MID-MIDTERM EXAM

Name:

1. What is the primary neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction?

• A. Dopamine
• B. Serotonin
• C. Acetylcholine
• D. Nicotine
2. What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?
• A. They deactivate myosin ATPase.
• B. They bind to troponin to initiate contraction.
• C. They break the actin-myosin cross-bridge.
• D. They reduce the membrane potential.
3. What happens during the relaxation phase of a muscle twitch?
• A. Calcium is actively pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
• B. Acetylcholine is released at the motor end plate.
• C. Myosin heads attach to actin at a 90-degree angle.
• D. Cross-bridges form between actin and myosin.
4. Which type of muscle contraction involves no change in muscle length?
• A. Isometric
• B. Isotonic
• C. Concentric
• D. Eccentric
5. What is the effect of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine on smooth muscle cells?
• A. It decreases membrane potential and increases contractions.
• B. It increases membrane potential and relaxes the muscle.
• C. It has no effect on smooth muscle cells.
• D. It decreases the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
6. What distinguishes Type I muscle fibers from Type II muscle fibers?
• A. Type I fibers fatigue faster than Type II.
• B. Type I fibers have more mitochondria and myoglobin.
• C. Type I fibers are larger in size.
• D. Type I fibers are primarily used for rapid, intense movements.
7. What is the significance of the latch bridge mechanism in smooth muscles?
• A. It initiates rapid muscle contraction.
• B. It maintains sustained contraction with little energy.
• C. It prevents muscle relaxation.
• D. It enhances the speed of contraction.
8. During the excitation-contraction coupling, what happens after the calcium binds to Troponin C?
• A. Tropomyosin moves to cover the myosin binding sites on actin.
• B. Myosin heads detach from actin.
• C. Tropomyosin moves to uncover the myosin binding sites on actin.
• D. Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
9. What is the primary source of energy during severe or prolonged exercise affecting muscle contraction?
• A. Aerobic glycolysis
• B. Anaerobic glycolysis
• C. Phosphocreatine breakdown
• D. Oxidative phosphorylation
10. What is hyperplasia in the context of smooth muscle?
• A. Decrease in muscle size due to atrophy
• B. Increase in muscle size due to hypertrophy
• C. Production of more muscle cells
• D. Conversion of one muscle type to another
11. What is the result of denervation of muscle fibers?
• A. Immediate atrophy
• B. Flaccid paralysis and fibrillation
• C. Increased sensitivity to extracellular calcium
• D. Immediate contraction and rigor mortis
12. What role does myosin light chain kinase play in smooth muscle contraction?
• A. It phosphorylates myosin heads, initiating relaxation.
• B. It dephosphorylates myosin heads, preventing contraction.
• C. It phosphorylates myosin heads, enabling contraction.
• D. It has no role in smooth muscle contraction.
13. How does the "summation of contraction" affect muscle force?
• A. It decreases the force with repeated stimulation.
• B. It has no effect on muscle force.
• C. It increases the force with repeated stimulation.
• D. It only affects muscle length, not force.
14. What is the primary effect of muscle length on the force of contraction?
• A. Longer muscles always produce greater force.
• B. Shorter muscles always produce greater force.
• C. Maximum tension occurs at the muscle's resting length.
• D. Muscle length has no effect on the force of contraction.
15. What is the role of the T system of tubules during muscle contraction?
• A. They release calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
• B. They conduct the action potential into the muscle fiber.
• C. They bind to troponin to initiate contraction.
• D. They pump calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
16. How does tetanus affect muscle contraction?
• A. It prevents any form of contraction.
• B. It causes a state of sustained contraction.
• C. It only occurs after the muscle has fully relaxed.
• D. It reduces the overall muscle force.
17. A patient has a muscle condition where the ATP levels are significantly depleted. What muscle state would
you expect to observe?
• A. Relaxed state
• B. Sustained contraction (Rigor)
• C. Normal contraction and relaxation
• D. Enhanced and rapid contraction
18. A patient with a spinal cord injury experiences flaccid paralysis in the lower limbs. What aspect of muscle
function is most directly affected?
• A. Motor unit recruitment
• B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium release
• C. Cross-bridge cycling rate
• D. Muscle fiber type distribution
19. In a case of severe asthma, airway smooth muscles contract excessively. Which pathological change is
most likely to contribute to this condition?
• A. Decreased sensitivity to neurotransmitters
• B. Upregulation of acetylcholine receptors
• C. Inhibited myosin light chain phosphatase activity
• D. Reduced intracellular calcium concentration
