Test Booklet Code & No.

A
Paper-II
MANAGEMENT
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

JAN - 51218 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii)
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
o rder or any other discre pancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
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Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.
 JAN - 51218/II—A

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 JAN - 51218/II—A
Management
Paper II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions. Each question
carries Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. When the total product (TP) is at 3. As per theory of production, by

its highest level, the corresponding increasing the quantity of labor by

marginal product (MP) is : one unit, the firm can give up 2 units
(A) Highest of capital and still continues to
(B) Falling produce the same level of output, the

(C) Negative marginal rate of technical

(D) Zero substitution (MRTS) is :

2. As per the neoclassical production (A) 4

theory, the economically meaningful
(B) 1
region of production is marked by
which feature of the following ? (C) 2

(A) Total product rising, marginal (D) 1/2

product falling but is above
4. The marginal fixed cost of production
zero.
is always :
(B) Total product and marginal
product both rising. (A) Zero

(C) Total product and marginal (B) Rising

product are at the highest level.
(C) Falling
(D) Average product and marginal
(D) Initially rising and then falling.
product, both are rising.

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 JAN - 51218/II—A

5. All the following cost curves are 8. Organize the following needs as
described by A. H. Maslow in correct
U-shaped, except :
sequence :
(A) MC curve
(1) Self-actualization need
(B) AC curve
(2) Social belongingness need
(C) AFC curve
(3) Physiological need
(D) AVC curve
(4) Esteem need
6. The way in which people come to
(5) Security need
understand the cause of other and
their own behaviour, is described by
the process : (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(A) Consensus process (B) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

(B) Attribution process (C) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1

(C) Consistency process (D) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

(D) Expectancy process 9. Which of the following is the correct

7. The ability that involves viewing the match ?

organization as a whole and (A) Need Hierachy theory—D.C. Mc

applying planning and thinking Clelland
ability is :
(B) Two-factor Theory—A. H.
(A) Technical skill Maslow

(B) Interpersonal skill (C) E.R.G. Theory—Alderfer

(C) Communication skill (D) Need Achievement Theory—

(D) Conceptual skill Herzberg

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12. When rater's ratings are heavily

10. It is believed that the labour groups
influenced either by behaviour
are becoming more demanding and
exhibited by the ratee during the
aware of their rights. Therefore their
early stages of the review period or
demands can not be ignored. Timely
by outcomes or behour exhibited by
and periodical acts of labour welfare
the ratee near the end of the review
can appease the workers is belief of
period is known as :
the following theory :
(A) Rater Effect
(A) The Public Relation Theory
(B) Primacy and Recency Effect
(B) The Philanthropic Theory
(C) Halo Effect
(C) The Trusteeship Theory
(D) Status Effect
(D) Placating Theory
13. If employee is paid on the basis of
11. The practice of replacing narrowly
number of jobs he or she is capable
defined job descriptions with broader
of doing or on the depth of his or
categories of related jobs is known
her knowledge then it is :
as :
(A) Determining Grade
(A) Job Replacement
(B) Pay Review System
(B) Job Redesigning
(C) Skill-based pay system
(C) Job Execution
(D) Job-based pay system
(D) Job Banding

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14. Which of the following terms for 16. When .......................... is greater than

choosing the individual who is best zero the project should be accepted.

suited to a particular position and

(A) Internal rate of return
to the organization from a group of

potential applicants :
(B) Profitability index

(A) Recruitment
(C) Net present value
(B) Staffing

(D) Modified internal rate of return

(C) Enrollment

17. Which of the following would not

(D) Selection
improve the current ratio ?
15. Which of the following is the
(A) Borrow short-term to finance
judgmental error in the process of
additional fixed assets
perpetual interpretation ?
(B) Issue long-term debt to buy
(A) Stereotyping error
inventory

(B) Halo effect (C) Sell common stock to reduce

current liabilities
(C) Similarity error

(D) Sell fixed assets to reduce

(D) Perpetual defence accounts payable

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18. .......................... is divided by the 21. ..................... enhance the market

number of equity shares outstanding
value of shares and therefore equity
to get book value per share.
capital is not free of cost.
(A) Net Profit

(B) Gross Profit (A) Face value

(C) Net Worth

(B) Dividends
(D) Net Income
(C) Redemption value
19. Sales – Variable Costs – EBIT =
.................................
(D) Book value
(A) EBT
22. A company's costs take two
(B) Financial leverage

(C) Fixed cost forms. .................. are costs that do not

(D) Operating leverage vary with production or sales

20. revenue.
Average Annual profits after taxes
?= Average Investment
×100
(A) Fixed

(A) Payback period

(B) Variable
(B) Profitability Index

(C) Average rate of return (C) Adjusted

(D) Internal rate of return (D) Attributed

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23. What is the first step in the process 25. These goods are bought
infrequently, which are used
of building a brand ?
repeatably and which involve a

(A) Plan and implement brand reasonably high level of consumer

risk :
marketing programs
(A) Impulse goods

(B) Manage the brand through its (B) Luxury goods

(C) Non-durable goods

life cycle
(D) Durable goods
(C) Calculate existing brand equity 26. While solving a transportation
problem by applying Vogel's
(D) Identify and establish brand approximation method to a profit
maximisation problem, row and
values and positioning strategy
column penalties are determined

24. Unlike physical goods, services are by :

(A) Finding the smallest unit cost

produced and ..........................
in each row or column
simultaneously. (B) Finding the difference between
the two highest unit costs in
(A) launched each row and column

(C) Finding the difference between

(B) consumed
the two lowest unit costs in each

(C) created row and column.

