Block-III

1. The inferior sagittal sinus is found in the free edge of which structure?
a. Diaphragma sellae
b. Falx cerebelli
c. Falx cerebri*
d. Filum terminale
e. Tentorium cerebelli
2. A young boy was brought to the emergency department of ANTH after
motorcycle accident. Investigations revealed fracture of L2 vertebra and on
examination, there was contralateral loss of light touch and pressure
sensations below the level of injury. Damage to which tract can result in this
condition?
a. Anterior spinothalamic*
b. Cuneocerebellar
c. Fasciculus cuneatus
d. Fasciculus gracilis
e. Posterior spinocerebellar
3. Trapezoid body can be seen in cross section of which part of CNS?
a. Cerebellum
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Midbrain
d. Pons*
e. Spinal cord
4. Which tract is responsible for the formation of internal arcuate fibers?

a. Anterior spinothalamic
b. Cuneocerebellar
c. Fasciculus gracilis & cuneatus*
d. Posterior spinocerebellar
e. Spino-olivary
5. Which of the following is the largest projection fibers?
a. Cingulum
b. Fornix
c. Internal capsule*

1
d. Superior longitudinal fasciculus
e. Uncinate fasciculus
6. A middle-aged female presented in neurology OPD with ipsilateral
ophthalmoplegia, contralateral paralysis of lower part of face, tongue, arm
and leg. The pupil was fixed, dilated with lateral deviation of eyeball along
with drooping (ptosis) of upper lid. Damage to which part of CNS can lead to
this condition?
a. Cerebellum
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Midbrain*
d. Pons
e. Spinal cord
7. Which of the following cortical areas is located in the inferior frontal gyrus?
a. Broca*
b. Frontal eye field
c. Primary auditory
d. Primary visual
e. Somesthetic association
8. An old lady was diagnosed of having nystagmus, dysarthria, ataxia, tremors,
hypotonia. Lesion to which part of CNS can lead to these signs and
symptoms?
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum*
c. Medulla oblongata
d. Midbrain
e. Pons

9. Which dural venous sinus is continuous with the superior bulb of internal
jugular vein?
a. Occipital
b. Sigmoid*
c. Straight
d. Superior sagittal
e. Transverse
2
10. The roof of body of lateral ventricle is formed by which of the following
structures?
a. Body of fornix
b. Caudate nucleus
c. Corpus callosum*
d. Hypothalamus
e. Thalamus
11. Which one of the following nuclei is associated with the facial nerve?
a. Ambiguous
b. Inferior salivatory
c. Lacrimal*
d. Main sensory
e. Spinal
12. A 28 years old female visits to a physician with inability to protrude her
tongue. Investigations revealed a tumor mass located in which of the following
areas of brain?
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Medulla oblongata*
d. Midbrain
e. Pons
13. Nucleus of solitary tact (tractus solitarius) contributes fibers to which of the
following cranial nerves in addition to VII and X?
a. IV
b. V
c. VI
d. VIII
e. IX*
14. A diagnosed patient of Parkinsonism came for follow-up with tremors and
cogwheel rigidity. Which of the following structures is associated with this
condition?
a. Amygdaloid nucleus
b. Caudate nucleus
c. Globus pellidus
3
d. Putamen
e. Substantia nigra*
15. Lateral ventricle is located in which one of the following?
a. Diencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Metencephalon
d. Myelencephalon
e. Telencephalon*
16. An infant was brought to the paediatric OPD of ANTH for follow-up of
hydrocephalus. The flow of CSF between the third and fourth ventricles was
affected. Which of the following passages was blocked?
a. Central canal
b. Cerebral aqueduct*
c. Interventricular foramen
d. Foramen of Luschka
e. Foramen of Magendie
17. Which of the following structures induces the formation of the neural plate?
a. Endoderm
b. Lateral plate mesoderm
c. Notochord*
d. Primitive groove
e. Somite
18. Which structure contributes towards the development of metencephalon?

a. Diencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Myelencephalon
d. Rhombencephalon*
e. Telencephalon
19. Formation of rhombic lip is the main event in the development of which part
of CNS?
a. Spinal cord
b. Medulla oblongata
4
c. Pons
d. Midbrain
e. Cerebellum*
20. Which of the following structure develops into pars nervosa (posterior lobe)
of hypophysis cerebri?
a. Adenohypophysis
b. Infundibulum*
c. Pars intermedia
d. Pars tuberalis
e. Ruthke’s pouch
21. In hypophysis cerebri, which cell type secrete FSH?
a. Corticotropes
b. Gonadotropes*
c. Mammotropes
d. Somatotropes
e. Thyrotropes
22. Which type of cell junctions are present in blood-brain barrier?
a. Fascia adherens
b. Gap
c. Hemidesmosomes
d. Macula adherens
e. Zonula occludens*
23. While observing a slide of cerebral cortex under microscope, a 1 st Year BDS
student identified external band of baillarger. It is a feature of which of the
following histological layers of cerebral cortex?

a. External pyramidal
b. Internal granular*
c. Internal pyramidal
d. Molecular
e. Multiform

5
24. An 18 year old male presented to the out patient department with feeling of
weakness, constant hunger, thirst and excessive urination. A probable diagnosis
is:
a. Viral hepatitis
b. Type I diabetes mellitus
c. Type II diabetes mellitus
d. Diabetes insipidus
e. Liver cirrhosis

25. Excessive secretion of GH by tumors of anterior pituitary gland in an adult, may

cause which condition?
a. Cushing syndrome.
b. Dwarfism.
c. Acromegaly.
d. Gigantism.
e. Diabetes insipidus.

26. Release of which of the following hormone is an example of neuroendocrine

secretion?
a. Growth hormone.
b. Cortisol.
c. Oxytocin.
d. Prolactin.
e. Adrenocorticotropic hormone.
27. Which one of the following hormones originates in the anterior pituitary?
a. Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)
b. Growth Hormone Inhibitory hormone (GHIH)
c. Thyroid stimulating Hormone (TSH)
d. Oxytocin
e. Anti diuretic hormone (ADH)

28. Which of the following findings is most likely in a patient who has Myxedema?
a. Drowsiness
b. Increased heart rate
c. Increased respiratory rate.
d. Increased cardiac output.
e. Weight loss.
29. Which of the following factors would most likely increase growth hormone
secretion?
a. Obesity.
b. Somatostatin.
6
 c. Somatomedin C.
d. Aging.
e. Hypoglycemia.
30. A patient is diagnosed to be suffering from Grave’s disease. Blood levels of
which of the following would be decreased:
a. Triiodothyronine
b. Thyroxine
c. Diiodotyrosine
d. Thyroid stimulating hormone
e. Iodide
31. In Levi-Lorain dwarfism, there is deficiency of:
a. Triiodothyronine
b. Tetraiodothyronine
c. Somatostatin.
d. Somatomedin-C.
e. Growth Hormone

32. The hypothalamus, through the release of an inhibitory hormone , inhibits the
release of which of the following hormones?:
a. Thyroid Hormone (TSH).
b. Adrenocortcotrophic Hormone (ACTH).
c. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
d. Growth Hormone (GH.)
e. Oxytocin.
33. Which one of the following hormones causes contraction of vascular smooth
muscle?
a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b. Aldosterone
c. Dopamine
d. 1,25- dihydroxy cholecaliferol
e. Parathyroid hormone(PTH)
34. Regulation of blood glucose levels within a narrow range is observed in normal
individuals. One of the ways this is achieved , is by buffering provided by :
a. Gall bladder
b. Large intestine
c. Liver
d. Spleen
e. Stomach
35. The area of sensory cortex that represents a particular region of the body is
proportional to the:
a. Distance of the body area from the brain.
b. Number of motor units in that region.

7
 c. Number of sensory receptors in that area of the body.
d. Size of body area.
e. Size of the nerves that serve the area of the body.

36. After a pain stimulus is applied, fast pain is felt within which of the
following time frames:
a. About 0.01 second.
b. About 0.1 second.
c. About 1 second.
d. About 1 millisecond.
e. About 1 nanosecond.

37. Slow pain is also referred to as burning, aching, or throbbing pain and can be
associated with which of the following:
a. Certain encapsulated receptors such as Pacinian corpuscles.
b. Inactivation of warmth receptors.
c. Skin temperatures between 35°C and 45°C.
d. Tissue damage or destruction.
e. Type Aδ sensory fibers.

38. Which of the following best describes the concept of specificity in sensory
nerve fibers that transmit only one modality of sensation:
a. Concept of specific nerve energy.
b. Frequency coding principle.
c. Labeled line principle.
d. Singularity principle.
e. Unity theory.

39. Which transmitter agent is used by the fast pain fibers at their synapses in the
dorsal horn:
a. Acetylcholine.
b. Calcitonin gene-related peptide.
c. GABA.
d. Glutamate.
e. Substance P.

