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 Contents of Free Sample Book
14. JEE MAIN - 2023 (30 JANUARY EVENING) (with solutions)�������������������� 2023-1-16

This sample book is prepared from the book “TARGET NTA

JEE Main 2024 - 11 Previous Year Solved Papers with 10 Mock
Tests 25th Edition ”

ISBN - 9789355647030
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Content
SOLVED PAPERS

1. JEE MAIN - 2013 Paper (with solutions)������������������������������������������������ 2013-1-16

2. JEE MAIN - 2014 Paper (with solutions)������������������������������������������������ 2014-1-20

3. JEE MAIN - 2015 Paper (with solutions)������������������������������������������������ 2015-1-20

4. JEE MAIN - 2016 Paper (with solutions)������������������������������������������������ 2016-1-20

5. JEE MAIN - 2017 Paper (with solutions)������������������������������������������������ 2017-1-20

6. JEE MAIN - 2018 Paper (with solutions)������������������������������������������������ 2018-1-20

7. JEE MAIN - 2019 (9 JANUARY) (with solutions)������������������������������������ 2019-1-24

8. JEE MAIN - 2019 (9 APRIL) (with solutions)���������������������������������������� 2019-25-40

9. JEE MAIN - 2020 (2 SEPTEMBER) (with solutions)��������������������������������� 2020-1-16

10. JEE MAIN - 2021 (24 FEBRUARY MORNING) (with solutions)����������������� 2021-1-20

11. JEE MAIN - 2021 (25 JULY MORNING) (with solutions)������������������������� 2021-1-20

12. JEE MAIN - 2022 (29 JUNE MORNING) (with solutions)������������������������� 2022-1-16

13. JEE MAIN - 2022 (29 JULY MORNING) (with solutions)������������������������� 2022-1-20

14. JEE MAIN - 2023 (30 JANUARY EVENING) (with solutions)�������������������� 2023-1-16

15. JEE MAIN - 2023 (10 APRIL MORNING) (with solutions)������������������������ 2023-1-16
(iv)
 MOCK PAPERS

1. Mock Test - 1 MT-1–8

2. Mock Test - 2 MT-9–18

3. Mock Test - 3 MT-19–28

4. Mock Test - 4 MT-29–38

5. Mock Test - 5 MT-39–46

6. Mock Test - 6 MT-47–54

7. Mock Test - 7 MT-55–62

8. Mock Test - 8 MT-63–70

9. Mock Test - 9 MT-71–78

10. Mock Test - 10 MT-79–86

SOLUTIONS

• Mock Tests - 1 to 10 MT-87–176

(v)
JEE Main 2023
JEEJanuary
Main 2023
30 Shift - II
35

PART-A: PHYSICS
SECTION-I A B Y A B Y
1. A block of 3kg is attached to 0 0 1 0 0 1
T
a string whose other end is 0 1 1 0 1 0
30° (a) (b)
attached to the wall. An 1 0 1 1 0 0
unknown force F is applied so 1 1 0 1 1 1
that the string makes an angle F
of 30° with the wall. The tension A B Y A B Y
–2
T is : (Given g = 10 ms ) 0 0 0 0 0 0
(a) 20 N 0 1 1 0 1 1
3 kg (c) 1 0 1
(d) 1 0 1
(b) 25 N (c) 10 N (d) 15 N
2. A flask contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 2 : 1 by 1 1 1 1 1 0
mass at temperature 27°C. The ratio of average kinetic energy 7. A vehicle travels 4 km with speed of 3 km/h and another
per molecule of hydrogen and oxygen respectively is : 4 km with speed of 5 km/h, then its average speed is :
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 (a) 4.25 km/h (b) 3.50 km/h
3. The equivalent resistance between A and B is …… (c) 4.00 km/h (d) 3.75 km/h
8. As shown in the figure, a point
1.5 0.5 charge Q is placed at the centre
12 of conducting spherical shell of
inner radius a and outer radius Q I II III
4 O a
A
8
B
b. The electric field due to
2 6 charge Q in three different b
regions I, II and III is given by :
6 (I : r < a, II : a < r < b, III : r > b)
1 1 (a) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII 0 (b) EI 0, EII = 0, EIII 0
(c) EI 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0 (d) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0
2 1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 9. As shown in the figure, a current of 2A
3 2 2 3 flowing in an equilateral triangle of side
4. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 2A
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. 4 3cm. The magnetic field at the O 2A

Assertion A : The nuclear density of nuclides centroid O of the triangle is:

(Neglect the effect of earth’s magnetic field.)
10 6 56 20 209 2A
5 B, 3 Li, 26 Fe, 10 Ne and 83 Bi can be arranged as (a) 4 3 10 4 T (b) 4 3 10 5 T
N N N N N
Bi Fe Ne B Li . (c) 3 10 4 T (d) 3 3 10 5 T
Reason R : The radius R of nucleus is related to its mass 10. In the given circuit, rms value of current (Irms) through
number A as R = R0 A1/3, where R0 is a constant. the resistor R is :
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct XL=200 , XC=100
answer from the options given below : R=100
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) A is true but R is false Vrms 200 2V
(d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A 1
(a) 2A (b) A (c) 20 A (d) 2 2A
5. A thin prism P1 with an angle 6° and made of glass of 2
refractive index 1.54 is combined with another prism P2 11. A machine gun of mass 10 kg fires 20 g bullets at the rate
made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce of 180 bullets per minute with a speed of 100 m s–1 each.
dispersion without average deviation. The angle of prism The recoil velocity of the gun is :
P2 is : (a) 0.02 m/s (b) 2.5 m/s (c) 1.5 m/s (d) 0.6 m/s
(a) 6° (b) 1.3° (c) 7.8° (d) 4.5° 12. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
6. The output Y for the inputs A and B of circuit is given by Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
A
Assertion A : Efficiency of a reversible heat engine will be
highest at –273°C temperature of cold reservoir.
Reason R : The efficiency of Carnot’s engine depends
Input Y = Output not only on temperature of cold reservoir but it depends
on the temperature of hot reservoir too and is given as
T
B 1 2 .
Truth table of the shown circuit is : T1
 36 JEE Main 2023
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct same force is applied to another steel wire ‘B’ of double
answer from the options given below : the length and a diameter 2.4 times that of the wire ‘A’, the
(a) A is true but R is false elongation in the wire ‘B’ will be (wires having uniform
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct circular cross sections)
explanation of A (a) 6.06 × 10–2 mm (b) 2.77 × 10–2 mm
(c) A is false but R is true (c) 3.0 × 10–2 mm (d) 6.9 × 10–2 mm
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 19. An object is allowed to fall from a height R above the
of A earth, where R is the radius of earth. Its velocity when it
13. Match List I with List II. strikes the earth’s surface, ignoring air resistance, will be:
List I List II gR
A. Torque I kg m–1 s –2 (a) 2 gR (b) gR (c) (d) 2gR
2
B. Energy density II kg ms –1 20. A point source of 100 W emits light with 5% efficiency. At
a distance of 5 m from the source, the intensity produced
C. Pressure gradient III kg m–2 s –2 by the electric field component is :
D. Impulse IV kg m2 s –2 1 W 1 W 1 W 1 W
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 m2 40 m 2 10 m 2 20 m 2
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (b) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(c) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (d) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II SECTION-II
14. For a simple harmonic motion in 21. A faulty thermometer reads 5°C in melting ice and 95°C in
a mass spring system shown, steam. The correct temperature on absolute scale will
the surface is frictionless. be………. K when the faulty thermometer reads 41°C.
When the mass of the block is 1 Block 22. If the potential difference between B and D is zero, the
kg, the angular frequency is 1. 1
When the mass block is 2 kg value of x is . The value of n is ..........
the angular frequency is 2. The n
ratio 2/ 1 is : B
6 x
1 1
(a) 2 (b) (c) 2 (d) 1
2 2 3
15. An electron accelerated through a potential difference V1 1
has a de-Broglie wavelength of . When the potential is x
2
changed to V2, its de-Broglie wavelength increases by D

