation covers all insured commercial banks, including regional rural banks (RRBs),
local area banks (LABs), SFBs and co-operative banks.
Relevance: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has said Small Finance Banks (SFBs) should have a minimum net
worth of Rs 1,000 crore to become universal banks.
Tags: Factual

Q74.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Glycemic Index (GI):
● GI ranks carbohydrate-containing foods based on the blood glucose response, post-prandial or after a
meal. The higher the blood sugar reading, the higher will be the GI. GL, on the other hand, is both the
quality and quantity of carbohydrates in a specific food and is the product of the GI and the amount of
carbohydrates available in a serving.
● It serves as a valuable tool in diabetes management by indicating how swiftly various foods affect blood
glucose levels. It categorises carbohydrates based on their digestion and absorption rates, offering
insight into the pace at which different foods elevate blood sugar levels after consumption.
● An international study suggests that consuming low Glycaemic Index (GI) and low Glycaemic Load (GL)
diets might prevent the development of type 2 diabetes.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent study provides proof of the undeniable link between a high glycaemic index and diabetes.

Q75.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Electronic Trading Platforms (ETP):
● These refer to any electronic systems other than a recognised stock exchange, on which transactions
in eligible instruments like securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments,
derivatives, etc. are contracted. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Operating an Electronic Trading Platform (ETP) requires prior authorization from the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) under The Electronic Trading Platforms (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2018. So, statement 2 is
not correct.
● Resident persons operating ETPs without authorisation from RBI, collecting and effecting/remitting
payments directly/indirectly outside India shall render themselves liable for penal action under the

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 extant laws and regulations, including the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the Prevention
of Money Laundering Act, 2002. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) raised concerns over unauthorised forex trading platforms and asked
banks to maintain vigil against such illegal activities.

Q76.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Internationalisation of the rupee is a process that involves increasing the use of the local currency in
cross-border transactions. It is promoting and increasing the use of the Indian Rupee as a widely
accepted currency for international transactions and investments. It involves enhancing the currency's
acceptance, liquidity and usability in global markets.
● Advantages of internationalisation of the rupee:
○ The use of the rupee in cross-border transactions mitigates currency risk for Indian businesses.
It reduces the cost of doing business and enables better growth of business, improving the
chances for Indian businesses to grow globally.
■ Currency risk or exchange rate risk, refers to the exposure faced by investors or
companies that operate across different countries, with unpredictable gains or losses
due to changes in the value of one currency concerning another currency. So, point 1 is
correct.
○ While foreign exchange reserves help manage exchange rate volatility and project external
stability, they impose a cost on the economy. Internationalisation of the rupee reduces the need
for holding foreign exchange reserves. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ As the use of the rupee becomes significant, the bargaining power of Indian businesses would
improve, adding weight to the Indian economy and enhancing India’s global stature and respect.
● An Inter-Departmental Group (IDG) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a report has said that
internationalisation may result in potentially increased volatility in the rupee’s exchange rate in the
initial stages. This would further have monetary implications as the obligation of a country to supply its
currency to meet the global demand may come in conflict with its domestic monetary policies. Also, the
internationalisation of a currency may accentuate an external shock, given the open channel of the flow
of funds into and out of the country and from one currency to another. So, point 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Prime Minister of India has recently asked the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to prepare a 10-year
strategy for the internationalisation of the rupee.

Q77.
Answer: d
Explanation:

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 ● India is overwhelmingly import-dependent to meet its demand for solar cells and modules with China
and Vietnam being the country’s major suppliers. China accounted for more than half of India’s solar
cell imports and solar PV modules. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Following measures have been taken by the Government of India to promote development of solar
energy:
○ To give a boost to the domestic sector, the import of renewable energy devices like solar modules
is subject to “heavy” customs duties and taxes. So, statement 2 is not correct.
○ The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for the National Programme on High-Efficiency
Solar PV Modules is being implemented by the Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
It aims to achieve manufacturing capacity of Giga Watt (GW) scale in High-Efficiency Solar PV
modules. Solar PV manufacturers are selected through a transparent selection process.
■ This Scheme has a provision for a PLI to the selected solar PV module manufacturers for
five years post-commissioning, on the manufacture and sale of High-Efficiency Solar PV
modules. Thus, it has a sunset clause.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules

(ALMM) list consists of manufacturers who “are eligible for use in Government
Projects/Government assisted projects/ projects under Government schemes &
programmes including projects set up for sale of electricity to the Central and State
Governments.”
Relevance: The Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) will re-implement its 2021 notification of
an ‘Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic [PV] Modules’ list.

