F1 (OIC)

1. With respect to the refrigeration cycle, the low-pressure side is between the ______.

A. Reefer compressor and tube condenser

B. Tube condenser and liquid receiver
C. Expansion valve and reefer compressor
D. Remove refrigerant moisture

Ans. C

2. In air conditioning system, which part when a refrigerant begins to boil and flash into gas?

A. Evaporator
B. Condenser
C. Liquid receiver
D. Compressor

Ans. A

3. Crude petroleum is usually ________.

A. 87 to 99% carbon, 20 to 24% hydrogen

B. 81 to 87% carbon, 10 to 14% hydrogen
C. 87 to 99% carbon, 10 to 14% hydrogen
D. 80 to 90% carbon, 20 to 24% hydrogen

Ans. B

4. The volume of hydraulic fluid when there is an increase in temperature is, it will _____.

A. Expands
B. Remains the same
C. Contracts
D. None of the above

Ans. A

5. The grade of crude oil that varies in color from reddish brown to jet black, are principally used for fuel and road oil is the
________.

A. Gas oil
B. Asphalt base oils
C. Topped crude oil
D. Paraffin base oil

Ans. B

6. Upon receiving an order “FINISHED WITH ENGINES” the main air stop valve of the propulsion engine must be:

A. Drained
B. Closed
C. Oiled
D. Steamed

Ans. B

7. Scavenging fire occur if the engine piston rings are ________.

A. Compressing
B. Good
C. Leaking
D. Oiled

Ans. C

8. In V-type engines the angle between banks is _______ degrees.

A. 30 to 120
B. 140 to 220
C. 330 to 360
D. 100 to 200

Ans. A

9. The part of an engine that transmits the reciprocating motion of the piston to the driven unit in the form of rotary motion is
the _________.

A. Camshaft
B. Crankshaft
C. Propeller shaft
D. None of these

Ans. B

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10. A reversible electric motor with worm gear that is connected to the flywheel to position engine parts is the ________.

A. Valve gear
B. Reversing
C. Turning gear
D. Camshaft

Ans. C

11. The part of an engine that has the function of measuring the speed and changing the fuel control is __________.

A. Injector
B. Indicator
C. Generator
D. Governor

Ans. D

12. The materials that has the function of providing oil film between the shafts and bearing surfaces of diesel engines?

A. Lubricants
B. Sealants
C. Oils
D. All of these

Ans. A

13. The ratio of fuel oil density to the density of water is called __________.

A. Viscosity index
B. Specific gravity
C. Latent heat
D. Volume

Ans. B

14. The revolution/s of the crankshaft is/are needed to complete ONE cycle in a two-stroke engine is __________.

A. Half
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Ans. B

15. Distance traveled by the engine piston from bottom dead center to the top dead center and vice versa is called:

A. Length
B. Stroke
C. Tension
D. Width

Ans. B

16. Most common trouble of turbo – chargers in a two-stroke engine is ________.

A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Surging
D. Stroke

Ans. C

17. Lantern rings are provided in centrifugal pumps to ________.

A. Allow visual inspection of shaft and packing

B. Provide passage for the packing coolant
C. Ensure alignment of the pump coupling to the driver
D. Absorbs wear between the impeller and the casing

Ans. B

18. Pump shafts are usually protected from erosion, corrosion and wear at stuffing boxes by __________.

A. Wearing rings
B. Valve
C. Renewable sleeves
D. Pump

Ans. C

19. The purpose of wear rings in a centrifugal pump is to ________.

A. Ensure alignment of the pump coupling to the driver

B. Absorbs wear between the impeller and the casing
C. Allow visual inspection of shaft and packing
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 D. Provide passage for the packing coolant

Ans. B

20. Most pump manufacturers of pumps recommend that the SUCTION piping dimension of centrifugal pumps be _________.

A. One size larger than the pump suction nozzle

B. Installed with a short radius elbow at the pump
C. Allow visual inspection of shaft and packing
D. Provide passage for the packing coolant

Ans. A

21. Air leakage in packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented by _________.

A. A water seal line to the packing

B. An air seal line from compressor
C. Allow visual inspection of shaft and packing
D. Provide passage for the packing coolant

Ans. A

22. To thoroughly pump the bilge using a horizontal centrifugal pump is the _______.

A. Pump must always be primed

B. Volute must impart a rotary motion of the water
C. Expansion valve and reefer compressor
D. Reefer compressor and tube condenser

Ans. A

23. The part if a refrigeration system reduces the pressure of a liquid refrigerant is the ____.

A. Expansion valve
B. Pump
C. Liquid receiver
D. Evaporator

Ans. A

24. The part when the refrigerant begins boil and flash into gas in air conditioning system is in the _______.

A. Evaporator
B. Expansion valve
C. Liquid receiver
D. Condenser

Ans. A

25. The purpose of the dehydrator in refrigeration is to _______.

A. Add refrigerant to the system

B. Remove refrigerant moisture
C. Absorb the heat
D. Separate the oil

Ans. B

26. The purpose of a liquid receiver is to __________.

A. Absorb the heat

B. Store the refrigerant
C. Separate the oil
D. Remove refrigerant moisture

Ans. B

27. Which of the following is the boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric pressure?

A. – 22oF
B. – 12oF
C. – 22oC
D. – 12oC

Ans. A

28. Referring to marine refrigeration, what is the latent heat if fusion of ice?

A. 144 BTU
B. 134 BTU
C. 124 BTU
D. 154 BTU

Ans. A

29. Which of the following is NOT a property of Freon-12?

3
 A. Odorless
B. Colorless
C. Corrosive
D. None

Ans. C

30. What class of crude oil that is dark brown in color with a slightly reddish tinged?

A. Asphalt base oil

B. Paraffin base oil
C. Gas oil
D. Burnt oil

Ans. B

31. The ratio of absolute viscosity of oil to specific gravity of oil is called _______.

A. Absolute viscosity
B. Specific viscosity
C. Kinetic viscosity
D. None of these

Ans. C

32. A grade of crude oil or partly refined crude from which such products as gasoline and kerosene have been removed is
termed ________.

A. Topped crude
B. Gas oils
C. Distillate
D. Paraffin oil

Ans. A

33. The purpose of orifice check valve placed in hydraulic system is to ______.

A. Allow movement in other direction

B. Allow a restricted fluid in one direction only
C. Allow visual inspection of shaft and packing
D. Ensure alignment of the pump coupling to the driver

Ans. B

34. What is generally accepted inlet and outlet cooling water temperature difference of a diesel engine closed cooling could
________.

A. 10 to 20oF
B. 25 to 35oF
C. 10o to 20oC
D. 25o to 35oC

Ans. A

35. Prolonged operation of a diesel engine closed cooling system with temperatures lower than designed normal temperature
could ________.

A. Eliminate fuel detonation

B. Low lube oil pressure
C. Increase cylinder liner wear
D. Excess acidity to the lube oil

Ans. C

36. Corrosion occurring on bearing surface would be due to ________.

A. Low lube oil pressure

B. Eliminate fuel detonation
C. Excess acidity of the lube oil
D. Increase cylinder liner wear

Ans. C

37. The most contaminating factor of lube oil is ________.

A. Metal shavings
B. Burnt oil
C. Dirty air
D. Asphalt base oil

Ans. B

38. The factor that has the greatest effect on the mechanical efficiency of a diesel engine is ________.

A. Temperature of the intake air

B. Friction within the engine
C. Mechanical condition of the supercharger
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 D. Increase air pressure

Ans. B

39. Main purpose of supercharging a diesel engine is for __________.

A. Increasing air pressure

B. Decreasing air pressure
C. Increasing mean effective pressure
D. Decreasing mean effective pressure

Ans. C

40. To avoid hunting above or below the desired engine RPM, a hydraulic governor is equipped with a ________.

A. Power pin arm

B. Metal shavings
C. Compensating device
D. Burnt oil

Ans. C

41. To prevent fire inside scavenge air spaces in marine diesel engines, it is important that it should be occasionally
__________.

A. Drained
B. Heated
C. Steamed
D. None of the above

Ans. A

42. The purpose of shielding the fuel oil high – pressure injection pipe between the injection pump and injector is to prevent
_________.

A. Flood hazard
B. Injury hazard
C. Fire hazard
D. Biohazard

Ans. C

43. When a centrifugal bilge pump is operated with closed discharge valve, the ______.

A. Motor overload would open

B. Leakage
C. Pump would overheat
D. None of the above

Ans. C

44. What should you do when centrifugal pump vibrates excessively after disassembly; you found that the impeller is out of
balance?

A. Remove metal from the heavy side by machining in a lathe

B. Acid wash and scrape the heavy side until it balances
C. Increase cylinder liner wear
D. Increase air pressure

Ans. A

45. The next after installing new wear rings by pressing them onto a centrifugal pump impeller it is advisable to _______.

I – Dynamically balance the shaft and impeller

II – Check the shaft and impeller with rings if centered
III – Visually inspect the rings after about an hour of service

A. I only C. III only

B. II only D. I, II and III

Ans. D

46. Which of these reduces pulsation in pipeline on the discharge side of a steam reciprocating feed pump?

A. Feed regulator
B. Valve
C. Air chamber
D. Gear

Ans. C
47. The purpose of the air chamber in the discharge of an emergency boiler feed steam reciprocating pump is to _________.

A. Facilitate draining of the cylinder

B. Reduce pulsations in the feed line
C. Replace the pumps
D. Increase air pressure

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 Ans. B

48. A pump that is NOT a positive displacement pump is _________.

A. Centrifugal
B. Gear
C. Reciprocating
D. Rotary

Ans. A

49. Capacity of a rotary pump delivering a constant viscosity fluid will decrease if the discharge pressure is increased
because of _______.

