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150 Must Do Questions in LR-DI For CAT

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
65 views50 pages

150 Must Do Questions in LR-DI For CAT

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We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)

9974227383
150 MUST DO LOGICAL REASONING AND DATA
INTERPRETATION QUESTIONS
DIRECTION for the questions 01 to 04: Read the information given below and answer the
question that follows.
There are five islands A, B, C, D and E in Nicobar. Two of these have post offices, three have
schools and three are accessible by bridge. Two have a population of more than 5000 each,
two have a population between 2000 and 5000 each, and one has a population of less than
2000. Two of these islands have electricity in addition to certain other facilities such as a
school and accessibility by bridge. The island with a population of less than 2000 has a
school but does not have a post office nor is it accessible by bridge; while each of the islands
with a population of more than 5000 has a school. Of the two islands having a population
between 2000 and 5000, only one has a post office and is accessible by bridge. Island A is
accessible by bridge. Island B has a population of more than 5000, island D has a school and
is accessible by bridge but does not have a post office, while island E has a school but is not
accessible by bridge.
01. Which island has a school and a post office?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
02. Which island does not have any of the facilities available to other islands?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
03. Which two islands have electricity?

(a) A, B
(b) B, C
(c) B, D
(d) C, D
04. Which three islands can be accessed by bridge?

(a) A, B, D
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(b) A, B, E
(c) A, D, E
(d) B, D, E
DIRECTIONS for questions 05 to 08: Power plant P produces certain amount of electricity,
which it distributes equally to substations Q and R.
They further distribute the obtained electricity equally to the different mini stations A, B, C,
D, E, F, G, H and I. It is assumed that after the sub-stations, the wire loses 10% of the
original electricity it is carrying for every kilometer, i.e., if 10A is sent through a wire, after
1 km it will have 9A and after 2 kms it will have 8 A and so on. Further it is known that every
mini-station retains 50% of the electricity that it receives (after the losses) and passes on the
remainder 50% of the electricity that it receives to the stations down the line.

05. If mini-station I is receiving 10A, then how much is ministation 'A' receiving?
(a) 7.5 A
(b) 8.2A

(c) 10.5 A
(d) None of these
06. Approximately how much should P produce so that C can get 10A of current?
(a) 230 A
(b) 300 A

(c) 330 A
(d) 360 A
07. Mini-station H is using a device which decreases the current losses on the transmission
route directly connected to it to 75%. If H is receiving 34A, then how much is G receiving?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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08. If E is using the same device that H is (for Question 07), then the ratio of current used by
E and G is. (Assume that E receives 37.)

(a) 160: 37
(b) 37: 160
(c) 80: 37
(d) 37: 80
DIRECTION for the questions 09 to 12: Read the information given below and answer the
question that follows.
There are five specializations—Marketing, Finance, Production, Personnel and Systems—
available at the IIM. It is necessary for all students to take up a combination of atleast two of
the above specializations. Based on common preferences, pre-set combinations called
modules are offered, which are coded S001, S002, S003, S004 and S005. Each of these
modules has two specializations, so that every specialization is assigned to two modules.
Further, to allow for uncommon preferences a student is allowed to take up more than one
combination in such a way that the specialization common to the two modules is dropped.
However, a student can specialize in more than two subjects by manipulating the
combination of modules. Additional information is as follows: S001 has not been assigned
to Production. S003 has not been assigned to Marketing. S004 has not been assigned to
Finance. By choosing S001 and S003, one may specialize in Marketing and Systems. By
choosing S001 and S002 one may specialize in Marketing, Production, Finance and
Personnel. By choosing S001 and S004 one may specialize in Finance and Personnel.
09. What specializations are possible by choosing S001, S002 and S003?
(a) Marketing, Finance and Personnel

(b) Marketing, Production and Personnel


(c) Finance, Personnel and Production
(d) Marketing, Production, Personnel and Systems
10. Which of the following number of modules give the maximum number of
specializations?
(a) S003 and S004
(b) S002 and S004

(c) S002 and S003


(d) S004 and S005
11. What is the maximum number of modules that a student can take to specialize in at
least two areas?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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12. Which of the following number of specializations is impossible for any student to take?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) None of these
DIRECTION for the questions 13 to 16: Read the information given below and answer the
question that follows.
There are 7 individuals (P, Q, R, S, X, Y, Z,) to be accommodated in 11 row houses numbered
1 to 11. Each individual has 5 states of preference towards the 11 houses. Each individual is
happy when house of his choice is allotted and it can be measured. In the table below are
given symbols for most preferred to most disliked and corresponding happiness points.

An individual feels happy when his adjacent house is occupied by his friend, feel bad when
occupied by his enemy. Happiness points are +21 if occupied by a friend, – 18 if occupied by
an enemy, + 3 if occupied by a neutral (neither friend nor enemy) or vacant.
Each individual's preference for other individual is given in the following table:
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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Similarly, an individual feels jealous, if his enemies get their 'most preferred' house allotted.
Then his own happiness will be reduced by 25% of the 'most preferred happiness points'.
House allotments under different schemes are given below:

13. When added up the preferences of the individuals for each house, which house is the
most preferred among the 11 houses?
(a) 5th house
(b) 11th house

(c) 2nd house


(d) 10th house
14. When added up the preferences of the individuals for each house, which house is 3rd
least preferred among the 11 houses?
15. Who is the 2nd happiest individual if houses are allotted according to scheme 2?
(a) P

(b) Q
(c) S
(d) X
16. Who is the happiest individual if houses are allotted according to scheme 1?
DIRECTION for the questions 17 to 20: Read the information given below and answer the
question that follows.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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17. The (projected) annual growth rate of corporate users between 2011 and 2015 in closest
to
(a) 700%

(b) 141%
(c) 175%
(d) 22%
18. In which year, proportion of Retail subscribes in Total Net subscribers is highest for the
year
19. From 2011 and 2015, by what percent the number of Retail subscribers using dial up
connection is expected to change.
20. The net subscriber base of Internet users in India is likely to grow at what (approximate)
compounded annual rate for the period shown in the table?
(a) 70%

(b) 60%
(c) 50%
(d) 40%
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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DIRECTION for the questions 21 to 24: Read the information given below and answer the
question that follows.
During their stint at IIM Shillong, ten students have opted for various electives named from
A to F. In these electives, students are given the points on a scale of 1 to 5 points. Points
obtained by the students can be integral points only.
It is also known that not all the electives are taken by all the students and not all the
students are taking at least an elective.
The range of scores indicates the maximum and minimum scores in that elective by the
students who have chosen that elective. However, if the range of the scores is 1-4, then at
least one of students must have got 1 point and at least one student must have got 4 points
in that elective.
The number of elective takers out of the 10 students is given in the last column.

