Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. Bake B. faith C. fair D. stale
Question 2. A. hour B. horn C. help D. health
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. standard B. package C. cartoon D. plastic
Question 4. A. holiday B. attention C. document D. journalist
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. Denmark ranks first in the list of ______ countries in the world.
A. cleaner B. as clean C. more clean D. the cleanest
Question 6. They ______ a large amount of money in developing this city last year.
A. investor B. invested C. investing D. investment
Question 7. That single dad is working hard to support his family and ______ his children
alone.
A. bring up B. take back C. put on D. turn down
Question 8. Could we ______ a meeting to discuss technical issues of the project tomorrow?
A. open B. give C. hold D. take
Question 9. The students finished their assignment on time, ______ their teacher happy.
A. made B. is made C. to make D. making
Question 10. The first award in the competition ______ by Jennifer Hawkins last week.
A. has won B. won C. was won D. was winning
Question 11. Working back-to-back shifts at the hospital ______ her energy, leaving her no
time for rest.
A. drained B. exuded C. sucked D. trickled
Question 12. The coach wants his team to feel confident ______ winning the game.
A. at B. on C. of D. with
Question 13. The kids are getting in my ______ today, so I need you to watch them for a little
bit.
A. mouth B. tongue C. hair D. nose
Question 14. We chose group 4 ______ with us to complete the project lesson on climate
change.
A. to collaborate B. collaborated C. collaborating D. collaborate
Question 15. Tom burnt his hand when he ______ a cake in the kitchen.
A. bakes B. baked C. had baked D. was baking
Question 16. This charity organisation helped handicapped children ______ their difficulties.
A. overcome B. recover C. outweigh D. surpass
Question 17. I'm looking for______ apartment in the city center.
A. the B. ∅ (no article) C. a D. an
Question 18. ______ , she will let you know.
A. When Linda had found out the truth B. When Linda finds out the
truth
C. When Linda was finding out the truth D. When Linda found out the truth
Question 19. His parents are hospitable, ______?
A. don’t they B. do they C. aren’t they D. are they
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Leo and Tim are talking about food.
- Leo: “I think it is true to say that the quickest way to a man’s heart is through his stomach.”
- Tim: “______. Sometimes a man cares more about his feelings rather than food”
A. I totally agree with you B. I refuse to believe that
C. I guess you’re right D. That’s great
Question 21. Mary and her friend, Lily, are in a coffee shop.
- Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramel with jam?”
- Lily: “ ______”
A. Yes, I’d love to. B. It doesn’t matter.
C. Neither is fine. They are good. D. I like eating them all.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. She took her time to assimilate the complex concepts, ensuring she truly
understood them.
A. understand B. integrate C. associate D. contribute
Question 23. The teacher will demonstrate how to solve complex exercises on the board, which
helps students understand the lessons easily.
A. forget B. show C. confuse D. hide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. My best friend is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding and has his
license suspended for six months.
A. famous B. dangerous C. cautious D.
enormous
Question 25. I tried to be friendly with her, but I was told she’s a hard nut to crack.
A. a complicated problem to solve B. a situation to deal with
C. a person who is sociable D. a person who is very difficult to understand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. It is impossible for us to finish the research in a month.
A. We can’t finish the research in a month. B. We must finish the research in a
month.
C. We would finish the research in a month. D. We needn’t finish the research in a
month.
Question 27. Linda last went to the university library three months ago.
A. Linda went to the university library for three months.
B. Linda didn’t go to the university library for three months.
C. Linda has gone to the university library for three months.
D. Linda hasn’t gone to the university library for three months.
Question 28. “It is not easy for my son to overcome his shyness in class,” she told the teacher.
A. She told the teacher that it was not easy for her son to overcome his shyness in class.
B. She told the teacher that it was not easy for her son to overcome her shyness in class.
C. She told the teacher that it was not easy for his son to overcome his shyness in class.
D. She told the teacher that it is not easy for her son to overcome his shyness in class.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Press photographers are banned from taking photographs backstage. There is not
any exception whatsoever.
A. On no occasion are press photographers banned from taking photographs backstage.
B. In no way were press photographers allowed to take photographs backstage.
C. On no account are press photographers allowed to take photographs backstage.
D. Under no circumstances are press photographers prohibited to take photographs
backstage.
Question 30. We were nearly out of petrol. That’s why we stopped at the service station.
A. If we weren’t nearly out of petrol, we would stop at the service station.
B. If we hadn’t been nearly out of petrol, we would have stopped at the service station
C. If we hadn’t been nearly out of petrol, we wouldn’t have stopped at the service station
D. If we hadn’t been nearly out of petrol, we wouldn’t stop at the service station.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Our country could successfully fight against COVID-19 pandemic thanks to the
government’s imaginary approaches.
A. imaginary B. thanks to C. fight against D. approaches
Question 32. My grandmother can remember things which happens many years ago.
A. can B. happens C. things D. My
Question 33. Some of my friends are going to spend his holidays by the sea.
A. spend B. Some C. the sea D. his
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 40.
A pandemic is a worldwide outbreak of disease. It happens when a bacterium or virus becomes
capable of spreading across a large region, continent, or worldwide. It causes
severe contagious illnesses which can spread quickly from one person to another. Throughout
history, there have been many pandemics that have had significant effects on various
populations.
Pandemics have the capability of killing large portions of people in a place. In 1347, the Black
Death, a plague in Europe, spread and killed 75 million people, a whopping one-third of
Europe's population. When European explorers began encountering other places in the world,
they tended to spread diseases to the local population. One notable example is the complete
destruction of the Guanches on the Canary Islands. The majority of tribe members were killed
by disease brought by Spanish invaders in the 15th century.
In fact, many countries and cultures faced deadly pandemics after international exploration
became possible. It is believed that Columbus and his crew brought a strain of syphilis back
with them to Europe from the New World. In Europe, the virus was able to mutate because of
the location's different conditions. Additionally, European people that were sent to work in Asia
were killed by disease. Intercultural mixing, exposure to new viruses, and the transportation of
diseases led to many pandemics across the world.
Today, the COVID-19 pandemic is an ongoing global pandemic of coronavirus disease. It is
caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome SARS-CoV-2. This epidemic first broke out in
Wuhan, China, in December 2019. Many efforts to control its spread have failed, which allows
the virus to reach almost every country. The World Health Organization (WHO) declared a
Public Health Emergency of International Concern on 30th January 2020 and a pandemic on
11th March 2020. By 10th April 2022, the pandemic had caused more than 498 million cases
and 6.17 million deaths, making it one of the deadliest pandemics in human history.
Question 34. The word “contagious” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. expressible B. dangerous C. healthy D. infectious
Question 35. Why did the Guanches in the Canary Islands disappear?
A. The tribe was uninformed about pandemics.
B. They were infected with the illness spread by the Spanish
C. Europeans intentionally exposed native populations to the disease.
D. The tribe caught a bad strain of syphilis.
Question 36. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. destructive pandemics B. Columbus and his crew
C. Europe and the New World D. strains of syphilis
Question 37. The word “ongoing” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. continuing B. over C. past D. future
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The Guanche population in the Canary Islands disappeared due to the malady from the
Spanish intruders.
B. The Black Death in medieval Europe was caused by exploration and conquest.
C. WHO upgraded the Covid-19 warning level twice within two months.
D. The efforts by WHO brought an end to the COVID-19 pandemic.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The number of people killed in pandemics has made up a small percentage.
B. People hadn't witnessed the Covid-19 pandemic before 2019.
C. Coronavirus disease is trouble-free to control in its early stages.
D. The popularity of cultural exchange led to the deadly pandemics in many nations and
cultures.
Question 40. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Spread of Covid-19 B. The Killing Effects of Pandemics in Human
History
C. Europeans Creating Pandemics D. Infection and the Death of Africans
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C,D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 45.
If you are interested in having a trip of a lifetime, but also doing something useful at the same
time, then why not try joining a Greenforce expedition as a volunteer.
Greenforce, ___(41)___ was set up in 1997, is an international research agency that gathers
information about wildlife and natural habitats in various parts of the world. There is a qualified
biologist in charge of each team of volunteers and these carry out surveys all year round in
some of the world remote and most beautiful places. Volunteers come from all walks of life. No
previous experience is necessary as Greenforce provides full ___(42)___ in animal
identification and survey methods. However, you will need to be a person who enjoys the
outdoor life ___(43)___ working in remote locations can be challenging. You’ll also need to be
passionate about wildlife and prepare to learn a lot about the place you
visit. ___(44)___ expedition lasts for ten weeks, and training begins in the UK with a
residential weekend where you can get a taste of expedition life and meet up with some of your
teammates, as well as learning about first-aid and basic survival skills. Each
volunteer ___(45)___ £2,550 to the total cost of the expedition, but past volunteers say it is
worth every penny.
Question 41. A. which B. whose C. that D. who
Question 42. A. operation B. production C. training D. performance
Question 43. A. although B. but C. moreover D. since
Question 44. A. Much B. Each C. Other D. Many
Question 45. A. compensates B. offers C. contributes D. pays
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
In the next decade, population growth will probably add to world hunger problems. As the
population grows, according to the World Hunger Programme, so will the number
of malnourished people. The world's population, estimated at 5.6 billion in 1994, may reach
11.5 billion by the year 2150, and most of that growth is occurring in the world's poorest
countries. At least 95 percent of the global population growth over the next thirty-five years
will take place in the hunger-belt regions of Africa, Asia, and Latin America. For countries that
already have a hard time feeding their populations, growth on a scale of even 3 percent a year
could add significantly to their food problems. This level of growth is already occurring in
Namibia and in South Africa, and many other countries are not far behind.
In 1981, the United States recorded a population on the African continent of 481 million
people. This number topped 800 million by the year 2000. Africa would have to increase its
food production by 4 percent a year to meet the food needs of its increased population. But
Africa's food production is growing by only 1 percent a year, which means that nations already
struggling to meet their people's food needs will have an even greater struggle as populations
grow. “When food supply grows slower than population,” says Professor De- Gregori, “a
country is in trouble.”
(Source: Basic IELTS Reading)
Question 46. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Population of the world B. Population growth as a factor of hunger
C. Prediction of world population D. The consequences of hunger
Question 47. The word malnourished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. poor B. disadvantaged C. needy D. hungry
Question 48. According to paragraph 2, which is true about the food production in Africa?
A. It is growing more slowly than the population.
B. It can eventually meet the needs of the population.
C. It has dramatically decreased since 1981. D. It has greatly increased in recent
years.
Question 49. All of the following mentioned in the passage are about population growth and its
effect on world hunger EXCEPT ______.
A. when population grows faster than food supply, a country will suffer.
B. the biggest increase in population will be recorded in poor countries.
C. the number of people in Africa is increasing faster than its ability to feed them.
D. a country’s population will not starve if its annual growth reaches 3 percent.
Question 50. The word its in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Africa B. a population C. The United States D. a country

Đề số 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. demonstrate B. influence C. encourage D. penalize
Question 2. A. attract B. succeed C. strengthen D.
destroy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 3. It is expensive to take down and ______ the tent, so they do not remove it during
winter.
A. put up B. push down C. push up D. put down
Question 4. The students looked a little confused ______ the teacher’s questions.
A. with B. at C. in D. of
Question 5. You will visit Cuc Phuong National park next weekend, ______?
A. would you B. don’t you C. will you D. won’t you
Question 6. When Mrs. Wilson got home, her son ______ with his girlfriend on the phone.
A. chats B. chatted C. is chatting D. was chatting
Question 7. After 20 days of premiere, “Mai” has become ______ grossing film projects.
A. high than B. the higher C. the highest D.
higher
Question 8. ______the letter, Tom will have left for Paris.
A. Before we received B. By the time we receive
C. When we received D. After we receive
Question 9. The teacher tries her best to make sure that her students can ______ her
explanations.
A. understanding B. understand C. understandable D.
understandably
Question 10. During the discussion, he suddenly ______ red when someone criticized his
work, and the meeting quickly became tense.
A. looked B. saw C. met D. watched
Question 11. I don’t want her to smell ______. She has never had a surprise party before.
A. a thief B. a culprit C. a rat D. a pig
Question 12. House prices are expected ______ sharply in the next few months.
A. rising B. rise C. to rising D. to rise
Question 13. VigilEASE, Inc. has made a huge profit of $1,000 million, ______ its branches to
expand across the continent.
A. allows B. to allow C. allowing D. is allowed
Question 14. My husband's family speaks ______ Polish.
A. ∅ (no article) B. a C. an D. the
Question 15. The unexpected thunderstorm ______ the flight, causing passengers to wait
anxiously at the gate.
A. collared B. bagged C. apprehended D. detained
Question 16. Whenever you’re planning to ______ a new product, it’s essential to provide
excellent customer service.
A. declare B. initiate C. start D. launch
Question 17. The top-secret document _____ by one of the supervisors of the company in
2020.
A. was leaking B. leaks C. was leaked D. has leaked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 18. Tom and Peter are talking about extreme sports.
-Tom: “People should be encouraged to take part in dangerous sports.”
-Peter: “______. They are prone to both minor and severe injuries.”
A. I completely disagree with you B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. For sure D. Come on, that’s surely the case
Question 19. Mr. Collins is asking to see the menu at a restaurant.
- Mr. Collins: “Could we see the menu, please?”
- Waiter: “______.”
A. You get a 2% discount B. Here you are, Sir
C. I’ll be your server, Sir D. My pleasure, Sir
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. landscape B. historical C. business
D. system
Question 21. A. plane B. tank C. bathe D.
fame
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The conservation efforts aim to protect vulnerable species from extinction.