A. Reduce slippage
B. Increase pressure
C. Increase slippage
D. Decrease pressure

Ans. C

50. All the following are used with a reciprocating bilge and ballast system EXCEPT ____.

A. Suction priming pump

B. Reduce slippage
C. Discharge valve
D. Increase pressure

Ans. A

51. An Edwards – type air pump has ________.

A. No valves
B. Two sets of valves
C. Three sets of valves
D. One set of valve

Ans. D

52. How does viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?

A. The viscosity of fluid is relatively not important in pump operation

B. The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity
C. Leak in a gasket on the suction side of the pump
D. The slide valve of one cylinder is controlled by the piston rod of the other cylinder

Ans. A

53. The pump efficiency may be lost as a result of __________.

A. Air entering the pump through a pinhole leak in the discharge valve
B. Leak in a gasket on the suction side of the pump
C. Both slide valves operate simultaneously
D. None of the above

Ans. B

54. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because _____.

A. They are essentially self-priming and produce high suction lift

B. These pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
C. Leak in a gasket on the suction side of the pump
D. None of the above

Ans. A

55. In a duplex reciprocating pump _______.

A. The slide valve of one cylinder is controlled by the piston rod of the other cylinder
B. Both slide valves operate simultaneously
C. The viscosity of fluid is relatively not important in pump operation
D. None of the above

Ans. A

56. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump is adjusted by ______.

A. Twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction

B. Changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod
C. The slide valve of one cylinder is controlled by the piston rod of the other cylinder
D. The viscosity of fluid is relatively not important in pump operation

Ans. B

57. Sealing lines provide sealing liquid to flow to the stuffing box of a centrifugal pump ____.

A. To prevent seawater leakage to stuffing box

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 B. To cool the shaft
C. Eliminate fuel detonation
D. None of the above

Ans. B

58. Pump on board ship is/are driven by a/an ______.

I – Steam II – Electric motor III – Engine

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III

Ans. D

59. The type of pump used in the steering gear of modern ship is _______.

A. Vane
B. Gear
C. Centrifugal
D. All of these

Ans. A

60. A quick closing valve is located in the machinery space in _______.

A. Fuel tank
B. Pump suction
C. Gear
D. Valve

Ans. A

61. An air vent of fuel oils tanks is located in the ________.

A. Weather deck
B. Steering deck
C. Pump room
D. Engine room

Ans. A

62. The pump that LACKS priming capacity is the _________.

A. Gear pump
B. Vane pumps
C. Centrifugal pump
D. All of these

Ans. C

63. A marine pump that is used in transferring fuel oil is the ________.

A. Centrifugal pump
B. Rotary pump
C. Reciprocating pump
D. Gear pump

Ans. B

64. A pump that is usually used to transfer engine room bilges is the _________.

A. Reciprocating
B. Gear
C. Centrifugal
D. Rotary

Ans. A

65. Used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge of a tanker ship is the ______.

A. Flinger rings
B. Clipper seals
C. Mechanical seals
D. Centrifugal pump

Ans. C

66. Increase internal leakage, in addition to poor hydraulic system response and inadequate lubrication, is a result of
_________.

A. Low hydraulic oil viscosity

B. Broken directional control valve springs
C. Low pressure pump shaft casing
D. Insufficient load
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 Ans. A

67. When normal operating pressure is applied to hydraulic oil in high pressure system, oil ____.

A. Viscosity will decrease

B. Volume will increase
C. Volume will decrease
D. Viscosity will increase

Ans. C

68. Which of the listed hydraulic components could an O-ring seal is satisfactory used in providing a seal?

A. Low pressure pump shaft casing

B. Relief valve spool
C. High pressure pump shaft casing
D. Insufficient load

Ans. B

69. A control valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate the reversal of fluid flow is called ________.

A. Directional control valve

B. Regenerative valve
C. Relief valve
D. None of the above

Ans. A

70. Energy losses occurring in hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the ______.

A. Hydraulic piping flexibility

B. Atmosphere as heat
C. Relief valve spool
D. None of the above

Ans. B

71. Purging air from a hydraulic oil system is necessary when _____.

A. The system has been idle for a long period

B. The system has been drained and filled with new oil
C. The slide valve of one cylinder is controlled by the piston rod of the other cylinder
D. The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity

Ans. B

72. What causes overheating of a hydraulic pump?

A. Insufficient load
B. Excessive internal slippage in the pump
C. Incorrect fluid viscosity
D. None of the above

Ans. B

73. Cavitations in hydraulic pump operation and can be caused by ______.

A. Excessive discharge pressure from the pump

B. Clogged suction strainers in the reservoir
C. Incorrect fluid viscosity
D. Continued slow circulation of the oil

Ans. B

74. The result of overheating of a hydraulic system may be _______.

A. Continued slow circulation of the oil

B. Incorrect fluid viscosity
C. Insufficient load
D. Excessive discharge pressure from the pump

Ans. B

75. A valve that is NOT considered a hydraulic system direction control valve is the ________.

A. Unloading valve
B. Three position valve
C. Sequencing valve
D. Spring control valve

Ans. A

76. The device that is considered as hydraulic system direction control valve is the ____.

A. Sequencing valve
8
 B. Unloading valve
C. Three position valve
D. Spring control valve

Ans. C

77. The component that is used to thoroughly segregate small particle contamination from hydraulic fluid is _______.

A. Separator
B. Strainer
C. Filter
D. All of the given

Ans. C

78. Almost all solenoid valves are actuated by _________.

A. An electromagnet
B. Pump
C. A spring
D. None of the above

Ans. A

79. Purpose of restoration valve installed in a hydraulic hatch cover system is to ______.

A. Control the speed of hatch cover movement

B. Restrict oil supply to hatch cover not in used
C. Continued slow circulation of the oil
D. Excessive discharge pressure from the pump

Ans. A

80. Internal bypass line is provided in some hydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the possibility of __________.

A. Pump cavitations
B. Incorrect fluid viscosity
C. Aeration of the oil
D. Insufficient load

Ans. A

81. The FIRST step to be done when securing a centrifugal distillate pump is to ___.

A. Stop the pump

B. Pump cavitations
C. Close the discharge valves
D. Incorrect fluid viscosity

Ans. C

82. The statement that is TRUE in starting centrifugal pumps is _______.

A. They should be started with the discharge valve closed

B. They should be starter with the suction valve closed
C. The slide valve of one cylinder is controlled by the piston rod of the other cylinder
D. The viscosity of fluid is relatively not important in pump operation

Ans. A

83. Reduced capacity with vibration and noise at the centrifugal pump suction due to vapor pockets in the fluid being pumped
is caused by _____.

A. Cavitation
B. Incorrect fluid viscosity
C. Steam knock
D. Aeration of the oil

Ans. A

84. The corrective action you should do if a centrifugal pump delivers insufficient discharge pressure due to worn wearing
rings is to:

A. Replace the rings

B. Replace pump
C. Replace the rings and impeller
D. None of the above

Ans. A

85. What is the minimum permissible flash point of hydraulic fluid in a system that operates at 250 psi?

A. 215oF
B. 415oF
C. 315oF
D. 11oF
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 Ans. C

86. The type of bearing is installed on the main generating set is _________.

A. Sleeve
B. Thrust
C. Roller
D. Valve

Ans. A

87. The heat value of fuel oil is determined by the use of ________.

A. Hydrometer
B. Calorifier
C. Calorimeter
D. Ammeter

Ans. C

88. In shipboard application, which of the listed sealing device is most similar to an O-ring?

A. Quad ring
B. V-ring
C. Cap ring
D. Flinger ring

Ans. A

89. In setting a divider to the proper radius, you should use a _________.

A. Micrometer
B. Vernier caliper
C. Scale
D. Hydrometer

Ans. C

90. To drill a hole in round stock perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock should be mounted in a _________.

A. Morse sleeve
B. V-block
C. C-clamp
D. Scale

Ans. B

91. A standard taper pipe thread has a taper of ________.

A. ¼ inch per foot

B. ½ inch per foot
C. ¾ inch per foot
D. 1 inch per foot

Ans. C

92. Correct screw thread nomenclature, PITCH is the __________.

A. Distance between corresponding point on adjacent threads

B. Angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and crest of the thread
C. Control the speed of hatch cover movement
D. Restrict oil supply to hatch cover not in used

Ans. A

93. The three sets of hard taps are _______.

A. Taper, plug and finish

B. Short, medium and long
C. Taper, plug and bottom
D. Starting, through and finishing

94. Round, split dies are usually adjustable to ________.

A. Allow threading on oversized stock

B. Control the diameter of thread cut
C. Allow movement in other direction
D. Allow a restricted fluid in one direction only

Ans. B
95. Tool for cutting external pipe thread is called pipe __________.

A. Cutter
B. Stock and die
C. Hacksaw and blade
D. All of the above
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 Ans. B

96. The process used to bring a hole to finished size with a high accuracy is ______.

A. Reaming
B. Cut
C. Drilling
D. None of the above

Ans. A

97. For mild steel and general work, the correct angle of a drill point is ______.

A. 29o
B. 118o
C. 90o
D. 180o

Ans. B

98. To remove a taper shank drill from the drill press spindle is by using a _____.

A. Vice grip
B. Drill drift
C. Leather mallet
D. Lathe

Ans. B

99. Increasing the feed pressure on a drill as the drill point begins to break through the bottom of the work piece will cause the
drill to _________.