40. The sensation of temperature is signaled mainly by warm and cold

receptors whose sensory fibers travel in association with the sensory fibers
carrying pain signals. Which of the following statements best characterizes the
transmission of signals from warm receptors:
8
 a. Signals from warm receptors are transmitted mainly along slow
conducting type C sensory fibers.
b. The fingertips contain fewer warm receptors than does the upper posterior
portion of the shoulders and back.
c. There are 3 to 10 times more warm receptors than cold receptors in most
areas of the body.
d. Warm receptors are well characterized histologically.

41. A receptor when stimulated by a specific stimulus develops a receptor potential

by :
a. enhancing Chloride influx into the receptor
b. enhancing K + efflux from receptor
c. enhancing Na + influx into receptor
d. inhibiting K + efflux from receptor
e. inhibiting Na + influx into receptor

42. Detection of the stimulus modality depends upon :-

a. the location of the receptors in the body
b. the number of receptors being stimulated
c. the magnitude of the stimulus
d. the duration of the stimulus
e. the anatomical connections between the receptors and specific
sensory areas in the cerebral cortex

43. The Schwaan cells in the nervous system are types of :

a. Inhibitory cells
b. Interneuron cells
c. Motor cells
d. Neuroglial cells
e. Sensory cells

44. Global aphasia is the term that means unable to comprehend what to speak. It is
occurs due to lesion in which cortical area?
a. Broca’s area
b. Prefrontal area
c. Premotor area
d. Visual area
e. Wernicke’s area

9
 45. A patient presents with an inability to perform rapid alternating movements
(Dysdiodchokinesia). The probable cause would be a lesion of the :
a. Basal ganglia
b. Cerebellum
c. Cerebrum
d. Red nucleus
e. Thalamus

46. The effect of parasympathetic stimulation on the body is to cause:

a. Dilation of the pupil of the eye

b. Increased heart rate
c. Increased peristalsis in the gut
d. Increased respiratory rate
e. Increased tone of various sphincters

47. For which of the following enzyme moiety lead is non-competitive inhibitor?

a. Ferrochelatase
b. HMG-CoA
c. Tetrahydrofolate
d. Aminolevulinate synthase
e. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

48. In which of the following disease plasma level of ALP is increased?

a.Myocardial infarction
b.Cholistasis
c.Prostatic carcinoma
d.Padgett’s disease
e. Ectopic dermatitis
49. Which of the following is heat stable ALP?
a.Placental ALP
b. Bone ALP
c. Intestinal ALP
d. Biliary ALP
e. Intestinal ALP

50. Which of the following synthetic enzyme promotes rapid absorption of the
drugs injected subcutaneously?

a. Asparginase
10
 b. Streptokinase
c.Hyaluronidase
d. Urokinase
e. Protease

51. Which of the following is not increased in liver disease:

a.Alanine amino transferase (ALT)

b.Nucleotide phosphatase (NTP)
c.Alkaine phosphatase (ALP)
d.Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT)
e.Aldolase

52. The optimum temperature of enzyme activity in human body is -----c:

a. 7
b. 17
c. 27
d. 37
e. 47

53. Anti diuretic hormone requires NAD+ for catalytic activity. In the reaction
catalyzed by ADH an alcohol is oxidized to an aldehyde as NAD+ is reduced to
NADH and dissociates from the enzyme.
What is the role of NAD+?
a. Apoenzyme
b. Coenzyme-cosubstrate
c. Coenzyme-prosthetic group
d. Cofactor
e. Heterotropic effector

54. The basis of the classification of tRNA depends upon the following,
a. Acceptor
b. Anticodon arm
c. D arm
d. TψC arm
e. Extra arm

55. TψC arm consists of following;

a. Dihydrouridine
b. Deoxyadenosylcobalamine
c. CDP-choline

11
 d. Pseudouridine
e. Theophylline

56. Which of the following property is not linked to mRNA?

a. Has poly A tail.
b. Consists of cap structure
c. Protein synthesis begins at 5/ end of the capped structure of mRNA
d. The minimum length of mRNA is set by length of the polypeptide chain
e. mRNA is formed from DNA by process of translation

57. One single turn in the double helix of B DNA is completed after:
a. 10.4bp
b. 11.4bp
c. 12.4bp
d. 13.4bp
e. 14.4bp

58. What is not true about DNA replication?

a. Each strand acts like a template
b. Only one strands of DNA unwind
c. New base pair with their complementary base
d. Two double helixes form that are copies of original DNA
e. G pairs with C