V1
50%. The value of V is equal to:
2 23. The velocity of a particle executing SHM varies with
displacement (x) as 4v2 = 50 – x2. The time period of
9 3
(a) 3 (b) (c) (d) 4 x 22
4 2 oscillations is s. The value of x is ……… Take
7 7
16. Match List I with List II : 24. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensities at two
List I List II
points, for the path difference and ( being the
A. Attenuation I Combination of a receiver and 4 3
transmitter.
wavelength of light used) are I1 and I2 respectively. If I0
denotes the intensity produced by each one of the
B. Transducer II Process of retrieval of information
I1 I 2
from thecarrier wave at received individual slits, then I ......
C. Demodulation III Converts one form of energy into 0
another
25. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different process.
The half life of the first process is 5 minutes and that of
D. Repeater IV Loss of strength of a signal while the second process is 30s. The effective half-life of the
propagating through a medium
nucleus is calculated to be s. The value of is _____.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 11
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 26. A body of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. It starts moving
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I unidirectionally under the influence of a source of
17. A current carrying rectangular loop PQRS is made of 1 2
uniform wire. The length PR = QS = 5 cm and PQ = RS = constant power P. Its displacement in 4s is Pm.
100 cm. If ammeter current reading changes from I to 2I, z 3
The value of will be .......
the ratio of magnetic forces per unit length on the wire PQ 27. As shown in figure, a cuboid (0, 0, 3)
I 21 lies in a region with electric
due to wire RS in the two cases respectively f PQ : f PQ is:
Q
field E 2x 2 ˆi 4yjˆ 6kˆ . (0, 2, 0)
P
A
The magnitude of charge y
I (1, 0, 0)
within the cuboid is n 0 C
N/C. The value of n is
R S ______ (if dimension of x
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 3 cuboid is 1 × 2 × 3 m3)
18. A force is applied to a steel wire ‘A’, rigidly clamped at 28. In an ac generator, a rectangular coil of 100 turns each
one end. As a result elongation in the wire is 0.2 mm. If having area 14 × 10–2 m2 is rotated at 360 rev/min about an
JEE Main 2023 37
axis perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 30. A uniform disc of mass 0.5 kg and radius r is projected
3.0 T. The maximum value of the emf produced will be with velocity 18 m/s at t = 0 s on a rough horizontal surface.
22 It starts off with a purely sliding motion at t = 0 s. After 2s
________ V. Take it acquires a purely rolling motion (see figure). The total
7 kinetic energy of the disc after 2s will be ________ J
29. A stone tied to 180 cm long string at its end is making 28 (given, coefficient of friction is 0.3 and g = 10 m/s2).
revolutions in horizontal circle in every minute. The
1936
magnitude of acceleration of stone is ms 2 . The
x 18 m/s
22
value of x _______. Take t=0 t = 2s
7
PART-B: CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I In the above conversion of compound (X) to product (Y),
the sequence of reagents to be used will be:
31. Which of the following reaction is correct ? (a) (i) Br2, Fe (ii) Fe, H+ (iii) LiAlH4
(b) (i) Br2(aq) (ii) LiAlH4 (iii) H3O+
(a) 2LiNO3 2LiNO 2 O2 (c) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) CuBr
(b) (d) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) H3PO2.
4LiNO3 2Li 2 O 2N 2 O 4 O2 36. Maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated
(c) in shell with n = 4 are:
4LiNO3 2Li 2 O 4NO 2 O2 (a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 50 (d) 72
(d) 2LiNO3 2Li 2NO 2 O 2 37. Match List I with List II:
32. The most stable carbocation for the following is: List I List II
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2 (C om pl e xe s) (Hybri disation )
(A ) [N i(CO ) 4 ] I sp 3
+
(B) [Cu(N H 3 ) 4 ] 2+ II dsp 2
(C) [F e(N H 3 ) 6 ] 2+ III sp 3 d 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) d 2 sp 3
(a) c (b) d (c) b (d) a (D ) [F e(H 2 O ) 6 ] 2+ IV
33. The correct order of pK a values for the following (a) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
compounds is: (c) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (d) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
OH OH OH OH 38. The Cl – Co – Cl bond angle values in a fac-[Co(NH3)3Cl3]
complex is/are:
(a) 90° & 180° (b) 90°
(c) 180° (d) 90° & 120°
39. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
N NO2 O
Assertion A : can be easily reduced using Zn-
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) c > a > d > b (b) b > d > a > c OH
(c) b > a > d > c (d) a > b > c > d Hg/HCl to .
34. Decreasing order towards SN1 reaction for the following OH
compounds is: Reason R : Zn-Hg/HCl is used to reduce carbonyl group
Cl Cl Cl Cl to –CH2 – group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(a) A is false but R is true
(b) A is true but R is false
(c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
NO2 OMe Cl (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation ofA
(a) (b) (c) (d) 40. Chlorides of which metal are soluble in organic solvents:
(a) a > c > d > b (b) a > b > c > d (a) Ca (b) Mg (c) K (d) Be
(c) b > d > c > a (d) d > b > c > a 41. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as
35. CH3 CH3 Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Antihistamines do not affect the secretion
of acid in stomach.
Reason R : Antiallergic and antacid drugs work on different
Br Br receptors.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
NO2 answer from the options given below:
(a) A is false but R is true
(X) (Y) (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation ofA
 38 JEE Main 2023