A. Form a tapered hole in the bottom of the work piece

B. Dig into the work piece and tend to whirl around
C. Allow threading on oversized stock
D. Control the speed of hatch cover movement

Ans. B

100. In cutting angular iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, a better blade to be used is _________.

A. 14 teeth per inch

B. 24 teeth per inch
C. 18 teeth per inch
D. 30 teeth per inch

Ans. B

101. To start a cut more easily by a hacksaw blade is to ________.

A. Turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame

B. File a nick where the cut is to be started
C. Form a tapered hole in the bottom of the work piece
D. Angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and crest of the thread

Ans. B

102. To use a hacksaw for cutting is more effective when pressure is applied on the _________.

A. Backward stroke
B. Sideward stroke
C. Forward stroke
D. All of the above

Ans. C

103. If using a chisel or similar tool, you should _______.

A. Be certain it is non-sparkling type

B. Wear safety glasses
C. Allow movement in other direction
D. Control the diameter of thread cut

Ans. B

104. The temper is likely to be drawn out on the chisel edge when you _________.

A. Grind the cutting angle too small

B. Grind it for long period of time with much pressure
C. Control the diameter of thread cut
D. Be certain it is non-sparkling type

Ans. B

105. The thing to do with chisel that has a mushroomed head is to ________.

11
 A. Remove the ragged edges by grinding
B. Do not strike the mushroomed head portion
C. Grind the cutting angle too small
D. Control the diameter of thread cut

Ans. A

106. To clean a metal file that has become clogged with fillings is said to be PINNED by using a _______.

A. Pick
B. Oil stone
C. Dressing tool
D. Chisel

Ans. A

107. A file that will produce a fine finish when draw filling is the ______.

A. Mill cut file

B. Second cut file
C. Double cut file
D. All of the above

Ans. A

108. The outcome when the high PPM alarm is actuated in an automatic oily bilge water separator is that the _________.

A. Fuel oil purifier will stop

B. Bilge pump suction is shut
C. Overboard discharge is shut
D. All of the above

Ans. C

109. What is the purpose of the expansion tank in a closed type jacket cooling water system of a diesel engine?

A. To accommodate for an increase in water volume

B. To increase the pressure of the jacket cooling
C. To prevent seawater leakage to stuffing box
D. To cool the shaft

Ans. A

110. The type of electric light fittings is used in pipe tunnels is _______.

A. Shock proof
B. Flame proof
C. Water proof
D. All of the above

Ans. B

111. The cause if there is a charge air pressure drop in a generator engine is ____.

A. Turbocharger air filter fouled

B. Fouled nozzle ring of the turbocharger
C. Do not silence the alarm so the other engineer can hear
D. Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the control room

Ans. A

112. In coolers zinc anode protects ________.

A. Iron
B. Bronze
C. Platinum
D. Copper

Ans. A

113. In a seven day period, the minimum standard rest of an officer in charge of the engineering watch must be _______.

A. 50 hours
B. 60 hours
C. 70 hours
D. 80 hours

Ans. C

114. The minimum standard rest of rating forming part of an engineering watch with in a 24 hour period should be _________.

A. 10 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 12 hours

Ans. A
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115. In relieving time, the outgoing in charge of the engineering watch should ____.

A. Check that there reliever is capable to carry out watch keeping duties
B. Stop the main engine before relieving time
C. Hand over the main engine telegraph
D. None of the above

Ans. A

116. If there is sufficient basis that the relieving officer is NOT capable of watch keeping duties, the outgoing in charge of the
engineering watch should ______.

A. Notify the chief engineer officer

B. Stop the main engine immediately
C. Hand over the main engine telegraph
D. Fouled nozzle ring of the turbocharger

Ans. A

117. Every member of the engineering watch should have adequate knowledge of the _________.

I – Use of appropriate internal communication

II – Escape routes from machinery spaces
III – Location of fire fighting equipment

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III

Ans. D

118. Before to taking over the engineering watch while the ship is underway, relieving officers of the engineering watch should
satisfy themselves regarding _______.

I – Special requirements to sanitary system disposal

II – Availability of fire fighting appliances
III – State of completion of engine room log
IV – Standing orders of the chief engineer officer

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

Ans. D

119. Relieving engineer watch officers when underway should be familiar with the _________.

I – Condition of main and auxiliary system

II – Level of fuel in the service tank
III – Potential adverse condition resulting from bad weather
IV – Nature of work being performed on the machinery

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

Ans. D

120. In maneuvering situation and at bridge control mode, what precaution should be observed?

A. Chief Engineer Officer and the Officer-In-Charge of the Engineer Watch should be in the machinery spaces
B. Chief Engineer Officer and Second Engineer Officer must be at the bridge
C. Second Engineer Officer and the Third Engineer Officer shall be doing maintenance
D. None of the above

Ans. A

121. The master or person-in-charge of a vessel is required to submit a casualty report of an international grounding under
what condition?

A. At the owner’s discretion

B. If it creates a hazard to navigation
C. If the grounding lasts over 48 hours
D. None of the above

Ans. B

122. The FIRST medical response is to check to electrical burn victims that have subjected to electric shock is _______.

A. Indication of broken bones

B. Breathing and heartbeat

Ans.B
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123. The emergency care for an electrical burn victim is to _______.

A. Flood the burn with water for two minutes

B. Brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area
C. Cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to medical facility
D. All of the above

Ans. C

124. The class of fire that probably occur on the boiler room bilges is a ____.

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Ans. B

125. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed action/s will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the
enunciator cabinet?

I – A rise in temperature will activate the thermostat

II – The fire alarm test push – button is operated
III – A manual fire alarm box is activated

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III

Ans. D

126. Usually fire hose should be stowed with the ________.

A. Female end connected to the fire hydrant

B. Male end attached to the fire hydrant
C. Both male and female end connected to the fire hydrant
D. None of the above

Ans. A

127. To avoid the spread of fire by convection is to ______.

A. Close all openings to the area

B. Shut off all electrical power
C. Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the control room
D. Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS mode

Ans. A

128. To do in the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck occurring while fueling, is to ____.

A. Cover the area with saw dust

B. Cover the area with foam
C. Close all opening to the area
D. All of the above

Ans. A

129. The appropriate precautions that should be taken when an engineer on duty enters a UMS – mode operated engine room
due to an ALARM is to ________.

A. Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the control room
B. Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS mode
C. Cover the area with saw dust
D. Cover all the opening to the area

Ans. A

130. What component in the control room is the entire housing of the computers, controls, and visual signals are located?

A. Console
B. Deck
C. C. Controller
D. Engine

Ans. A

131. What deck to be the pressure of emergency fire pump tested?

A. Highest deck
B. Lowest deck
C. Main deck
D. All of the above

Ans. A

14
132. When there is a fire inside the engine room, the fuel oil service pump be switched off at _________.

A. Accessible place outside the engine room

B. The CO2 room
C. The emergency generator room
D. Main deck

Ans. A

133. The reason why the bowl of a fuel oil purifier fails to open for sludge discharge is ____.

A. Clogged strainer of operating water high pressure side

B. The operating water tank is full of water
C. There is a mixture of seawater in the operating water line
D. Baffle plates that have been bent prior to removal

Ans. A

134. The boiling point of Freon-22 at atmospheric pressure is _______.

A. – 41oF
B. – 31oF
C. – 21oF
D. – 51oF

Ans. A

135. The part in refrigeration that is used to continuously circulate the refrigerant to the system is the ______.

A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Receiver
D. Evaporator

Ans. A

136. The thermo bulb of solenoid valve in provision refrigeration is connected _______.

A. Before the evaporator coil

B. Inside the cooling chambers
C. Outside the meat room
D. All of the above

Ans. B

137. The device used to keep moisture from passing through the refrigeration system is called _______.

A. Dehumidifier
B. Aerator
C. Dehydrator
D. All of the above

Ans. C

138. The sensor bulb of the expansion valve is situated in Freon system at _____.

A. Middle of the evaporator coils

B. Lowest side of the evaporator coil
C. Near the outlet of the evaporator coil
D. Inside the cooling chamber

Ans. C

139. Gasket material/s used in Freon system is/are:

I – Asbestos II – Rubber III – Metallic

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III

Ans. D

140. If there is a leak in Freon system, the flame color of the halide torch will turn to ____.

A. Red
B. Violet
C. Green
D. White

Ans. C

15
141. The filter drier in a Freon system ids filled with ________.

A. Activated alumina
B. Sodium nitrate
C. Sodium compound
D. All of the above

Ans. A

142. Passages are drilled at the diesel engine crankshaft to provide lubricating oil into the _____.

A. Jacket water inlet

B. Pumps
C. Piston rod bearings
D. Valve

Ans. C

143. The factor that tends to increase scale formation at the salt water side of the heat exchanger is by ______.

A. Operating the engine with a high seawater outlet temperature

B. Baffle plates that have been bent prior to removal
C. Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS model
D. All of the above

Ans. A

144. Perfect vacuum is represented by ______.

A. 30 in. Hg
B. 25 in. Hg
C. 15 in. Hg
D. 10 in. Hg

Ans. A

145. Purpose of the injection pump delivery check valve is to _________.

A. Prevent carbon deposits from forming at the injection nozzle

B. Help the injector needle reseat without dribbling at the nozzle holes
C. Baffle plates that have been bent prior to removal
D. Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS model

Ans. B

146. A port and helix injection pump having upper and lower plunger helixes is designed to ______.

A. Vary fuel delivery and return pressure

B. Vary the beginning and ending of injection
C. Baffle plates that have been bent prior to removal
D. All of the above

Ans. B

147. A unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine to ________.

I – Meter the fuel

II – Produce fuel pressure
III – Atomize the fuel

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III

Ans. D

148. Fuel leakage in high pressure fuel pipe between the injections pumps and fuel nozzle needs immediate repair because of
the _____.