21. How many students have scored more than 4 points in at least 2 electives?
(a) 4
(b) 7

(c) 2
(d) Cannot be determined
22. What is the minimum number of students who must have scored less than 2 points in at
least one elective?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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23. What is the maximum number of students who have scored more than 3 points in at
least one elective?

(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined
24. What is the minimum number of students who have scored more than 3 points in at
least one elective?
DIRECTION for the questions 25 to 28: Read the information given below and answer the
question that follows.
There are six teachers, viz., A, B, C, D, E and F in a school. Each of the teachers teaches two
subjects, one compulsory and one optional subject. D's optional subject was History while
three of the other teachers have it as their compulsory subject. E and F have Physics as one
of their subjects. F's compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional subject for
both C and E. History and English are A's subject but in terms of compulsory and optional
subjects, they are just the reverse of D's subjects. Chemistry is an optional subject for only
of them. The only female teacher in the school has English as her compulsory subject.
25. What is C's compulsory subject?
(a) History
(b) Physics

(c) Chemistry
(d) English
26. Who is the female member in the group?
(a) A
(b) B

(c) C
(d) D
27. Which of the following has the same compulsory and optional subjects as F?
(a) D
(b) B

(c) A
(d) None of these
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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28. Disregading which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the
same two subject combinations as F?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) D
DIRECTION for the questions 29 to 32: Read the information given below and answer the
question that follows.
Krishnapuram's town council has exactly three members: Arjun, Karn, and Bhim. During one
week, the council members vote on exactly three bills: a recreation bill, a school bill, and a
tax bill. Each council member votes either for or against each bill. The following is known:
- Each member of the council votes for at least one of the bills and against at least one of
the bills. - Exactly two members of the council vote for the recreation bill.
- Exactly one member of the council votes for the school bill. - Exactly one member of the
council votes for the tax bill.

- Arjun votes for the recreation bill and against the school bill
- Karn votes against the recreation bill.
- Bhim votes against the tax bill.
29. Which one of the following statements could be true?
(a) Arjun and Karn vote the same way on the tax bill.

(b) Karn and Bhim vote the same way on the recreation bill.
(c) Karn and Bhim vote the same way on the school bill.
(d) Arjun votes for one of the bills and Karn votes for two of the bills.
30. If the set of members of the council who vote against the school bill are the only ones
who also vote against the tax bill, then which one of the following statements must be true?
(a) Arjun votes for the tax bill.
(b) Karn votes for the recreation bill.

(c) Karn votes against the school bill


(d) Bhim votes against the school bill.
31. If Karn votes for exactly two of the three bills, which one of the following statements
must be true?
(a) Arjun votes for the tax bill.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(b) Karn votes for the recreation bill.
(c) Karn votes for the school bill.
(d) Bhim votes for the school bill.
32. If one of the members of the council votes against exactly the same bills as does another
member of the council, then which one of the following statements must be true?
(a) Arjun votes for the tax bill.
(b) Karn votes for the recreation bill.

(c) Karn votes against the school bill.


(d) Bhim votes for exactly one bill.
DIRECTION for the questions 33 to 36: The data given below pertains to seven different
industry sector with respect to income, expenditure, Profits. Study the data and answer the
questions that follows.

33. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(a) Depreciation expense is the lowest for food industry


(b) Power and fluel expenses are 5th largest item in the expenditure of diversified
industries.
(c) Electricity industry earns more of other income as a percentage of total income
compared to other industries.
(d) Raw material cost is the largest item of expense in all industry sectors
34. Depreciation as a percentage of total expenses is maximum in which industry sector?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(a) Chemical
(b) Diversified
(c) Electricity
(d) Machinery
35. Which industry sector has salaries and wages' as 3rd largest item in its expense?

(a) Food
(b) Services
(c) Textiles & Food
(d) Food & Machinery
36. If the industry sectors are ranked on the basis of 'Tax paid as a proportion of sales' in
the ascending order, then which industry will be placed at rank 3?
(a) Machinery

(b) Electricity
(c) Food
(d) Diversified
DIRECTION for the questions 37 to 40: Read the information given below and answer the
question that follows.
A total of 2400 candidates participate in the auditions for the WTV’s Frodies 7.5 Edition. All
the candidates come from one of the 3 mutually exclusive areas – Metros, Class A cities and
Other Cities. The number of candidates coming from Class A cities is 33% less than the
number of candidates coming from Metros. Also, 75% of the candidates come from other
cities.
The proportion of female candidates and the proportion of candidates above 25 years
among the candidates are given in the table below:
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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37. What is the percentage of candidates more than 25 years of age among candidates from
other cities?

(a) 40%
(b) 55%
(c) 67%
(d) 75%
38. Among the candidates from the Metros, 40% of the people more than 25 years of age
are male. What is the difference between the number of females more than 25 years of age
and number of males not more than 25 years of age, among candidates from the Metros?
39. What is the percentage of males among candidates from Class A Cities?
40. Among candidates from Other Cities, 50% of males are not more than 25 years of age.
Which of the following categories (among the candidates from Other Cities) will have the
highest number of candidates?

(a) Females not more than 25 years of age


(b) Males more than 25 years of age
(c) Females more than 25 years of age
(d) Males less than 25 years of age
DIRECTION for the questions 41 to 44: It was realised by Mindworkzz that for creating
awareness in the market, newspaper advertising is very effective but it should be done
consistently. The Times of India (TOI) which claims to have 40 per cent of the total market
share brings out a weekly supplement 'Education Times' in which the advertising cost for the
range 0 to 240 sq.cm for 1-2 insertions with a validity period of 30 days is 50/cm2, for 3-5
insertions with a validity period of 60 days is 43/cm2 and 6 onwards insertions with validity
period of 90 days is 40/cm2. The cost for size of advertisement 241+ cm2 for 1-2 insertions
with validity period 30 days is 50/cm2 and for 3-5 insertions with validity period 60 days is
40/cm2 and for 6 onwards insertion with validity period of 90 days is 35/cm2. The expected
response generation per insertion in TOI in the size 161-200 cm2 is 40 and in the size 200 +
cm2 is 50. Another great market player is Hindustan Times with the weekly supplement 'HT
Horizons' and it claims to have 35% of the total market share and the cost of advertising in it
for 1-2 insertions with validity period: Number of insertion + one week is 40/cm2, for 3-6
insertions with validity period: Number of insertions + 2 weeks is 37/cm2 and for 7 insertions
onwards with validity period: no. of insertions + 3 weeks is 34/cm2. The expected response
generation per insertion is 35 for 160-200 cm2 and 45 for 200+ cm2 size. Please help
Mindworkzz Careers with the correct decisions on the following plans.
41. If Mindworkzz looks to generating exactly 95 responses in 2 insertions, which newspaper
combination should be selected?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(a) TOI
(b) HT
(c) One TOI and one HT insertion
(d) Data inadequate
42. Mindworkzz has decided to advertise in TOI but is confused on length between 80 cm
and 81 cm but is sure about the width, i.e., 3 cm and 3 insertions. What should be the
length?
43. If Mindworkzz wants to go for two insertions of exactly 80 cm2, which newspaper should
be selected and what is the percentage difference in the cost differential between the
campaign cost between the two newspapers with respect to the lower priced newspaper.
(Assume that cost is the only consideration.)
(a) HT, 20%
(b) HT, 25%