(c) A is true but R is false 1 L Solution (X) + BaCl2 solution (excess) Z

(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct The number of moles of Y and Z respectively are
explanation of A. (a) 0.02, 0.02 (b) 0.01, 0.01
42. The wave function ( ) of 2s is given by (c) 0.02, 0.01 (d) 0.01, 0.02
1/2
1 1 r SECTION-II
2s 2 e r/2a 0
2 2 a 0 a 0 51. 1 mole of ideal gas is allowed to expand reversibly and
At r = r0, radial node is formed. Thus, r0 in terms of a0 adiabatically from a temperature of 27°C. The work done
a0 is 3 kJ mol–1. The final temperature of the gas is _______K
(a) r0 = a0 (b) r0 = 4a0 (c) r0 (d) r0 = 2a0. (Nearest integer). Given Cv = 20 J mol–1K–1.
2 52. Iron oxide FeO, crystallises in a cubic lattice with a unit
43. KMnO4 oxidises I– in acidic and neutral/faintly alkaline
solution, respectively to cell edge length of 5.0Å. If density of the FeO in the crystal
is 4.0 g cm–3, then the number of FeO units present per
(a) I2 & IO3 (b) IO3 & I2 unit cell is _____ (Nearest integer)
(c) IO3 & IO3 (d) I2 & I2 Given : Molar mass of Fe and O is 56 and 16g mol–1
respectively.
44. Bond dissociation energy of E–H bond of the “H2E” NA = 6.0 × 1023 mol–1.
hydrides of group 16 elements (given below), follows 53. An organ ic compound undergoes fir st order
order. decomposition. If the time taken for the 60%
(A) O (B) S (C) Se (D) Te decomposition is 540 s, then the time required for 90%
(a) A > B > C > D (b) A > B > D > C decomposition will be is _______ s. (Nearest integer).
(c) B > A > C > D (d) D > C > B > A Given : ln 10 = 2.3; log 2 = 0.3
45. The water quality of a pond was analysed and its BOD 54. Lead storage battery contains 38% by weight solution of
was found to be 4. The pond has H2SO4. The van’t Hoff factor is 2.67 at this concentration.
(a) Highly polluted water The temperature in Kelvin at which the solution in the
(b) Water has high amount of fluoride compounds battery will freeze is ____ (Nearest integer).
(c) Very clean water Given Kf = 1.8 K kg mol–1.
(d) Slightly polluted water 55. Consider the following equation :
46. Match List I with List II:
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g), H = –190 kJ
List I List II The number of factors which will increase the yield of
(Mixture) (Separation Technique) SO3 at equilibrium from the following is _______
(A) CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 I Steam distillation A. Increasing temperature B. Increasing pressure
(B) C6H14 + C5H12 II Differential extraction C. Adding more SO2 D. Adding more O2
(C) C6H5NH2 + H2O III Distillation E. Addition of catalyst
x
(D) Organic compound IV Fractional distillation 56. The graph of log vs log p for an adsorption process is
m
in H2O a straight line inclined at an angle of 45° with intercept
(a) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II equal to 0.6020. The mass of gas adsorbed per unit mass
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II of adsorbent at the pressure of 0.4 atm is ______×10–1
(Nearest integer)
47. Boric acid in solid, whereas BF3 is gas at room temperature
because of Given : log 2 = 0.3010
(a) Strong ionic bond in Boric acid 57. Number of compounds from the following which will not
(b) Strong van der Waal's interaction in Boric acid dissolve in cold NaHCO3 and NaOH solutions but will
(c) Strong hydrogen bond in Boric acid dissolve in hot NaOH solution is _____ .
(d) Strong covalent bond in BF3 O O
48. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: During Electrolytic refining, the pure metal is OH O
made to act as anode and its impure metallic form is used , ,
as cathode. O OH
Statement II: During the Hall-Heroult electrolysis process,
purified Al2O3 is mixed with Na3AlF6 to lower the melting
point of the mixture. O , ,
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: O
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct OH O
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect O
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
49. Formulae for Nessler's reagent is: O
H O , ,
(a) KHg2I2 (b) KHgI3 (c) K2HgI4 (d) HgI2 H3C CH3
50. 1 L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br is mixed with 1L, 58. A short peptide on complete hydrolysis produces 3 moles
0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4. The resulting of glycine (G), two moles of leucine (L) and two moles of
solution is divided into two equal parts (X) and treated valine (V) per mole of peptide. The number of peptide
with excess AgNO 3 solution and BaCl 2 solution linkages in it are _______
respectively as shown below: 59. The strength of 50 volume solution of hydrogen peroxide
1 L Solution (X) + AgNO3 solution (excess) Y is ______ g/L (Nearest integer).
JEE Main 2023 39

Given: (Nearest integer).