20. A professional runner experiences muscle fatigue quicker than usual during a race. What factors might
contribute to this early onset of fatigue?
• A. Increased glycogen stores
• B. Diminished transmission at the neuromuscular junction
• C. Excessive oxygen supply
• D. Reduced lactic acid production
21. A patient's muscle biopsy shows a predominance of Type I fibers. Considering the patient's regular
training, what type of activity was he likely training for?
• A. Short, intense weight-lifting sessions
• B. Competitive sprinting or fast-paced sports
• C. High-intensity interval training
• D. Long-distance running or endurance activities
22. A patient undergoing muscle training shows improved strength and endurance over time. What process is
most likely responsible for this enhancement?
• A. Motor unit hyperplasia
• B. Increased passive tension in muscles
• C. Conversion of Type IIa fibers to Type IIb fibers
• D. Muscle fiber hypertrophy and increased motor unit efficiency
23. What is the primary effect of myosin light chain dephosphorylation in smooth muscle cells?
• A. It facilitates the detachment of myosin from actin, leading to relaxation.
• B. It initiates rapid muscle contraction.
• C. It increases the sensitivity of the muscle to calcium ions.
• D. It enhances the binding affinity of myosin for actin, increasing tension.
24. During an intense workout, a muscle fiber transitions from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism. What
immediate change occurs in the muscle fiber's metabolic pathways?
• A. There's a rapid increase in ATP production via oxidative phosphorylation.
• B. The Krebs cycle speeds up to meet the energy demand.
• C. Lactic acid begins to accumulate as a result of increased glycolysis.
• D. Phosphocreatine breakdown becomes the primary energy source.
25. Given the Weber-Fechner law and the concept of frequency modulation response, how would the
perceived intensity of a stimulus change if the frequency of discharge from the receptors doubles?
• A. The perceived intensity would double.
• B. The perceived intensity would increase but not necessarily double.
• C. The perceived intensity would remain the same.
• D. The perceived intensity would be halved.
26. Considering the properties of generator potential, which scenario would NOT lead to the generation of an
action potential?
• A. A brief, high-intensity stimulus that exceeds the threshold.
• B. A prolonged, low-intensity stimulus that slowly reaches the threshold.
• C. Continuous application of a strong stimulus leading to a generator potential just below the
threshold.
• D. A rapid series of low-intensity stimuli that temporally summate to reach the threshold.
27. How does the law of projection contribute to the phenomenon of referred pain?
• A. It allows the brain to perfectly localize every pain stimulus.
• B. It diminishes the intensity of pain over time.
• C. It ensures that pain is only felt in the directly affected area.
• D. It causes the brain to misinterpret the location of pain originating from internal organs.
28. A patient reports a loss of taste sensation after a head injury. Which type of sensory receptor is most likely
affected?
• A. Mechanoreceptors.
• B. Thermoreceptors.
• C. Nociceptors.
• D. Chemoreceptors.
29. Considering the roles of mechanoreceptors in the skin and proprioceptors in muscles and tendons, which
scenario best describes the integration of sensory and motor functions during a rapid hand withdrawal
from a hot object?
• A. Mechanoreceptors in the skin detect the heat, triggering a reflexive contraction of smooth
muscles in the blood vessels to cool the area.
• B. Nociceptors in the skin send signals to the brain, which then sends motor commands via the
dorsal column to contract skeletal muscles and withdraw the hand.
• C. Thermoreceptors in the skin detect the heat and immediately activate motor neurons in the
spinal cord, leading to a rapid contraction of skeletal muscles without direct brain involvement.
• D. Pacinian corpuscles sense the rapid change in pressure as the hand contacts the object, and
Golgi tendon organs ensure the withdrawal motion doesn't damage muscle fibers by moderating
the contraction force.
30. When a ballet dancer holds a pose, which sensory and muscular components are primarily interacting to
maintain balance and posture, considering both sensory coding from the lecture and muscle spindle
function from the skeletal and smooth muscle lecture?
• A. Muscle spindles in the skeletal muscles sense changes in muscle length, and Ruffini endings in
the skin provide continuous feedback on limb position, both contributing to the CNS's ability to
maintain posture.
• B. Free nerve endings in the skin detect pressure against the ground, and smooth muscles in the
vascular walls adjust blood flow to maintain balance.
• C. Nociceptors in the joints alert the brain to potential overextension, and rapid contractions of
smooth muscle fibers correct the posture.
• D. Merkel cells in the skin sense steady pressure and texture of the surface, while intrafusal fibers
in muscle spindles adjust the sensitivity of the stretch reflex, modulating skeletal muscle tone for
balance.