(c) TOI, 20%


(d) TOI, 25%
44. If Mindworkzz decides to go in for an advertising campaign of 10 insertions, which will
be the best option (in terms of cost) for a size of 243 cm2?
(a) HT
(b) TOI
(c) either HT or TOI

(d) Data inadequate


DIRECTION for the questions 45 to 48: Gomzi has recently acquired shares of four
companies, namely Arizona (AZ), BMZ, Chae Woo (CW) and Dindli Tech (DT). The financial
results of these companies for the financial year ended 2004-05 revealed these interesting
facts. Profits of Arizona were 10% of its sales, while the profits of BMZ were 20% of its sales.
While the profits of Chae Woo and Dindli Tech were the same, the sales of Chae Woo were
the same as those of BMZ. The total expenses of Chae Woo were 400% more than its
profits, whereas, the sales of Dindli Tech were 200% more than its profits. The total
expenses of Chae Woo were 10 million and the total expenses of Chae Woo were 11.11%
more than those of Arizona.
45. Which company had the highest total expenses?
(a) AZ
(b) BMZ

(c) CW
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(d) DT
46. Which company had the highest profits?
(a) AZ
(b) BMZ
(c) CW

(d) DT
47. If in the following year, the profits of AZ were to equal CW's current profit, then, with
the increase of 12.5% in sales, what would be the profit of AZ expressed as a percentage of
sales in the following year?
(a) 16.58%
(b) 15.56%
(c) 17.78%
(d) 14.46%
48. If the profits of BMZ and DT were to be exchanged, what would be the ratio of the profit
percent (expressed as a percentage of sales) for these two companies?
DIRECTION for the questions 49 to 52: Read the following passage and solve the questions
based on it.
The Snehans Apartment Welfare Association offers three activities to its members skating,
soft ball and steam bath. To avail all these facilities the association has made separate
activity centres, one each for all the three activities. Table gives the details pertaining to the
number of different types of members, the capacity of each type of activity centre and the
time that must be invested in the individual activities (if used):

All members are divided into three categories based on their age and sex as males, females
and children. All members report at the in-time and all of them do skating first. Members
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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are entitled to use the specialties viz. skating, softball or steam bath according to the first-
come, first-served basis and the availability of space in that particular activity centre. For
example: All males (200) whose in-time is 7.30 a.m. are allowed to skate as the capacity of
the skating centre is 250. When the females report at their in-time (8.30 a.m.) there are only
50 places available in the skating centre. So, the rest of the 110 females wait till it becomes
available. The additional information is given as below:
(i) No body can use the softball activity centre without going through the skating centre. If a
member goes to the steam bath centre, he/she will have to go to the softball activity centre
as well.
(ii) When members report to a particular centre, it is known as the reporting time for that
centre; when they are allowed to enter the centre, it is known as their entry time for that
centre. The difference between the reporting time and the entry time is known as the
'waiting time' for that centre.
(iii) 50% of the males who skate at a given time also play at the softball activity centre.
Further, 50% of the males who go to the softball centre at a given time also visit the steam
bath activity centre.
(iv) 60% of the females who skate at a given time also play at the softball activity centre.
Further, 50% of the females who go to the softball activity centre at a given time also use
steam bath facility.
(v) 50% of the children who swim at a given time also play at the soft ball centre. No child
takes a steam bath.
(vi) Members are served on the first-come, first-served basis. Further, if their reporting time
at a particular centre is the same, then they are entertained on the basis of their in-time.
49. What is the number of children whose waiting time is 0, before entering the softball
activity centre?
50. What percentage of men out of the total number of men, went through all the three
centres in the minimum possible time?
(a) 2.5%
(b) 5%
(c) 7.5%

(d) 10%
51. What is the difference between the number of women who took the maximum time and
those who took the minimum time, respectively, for going through all the three centres?
(a) 2
(b) 5
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(c) 18
(d) 23
52. What is the maximum time taken by any member who went through all the three
centres?
(a) 110 minutes
(b) 130 minutes
(c) 150 minutes

(d) 170 minutes


DIRECTION for the questions 53 to 56: Answer the following questions on the basis of given
information below:
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G contested in a game show that had total prize money of
14 lakhs. Every contestant won some prize money and the highest prize money was 3.5
lakhs. No two contestant won the same amount of prize money. For every contestant the
difference with the next highest and the next lowest winner is the same.
- E won 2 lakhs
- B won more money than A
- The difference of prize money between B and A was the minimum.
- The difference of prize money between D and F was not the least.

- There was at least one person whose prize money was between that of E and G.
53. Which of the following is a proper list of persons in increasing order of prize money
won?
(a) G, C, F, B, E, D, A
(b) D, F, C, E, A, B, G
(c) F, C, D, E, A, B, G
(d) A, B, G, C, F, E, D
54. If D won more than E, and B and G together won 3.5 lakhs, which of the following MUST
be true?

(a) D won 3.5 lakhs


(b) A won 1.5 lakhs
(c) B won 1.5 lakhs
(d) C won 50,000
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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55. If the difference of prize money between A and C is the minimum, which of the following
pairs MUST NOT have won prize money that differs by the minimal amount?

(a) B and E
(b) C and G
(c) D and G
(d) A and E
56. If the total money won by A and D is equal to that of G, and the difference between E
and D is at least 1 lakh, then which of the following MUST be TRUE?

(a) A and B together won 3 lakhs


(b) B and F together won 3.5 lakhs
(c) C and E together won 3 lakhs
(d) B and C together won 3.5 lakhs
DIRECTION for the questions 57 to 60: Read the following passage and solve the questions
based on it.
An employee has been assigned the task of allotting offices to six of the staff members. The
offices are numbered from 1 to 6. The offices are arranged in a row and a 6-foot high
divider separates them from each other. Hence, voices, sounds and cigarette smoke flow
easily from one office to the other.
Ms Robert needs to use the telephone quite often throughout the day. Mr Mike and Mr
Brown need adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often while working. Ms
Hardy is a senior employee and has to be allotted the office number 5 which has the biggest
window.
Mr Donald requires silence in the offices next to his. Mr Tim, Mr Mike and Mr Donald are all
smokers. Ms Hardy is allergic to tobacco smoke and consequently the offices next to her are
to be occupied by non-smokers.
Unless specifically stated, all the employees maintain an atmosphere of silence during the
office hours.
57. Who would be the ideal candidate to occupy the office farthest from Mr Brown?
(a) Ms Hardy
(b) Mr Mike

(c) Mr Tim
(d) Mr Donald
58. The three employees who are smokers should be seated in which offices?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 6
(c) 1, 2 and 6
(d) 1, 2 and 3
59. Which would be the ideal office for Mr Mike?
60. In the event of what occurrence, within the period of one month since the assignment of
the offices, would a request for a change in office be put forth by one or more employees?