Q78.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Coordinated Universal Time (UTC):
● It is essentially an internationally agreed-upon standard for world time. It is tracked by a weighted
average of more than 400 atomic clocks placed in different parts of the globe. Most of the clocks and
time zones of the world are based on UTC, which is set by the International Bureau of Weights and
Measures in Paris, France. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● To obtain their local time, countries need to subtract or add a certain number of hours from UTC
depending on how many time zones they are away from 0 degree longitude meridian, also known as the
Greenwich Meridian. If a country lies on the west of the Greenwich meridian, it has to subtract from the
UTC and if a country is located on the east of the meridian, it has to add. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● UTC cannot be used to determine time on the Moon. It is because time on the Moon flows differently
than it does on the Earth. A fundamental aspect of nature in the Universe is that time is not absolute. It
is a consequence of Einstein’s Theory of General Relativity which says that gravity bends space and time.
As there is less gravity on the Moon, time ticks slightly faster there relative to the time on the Earth. In

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 other words, for someone on the Moon, an Earth-based clock will appear to lose on average 58.7
microseconds per Earth day with “additional periodic variations”. The discrepancy may seem small but
it can create problems for situations such as a spacecraft seeking to dock on the Moon, data transferring
at a specific time, communication and navigation. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, none of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Coordinated Lunar Time (CLT):

● It will provide a time-keeping benchmark for lunar spacecraft and satellites that
require extreme precision for their missions. It will also synchronise the communication
between satellites, astronauts, bases and the Earth.
● Atomic clocks measure time in terms of the resonant frequencies i.e. the natural
frequency of an object where it tends to vibrate at a higher amplitude of atoms such
as cesium-133. Atomic clocks utilize the remarkable consistency of caesium atom
vibrations, defining a second as precisely 9,192,631,770 vibrations. This stability
enables them to serve as exceptional timekeeping instruments, providing unparalleled
accuracy in measuring the progression of time.
Relevance: Recently, the US White House officially directed the National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(NASA) to create a time standard for the Moon.

Q79.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The International Narcotics Control Board was established in 1968 and is the independent and quasi-
judicial monitoring body for the implementation of the United Nations International Drug Control
Conventions. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It was established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961 by merging two bodies: the
Permanent Central Narcotics Board, created by the 1925 International Opium Convention and the Drug
Supervisory Body, created by the 1931 Convention for Limiting the Manufacture and Regulating the
Distribution of Narcotic Drugs. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It endeavours in cooperation with Governments, to ensure that adequate supplies of drugs are
available for medical and scientific uses and that the diversion of drugs from licit sources to illicit
channels does not occur. It also monitors Governments' control over chemicals used in the illicit
manufacture of drugs and assists them in preventing the diversion of those chemicals into illicit traffic.
So, statement 3 is correct.
● It consists of 13 members who are elected by the Economic and Social Council and who serve in their
capacity, not as government representatives. Three members with medical, pharmacological or
pharmaceutical experience are elected from a list of persons nominated by the World Health
Organization (WHO) and 10 members are elected from a list of persons nominated by Governments. So,
statement 4 is not correct.

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So, only three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, India’s Jagjit Pavadia was re-elected to the International Narcotics Control Board.