A. High cost of fuel

B. Clogging of the orifices
C. Serious fire hazard
D. Distortion of the spray pattern

Ans. C

149. The broken nozzle pintle in a fuel injector usually causes ________.

A. Clogging of the orifices

B. High cost of fuel
C. Distortion of the spray pattern
D. Serious fire hazard

Ans. C
16
150. Distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a diesel engine to have ___.

A. Lower fuel pressure

B. Clogging of the orifices
C. Less power output
D. High cost of fuel

Ans. C

151. The cause if there is a change in quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel injector is ______.

A. Leaking needle valve

B. Lower fuel pressure
C. Reducing cylinder turbulence
D. Less power output

Ans. A

152. A multi-orifice fuel injection nozzle is usually used with what type of combustion?

A. Open combustion chamber

B. Pre combustion chamber
C. Turbo charger
D. Engine

Ans. A

153. DEFECTIVE nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause _________.

I – Engine power loss

II – Smoke due to unburned fuel
III – High exhaust temperature reading

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III

Ans. D

154. An overhauling a jerk-type pump, you musty replace the pump plunger. The other must also be replaced is _________.

A. Delivery check valve

B. O – ring
C. Pump barrel
D. All of the above

Ans. C

155. If the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is LOWER THAN that specified by the engine manufacturer, the _______.

A. Quantity of fuel injected decrease

B. Quantity of fuel injected increased
C. Lower fuel pressure
D. None of the above

Ans. B

156. Fuel oil to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the _________.

A. Turbocharger
B. Carburetor
C. Injector nozzle tip
D. None of the above

Ans. C

157. In the disassembly or assembly of an injection pump plunger and barrel, you should ___.

I – Keep the parts immersed in diesel fuel

II – Always keep the plunger and barrel together to avoid interchanging
III – Work over linoleum – type surface, as a steel bench could cause a bur

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III

Ans. D

158. If the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is GREATER THAN specified by the engine manufacturer, the expected
effect is ______.

A. Quantity fuel injected tends to decrease

B. Duration of injection will always be longer
C. Quantity of fuel injected increased
17
 D. Lower fuel pressure

Ans. A

159. Carbon deposits building up in and around the injection nozzle tip are LEAST to occur when using what type of nozzle?

A. Multihole
B. Multipoint
C. Pintle
D. None of the above

Ans. C

160. What causes FAULTY operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles?

A. Water in the fuel oil supply

B. Leakage past the plunger into the oil drain
C. Lower fuel pressure
D. Quantity of fuel injected increased

Ans. A

161. The cause of DEFECTIVE fuel injection nozzles of diesel engine is _____.

A. Sediment of the fuel supply

B. Distortion of the fuel spray pattern
C. Quantity fuel injected tends to decrease
D. Lower fuel pressure

Ans. A

162. The outcome if there is DIRT lodged on the nozzle valve seat of a fuel injection nozzle is __________.

A. Fuel leakage into the nozzle drain line

B. Fuel leakage before and after injection
C. Sediment of the fuel supply
D. Lower fuel pressure

Ans. B

163. The majority of fuel injection nozzles are opened by ______.

A. Fuel oil pressure

B. Lubricator
C. A cam operated follower
D. Separator

Ans. A

164. Alternation of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system having individual plunger-type pumps _________.

A. Changes the position of the fuel inlet ports

B. Changes the length of the pump stroke
C. Quantity fuel injected tends to decrease
D. Quantity of fuel injected increased

Ans. B

165. The machinery that is used to segregate impurities, remaining water, sludge and traces of acid from fuel is the ______.

A. Lubricator
B. Boiler
C. Separator
D. Heater

Ans. C

166. A machine that is used to convert heat energy into mechanical work is a/an ____.

A. Engine
B. Heater
C. Boiler
D. Lubricator

Ans. A

167. In a 4-stroke cycle engine, in what stroke when the product of combustion is discharged?

A. Power
B. Compression
C. Exhaust
D. Pump

Ans. C

18
168. In diesel engines, which of the following is an equivalent of one horsepower?

A. 0.5457 kw
B. 0.6457 kw
C. 0.7457 kw
D. 0.8457 kw

Ans. C

169. In a 4-stroke cycle diesel engine, the intake and exhaust valves are actuated by ____.

I – Cams II – Push rods III – Rocker arms

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III

Ans. D

170. The type of engine when high-grade fuel mixed with air by a carburetor ad ignites it by an electric spark is a _______.

A. Diesel engine
B. Gasoline engine
C. Steam engine
D. All of the above

Ans. B

171. The horsepower and speed capability utilized by the engine without interruption is the ________.

A. Maximum rating
B. Continuous rating
C. Intermittent rating
D. All of the above

Ans. B

172. In a diesel engine, the fuel consumption is expressed in _______.

A. Grams per horsepower per hour

B. Liters per horsepower per hour
C. Tons per day
D. None of the above

Ans. A

173. The function/s of the fuel injection system of a diesel engine is/are to ______.

I – Measure the correct quantity of the fuel

II – Time the injection of the fuel
III – Atomize of the fuel

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III

Ans. D

174. A sensitive device that automatically controls the speed of an engine which is the function of the ________.

A. Synchroscope
B. Governor
C. Injector nozzle
D. Pumps

Ans. B

175. The part that is common to both diesel and gasoline engines are _______.

A. Pistons
B. Carburetors
C. Injectors
D. Valves

Ans. A

176. The oil scraper ring of a 4 stroke engine piston is installed at the _____.

A. Top ring
B. 2nd ring
C. Lowest ring
D. None

Ans. C

19
177. The refrigerating effect that is equal to the milting of 1 ton of ice in 24 hours is _______.

A. 288,000 BTU
B. 188,000 BTU
C. 388,000 BTU
D. 488,000 BTU

Ans. A

178. A ton of refrigerating is equivalent to________.

A. 100 BTU/min
B. 200 BTU/min
C. 300 BTU/min
D. 400BTU/min

Ans. B

179. What is the temperature when the water changes from liquid to gas in marine boiler?

A. Freezing temperature
B. Boiling temperature
C. Atmospheric temperature
D. None of the above

Ans. B

180. Inside the galley of a ship, which of the following types of compressor is being used in the refrigerator?

A. Hermetic compressor
B. Reciprocating compressor
C. Rotary compressor
D. None of the above

Ans. A

181. In refrigeration, what type of compressor is used when the driving motor is sealed in a dome?

A. Air compressor
B. Rotary compressor
C. Hermetic compressor
D. All of the above

Ans. C

182. The heat energy absorbed in the process of changing the form of a substance without any change in temperature or
pressure is known as ______.

A. Latent heat
B. Specific heat
C. Sensible heat
D. Total heat

Ans. A

183. In a Freon-12 system flow, what part is installed between the filter drier and evaporator?

A. Reefer compressor
B. Expansion valve
C. Tube compressor
D. Rotary compressor

Ans. B

184. In a refrigeration cycle, the part that is found between the condenser and solenoid valve is the ______.

A. Receiver
B. Evaporator
C. Tube compressor
D. Motor

Ans. A

185. The condenser of provision refrigeration aboard ship is cooled by ______.

A. Fresh water
B. Sea water
C. Cold Freon
D. Liquid Freon

Ans. B

20
186. It is a ductile and malleable metal usually corroded by air or water is the _____.

A. Tin
B. Aluminum
C. Titanium
D. Copper

Ans. B

187. The ability of a material to permanently deform without rupture under tensile load is called _____.

A. Plasticity
B. Hardness
C. Ductility
D. Malleability

Ans. C

188. The characteristic of a material to suddenly break with little or no prior deformation is called ______.

A. Brittleness
B. Toughness
C. Malleability
D. Hardness

Ans. A

189. The ability of metal to resists indentation, abrasion, wear and cutting is called _.

A. Ductility
B. Hardness
C. Plasticity
D. Brittleness

Ans. B

190. Which of the following is the property of a material that enables it to resists strain when stress is applied?

A. Strength
B. Brittleness
C. Hardness
D. Plasticity

Ans. A

191. The material that composed of large amount of chromium and nickel is the ____.

A. Vanadium steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Tungsten steel
D. Aluminum steel

Ans. B

192. Material that can be easily bent, cut and does NOT exhibit great tensile strength as compared with other materials is the
_____.

A. Cast iron
B. Mild steel
C. Wrought iron
D. Tin

Ans. B

193. A metal that has strong reaction to magnet is the ____.

A. Steel
B. Lead
C. Brass
D. Copper

Ans. A

194. Rapid identification of the metal can be determined through the following physical observations:

I – Surface appearance
II – Reaction to magnet
III – Length of the material

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and III

Ans. C

21
195. Metals usually used in machinery parts are stronger than mild steel is the ______.

A. Medium carbon steel

B. High carbon steel
C. Stainless steel
D. Aluminum steel

Ans. A

196. The ferrous metal that is commonly used as cutting tools is the ____.

A. High carbon steel

B. Low carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. Stainless steel

Ans. A

197. A metal alloy that is more resistant to corrosion is the _____.

A. Stainless steel
B. Nickel steel
C. High carbon steel
D. Medium carbon steel

Ans. A

198. Corrosion to resistant metal is an alloy with large amount of nickel and _______.

A. Chromium
B. Aluminum
C. Vanadium
D. Tungsten

Ans. A

199. For marine use, which of these alloys is more resistant to acid and scaling?

A. Mild steel
B. Cast iron
C. Stainless steel
D. Alloy

Ans. C

200. A kind of iron that has a composition of about 93% iron is the ______.

A. Pig iron
B. Cast iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Stainless steel

Ans. A

201. The metal that is often used in coating food containers is the _____.

A. Tin
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Steel

Ans. A

202. The metal that is bolted to the ship’s hull to preserve the steel against pitting is the ______.

A. Zinc
B. Lead
C. Steel
D. Tin

Ans. A

203. A kind of metal that has a strong anodic potential in marine service is the _____.

A. Tin
B. Copper
C. Zinc
D. Lead

Ans. C

22
204. A material that is considered as ferrous metal is the ____.