59. Hairpin and loop/bends are formed in the secondary structure of following;
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Nucleoside
d. Nucleotide
e. Z-DNA

60. Intron and exons are present in the following,

a. Pre mRNA
b. mRNA
c. t RNA
d. rRNA
e. SNURPS

61. Which of the following is Energy releasing Vitamin?

a. Vit-A
b. Cholecalciferol

12
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Folic acid
e.Niacin

62. Which of the following is the Active form of Vit-D?

a. Ergocalciferol
b.7-Dehydrocholesterol
c. 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (1,25-OH D3)
d. 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (25-OH D3)
e. Calcidiol

63. Which of the following clotting factors are Not Vit-K dependent?

a. II

b. IV
c. VII
d. IX
e. X

64. Physician started the Anti Tuberculosis drug (isoniazid) to the patient which
leads to neurological deficit to the patient, which be the supplement given to the
tuberculous patient?

a. Folic acid
b. Pyridoxal Phosphate
c. Niacin
d. Ascorbic acid
e. Cobalamin

65. A pregnant lady presented to Obstriatician in first trimester, doctor prescribed

her which of the following Vitamin to prevent Neural tube defects?

a.VIT-B6
b.VIT-B7
c.VIT-B9
d.VIT-B12
e.VIT-B3

13
66. A 3 years old poor boy presented to pediatrician for having pathologic dryness
of the conjunctiva and cornea, caused, in part, by increased keratin synthesis.
doctor diagnosed him having xerophthalmia. Which vitamin deficiency leads to this
condition?

a.VIT-B6
b. Folic Acid
c. VIT-C
d. VIT-D
e.VIT-A

67. The RDA of Vit-A for adult Male is following;

a. 100 retinol activity equivalents (RAEs)

b. 300 retinol activity equivalents (RAEs)
c. 500 retinol activity equivalents (RAEs)
d. 900 retinol activity equivalents (RAEs)
e. 1300 retinol activity equivalents (RAEs)

68. A middle age man to taken to Emergency Department of ANTH, having

confusion, ataxia, and a rhythmic to-and-fro motion of the eyeballs (nystagmus)
with history of memory problems and hallucinations, doctor diagnosed him having
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, Which of the following nutrient deficiency is
present in this case:

a. Iron
b. Folic acid
c. Niacin
d. Thiamine
e. Pyridoxal phosphate

69. A postpartum woman from a rural community recently gave birth to a baby boy. She
now brings the baby to the hospital because of continued bleeding oozing from the umbilical
stump. It is likely this bleeding is secondary to a deficiency of which vitamin?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d.Vitamin K
e. Folic acid

14
70. Interproxiamal wear is compensated by the process of
a. Mesial drift
b. Distal drift
c. Occlusal drift
d. Active movements
e. Attrition

71. Inflammatory situations associated with periodontal diseases that aggressively destroy
collagen, can be controlled when host modulators have the capacity to destroy:
a. Growth factors
b. Transciption factors
c. Matrix Metalloproteinases
d. Epithelial proteins
e. Adhesion molecules

72. Which type of PDL fibers have been implicated in the post-retention relapse of
orthodontically positioned teeth due to a decreased turnover rate and the inability to
undergo physiological rearrangement?
a. Dentoperiosteal group
b. Oblique group
c. Apical group
d. Transseptal fiber system
e. Interradicular group

73. Cusp of Carabelli is an accessory cusp on the palatal surface of permanent maxillary first
molar in relation to the following cusp:-
a. Mesiobucal
b. Distobuccal
c. Mesiopalatal
d. Distopalatal
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 e. Distal

74. The alveolar bone proper, because of the many holes through which Volkmann’s canals
pass from the alveolar bone into the PDL, is also known as:-
a. Bundle bone
b. Alveolar crest
c. Lamina dura
d. Cribriform plate
e. Supporting bone

75. Pre-eruptive movements are a combination of two movements of the tooth germs. They
are:-
a. Total bodily movement and eccentric growth
b. Rotation and uprightening
c. Distal movement and eccentric growth
d. Downward followed by occlusal movement
e. Total bodily movement and mesialization

76. During tooth eruption the dental follicle plays an important role in facilitating
connective tissue degradation and bone resorption as the tooth erupts by releasing:-
a. BMP
b. MMPs
c. CSF-1
d. OPG
e. RunX2