A. harmful B. dangerous C. endangered D. abundant
Question 23. The professor provided adequate resources for the research project to ensure that
students have necessary materials.
A. abundant B. lack C. sufficient D. limited
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. We need detailed information to determine exactly why these cancers are
occurring.
A. precede B. doubt C. estimate D. discover
Question 25. I hate to speak in public, but she'll get up on stage at the drop of a hat.
A. instantly B. confidently C. hesitantly D.
immediately
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. Perhaps she will get the yard mowed before it rains.
A. She should mow the yard before it rains.
B. She must get the yard mowed before it rains.
C. She may get the yard mowed before it rains.
D. She must have the yard mowed before it rains.
Question 27. It last rained in my town a month ago.
A. It has rained in my town for a month. B. It didn’t rain in my town for a month.
C. It hasn’t rained in my town for a month. D. It rained in my town for a month.
Question 28. "I was watching the stars all night," she said.
A. She said she has been watching the stars all night.
B. She said she watched the stars all night.
C. She said she had been watching the stars all night.
D. She said she was watching the stars all night.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Last week, a team of foreign volunteers launches a campaign to
help students with disabilities.
A. with B. launches C. to help D. week
Question 30. If you have a problem, you are welcome to discuss it with me before you try to
resolve them.
A. them B. with C. before D. have
Question 31. This was due to the shortage of males at the marital ages and was
further aggravated by heavy male unemployment at ages 20-34.
A. aggravated B. marital C. unemployment D.
shortage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. Spectators are not permitted to bring alcohol into the stadium. There is no
exception for any individual.
A. On no account are spectators banned from bringing alcohol into the stadium.
B. In all cases are spectators banned from bringing alcohol to the stadium.
C. On no condition are spectators allowed to bring alcohol into the stadium.
D. In no way were spectators allowed to bring alcohol into the stadium.
Question 33. Nam was seriously ill for two weeks. He couldn’t take part in the School Festival.
A. If Nam hadn’t been seriously ill for two weeks, he could have taken part in the School
Festival.
B. If Nam hadn’t been seriously ill for two weeks, he couldn’t have taken part in the
School Festival
C. If it weren’t for his serious illness for two weeks, Nam would take part in the School
Festival.
D. If Nam wasn’t seriously ill for two weeks, Nam could take part in the School Festival
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
A team of social psychologists from California has spent six years studying the reactions of
people in cities around the world to different situations. The results show that cities where
people have less money generally have friendlier populations. Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, which is
often known for its crime, comes out top, Vientiane ranks second, and the capital of Malawi,
Lilongwe, comes third.
But what makes one city friendlier than another? The psychologists from California State
University say it has got more to do with environment than culture or nationality. They carried
out a study into the way locals treated strangers in 23 cities around the world. The team
conducted their research through a series of tests, where they dropped pens or pretended, they
were blind and needed help crossing the street.
The study concludes that people are more helpful in cities with a more relaxed way of life such
as Rio. While they were there, researchers received help in 93 percent of cases, and the
percentage in Lilongwe was only a little lower. However, richer cities such as Amsterdam and
New York are considered the least friendly. Inhabitants of Amsterdam helped the researchers in
53 percent of cases and in New York just 44 percent. The psychologists found that, in these
cities, people tend to be short of time, so they hurry and often ignore strangers.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS by Guy Brook- Hart and Vanessa Jakeman)
Question 34. What is the passage mainly about?
 A. What makes a city friendlier than another. B. An interesting survey about cities.
C. An action research on city inhabitants’ behavior. D. How to conduct a survey in a
city.
Question 35. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. the team B. locals C. strangers D. tests
Question 36. According to paragraph 3, Amsterdam and New York’s inhabitants _______.
A. pay less attention to strangers B. often commit crimes
C. don’t have much money D. have more relaxed lifestyles
Question 37. All of the following are mentioned in the study conducted by social psychologists
from California EXCEPT ______.
A. the research shows that people are more helpful in richer cities.
B. Rio de Janeiro, Vientiane, and Lilongwe are the top three friendliest cities according to
the study.
C. friendliness in a city is more dependent on the environment than culture or nationality.
D. the study took six years to complete.
Question 38. The word “helpful” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. polite B. serious C. honest D. supportive
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 39 to 43.
THE SECRETS OF LONG LIFE
Marge Jetton is speeding down the motorway in her purple car. Marge, ___(39)___ recently
turned 101, is late for one of several volunteer commitments she has today. Already this
morning, she has eaten breakfast, walked 1.6 km, and lifted weights.
Like ___(40)___ other residents of Loma Linda, California, Marge is a member of a religious
community that has always supported healthy living. It ___(41)___ smoking and drinking
alcohol, and discourages the ___(42)___ of most meat, rich foods, and caffeinated drinks as
well as most spices. Instead, they enjoy beans, nuts, whole wheat bread, soy milk, tomatoes,
and other fruits as well as five glasses of water a day.
All of these lower the risk of developing certain diseases. ___(43)___, they get together and
socialize with each other to relieve stress every Saturday. A study has revealed that members of
this community live four to ten years longer than other Californians.
(Adapted from Close up B1-Student’s book)
Question 39. A. whom B. that C. which D. who
Question 40. A. many B. each C. few D.
much
Question 41. A. halts B. forbids C. prevents D.
excludes
Question 42. A. consumption B. storage C. digestion D. intake
Question 43. A. However B. Although C. Because D.
Moreover
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Learning to speak is automatic for almost all children, but learning to read requires elaborate
instruction and conscious effort. Well aware of the difficulties, educators have given a great
deal of thought to how they can best help children learn to read. No single method has
triumphed. Indeed, heated arguments about the most appropriate form of reading instruction
continue to polarize the teaching community.
Three general approaches have been tried. In one, called whole-word instruction, children learn
by rote how to recognize at a glance a vocabulary of 50 to 100 words. Then they gradually
acquire other words, often through seeing them used over and over again in the context of a
story.
Speakers of most languages learn the relationship between letters and the sounds associated
with them (phonemes). That is, children are taught how to use their knowledge of the alphabet
to sound out words. This procedure constitutes a second approach to teaching reading –
phonics.
Many schools have adopted a different approach: the whole-language method. The strategy
here relies on the child’s experience with the language. For example, students are offered
engaging books and are encouraged to guess the words that they do not know by considering
the context of the sentence or by looking for clues in the storyline and illustrations, rather than
trying to sound them out.
Many teachers adopted the whole-language approach because of its intuitive appeal. Making
reading fun promises to keep children motivated, and learning to read depends more on what
the student does than on what the teacher does. The presumed benefits of whole-language
instruction – and the contrast to the perceived dullness of phonics – led to its growing
acceptance across America during the 1990s and a movement away from phonics.
(Adapted from https://mini-ielts.com)
Question 44. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. A Debate Among Educators: Approaches to Teaching Reading
B. The Challenges of Learning to Read
C. The Benefits of Whole-Language Instruction
D. The Triumph of Phonics over Whole-Word Instruction
Question 45. The word appropriate in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. essential B. unsuitable C. proper D. important
Question 46. The word them in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. clues B. books C. words D. illustrations
Question 47. According to paragraph 4, the whole-language method depends on ______.
A. the way the child pronounces words B. the child’s awareness of vocabulary
C. the language experience of the child D. the child’s engagement with books
Question 48. The word appeal in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. purpose B. drawback C. refusal D. attraction
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Educators can use only one method to teach children to read.
B. Most children learn to speak automatically.
C. The whole-language approach is applied because of its intuitive appeal.
D. Educators have tried three approaches to teach children to read.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The abandonment of the phonics approach in American schools was assumed to be due
to its boredom.
B. The influence of the teacher’s activities on student’s learning to read is more important
than anything else.
C. In whole-word instruction, children learn how to use the knowledge of the alphabet.
D. In most languages, speakers learn the connection between letters and the words.

Đề số 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. fish B. high C. ill D. ink
Question 2. A. row B. wife C. swim D. wear
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. different B. negative C. electric D.
natural
Question 4. A. carry B. offer C. exist D.
answer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. The members of the ______ to the South Pole will carry out a number of scientific
experiments.
A. trip B. expedition C. journey D. travel
Question 6. I am about to drop ______ on my parents by telling them that I’m going to quit law
school and pursue a career in art.
A. a brick B. a log C. a stone D. a plank
Question 7. The brand of this car is different ______ the others over there.
A. from B. of C. for D. with
Question 8. My brother intends ______ abroad next year to improve his language skills.
A. to study B. study C. studying D. studied
Question 9. The stadium ______ by the local government in 2000.
A. was financing B. was financed C. has financed. D.
finances
Question 10. She couldn't help but ______ her breath as she witnessed the breathtaking view
from the mountaintop.
A. get B. catch C. take D. stop
Question 11. They had to use candles when the light suddenly ______ during the dinner.
A. switched off B. came off C. went out D. put off
Question 12. Some students cheated in the exam, _______ their teachers and parents.
A. is disappointed B. to disappoint C. disappointing D.
disappointed
Question 13. There are warnings that deforestation will upset the ______ balance of this area.
A. ecology B. ecologically C. ecologist D.
ecological
Question 14. You will not understand the importance of English______.
A. when you will apply for a job B. as soon as you applied for a job
C. until you apply for a job D. after you had applied for a job
Question 15. This is ______ room in Ha Long hotel.
A. the larger B. the largest C. larger D. the most large
Question 16. When I came home yesterday, my mum ______ dinner for our family.
A. prepared B. was preparing C. has prepared D.
prepares
Question 17. The house was built ten years ago, ______?
A. was it B. isn’t it C. wasn’t it D. didn’t it
Question 18. She worked really hard this year, so she was given a 10% pay ______.
 A. bonus B. inflation C. extra D. decrease
Question 19. She put on ______ orange scarf before heading out into the cold winter air.
A. a B. the C. ∅ (no article) D. an
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Jessica is at the airport. She is carrying her suitcases along the way to the check-
in desk. A young man comes over and talks to her.
- The man: “Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?”
- Jessica: “______”
A. No, I can’t help you now. B. No, I can manage them myself.
C. No, those aren’t mine. D. Of course, not for me.
Question 21. Ann and Peter are talking about housework.
- Ann: "I think children should be paid for doing the housework."
- Peter: "______. It's their duty in the family."
A. There's no doubt about it B. You're exactly right
C. I don't think so D. That's what I think
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I made a conscious decision not to interfere in their argument because they
needed to resolve their differences on their own.
A. interpret B. intervene C. interrupt D.
encourage
Question 23. The art gallery features various collections of paintings from many artists.
A. uniform B. similar C. common D. different
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. One noticeable drawback of living in a big family is a lack of privacy.
A. mystery B. advantage C. reason D. concern
Question 25. Go and tell her that you love her! That kind of girl is really few and far between.
A. strange B. unusual C. common D. rare
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. I last wrote about vaccines on this blog over a week ago.
A. I haven’t written about vaccines on this blog for over a week.
B. I have written about vaccines on this blog for over a week.
C. I didn’t write about vaccines on this blog over a week ago.
D. I wrote about vaccines on this blog for over a week.
Question 27. They are not allowed to use our personal information for their own purposes.
A. They can use our personal information for their own purposes.
B. They don’t have to use our personal information for their own purposes.
C. They may use our personal information for their own purposes.
D. They mustn’t use our personal information for their own purposes.
Question 28. They claimed, "We have never seen anything like this before."
A. They claimed they never saw anything like that before.
B. They claimed they never see anything like this before.
C. They claimed they had never seen anything like that before.
D. They claimed they have never seen anything like this before.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Overall, the percentage of consumers who make online purchases this
year shows a considerate increase in cosmetics and household appliances.
A. considerate B. shows C. percentage D. appliances
Question 30. She decides to quit her job to stay at home and look after her sick mother last
month.
A. to quit B. after C. decides D. to
Question 31. Bottlenose dolphins are usually slow swimmers, but it can reach speeds of over
30 mph for short periods.
A. speeds B. periods C. it D. usually
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. Ann had Chat GPT correct her essay. Hence, she got high marks in the test.
A. If Ann had Chat GPT correct her essay, she couldn’t get high marks in the test.
B. If Ann hadn’t had her essay corrected by Chat GPT, she couldn’t get high marks in the
test.
C. If Ann hadn’t had her essay corrected by Chat GPT, she couldn’t have got high marks in
the test.
D. If Chat GPT hadn’t corrected her essay, Ann wouldn’t get high marks in the test.
Question 33. Peter failed the interview again. He was fully aware of the importance of having
careful preparation only then.
A. No sooner had Peter fully been aware of the importance of having careful preparation
than he failed the interview again.
B. Hardly had Peter fully been aware of the importance of having careful preparation when
he failed the interview again.
C. Not until Peter was fully aware of the importance of having careful preparation did he
fail the interview again.
D. Only after Peter had failed the interview again was he fully aware of the importance of
having careful preparation .
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
One of the main causes of pressure on children today is the increased use of social media.
Nowadays, children spend ___(34)___ hours interacting with social media platforms. It is
thought that this has led to pressures to maintain a particular image. If children share an image
or video online, the number of likes or comments can have a dramatic effect on how they feel
about themselves. They also feel under pressure to maintain a particular image to show how
exciting their lifestyle is. ___(35)___, there is a constant focus on their social lives, and they
feel judged about their vacations and the things they like and do. In addition to pressures from
social media, children are feeling increasing pressure from living in an
environment ___(36)___ they are always in contact with people. Previously, if a child had a
difficult time with friends, they could leave this behind at school. The shift to smartphones has
meant that this has become increasingly difficult. A number of surveys have ___(37)___ how
not being able to switch off and walk away has increased stress levels for children. If
technological ___(38)___ was limited, it would significantly reduce stress levels for young
people.