(a) Mr Donald quitting smoking


(b) The installation of a noisy machine by Ms Hardy in her office
(c) Ms Robert needing silence in the office(s) next to her own
(d) Mr Tim taking over the duties formerly taken care of by Ms Robert.
DIRECTION for the questions 61 to 64: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
Two brothers A and B are stationed at a point P on a very long road PQ. They start playing a
game with a dice. The dice is in form of a cube with integers 1 to 6 written on the six faces
of the cube with one number on each face. Each one of them throws the dice alternately
and moves forward (towards point Q) the number of steps equal to the number that
appears on the top face of the dice, if it is greater than the number appeared in the
previous throw by the same brother.
If the number appearing on the top face of the dice in a particular throw by a brother is less
than the number appearing on the top face of the dice in the previous throw by the same
brother, then that brother moves (6-number appearing on the top face of dice) steps
backwards towards point P.
If the number appearing on the top face of the dice in a particular throw by a brother is
same as that in the previous throw by the same brother, then the throw is not considered
and that brother throws the dice again till a different number appears on the top face of the
dice.
If after a throw, someone needs to take certain number of backward steps which prompts
him to go even behind P, that throw is considered as cancelled. In this case he has to throw
the dice again.
61. What can be the maximum possible distance between the two brothers after the first 4
rounds?

(a) 24 steps
(b) 18 steps
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(c) 12 steps
(d) 10 steps
62. If the number appearing on the top face of the dice in 6 consecutive throws by A are
distinct and 6 appears in the third throw, then what can be the maximum possible distance
covered by A in these 6 throws?
(a) 12 steps
(b) 14 steps
(c) 16 steps

(d) 15 steps
63. In a particular throw by B, the number that appeared on the top face of the dice was 1
and after that throw B was 14 steps ahead of A. Find the minimum possible number of
throws required such that the distance between the two brothers becomes zero.
64. If there was at least one throw which caused A to move backwards (towards P) and A
traveled 27 steps in the forward direction (towards Q), then what can be the minimum
possible number of times A threw the dice?
DIRECTION for the questions 65 to 68: Study the information given below and answer the
questions that follow.
The following chart gives the time-schedule of Magadh Express, which runs between
stations A and H (including both). The train halts at stations B, C, D, E, F and G (in that order)
as shown in the graph by the portions where the slope of line is zero. The cumulative
distances shown in the graph are in km while the time is expressed as (hours, minutes)
along the X-axis. You may assume 1 km = 0.625 mile. All stations lie on a straight-line route
and the train runs at uniform speed between any two successive halts.

65. The average speed maintained by the train is the maximum between (i) A–B (ii) E–F (iii)
G–H (iv) F–G
(a) (i) & (ii)
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(b) (iv) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (iii) & (iv)
66. The overall speed of the train (in miles per hour) between AH excluding time for
stoppages is most nearly
(a) 81.5
(b) 125

(c) 51
(d) 65
67. If the train stops at each intermediate station for 30% more time than its current halt,
then at what time (rounded off to the nearest minute) will it reach F?
(a) 16.43
(b) 17.20

(c) 14.45
(d) 12.56
68. The onward journey of the train is extended beyond H (where it does not stop and
carries on at its speed then) to city I due to a temporary problem in the track. The train
starts on its return journey immediately after reaching I and returns to A at a speed of 50
miles per hour without stopping anywhere on the route. If the train returns to A at 4:25 AM
the next day, then the distance between city G and I is most nearly

(a) 25 miles
(b) 33 miles
(c) 100 miles
(d) 75 miles
DIRECTION for the questions 69 to 72: These questions are based on the graph and the
additional information given.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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The following additional information is available

Total worldwide working population: 2.5 billion (2500 million)


Working population in low income economies: 1400 million
Working population in middle income economies: 660 million.
Working population in high income economies: 440 million.
Total unemployed population: 120 million.

Total following definitions hold true.


Poor or low income economies: Annual per capita income less than $695.
Rich or high income economies: Annual per capita income more than $8626.
69. Approximately what percentage of the middle income economies total workforce is in
services?
70. The ratio of rich economies workforce working in industry to poor economies workforce
working in services sector is closest to?
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(a) 1: 7
(b) 1: 5
(c) 1: 6
(d) 1: 4
71. Which of the following statement is/are true?

(i) Of the total workforce in services, over 50% do not come from the poor economies.
(ii) Poor economies account for nearly one third of the total unemployed workers in the
world.
(iiii) High income economies account for over 25% of the total industrial workforce.
(iv) Middle income economies account for nearly one third of the total services sector
employees in the world.
(a) All of the above
(b) (i) only

(c) (iii) and (iv)


(d) None of the above
72. Approximately what percentage of the total working population in the world earns less
than $695 per annum?
DIRECTION for the questions 73 to 76: Answer the questions on the basis of the following
information.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of
1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all
other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance,
the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price
of power went up by 3%

73. Let us suppose that one bag of cement (50 kg) consumes 100 kg of limestone and 10
units of power. The only other cost item in producing cement is in the form of wages. During
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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1993-94, limestone, power and wages contributed, respectively, 20%, 25%, and 15% to the
cement price per bag. The average operating profit (% of price per cement bag) earned by a
cement manufacturer during 2002-03 is closest to:

(a) 40%
(b) 39.5%
(c) 38.5%
(d) 37.5%
74. Steel manufacturing requires the use of iron ore, power and man power. The cost of iron
ore has followed the All Items index. During 1993-94 power accounted for 30% of the selling
price of steel, iron ore for 25%, and wages for 10% of the selling price of steel. Assuming the
cost and price data for cement as given in the previous question, the operating profit (% of
selling price) of an average steel manufacturer in 2002-03:
(a) Is more than that of a cement manufacturer.
(b) Is less than that of a cement manufacturer.
(c) Is the same as that of a cement manufacturer.

(d) can not be determined.