Q80.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Disinvestment is the sale or liquidation of the government shareholding in a public sector company. The
primary objectives are to optimise resources, enhance economic growth and improve the overall efficiency of
public sector enterprises. One of the foremost aims is to reduce the financial burden on the government or the
company, freeing up resources that can be channelled into more productive areas.
● Fiscal consolidation describes government policy intended to reduce deficits and the accumulation of
debt. The proceeds from the sale of shares in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) can help in reducing the
deficit of the Government. So, point 1 is correct.
● The crowding-out effect theory suggests that rising public-sector spending drives down private-sector
spending. To spend more, the government needs more revenue, which it gets through higher taxes
and/or sales of PSUs. This can reduce private sector income and loan demand, thus decreasing spending
and borrowing. Since the sale of a profit-making PSU reduces government expenditure and government
borrowings, it can serve as an impetus for the private sector and help in reducing the crowding-out
effect. So, point 2 is correct.
● A revenue deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts. Dividends from a
profitable Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) are a form of revenue receipt. So, if a profitable PSU is
disinvested, it will lead to an increase in revenue deficit or a reduction in revenue surplus. Moreover,
proceeds from the disinvestment are a capital receipt, as it leads to a reduction in assets. So, point 3 is
not correct.
So, only two of the above are most likely the impact of disinvestment of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) in
India.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, it has been speculated that the Government may repeal the Warehousing Corporations
Act, 1962, paving the way for its disinvestment.

Q81.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● India has signed a protocol amending the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with
Mauritius to plug treaty abuse for tax evasion or avoidance. The amended pact has included the Principal
Purpose Test (PPT), which essentially lays out the condition that the tax benefits under the treaty will
not be applicable if it is established that obtaining that duty benefit was the principal purpose of any
transaction or arrangement. In the amended protocol, ‘entitlement to benefits’ was added to the treaty.
○ By means of the principal purpose test, the tax administration can deny the tax treaty benefit if
one of the principal purposes of the action undertaken by the taxpayer was to obtain a benefit.
● The PPT will deny treaty benefits, such as the reduction of withholding tax on interest royalties and
dividends, where it is established that obtaining that treaty benefit is one of the principal purposes for
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 the party engaged in the transaction. This amendment applies to all incomes such as capital gains,
dividends, fees for technical services, etc.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, India and Mauritius have decided to revise the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement to
control tax evasion.

Q82.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● When the Federal Reserve of the United States of America (USA) raises its policy rates, the difference
between the interest rates of India and the USA narrows. This makes emerging countries such as India
less attractive for the currency carry trade.
● High-interest rates in the USA can have several significant impacts on the Indian economy:
○ When the Federal Reserve of the US raises its policy rates, it typically leads to higher interest
rates in the USA. This makes investments denominated in US dollars more attractive compared
to those in other currencies, including the Indian rupee. As a result, investors may pull their
capital out of India and redirect it to the USA or other markets offering higher returns.
○ An increase in US interest rates typically leads to a strengthening of the US dollar against other
currencies, including the Indian rupee (it generally means that the value of the Indian rupee
weakens in comparison to the dollar). This occurs because higher interest rates attract foreign
investment into the US, increasing the demand for dollars and causing its value to rise relative to
other currencies.
○ High interest rates in the USA take risk assets away from emerging economies like India. This
leads to a higher cost of capital and a repricing of risk.
○ An interest rate hike in the US can contribute to inflationary pressures in India. The depreciation
of the Indian rupee, resulting from capital outflows and a strengthening US dollar, can lead to
higher import costs for essential goods and commodities. Additionally, a higher cost of capital
resulting from global interest rate hikes can also impact production costs, further contributing to
inflationary pressures.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the United States Federal Reserve Chairman has signalled delayed interest rate cuts.

Q83.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Marginal Cost of Funds-Based Lending Rate (MCLR):
● It is the minimum lending rate below which a bank is not permitted to lend. It is closely linked to the
actual deposit rates and is calculated based on four components: the marginal cost of funds, negative
carry on account of cash reserve ratio, operating costs and tenure premium.
● The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the MCLR methodology for fixing interest rates to enhance
the effectiveness of monetary policy transmission as well as increase transparency in the rate of interest-
setting procedure.