Question 34. A. much B. few C. many D. a little
Question 35. A. However B. Moreover C. Therefore D.
Otherwise
Question 36. A. why B. which C. where D. when
Question 37. A. highlighted B. displayed C. presented D.
demonstrated
Question 38. A. advance B. approach C. access D.
development
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43
Einstein took longer than usual to begin to speak. He began sometime after his second birthday.
He was also rebellious towards authority when he was at school. These two facts may have
been the origin of a popular myth that Einstein was a bad student and that he failed at school.
This is simply not true. Einstein was outstanding at physics and Math when he was young. At
sixteen, he wrote a brilliant essay that had a direct link with his later work in relativity. The
myth may also come from the fact that at sixteen, he tried to get into the prestigious Federal
Polytechnic in Zurich. The normal entrance age was eighteen. It seems he failed some of the
non-science subjects, doing badly in French, for example. The school did not take him. But the
next year, he passed. In later life, Einstein was well-known for making some mistakes in his
Math and the Math he was doing was not exactly straightforward.
Einstein's brain was quite special, a part of it is responsible for mathematical thought and
spatial-kinesthetic intelligence. In Einstein's brain, this region was 15 percent wider than
average. Besides, the line running from the front of the brain to the back was not complete.
They think that this allowed the two halves of Einstein's brain to talk to each other more
fluently. How do we know all this? After he died, a curious scientist removed his brain to check
it out.
(Adapted from “Gateway B2, by David Spencer)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The early life of Einstein B. Young Einstein’s performance at school
C. Extraordinary facts about Einstein D. Facts about Einstein's brain
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT true about Einstein according to the passage?
A. His later work in relativity was found to be connected with the essay written when he
was sixteen.
B. He was good at literature and languages in his secondary school.
C. He was exceptional in physics and math during his younger years.
D. He was famous for making mistakes in his mathematics during his later years.
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following can be a fact about Einstein?
A. He never made any mistakes at school. B. He failed at school when he was
young.
C. He was admitted to Federal Polytechnic at 17. D. He was known as a bad
student.
Question 42. The word “outstanding’’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. brilliant B. subordinate C. obedient D.
unmanageable
Question 43. The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. maths B. Einstein's brain C. intelligence
D. thought
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
To be successful, a business traveler must be able to maintain contact with the office, no matter
what the time or place. Negotiations often involve decisions based on the latest figures;
therefore, modern employers tend to look for those who are able to master state-of-the-
art equipment. New telecommunications products and services now on the market make
staying in touch easier than ever before.
The most widespread device is the cellular telephone, the price of which has dropped from
several thousand dollars to a few hundred, including installation. Users of any budgets can
afford one with all necessary functions to meet their need to communicate, to entertain or to
study and work. There are over 2 million mobile cellular phones in use today, including both
car phones and cordless transportable units. Car phones have proven indispensable for road
emergencies as well as routine business transactions. Phone service is also available on
airplanes and on the rails.
Recently introduced pocket-size organizers help business travelers with heavy schedules keep
track of clients. These are tiny computers that can store all kinds of information that can satisfy
any users in spite of any jobs they have. They can serve as phone and address directories,
calendars, electronic memo pads, and calculators, among other uses. As a result, this device has
become an indispensable assistant for many people.
Another invaluable telecommunications tool is smaller, lighter fax machines that plug into any
standard electrical outlet and phone line. The devices allow instantaneous transmission of hard
copy to any location having a compatible fax machine. It is expected that faxing will soon
become the primary means of sending and receiving short documents requiring prompt
attention. Fax machines have come in a wide range of models and greater offer of applications.
Question 44. What is the best title for the passage?
A. The Business Travelers B. New Telecommunications Products and
Services
C. Office Communications D. Computers and Businessmen
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, what do negotiations require?
A. judgments based on the most recent data B. the market and products that are
popular
C. the latest figures about the market and consumers
D. new telecommunications products and services
Question 46. The phrase state-of-the-art in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. fashionable B. advanced C. expensive D.
useful
Question 47. The word They in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. The computer users B. All kinds of information
C. The pocket-size computers D. Different jobs
Question 48. The word instantaneous in paragraph 4 most closely means ________.
A. reasonable B. cheap C. obligatory D. rapid
Question 49. It can be inferred from the passage that fax machines probably ________.
A. are now as small and light as they can ever be
B. are still far from becoming a standard business tool
C. cannot be used in conjunction with phone service
D. will replace mail delivery of short documents
Question 50. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
 A. Few people have relied on pocket-size computers as their primary assistance.
B. Cellular phones have become popular in many fields.
C. The price of cellular phones has decreased drastically.
D. A wide range of data can be stored in pocket-size organizers to meet the needs of all
users.

Đề số 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. knife B. bird C. time D. mind
Question 2. A. city B. cure C. bloc D. cave
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. publish B. subscribe C. protect D. recruit
Question 4. A. benefit B. industry C. reviewer D.
furniture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. The bomb exploded with a loud bang, ______ the whole building.
A. was destroyed B. destroying C. destroyed D. to
destroy
Question 6. They want to cancel the match, ______?
A. didn’t they B. do they C. don’t they D. are they
Question 7. The postman rang the bell while Martin ______ the car.
A. is repairing B. was repairing C. repairs D.
repaired
Question 8. If your father ever finds out that you’ve been taking days off school he’ll come
down on you like a ______ of bricks
A. wheelbarrow B. pile C. ton D. load
Question 9. In the future world, the ______ experience of all people on the planet will be
recorded.
A. collection B. collect C. collector D. collective
Question 10. Hanh will finish all her work ______.
A. after her boss had returned B. while her boss was returning
C. as soon as her boss returns D. before her boss returned
Question 11. I'm not sure if I'm capable ______ handling this difficult situation.
A. at B. of C. with D. in
Question 12. This car is ______ in the showroom
A. the most expensive B. the more expensive C. so expensive D.
more expensive
Question 13. This beautiful painting ______ to us by my grandfather last year.
A. was giving B. gives C. has given D. was given
Question 14. The agencies are working together to coordinate ______ on food safety.
A. campaign B. procedure C. policy D. rule
Question 15. I ______ a few adjustments to the gears, and my bike works much better now.
A. did B. acted C. made D. formed
Question 16. She threatened ______ me to court for not paying the bill on time.
 A. take B. to take C. taking D. taken
Question 17. When he retires, he will be able to look back over a brilliant ______.
A. work B. occupation C. career D. job
Question 18. I was consoling Joey on her having ______ with her boyfriend.
A. broken up B. grown on C. grown up D. broken
away
Question 19. When I visited the zoo yesterday, I saw______ elephant.
A. the B. a C. ∅ (no article) D. an
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Sarah and Jenifer are talking about gender equality in employment.
- Sarah: “I believe that married women should not pursue a career.”
- Jenifer: “______. Doing the same things at home every day is really tiring and boring.”
A. I couldn’t agree more B. Keep up the good work
C. Oh, I don’t know D. I don’t agree with you
Question 21. Peter is talking to Mary about eating habits.
- Peter: “You should eat more fruits and vegetables.”
- Mary: “______.”
A. Yes, I will B. No, thanks C. My pleasure D. You’re
welcome
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The rapid industrialization of the area resulted in the exhaustion of natural
resources.
A. influence B. exploitation C. depression D. depletion
Question 23. The teacher wanted to emphasize the importance of studying regularly for
academic success by talking about that again and again.
A. ban B. admire C. stress D. hesitate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Last year, they had some financial difficulties when her husband was fired.
Together, they weathered the storm and figured out how to keep going.
A. came safely through a difficult period B. worked in a difficult period
slowly
C. understood a difficult period quickly D. failed to overcome a difficult
period
Question 25. The scientist affirmed the importance of maintaining ecological balance and
preserving the planet's natural resources.
A. recognized B. emphasized C. denied D. stressed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. Using dictionaries is not allowed in the examination.
A. You mustn’t use dictionaries in the examination.
B. You won’t use dictionaries in the examination.
C. You needn’t use dictionaries in the examination.
D. You shouldn’t use dictionaries in the examination.
Question 27. They said, "We'll be moving to a new house next month."
 A. They told us they will be moving to a new house next month.
B. They said they will be moving to a new house next month.
C. They told they would be moving to a new house the following month.
D. They said they would be moving to a new house the following month.
Question 28. The last time I saw my fellows was a month ago.
A. I have seen my fellows for a month. B. I did not see my fellows for a
month.
C. I have not seen my fellows for a month. D. I saw my fellows for a month.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Some of his activities are illegal, but the local authorities tend to turn a blind eye
to him.
A. Some B. him C. but D. turn
Question 30. Andrew said that stairways in the affected buildings are in eminent danger
of collapse and unsafe for residents to use.
A. to use B. eminent C. affected D. collapse
Question 31. I cycle to my village at this time last Sunday.
A. at B. last C. my village D. cycle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. Mrs. Daisy broke up with her husband. Then she understood all what he had
sacrificed for her.
A. Only by breaking up with her husband did Mrs. Daisy understand all what he had
sacrificed for her.
B. Hardly had Mrs. Daisy understood all what her husband had sacrificed for her when she
broke up with him.
C. Only after Mrs. Daisy had broken up with her husband did she understand all what he
had sacrificed for her.
D. No sooner had Mrs. Daisy understood all what her husband had sacrificed for her than
she broke up with him.
Question 33. He didn't know the road was icy. Thus, he was driving very fast.
A. If he had known the road was icy, he wouldn't have been driving so fast.
B. If he knew the road was icy, he would drive so fast.
C. If he knew the road was icy, he wouldn't drive so fast.
D. If he had known the road was icy, he would have been driving so fast.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Through the centuries, the dream of medieval alchemists was to discover how to turn lead
and ___(34)___ "base" metals into gold. Some were fakes, but many were learned men with
philosophical goals. Their ___(35)___ was based on the ancient idea that all matter consists of
different proportions of just four substances - earth, water, fire, and air. They believed that it
was possible to adjust the proportions of the elements that made up lead by chemical means so
that it turned into gold, a process called transmutation. Their experiments were concerned with
finding the substance - ___(36)___ they called the philosopher's stone - that, when added to
lead, would cause this astonishing change to take place. Alchemists also searched for the elixir
of life, a substance that could cure diseases and ___(37)___ life. They failed on both
counts. ___(38)___, their techniques for preparing and studying chemicals helped lay the
foundation for the modern science of chemistry.
(Adapted from “VSTEP Collection”)
Question 34. A. one B. other C. others D.
another
Question 35. A. expedition B. investigation C. quest D.
adventure
Question 36. A. which B. who C. whose D.
where
Question 37. A. increase B. lengthen C. expand D. prolong
Question 38. A. Furthermore B. Therefore C. Despite D.
However
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
There are many kinds of books in the world. They fall into two categories which are fiction and
non-fiction. Well-received books from either kind are even made into movies and games.
Fiction books are written using the imagination. The characters and events surrounding them
are not real. Fiction books can be found in abundance at bookstores and libraries. They can
even be found on the shelves of comic shops and game shops. Often, fiction books are written
in two or three combinations from the science, fantasy and classical groups. The most popular
kind among youngsters is probably in the area of fantasy. Anything involving magic and
witchcraft, space-crafts and aliens, or superheroes and time travel may be used in this category.
Many different kinds of non-fiction books are available on the market. These are written about
facts, real people, real events and real places. Most of the time, non-fiction books are written by
people who have experienced or witnessed the happenings themselves. Real-life stories can also
be contributed by readers and thus they can be found in magazines and newspapers.
As more books are written and produced across the globe, our choice for selection also
increases. Although reading is a good form of habit, choosing the right kind of books to read is
just as important. We, as the readers, have the responsibility to learn to choose wisely.
(Adapted from Conquer Comprehension 3 by Judy Tilaka & Felicia Wong)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Tips to choose fiction and non-fiction books
B. Difference between fiction and non-fiction books
C. Reading books: a good habit
D. The importance of readers’ choices in reading books
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT true in the passage?
A. Both popular fiction and non-fiction books are made into games.
B. Reading the right kind of books is important.
C. Choosing a suitable book is not as important as developing a habit of reading.
D. Non-fiction books are based on the writers’ experiences.
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, fiction books involve _____.
A. facts B. imaginary events C. real life stories D.
experience
Question 42. The word fantasy in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. comics B. romance C. reality D. imagination
Question 43. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. real-life stories B. readers C. the happening D. non-fiction
books
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Within the space of a few decades, video game technology has changed beyond recognition.
From basic single-player computer games involving simple stick controls, we can
now manipulate the movements of computer game characters with our bodies. We can even
invite other people from anywhere in the world to join us in online games. So how might
gaming evolve in the next few decades?
The average age of gamers has risen to about 30 in recent years. Experts agree that this trend is
likely to continue. Not only are people continuing to play games later in life, but now even
older people with no computer skills can also confidently take part in the games console
revolution. More and more games are designed to need very little pressing of buttons. Games of
the future may even be completely voice-activated. Because of this user-friendliness, game
designers are trying to appeal to a whole new market, the middle-aged. We may soon see the
release of games with themes such as gardening or cookery.