75. Which item experienced continuous price rise during the ten-year period?
76. Which item(s) experienced only one decline in price during the ten-year period?
(a) Steel and Limestone
(b) Steel and Timber

(c) Timber
(d) Timber and Wages
DIRECTION for the questions 77 to 80: Mr Praveen, an intelligent farmer, is facing a
dilemma. He has three enterprises in which he can invest his money — dairy, poultry and
crops. Apart from this he can either put the money in the bank or simply keep the money in
his hand. The investment in any enterprise should be in multiples of $10,000. He collected
the data about returns (revenue) from the different enterprises at different level of
investments given in the following table (Table 1). After getting all these data he is
puzzled—where should he put his money? Any money that he does not invest in an
enterprise he keeps in the bank (whose returns are defined in the table). Further, he can
invest in a single enterprise only once, i.e., if he invests $20,000 in poultry he cannot invest
$10,000 twice and his return will get limited to $27,500, and not 15,000 × 2.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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77. If Mr Praveen wants to invest $50,000 in any alternative or a combination of


alternatives, then what will be the maximum percentage return that he will be able to
generate on the amount invested?
(a) 22%
(b) 35%

(c) 30%
(d) None of these
78. What is the highest possible profit percentage that can be achieved?
79. If he has just $30,000 available to him, where should he invest the money?
(a) All in poultry
(b) $20,000 in poultry and rest in dairy
(c) $20,000 in poultry and rest in crop
(d) Equal amounts in crop, dairy and poultry
80. After which level of investment in crop, dairy and poultry taken together, bank deposit is
an equally good alternative?
(a) $80,000
(b) $90,000

(c) $110,000
(d) Never
DIRECTION for the questions 81 to 84: Read the following passage and solve the questions
based on it.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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Transparency International is UN watch-dog which gives ranks to all the member countries
of the UN in terms of the corruption level in the government machinery. There are 190
member countries of the UN since its establishment in 1945 and all of them are awarded
the ranks which are valid for a particular year. The lower the rank, the less corruption
infested the country is. And the higher the rank, the more corrupt the country is.
Table the ranks of ten countries for three consecutive years are given. A positive change
shows that the ranking has improved over the previous year and a negative change shows
that the ranking has worsened over the previous year.

Somehow the data for Australia, Kenya and Mozambique are missing from the Table. NA
indicated that the country was not in the list of the given ranks in that particular year.
81. What is the minimum value of A + B + C?
(a) 11
(b) 12

(c) 13
(d) 14
82. What is the maximum value of D + E + F?
83. What is the minimum value of D + E + F?
84. How many countries from the given countries in the table have definitely improved their
ranking consistently every year during the given period?
(a) 1
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(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined.
DIRECTION for the questions 85 to 88: These questions are based upon the following
passage. Any additional information provided with a particular question pertains to that
individual question only. The placement office of a management school has to schedule
seven companies denoted by P to V for the placement week (the week starts on a Sunday)
but not necessarily in that order. This group of seven companies is divided into three
categories, namely, finance, manufacturing and sales. The number of companies in these
three categories are three, two and two respectively. The placement schedule is such that
the same category companies have to be scheduled consecutively. It has also been decided
that:
1. Company S, a manufacturing company, cannot be scheduled on the sixth day of the week.
2. Companies Q and U are scheduled consecutively but not necessarily in that order.
3. Company T can be scheduled on any day of the week except on Saturday.
4. Company R, which is a similar category company as Q and U, has to be scheduled on the
third day of the week.
85. Find the total number of schedules, the placement office can have.
86. If P is scheduled on Wednesday, which of the following has to be TRUE?
(a) U has to be scheduled on Thursday

(b) V has to be scheduled either on Friday or Saturday


(c) T has to be scheduled on either Thursday or Friday
(d) S is always scheduled on some day of the week before Q is scheduled
87. If S is scheduled on Monday, which one of the following options is definitely FALSE?
(a) P and T are sales companies

(b) The maximum number of days in between the schedules of T and U is three
(c) R is always scheduled before Q
(d) The number of schedules when P is slotted on Sunday is three
88. If T is a sales company and S is scheduled on Saturday, which of the following schedules
are possible? (i) U-Q-R-T-P-V-S (ii) P-T-R-U-Q-V-S (iii) T-V-R-Q-U-P-S (iv) Q-U-R-P-V-T-S
(a) (i)-(iii)-(iv)
(b) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)
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(c) (i)-(ii)-(iv)
(d) (i)-(ii)-(iii)
DIRECTION for the questions 89 to 92: Read the following passage and solve the questions
based on it. K. C. Das is preparing special for the sweet packages Puja. Different sweet
packages are numbered 1 through 5 from left to right, and K. C. Das fills them with different
sweets. Each package will contain at least one, but not more than two of the following types
of sweets: Gulabjamun, Kaju Barfi, Petha, Rasgulla, Sohan Halwa and Cham Cham. Each type
of sweet will be placed in at least one sweet package. These sweets will be packed either in
a bucket, a carton or a tin. K.C. Das fills the package according to the following conditions:
(i) At least two packages must contain Rasgulla.
(ii) Exactly two packages must contain Kaju Barfi, and these packages cannot be adjacent to
each other.
(iii) Both packages that contain Kaju Barfimust be to the left of any package that contains
Gulabjamun.
(iv) Package 2, 3 and 4 cannot contain Sohan Halwa
(v) Any package that contains Rasgulla must be packed in a carton.
(vi) Any package that contains Kaju Barfimust be packed in a bucket.
(vii) Package 2 is packed in a carton.

89. Which one of the following cannot be true?


(a) Package 1 is packed in a tin
(b) Package 2 contains Cham Cham
(c) Package 3 is packed in a tin
(d) Package 4 contains Kaju Barfi
90. If a package containing sweets packed in a tin is not adjacent to a package packed in a
bucket, then which one of the following must be true?

(a) Package 1 contains Petha


(b) Package 4 contains Kaju Barfi
(c) Package 4 contain Rasgulla
(d) Package 5 contains Gulabjamun
91. If Rasgullas are contained in the maximum number of packages, which one of the
following must be true?
(a) Package 3 is packed in a bucket.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(b) Package 4 is packed in a bucket.
(c) A package containing Sohan Halwa is packed in a bucket.
(d) A package containing Gulabjamun is packed in a carton.
92. If package 4 contains Petha and Cham Cham, which one of the following pairs of sweets
must be contained in the same package?
(a) Kaju Barfiand Sohan Halwa
(b) Gulabjamun and Petha

(c) Rasgulla and Cham Cham


(d) Gulabjamun and Sohan Halwa
DIRECTION for the questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
On a particular Sunday, Shradha was very confused. She had to design the time table for the
next week at Academy for Competitive Exams (ACE), but the task seemed difficult. There
were 6 batches at ACE and each batch had to be provided with 3 classes every week from
Monday to Saturday. For all days, classes could be conducted in two slots of 2 hours each,
from 3 pm to 5 pm and 5 pm to 7 pm. Only on Friday, an additional slot of 1 pm to 3 pm was
available for conducting the classes. The table below shows the partial time table that
Shradha has managed to design. In the table as well as in the following text 'PDP' stands for
Personality Development Programme, 'Quant' stands for Quantitative Ability and 'Eng'
stands for English.

The complete time table has to be designed keeping the following additional constraints in
mind:
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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1. There are 3 faculty at ACE – Shams who handles English classes, Wali who handles PDP
classes and Anand who takes care of Quant classes.

