Respiratory System

Nos. Marks
Correct
Wrong
Not Attempts
Total Marks
1. Nurse Maureen has assisted a physician with the insertion of a chest tube. The nurse monitors the client and
notes fluctuation of the fluid level in the water seal chamber after the tube is inserted. Based on this assessment,
which action would be appropriate?
a) Inform the physician
b) Continue to monitor the client
c) Reinforce the occlusive dressing
d) Encourage the client to deep-breathe
2. A male client suffers adult respiratory distress syndrome as a consequence of shock. The client’s condition
deteriorates rapidly, and endotracheal (ET) intubation and mechanical ventilation are initiated. When the high-
pressure alarm on the mechanical ventilator sounds, the nurse starts to check for the cause. Which condition
triggers the high-pressure alarm?
a) Kinking of the ventilator tubing
b) disconnected ventilator tube
c) An ET cuff leak
d) change in the oxygen concentration without resetting the oxygen level alarm
3. After undergoing a left pneumonectomy, a female patient has a chest tube in place for drainage. When caring
for this patient, the nurse must:
a) Monitor fluctuations in the water-seal chamber
b) Clamp the chest tube once every shift
c) Encourage coughing and deep breathing
d) Milk the chest tube every 2 hours
4. A nurse is caring for a male client with acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following would the
nurse expect to note in the client?
a) Pallor
b) Low arterial PaO2
c) Elevated arterial PaO2
d) Decreased respiratory rate
5. The nurse is teaching a male client with chronic bronchitis about breathing exercises. Which of the following
should the nurse include in the teaching?
a) Make inhalation longer than exhalation
b) Exhale through an open mouth
c) Use diaphragmatic breathing
d) Use chest breathing
6. On auscultation, which finding suggests a right pneumothorax?
a) Bilateral inspiratory and expiratory crackles
b) Absence of breaths sound in the right thorax
c) Inspiratory wheezes in the right thorax
d) Bilateral pleural friction rub
7. A male client is asking the nurse a question regarding the Mantoux test for tuberculosis. The nurse should
base her response on the fact that the:
a) Area of redness is measured in 3 days and determines whether tuberculosis is present.
b) Skin test doesn’t differentiate between active and dormant tuberculosis infection.
c) Presence of a wheal at the injection site in 2 days indicates active tuberculosis.
d) Test stimulates a reddened response in some clients and requires a second test in 3 months.

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8. For a female patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which nursing intervention would help
maintain a patent airway?
a) Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 ml per day
b) Enforcing absolute bed rest
c) Teaching the patient how to perform controlled coughing
d) Administering prescribe sedatives regularly and in large amounts
9. Nurse Reynolds caring for a client with a chest tube turns the client to the side, and the chest tube accidentally
disconnects. The initial nursing action is to:
a) Call the physician
b) Place the tube in bottle of sterile water
c) Immediately replace the chest tube system
d) Place a sterile dressing over the disconnection site
10. The nurse in charge formulates a nursing diagnosis of Activity intolerance related to inadequate oxygenation
and dyspnea for a client with chronic bronchitis. To minimize this problem, the nurse instructs the client to
avoid conditions that increase oxygen demands. Such conditions include:
a) Drinking more than 1,500 ml of fluid daily
b) Being overweight
c) Eating a high-protein snack at bedtime
d) Eating more than three large meals a day
11. An emergency room nurse is assessing a male client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which
of these signs would indicate the presence of a pneumothorax in this client?
a) A low respiratory rate
b) Diminished breath sounds
c) The presence of a barrel chest
d) A sucking sound at the site of injury
12. A nurse performs an admission assessment on a female client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse
reviews the result of which diagnosis test that will confirm this diagnosis?
a) Bronchoscopy
b) Sputum culture
c) Chest x-ray
d) Tuberculin skin test
13. A male client with pneumococcal pneumonia is admitted to an acute care facility. The client in the next room
is being treated for mycoplasmal pneumonia. Despite the different causes of the various types of pneumonia,
all of them share which feature?