The younger generation, however, can push themselves harder with more serious gaming, and
they expect games to become a lot more physical in the future. There are already some games
that sense the movement of any part of the body. Soon, game consoles will even be adapted to
the way we feel through our facial expressions. Some games will feel more real than ever
through the use of 3D imagery.
Today's most advanced video games are played at home, but it is already common for people to
continue playing them wherever they go via their phones or similarly-sized gadgets. Businesses
could even try to take advantage of this, couldn't they? They could start advertising within
games that are being played by people in their target groups, those who live in certain areas or
by people with particular tastes.
(Adapted from On Screen B2 by Virginia Evans- Jenny Dooley)
Question 44. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Importance of Mastering Computer Games
B. The Changes in The Gaming World
C. The Impacts of Computer Games on Players
D. The Comparison Between Computer Games in The Past And Today
Question 45. The word “manipulate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. maintain B. control C. increase D. prevent
Question 46. According to paragraph 2, what is one factor making game consoles more
accessible to older people?
A. Introduction of virtual reality technology. B. Decrease in the price of game
consoles.
C. Improved graphics and sound effects. D. Games requiring less button
pressing.
Question 47. The word “adapted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. carried B. removed C. adjusted D.
supported
Question 48. The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. phones B. video games C. people D.
gadgets
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true about future games according to the passage?
A. Computer games might be more popular with middle-aged people.
B. Some games are more lifelike with 3D images.
C. Gaming will only be limited to playing at home.
 D. Video games for younger players will be physically demanding.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the final paragraph?
A. It is a good idea for companies to put ads in games played by a certain group of people.
B. Players can choose not to see advertisements during their games on smartphones.
C. Businesses should make their own computer games to advertise their products.
D. People prefer playing games on their smart devices which contain advertisements.

Đề số 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. sure B. same C. taste
D. soup
Question 2. A. cure B. turn C. hurt D.
burn
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. listen B. reduce C. punish D.
visit
Question 4. A. pollution B. attitude C. applicant
D. habitat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. Medical researchers encouraged people ______ more fluids and eat fruits and
vegetables with a high-water content.
A. to drink B. drinking C. to drinking D. drink
Question 6. That’s her bag, _________?
A. isn’t it B. is it C. has it D. hasn’t it
Question 7. Our old friends arrived while we _________ the dishes.
A. are washing B. have washed C. were washing
D. washed
Question 8. Mona Lisa ______ by Leonardo da Vinci in the early 16th century.
A. has painted B. was painted C. was painting
D. paints
Question 9. The _________ between the rich and poor is staggering in most developing
countries.
A. different B. difference C. differently D.
differ
Question 10. Paris is famous _________ its fashion, art, and delicious cuisine.
A. to B. at C. of D. for
Question 11. You should _________ this book again? There is a lot of information you need.
A. care about B. go over C. break down D.
show off
Question 12. After the Cabinet reshuffle, the Minister wasn’t very happy at his new
_________.
A. job B. post C. shift D. work
Question 13. Thousands of unexploded bombs still exist, ______ the government and citizens
worried.
 A. made B. to make C. making D. is making
Question 14. Mary got straight A again this term. She’s ______student of all.
A. as hard-working B. more hard-working
C. the most hard-working D. hard-working than
Question 15. She is ______ honest person. You can trust her.
A. ∅ (no article) B. the C. an D. a
Question 16. ______, the manager assistant will inform us about the result.
A. When the meeting had ended B. When the meeting ends
C. When the meeting ended D. When the meeting was ending
Question 17. After the leader’s suggestions, all members said nothing, and I was the first one
to ______ the silence in the discussion.
A. break B. stop C. pause D. drop
Question 18. My husband is a teacher, and whenever he gets together with his coworkers, they
do nothing but talk ______ the whole time.
A. shop B. store C. mall D. market
Question 19. The ______ cuisines in Vietnam include Pho, Banh Mi, and local delicacies.
A. character B. formula C. autograph D.
signature
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."
- Jimmy: "_________. There are successful people without a degree."
A. That's life B. That's all right C. I can't agree more D. I don't
quite agree
Question 21. Tim wants to make an apology to Bill for having broken his racket.
- Tim: “Sorry, I didn’t mean to do that.”
- Bill: “_________”
A. Then what did you mean? B. You can blame yourself.
C. No problem. Don’t worry about it. D. You’ve to forget it!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I hope you'll consider including me in the English club activities; I believe it
would be a fantastic opportunity for me to immerse myself in the language.
A. removing B. engaging C. composing D.
adding
Question 23. The teacher will evaluate the students’ performance based on their understanding
of the learning materials by giving them a test.
A. simplify B. accept C. assess D. ignore
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. After years of rivalry with her cousin, she decided to hold out an olive
branch and go have fun together.
A. become friends again B. become enemies with each other
C. become understandable D. become difficult to understand
Question 25. After months of fruitless negotiations with team owners, the city withdrew its
offer to build a new stadium.
 A. successful B. qualified C. significant D.
unexpected
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. The last time Paul paid a visit to Vietnam was 10 years ago.
A. Paul has paid a visit to Vietnam for 10 years.
B. Paul spent 10 years paying a visit to Vietnam.
C. Paul hasn’t paid a visit to Vietnam for 10 years.
D. Paul didn’t pay a visit to Vietnam 10 years ago.
Question 27. It is impossible for John to drive a car without a driving license.
A. John must drive a car without a driving license.
B. John can’t drive a car without a driving license.
C. John may drive a car without a driving license.
D. John needn’t drive a car without a driving license.
Question 28. They told me, "We will visit the new museum downtown next week."
A. They told me that they would visit the new museum downtown the next week.
B. They told me they visit the new museum downtown the following week.
C. They told me that I would visit the new museum downtown next week.
D. They told me that they will visit the new museum downtown the next week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. In 1452, a man named Leonardo Da
Vinci experimented with airplane designs in their artwork.
A. designs B. experimented C. their D.
airplane
Question 30. The agency is showing all the signs of an aged company whose growth is too
dependent on buying market size.
A. market B. signs C. aged D. agency
Question 31. One of the most feasible methods of forest conservation these days was to
control the cutting of trees.
A. conservation B. was C. One of D. feasible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. The audience just took their seats. The leader singer stepped onto the stage then.
A. Not until the leader singer stepped onto the stage did the audience take their seats.
B. Only when the leader singer stepped onto the stage the audience took their seats.
C. Hardly did the audience take their seats, the leader singer stepped onto the stage.
D. No sooner had the audience taken their seats than the leader singer stepped onto the
stage.
Question 33. She watched a lot of films in Japanese. That’s why she had no difficulty
communicating with people in Japan.
A. If she hadn’t watched a lot of films in Japanese, she would have had difficulty
communicating with people in Japan.
B. If she had watched a lot of films in Japanese, she would have had difficulty
communicating with people in Japan.
C. If she didn’t watch a lot of films in Japanese, she would have difficulty communicating
with people in Japan.
 D. If she hadn’t watched a lot of films in Japanese, she would have had no difficulty
communicating with people in Japan.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Human beings are extremely diverse in very many ways. People ___(34)___ in opinions, race,
nationality, gender, age, sexuality, ethnicity, class, religion, lifestyle and so much more, yet at
the very basic we are all human species. Ideally, ___(35)___ people feel pain and joy despite
the differences. Today, the changes in time and technology have made it extremely impossible
for any group of people to live without interacting with other outside their group. Often, people
of different cultural and geographical ___(36)___ meet in international conferences, education
exchange programs, sports, etc.
Sadly, the history of mankind discriminating against each other based on cultural differences
has been with us for ages. So many people have died or have been denied their
rights ___(37)___ individual greed. Properties and economies have also been destroyed due to
lack of understanding. Unfortunately, some of these occurrences are visible even today,
perpetuated by people ___(38)___ little understand the importance of the uniqueness of our
diversity.
(Source: https://www.springbreakwatches.com)
Question 34. A. separate B. disagree C. differ D.
distinguish
Question 35. A. every B. little C. all D.
much
Question 36. A. backgrounds B. settings C. identities D.
evidences
Question 37. A. despite B. though C. because of D.
thanks to
Question 38. A. which B. who C. whose D.
whom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
The decisions we make in our early life, e.g. what school we go to, the subjects we choose to
study, the decision to go to university/college, the courses we choose, can impact our career
path. If this decision is heavily swayed by parental preference, the child may end up following a
vocation that, deep down, they are not interested in. At the same time, without practical
guidance and support when pursuing interests, poor choices can be made.
Everyone has a unique set of skills and aptitudes. Each child is individual in their own way, and
so may possess different skills and abilities to their parents. With this in mind, adopting a
similar career role to either parent may not be the right course of action.
We all take time to ‘find our feet’. Parents will often say things such as “pick a course you
think you’ll like” or “why don’t you apply for this job”. Though it may seem they are doing the
right thing in terms of steering their children in the right direction, parents also need to
understand that we all need space and time to discover what we truly want to pursue.
University, for example, isn’t for everyone – and engaging in relevant work experience and/ or
undertaking an apprenticeship can be just as valuable in finding a suitable vocation
in which you can thrive.
The trick here is to educate children that life is about self-discovery and new skills and talents
are developed. How many of us are in careers we thought we would be in when we were 18?
We can only make decisions based on what we know about ourselves at the time, take the
pressure off them by letting them know it's okay that they aren't sure what they want to do yet
but the important thing is to be proactive in finding their way.
(Adapted from https://www.midkent.ac.uk/)
Question 39. Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Valuable things in a suitable vocation
B. Adopting a similar career role to either parent
C. Practical guidance and support for children
D. Advice on guiding children’s education
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT true about the decisions we make in our early
life?
A. They have an influence on our career
B. They are made without parents’ guidance
C. Sometimes, we do not like the job our parents decide
D. Parents play an important role in our decision making.
Question 41. The word “steering” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. guiding B. forcing C. competing D.
preventing
Question 42. What is the benefit of relevant work experience or undertaking an apprenticeship
for children?
A. It helps in finding a suitable vocation. B. It gives a vocation of great
value.
C. It makes children like their vocation. D. It teaches children to be
confident.
Question 43. The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. work experience B. apprenticeship C. suitable vocation
D. University
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently
linked to one another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of
devastation when they hit. However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot
happen without them.
The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the
outer layer of the Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it consists of a number of plates.
There are a few enormous plates and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the
mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in constant and slow motion. The plates may
move away from or toward other plates. In some cases, they collide violently with the plates
next to them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the rock. Over a long time, this
tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens.
Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only
scientific instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel
them, yet they cause little harm or damage. More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause
buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. They may additionally injure and kill
thousands of people and might even cause the land to change its appearance.
Since most of the Earth's surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen under the planet's
oceans. Underwater earthquakes cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of
water in the ocean. When this occurs, a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the
surface and moves in all directions from the place where the earthquake happened. A tsunami
moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of kilometers. As it approaches land, the
water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunami to increase in height.
Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami can travel far inland. As it does that, it can
flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people.
Question 44. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. How Earthquakes and Tsunamis Occur
B. What Kind of Damage Natural Disasters Can Cause
C. Why Tsunamis Are Deadlier Than Earthquakes
D. When Earthquakes Are Likely to Happen
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, tsunamis occur ______.
A. right after earthquakes B. at the same time with earthquakes
C. with no earthquakes D. before the unexpected earthquakes
Question 46. The word collide in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. merge B. hit C. break D. move
Question 47. The word perceive in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. prevent B. locate C. detect D. derive
Question 48. The word They in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. powerful earthquakes B. other structures
C. thousands of people D. scientific instruments
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The movement of the Earth's crustal plates can cause tension, leading to the occurrence
of earthquakes.
B. Underwater earthquakes can cause tsunamis, which can be extremely powerful and
destructive.
C. The Earth's crust consists of a number of plates that are in constant and slow motion.
D. Most earthquakes happen on land rather than under water and damage infrastructures.
Question 50. According to the passage, what can be inferred about tsunamis?
A. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean.
B. They kill more people each year than earthquakes.
C. They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound.
D. They are dangerous to people living near the shore.

Đề số 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. both B. south C. month
D. smooth
Question 2. A. met B. wet C. set
D. islet
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. classify B. separate C. organize D.
develop
Question 4. A. support B. govern C. employ
D. donate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. I'm thinking of buying ______ new pair of shoes for my sister's wedding.
A. a B. ∅ (no article) C. an D. the
Question 6. The blue whale is by far ______ animal on Earth.
A. heavier B. more heavy C. the most heavy D. the
heaviest
Question 7. After months of hard work, the team finally turned ______ and launched their new
product successfully.
A. over a new leaf B. the corner C. a blind eye
D. a deaf ear
Question 8. Except for some parts that are ______, the whole story is absolutely true.
A. found out B. thought of C. made up D. took up
Question 9. If you don’t want your business to _ bankrupt, avoid consulting those willing to
step out on a limb.
A. pay B. come C. take D. go
Question 10. .______ unwell, she decided to stay home instead of going to work..
A. Feeling B. Felt C. To feel D. Being felt
Question 11. Secondary education is now compulsory nationwide, ______?
A. wasn’t it B. was it? C. does it D. isn’t it?
Question 12. Humans depend on species ______to have food, clean air and water, and fertile
soil for agriculture.
A. minority B. capacity C. diversity D. majority
Question 13. Going on a roller coaster ride makes me experience motion ______.
A. weakness B. sickness C. tiredness D. illness
Question 14. They tried ______further funds in the research project on protecting the
environment.
A. raise B. raising C. to raise D. to raising
Question 15. The letter ______ to her parents by her little son last night.