A. Steel
B. Brass
C. Manganese
D. Tin

Ans. A

205. A material that is NOT belong to classifications of non-ferrous metal is the _____.

A. Steel
B. Brass
C. Manganese
D. Tin

Ans. A

206. Which of the following properties of a material has the ability to resists deformation usually by indention?

A. Hardness
B. Malleability
C. Plasticity
D. Ductility

Ans. A

207. To anneal a copper is done by heating into a cherry red color and a _____.

A. Cooling slowly in air

B. Dousing in cold water
C. Dousing in hot water
D. None of the above

Ans. A

208. A property of metal that has the ability to resists being permanently deformed when a load is applied is ______.

A. Hardness
B. Ductility
C. Strength
D. Malleability

Ans. A

209. The purpose of tempering is to make a metal ____.

A. Harder
B. Softer
C. Less brittle
D. Ductility

Ans. C

210. Reheating a hardened metal to a temperature lower than the temperature and then cooling it is known as ______.

A. Temperature hardening
B. Brittleness
C. Tempering
D. Strength

Ans. C

211. The rate of heat transfer from the hot region to a cold region is affected most by the _____.

A. Size of the heat sink

B. Temperature difference between the regions
C. Temperature hardening
D. Brittleness

Ans. B

212. When a metal is tempered, it becomes ________.

A. Less brittle
B. Harder
C. More brittle
D. Softer

Ans. A

23
213. The internal force of a material, which tends to resists deformation when subjected to external forces, is known as _____.

A. Stress
B. Hardness
C. Strain
D. Brittleness

Ans. A

214. The result of material after annealing is to make it ______.

A. Softer
B. Harder
C. Tougher
D. Smoother

Ans. A

215. The process of reheating hardened STEEL to temperature lower than the hardening temperatures and then cooling it, it
termed _______.

A. Tempering
B. Hardening
C. Annealing
D. Malleability

Ans. A

216. If steel is heated at a temperature a 85Oo-950oC and then cooling it SLOWLY either the furnace or an insulated space is
called _______.

A. Annealing
B. Heating
C. Tempering
D. Hardening

Ans. A

217. The kind of metal that is light, strong and corrosion-resistant usually used as plate material in plate-type heat exchanger is
the _______.

A. Bronze
B. Copper
C. Titanium
D. Silver

Ans. C

218. The result when either of two bodies in motion is in contact with each other is called ________.

A. Potential energy
B. Tension
C. Friction
D. Kinetic energy

Ans. C

219. A kind of non-metallic minerals that can withstand very high temperatures and unaffected by steam, petrol paraffin, fuel oil
and lubricants, is the ____.

A. Asbestos
B. Lignum vitae
C. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
D. Steel

Ans. A

220. The wearing away of corrosive metal by abrasion is called ______.

A. Erosion
B. Tension
C. Corrosion
D. Stress

Ans. A

221. The reduction of metals by chemical or electro chemical reactions within their surrounding is known as ______.

A. Erosion
B. Tension
C. Corrosion
D. Stress

Ans. C

24
222. Often use as a joining materials for fresh and sea water pipes and also for water lubricated bearing is ________.

A. Rubber
B. Steel
C. Asbestos
D. Lignum vitae

Ans. A

223. A hard brittle substance that is insoluble in water is the _______.

A. Nylon
B. Resin
C. Glass reinforced plastics
D. Asbestos

Ans. B

224. Bronze is an alloy of copper and ________.

A. Tin
B. Zinc
C. Bronze
D. Silver

Ans. A

225. Brass is an alloy of copper and ________.

A. Manganese
B. Zinc
C. Silver
D. Tin

Ans. B
226. The process of using zinc, a metal that is resistant to atmospheric corrosion when using as coating for protecting steel is
called ______.

A. Dezincification
B. Corrosion
C. Galvanizing
D. Erosion

Ans. C

227. The metal that is used as an alloying material in the manufacture of various special steels is the _______.

A. Zinc
B. Titanium
C. Vanadium
D. Copper

Ans. C

228. The vibration incurred by the main engine, is transferred to the hull of the ship by the ________.

A. Thrust bearing
B. Freezing temperature
C. Reduction gear
D. Boiling temperature

Ans. A

229. The variable gas pressure within the cylinders and the connecting rod mechanism during the working cycle creates
_______.

A. Torsional vibration
B. Critical vibration
C. Longitudinal vibration
D. None of the above

Ans. A

230. An excessive vibrations created by the main propulsion machinery are detrimental to the _________.

A. Electronic equipment
B. Pumps
C. Galley equipment
D. All of the above

Ans. A

231. The maximum stress to which a material can be subjected without causing permanent deformation is called _________.

A. Elastic limit
B. Tension
C. Maximum strain
25
 D. Stress

Ans. A

232. The maximum stress applied to rupture a material is called _________.

A. Ultimate strength
B. Elastic limit
C. Compression strain
D. Maximum strain

Ans. A

233. The amount of internal force on which a material resists a change in shape is known as ________.

A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Strength
D. Torsion

Ans. A

234. One of these statements is CORRECT concerning welding sequence, it is ___.

A. First, weld the joints that will tend to contract the most
B. First, weld attachments which will restrain points of maximum contraction
C. Lower fuel pressure
D. Quantity of fuel injected increased

Ans. A

235. The procedure to ensure a good weld, post heating is required whenever an arc weld repair is made ________.

A. With a reverse polarity rod

B. To a cast component casting
C. Lower fuel pressure
D. Quantity of fuel injected increased

Ans. B

236. If welding or burning with oxygen-acetylene, the acetylene, the acetylene working pressure must NOT exceed ________.

A. 1 kg/cm2
B. 0.25 kg/cm2
C. 0.50 kg/cm2
D. 0.05 kg/cm2

Ans. A

237. In securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should close the ______.

A. Cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hose
B. Cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hose and regulators is zero

Ans. B

238. The steps you should do when using an oxyacetylene outfit for welding, is to ___.

A. Open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 2 kg/cm2

B. Open the acetylene cylinder valve only ¼ to ½ turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem
C. Cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hose
D. None of the above

And. B

239. Regarding oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and two pressure gages. One pressure gage
indicates cylinder pressure and the other is used to indicate which the ________.

A. Tip pressure
B. Valve pressure
C. Hose pressure
D. None of the above

Ans. C

240. If welding is being done on mold steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode and getting only shallow penetration, you
should _______.

A. Use larger electrodes

B. Increase the amperage
C. Tip pressure
D. First, weld attachments which will restrain points of maximum contraction

Ans. B

241. Soft solders have relatively low melting points and consist mainly of ______.
26
 A. Silver base alloys
B. Paraffin base oil
C. Lead base alloys
D. None of the above

Ans. C

242. When solders are used for joining metals surfaces, should have a ________.

A. Fusing point much higher than that of the metals being joined
B. Melting point lower than that of the metals being joined
C. Increase the amperage
D. None of the above

Ans. B

243. If other elements are added to iron during the refining process, the resulting metal is termed _________.

A. Carbon steel
B. Alloy steel
C. Cast iron
D. None of the above

Ans. B

244. The product of remelting a pig iron and scrap iron in a furnace and removing some of the impurities from the molten metal
by using various fluxing agents is called ___________.

A. Carbon steel
B. Alloy steel
C. Cast iron
D. None of the above

Ans. C

245. The metals usually used in incandescent lights aboard ship are the _______.

A. Platinum
B. Vanadium
C. Tungsten
D. Aluminum

Ans. A

246. A material usually used in grinding wheel aboard ship is the _______.

A. Silicon carbide
B. Tungsten
C. Carbon
D. Platinum

Ans. A

247. The composition of Babbitt metal includes _______.

I – Tin II – Lead III – Antimony IV – Copper

A. I, II and III
B. I, II, III and IV
C. II and III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

Ans. D

248. The fusion of two metals joined together to produce a strong bind as one metal is called _______.

A. Welding
B. Galvanizing
C. Soldering
D. None of the above

Ans. A

249. The factor that governs the intensity of heat required for any given welding job is _________.

A. The type of metal being joined only

B. The type of metal being joined and the welding process used
C. Fusing point much higher than that of the metals being joined
D. None of the above

Ans. B

250. If maintenance is undertaken at sea, the engine personnel shall take precaution to ________.

27
 A. Sudden roll of the ship
B. Increase the amperage
C. Fill fuel service tank
D. Compression strain

Ans. A

251. When the manhole of the lubricating sump tank opened, what precautions should be erected and posted?

I – Hand rails II – Use ladders III – Warning signs

A. I and III
B. I only
C. III only
D. I and II

Ans. A

252. If an area is made slippery by snow during bunkering and fixing the hose connection on deck, the material that should be
spread over the snow is ________.