2. Every batch is provided with one class each of Quant, English and PDP in a week.
3. All classes of Batch PEX 06 must be conducted in the 5 pm –7 pm time slot.
4. All the classes of Batch PEX 03 must be conducted in the 3 pm – 5pm time slot except on
Friday when it can be conducted in the 1 pm – 3 pm time slot too.
5. A maximum of 2 classes can be conducted in a particular time slot due to non-availability
of space except for Monday in the 3 pm–5pm time slot and on Saturday in the 5 pm–7pm
time slot, when all the 3 faculty can take classes.
6. There should be a gap of at least 1 day between any 2 classes for a batch. For example, if
a batch has a class on Monday, it cannot have a class again on Tuesday.
7. A faculty cannot take classes on the same time slot on 2 consecutive days. (For example if
a faculty has taken in a class in the 3 pm–5pm time slot on Monday, the same faculty cannot
take a class in the 3 pm – 5 pm time slot on the next day).
8. Since Wali finishes his other assignments late on Wednesday, PDP classes will not be
conducted on Wednesday.
9. Shradha has decided to allot the 1 pm–3 pm time slot on Friday to the PEX 03 batch to
accommodate her friends.
93. The PDP Class of Batch PEX 06 can be held on which day?
94. If a faculty has classes on 3 consecutive days, it is called a 'Hat-trick'. Which faculty will
score a 'Hat-trick'?
(a) Anand
(b) Shams
(c) Anand and Shams
(d) Anand and Wali
95. The English class of Batch PEX 04 can be held on
(a) Tuesday (any time slot)

(b) Thursday (5 pm - 7 pm)


(c) Saturday (3 pm - 5 pm)
(d) Thursday (any time slot)
96. Efficiency Ratio of a faculty is defined as follows:
Efficiency Ratio
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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Which one of the following is the correct order of the faculty, if they are arranged in
ascending order of their Efficiency Ratio?
(a) Wali, Shams, Anand
(b) Shams, Anand, Wali
(c) Shams, Wali, Anand
(d) Anand, Wali, Shams
DIRECTION for the questions 97 to 100: Read the following passage and solve the questions
based on it.
The following graph shows the variation in the variable and fixed cost of production of a TV.
The fixed cost remains fixed in that particular slab and the variable cost varies according to
the units produced. It can be seen that the fixed cost remains fixed for the first 300 units,
then for the next 500 units and then, for any higher level of units produced. The total
production cost is equivalent to the sum of the variable and the fixed cost. It is to be
assumed that there is no other cost involved in producing the TVs.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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97. For production levels of less than 1500 units, the variation of the average cost of
production per unit has the following relationship with the volume of production:
(a) Decreases uniformly

(b) Increases uniformly


(c) Decreases, then increases and then increases again
(d) None of these
98. The highest production cost per unit will be observed at the following level of
production:
(a) 0 – 100
(b) 300 – 400

(c) 800 – 900


(d) 1400 – 1500
99. What should be the selling price per unit (in Rs) to achieve a break-even if the total
number of units produced is 1000?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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100. What is the approximate additional cost for producing a TV after 920 units have been
produced?

(a) 4000
(b) 5000
(c) 6000
(d) 7500
DIRECTION for the questions 101 to 104: Study the table to answer these questions.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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All countries that have reported more than five hundred cancer cases to the WHO in 2007
are listed here. The left column gives the total number of cases reported by each country for
2006, the middle column gives the 2006 rate (cancer cases per 10000 population) and the
last column shows the number of cases reported in early 2007. Most of the 2007 reports
were for only the first quarter of the year. Owing to reporting delays of six months or more,
cases reported in 2007 actually were diagnosed in 2006.
101. What is the population of AD on the basis of the reported cases of cancer in 2006 (in
thousands)?
(a) 825000
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(b) 812500
(c) 810000
(d) None of the above
102. Which country has reported the second highest number of cancer cases to WHO during
2006?
103. The countries which have reported less than 2000 cases both in 2006 and early 2007
are
(a) M, J and P

(b) V, AJ and W
(c) W, M and T
(d) M, T and AJ
104. Which of the following are true from the table?
I. The reported cancer cases of M, W and AJ as compared to their population are negligible.

II. The 2006 rate is highest for P though the reported cases are only 4700.
III. The population of R is 664000 in 2006.
IV. P reported more than 20000 cases of cancer in early 2007.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III

(c) I and II
(d) I, II and IV
DIRECTION for the questions 105 to 108: Answer these questions based on the table below:
The table show trends in external transactions of Indian corporate sector during the period
1993-94 to 1997-98. In addition, the following definitions hold good: Sales, Imports and
Exports, respectively denote the sales, imports and exports in year i.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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105. The highest growth rate in deficit intensity was recorded in:
(a) 1994-95

(b) 1995-96
(c) 1996-97
(d) 1997-98
106. The value of the highest growth rate in deficit intensity is approximately:
(a) 8.45%

(b) 2.15%
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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(c) 33.3%
(d) 23.5%
107. In 1997-98 the total cost of raw materials is estimated as 50 per cent of sales of that
year. The turnover of gross fixed assets, defined as the ratio of sales to gross fixed assets, in
1997-98 is, approximately
(a) 33
(b) 4.3
(c) 0.33

(d) Not possible to determine


108. Which of the following statements can be inferred to be true from the given data?
(a) During the five year period between 1993-94 and 1997- 98, exports have increased every
year.
(b) During the five year period between 1993-94 and 1997- 98, imports have decreased
every year.
(c) Deficit in 1997-98 was lower than that in 1993-94.
(d) Deficit intensity has increased every year between 1993-94 and 1996-97.
DIRECTION for the questions 109 to 112: There are 16 boxes in a grid. Each of the 16 boxes
has a number as shown below. The value of the box is the number on the box.

Four friends Amar, Biren, Chandan and Deepak are playing a game, where the objective is to
make the maximum addition of the boxes. Each person has exactly 4 boxes with him at all
points of time.
1. Amar did not own any of the boxes in the A-row.
2. Biren's highest number is A-3.