A. was writing B. has written C. was written D.
writes
Question 16. The most ______thing about it is the large number of color photographs.
A. fascinating B. fascination C. fascinate D.
fascinatingly
Question 17. You shouldn’t share your secret with her because she is bad ______keeping it.
A. among B. at C. with D. on
Question 18. The accident happened when the drunken man ______to work.
A. drives B. drove C. is driving D. was
driving
Question 19. ______, she will have made a big cake.
A. When you will drop in her house B. Until you had dropped in her
house
C. By the time you drop in her house D. After you dropped in her house
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Sarah and Minh are talking about music.
- Sarah: “I think music can heal our soul and enhance our mood.”
- Minh: “_________. Listening to music is an effective way to release stress and bring us good
feelings.”
 A. I like music, too B. It’s hard to say so
C. I’m afraid it is not true D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 21. Peter is asking Mary, his classmate, for her opinion about the film they watched
last night.
- Peter: “What do you think about the film?”
- Mary: “_________”
A. I wish I could watch one. B. The best I've ever watched!
C. Yes, let's watch it together. D. I can't agree with you more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The company launched a new marketing campaign to promote its latest product.
A. inspire B. advertise C. develop D. release
Question 23. John had many problems to overcome, but he held onto his conviction that he
could make his dreams come true.
A. confusion B. worry C. belief D. pause
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Thanks to Greenpeace’s campaigns, people's level of environmental awareness
has improved significantly.
A. developed B. bettered C. declined D.
increased
Question 25. I tried to be friendly with her but I was told she’s a hard nut to crack.
A. a person who is very difficult to understand B. a complicated problem to
solve
C. a person who is sociable D. a difficult problem or situation to
deal with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. I last went to the cinema two weeks ago.
A. I didn’t go to the cinema for two weeks.
B. I haven’t gone to the cinema for two weeks.
C. I have gone to the cinema for two weeks.
D. I went to the cinema for two weeks.
Question 27. "I saw a shooting star last night," she told her friends.
A. She told her friends she saw a shooting star the previous night.
B. She told her friends she was seeing a shooting star the night before.
C. She told her friends that she had seen a shooting star last night.
D. She told her friends she had seen a shooting star the night before.
Question 28. It is necessary for you to wash your hands before eating.
A. You must wash your hands before eating.
B. You would wash your hands before eating.
C. You can wash your hands before eating.
D. You may wash your hands before eating.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. She is on the front cover of a famous magazine last week.
A. front B. is C. of D. magazine
Question 30. In the 1930s, the nation of Germany was well known for theirs amazing flying
machines known as dirigibles.
A. for B. nation C. dirigibles D. theirs
Question 31. To ensure a mutually beneficent outcome, it is necessary that both parties be
fully informed of all relevant information.
A. beneficent B. necessary C. relevant D.
informed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. He missed too many lessons. Thus, he couldn’t retake the exam.
A. If he hadn’t missed too many lessons, he might not have retaken the exam.
B. Had he missed too many lessons, he could have retaken the exam.
C. If he hadn’t missed too many lessons, he could have retaken the exam.
D. He could retake the exam if he didn’t miss too many lessons.
Question 33. Online distribution of pirated publications is illegal. Many Internet users still
commit the offence.
A. As long as many Internet users commit the offence, online distribution of pirated
publications is illegal.
B. Were online distribution of pirated publications illegal, many Internet users wouldn't
commit the offence.
C. Such is the offence of many Internet users that online distribution of pirated
publications is illegal.
D. Illegal though online distribution of pirated publications is, many Internet users still
commit the offence.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to
38.
An Energy Booster
When you train, your body loses the essential vitamins and nutrients necessary to function
properly. For many years, athletes have compensated for this loss by drinking beverages
designed to restore and rehydrate what the body loses. One such substance ___(34)___ has been
on the market as a nutritious substitute is the sports drink Gatorade. Gatorade got its start back
in 1965, when ___(35)___ medical researchers at the University of Florida were asked by the
football team to find a dietary ___(36)___ that would help keep the players energetic during the
long, hot practices in the Florida heat. The doctors went about experimenting to create a new,
healthy sports drink. ___(37)___ it took a lot of work, they eventually came up with a drink that
helped improve athletes’ endurance. The team decided to call the drink ‘Gatorade’. Soon, the
entire team started drinking Gatorade regularly, and to prove the ___(38)___ of the new tonic,
the Gators went on to win the Orange Bowl in 1967.
Question 34. A. who B. that C. where
D. when
Question 35. A. another B. every C. a lot of
D. much
Question 36. A. enhancement B. addition C. request D.
supplement
Question 37. A. Because B. For example C. However D.
Although
Question 38. A. influence B. advantage C. effectiveness
D. benefit
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Dogs originally came from wolves. Wolves look a lot like dogs, but they are bigger. They are
also quite fierce. At some point, some wolves changed through evolution. Some of them were
smaller and gentler. These nicer wolves were the first dogs. No one knows for sure when this
happened or why. Some people say it happened naturally over 50,000 years ago. Others say
people made it happen between 15,000 and 50,000 years ago.
However, they came to be, people quickly saw that dogs were useful. Scientists who study
humans say the first tamed dogs appeared with humans about 13,000 years ago in the Middle
East. Not long after there were dogs in Asia, Africa, Europe and eventually, North America.
These dogs were probably used mostly for hunting and traveling. They were also good
companions.
Dogs were an important part of life in ancient Egypt. Egyptian dogs were used not only for
hunting but as guards and warriors as well. They believed the god that guarded hell was a dog.
Ancient Egyptians also named their pet dogs. Some popular names meant Brave One, Reliable,
North-wind, Blacky, and Useless. Dogs were also good ancient Roman warriors. The Roman
army used dogs all over Europe. Sometimes the dogs were attack dogs, but other times the dogs
were messengers.
There are many different kinds of dogs today. How could they all come from wolves? There are
many different explanations. Some scientists believe that dogs mixed with other animals from
the Canidae family. This includes coyotes, foxes and jackals. Most scientists also believe that
evolution and breeding influenced the variation. Later, people found breeds of dogs they liked
and combined them to make all new breeds. In this way, people are still helping new breeds to
appear today!
Question 39. The passage is mainly about ______.
A. the development and transformation of dogs over time
B. the beginnings or emergence of dogs as a species
C. dogs throughout historical events and eras. D. factual details concerning
dogs.
Question 40. The word guards in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. protectors B. hunters C. soldiers
D. pets
Question 41. The word they in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. people B. scientists C. jackals D. foxes
Question 42. When were the first tamed dogs seen beside humans?
A. About 13,000 years ago B. Over 50,000 years ago
C. About 15,000 years ago D. Between 15,000 and 50,000 years ago
Question 43. All of the following are mentioned in the passage, EXCEPT ______.
A. The exact origin of the first dogs remains unknown
B. Humans played a role in the evolution of dogs
C. Dogs are descendants of wolves
D. The Romans used dogs for a specific task.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
In the United States, air-conditioning has influenced the movement of population from the
cooler northern states to the southern ones. Since air-conditioning made life more pleasant in
the summer months, states like Florida and Arizona began to draw people from the north. This
population shift has affected regional economies between northern and southern states.
The effects of air-conditioning on society are hardly limited to the United States. Singapore's
Senior Minister, Lee Kuan Yew, claims that air-conditioning is one reason for Singapore's rise
as an Asian power. In his view, societies in the past progressed most rapidly in countries with
cooler climates, but now that countries in tropical zones are using air-conditioning, they can
also expand and grow. The use of air-conditioning is seen in some Asian countries as a way to
show status. In Hong Kong, for example, office managers tend to keep temperatures extremely
cold, sometimes at only 60°F (16°C), 10 to 14°F (6 to 7°C) below the recommended settings.
The main reason is simply to show that the company can afford it.
Although air-conditioning has led to economic improvement and has increased daily comfort
for people everywhere, its impact on the environment has not been so positive. First, air
conditioning units release polluting chemicals into the air, which contribute to global warming.
Furthermore, running air-conditioning on a large scale requires enormous amounts of energy.
The burning of coal and oil to produce this energy also contributes to air pollution and thus, to
global warming.
In some countries, governments and industry are beginning to search for ways to reduce the
harm caused by air-conditioning. In Japan, summer temperatures have been raised in office
buildings to conserve energy. In the United States, government, industry, and private groups are
searching for ways to reduce the amount of dangerous chemicals released by air conditioners.
Staying cool is important, and many cannot imagine life without air-conditioning. However,
new technologies are to be found to make sure that air-conditioning does not create more
problems than it solves.
(Adapted from Advanced Reading Power by B.S. Mikulecky and L. Jefferies)
Question 44. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Air-conditioning: Overpopulation and Global Warming
B. Air-conditioning: Better Technologies for the Future
C. Air-conditioning: Economic and Environmental Impact
D. Air-conditioning: Making It More Eco-Friendly
Question 45. The word shift in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. transition B. schedule C. movement D. change
Question 46. The word status in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. respect B. strength C. rank D. platform
Question 47. According to paragraph 2, the recommended temperature settings are _______.
A. 60 to 70°F (16 to 22°C) B. 70 to 74 °F (22 to 23°C)
C. 46 to 50°F (8 to 10°C) D. 10 to 14°F (6 to 7°C)
Question 48. The word they in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. countries in tropical zones B. countries with cooler climates
C. some Asian countries D. societies in the past
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Reducing harmful effects of air conditioners requires collaboration among economic
sectors.
B. Keeping office temperatures warmer is one of the recommended energy-conserving
solutions.
C. Air-conditioning is environmentally destructive as it requires a lot of energy to run.
D. Most companies in Hong Kong fail to cover the expenses for air-conditioning their
offices.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The disadvantages of air-conditioning outweigh its advantages.
B. Some problems resulting from air-conditioning remain unsolved.
C. Some people have to sacrifice their comfort for air-conditioning.
D. Air-conditioning systems can only run on energy generated from fossil energy sources.
Đề số 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. base B. hat C. fate D. lane
Question 2. A. cite B. course C. cable D. cue
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. conserve B. allow C. travel D. provide
Question 4. A. sacrifice B. decorate C. remember
D. simplify
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. A delicious meal ______ by her brother yesterday.
A. cooks B. was cooking C. has cooked D. was
cooked
Question 6. Despite facing criticism, she remained ______ and continued to pursue her dreams.
A. quiet as a mouse B. slippery as an eel C. stead as a rock D. swift
as the wind
Question 7. That millionaire has ______ lots of her money to charity.
A. called for B. called on C. given back D. given
away
Question 8. They were pleased that their questions were ______ answered.
A. satisfactorily B. satisfy C. satisfaction D.
satisfactory
Question 9. These are new fields, so nothing is familiar ______ me.
A. to B. for C. at D. between
Question 10. ______ to this new city, Mai and John discovered many interesting places.
A. To move B. Moved C. Moving D. Being moved
Question 11. Janet ______ to her favorite song on TV when her friends arrived.
A. was listening B. has listened C. listened D. are
listening
Question 12. The boys were at home yesterday, ______ ?
A. weren’t they B. were they C. did they D. didn’t
they
Question 13. They will have a trip to Dalat ______.
A. after the rainy season had ended. B. until the rainy season is ending.
C. when the rainy season ends. D. as soon as the rainy season ended.
Question 14. The number of ______ tigers is decreasing quickly.
A. the B. an C. ∅ (no article) D. a
Question 15. She ______ a garden party to celebrate the artist's 60th birthday, and everyone
enjoyed the beautiful weather and delicious food.
A. took B. held C. opened D. made
Question 16. All three TV channels provide extensive ______ of sporting events.
A. network B. coverage C. broadcast D. vision
Question 17. It was a wonderful performance. Linda played the piano ______ of all the
contestants.
A. the more beautifully B. the most beautifully
C. most beautifully D. more beautifully
Question 18. Billionaire Bill Gates decided ______ in a technology start-up to reduce the
amount of methane coming from animal burps.
A. to invest B. to investing C. to have invested
D. investing
Question 19. Despite being recognized as a proficient worker, Kate occasionally has a
tendency to ______ from responsibility.
A. recoil B. blench C. shrink D. flinch
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Jenny is asking Mary to use her bike.
- Jenny: “Do you mind if I use your bike?”
- Mary: “______.”
A. You can say that again. B. Not at all. Help yourself.
C. Sorry. I have no idea. D. Yes, certainly.
Question 21. John and David are talking about online learning.
- John: “I think online learning has more advantages than disadvantages.”
- David: “______. Studying online means we have to sit in front of a computer for many
hours.”
A. I don’t agree with you B. Yes. It’s very exciting
C. I couldn’t agree more D. I think you’re right
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. We need to book a conference room for the meeting next week.
A. arrange B. preserve C. prepare D. reserve
Question 23. In her interpretation of the text, she compared how it related to both the past and
present, showing its deeper meanings.
A. copying B. following C. simplification D.
understanding
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. The young actor bears a striking resemblance to his father, with the same
piercing eyes and charismatic smile.
A. differs significantly B. looks stunning
C. looks remarkably like D. strongly resembles
Question 25. The teacher praised Jimmy for being diligent in completing all assignments.
A. indifferent B. lazy C. careless D.
hardworking
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. He said, "I have decided to quit my job because of its boredom."
A. He said that he had decided to quit his job because of its boredom.
 B. He said that he has decided to quit his job because of its boredom.
C. He said that he decided to quit his job because of its boredom.
D. He said that he had decided to quit my job because of its boredom.
Question 27. You are not allowed to take the exam paper out of the classroom.