77. Which type of cementum has no known function along the Cemento-enamel junction?
a. Cellular Intrinsic Fiber Cementum
b. Acellular Extrinsic Fiber Cementum
c. Secondary Cementum

16
 d. Acellular Afibrillar Cementum
e. Mixed Cementum

78. The average width of periodontal ligament in the age group 12-15 years is about
a. 0.15 mm
b. 0.17 mm
c. 0.38 mm
d. 0.12 mm
e. 0.21 mm

79. During the intraosseous phase of tooth eruption the eruption rate average from:
a. 0.5 to 1 μm per day
b. 1 to 5 μm per day
c. 1 to 10 μm per day
d. 5 to 10 μm per day
e. 1 to 5 mm per day

80. In primary cementum the fibrous fringe has collagen fibres in which of the following
directions? The collagen fibers are implanted_____________ to the root surface
a. obliquely
b. randomly
c. perpendicularly
d. horizontally
e. There is no known orientation of such collagen fibres.

81. Tooth fracture under stress is prevented by

a. The greater tensile strength of the underlying dentin
b. The flexibility of the pulp chamber
c. Root divergence of teeth
d. Grooves in the occlusal morphology
e. Orientation of the enamel rods

17
82. Mantle dentin
a. Is the last layer of dentin to be formed
b. Lies immediately adjacent to the pulp chamber
c. May consist of enamel spindles
d. Is approximately 15-20 microns thick
e. Is formed in response to operative procedures

83. On clinical examination of a patient the teeth were seen to have malformed enamel. Most of
the crowns were structureless giving a bluish purple color to the eye. On radiographic
examination the OPG showed no pulp chambers or the pulp chambers appeared opalescent
because they were filled with defective dentin. This condition is:
a. Dentinogenesis imperfect type I
b. Dentinogenesis imperfect type II
c. Dentinogenesis imperfect type III
d. Dentinal Dysplasia
e. Hypomineralized Dentin

84. A supernumerary tooth which occurs in the anterior maxilla between the maxillary central
incisors is called:

a. Fusion
b. Mesiodens
c. Germination
d. Taurodontism
e. Concrescence

85. The identifying number for the deciduous mandibular right first molar in the FDI numbering
system is:

a. 74
b. 75
c. 84

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 d. 85
e. 64

86. Restoration of function and tissue continuity with distortion of the normal architecture in
response to an insult is called:-

a. Repair
b. Regeneration
c. Renewal
d. Restoration
e. Re-establishment

87. When viewed from the occlusal aspect the mandibular first molar has the following shape:-

a. Rhomboidal
b. Pentagonal
c. Rectangular
d. Ovoid
e. Trapezoidal

88. During the endodontic treatment of a tooth, engaging the pulp with a barbed broach in the
region of the apex affords a better opportunity to remove the tissue intact than does engaging
the broach more coronally because of:
a. Greater number of Macrophages in the apical portion
b. Greater number of Lymphocytes in the apical portion
c. Less gelatinous pulp in the apical portion
d. Lesser concentration of collagen in the apical portion
e. Greatest concentration of collagen in the apical portion

19
89. Which of the following statements is true about the regressive changes of pulp?

a. Increase in the number of fibers

b. Mitochondria are increased in number and size
c. Pulp stone formation
d. Increase in the number of cells
e. Reduced number of pulp stones

90. At the age of nine years, the mandibular permanent first molar has its distal contact with
which of the following teeth?

a. First premolar
b. Second deciduous molar
c. No distal contact
d. Second permanent molar
e. First deciduous molar

91. Several interpretations have been made for the Granular layer of Tomes. Which of the
following is one of the interpretations made about the layer?

a. Associated with minute hypermineralized areas of interglobular dentin

b. Are true spaces which are visible by HE staining
c. Represent sections made through the looped terminal of the dentinal tubules
d. Found only in the corona dentin
e. Is a meshwork of arranged cells and non-collagenous matrix proteins

92. Which cells enter the wound site after 24 hours and are the predominant cells in the
damaged tissue after 5 days:-

a. Neutrophils
b. Mast cells
c. Macrophages and leukocytes
d. Merkel cells and lymphocytes
e. Dentritic cells

20
93. The permanent mandibular first molar has the following roots:-

a. Mesiopalatal and distopalatal

b. Mesial and distal

c. Distobuccal, distolingual, palatal

d. Buccal and lingual

e. Mesiobuccal and distobuccal

21