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 ● The following components are used by the RBI to calculate the MCLR:
○ Tenure premium: The longer the tenure, the higher the risk of the loan. Therefore, the bank
charges a premium to cover this risk, known as a tenure premium. It is determined based on the
average maturity of the bank's liabilities. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Marginal cost of funds: The cost of funds is important in determining the MCLR in banking. It is
the average rate at which the deposits with similar maturities were raised during a specific
period. It involves the cost at which banks obtain funds for lending.
○ Negative carry-on Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): Banks are required to maintain a certain portion of
cash reserves with the RBI on which they do not earn any interest. The cost associated with this
non-earning reserve is considered a negative CRR. So, point 3 is correct.
○ Operating costs: This normally includes administrative costs, office expenses, employees’
salaries, rental expenses, utility etc. So, point 4 is correct.
● MCLR adjusts for factors that determine the cost of funds for the bank, by considering the incremental
cost of funds rather than the overall average cost of funds and the tenure of the loan, which has a
bearing on the risk associated. So, point 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Bank loans tied to the Marginal Cost of Funds-Based Lending Rate (MCLR) are trailing behind the
rate increases implemented by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI.

Q84.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Hydrogels are intricate networks formed by crosslinking water-soluble polymers, creating a three-
dimensional structure. They can retain a large quantity of water within their network without
disturbing their original structure. This imparts flexibility and swelling properties to the hydrogel
structures. These properties of hydrogels, along with the polar functional groups they bear such as
amines, amides, carboxylic acid, hydroxyl, and sulphonic acid qualify hydrogels for many promising
applications. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● Recently, researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) have designed a sustainable hydrogel to
remove microplastics from water. They demonstrated high efficiency, removing approximately 95%
and 93% of two distinct microplastic types from water at near-neutral pH levels (∼6.5). Additionally, the
team conducted durability experiments, revealing that the material remained stable across different
temperatures due to the combination of the three polymers. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) have designed a sustainable hydrogel
to remove microplastics from water.

Q85.
Answer: c
Explanation:

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 • Fluorochemicals are a group of chemicals that have a wide range of important applications including
polymers, agrochemicals, pharmaceuticals and the lithium-ion batteries in smartphones and electric
cars. Currently, all fluorochemicals are generated from the toxic and corrosive Hydrogen Fluoride (HF)
gas in a highly energy-intensive process. So, statement 2 is correct.
• HF itself is produced by reacting a crystalline mineral called fluorspar (CaF2) with sulfuric acid under
harsh conditions before it is used to make fluorochemicals. In the new method developed by scientists
at Oxford, fluorochemicals are made directly from CaF2, completely bypassing the production of HF. In
the novel method, solid-state CaF2 is activated by a biomineralization-inspired process, which mimics
the way that calcium phosphate minerals form biologically in teeth and bones. So, statement 1 is
correct.
• The method developed has the potential to streamline the current supply chain and decrease energy
requirements, helping to meet future sustainability targets and lower the carbon footprint of the
industry.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Oxford chemists have generated fluorochemicals without the use of hazardous hydrogen
fluoride gas.
Subject: Science & Technology | Recent Developments
Tags: Conceptual, Factual

Q86.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) forms the core of the legal framework put in place by
India to combat money laundering. Director, Financial Intelligence Unit - India (FIU-IND) and Director
(Enforcement) have been conferred with exclusive and concurrent powers under relevant sections of the Act to
implement the provisions of the Act.
● Section 5 of the Preventions of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, provides that the Enforcement
Directorate Director can issue an order for the attachment of any property that is suspected to have
been acquired with the proceeds of crime. So, statement 1 is correct.
● This provisional attachment order is valid for a period of 180 days. It must be confirmed within this time
by an Adjudicating Authority appointed by the Central Government under Section 6 of the PMLA Act,
failing which the property is automatically released from attachment.
● The ‘Adjudicating Authority’ is a body of experts from different fields to adjudicate on the issue of
confirmation of provisional attachment of property involved in money laundering.
○ The Authority comprises three Members, one each from the fields of ‘Law’, ‘Administration’
and ‘Finance or Accountancy’. Further, one of the Members is appointed as Chairperson of the
Adjudicating Authority.
○ It functions within the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance with its headquarters in New
Delhi.
○ The Adjudicating Authority exercises jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred by or under
the PMLA.
○ The functions of the Authority are civil in nature to the extent that it does not decide on the
criminality of the offence nor does it have the power to levy penalties or impose punishment.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
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 ● The accused has the right to challenge the Adjudicating Authority’s confirmation order at the PMLA’s
Appellate Tribunal within 45 days. If the Appellate Tribunal too confirms the order, the accused can file
a plea in the High Court. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the statements given above is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Adjudicating Authority of PMLA has recently validated the Enforcement Directorate's
attachment of assets belonging to a company associated with Indian National Congress.