a) Inflamed lung tissue
b) Sudden onset
c) Responsiveness to penicillin
d) Elevated white blood cell (WBC) count
14. A nurse instructs a female client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing and the client asks the nurse about
the purpose of this type of breathing. The nurse responds, knowing that the primary purpose of pursed-lip
breathing is to:
a) Promote oxygen intake
b) Strengthen the diaphragm
c) Strengthen the intercostal muscles
d) Promote carbon dioxide elimination
15. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a male client via a tracheostomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit
the suctioning time to a maximum of:
a) 1 minute
b) 5 seconds
c) 10 seconds
d) 30 seconds

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16. Nurse Lei caring for a client with a pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube inserted notes continues
gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. What action is appropriate?
a) Do nothing, because this is an expected finding
b) Immediately clamp the chest tube and notify the physician
c) Check for an air leak because the bubbling should be intermittent
d) Increase the suction pressure so that the bubbling becomes vigorous
17. While changing the tapes on a tracheostomy tube, the male client coughs and tube is dislodged. The initial
nursing action is to:
a) Call the physician to reinsert the tube
b) Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening
c) Call the respiratory therapy department to reinsert the tracheotomy
d) Cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile dressing to prevent infection
18. A male adult client is suspected of having a pulmonary embolus. A nurse assesses the client, knowing that
which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism?
a) Dyspnea
b) Bradypnea
c) Bradycardia
d) Decreased respirations
19. A nurse is caring for a male client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen. The nurse assesses the oxygen
flow rate to ensure that it does not exceed:
a) 1 L/min
b) 2 L/min
c) 6 L/min
d) 10 L/min
20. Nurse Oliver is caring for a client immediately after removal of the endotracheal tube. The nurse reports
which of the following signs immediately if experienced by the client?
a) Stridor
b) Occasional pink-tinged sputum
c) A few basilar lung crackles on the right
d) Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min
21. A male patient has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first?
a) Drawing blood for a hematocrit and hemoglobin level
b) Applying a dressing over the wound and taping it on three sides
c) Preparing a chest tube insertion tray
d) Preparing to start an I.V. line
22. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar
ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?
a) PH, 5.0; PaCO2 30 mm Hg
b) PH, 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg
c) PH, 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg
d) PH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg
23. An oxygen delivery system is prescribed for a male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to
deliver a precise oxygen concentration. Which of the following types of oxygen delivery systems would the
nurse anticipate to be prescribed?
a) Face tent
b) Venturi mask
c) Aerosol mask
d) Tracheostomy collar
24. A male patient’s X-ray result reveals bilateral white-outs, indicating adult respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS). This syndrome results from:
a) Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

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 b) Respiratory alkalosis
c) Increased pulmonary capillary permeability
d) Renal failure
25. A black client with asthma seeks emergency care for acute respiratory distress. Because of this client’s dark
skin, the nurse should assess for cyanosis by inspecting the:
a) Lips
b) Mucous membranes
c) Nail beds
d) Earlobes
26. Nurse Ruth assessing a patient for tracheal displacement should know that the trachea will deviate toward the:
a) Contralateral side in a simple pneumothorax
b) Affected side in a hemothorax
c) Affected side in a tension pneumothorax
d) Contralateral side in hemothorax
27. A male patient is admitted to the health care facility for treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Which nursing diagnosis is most important for this patient?
a) Activity intolerance related to fatigue
b) Anxiety related to actual threat to health status
c) Risk for infection related to retained secretions
d) Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction
28. A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and has an arterial oxygen saturation
of 88%. Which mode of oxygen delivery would most likely reverse the manifestations?
a) Simple mask
b) Non-rebreather mask
c) Face tent
d) Nasal cannula
29. Nurse Oliver observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a closed chest drainage system. What
should the nurse conclude?
a) The system is functioning normally
b) The client has a pneumothorax
c) The system has an air leak
d) The chest tube is obstructed
30. A male client admitted to an acute care facility with pneumonia is receiving supplemental oxygen, 2 L/minute
via nasal cannula. The client’s history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary
artery disease. Because of these history findings, the nurse closely monitors the oxygen flow and the client’s
respiratory status. Which complication may arise if the client receives a high oxygen concentration?