A. You may take the exam paper out of the classroom.
B. You needn’t take the exam paper out of the classroom.
C. You mustn’t take the exam paper out of the classroom.
D. You should take the exam paper out of the classroom.
Question 28. He last visited Vietnam five years ago.
A. He hasn't visited Vietnam for five years. B. He has visited Vietnam for five
years.
C. He didn't visit Vietnam for five years. D. He visited Vietnam for five years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Lions do not usually hunt humans, but some males seem to seek it out.
A. usually B. but C. seem D. it
Question 30. It is important not to exaggerate the influence of unions in other sectors, since
most remained disinterested in or unaware of the port issue.
A. exaggerate B. unaware C. disinterested
D. sectors
Question 31. The children take part in an English-Speaking Contest at this time last year.
A. an B. this C. take D. Contest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. The plane had just taken off. The pilot said we had to return to the airport.
A. Only after the pilot said we had to return to the airport did the plane take off.
B. No sooner had the plane taken off than the pilot said we had to return to the airport.
C. Not until the pilot said we had to return to the airport did the plane take off.
D. Had the pilot not said we had to return to the airport, the plane wouldn’t have taken off.
Question 33. John was seriously ill. That’s why he could not see off his sister at the airport.
A. If John weren’t seriously ill, he could see off her sister at the airport.
B. Provided that John hadn’t been seriously ill, he might have seen his sister off at the
airport.
C. As long as John had seen his sister off at the airport, he couldn’t have been seriously ill.
D. If John hadn’t been seriously ill, he could have seen off her sister at the airport.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to
38.
Do you have a mobile phone? It can be so useful! Mobile phones help people ___(34)___ in
touch with friends and family. Many mobile phones also provide entertainment. They're full of
games and ___(35)___ other apps to keep people occupied. If you were to ask most mobile
phone users, they'd say their mobile phone definitely makes life easier!
___(36)___, most people don't know about the impact mobile phones have on our ecosystem. If
you have ever looked at the inside of a mobile phone, you know they're made of many types of
metals. The process of mining for these metals is one major way mobile phones affect the
ecosystem. When people mine for metals, ___(37)___ waste is created. It hurts both aquatic and
plant life if not disposed of properly. In addition, mining for our phones adds to deforestation as
a large number of trees are cut down for mining every year. Moreover, mining for phone
production puts more carbon into the air, ___(38)___ adds to climate change, another major
concern for our ecosystem. The impact of mobile phones on our ecosystem is expected to grow
as many people replace their phones after using them for just a few years and send their old
phones straight to a landfill.
Question 34. A. keep B. lose C. have D.
live
Question 35. A. much B. another C. every
D. many
Question 36. A. However B. Therefore C. Although
D. Moreover
Question 37. A. disposable B. industrious C. hazardous D.
endangered
Question 38. A. which B. that C. where
D. when
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
A good deal of fascinating research has been done about the reading patterns of young people,
and it is surprising to discover at what early age children start expressing preferences for
particular kinds of books. A recent report, which examined in detail the reading habits of
primary-school children, showed that even seven-year-old boys and girls have clear views
about what they want to read. Girls, in general, read more, and far more girls than boys
preferred reading stories. Boys were showing a taste for the more instant appeal of picture
stories, or else books about their hobbies.
These tastes continue unchanged until the children are teenagers. Apparently girls read more in
general, but more fiction in particular. You could say that there are more opportunities for girls
to read fiction: magazines encourage the fiction habit in girls in their early teens, and by their
late teens, girls have probably moved on to the adult women’s magazines. Teenage boys tend to
buy magazines about their hobbies: sports, motorcycles, heavy transport and so on.
Adult reading tastes are also the subject of research. Again the number of women who read for
pleasure is considerably higher than the number of men. It seems that the majority of women
still want love stories. There has also been some analysis of what men actually read. Apparently
only 38 percent of men read anything, but 50 percent of what they read is fiction in the form of
action-packed stories of space or gunmen.
Question 39. Which of the following would be the best title for the reading?
A. Researches into Reading Habits of Children
B. Researches into Reading Habits of Adults
C. Researches into Reading Tastes according to Genders
D. Reading Patterns of Children Unchanged
Question 40. Recent research into children reading has shown that they ______ .
A. examine in detail what they read at school
B. have formed their reading tastes by the time they are seven
C. can read clearly in primary school D. start to read at very early age
Question 41. The word ‘fascinating’ in paragraph 1 means most nearly the same
as__________.
A. boring B. informative C. social D.
interesting
Question 42. In paragraph 3, the word "they" refers to__________.
 A. stories B. women C. men D. tastes
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true about adult reading habits?
A. Most women read nothing at all B. Almost half of men read
anything
C. Women prefer reading romantic books
D. Space or gunmen are favorite topics among men
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Although bear-like, koalas are not bears. They are mammals, so feed their young milk and are
marsupials, which means that their babies are born immature and they develop further in the
safety of a pouch. They are tree-dwelling, herbivorous marsupials, which average about 9kg in
weight and live on gum leaves. Their fur is thick and usually ash grey with a tinge of brown in
places. Koalas in the southern parts of Australia are considerably larger and have thicker fur
than those in the north. This is thought to be an adaptation to keep them warm in the colder
southern winters.
Younger breeding females usually give birth to one joey each year, depending on a range of
factors. The joey stays in its mother’s pouch for about 6 or 7 months, drinking only milk. After
venturing out of the pouch, the joey rides on its mother’s abdomen or back,
although it continues to return to her pouch for milk until it is too big to fit inside. The joey
leaves its mother’s home range between 1 and 3 years old, depending on when the mother has
her next joey.
Koalas are mostly nocturnal. They sleep for part of the night and also sometimes move about
in the daytime. They often sleep for up to 18-20 hours each day. There is a myth that koalas
sleep a lot because they ‘get drunk’ on gum leaves. However, most of their time is spent
sleeping because it requires a lot of energy to digest their toxic, fibrous, low-nutrition diet and
sleeping is the best way to conserve energy.
The koala gets its name from an ancient Aboriginal word meaning “no drink” because it
receives over 90% of its hydration from the eucalyptus leaves (also known as gum leaves) it
eats, and only drinks when ill or times when there is not enough moisture in the leaves i.e.
during droughts, etc.
(Adapted from “blog.e2language.com”)
Question 44. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Origin of The Koala’s Name And Its Diets B. Koalas’
Reproduction
C. Koalas’ Appearance and Behavior D. The True Story of Koalas
Question 45. The word “pouch” paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. herb B. feather C. can D. bag
Question 46. According to paragraph 2, how often do younger mother koalas usually breed?
A. They give birth to one joey biannually.
B. They don’t give birth until the females reach 6 or 7 months.
C. They give birth to one offspring annually.
D. They don’t breed during the day.
Question 47. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. a joey B. a pouch C. a mother D.
back
Question 48. The word “nocturnal” in paragraph 3 is ______.
A. sleepy all day and night B. sleepy at night
 C. active at night D. awake at daytime
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Koalas spend up to twenty hours sleeping each day.
B. Koalas are herbivorous and tree-dwelling.
C. Koalas do not drink water normally.
D. Koalas drink water during meals in order to digest gum leaves.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Koalas get drunk on gum leaves.
B. There are more koalas in the southern parts of Australia than in the north.
C. Sleeping is of vital importance for koalas
D. Koalas are considered diurnal mammals.
Đề số 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1. A. hotel B. hour C. heritage
D. lighthouse
Question 2. A. went B. fence C. mend D.
verse
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. product B. success C. robot D.
medal
Question 4. A. violence B. quality C. position D.
document
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. I felt so scared. It was ______ movie I’ve ever watched.
A. more horrifying B. horrifying
C. the more horrifying D. the most horrifying
Question 6. Our company ______ business with various international clients, and we strive to
provide them with excellent products and services.
A. does B. goes C. supply D. connects
Question 7. Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop
their ______.
A. creatively B. creativity C. create D. creative
Question 8. The enterprise’s management agreed ______ in renewable energy sources to
reduce the company’s carbon footprint.
A. invest B. to invest C. investing D. to
investing
Question 9. He is always a responsible man, ______?
A. does he B. wasn’t he C. was he D. isn’t he
Question 10. I met the Director yesterday afternoon and the contracts have already been in the
______.
A. ways B. works C. tracks D. books
Question 11. I'm reading ______ book about ancient Egypt.
A. the B. a C. ∅ (no article) D. an
Question 12. The friendly soccer match was ______ at the last minute due to the heavy rain.
A. carried on B. kept on C. called off D. looked
out
Question 13. That boy has got no manners - he is always rude ______ everyone.
A. for B. in C. to D. on
Question 14. The math problem ______ by one of the most intelligent students in my last Math
class.
A. has solved B. solves C. was solved D. was
solving
Question 15. The company's proclamation to ______ operations entailed the closure of three
UK factories, signaling a strategic optimization initiative.
A. streamline B. whittle C. chisel D. carve
Question 16. I will give you a hand ______.
A. as soon as I have watered my vegetables B. when I watered my
vegetables
C. while I was watering my vegetables D. before I had watered my
vegetables
Question 17. The new employee was eager to hit ______ and make a good impression on his
first day.
A. the jackpot B. the sack C. the hay D. the ground
running
Question 18. Mike ______ in the garden when he heard a piercing scream.
A. has worked B. had worked C. worked D. was
working
Question 19. ______ well, both of my friends failed in the grammar exam last week.
A. Having not prepared B. Having not been prepared
C. Not having been prepared D. Not having prepared
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Kenny asked for permission to smoke, but his colleague couldn’t put up with the
smoke.
- Kenny: “Do you mind if I smoke in here?”
- Alex: “______.”
A. Yes, you can. B. No, I couldn’t C. No, thank you D. I’d rather
you didn’t
Question 21. Juliet and David are talking about A.I.
- Juliet: “A.I. robots are widely used in many areas, including the car and food industries and
medicine.”
- David: ______. The use of robots can replace the human workforce and reduce the cost of
production”
A. I refuse to believe that B. I completely agree
C. You must be kidding D. You are dead wrong
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Despite her talents, she remained modest and never boasted about her
achievements.
A. confident B. humble C. gigantic D. comfortable
Question 23. The new environmental regulations had a significant impact on reducing
pollution levels in the city.
A. effect B. expansion C. inactivity D. cause
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. The novel’s engaging story captivated readers from the first page to the last.
A. boring B. attractive C. interesting D.
passionate
Question 25. The government has given the go-ahead for a multi-billion pound road-building
project which will help improve the roads and make the traffic less crowded.
A. approved B. introduced C. permitted D.
declined
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. "We were stuck in traffic for over an hour," they told the officer.
A. They told the officer they have been stuck in traffic for over an hour.
B. They told the officer they are stuck in traffic for more than an hour.
C. They told the officer they were stuck in traffic for over an hour.
D. They told the officer they had been stuck in traffic for over an hour.
Question 27. It is unnecessary for David to meet the manager before 8 o’clock.
A. David can’t meet the manager before 8 o’clock.
B. David will meet the manager before 8 o’clock.
C. David must meet the manager before 8 o’clock.
D. David needn’t meet the manager before 8 o’clock.
Question 28. The last time I visited my grandmother was when the pandemic broke out.
A. I have visited my grandmother since the pandemic broke out.
B. I started to visit my grandmother when the pandemic broke out.
C. I didn’t visit my grandmother when the pandemic broke out.
D. I haven’t visited my grandmother since the pandemic broke out.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The atmosphere and hospitalization of the smaller office today has made him
changed his initial assessment of the organization.
A. hospitalization B. atmosphere C. smaller D.
initial
Question 30. Some animals are in danger of extinction as humans are hunting it for meat.
A. in B. extinction C. it D. are
Question 31. Last term, the students in the writing class have learned how to write thesis
statements, organize their material, and summarize their conclusion.
A. have learned B. conclusion C. the students D. to
write
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. The athlete was exhausted. He fell asleep during the press conference.
A. So exhausted was the athlete that he fell asleep during the press conference.
B. Not until the athlete was exhausted did he fall asleep during the press conference.
 C. Had the athlete not fallen asleep during the press conference, he wouldn’t have been
exhausted.
D. No sooner had the athlete fallen asleep during the press conference than he was
exhausted.
Question 33. The car driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. Had the car driver in front not stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
B. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have
happened.
C. If the car driver in front had stopped suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened.
D. If the car driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to
38.
The Internet is a global network of billions of computers and other electronic devices. With the
Internet, it's possible to access almost any information, communicate with anyone else in the
world, and do much more. You can do all of this by connecting a computer to the Internet,
which is also called going online. When someone says a computer is online, it's
just ___(34)___ way of saying it's connected to the Internet.
At this point you may be wondering, how does the Internet work? The exact answer is pretty
complicated and would take a while to explain. ___(35)___, let's look at some of the most
important things you should know. It's important to realize that the Internet is a global network
of physical cables, ___(36)___ can include copper telephone wires, TV cables, and fiber optic
cables. Even wireless connections like Wi-Fi and 3G/4G rely on these physical cables to access
the Internet.
When you visit a website, your computer sends a request over these wires to a server. A server
is where websites are ___(37)___, and it works a lot like your computer's hard drive. Once the
request arrives, the server ___(38)___ the website and sends the correct data back to your
computer. What's amazing is that this all happens in just a few seconds!
(https://edu.gcfglobal.org/en/internetbasics/what-is-the-internet/1/)
Question 34. A. some B. another C. many D.
other
Question 35. A. Although B. Instead C. Otherwise D.