Q87.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Revenue-Neutral Rate (RNR) is the rate that allows the Centre and States to sustain current revenues
from tax collections. It is a singular rate that serves as a base point from which the entire rate structure
is derived.
● It takes into account policy decisions regarding exemptions, reduced rates for specific goods or services
and higher rates for others. It is different from the "standard" rate within a multi-rate GST framework,
which applies to all goods and services not explicitly specified for different taxation treatment.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q88.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Science-Based Targets initiative (SBTi):
● It is a corporate climate action organisation that enables companies and financial institutions worldwide
to play their part in combating the climate crisis. It is essentially a standards-setting body for corporate
climate targets. It also reviews climate targets that large companies have set against its given framework
and validates those that meet its stringent criteria. It is widely considered one of the most stringent
climate standards in the world.
● It develops standards, tools and guidance which allow companies to set greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions
reduction targets in line with the Paris Agreement goals. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It is supported by the Carbon Disclosure Project (CDP), the United Nations Global Compact, the We
Mean Business Coalition, the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Wide Fund for Nature
(WWF). So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Scope 3 emissions:
● It refers to all the emissions indirectly generated throughout a company's entire value
chain. These emissions originate from sources such as suppliers and customers but do
not include the company's direct emissions (Scope 1) or the indirect emissions from
purchased electricity (Scope 2).

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 ● Example, in the automobile sector, Scope 3 emissions could involve emissions from
suppliers' component production, transportation of raw materials, customer use of
vehicles, and disposal of retired vehicles.
Relevance: The SBTi board of trustees has recently announced its decision to extend the use of ‘Environmental
Attribute Certificates’ (EAC) for the abatement of Scope 3 emissions.

Q89.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Doxxing involves the unauthorised disclosure of an individual's private information to the public
without their consent. It includes home addresses, phone numbers, private email IDs, medical records,
government documents, social security numbers, current locations, insurance details and private
employment information. This data is typically acquired through illicit means such as hacking or theft.
● Sharing private or semi-public content without someone's consent can lead to doxxing and harassment.
Even if the content is already public, the person sharing it without consent may not be breaking any laws,
but their intentions could be harmful and put others at risk.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● In India, there is no law in place to prevent and/or punish doxxing directly, though
there are laws in place against voyeurism (Indian Penal Code and Information
Technology Act), divulging sexually explicit content (IT Act) and obscene content
(Section 292 IPC), defamation (Section 499 IPC) and online stalking (Section 354D IPC).
Relevance: Recently, doxxing incidents have increased over the internet across the globe.

Q90.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Question Hour:
● Question Hour is the first hour of a sitting of the Lok Sabha that is devoted to Questions. During this
time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The questions are of three
kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice
● Questions seeking information on matters falling within the exclusive domain of the States and for
which the State Governments are not answerable to the Union Government are generally not admitted.
When a State is under the President’s Rule, all Questions about matters falling within the sphere of that
State are admitted. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The total number of questions to be included in the lists of questions for oral and written answers for
any day shall not exceed 175 including 20 questions for oral answers, questions postponed from one
list of questions to another for written answers and 15 questions pertaining to the State(s) under the
President's Rule. So, statement 2 is not correct.

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 ● It is during the Question Hour that Members can ask questions on every aspect of administration and
governmental activity. Government policies in the national as well as international spheres come into
sharp focus as the Members try to elicit pertinent information during the Question Hour. In addition to
the ministers, the questions can also be asked to the private members. So, statement 3 is not correct.
○ Thus, a question may be addressed to a private member if the subject matter of the question
relates to some Bill, resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for
which that member is responsible.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Types of Questions:
● Starred question (distinguished by an asterisk): It requires an oral answer and hence
supplementary questions can follow.
● Unstarred question: It requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions
cannot follow.
● Short notice question: It is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It
is answered orally.