a) Apnea
b) Anginal pain
c) Respiratory alkalosis
d) Metabolic acidosis
31. A male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is recovering from a myocardial infarction.
Because the client is extremely weak and can’t produce an effective cough, the nurse should monitor closely
for:
a) Pleural effusion
b) Pulmonary edema
c) Atelectasis
d) Oxygen toxicity
32. The nurse in charge is teaching a client with emphysema how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The client asks
the nurse to explain the purpose of this breathing technique. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
a) It helps prevent early airway collapse
b) It increases inspiratory muscle strength
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 c) It decreases use of accessory breathing muscles
d) It prolongs the inspiratory phase of respiration
33. A nurse is assisting a physician with the removal of a chest tube. The nurse should instruct the client to:
a) Exhale slowly
b) Stay very still
c) Inhale and exhale quickly
d) Perform the Valsalva maneuver
34. A nurse is preparing to obtain a sputum specimen from a male client. Which of the following nursing actions
will facilitate obtaining the specimen?
a) Limiting fluid
b) Having the client take deep breaths
c) Asking the client to spit into the collection container
d) Asking the client to obtain the specimen after eating
35. For a patient with advance chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best
promotes adequate gas exchange?
a) Encouraging the patient to drink three glasses of fluid daily
b) Keeping the patient in semi-fowler’s position
c) Using a high-flow venturi mask to deliver oxygen as prescribe
d) Administering a sedative, as prescribe
36. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a female client through an endotracheal tube. During the suctioning
procedure, the nurse notes on the monitor that the heart rate is decreasing. Which if the following is the
appropriate nursing intervention?
a) Continue to suction
b) Notify the physician immediately
c) Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client
d) Ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds
37. For a male client with an endotracheal (ET) tube, which nursing action is most essential?
a) Auscultating the lungs for bilateral breath sounds
b) Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours
c) Monitoring serial blood gas values every 4 hours
d) Providing frequent oral hygiene
38. Blessy, a community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding
tuberculosis. The nurse tells the group that one of the first symptoms associated with tuberculosis is:
a) Dyspnea
b) Chest pain
c) A bloody, productive cough
d) A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum
39. The nurse assesses a male client’s respiratory status. Which observation indicates that the client is
experiencing difficulty breathing?
a) Diaphragmatic breathing
b) Use of accessory muscles
c) Pursed-lip breathing
d) Controlled breathing
40. A female client must take streptomycin for tuberculosis. Before therapy begins, the nurse should instruct the
client to notify the physician if which health concern occurs?
a) Impaired color discrimination
b) Increased urinary frequency
c) Decreased hearing acuity
d) Increased appetite
41. Which is the highest priority teaching need for a client with sinusitis?
a) Use cold packs over the sinus area.
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 b) Increase his fluid intake to more than 10 glasses of fluid daily.
c) Avoid using nasal saline irrigations because of the risk of spreading the infection.
d) Keep the room air dehumidified to dry out the nasal sinuses.
42. Which should be the priority intervention of a teaching plan to instruct a client about the proper use of an
incentive spirometer?
a) Instruct the client to exhale, put the mouthpiece in place, and take a breath for 5 to 10 seconds.
b) Instruct the client to inhale with the mouthpiece in place, and then exhale for 5 seconds.
c) Teach the client to exhale, put the mouthpiece in place, and take a breath for 20 seconds.
d) Instruct the client to inhale, put the mouthpiece in place, and then cough briskly.
43. Which statement indicates that the nurse understands the spread of severe acute respiratory syndrome
(SARS)?
a) "I will use gloves as my primary protection when I am in contact with the client."
b) "I will use blood and body fluid precautions when I am in contact with the client."
c) "I will use airborne and contact precautions when I am in contact with the client."
d) "I will use a nonpermeable gown as my primary protection when I work with the client."
44. Which statement is correct about the care of a client with avian influenza?
a) "The client will be placed on standard antibiotic agents, antiviral drugs, and contact isolation."
b) "The client will be placed on airborne and contact isolation and will receive oxygen."
c) "The client will be placed on oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza) to reduce complications of
his infection."
d) "The client's family members should be tested for evidence of the infectious process."
45. The nurse is instructing a group of new nurses on the ventilator bundle approach to the prevention of
ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). What intervention is emphasized in this approach?
a) Keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 90 degrees.
b) Change the ventilator circuit every 8-hour shift.
c) Perform meticulous oral care at least every 24 hours.
d) Continuously remove subglottic secretions.