3. B-2 & C-1 belong to someone other than Chandan.


4. Chandan doesn't own any of the boxes in the 1-column.
5. In the last round of the game, Amar traded B-4 for B-1.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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6. D-2, A-2 and D-3 all belong to the same player.
7. C-1, B-3 and 4-D all belong to the same player.
8. Deepak's score was 8 higher than Biren's who has three boxes in the A row.
9. Amar has just one box in the B-row, which is B-1.
Based on the information above answer the questions which follow:

109. Who has the lowest total?


(a) Amar
(b) Biren
(c) Chandan
(d) Deepak

110. To whom does C-4 belong at the end of the game?


111. What is the difference between the total of Deepak and Chandan?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 14

(d) 18
112. Who has the highest total at the end of the game?
DIRECTION for the questions 113 to 116: Read the following passage and solve the
questions based on it.
King Amitabh of Bollysteel organized initials to decide the groom for his daughter in two
steps—The preliminary stage and the final stage. The preliminary stage comprised of a
written test whereas in the final stage there was an archery competition. The archery
competition consistent of five rounds wherein the contestants could score from 2 to 9
points in each round. The prince who scored the maximum points in these five rounds
would be considered the winner in the overall standing and would marry the princess.
When the results of the preliminary stage were announced, it was found that only five
princess—Shikari, Bhikhari, Atyachari, Juari and Hazari, qualified the preliminary stage and
hence these were the only contestants left to complete in the final stage.
During the final stage, however, the inilats who was tabulating the scores of the princes
started taking sporadic short naps and so at the end, when King Amitabh asked for the
scorecard to find out the final winner, he was presented data as shown in Table.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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However, the initials has made the following observations too:


(i) No two princes had scored equally in any round.
(ii) The difference between the total points socred by Prince Shikari and Prince Juari was 6
points.
(iii) Prince Bhikhari's total points were always greater than that of Prince Atyachari's total
points.
(iv) Prince Shikari scored an even number of points both in the 2nd and the 4th rounds.

(v) Each of the five princes scored greater than or equal to 24 points in the five rounds.
(vi) There was tie between any two princes in their overall points.
113. Prince Juari won the competition and married the Princess. Also, Prince Bhikhari
scored 28 points from the five rounds. Then which of the following could be false?
(a) Prince Atyachari scores more points than Prince Hazari in round 4
(b) Prince Shikari scores more points than Prince Hazari in round 2
(c) Prince Bhikhari scores more points than Prince Hazari in round 1

(d) Prince Juari scores more than Prince Shikari in round 3


114. If Prince Juari scores 5 points in the 3rd round and Prince Atyachari scores 4 points in
the 5th round, then which of the following will definitely be false?
(a) Prince Shikari is 1st in the overall standing
(b) Prince Hazari is 2nd in the overall standing
(c) Prince Atyachari is 3rd in the overall standing
(d) Prince Juari is 4th in the overall standing
115. If Prince Hazari scores 2 points in the 3rd round. Then, which of the following
statements is sufficient to decide the winner?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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I. Prince Atyachari scores the maximum possible points in the 5th round.
II. Prince Juari scores the maximum possible points in the 3rd round.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II

(d) Even I and II together are not sufficient to decide the winner
116. If Prince Atyachari scores 5 points in the 5th Round but Prince Hazari becomes the
winner with the least possible total points, then what is the least possible points scored by
Prince Hazari in the 3rd round?
DIRECTION for the questions 117 to 120: Study the information below and answer
questions based on it.
Five experts on Nino-technology involved in an international Research Project hold a
Quarterly Review Meeting in Singapore. There are certain limitations on their language
skills. Expert R1 knows only Japanese and Hindi; R2 is good at Japanese and English; R3 is
good at English and Hindi; R4 knows French and Japanese quite well, and R5, an Indian,
knows Hindi, English, and French.
117. Besides R5, which of the following can converse with R4 without an interpreter?

(a) Only R1
(b) Only R2
(c) Only R3
(d) Both R1 and R2
118. Which of the following cannot converse without an interpreter?

(a) R2 and R5
(b) R1 and R2
(c) R1 and R3
(d) R3 and R4
119. Which of the following can act as an interpreter when R3 and R4 wish to discuss?

(a) Only R1
(b) Only R2
(c) Only R5
(d) All of the above
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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120. Suppose a sixth Expert R6 joins the session. Which are the languages that he should
know so that a maximum number of original experts are able to understand him?
DIRECTION for the questions 121 to 124: Answer the questions on the basis of the following
information.
Seven faculty members at a management institute frequent a lounge for strong coffee and
stimulating conversation. On being asked about their visit to the lounge last Friday, we got
the following responses.
JC - I came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When I left the
lounge, JP and VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me.
JP - When I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting there. There was someone else, but I
cannot remember who it was.
SM - I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC, SS and DG in the lounge on that day.
SS - I left immediately after SM left. DG - I met JC, SS, SM, JP and VR during my first visit to
the lounge. I went back to my office with JC. When I went to the lounge the second time, JP
and VR were there. PK - I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but
just collected my coffee and left. JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while I was
there. VR - No comments.
121. Based on the responses, which of the two JP or DG, entered the lounge first?

122. Who was sitting with JC when JP entered the lounge?


(a) SS
(b) SM
(c) DG
(d) PK

123. How many of the seven members did VR meet on Friday in the lounge?
124. Who were the last two faculty members to leave the lounge?
(a) JC and DG
(b) PK and DG
(c) JP and PK

(d) JP and DG
DIRECTION for the questions 125 to 128: Read the following passage and solve the
questions based on it.
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G contested in a game show that had a total prize money
of 14 lakhs. Every contestant won some prize money and the highest prize money was 3.5
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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lakhs. No two contestants won the same amount of prize money. For every person the
difference with the next highest and the next lowest contestant was the same.

(i) E won 2 lakhs.


(ii) B won more money than A.
(iii) The difference in prize money between B and A was the least.
(iv) The difference in prize money between D and F was not the least.
(v) There was at least one person whose prize money was between that of E and G.
125. Which of the following is a proper list of persons in an increasing order of prize money
won?
(a) G, C, F, B, E, D, A
(b) D, F, C, E, A, B, G
(c) F, C, D, E, A, B, G
(d) A, B, G, C, F, E, D
126. If D won more than E, and B and G together won 3.5 lakhs, which of the following must
be true?

(a) D won 3.5 lakhs


(b) A won 1.5 lakhs
(c) B won 1.5 lakhs
(d) C won 50,000
127. If the difference in prize money between A and C is the least; which of the following
pairs must not have won prize money that differs by the minimal amount?
(a) B and E

(b) C and G
(c) D and G
(d) A and E
128. If the total money won by A and D is equal to that of G and the difference between E
and D is at least 1 lakh, then which of the following must be True?
(a) A and B together won 3 lakhs

(b) B and F together won 3.5 lakhs


(c) C and E together won 3 lakhs
(d) B and C together won 3.5 lakhs.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
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DIRECTION for the questions 129 to 132: Go through the chart given below and solve the
questions based on it.

In the game of cricket, there are 11 batsmen who bat during the match of 50 overs.
The first two batsmen come to bat first and when any one of the two gets out, next batsman
come to bat along with the one of the two batsmen left out. And so on, the next batsman
comes to bat – in a fixed sequence for all the three matches. Only one batsman can get out
for one ball. One over comprises of 6 balls which is to be thrown one by one. Though if all
the batsmen get out before scheduled 50 overs then the match ends at the point (known as
Overs Actually Played).
The following bart chart shows total scheduled overs and overs actually played for first
match (denoted by 1), second match (denoted by 2) and third match (denoted by 3).
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
9974227383

129. In which of the matches, the Indian team's average runs per over is maximum?
(a) First match

(b) Second match


(c) Third match
(d) either first or second match
130. What would have the total runs scored in the third match if the Indian team would
have played 50 overs with the same average which it maintained till the overs actually
played?
(a) 180
(b) 190

(c) 200
(d) 170
131. Mr. Phani Ram, the team selector, has made the following observations to improve the
performance of the team:
(i) Performance of first five players have improved, whereas performance of last six players
have gone down.
(ii) Had there been no extra runs, runs in second match would have decreased by maximum
percentage.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
9974227383
(iii) If the team would have played for full 50 overs, it would have scored maximum in first
match. How many of these observations are true?