Q91.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Piezoelectric Bone Conduction Procedure:
● It is an implantable medical electronic device for
hearing-impaired patients [conductive loss
(including aural atresia), mixed hearing loss and
single-sided deafness].
● While highly effective, its high cost restricts
accessibility for patients who don't qualify for
cochlear implants or benefit from traditional aids
or surgery.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Command Hospital Pune conducted two
successful piezoelectric bone conduction hearing implant
surgeries, marking the first occurrence of such procedures in a government hospital in India.

Q92.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Dark energy:

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 ● It is a theoretical energy form proposed by physicists to account for the accelerated expansion of the
universe, explaining just its continual expansion. Unlike for dark matter, scientists have no plausible
explanation for dark energy. According to one idea, it is a fifth and previously unknown type of
fundamental force which fills the universe like a fluid. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It is estimated to account for between around 68% to 72% of the universe's total energy and matter ,
its matter/energy budget , meaning it heavily dominates both dark matter and everyday matter. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
● It is distributed evenly throughout the universe, not only in space but also in time, in other words, its
effect is not diluted as the universe expands. The even distribution means that dark energy does not
have any local gravitational effects, but rather a global effect on the universe as a whole. So, statement
3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Dark Matter:
● It is a hypothetical form of matter that does not interact with light or other
electromagnetic radiation. It is inferred to exist based on its gravitational effects on
visible matter.
● Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with the electromagnetic force.
This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot.
● Researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the
gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.
● Dark matter seems to outweigh visible matter roughly six to one, making up about 27%
of the universe.
Relevance: Scientists uncover new clues about the universe’s mysterious expansion.

Q93.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Climate Technology Centre and Network (CTCN) is the implementation arm of the technology
mechanism of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. It is hosted by the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
● The Centre promotes the accelerated transfer of environmentally sound technologies for low carbon
and climate resilient development at the request of developing countries. It also provides technology
solutions, capacity building and advice on policy, legal and regulatory frameworks tailored to the needs
of individual countries by harnessing the expertise of a global network of technology companies and
institutions.
● The CTCN is a demand-driven mechanism as its services are offered upon request by developing
countries and the volume and specific nature of activities ultimately depends on countries’ requirements
and needs.

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 ● The CTCN consists of two parts: a centre, which is a coordinating entity located in UN City Copenhagen
and a worldwide network of organisations that delivers CTCN services both virtually and actually.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

CTCN’s Third Programme of Work 2023-2027:

● It aims to enhance transformational impact and scale across its core service areas
through proven technology enablers and system transformations.
● With this new programme, the CTCN acknowledges the need to rapidly accelerate the
shift towards climate resilience and emissions reduction.
Relevance: The Climate Technology Centre and Network (CTCN) recently marked its 10-year anniversary.

Q94.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) was established in 1993 as the
International Coordinating Committee of National Institutions for the promotion and protection of
human rights (ICC). Its Head Office is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
○ It has been known as the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) since
2016 and is a member-based network organisation that gathers NHRIs from all around the world.
● GANHRI is recognised and is a trusted partner, of the United Nations. It has established strong
relationships with the UN Human Rights Office, UN Development Programme (UNDP) and other UN
agencies, as well as with other international and regional organisations, NGOs, civil society and
academia. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It has 120 members: 88 “A” status accredited National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs) and 32 “B”
status accredited NHRIs.
● GANHRI, through the Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA), is responsible for reviewing and
accrediting NHRIs in compliance with the Paris Principles. NHRIs that are assessed as complying with
the Paris Principles are accredited with ‘A’ status, while those that partially comply are accredited with
‘B’ status. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Since being accredited in 1999, India had retained its ‘A’ ranking in 2006 and 2011, while its status
was deferred in 2016 and restored after a year. The National Human Rights Commission’s
(NHRC) ratings were again put on hold in 2023 and the decision over whether the NHRC is given
an A rating or a B rating would affect its ability to vote at the UN Human Rights Council and some
UN bodies. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The meeting of the Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA) of the Global Alliance of National Human
Rights Institutions (GANHRI) worldwide was recently held.