46. The client has a recurrence of a streptococcal infection. Which additional assessment would be performed so
the nurse can assess for complications?
a) Ophthalmoscopic examination
b) Blood pressure in both arms
c) Sputum specimen analysis
d) Urinalysis
47. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to the possibility of pneumonia in a client with chronic bronchitis?
a) Pulse oximetry reading of 92%
b) Shallow respirations of 32/min
c) Percussion is dull in left lower lobe
d) Wheezes are audible over right and left bronchi
48. The nurse assesses which client for nosocomial pneumonia?
a) The client receiving mechanical ventilation
b) The client receiving antibiotics for a surgical wound infection
c) The client in traction for a fractured femur who also has a cold
d) The client with type 2 diabetes who has a 50 pack-year smoking history
49. The client with tuberculosis asks his nurse when he will be considered non-infectious. Which is the nurse's
best response?
a) "When your PPD test is negative."
b) "When your chest x-ray shows resolution of the lesions."
c) "When you have been on the medication at least 6 weeks."
d) "When you have three negative sputum cultures in a row."
50. A nurse is reading the PPD test on the left arm of an inpatient client who was injected 48 hours ago. The area
has a 4-mm diameter area of induration. Which is the nurse's best action?
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 a) Institute airborne infection precautions immediately.
b) Document the observation and monitor.
c) Retest the client on the opposite arm.
d) Re-examine the test site at 72 hours.
51. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to the possibility of a pleural effusion and empyema?
a) Wheezing on exhalation on the side with the broken ribs
b) Absence of fremitus at and below the site of injury
c) Crepitus of the skin around the site of injury
d) Absence of gastric motility
52. The client arrives in the emergency department experiencing difficulty breathing. Which assessment finding
requires immediate action by the nurse?
a) Auscultation of crackles
b) Flushed appearance of skin
c) Production of white sputum
d) Use of accessory muscles to breathe
53. The nurse teaches the client about dietary changes necessary with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which statement best indicates understanding?
a) "I will decrease calories from carbohydrates."
b) "I will decrease my calories to 1000 per day."
c) "I will increase vegetables in my diet."
d) "I will decrease milk products in my diet.
54. The client with lung cancer is scheduled for surgery and is receiving oxygen for hypoxia. The client tells the
nurse that he is becoming more short of breath. How will the nurse intervene?
a) Notify the physician.
b) Increase the oxygen flow rate.
c) Prepare chest tube insertion tray.
d) Calm the client using guided imagery.
55. Which assessment finding will interfere with scheduled chemotherapy administration?
a) Extensive total body hair loss
b) Anxiety of 8 on a 1-10 scale
c) Decreased neutrophil count
d) Increased platelet count
56. The client is 12 hours postoperative after a thoracotomy for lung cancer when the lower chest tube is
accidentally dislodged. What is the nurse's priority action?
a) No action is necessary since the area will reseal itself.
b) Cover the insertion site with sterile gauze.
c) Obtain a suture kit and prepare for the physician to suture the site.
d) Reinsert the chest tube, using sterile technique.
57. The chest tube drainage system of the client 36 hours after a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the
water seal chamber. When the nurse clamps the chest tube close to the client's dressing, the bubbling stops.
How does the nurse interpret this finding?
a) An air leak is present at the chest tube insertion site or in the thoracic cavity.
b) An air leak is present in the drainage system but the exact location cannot be determined.
c) The suction pressure applied to the system is too high and must be adjusted.
d) The system is functioning appropriately, and no intervention is needed.
58. When is the client with a chest tube at highest risk to develop a pneumothorax?
a) When the insertion site begins to bleed
b) When the tube drainage begins to decrease
c) When the client begins to experience pain at the insertion site
d) When the tube becomes disconnected from the drainage collector.

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59. The client has recently been placed on prednisone (Deltasone). What is the highest priority instruction the
nurse will provide?
a) "Expect to experience weight loss and hypoglycemia."
b) "Use the drug with the onset of asthma symptoms."
c) "Take the drug on an empty stomach."
d) "Do not stop taking the drug abruptly."
60. The client has undergone rhinoplasty. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention on the
part of the nurse?
a) Swelling and bruising around the area
b) A change in nasal breathing
c) Repeated swallowing
d) Frequent blowing of the nose
61. Which clinical manifestation in a client 4 hours status post-nasoseptoplasty will the nurse report immediately
to the surgeon?
a) Mouth breathing
b) Swelling and bruising of eyes
c) Repeated swallowing
d) Packing saturated with pink serous drainage
62. Which is the priority assessment for the client who has undergone posterior nasal packing 1 hour ago for a
posterior nosebleed?
a) Assessing adequacy of the client's airway
b) Examining posterior pharynx for evidence of bleeding
c) Checking oral mucous membranes for excessive dryness
d) Asking the client to rate the pain experience on a scale of 1 to 10.