A. Pebble
B. Sand
C. Sawdust
D. Salt

Ans. B

253. With no permission of the master and chief engineer officer, no console alarms should be ________.

A. Isolated
B. Lower fuel pressure
C. Tested
D. None of the above

Ans. A

254. If safety hazards are recognized and reported, appropriate action should be taken to minimize __________.

A. Repair
B. Danger
C. Tested
D. Removed

Ans. B

255. Which of these are fire hazards in the machinery spaces?

I – Warm water in the cascade tank

II – Arc welding activity at the lowest flat
III – Exposed exhaust manifold

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III

Ans. B

256. Which of these are atmospheric hazards in an enclosed space?

I – Presence of hydrocarbon
II – Existence of toxic
III – Adequate ventilation
IV – Deficiency in oxygen

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV

Ans. C

257. That where the ventilation is NOT functioning on around the clock basis is the _________.

A. Enclosed space
B. Opened space
C. Machinery space
D. All of the above

Ans. A

258. An area considered an enclosed space is the ________.

A. Cofferdam space
B. Battery space
C. Machinery space
28
 D. None of the above

Ans. A

259. Before entering an enclosed space is the ________.

I – Entry permit must be approved by the master

II – The space be thoroughly ventilated
III – Sufficient flammable gasses be present
IV – There must be adequate oxygen

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II and IV

Ans. D

260. What equipments are used before entering an enclosed space?

I – Life lines II – Sparkling tools III – Hard hats

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

Ans. B

261. Which of these are hot work hazards?

I – Fire
II – Explosion
III – Glare injury
IV – Heat injury

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

Ans. C

262. The safest place to do hot work in the engine room is in the _____.

A. Electrical shop
B. Welding shop
C. Work shop
D. None of the above

Ans. C

263. If hot work is being done on the lowest flat in the engine room, the fire alarm sensor should be switched off on the
_________.

A. Lowest flat
B. Engine room
C. Highest flat
D. Deck

Ans. A

264. The usual practice is avoided because it is prone to fire hazard is _______.

A. Smoking in the machine shop

B. Stowing oily rags in a paint locker
C. Increase the amperage
D. Presence of hydrocarbon

Ans. B

265. In electrical fires, the best extinguishing agent is ______.

A. CO2
B. C2O
C. Dry chemical
D. None of the above

Ans. A

266. The practice that should be avoided to minimize fire hazard is _______.

A. Stowing oily rags in a paint locker

B. Stowing portable acetylene bottles in the vertical position
C. Smoking in the machine shop
D. All of the above
ANS.D
29
267. The hard file generally used for finishing is the _______.

A. Double cut file

B. Single cut file
C. Bastard cut file
D. Double bastard cut file

Ans. B

268. The statement that best defines DEPTH of cut lathe work is ________.

A. The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work
B. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece
C. The type of metal being joined only
D. The type of metal being joined and the welding process used

Ans. B

269. In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for checking the angle of ____.

A. Screw thread pitch

B. 90o thread cutting tools
C. 60o thread cutting tools
D. None of the above

Ans. C

270. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is the latter ________.

A. Has a headless set screw

B. Has a head set screw
C. Allows for misaligned center holes
D. None of the above

Ans. A

271. A lathe dog, fitted with a headless set screw is known as a ______.

A. Clamp lathe dog

B. Tailstock
C. Safety lathe dog
D. None of the above

Ans. C

272. The proper way to use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil hole in a bushing, you should mount the crotch center in the
______.

A. Tailstock
B. Chuck
C. Lathe dog
D. File

Ans. A

273. In machining a work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first ________.

A. Lubricate the center

B. Screw head pitch
C. Stop the lathe
D. None of the above

Ans. C

274. A follower rest should be used in a lathe to machine _______.

A. Large diameter stock between centers

B. Thread a long slender shafts
C. Lubricate the center
D. None of the above

Ans. B

275. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathes centers is usually held in a __________.

A. Chuck
B. Lathe dog
C. Tailstock
D. File

Ans. A

30
276. The type of fits used in assembling a rotating shafts and bearing is the _____.

A. Clearance fits
B. Interference fits
C. Transitional fits
D. Sleeve fits

Ans. A

277. The type of fits be observed when assembling the end bell and housing of an electric motor is the _________.

A. Transitional fits
B. Clearance fits
C. Interference fits
D. Sleeve fits

Ans. A

278. What type of fits is necessary in the assembly of mating parts with the use of hydraulic press?

A. Transitional fits
B. Clearance fits
C. Interference fits
D. Sleeve fits

Ans. C

279. The precautions you should do in using the hydraulic press to prevent damage of parts is _________.

A. Determine the exerted pressure by watching the pressure gauge

B. Do not heat external part to be mated
C. Lubricate the center
D. Increase the amperage

Ans. A

280. For fitting mating the parts with the use of hydraulic press, what precaution/s should be observed?

I – Part being pressed can reach the breaking point without visible indication
II – Consider interference allowance between mating parts
III – Ensure that the work is adequately supported
IV – Use lubricant between the mating parts to prevent seizing

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV

Ans. D

281. If the load is increased on a bearing, the distance between the surfaces will be _______.

A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. The same
D. No effect

Ans. A

282. The type of bearing installed on the main bearing of a diesel engine is the ___.

A. Sleeve bearing
B. Roller bearing
C. Ball bearing
D. Thrust bearing

Ans. A

283. The kind of bearings installed on the connecting rod journal of a diesel engine is the _________.

A. Sleeve bearing
B. Thrust bearing
C. Roller bearing
D. Ball bearing

Ans. A

284. The bearing installed in the engine room supply blowers is _____.

A. Ball bearing
B. Roller bearing
C. Thrust bearing
D. Sleeve bearing

Ans. A

31
 285. The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be _______.

A. free running on deck

B. faked out next to the case
C. secured to a permanent object via a weak link
D. starved near the raft

Ans. C

286. An oil fog lubrication system is recommended for ________.

A. gear shaft bearings

B. high speed continuous operation of roller bearings
C. low and moderate speed ball bearings
D. heavily loaded and high speed ball bearing

Ans. B

287. If emergency repair must be made to the upper area of the fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to
D be _____________.

A. gas freed
B. inerted
C. filled with water
D. all of the above are necessary

Ans. D

288. Which of the following weld faults can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structures of a weld.
D A. under cut
B. lack of reinforcement
C. overlap
D. lack of penetration

Ans. D

289. What is the equivalent tonnage of a refrigeration system rated at 48,000 BTU/hr?

A. 2.5 ton
B. 3 ton
C. 4 ton
D. 5 ton

Ans. C

290. What defects of weldments is cause by water vapor, oil or grease in the weld puddle.

A. porosity
B. incomplete penetration
C. undercutting
D. inclusion

Ans. A

291. When new section of shell plating is being installed, the proper weld sequence must be followed to____________.

A. Minimize shrinkage stress and harmful distortion

B. Ensure that all weldments are down hand
C. Provide the greatest restrain in the weld
D. Ensure all horizontal weldments are completed

Ans. A

292. Where is the dry pipe located in the boiler?

A. At the superheater outlet

B. Behind the superheater screen tubes
C. In the top of the steam drum
D. Below the generation tube bank

Ans. C

32
 293. At which of the listed tank locations should you obtain oxygen content readings prior to tank washing?

A. At the hatch coaming and tank bottom

B. At the hatch coaming and middle of the tank
C. At the middle and bottom of the tank
D. At the center of the ullage and one meter below deck

Ans. D

294. Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a bolt head or nut?

A. Open end wrench

B. Box end wrench
C. Crescent wrench
D. Spanner wrench

Ans. B

295. A transfer pump which delivers the fuel to the high

pressure injection pump is called ___.

a. transfer pump
b. reciprocating pump

c. booster pump

d. Suction lift pump

Ans. C

296. A delivery valve in a port and helix fuel injection

pump is designed to ____.

a. produce a quick cut off fuel injection

b. normally maintain constant pressure in the discharge line

c. meter quantity of fuel being injected

Ans. A

297. Fuel oil begins injection into the cylinder of a four-stroke

cycle diesel engine during the ___.

a. Intake stroke
b. Exhaust stroke

c. Power stroke

d. Compression stroke

Ans. D

298. Most fuel injector nozzles are opened by_________.

a. Fuel oil pressure

b. A cam operated followers

c. A spring-loaded pressure plate
d. Timing gears keyed to the crankshaft

33
 Ans. A

299. A lube oil pump used in a diesel engine is a ________.

a. Volute pump
b. Centrifugal pump

c. Diaphragm pump

d. Gear pump

Ans. D

300. What is the purpose of crankcase ventilation system

of an engine?

a. It prevent spark generation.

b. Removes combustible gases in the crankcase

c. Determines the level of combustible gases
d. Provides inert gas generation in crankcase

Ans. B

301. One type of scavenging process has the incoming

air directed upwards and pushing the exhaust gases
before it. The exhaust gases then travel down and out
of the exhaust exhaust ports which is actually

located opposite the inlet ports. This type is called ___.

a. uni-flow

b. cross-flow

Ans. B

302. Which method is normally used to lubricate

bearings in a small high-speed diesel engine?

a. Splash lubrication

b. Pressure lubrication
c. Sight feed lubricators
d. Mechanical lubricators

Ans. B

303. Which of the listed diesel engine systems is likely

to create the problem of a cylinder regularly misfiring?

34
 a. Lubrication
b. Cooling

c. Fuel

d. Electric ignition

Ans. C

304. In a diesel engine, the time taken to heat the fuel

particles, turn them into vapor and bring about

combustion is called ______.

a. injection lag

b. ignition delay
c. compression ignition
d. turbulence lag

Ans. B

305. A diesel engine has been operating normally but

experiences a sudden loss in speed accompanied by
black exhaust smoke, with the fuel rack at maximum,
and the speed remaining below normal.