Molar mass of H2O2 is 34 g mol–1 0
2.36V ; E0 2
Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.7 L. Given : E x 2 |x Y |Y
0.36V
60. The electrode potential of the following half cell at 298 K 2.303RT
X | X2+ (0.001 M) || Y2+ (0.01 M) | Y is _____×10–2 V 0.06V
F
PART-C: MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I 69. Let f, g and h be the real valued functions defined
61. Consider the following statements: x
, x 0
P : I have fever Q : I will not take medicine on as f x x ,
R : I will take rest
The statement. ‘‘If I have fever, then I will take medicine 1, x 0
and I will take rest’’ is equivalent to: sin x 1
(a) ((~ P) ~ Q) ((~ P) R) , x 1
g x x 1
(b) ((~ P) ~ Q) ((~ P) ~ R) and h(x) = 2[x] – f(x), where
(c) (P Q) ((~ P) R) (d) (P ~ Q) (P ~ R) 1, x 1
62. Let A be a point on the x-axis. Common tangents are drawn [x] is the greatest integer x. Then the value of
from A to the curves x2 + y2 = 8 and y2 = 16x. If one of lim g h x 1 is
these tangents touches the two curves at Q and R, then x 1
(QR)2 is equal to (a) 1 (b) sin(1) (c) –1 (d) 0
(a) 64 (b) 76 (c) 81 (d) 72 70. The number of ways of selecting two numbers a and b,
63. Let q be the maximum integral value of p in [0, 10] for a {2,4,6,.....,100} and b {1,3,5,.....,99} such that 2 is the
2 5 remainder when a + b is divided by 23 is
which the roots of the equation x px p 0 are
4 (a) 186 (b) 54 (c) 108 (d) 268
rational. Then the area of the region {(x, y) : 0 y 71. If P is a 3 × 3 real matrix such that PT = aP + (a – 1)I, where
(x – q)2, 0 x q} is a > 1, then
125 (a) P is a singular matrix (b) |Adj P| >1
(a) 243 (b) 25 (c) (d) 164 1
3 (c) |Adj P| = (d) |Adj P| = 1
x3 ax 2 x3 2
64. If the functions f x
3
2bx
2
and g x
3
72. Let ,a iˆ 2jˆ 3k,
ˆ b ˆi ˆj 2kˆ .

ax bx 2 , a 2b have a common extreme point, then If a b a b a b 8iˆ 40ˆj 24k, ˆ then

a + 2b + 7 is equal to 2
ab a b is equal to
3
(a) 4 (b) (c) 3 (d) 6 (a) 140 (b) 132 (c) 144 (d) 136
2
73. Let a and b be two vectors. Let a 1, b 4 and
65. The range of the function f x 3 x 2 x is
a . b 2. If c 2a b 3b, then the value of b . c is
(a) 5, 10 (b) 2 2, 11 (a) –24 (b) –48 (c) –84 (d) –60
(c) 5, 13 (d) 2, 7 74. Let a1 = 1, a2, a3, a4,.....be consecutive natural numbers.
66. The solution of the differential equation 1 1 1 1
dy x 2
3y 2 Then tan 1 a1a 2
tan
1 a 2a 3 + ..... + tan–1
,y 1 0 is
dx 3x 2 y2 1
xy xy 1 a 2021a 2022 is equal to
(a) log e x y 0 (b) log e x y 0
2 2
x y x y 1 1
(a) cot 2022 (b) cot 2022
2xy 2xy 4 4
(c) log e x y 0 (d) log e x y 2
0
2 1 1
x y x y
(c) tan 2022 (d) tan 2022
13 9 4 4
67. Let x 8 3 13 and y 7 2 9 . If [t] denotes 75. The parabolas : ax + 2bx + cy = 0 and dx2 + 2ex + fy = 0
2

the greatest integer t, then intersect on the line y = 1. If a, b, c, d, e, f are positive real
(a) [x] + [y] is even (b) [x] is odd but [y] is even numbers and a, b, c are in G.P., then
(c) [x] is even but [y] is odd d e f
(d) [x] and [y] are both odd (a) d, e, f are in A.P. (b) , , are in G.P..
a b c
68. A vector v in the first octant is inclined to the x-axis at d e f
60°, to the y-axis at 45° and to the z-axis at an acute angle. (c) , , are in A.P.. (d) d, e, f are in G.P.
a b c
If a plane passing through the points 2, 1,1 and 76. If a plane passes through the points (–1, k, 0), (2, k, –1),
x 1 2y 1 z 1
(a, b, c), is normal to v , then (1, 1, 2) and is parallel to the line ,
1 2 1
(a) 2a b c 1 (b) a b 2c 1 k2 1
(c) a 2b c 1 (d) 2b b c 1 then the value of is
k 1 k 2
 40 JEE Main 2023

17 5 6 13 83. Let P(a1, b1) and Q(a2, b2) be two distinct points on a
(a) (b) (c) (d) circle with center C 2, 3 . Let O be the origin and OC
5 17 13 6
77. Let a, b, c > 1, a3, b3 and c3 be in A.P., and logab, logca and be perpendicular to both CP and CQ. If the area of the
logbc be in G.P. If the sum of first 20 terms of an A.P., 35
a 4b c triangle OCP is . then a12 a 22 b12 b22 is equal to
whose first term is and the common difference ______. 2
3
a 8b c 84. The 8th common term of the series
is is –444, then abc is equal to S1 = 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19 +....., S2 =1 + 6 + 11 + 16 + 21+....
10 is _____.
343 125 85. Let a line L pass through the point P(2, 3, 1) and be parallel
(a) 343 (b) 216 (c) (d) to the line x + 3y – 2z – 2 = 0 = x – y + 2z.
8 8 If the distance of L from the point (5, 3, 8) is , then 3 2 is
78. Let S be the set of all values of a1 for which the mean equal to _____.
deviation about the mean of 100 consecutive positive 86. If
integers a1, a2, a3, ..., a100 is 25. Then S is
(a) (b) {99} (c) (d) {9} 1
sec 2x 1dx loge cos 2x cos 2x 1 cos x
2 2 2
3 1 2 1
79. lim 4 2 2 .. 3 is + constant, then – is equal to _____.
n n n n n 87. If the value of real number a > 0 for which x2 – 5ax + 1 = 0
equal to 3
19 and x2 – ax – 5 = 0 have a common real roots is then
(a) 12 (b) (c) 0 (d) 19 2
3 is equal to ______.
80. For , , suppose the system of linear equations 88. The number of seven digits odd numbers, that can be
x – y + z = 5; 2x + 2y + z = 8; 3x – y + 4z = formed using all the seven digits 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5 is _____.
has infinitely many solutions. Then and are the roots of 89. A bag contains six balls of different colours. Two balls are
(a) x2 –10x +16 = 0 (b) x2 +18x +56 = 0 drawn in succession with replacement. The probability
(c) x2 –18x +56 = 0 (d) x2 +14x + 24 = 0 that both the balls are of the same colour is p. Next four
balls are drawn in succession with replacement and the
SECTION-II probability that exactly three balls are of the same colours
81. 50th root of a number x is 12 and 50th root of another is q. If p : q = m : n, where m and n are coprime, then m + n
number y is 18. Then the remainder obtained on dividing is equal to _____.
(x + y) by 25 is _____. 90. Let A be the area of the region
82. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 9}. Then the number of possible {(x, y): y x2 , y (1 – x)2 , y 2x (1 – x)}.
functions f : A A such that f (m n) = f (m) f (n) for every Then 540 A is equal to
m, n A with m n A is equal to _____.
JEE Main 2023 S- 51