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Q95.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Registration, Evaluation,
Authorization and Restriction of
Chemicals (REACH) regulation is a
comprehensive regulatory framework
implemented by the European Union
(EU) to ensure the safe use of
chemicals and to protect human health
and the environment. It entered into
force in 2007. So, statement 1 is
correct.
● Under REACH, companies
manufacturing or importing chemicals
into the EU in quantities of one tonne
or more per year are required to
register those substances with the
European Chemicals Agency (ECHA).
The registration process involves providing detailed information about the properties and uses of the
chemical, as well as data on its potential hazards and risks.
○ ECHA evaluates the information submitted by registrants to assess the hazards and risks
associated with the registered chemicals. If concerns arise regarding the safety of a substance,
further testing or risk management measures may be required.
○ In principle, REACH applies to all chemical substances; not only those used in industrial
processes but also those used in day-to-day lives. Therefore, the regulation has an impact on
most companies across the EU.
● REACH places the burden of proof on companies manufacturing or importing chemicals. To comply
with the regulation, companies must identify and manage the risks linked to the substances they
manufacture and market in the EU. They have to demonstrate to ECHA how the substance can be safely
used and they must communicate the risk management measures to the users. So, statement 2 is
correct.
● Certain chemicals of very high concern (SVHC), such as carcinogens, mutagens and reproductive
toxicants, may be subject to authorization under REACH. Companies must obtain authorisation from
ECHA to use or place these substances on the market, and their use may be restricted or phased out if
safer alternatives are available. REACH also empowers the EU to impose restrictions on the
manufacturing, placing on the market, or use of certain hazardous chemicals if they pose an
unacceptable risk to human health or the environment. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

Laws in India with respect to chemical usage:

● India does not have a regulation identical to the European Union’s REACH regulation.
However, India does have laws and regulations governing the registration, evaluation,
and use of chemicals, albeit in different forms and under different authorities.
○ Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemicals (MSIHC) Rules,
1989: These rules regulate the manufacture, storage, import and export of
hazardous chemicals in India. They require the registration of hazardous
chemicals with the relevant authorities and mandate safety measures to
prevent accidents and minimise environmental and health risks.
○ Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS): It sets standards for various products,
including chemicals, to ensure their quality, safety and performance. While BIS
standards may not directly mirror the scope of REACH, they contribute to
chemical safety and regulatory compliance in India.
Relevance: At the recent negotiations at the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to end plastic
pollution across the life cycle, few oil, gas and plastic producing countries have blocked the acceptance of a
robust treaty on plastic pollution on human health.

Q96.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was launched by India at the 2019 UN Climate
Action Summit. It is an international coalition of countries, UN agencies, multilateral development banks,
the private sector and academic institutions.
● It aims to promote the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby
ensuring sustainable development.
● Its initial focus is on developing disaster-resilience in ecological, social and economic infrastructure. Its
objective is also to promote research and knowledge sharing in the fields of infrastructure risk
management, standards, financing, and recovery mechanisms.
● CDRI supports the achievement of goals and targets enshrined in the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs), Paris Agreement on Climate Change, Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (SFDRR) and
the UN Agenda 2030 principles of leaving no one, no place and no ecosystem behind. So, points 1, 2 and
4 are correct.
● The Rotterdam Convention (1998) formulates legally binding obligations for implementing the Prior
Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International
Trade. The targets set under this Convention are not supported by CDRI. So, point 3 is not correct.
So, targets mentioned in only three of the above are supported by the Coalition for Disaster Resilient
Infrastructure.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: As co-chairs of CDRI’s Governing Council from 2022 to 2024, India and the United States have
collaborated to establish disaster-resilient infrastructure around the world in partnership with CDRI’s growing
membership.

Q97.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Sympathetic flares are defined as solar flares in different active regions that apparently occur as the
common result of the activation of a coronal connection between the regions.
● They are caused by multiple eruptions across the Sun’s magnetic field, linked by massive magnetic field
loops that lie above the solar surface. When one spot detonates, others follow suit. This leads to Coronal
Mass Ejections (CMEs) and massive bursts of plasma.
● Such solar activity is likely an indication of the Sun reaching the peak of its 11-year solar cycle known as
solar maximum. The peak is marked by increased solar events like flares and CMEs.
● If directed towards the Earth, these sympathetic flares have the potential to disrupt power grids,
telecommunication networks and orbiting satellites and expose astronauts to dangerous doses of
radiation.
● Homologous flares are solar flares that occur repetitively in an active region, with essentially the same
position and with a common pattern of development.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The sight of “sympathetic solar flares” in different regions of the star was recently captured by
NASA’s Solar Dynamics Observatory.