63. The client is brought to the emergency department with severe facial trauma. Which is the nurse's highest
priority in caring for this client?
a) Assessing for a skull fracture
b) Assessing for a patent airway
c) Controlling facial swelling
d) Preserving vision
64. Which client requires immediate nursing intervention?
a) Client with shortness of breath
b) Client with sternal retraction
c) Client with pulse oximetry reading of 95%
d) Client with crackles bilaterally.
65. The nurse assesses the client receiving oxygen via a partial rebreather mask. The nurse will intervene for
which assessment finding?
a) The bag is two thirds inflated during inhalation.
b) The client's pulse oximetry reading is 93%.
c) The oxygen flow rate is 2 L/min.
d) The arterial oxygen is 90%.
66. The client is 24 hours postoperative after a tracheostomy has been performed. The nurse finds the client
cyanotic, with the tracheostomy tube lying on his chest. What is the nurse's first action?
a) Auscultates breath sounds bilaterally
b) Ventilates with resuscitation bag with mask
c) Calls a code
d) Inserts obturator into neck
67. The nurse observes the nursing student suctioning the client. Which intervention on the student nurse's part
has the greatest potential to cause tissue damage?
a) Oxygen saturation post suctioning of 93%
b) Hyper oxygenating the client after removing the suction catheter
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 c) Applying intermittent suction
d) Applying suction when the catheter is inserted.
68. The nurse assesses a client during suctioning. Which finding indicates that the procedure should be stopped?
a) Heart rate increases 10 beats/min
b) Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 20 breaths/min
c) Blood pressure increases from 110/70 to 120/80 mm Hg
d) Heart rate decreases from 78 to 40 beats/min
69. Which signs and symptoms are most indicative of hypercarbia?
a) pH = 7.33 while experiencing mechanical ventilation
b) Bicarbonate = 20 mEq/L, unable to tolerate low levels of oxygen
c) PaCO2 = 60 mm Hg, unable to tolerate more than 2 L of oxygen
d) PaO2 = 80 mm Hg while receiving 40% oxygen via Venturi mask.
70. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic lung disease on 6 L/min oxygen via nasal cannula. Which finding
indicates a potentially acute problem?
a) Wheezes on auscultation
b) Pulse oximetry of 93%
c) pH of 7.35
d) Respiratory rate of 6/min
71. Which is not enters into the diaphragm-
a) Trachea
b) Esophagus
c) Aorta
d) IVC
72. In trauma primary nursing interventions is
a) Airway
b) Bleeding
c) Spine role out
d) Fracture
73. Cause of nosocomial pneumonia in comatose patient is-
a) Endotracheal Intubation
b) Nasopharyngeal Intubation
c) swallowing of oral secretion
d) Not doing oral care
74. PH-7.20, PaCO2 -21 mmhg, PaO2- 92%, HCO3- 18 meq/l
a) Respiratory alkalosis
b) Metabolic acidosis
c) Respiratory acidosis
d) Metabolic alkalosis
75. Mortality indicator among the following is:
a) Disability rate
b) Prevalence rate
c) Incidence rate
d) Life expectancy at birth
76. Clinical death is also known as:
a) Brain death
b) Legal death
c) Accidental death
d) Biological death
77. Upper airway illness that results from swelling of the epiglottis and larynx is broadly called:
a) Croup
b) Measles
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 c) Rubella
d) Whooping cough
78. Most common type of hospital acquired infection is:
a) Surgical site infection (SSI)
b) Blood stream infection (BSI)
c) Ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)
d) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
79. The cause of respiratory acidosis among the following is:
a) Hyperventilation
b) DKA
c) Sedation
d) Excessive vomiting
80. Monday fever is the other name for:
a) Anthracosis
b) Silicosis
c) Asbestosis
d) Byssinosis
81. Which type of WBC increase in Allergic Condition;
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Neutrophils
82. Normal anion gap is:
a) 8 to 12 meq/L
b) 12 to 16 meq/L
c) 8 to 16 meq/L
d) 12 to 20 meq/L
83. Prescriptions 125mg atropine available 500mg in 2ml how many amount should give to patient by 1 ml
syringe have 40 dots;-
a) 10 Dots
b) 20 Dots
c) 30 Dots
d) 40 Dots
84. A patient in the emergency department has an endotracheal tube in place and is on the ventilator. His relative
comes running to you telling you that the patient has pulled the tube out of his mouth. What would be your
next step?