(a) Only (i) and (ii) but not (iii)


(b) Only (ii) and (iii) but not (i)
(c) Only (i) and (iii) but not (ii)
(d) All three
132. If extra runs are not considered, which match has the lowest average runs per over?

(a) First match


(b) Second match
(c) Third match
(d) Either second or third match
DIRECTION for the questions 133 to 136: Go through the passage given below and solve the
questions based on it.
Five Cricket coaches B, D, J, L and W were being judged for the award of best coach of the
year. The selection committee ranked them on five different parameters viz., Empathy,
Vision, Focus, Creativity, and Intuitions. The five coaches were given points on these five
parameters. The best coach gets 5 points and the worst coach gets 1 point. There are no
ties. The coach with highest total gets the award of best coach. B gets the award by scoring
24 points. W gets 5 points in Creativity and 3 points in Intuitions. J got same score in four of
the given five parameters. Their final standings were in alphabetical order of their names.
133. What is the overall score of J?
134. What is the rank of D in Creativity?
(a) 1st

(b) 2nd
(c) 5th
(d) Indeterminable
135. What are the points scored by J in Intuition?
(a) 1

(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) Indeterminable
136. If L scored his highest points in Empathy then what is the score of D in Vision?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
9974227383
DIRECTION for the questions 137 to 140: Refer to the Bar chart. The following additional
information is available:

Total worldwide working population: 2.5 billion (2500 million)


Working population in low income economies: 1400 million
Working population in middle income economies: 660 million
Working population in high income economies: 440 million
Total unemployed population: 120 million

The following definitions hold true:


Poor or low income economies: Annual per capita income less than $695
Rich or high income economies: Annual per capita income more than $626
137. Approximately what percentage of the poor economies total workforce is in
agriculture?
(a) 43%
(b) 52%

(c) 61%
(d) 78%
138. Approximately what percentage of the middle income economies that workforce is in
services?
(a) 23%
(b) 38%

(c) 49%
(d) 62%
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
9974227383
139. Which of the following statements is/are not true?
(i) Of the total workforce in services, over 50% do not come from the poor economies
(ii) Poor economies account for nearly one-third of the total unemployed workers in the
world
(iii) High income economies account for over 25% of the total industrial work force
(iv) Middle income economies account for nearly one-third of the total services sector
employees in the world.
(a) All of the above

(b) (iii) only


(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) None of these
140. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Unemployed workforce account for approximately 7% of the world's total working
population
(b) For both high and midle income economies, the services sector is the highest provider of
employment
(c) Low income economies contribute a higher proportion of the total workforce engaged in
the services sector than either the high or the middle income economies, yet the services
sector is not the biggest provider of jobs in the low income economies.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
DIRECTION for the questions 141 to 144: Answer the questions based on the following
information.
The given chart shows the worldwide revenues in the consulting sector over a certain
period. The consulting sector comprises of 4 mutually exclusive and exhaustive categories:
Operations Consultancy, Strategic Consultancy, General Consultancy and Other Consultancy.
The percentage break-up of category-wise revenues are shown in the table given below.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
9974227383

141. In how many years during the given period did the consultancy revenues from more
than one categories witness a decrease?
142. The minimum percentage increase in revenues from Operations Consultancy took place
in
(a) 2014 over 2013
(b) 2013 over 2012
(c) 2012 over 2011

(d) 2010 over 2009


143. For how many of the consultancy categories did the revenue in a year decrease
(relative to previous year’s revenue) in more than one year during the given period?
144. Between 2009 and 2014, the minimum percentage increase in revenue was observed
for which category?
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
9974227383
(a) Operations Consultancy
(b) Strategic Consultancy
(c) General Consultancy
(d) Other Consultancy
DIRECTION for the questions 145 to 148: Read the following passage and solve the
questions based on it.
(i) There are six picture cards—A, B, C, D, E and F, each bearing the picture of a king, a priest,
a queen, a palace, a joker and a prince. These are printed in six different coloured inks—
blue, red, green, grey, yellow and black and are arranged from left to right (not necessarily
in the same order and colour).
(ii) The picture of the palace was in blue colour but it was not printed on card D.
(iii) Car A, which had the queen's picture printed in black ink, was at the extreme right.
(iv) The picture of the priest was neither on card D nor on card E and was not printed in
either green or yellow coloured ink. Card C had a picture of the king on it in grey coloured
ink. It was fifth from the right and next to card B which had the picture of the prince.
145. If the priest's card is between the cards of the palace and the prince, then at what
number from the left is the joker's card placed?
146. Which of the following combinations of card and colour is true for the picture of the
priest?
(a) E—yellow
(b) F—red
(c) B—green
(d) Data inadequate

147. In which colour was the picture of the joker printed?


(a) Yellow
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Data inadequate

148. The picture of the palace was printed on which of the following cards?
DIRECTION for the questions 149 to 152: Read the following passage below and solve the
questions based on it.
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
9974227383
There are five identical looking boxes containing different objects in each of them and every
box has a label indicating its contents. The following is the correct description of the
contents and the label of each box:

Somebody has mischievously interchanged these labels in such a way that no box carries the
label describing its contents correctly.
149. The first box which was opened contained the label PP and the second box opened
contained the label PC. It is also known that out of the four items in the two boxes, one item
was definitely a ball. Then which of the following has to be true?
(a) Other three items will not contain two balls
(b) Other three items will not contain any clip
(c) Other three items will contain at least one clip
(d) None of these
150. Box PP contained two clips, box CC contained two pins and the box BB contained one
ball. Then which of the following will definitely be false?

(a) The box BC contains one pin and one clip


(b) The box BB contains one ball and one clip
(c) The box BC contains two balls
(d) The box PC contains two balls
151. If the first box containing the label BC was opened and it was found that one item is a
ball, then which of the following is definitely true?
(a) The other item may be either a ball or a clip

(b) The other box with the BB label contains one ball and one clip
(c) The other item will not be a ball
(d) The other item will also be ball
BY CATguruji(Vinay Sir)
9974227383
152. If the information is available that the box PC does not contain either any pin or any
clip, box PP does not contain any pin and box and CC contains one clip and one ball. Which
of the following will definitely be true if only one of the remaining boxes in opened?

(a) The box will have one pin and one clip
(b) The box will have at least one clip
(c) The box will have at least one pin
(d) None of these

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