Because
Question 36. A. which B. who C. where D.
when
Question 37. A. supplied B. stored C. offered D.
collected
Question 38. A. recovers B. retrieves C. recalls D.
repeats
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Many psychologists claim that doodling provides fascinating insights into one’s personality: it
is a creative outlet that reflects a person’s state of mind. For example, arrows can represent
ambition if they point upwards, thoughtfulness if horizontal, while arrows pointing in all
directions may indicate an open mind. A person who doodles straight lines is often an
outspoken type. Zeros and crosses in a doodle are indicative of someone who is competitive
while idealists often draw stars. A five-pointed star is said to indicate driving ambition, while
six reflects a capacity for concentration. Circles may indicate a daydreamer, while boxes
suggest a practical, logical, and precise mind.
According to Swiss psychotherapist and researcher Carl Jung, if we look deeper, we can see
that some symbols and numbers have meanings in common. Typical examples include trees,
mazes, snakes, triangles, crosses, and fish. However, the way individuals use symbolic
expressions will depend upon their life and any subconscious conflicts they may be
experiencing. Analyzing symbols produced in a doodle can therefore sometimes reveal
meanings and insights that words cannot.
(Adapted from ‘Stars & Stripes for the Michigan ECPE’)
Question 39. What is the best title of the passage?
A. Psychological Benefits of Doodling. B. Personalities through
Doodling.
C. Doodling as a Symbolic Art Form. D. Interpreting Human’s Personalities.
Question 40. According to the second paragraph, doodles can be useful in understanding the
inner mind because ______.
A. They can relate to the unexpressed feelings or experiences.
B. They are a therapy technique used by psychologists.
C. They reveal the real characteristics or ambitions of a person.
D. They share common meanings and insights with words.
Question 41. The word ‘they’ in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. symbols B. individuals C. conflicts D. expressions
Question 42. The word ‘outlet’ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. way of expression B. release of stress C. retail shop D.
power socket
Question 43. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the text?
A. Doodling offers a glimpse into a person's character traits.
B. Arrows pointing upwards in a doodle indicate ambition.
C. Symbols in a doodle may share meanings in common.
D. Circles in a doodle suggest a practical and logical mind.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
People are making use of technology more than ever, and now with the Covid-19 pandemic,
people are using the virtual world to its full potential. Particularly, online training is `changing
lives for better and has encouraged people to take the help of the virtual world and increase
productivity.
Employees used to leave their work and come for the training. Now they will have the
opportunity of flexible hours and can join the training according to their convenience. They,
therefore, are becoming less worried and more focused on the online training programs.
To arrange physical training, trainers have to prepare a space for the training to commence,
leaflets to hand over to each candidate, and also food for the attendees. With the help of online
training, the cost-cutting is skyrocketing. Therefore, all they need is a good Wi-Fi connection,
a good webcam, and a laptop.
The speaker of a physical session has to cover the topics in a specific time and tends to teach
fast. This can be very troubling for slow attendees as they will miss the previous concept and
catch up on the next one. With online training, inferior trainees can write the points that they
don’t understand and research the topic for themselves later. As a result, self-regulated learning
is implemented and learning is more than ever.
Each student may have different learning styles; for example, one can take notes to learn a
particular course while others prefer to watch the visuals by the teacher. In conventional
classes, the teacher needs to ensure quality for all, so he might follow only one method to teach
each and every student. This makes some learners feel uncomfortable if they don’t like that
learning method. When studying online, the teacher can provide them with various strategies
which can satisfy variations in learning.
Online training programs ensure constructive feedback. In physical classes, students may write
their essays in paper copies, which cannot be carried everywhere. With digital copies, the
teacher can read their
essays even when they go for a vacation or when he is free from personal errands. So, the
feedback is always top-notch.
(Adapted from: https://www.articlecube.com/how-online-training-will-change-your-life-better)
Question 44. What is the passage mainly about?
A. some types of feedback in education. B. the necessity of virtual world to
employers.
C. various ways of learning during pandemic. D. different advantages of online
training.
Question 45. The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. programs B. employees C. hours D.
trainers
Question 46. The word “skyrocketing” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ______.
A. collapsing completely B. rising rapidly
C. highlighting dramatically D. falling heavily
Question 47. The phrase “implemented” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.
A. employed B. explored C. rectified D.
refrained
Question 48. What are the two ways of learners’ getting the knowledge mentioned in the
passage?
A. jotting down and observing pictures B. taking notes and relearning
concepts
C. using audios and writing points D. listening carefully and
researching
Question 49. Which of the following sentences is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Inferior trainees in a physical class have no difficulty when the speaker is pressed for
time.
B. Online training is efficient because it helps reduce the training cost for trainers.
C. Online classes enable employees to choose the most convenient time for training.
D. Different trainees might be taught with the same learning method in conventional
training.
Question 50. What can be inferred about online feedback according to the passage?
A. Constructive feedback is impossible in online classes.
B. The teacher can give feedback at their convenience.
C. Essays must be submitted in paper in online training programs.
D. The trainer should spend lots of time giving online feedback.
Đề số 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. sad B. date C. make D. place
Question 2. A. roof B. of C. leaf
D. flight
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. atmosphere B. salary C. attention
D. habitat
Question 4. A. curfew B. value C. talent D.
technique
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. Students aren’t allowed to use their mobile phone in the examination room,
______?
A. weren’t they B. were they C. are they D. aren’t
they
Question 6. Renewable energy sources can help ______ fossil fuels and reduce carbon
emissions.
A. maintain B. preserve C. reserve D.
conserve
Question 7. You may encounter many difficulties in life, but you should never ______hope.
A. carry off B. go away C. look out D.
give up
Question 8. A new logo ______ by the graphic designer in this company last month.
A. designs B. was designing C. has designed D. was
designed
Question 9. The new policies they implemented at the school _____ effect immediately,
resulting in a smoother and more efficient administrative process.
A. gave B. came C. took D. gained
Question 10. This is ______ place I’ve ever been to.
A. more quiet B. the most quiet C. quieter D.
the quietest
Question 11. Teachers are often busy ______ planning lessons and assessing students’
performances.
A. at B. in C. with D. of
Question 12. When Mary ______ her baby to sleep, her husband phoned her.
A. was lulling B. lulls C. lulled D. is lulling
Question 13. Maria's natural talent for public speaking allowed her to steal the ______ and win
over the audience.
A. limelight B. greenlight C. flashlight D.
headlight
Question 14. It is his ______ that will be mainly administrative.
A. respond B. responsible C. responsibly D.
responsibility
Question 15. The facility was erected as a spot where workers could ______ and recharge post-
shift.
A. unwind B. unravel C. disentangle D.
slacken
Question 16. _____ all day, both of my brothers were very tired and slept early.
 A. Have working B. Having worked C. Have worked D. Having
been worked
Question 17. My classmates plan ______ a two-day trip to explore the ancient town.
A. to having B. to have C. having D. have
Question 18. The giant panda is ______ endangered species.
A. a B. the C. ∅ (no article) D. an
Question 19. ______, the teacher will give us another test.
A. When the bell rings B. When the bell rang
C. When the bell had rung D. When the bell will ring
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Linda and Minh are talking about traffic laws in Vietnam.
- Linda: “Drunk drivers should be severely fined.”
- Minh: “______. Many traffic accidents were caused by drunk drivers.”
A. I completely agree B. You’re dead wrong C. That’s not true D.
I disagree
Question 21. Peter is talking to a waitress in a restaurant.
- Peter: “Excuse me, I didn’t order this salad.”
- The waitress: “______. I think this may be someone else’s meal.”
A. Enjoy your meal B. I’m sorry C. Let’s share the bill D. I’d like to
book a table
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Graduating from college marks a significant milestone in many people's lives.
A. appears B. evaluates C. respects D.
represents
Question 23. Yoga helps promote your physical flexibility and make your mind feel better
through different poses and breathing exercises.
A. inflexibility B. changeability C. hardness D.
difficulty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. The author’s ambiguous ending left readers pondering the story’s true meaning.
A. uncertain B. ambitious C. vague D. clear
Question 25. After the accident, he was constantly on edge, jumping at the slightest sound.
A. tense B. composed C. angry D. anxious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. It’s not necessary for every single kid to go to college.
A. Every single kid needn’t go to college. B. Every single kid should go to
college.
C. Every single kid can’t go to college. D. Every single kid must go to
college.
Question 27. She told me, “I will attend the conference tomorrow.”
A. She told me that she would attend the conference the following day.
B. She told me that she would attend the conference tomorrow.
C. She told me that she is attending the conference tomorrow.
 D. She told me that she was attending the conference the following day.
Question 28. I last met my old teacher three years ago.
A. I have not met my old teacher for three years.
B. It’s three years since I didn’t meet my old teacher.
C. I did not meet my old teacher three years ago.
D. The last time I didn’t meet my old teacher was three years ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. People tend to be considered suggested if they act or accept suggestions based
on the input of others.
A. suggested B. suggestions C. input D. tend
Question 30. He is diagnosed with autism when he was just over two.
A. with B. is C. just D. autism
Question 31. After the two met via a dating app, the girl moved to the US with their husband
four years ago.
A. moved B. met C. dating D. their
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. Jack’s watch was ten minutes slow. That’s why he was late for his interview.
A. Had Jack not been late for his interview, his watch might have been ten minutes slow.
B. If Jack’s watch weren’t ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t be late for his interview.
C. Jack wouldn’t have been late for his interview if his watch hadn’t been ten minutes
slow.
D. If Jack’s watch hadn’t been ten minutes slow, he would have been late for his interview.
Question 33. You cancel at least one month before your arrival date. You will receive a refund.
A. Only if you cancel at least one month before your arrival date will you receive a refund.
B. Only after you cancel at least one month before your arrival date will you receive a
refund
C. No sooner had you canceled at least one month before your arrival date than you
received a refund.
D. Not until you receive a refund will you cancel at least one month before your arrival
date.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to
38.
WHAT’S IN A NAME?
Traditionally in some Asian countries, a child’s grandfather or a fortune-teller chooses the
child’s name. The child’s name is chosen to influence the child’s character. ___(34)___, names
may be based on a connection to certain elements such as fire, water, earth, wood, or metal. Or
the name might include a written character meaning beauty, strength or kindness. In certain
African cultures, when a child is born ___(35)___ a large part in determining the child’s name.
In Ghana’s Akan culture, the day a child is born determines the child’s name.
But ___(36)___ day has different names for boys and girls. For instance, a boy born on Friday
is named Kofi, whereas a girl born on the same day is named Afua. Both Kofi and Afua are
names meaning “wanderer” or “explorer.” Children ___(37)___ have names are seen as
travelers.
No matter where the name comes from, a child’s name is the first gift in life. Whether it is
chosen according to preference or dictated by tradition, the name ___(38)___ something about
a child’s culture.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 2- Casey Malarcher • Andrea Janzen)
Question 34. A. However B. Otherwise C. Although D.
For example
Question 35. A. keeps B. gives C. plays
D. makes
Question 36. A. many B. few C. each
D. much
Question 37. A. who B. whom C. which
D. whose
Question 38. A. reflects B. thinks C. shines
D. reminds
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
One of the most commonly-used terms after the pandemic is the term “new normal.” The new
normal in education is the increased use of online learning tools. The COVID-19 pandemic has
encouraged new ways of learning. All around the world, educational institutions are looking
forward to online learning platforms to continue with the process of educating students. The
new normal now is a transformed concept of education with online learning at the core of this
transformation. Today, digital learning has emerged as a necessary resource for students and
schools all over the world. For many educational institutes, this is an entirely new way of
education that they have had to adopt. Online learning is not applicable not just to academic
subjects but to extracurricular activities as well. Recently, the demand for online learning has
risen significantly, and it will continue doing so in the future.
As with most teaching methods, online learning also has its own set of positives and negatives.
Decoding and understanding these positives and negatives will help institutes in
creating strategies for more efficiently delivering the lessons, ensuring an uninterrupted
learning journey for students.
(https://elearningindustry.com/advantages-and-disadvantages-online-learning)
Question 39. What is the best title of the passage?
A. The Future of Education: A Digital Transformation
B. Extracurricular Activities: Moving Online in the Pandemic
C. How Online Learning Became a Necessity During COVID-19
D. The Negatives of Online Learning in the New Normal
Question 40. According to paragraph 1, which of the following has become an essential
resource for education in the world?
A. Digital learning platforms B. Extracurricular activities
C. New educational concepts D. New academic subjects
Question 41. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. subjects B. students C. institutes D. schools
Question 42. Which of the following is NOT true in paragraph 1 as a possible reason for the
increased use of online learning tools?
A. the outbreak of the COVID-19 B. the demand for online learning
C. the necessity for a ‘new normal’ D. the development of the Internet
Question 43. The word strategies in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. suggestions B. means C. outlines D. plans
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
TV. The Internet. The mall. Everywhere we look, we see advertisements that urge us to buy,
buy, buy. In today’s consumer society, we are under constant pressure to shop. Of course, most
people only buy what they need and what they can afford. However, there are some people,
called shopaholics, who cannot control their desire to spend money and buy things. This kind of
addictive behavior can lead to overwhelming financial problems, family conflict, and deep
unhappiness.
What are the symptoms of a shopaholic? People with this problem often spend hours and hours
shopping on the Internet or the mall. Their closets are full of clothing and jewelry they have
never worn, with the price tags still on them. Their home may be packed with shopping bags
and boxes that overflow with things that they bought but never used: kitchen gadgets, books,
electronics, DVDs, and dozens of other items. Many shopaholics are aware of this problem, but
when they go to a store, they simply cannot resist the urge to buy. Some of them are ashamed of
their weakness and try to hide it by storing their purchases in places like the attic, where others
won’t see them.