a) Apply face mask with high flow oxygen
b) Reintubate the patient
c) Reinsert the tube immediately
d) Bag and mask the patient and assess spontaneous breathing efforts
85. Identify the picture:

a) Laryngeal mask airway

b) Small oxygen mask
c) Endotracheal tube
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 d) Single lumen airway
86. A nurse is monitoring manometer for CVP value from a central line inserted via the brachial vein. CVP line
inserted in a patient in ICU on face mask with oxygen. For correct reading she should record the value at -
a) She should disconnect the manometer just before reading
b) Either is correct
c) End expiration
d) End inspiration
87. A 40-year-old unconscious patient is brought to the casualty following road traffic crash. His blood pressure
was 80/60 mm of Hg. What will you do first-
a) Protect airway
b) Start vasopressors
c) CT scan Head
d) Infuse 2 litres of crystalloids
88. Which of the following is considered the fifth vital sign in emergency department -
a) Motor response
b) Response to pain
c) Verbal response
d) Papillary reaction to light
89. A patient receiving continuous salbutamol nebulization therapy. Nurse assess for-
a) S. calcium
b) S. potassium
c) S. magnesium
d) S. sodium
90. In Chest tube drainage system there is fluctuations in water seal chamber with respiratory efforts. Nurse assess
for -
a) Kinking of chest tube
b) Normal process
c) Air leaking
d) None of them
91. There is no oscillation seen in drainage system. The nurse understands that -
a) Tube is blocked
b) Lungs are fully inflated
c) Tube is kinked
d) Air leaking
92. A patient receive highest oxygen % by-
a) Mask with reservoir bag
b) Venturi mask
c) Nasal cannula
d) Simple mask
93. Osmolarity of sodium in normal saline is-
a) 134 mEq/L
b) 144 mEq/L
c) 154 mEq/L
d) 164 mEq/L
94. A unconscious patient brought by their relatives, your priority should be -
a) Remove secretions and Clean airway
b) Provide oxygen
c) Give adrenaline
d) Call the physician
95. The drug used to prevent aspiration and decrease the secretions is -
a) Atropine
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 b) Adrenaline
c) Noradrenaline
d) Dopamine
96. A dull sound heard during chest percussion, it is due to the presence of-
a) Mass
b) Fluid
c) Bone
d) Air
97. Best method to check fluid replacement in adult is-
a) Urine output
b) Blood pressure
c) Respiration
d) Pulse pressure
98. Which respiratory disorder is most common in the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery?
a) Atelectasis
b) Bronchitis
c) Pneumonia
d) Pneumothorax
99. A patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops P. jiroveci pneumonia. Which nursing
diagnosis has the highest priority for this patient?
a) Impaired gas exchange
b) Impaired oral mucous membranes
c) Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
d) Activity intolerance
100. A patient has chronic bronchitis. The nurse is teaching him breathing exercises. Which point should
the nurse include in her teaching?
a) Make inhalation longer than exhalation.
b) Exhale through an open mouth.
c) Use diaphragmatic breathing.
d) Use chest breathing.

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 Answer key
Respiratory system

1 b 11 b 21 b 31 c 41 b 51 b 61 c 71 a 81 a 91 a
2 a 12 b 22 d 32 a 42 a 52 d 62 a 72 a 82 c 92 a
3 c 13 a 23 b 33 d 43 c 53 a 63 b 73 c 83 b 93 c
4 b 14 d 24 c 34 b 44 b 54 b 64 b 74 b 84 d 94 a
5 c 15 c 25 b 35 c 45 d 55 c 65 c 75 d 85 a 95 a
6 b 16 a 26 d 36 c 46 d 56 b 66 b 76 a 86 c 96 d
7 b 17 b 27 d 37 a 47 c 57 a 67 d 77 a 87 a 97 a
8 c 18 a 28 b 38 d 48 a 58 d 68 d 78 d 88 d 98 a
9 b 19 b 29 c 39 b 49 d 59 d 69 c 79 c 89 b 99 a
10 b 20 a 30 a 40 c 50 d 60 c 70 d 80 d 90 b 100 c

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