January 30 (Shift-II)
ANSWER KEYS
PHYSICS
1 (a) 4 (b) 7 (d) 10 (a) 13 (d) 16 (d) 19 (b) 22 (2) 25 (300) 28 (1584)
2 (b) 5 (d) 8 (b) 11 (d) 14 (b) 17 (b) 20 (b) 23 (88) 26 (4) 29 (125)
3 (a) 6 (d) 9 (d) 12 (d) 15 (b) 18 (d) 21 (313) 24 (3) 27 (12) 30 (54)
CHEMISTRY
31 (c) 34 (c) 37 (d) 40 (d) 43 (a) 46 (b) 49 (c) 52 (4) 55 (3) 58 (6)
32 (a) 35 (d) 38 (b) 41 (b) 44 (a) 47 (c) 50 (b) 53 (1350) 56 (16) 59 (150)
33 (b) 36 (b) 39 (a) 42 (d) 45 (c) 48 (a) 51 (150) 54 (243) 57 (3) 60 (275)
MATHEMATICS
61 (a) 64 (d) 67 (a) 70 (c) 73 (b) 76 (d) 79 (d) 82 (432) 85 (158) 88 (240)
62 (d) 65 (a) 68 (c) 71 (d) 74 (a, c) 77 (b) 80 (c) 83 (24) 86 (1) 89 (14)
63 (a) 66 (c) 69 (a) 72 (a) 75 (c) 78 (c) 81 (23) 84 (151) 87 (13) 90 (25)

PHYSICS 4. (b) Nuclear density is independent of A. Hence Assertion

is False.
1. (a) The radius R of nucleus is related to its mass number by
R = R0 A1/3 (Here, R0 = constant)
5. (d) Angle of deviation for first prism
1 = A1 ( 1 – 1)
Angle of deviation for second prism
2 = A2 ( 2 – 1)
= A2 (1.72 – 1)
For dispersion without deviation
1= 2
6° (1.54 – 1) = A2(1.72 – 1)
From the free body diagram shown above,
6 0.54 18
3g 3 3g A2 4.5
cos = = 30° 0.72 4
T 2 T
T = 20 N
6. (d) Y A (A B) B (A B)
2. (b) Average kinetic energy for diatomic gases
5 A AB B AB A A B B A B
Kav = kT
2
AB BA = XOR gate
(K av )H (27 273) 7. (d) Given, First distance travelled,
1
(K av )O (27 273) S1 = 4 km
3. (a) The given circuit can be redrawn as Second distance travelled, S2 = 4 km
Distance S1 S2
Vav =
time S1 S1
V1 V2
Here, V1 and V2 are the velocities during first and second
distance travelled
4 4 15
The net resistance between A and B Vav Vav 3.75 km/h
4 4 4
1 1 1 1 1 1 6 1 3 2 6 18 3 3 5
R net 2 12 4 6 2 12 12 2 8. (b) In region I Electric field will be due to charge Q
2 EII = 0. Since electric field inside conductor is zero.
R net
3 EIII 0, Electric field will be due to charge Q only or just
due to free charge
 S- 52 JEE Main 2023

14. (b) Angular frequency in spring mass system is given by

k
m
When m = 1 kg
k k
1
m 1
k
When m = 2 kg, 2
2
9. (d) k/2 1
2
1 k 2
15. (b) When electron is accelerated through a potential
difference V1
P2 h
From Figure Kinetic energy, KE = , Momentum, P
2m
r 2
tan 30 r = 2 cm h
2 3
Magnetic field at the centroid of triangle, KE = eV1 =
i i 2m
B 3 0 (sin 60 sin 60 ) B 3 0 sin 60º When potential is changed to V2, then
4 r 2 r 2
7 h
2 10 2 3 5
3 3 3 10 1.5 V1 9
2 10 2 2 KE = eV2 (1.5)2
2m V2 4
10. (a) Given,
Capacitive reactance, XC = 100 16. (d) Attenuation - Loss of strength of a signal while
Inductive reactance, XL = 200 propagating through a medium.
Resistance, R = 100 Transducer - Converts one form of energy into another.
Demodulation - Process of retrieval of information from
Impedance, Z = R2 (X L X C ) 2 the carrier wave at received.
Repeator - Combination of a receiver and transmitter.
Z = 1002 (200 100)2 = 100 2 17. (b) Magnetic force per unit length on wire PQ due to wire
RS is given by
RMS value of current,
F o 2I1I 2
Vrms 200 2
i rms = 2A 4 r
Z 100 2 F1 I1 I2 (I)2
11. (d) Given, mass of machine gun, M = 10 kg When ammeter current reading is changed to 2I.
mass of bullet, m = 20 g = 20 10–3 kg F2 (2I)2
velocity of bullet, V= 100 ms–1, let V be the recoil velocity F1 : F2 = 1 : 4
of gun, using conservation of momentum 18. (d) Young’s modulus,
nmv = MV
F/A
180 Y
20 10 3 100 10V
60
n = 180 bullets per minute
YA
v = 0.6 m/s F
12. (d) Efficiency of Heat engine,
As F and Y is same for two wire.
Tsink
=1 F A1 1 A
Tsource = 2 2
Y 1 2
When Tsink = 0 K, Efficiency, = 1 Maximum
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2 A1 2
13. (d) Torque = kg ms–2 m 1 A2 1
Energy Here, 1 = 0.2 mm, 2 = 2 1, A2 = (2.4)2 A1
Energy density = = kg m–1 s–2
Volume 2 1 2
Pressure gradient = kg m–2s–2 0.2 2.4 2.4 1
Impulse = kgms–1 –2
2 = 6.9 10 mm
JEE Main 2023 S- 53