The probable cause is _____.

a. engine overload

b. leaky valve
c. stuck or broken piston rings
d. low air injection pressure

Ans. A

306. In a steam engine, the main throttle valves on the

turbines admit the steam

directly to the ________.

a. Blades
b. Nozzles
c. Steam chest

d. Shaft

Ans. C

307. A heat engine does a 350 J of work and rejects 700 J

of heat. What is the efficiency of

the engine?
35
 a. 32%
b. 35%
c. 36%
d. 46%

Ans. A

Solution;

Efficiency = Output x 100%

Input
= ___350 J__
350J + 700J
= 0.33 x 100%
= 33%

308. All energy received as heat by a heat engine cannot

be converted into mechanical work is a demonstration
of ________.

a. The 2nd law of thermodynamics

b. The third law of thermodynamics

c. Superheated steam
d. Newton's 3rd law of motion

Ans. A

309. Which of the devices listed is used to convert thermal

energy to useful mechanical work?

a. Turbine

b. Condenser
c. Air ejector
d. Each of the above

Ans. A

310. As steam accomplishes work in an engine or turbine,

it expands and ________.

a. Increases in superheat

b. Decreases in superheat
c. Decreases in volume
d. Decreases in moisture content

Ans. B

36
311. As steam accomplishes work in an engine or turbine,
the pressure of the steam is reduced because it ___.

a. Diminishes in volume
b. Becomes saturated again

c. Expands in volume

d. Becomes superheated again

Ans. C

312. The object of all heat engines is to convert heat into ____.

a. Combustion energy
b. Internal energy
c. External energy
d. Mechanical work or energy

Ans. D

313. A cycle of changes which the working substance

have undergone and completed within the power plant
itself as in the case of condensing steam turbine is
called__.

a. Closed cycle

b. Opened cycle

Ans. A

314. A cycle of changes which the working substance have

undergone and is virtually completed outside the

power plant, as with an engine or turbine exhausted to

atmosphere is called _________.

a. Closed cycle

b. Opened cycle

Ans. B

315. In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would

expect to see the greatest temperature
37
 drop across the ______.

a. evaporator

b. capillary tube
c. compressor
d. receiver

Ans. B

316. The refrigerant gas returning to the compressor

should be _______.

a. superheated

b. saturated
c. dense
d. flooded

Ans. A

317. The low pressure side of the refrigeration system

is considered to exist from the ____.

a. expansion valve to the compressor

b. receiver to the expansion coil

c. expansion valve to the evaporator
d. condenser to the expansion valve

Ans. A

318. When the refrigerant leaves the receiver, it flows

next on to the ____.

a. evaporator coils

b. liquid strainer
c. compressor
d. condenser

Ans. B

319. Which of the following is not part of the high side of

the refrigeration system?

a. condenser
b. receiver

c. accumulator

d. liquid line

38
 Ans. C

320. In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle,

the refrigerant temperature decreases the most
in the _______.

a. evaporator

b. condenser

c. compressor

d. expansion valve

Ans. D

321. The component of a refrigerating system in which

the refrigerant vaporizes and absorbs

heat is known as the ________.

a. condenser

b. vapor generator

c. accumulator

d. evaporator

Ans. D

322. Which of the listed refrigeration system components

keeps the refrigerant circulating through the system?

a. Expansion valve
b. Condenser
c. Evaporator

d. Compressor

Ans. D

323. Which of the listed components is considered to

separate the high pressure side of a refrigeration

cycle from a low pressure side of the cycle?

39
 a. The condenser and the expansion valve

b. The king valve and the solenoid valve

c. The compressor and the expansion valve

d. The condenser and the solenoid valve

Ans. C

324. Two important considerations for the proper

lubrication of a diesel engine includes delivery of

the oil in sufficient amount and appropriate ____.

a. Cetane number

b. Pour point

c. Viscosity temperature

d. Quality of the oil

Ans. C

325. Which equipment allows for the change in volume

of the cooling water in the propulsion

diesel engine closed cooling system?

a. Fresh water expansion tank

b. Sea water expansion tank
c. Thermostatic expansion valve

d. Jacket cooler accumulator

Ans. A

326. Scavenging in the four-stroke cycle diesel engine

occurs during the ____.

a. last part of the exhaust stroke, and the first of intake stroke

b . last part of the intake stroke only

c. early part of the injection stroke only
d. early part of the power stroke

Ans. A

327. In a two-stroke cycle diesel engine, the process of

scavenging begins as the _____.

40
 a. piston nears and passes TDC

b. latter part of the down stroke

c. piston passes BDC

d. early part of the downstroke

Ans. B

328. On most modern diesel engines, the main connecting

rod bearings receive their lubricating oil by ________.

a. Banjo feed

b. Splash feed
c. Gravity feed
d. Pressure feed

Ans. D

329. A measure of the mechanical perfection of an engine

expressed as the ratio between the indicated

power and the brake power is termed as ______.

b. specific fuel consumption

c. brake thermal efficiency

d. mechanical efficiency

Ans. D

330. What do you call the part of a diesel engine where

burnt gases pass through before it reach the funnel?

b. Air cooler

c. Turbocharger

d. Exhaust gas manifold

Ans. D

331. Which term is used to describe the readings which

are obtained from between the webs of individual

crank throws as the crankshaft is rotated?

41
 a. Inclination

b. Deflection

c. Clearance

Ans. B

332. Which engine part is included in the classification

of running gear?

b. Bedplate

c. Piston

d. Cylinder liner

Ans. C

333. Heat for igniting the fuel oil in the cylinder of a

diesel engine is generated by _____.

a. electronic ignition system

b. compression of air by the piston

c. friction in the fuel injector

d. fuel oil heating system

Ans. B

334. If fuel injection in a diesel engine begins earlier

than the design start of the injection,

ignition may be delayed because the ______.

a. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough

b. cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough

c. cylinder compression temperature may be too high

d. scavenge and purge process is incomplete

Ans. B

42
335. Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can
be caused by ___.

a. low coolant temperature

b. insufficient fuel
c. high ambient temperature

d. carbon buildup on the injector tips

Ans. A

336. What determines the number of events occurring

in a cycle of operation in an internal combustion engine?

a. Crankshaft revolution a. Crankshaft revolution

b. Type of engine b. Method of air charging
(diesel or gasoline) OR a cylinder and expelling
c. Distance a piston exhaust gases
tyravels during a stroke c. Distance a piston tyravels

During a stroke
d. Number of pistons
Ans. B

337. Air compressor is equipped with an intercoooler and

an aftercooler to ______.

a. inject water vapor into the compressed air

b. prevent overheating of the first stage valve

c. increase compressor efficiency and economy

d. reduce the compressed air charge density

Ans. C

338. The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure

air compressors are by ___.

a. Water

b. Oil

c. Air

d. CO2

Ans. C

339. If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor

becomes fouled either internally or externally,

43
 the ________.

a. total capacity will be reduced

b. volumetric efficiency will be decreased

c. discharge pressure will decrease

d. normal running time will be decreased

Ans. B

340. For any given volume of compressed air produced

by a multistage, interstage cooling will _______.

a. increase the power required for compression

b. decrease the power required for compression

c. allow isothermal compression of the air charge

d. allow the compressed air volume to remain constant

Ans. B

341. The unloading system on an air compressor will ____.

a. increase compressor discharge pressure on

demand
b. Increase compressor operating speed as
necessary
c. reduce the compressor motor load below the designed
operating values when starting

d. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting

Ans. C

342. Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the

compressor to _________.

a. vary their speed according to temperature and load

b. start and come up to speed before air compressor begins

c. change speed according to overload demands
d. reduce compressed air charge density

Ans. B

343. Unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air

compressor at start-up can be accomplished by ___.

44
 a. holding the L.P. discharge valve open
b. the use of a precharged accumulator

c. using a permanently enlarged clearance expansion volume

d. temporarily discharging back to the compressor intake

Ans. D

344. The pressure developed in the high pressure cylinder

of a reciprocating air compressor in order to assure

an output near the end of its compression stroke is ___.

a. the same as the line discharge pressure

b. below the line discharge pressure

c. constant throughout the discharge period

d. above the line discharge pressure

Ans. D

345. Moisture and impurities can be removed from

pneumatic systems by using ___.

a. Air intake heaters

b. Desiccated suction strainers

c. Multi-orificed suction valves

d. Blowdown valves and filters

Ans. D

346. Air line lubricators are used in compressed air

systems to lubricate _________.

a. the suction and discharge valves

b. tools and equipment serve by compressed air

c. air line reducing valve

d. all answers are correct

Ans. B

347. The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement

of its available energy is known as is ___.

45
 a. cetane number

b. heating value

c. carbon number
d. cetane index

Ans. B

348. Misfiring in a diesel engine at light loads can be

caused by ________.

a. high lube oil temperature

b. low lube oil temperature

c. excessive cylinder cooling

d. high air injection pressure

Ans. C

349. The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure required

for diesel engine injection depends primarily on __.

a. degree of cylinder air turbulence

b. firing pressure in the engine

c. quality of fuel to be injected

d. duration of the ignition delay period

Ans. B

350. The longer the ignition delay period resulting from

Improper use of low cetane fuel, the _________.

a. less fuel will enter the cylinder

b. lower will be cylinder compression temperature

c. more complete will be fuel combustion

d. more rapid will be the rise in combustion pressure

Ans. D

351. The efficient burning of fuel in a diesel engine is

dependent upon the ________.

a. Temperature of compression
b. Atomization of the fuel

46
 c. Penetration of the fuel

d. All are correct

Ans. D

352. Which conditions listed would cause simultaneous

high cylinder firing pressure and low exhaust
temperature?

a. Improper fuel rack positioning

b. Lengthy opening of the exhaust valve

c. Excessively early injection timing.

d. Extended light load.