(D) Finding the largest unit cost in

(D) maximized
each row or column.

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27. X bar charts discover assignable 29. The decision based on inspection by

variables is ................... reliable than

causes ........................ samples.

by attributes.
(A) between

(A) Less
(B) within
(B) Less than

(C) among
(C) More

(D) inside
(D) More than

28. If better is the quality of the product

30. The ....................... is a plan for the

........................ is the sample size production of individual end

required. items.

(A) Larger (A) JIT

(B) MRP II
(B) Smaller

(C) MRP
(C) Medium

(D) MPS
(D) Minute

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31. A one tailed test : 33. The value of R2 .................

(A) cannot be used in nominal

(A) is between –1 to 1
distribution

(B) is always greater than 1

(B) is non-directional

(C) is directional
(C) is between –2 to 2

(D) is based on normal distribution

(D) is between 0 and 1
only

32. The person who ensures that 34. ...................... is a subset of data

systems are developed on time,

warehouse.
within budget and with acceptable

quality is a : (A) OLAP

(A) Minister of Finance

(B) Data Mart

(B) Project Manager

(C) Intelligent Agent

(C) System Builder

(D) Data Entry Operator (D) Relational Database

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35. Which is the more correct 37. ....................... are those firms who do

not have a consistent strategy, but

statement ?
they are interested in guerilla
(A) Type II error is also known as
warfare.
error
(A) Defenders
(B) Type II error depends upon side
(B) Prospectors
of population.
(C) Analysers
(C) Type II error occurs when one
(D) Reactors
rejects a true hypothesis
38. In BCG matrix, problem children
(D) Type II errors do not exists are the products having ...................

36. ..................... is the difference between growth rate and .................... relative

market share.
the prospective customer's

evaluation of all the benefits and all (A) Low growth, relative high

market share
the costs of an offering and perceived

alternatives (B) Low growth, relative low market

share
(A) Perceived usefulness
(C) High growth, relative low
(B) Failure avoidance rate
market share

(C) Report rating (D) High growth, relative high

(D) Customer perceived value market share

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39. As per the Mintzberg's model, the 41. To replace a machine from a factory

entrepreneurial mode of strategic that has been over used is a

decision-making involves decisions .........................

made by :
(A) Strategic decision

(A) Single person

(B) Programmed decision

(B) Group of persons

(C) Organizational decision

(C) Board of directors

(D) Departmental decision

(D) Production executives

42. Which of the following is described

40. The policies evolved by an as a person's right to live in a

organization for growth and healthy environment, regardless of

management is termed as race, nationality, income gender or

.......................... age ?

(A) Business strategy (A) Environmental Fairness

(B) Functional strategy (B) Environmental Leadership

(C) Corporate strategy (C) Environmental Equality

(D) Innovative strategy (D) Meaningful Involvement

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43. "We wish to be good citizens of every 45. To business organizations the term

'Stakeholder' means which of the

community in which we operate."
following ?
This is :
(A) All those parties which the
company does business with
(A) Ethical Code
(B) All those interested in working
(B) Legal Rule
for the company

(C) Legal Act (C) All those who have an interest

in the company
(D) Political and Social Code
(D) Board of Directors of the

44. Socially responsible behaviour : company

46. Amit works for a company that

(A) never leads to improved
considers its mandate to reduce
financial performance worldwide illiteracy. Profits are
distributed between shareholders
(B) has adverse impact on
and literacy programs. This
stakeholders business is a .........................

(A) Non-profit Enterprise

(C) is in a firm's self-interest
(B) Social Venture
(D) results in ill-will from the
(C) Social Enterprise
community
(D) Social Entrepreneur

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47. Opportunity loss refers to : 49. Response, learning, performance and

results are the four levels in

(A) Expected value of a bad decision evaluating the management

(B) Expected loss from a bad program. This system of evaluation

is called :
decision

(A) Taylor system

(C) Difference between actual pay-

off and optimal pay-off (B) Kirkpatrick's model

(D) Regret from not having made (C) Werther & Devis Method

(D) Armstrong's method

a decision

50. The Small Industries Development

48. Psychological approach of
Bank of India (SIDBI) was

entrepreneurship deals with : established in ......................... as a

wholly owned subsidiary of

(A) Profit motive
.....................

(B) Performance motive (A) 1969, RBI

(B) 1990, RBI

(C) Achievement motive
(C) 1990, IDBI

(D) Status motive

(D) 1969, IDBI

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ROUGH WORK

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 JAN - 51218/II—A

ROUGH WORK

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