Psychologists suggest there are several reasons for a shopping addiction. For some people, it is
a way of relieving stress. For others, shopping is a way to fight loneliness or depression. For
people with low self-esteem, shopping can be a way that they prove their self-worth.
Sometimes the problem develops out of boredom. It becomes a replacement for other hobbies
and interests and it helps pass the time. Although shopping can temporarily make people feel
good, they often experience feelings of shame and guilt later.
When shopping habits get out of control, people need professional help. They can either see a
counselor or join an organization such as Shopaholics Anonymous. Groups like this try to help
people understand the reasons for their addiction and learn how to control the urge to shop.
Their goal is to help people find ways to fulfill themselves that don’t lead to serious debt and
troubled lives.
(Adapted from Strategic Reading 1 2nd Edition by Jack C. Richards and Samuela Eckstut-
Didier)
Question 44. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How to help the shopaholics to control their shopping habits.
B. Shopping online – a popular kind in modern time.
C. How to shop effectively with a relatively low budget.
D. Shopaholics and some related problems to them.
Question 45. The word symptoms in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reasons B. consequences C. indications D.
tendencies
Question 46. According to paragraph 2, ______.
A. People addicted to shopping spend their time on their mobile phones without doing
anything.
B. Although people are aware of their addictive behavior of shopping, they can’t stop it.
C. Shopaholics usually ask other people to keep their valuable possessions in mysterious
places.
D. People who are addicted to shopping always show off their luxury items to other
people.
Question 47. The word relieving in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reducing B. fostering C. forgetting D.
revising
Question 48. The pronoun it in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the time B. shopping C. a replacement D.
the problem
Question 49. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Shopaholics don’t usually use all of the items they bought.
B. Shopaholics face many issues including family conflict.
C. Shopping can help the shopaholics feel happy forever.
D. Shopaholics Anonymous can help people control the desire to shop.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. When needing money to shop, shopaholics may even borrow it from other people.
B. Rich people tend to shop more regularly than people with a low shopping budget.
C. Shopaholics always feel satisfied with their shopping interests.
D. If people are consulted about shopping, they won’t become shopaholics.
Đề số 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. cave B. stage C. sand D. grade
Question 2. A. song B. sugar C. stuff D. soft
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. quality B. industry C. confidence
D. computer
Question 4. A. pressure B. balloon C. balance
D. action
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 5. The sudden change in weather threw ______ their plans for a picnic in the park.
A. in the towel B. a wrench in C. caution to the wind D. them
off the scent
Question 6. Their project was _______ over a two-month period, but failed due to poor
planning.
A. given up B. carried out C. looked after D. turned off
Question 7. I ______ myself occupied by watching television and gardening every afternoon.
A. make B. put C. keep D. gave
Question 8. Who will be in charge of the department _______?
A. after Sophie left B. by the time Sophie was leaving
C. as soon as Sophie had left D. when Sophie leaves
Question 9. Some tourists _______ a skiing lesson on the nursery slope when it snowed.
A. are having B. were having C. have had D. have
Question 10. His son became addicted to social media last year, ______?
A. did he B. does he C. doesn’t he D. didn’t he
Question 11. They are acquainted _______ sharing the household duties among members of
their family.
A. at B. with C. of D. in
Question 12. Jimmy enjoys studying in the garden because it is ______ place in his house.
A. the most relaxing B. as relaxing C. more relaxing D. the more
relaxing
Question 13. A laboratory technician forbade us _______into the lab without permission.
A. go B. to go C. to going D. going
Question 14. The valuable painting ____ from the museum by a mysterious thief two days ago.
A. was stolen B. was stealing C. steals D. has
stolen
Question 15. My brother lives next door to _______ Jacksons.
A. an B. a C. the D. ∅ (no article)
Question 16. Thousands of _______ from all over the world will take part in the contest.
A. compete B. competitively C. competitive D.
competitors
Question 17. The marauding invaders ______ every village they encountered along their
predetermined route of conquest.
A. dismissed B. sacked C. terminated D.
bounced
Question 18. ______ for a big company, I don’t have any chance to work with foreigners.
A. Not to work B. Not work C. Not working D.
Not worked
Question 19. To everyone’s surprise, he _______ the defending champion.
A. devastated B. defeated C. damaged D.
destroyed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Peter is talking to Mary about her daughter.
- Peter: “How beautiful your daughter is!”
- Mary: “_______”
A. Don’t say anything about it. B. Yes, I share your opinion.
C. Thank you for your compliment. D. Sorry, I have no idea.
Question 21. Linda and Janet are talking about family living under one roof.
- Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They
can help one another.”
- Janet: “______. Many old-aged parents like to lead an independent life in a nursing home.”
A. Me, too. B. That’s not true
C. It’s nice to hear that D. I agree with you completely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. We need to qualify the president's remark by considering the diverse perspectives
and potential biases involved.
A. validate B. expose C. recognize D. discover
Question 23. The CEO had to justify the company's decision to invest in new technology
during the shareholders' meeting.
A. clarify B. ignore C. dismiss D. oppose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Despite facing setbacks, her optimistic outlook kept her motivated to pursue her
dreams.
A. upbeat B. pessimistic C. hopeful D.
positive
Question 25. Due to unexpected work commitments, I had to take a rain check on the dinner
date with my friends.
A. accept B. postpone C. prepare D. change
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. Anna said, "I will never forget this moment".
A. Anna told she would never forget this moment.
B. Anna said she would never forget that moment.
C. Anna said she would never forget this moment.
D. Anna said she will never forget this moment.
Question 27. I am sure Helen’s taking Dobber to the vet because her car is not here.
A. Helen needn’t be taking Dobber to the vet because her car is not here.
B. Helen must be taking Dobber to the vet because her car is not here.
C. Helen may be taking Dobber to the vet because her car is not here.
D. Helen can’t be taking Dobber to the vet because her car is not here.
Question 28. The last time she took her children to the zoo was two months ago.
A. She has taken her children to the zoo for two months.
B. She hasn’t taken her children to the zoo for two months.
C. She had two months to take her children to the zoo.
D. She didn’t take her children to the zoo two months ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Seniors are especially appreciable of thoughtful gifts that make them
feel appreciated, and improve their quality of life.
A. appreciated B. thoughtful C. appreciable D.
quality
Question 30. Le Van Duoc, a 9th grader in Nghe An, has been praised for their courageous
action in saving five children from drowning.
A. grader B. their C. has been praised D.
drowning
Question 31. Samantha has difficulty doing her Maths homework yesterday.
A. Maths B. homework C. doing D. has
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. His parents supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. Had it not been for his parents’ support and encouragement, he couldn’t have done so
well in the competition.
B. If his parents had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well
in the competition.
C. Such were his parents’ support and encouragement that he couldn’t do really well in the
competition.
D. No matter how much his parents supported and encouraged him, he couldn’t do well in
the competition.
Question 33. Laura was badly injured in the accident. She didn’t take part in the marathon.
A. Laura could take part in the marathon if she weren’t badly injured in the accident.
B. If Laura had taken part in the marathon, she wouldn’t have been badly injured in the
accident.
 C. If Laura hadn’t been badly injured in the accident, she might not have been taken part in
the marathon
D. Laura would have taken part in the marathon if she hadn’t been badly injured in the
accident.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to
38.
CAN WE CHANGE THE CLIMATE?
It may seem hard to believe that people can actually change the Earth’s climate. But scientists
think that the things people do that send greenhouse gases into the air are making our planet
warmer. Once, all climate changes occurred naturally. ___(34)___, during the Industrial
Revolution, we began altering our climate and environment through agricultural and industrial
practices. The Industrial Revolution was a time ___(35)___ people began using machines to
make life easier. It started more than 200 years ago and ___(36)___ the way humans live.
Before the Industrial Revolution, human activity released very few gases into the atmosphere,
but now through population growth, fossil fuel burning, and deforestation, we are affecting the
mixture of gases in the atmosphere. Since the industrial revolution, the need for energy to
run ___(37)___ has steadily increased. some energy, like the energy you need to do your
homework, comes from the food you eat. But other energy, like the energy that makes cars run
and ___(38)___ of the energy used to light and heat our homes, comes from fuels like coal and
oil – fossil fuels. Burning these fuels releases greenhouse gases.
(Adapted from: https://www.monografias.com/trabajos64/global-warming/global-warming2)
Question 34. A. Therefore B. Although C. Otherwise D.
However
Question 35. A. which B. that C. whom
D. when
Question 36. A. transformed B. converted C. turned D.
changed
Question 37. A. machines B. tools C. devices D.
appliances
Question 38. A. many B. much C. every
D. few
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43
Experts say that if you feel tired during the day, even during boring activities, you don’t sleep
enough. If you often fall asleep within five minutes of lying down, you may suffer a state of
lacking sleep. “Microsleeps,” periods of sleep that last from a few to several seconds, are
another mark of not getting enough sleep. Moreover, the common practice of “burning the
candle at both ends” - working hard until late at night - in western countries has created so
much sleep deprivation.
Many studies have shown that not sleeping enough is dangerous. When sleep-deprived people –
those who don’t have enough sleep - are tested, they perform as badly as or worse than those
who are drunk. Lack of sleep also increases alcohol’s effects on the body. Therefore, if people
without enough sleep drink, they will become much more impaired than someone who is well-
rested. Driving when extremely tired is the cause of about 100,000 motor vehicle accidents and
1,500 deaths each year, and driving while tired can lead to disaster. Caffeine and other
stimulants cannot overcome the effects of severe sleep deprivation. Health experts say that if
you have trouble keeping your eyes focused, if you can’t stop yawning, you may be too tired to
drive safely.
(Adapted from “501 Reading Critical Reading Questions- Learning Express, First Edition)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. discussing the effects of alcohol on a sleep-deprived person
B. explaining why sleeplessness has become common in Western cultures
C. alerting readers to the signs and risks of not getting enough sleep
D. offering measures for people with sleep deprivation
Question 40. Which of the following is the symptom that sleep-deprived people have according
to paragraph 1?
A. having sleep loss recently B. working hard until late at night
C. feeling sleepy after reading books D. having microsleeps when working
Question 41. In paragraph 2, the word “they” refers to ______.
A. sleep-deprived people B. western countries
C. many studies D. alcohol’s effects
Question 42. The word “impaired” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. interested B. excited C. weakened D. improved
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. About 100,000 motor vehicle accidents are caused by drunk drivers annually.
B. Caffeine is believed to be useless to get over the serious lack of sleep.
C. When feeling tired, people have trouble concentrating and can’t stop yawning.
D. Alcohol has stronger impacts on people who are sleep-deprived.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Willis Carrier designed the first air-conditioning unit in 1902, just a year after graduating from
Cornell University. At a Brooklyn printing plant, fluctuations in heat and moisture were
causing the size of the printing paper to keep changing slightly, making it hard to align different
colors. Carrier’s invention made it possible to control temperature and humidity levels and so
align the colors. The invention also allowed industries such as film, processed food, textiles and
pharmaceuticals to improve the quality of their products.
In 1914, the first air-conditioning device was installed in a private house. However, its size,
similar to that of an early computer, meant it took up too much space to come into widespread
use, and later models, such as the Weather maker, which Carrier brought out in the 1920s, cost
too much for most people. Cooling for human comfort, rather than industrial need, really took
off when three air conditioners were installed in a department store in Detroit, Michigan.
People crowded into the shop to experience the new invention. The fashion spread from
department stores to cinemas.
To start with, money-conscious employers regarded air conditioning as a
luxury. They considered that if they were paying people to work, they should not be paying for
them to be comfortable as well. So in the 1940s and ‘50s, the industry started putting out a
different message about its product: according to their research, installing air conditioning
increased productivity amongst employees. They found that typists increased their output by
24% when transferred from a regular office to a cooled one. Another study into office working
conditions, which was carried out in the late 1950s, showed that the majority of companies
cited air conditioning as the single most important contributor to efficiency in offices.
However, air conditioning has its critics. Jed Brown, an environmentalist, complains that air
conditioning is a factor in global warming. Unfortunately, he adds, because air conditioning
leads to higher temperatures, people have to use it even more. However, he admits that it
provides a healthier environment for many people in the heat of summer.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS band 4-5)
Question 44. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Air Conditioning – A Luxury. B. The History of An Invention.
C. Willis Carrier – A Great Inventor. D. The Critics of Air Conditioning.
Question 45. When Willis Carrier invented air conditioning, his objective was to _______.
A. set up a new business B. produce more attractive paper
C. make workers feel cooler D. solve problems in a factory
Question 46. The word plant in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. interviews B. tree C. flora D. factory
Question 47. The word took off in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. copied B. became popular C. left D. removed
Question 48. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. offices B. stores C. companies D.
employers
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The research done in the 1940s and ‘50s was to persuade businesses to buy air
conditioners.
B. Jed Brown says that air conditioning is good for people, but bad for the environment.
C. Home air conditioners were not popular at first because they were too big and
expensive.
D. Jed Brown is in favour of the use of air conditioners to protect the environment.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. It was found that the productivity rose 50% for typists who worked in an air-
conditioned office.
B. Employers refused to put air conditioning in workplaces at first because they did not
want to spend money improving working conditions.
C. The first air-conditioning device was installed in a private house in the 1940s and soon
became a popular device.
D. The first air-conditioning unit was designed by an environmentalist with a view to
reducing global warming.