19. (b) From the energy conservation 24. (3) Resultant intensity in Young’s double slit experiment
Loss in gravitational PE = Gain in KE
1 2 I = 4I0 cos2
GMm GMm 2
mv
2R R 2
For path difference phase difference,
2 GM 4
v gR v gR
R 2
= I1 4I0 cos 2 2I0
5 4 4 4
20. (b) Energy emitted per unit time = 100 = 5 W
100
At a distance 5 m from the source, For path difference
3
Power 5 2 I1 I2
Intensity = 2
I2 4I0 cos 2 = I0 3
2
4 (5) 3
4 (5) I0
The intensity is due to both electric and magnetic field, 25. (300) Half life of first process, t1 = 5 minutes = 5 60 = 300 s
1 5 1 Half life of second process t2 = 30 s
Intensity due to electric field W/m 2 Using the law of radioactive decay for first process
2 4 52 40
dN1
21. (313) We know that 1N
dt
Reading – Lower fixed point
= Constant dN2
Upper fixed point – Lower fixed point For second process 2N
dt
41 5 C 0 dN
( 1 2)N
95 5 100 0 dt eq = 1 + 2

36 0.693 0.693 0.693

C 100 40 C 313 K t1/2 t1 t2
90
22. (2) The given circuit can be redrawn as 1 1 1 11
t1/2 300 30 300
x
300
x 1 t1/2
2

11
1 2
mv
Total work done 2
26. (4) Power, P
time t
1
3 mV 2 Pt
x 2
2Pt dx 2Pt 2P 2 3/2 4
V x [t ]0
As potential difference between B and D is zero, the given m dt m m 3
circuit is wheatstone bridge, 16 P 1
x 16 P ( mass m = 2 kg time t = 4s)
x 3 3
2 x 1 2 1 1
x 0.5 =4
3 x 3 x 1 2 27. (12) Given, electric field
n=2
E 2x 2 ˆi 4yjˆ 6kˆ
23. (88) Given, 4v2 = 50 – x2
Electric flux for face, x = 1, = 2 × (1)2 × 2 × 3 = 12
1 1 Electric flux for face, y = 2, = – 4 × 2 × 3 × 1 = – 24
v2 (50 x 2 ) v 50 x 2
4 2 Electric flux for face, z = 3, = 6 × 1 × 2 = 12
Comparing with velocity in SHM Electric flux for faces x = 0, y = 0, is zero.
Electric flux for z = 0, = – 12
v A2 x 2
Angular, frequency net = –24 + 12 = –12
From the Gauss’s theorem
1 q
12
2
0
2 88 |q| = 12 0
Time period, T = 4
7 28. (1584)
x = 88 Given, area of rectangular coil, A = 14 10–2 m2
Magnetic field, B = 3T
 S- 54 JEE Main 2023

Number of turns, n = 100 35. (d)

max = NAB CH3 CH3 CH3
360 2
100 14 10 2 3 = 1584 V Fe Br2 HNO 2
60
H aq
29. (125) Given, radius of horizontal circle, R = 180 cm = 1.8 m
28 2 Br Br
Angular frequency, rad s 1 NO2 NH2 NH2
60
2 CH3 CH3
2 28 2
Acceleration, a R 1.8
60
H2PO2
2
56 22 (44)2
1.8 1.8
60 7 225 Br Br Br Br
1936 1.8 N2
x = 125
225 36. (b) The number of electrons in the orbitals of sub-shell
30. (54) Acceleration in rough horizontal surface, a = – kg = –3 of n = 4 are 4s (2), 4p (6), 4d (10), 4f (14), total 32 electrons.
Using v = u + at 37. (d) For [Fe(NH3)6]+2 , 0 < P, hence the pairing of
v = 18 – 3 2 electrons does not occur in t2g. Therefore complex is outer
v = 12 m/s orbital and its hybridisation is sp3 d2.
1 2 1 2 NH3
KE mv I
2 2
1 2
H3N Cl
Here, I = moment of inertia of disc = mr
2 38. (b) Co
2 2
1 1 mr v 3 H3N Cl
KE mv 2 mv 2
2 2 2 r2 4
KE = 3 18 = 54 J Cl
The Cl – Co – Cl bond angle in above octahedral complex
CHEMISTRY is 90°.
O
31. (c) 4LiNO3 2Li2O + 4NO2 + O2
39. (a) Zn-Hg/HCl
NH2 NH2 HO Cl
The acid sensitive alcohol group reacts with HCl, hence
Clemmenson reduction is not suitable for above
32. (a) conversion.
40. (d) BeCl2 having covalent nature is soluble in organic
The +M effect of NH2 is stabilizing the carbocation. solvent.
33. (b) Due to –M effect of –NO2 group, it increases acidity 41. (b) Antiallergic and antacid drugs work on different
+M effect of N (CH3)2 decreases acidity. receptors.
Hyperconjugation of isopropyl decrease acidity 42. (d) At node 2s = 0
order of acidic strength.
r0
(C) > (A) > (D) > (B) 2– 0 r0 = 2a0
a0
34. (c) The rate of SN1 reaction depends upon stability of
carbocation which follows the order. 43. (a) In acidic medium
2MnO4– + 101– + 16H+ 2MnO2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O
+ + + +
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 In neutral/faintly alkaline solution
2MnO4– + I– + H2O 2MnO2 + 2OH– + IO–2
44. (a) Bond dissociation energy of E–H bond in hydrides
> > > of group 16 follows the order:
H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
45. (c) Clean water as BOD value of < 5 while polluted water
OMe Cl NO2
has BOD of 15 or more.
Reactivity order 46. (b) A-(III), B-(IV), C-I, D-II.
(B) > (D) > (C) > (A) 47. (c) Boric acid has strong hydrogen bonding while BF3
does not. Therefore boric acid is solid.
JEE Main 2023 S- 55