Q98.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Ethylene oxide, a colourless gas, is used as a pesticide and sterilising agent, though the chemical was
originally intended to sterilise medical devices. Exposure to the ethylene oxide is said to cause lymphoma
and leukaemia among other cancers.
● At room temperature, ethylene oxide is a flammable colourless gas with a sweet odour. It is used
primarily to produce other chemicals, including antifreeze. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Ethylene oxide is also used as a fumigating agent for spices. It is often used as a steriliser in order to
keep a curb on microbial load. It disrupts the reproductive processes of microorganisms, thus
preventing food from getting spoiled. So, statement 2 is correct.
● As it is gaseous, it can easily seep into breathable packaging and come in contact with the items that
require sterility assurance level. The process of sterilisation neutralises yeasts, molds, bacteria
(vegetative), and spore formers, in turn extending the shelf life of the food items.
● Ethylene oxide is also used mainly as a chemical intermediate in the manufacture of ethylene glycol
(antifreeze), textiles, detergents, polyurethane foam, solvents, medicine, adhesives, and other products.
● Whenever food sterilised using ethylene oxide is not aerated, it leaves behind a residue. This, in turn,
forms toxic compounds like 2-Chloroethanol (2-CE), Ethylene Chlorohydrin (ECH) and Ethylene Glycol
(EG).

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Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The traces of Ethylene oxide (ETO), a cancer-causing chemical, led to a ban on Indian products in
Hong Kong and Singapore.

Q99.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The traces pesticides leave in treated products or those left by veterinary drugs in animals are called
"residues".
● Pesticide residues: A Maximum Residue Limit (MRL) is the highest level of a pesticide residue that is
legally tolerated in or on food or feed when pesticides are applied correctly in accordance with Good
Agricultural Practice.
● Veterinary drug residues: The MRL is the maximum concentration of residue legally tolerated in a food
product obtained from an animal that has received veterinary medicine.
● Recently, an order from the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) said that for pesticides
that are registered with the Ministry of Agriculture but don’t have MRL under Indian regulation for
spices, the global Codex Alimentarius Commission standards will be used. If it is not mentioned in the
Codex, then the MRL of 0.1 mg/ Kg will be followed. For pesticides that aren’t registered with the
Ministry of Agriculture at all, the MRL of 0.1 mg/ kg will be applicable.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) approved a ten-fold increase
in the maximum level of pesticide residue allowed in spices and herbs.

Q100.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Methane is the second most abundant anthropogenic greenhouse gas after carbon dioxide (CO2) and
has a greater warming effect on the planet. Over 100 years, its global warming potential is 28 times
higher than CO2, and even more so over shorter periods like two decades. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Scientists have identified two main sources of methane: biogenic and thermogenic. The microbes that
produce methane are archaea — single-celled microorganisms distinct from bacteria and eukaryotes —
and are called methanogens. Biogenic methane is produced by methanogens. They thrive in oxygen-
deficient environments, such as the digestive tracts of animals, wetlands, rice paddies, landfills, and the
sediments of lakes and oceans.
● A recent study has revealed that microbes are the primary sources of new methane in the atmosphere,
rather than the burning of fossil fuels. Anaerobic archaea has been identified as potential major sources
of atmospheric methane. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Thermogenic methane is released when extracting fossil fuels like natural gas or oil from deep within
the Earth's crust. Both biogenic and thermogenic activities produce different isotopes of methane, which
scientists track to understand the most active sources. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

● Methanogens play a crucial role in the global carbon cycle by converting organic matter
into methane. While methane is a potent greenhouse gas, its production by
methanogens is an essential part of natural ecosystems. But human activities like
agriculture, dairy farming, and fossil fuel production have further increased methane
emissions.
● Both biogenic and thermogenic activities produce different isotopes of methane.
Tracking the isotopes is a way to track which sources are the most active.
Relevance: Recent airborne and satellite surveys reveal that methane is being released from landfills and oil and
gas operations worldwide in significantly greater quantities.

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