48. (a) In Electrolytic refining, the pure metal is used as 57. (3) Compound 2nd, 3rd, 7th.
cathode and impure metal is used as anode. 58. (6) Number of peptide linkage = (amino acid – 1)
49. (c) Nessler’s reagent is K2HgI4. =7–1=6
50. (b) [Co(NH3)5 SO4]Br + AgNO3 AgBr 50
0.01 mol excess 0.01 Mol 59. (150) Molarity
11.35
[Co(NH3)5 Br]SO4 + BaCl2 BaSO4
0.01 mol excess 0.01 Mol
50
Strength in g/L 34
Note: Concentration term is 0.02 M in 2L of solution after 11.35
mining. Hence number of moles should be 0.01 for each 60. (275) X + Y2+ Y + X2+
complex. E 0Cell 0.36 – (–2.36) 2.72 V
51. (150) q = 0, U = w
1 × 20 × [T2 – 300] = – 3000 0.06 0.001
E Cell 2.72 – log
T2 – 300 = – 150 T2 = 150 K. 2 0.01
Z M = 2.72 + 0.03 = 2.75 V
52. (4) d
NA a3 = 275 × 10–2 V
Z 72 MATHEMATICS
4 23 –24
Z 4.166 4
6 10 125 10 61. (a) From given statement
1 a
ln 0 P ~Q R
t1 K 0.4 a 0
53. (1350)
t2 1 a ~P ~Q R
ln 0
K 0.1 a 0 ~P ~Q ~P R
10 62. (d) Common tangent on parabola
ln
540 4 540 log10 – log 4 4
t2 ln 10 y mx
t2 log10 m
540 1– 0.6 540 4
0.4
t2 1 t2 m
2 2 m 1
t2
540
1350 sec 1 m2
0.4 y x 4. Point of contact on parabola
54. (243) Tf = i.Kf .m
a 2a
38 1000 Let m = 1, ,
Tf 2.67 1.8 2 m
m
98 62
Tf = 30.05 K R(4, 8)
Freezing temperature = 273 – 30 = 243 K. Point of contact on circle Q(–2, 2)
55. (3) The yield of SO3 at equilibrium will be due to : (QR)2 = 36 + 36 = 72
(B) Increasing pressure 5p
63. (a) Given x 2 px 0
(C) Adding more SO2 4
(D) Adding more SO2 D = p2 – 5p = p(p – 5)
x At p = 9, D become a perfect square
log m q=9
= tan–1 2
56. (16) 0 y x 9

log k
log P
x 1
log log k log P
m n 9
1
tan 45 1
n
log k = 0.6020 = log 4 k=4 9 3 9
2 x 9
x x Area = x 9 dx 243
k.P1/n 4 (0.4) 1.6
0
3
m m 0
x 64. (d) f' (x) = x2 + 2b + ax = 0 ...(i)
1.6 16 10–1
m g' (x) = x2 + a + 2bx = 0 ...(ii)
 S- 56 JEE Main 2023

(i) – (ii) 9 7 2
(2b – a) – x(2b – a) = 0 C2 7 2 9 ...(iv)
x = 1 is the common root By (iii) – (iv)
Put x = 1 in f ' (x) = 0 or g' (x) = 0 8 1 9 6 3
y y' 2 9 C1 7 2 9 C3 7 2 9 ...........
1 + 2b + a = 0
7 + 2b + a = 6 y – y' = Even ineger hence [y] is even
65. (a) Given y 3 x 2 x 68. (c) Unit vector v̂ define as,
By squaring on both sides v̂ cos60º ˆi cos 45º ˆj cos kˆ
2
y 3 x 2 x 2 3 x 2 x 1 1
cos 2 1 Acute
5 2 6 x x2 2 4
3 1
25 1
2
cos2 1 cos2
y2 5 2 x 4 4
4 2
1
1
2 cos 60º
y maximum if x 0 2
2 Equation of plane is
ymax 5 5 10 1 1 1
x 2 y 1 z 1 0
2 2 2 2
1 25
y get minimum if x
2 4 x 2y z 1
ymin 5 (a, b, c) lies on it.
66. (c) Put y = mx
a 2b c 1
dm 1 3m 2 69. (a) Let k = 1 – x
m x
dx 3 m2 At x 1; k 0
3
dm m 1
x LHL lim g h k k 0
dx 3 m2 k 0
3 m2 dm dx
lim g 2 1 g 1 1 f x 1, x 0
0 k 0
3 x
m 1 RHL lim g h k lim g 1 1 k 0
k 0 k 0
4dm dm 2dm dx
3 2
0 [ f x 1, x 0]
m 1 m 1 m 1 x
2 2 70. (c) Given a 2, 4, 6,8,10,..............,100
2
ln m 1 ln x c
m 1 m 1 b 1,3,5,7,9,..............,99
2
2x x y 2x
ln ln x c Now, a b 25, 71,117,163
2 x x y
x y (i) a + b = 25, no. of ordered pairs (a, b) is 12
2xy (ii) a + b = 71, no. of ordered pairs (a, b) is 35
ln x y c
2 (iii) a + b = 117, no. of ordered pairs (a, b) is 42
x y
(iv) a + b = 163, no. of ordered pairs (a, b) is 19
c 0, as x 1, y 0
total = 12 + 35 + 42 + 19 = 108 pairs
2xy 71. (d) Given PT = aP + (a – 1)I
ln x y 0
2 T
x y T
PT aP a 1I
13 13 13 13 12 1
67. (a) x 8 3 13 C0 · 8 3 C1 8 3 13 ...(i)
P aPT a 1I
13 13 13 13 12 1
x' 8 3 13 C 0· 8 3 C1 8 3 13 ...(ii)
PT P a P PT
By (i) – (ii) P P T , as a 1
13 12 1 13 10 3 Now, P = aP + (a – 1)I
x x' 2 C1 8 3 13 C3 8 3 · 13 ...
P I P 1
therefore, x – x' is even integer, hence [x] is even n 1 n 1
adj P P 1 1
9 9 9 9 8 1
Now, y 7 2 9 C0 7 2 C1 7 2 9
JEE Main 2023 S- 57

72. (a) Given a ˆi 2jˆ 3k,

ˆ b iˆˆj 2kˆ 2
x a c 0
a b a b a b = 8iˆ 40jˆ 24kˆ
c
x2 ...(i)
b a a b a b 8iˆ 40jˆ 24kˆ a
Now, dx2 + 2ex +f=0
a b ·a b a b 8iˆ 40ˆj 24kˆ c c
d 2e f 0
8 a b 8iˆ 40ˆj 24kˆ a a
ˆi ˆj kˆ dc c
f 2e
Now, a b 2 3 a a
1 2 d f 1
2e
a c ac
4 3 iˆ 2 1 3 ˆj 2
2 kˆ
d f 2e
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ as b ae
a i 2j 3k , b i j 2k a c b
a b 2iˆ ˆj k,
ˆ a b 3jˆ 5kˆ d e f
, , are in A.P..
ˆi ˆj kˆ a b c
76. (d) Given line equation can be define as,
a b a b 2 1 1 2iˆ 10ˆj 6kˆ
1
0 3 5 y
x 1 2 z 1
required answer = 4 + 100 + 36 = 140 1 1 1
73. (b) Given, c = 2a b 3b Points: A(–1, k, 0), B(2, k, –1), C(1, 1, 2)
CA 2iˆ k 1 ˆj 2kˆ
Multiply b both sides,
CB iˆ k 1 ˆj 3kˆ
b c = b (2a b) 3 | b |2 Normal vector of plane ABC,
Since, b (2a b) = 0 ˆi ˆj kˆ
then, b c = – 3 | b |2 CA CB 2 k 1 2
b c = –3 × 16 = –48 1 k 1 3
74. (a, c) By given condition ˆi 3k 3 2k 2 ˆj 6 2 kˆ 2k 2 k 1
a2 – a1 = a3 – a2 = ... = a2022 – a2021 = 1
1 k ˆi 8jˆ 3 3k kˆ
a a a a2
tan 1 2 1 tan 1 3 ..... y
1
1 a1a 2 1 a 2 a3 x 1 2 z 1 is perpendicular to normal
The line
a a 2021 1 1 1
tan 1 2022 vector.
1 a 2021a 2022 1 · (1 – k) + 1(–8) + (–1)(3 – 3k) = 0
tan 1 a 2 tan 1 a1 tan 1 a 3 tan 1 a 2 ........ 1 – k – 8 – 3 + 3k = 0
2k = 10 k 5
tan 1 a 2022 tan 1 a 2021 k2 1 26 13
= tan–1 a2022 – tan–1a1 k 1 k 2 4·3 6
Since, a2022 = 2022 a1 = 1
77. (b) Given a 3 , b3 , c3 be in A.P. a3 + c3 = 2b3 ...(i)
1 1 1
tan 2022 tan 1 tan 2022 (option c) log c a, loga b, log b c are in G.P..
4
2
cot 1
2022 log b log c log a
·
2 4 log a log b log c
1 3 3
cot 2022 (option a) log a log c a c ...(ii)
4
75. (c) Given ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 From (i) & (ii)
a=b= c
Since a, b, c in G.P
So, b2 = ac a 4b c a 8b c 6a 3
T1 2a; d a
3 10 10 5
ax 2 2 ac x c 0
 S- 58 JEE Main 2023

20 3 P
S20 4a 19 a
2 5
20a 57a (0, 0)
10
5
74a 444 a 6 C
90º
abc = 63 = 216
78. (c) Let a1 be any natural number
a1, a1 + 1, a1 + 2, ..........., a1 + 99 are values of a1 'S
Now,
Q
a1 a1 1 a1 2 ...... a1 99
x
100 a12 b12 a 22 b22 OP 2 OQ 2
100a1 1 2 ........ 99 = 2(5 + 7) = 24
100 84. (151) Common series S with terms 11, 31 ...
99 100 99 T8 = 11 + (8 – 1) × 20 = 11 + 140 = 151
a1 a1
2 100 2 ˆi ˆj kˆ
100
xi x 85. (158) Since, 1 3 2 4iˆ 4ˆj 4kˆ
So, mean deviation about mean 1 1 1 1 2
100
99 97
95 1 x 2 y 3 z 1
2 ..... Now, equation of line is
2 22 2 1 1 1
Let Q be (5, 3, 8) and foot of from Q on this line be R.
100
Now, R (k + 2, –k + 3, –k + 1) and
50
1 99 DR of QR are (k – 3, –k, –k –7)
1 3 ............ 99 2 = 25 So, (1)(k – 3) + (–1)(–k) + (–1)(–k –7) = 0
100 100
So, it is true for every natural number 'a1' 4
k
3n 1
r
2 3
79. (d) Given series can be define as lim 2 2 2 2
n nr n 2 13 4 17 474
0
r 1 3 3 3 9
x, dx
n n 3 2 158
1
2 1 cos 2x
3 2 x dx 27 8 19 86. (1) sec 2x 1 dx dx
0 cos 2x
80. (c) Define coefficient in matrix, We have 1 – cos 2x = 2 sin 2x,
1 1 1 cos 2x = 2 cos2x – 1
2 2 0; 8 2 4 1 3 2 0 sin x
2 dx
3 1 4 2 cos 2 x 1
Put cos x = t –sin x dx = dt
8 6 3 6 0 2 8 4
dt dt
81. (23) x + y = 1250 + 1850 = 12 2 25 2 25 2 2
18 2 2
2t 1 2t 1
= 150 6 25 325 1 25
ln 2 cos x cos 2x c
= 25K – (625 + 1) = 25K – ((5 + 1)25 + 1)
= 25K1 – 2 1
ln 2cos2 x cos 2x 2 cos 2x· 2 cos x c
Remainder = 23 2
82. (432) Since, f(1) = (f(1))2 f(1) = 1 1 1
Now, f(1) = 1; f(9) = f(3) × f(3) In cos 2x cos 2x· 1 cos 2x c
2 2
i.e., f(3) = 1 or 3
1 1
Total function = 1 × 6 × 2 × 6 × 6 × 1 = 432 , 1
83. (24) Since area of OCP 2 2
87. (13) Since condition for common root
1 35 (4a) (26a) = (–6)2 = 36
= PC 5 ; PC 7
2 2
JEE Main 2023 S- 59

90. (25)
9 3

2
2

x)
a a 13

–
26 26

(1
1 4

=
,

y
88. (240) Digits are 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5 3 9
2, 3 are repeating 3 & 2 times, 1 1
,
2 4
6!
If unit digit 5, then total numbers = 60
3!2! (0, 0) (1, 0)

6!
If unit digit 3, then total numbers = 120 y = 2x (1 – x)
3!
6! 1
If unit digit 1, then total numbers = 60
3!2! 2
2
total numbers = 60 + 60 + 120 = 240 A 2 2x 2x 2 1 x dx
1
6
C1 6 1 3
89. (14) p 1
6 6 6 6 6 3 2
3 x 1
2x
6 A 2 x2
C1 5 C1 4 5 3 3 1
q
6 6 6 6 54 3
[ p : q = 9 : 5] 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 8 5
p + q = m + n = 14 A 2
4 3 8 24 9 3 27 3 27 108
5
540A 540 25
108

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