Ans. C

353. If fuel injection occurs too early, a diesel engine

will lose power because the ___.

a. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder

b. ignition will be delayed due to low
compression pressure
c. maximum fuel expansion will occur on the
compression stroke

d. fuel will ignite after top dead center

Ans. B

354. The burning of fuel oil in a diesel engine having a

high sodium content will cause ___.

a. corrosion and grooving of exhaust valves

b. corrosion and gumming of the fuel injection pump

c. salt deposits in the exhaust manifold
d. slag deposits in the fuel injection equipment

Ans. A

355. Air motion is induced in a four-stroke/cycle diesel

engine cylinder to improve air fuel mixing,

and is known as _________.

a. supercharging

b. scavenging

c. turbulence

d. swept volume charging

47
 Ans. C

356. Turbulence in the combustion chamber of a diesel

engine can be induced by ___.

a. delayed ignition

b. increased clearance volume

c. directional intake ports

d. multi-orificed fuel nozzles

Ans. C

357. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a

diesel engine greatly affects the ___.

a. air turbulence

b. fuel penetration

c. fuel spray tip angle

d. fuel injection rate

Ans. B

358. The ability of a fuel particle to travel into the

combustion chamber before burning is called _______.

a. penetration

b. permanence

c. turbulence
d. atomization

Ans. A

359. Which of the following statements concerning fuel

atomization in a diesel engine cylinder is correct?

a. The greater the atomization, the greater

the penetration.
b. The greater the atomization, the lesser
the penetration.
c. The degree of atomization has nothing
to do with the degree of penetration.
d. Atomizaiton and penetration are one and the same

48
 Ans. B

360. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a

diesel engine cylinder has the greatest
effect on the ___.

a. cylinder air turbulence

b. fuel spray

c. fuel injection rate

d. combustion in that cylinder

Ans. D

361. Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by ________.

a. fuel oil pressure

b. a cam operated follower
c. a spring-loaded follower

d. timing gears keyed to the crankshaft

Ans. A

362. A leaking diesel engine fuel injector will cause ________.

a. prolonged maintenance intervals

b. Improved atomization

c. greater fuel economy

d. incomplete combustion

Ans. D

363. Fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel

engine is _________.

a. dependent on air turbulence

b. reduced by finer atomization

c. increased by finer atomization

d. nonexistent in the precombustion chamber system

Ans. B

364. Proper atomization of fuel in diesel engine

combustion chambers will ________.

49
 a. Affect the combustion pressure

b. Improve combustion

c. Reduce compression
d. Decrease power output

Ans. B

365. Maintaining the proper fuel oil temperature will

result in __________.

a. the elimination of valve wear

b. improved atomization

c. a decrease in cylinder blow-by

d. an increase in cylinder blow-by

Ans. B

366. The rate of fuel injection in a diesel engine cylinder

depends primarily on ___.

a. the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle

b. timing of the pump

c. supply pressure to the pump

d. shape of the combustion chamber

Ans. A

367. One function of burner atomization

steam is to _______.

a. Maintain a constantly high fuel pressure

b. Prevent overheating of the atomizer when secured

c. maintain a constant high fuel temperature

d. impart swirling motion to the oil for efficient
combustion

Ans. D

50
368. Boiler fuel oil atomizer parts should be cleaned by
soaking the tip in kerosene or diesel fuel and _______.

a. polished with emery cloth

b. brushed with a steel brush

c. scraped with a nonabrasive tool

d. scraped with modified table knife

Ans. C

369. What will happen if there is an excessive accumulation

of carbon deposits on the boiler burner

throat ring and diffuser?

a. Too much excess combustion air

b. Reduced boiler fuel oil pressure.

c. Decrease in boiler efficiency.

d. Increase heat transfer and overheating.

Ans. C

370. Which of the following conditions is responsible

for the fuel oil to atomize when using

a steam atomizer in an auxiliary boiler?

a. Expansion of steam in the furnace.

b. Expansion of the steam in the whirling chamber.

Ans. A

371. The substance primarily responsible for heat loss in

the combustion process is ___.

a. sulphur

b. carbon

c. hydrogen

d. nitrogen

Ans. D

372. Which of the following represents the proper color

51
 of the flame farthest from an atomizer during

normal operations?

a. Bright yellow or orange

b. Dark brown
c. Light brown haze
d. Dazzling white

Ans. A

373. Black smoke issuing from the boiler stack can be

caused by an improper fuel/air ratio and by ______.

a. excessively high fuel ratio/pressure

b. low fuel temperature

c. high fuel temperature

d. low fuel pressure

Ans. B

374. If a boiler is smoking black, and increasing the

excess air does not reduce

the smoke, the cause can be _______.

a. forced draft fan failure

b. dirty atomizer

c. heavy sooth on tubes

d. high ambient air temperature

Ans. B

375. If the temperature of fuel oil entering an atomizer

is too low, the burner will ___.

a. dribble fuel and smoke white

b. require more fuel for atomization

c. produce heavy black smoke at any load condition

d. require more excess air for combustion

Ans. C

52
376. When too much excess air is supplied to an operating
boiler, the ____.

a. heat loss will be reduce

b. heat loss will be excessive

c. flame will impinge on the burner cone

d. flame will be deep red color

Ans. B

377. Which color burner flame would indicate too much

excess air?

a. Orange yellow or red

b. Yellowish orange
c. Bright red

d. Incandescent while

Ans. D

378. Which of the following boiler stack (smoke color)

condition indicates efficient combustion?

a. Black haze

b. White haze

c. Brown haze
d. Yellow haze

Ans. C

379. The greatest single overall steam plant and boiler

efficiency loss results from ___.

a. heat lost in the main condenser

b. poor heat transfer in feed water heater

c. mechanical losses in the atomization process

d. permanent poor combustion in the boiler

Ans. A

53
380. Mixing of fuel oil from different sources should
be avoided due to possible problem of ____.

a. incompatibility

b. dilution

c. foaming

Ans. A

381. Who should be invited to witness soundings of

the vessel's tanks before and after bunkering?

a. Master of the vessel

b. Ship's agent

c. Supplier of bunker

Ans. C

382. When there is a considerable discrepancies as

to the quantity of fuel supplied, what procedure

should the ship (receiver) will initiate?

a. File a complaint to supplier

b. Inform the port authority

c. File "Letter of Protest"

Ans. C

383. What is the most crucial aspect of fuel

quality monitoring?

a. Taking the representative samples.

b. Testing of fuel oil sample

c. Labelling and sealing of samples.

54
 Ans. A

384. Which of the following containers should never be

used in taking F.O. samples?

a. Metallic

b. Aluminium

c. Plastic

Ans. B

385. Chemical additives are not to be used onboard,

unless advised to do so by ___.

b. surveyor

c. ship's agent

d. head office

Ans. D

386. Fuel service tanks should be kept at a certain

temperature in order to allow reliable pumping
of high viscosity fuels. What is the
ideal temperature?

a. 30 deg. C

b. 45 deg. C

c. 15 deg. C

Ans. B

387. Two possible leakages may occur in the

tank heating systems. How is this detected?

a. Oil spotted in the feed water system

b. Increased of fuel oil tank level

55
 c. Both A and B

Ans. C

388. What is the main difference between the purifier

and the clarifier?

a. Purifier is for diesel oil and clarifier is for fuel oil.

b. The clarifier does not remove water.

c. There is no difference.

Ans. B

389. Which components in F.O. that can not be removed

by purifiers?

a. Sulphur and vanadium

b. Aluminium and silicon

c. Water and sediment

Ans. A

390. The main operating characteristics of a diesel

engines which distinguishes them

from other internal combustion engines is the ____.

a. method of supplying air

b. cooling system

c. method of igniting fuel

d. valve operating mechanism

Ans. C

391. The two strokes of a two-stroke/cycle diesel

engine are ________.

a. power and intake

b. intake and exhaust

56
 c. exhaust and compression

d. compression and power

Ans. D

392. A sequence of events which recur regularly and

in the same order is called ___.

a. combustion process

b. cycle

c. firing order

Ans. B

393. When the position of the piston is farthest away

from the cylinder head, it is at ___.

a. top dead center

b. bottom dead center

c. dead center

Ans. B

394. The purpose of compressing the air within the

cylinder of a diesel engine is to ___.

a. produce the heat of ignition

b. decrease injection lag

c. increase ignition delay

d. aid in exhausting burnt gases

Ans. A

57
395. The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers
to the ratio between the _________.

a. Piston area to connecting rod length

b. Cylinder volumes at top dead center and at bottom
dead center

c. Engine cylinder size to piston size

d. The number of compression strokes for a given
horsepower

Ans. B

396. What will happen if the compression ratio is

increased on a diesel engine?

a. The expansion ratio will decrease

b. Combustion will be slowed down

c. Thermal efficiency will decrease
d. Thermal efficiency will increase

Ans. D

397. How does the maximum horsepower of a diesel

engine is attained?

a. When the engine RPM is pulled down by overload

b. At rated engine RPM

c. At 95% of rated engine RPM

d. At 95% of a properly adjusted governor RPM

with the engine under full load

Ans. B

398. In a two-stroke cycle diesel engine, the cycle

of events is completed is _________.

a. One revolution of the crankshaft

b. Two revolutions of the crankshaft

c. Three revolutions of the crankshaft

Ans. A

399. What is the main difference between two-stroke

and four-stroke/cycle diesel engine?

58
 a. The filling of cylinder with a fresh air charge

b. The firing order

c. A and b only

Ans. C

400. For a given size engine, the two-stroke/cycle

diesel engine will deliver more power

than a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine because ___.

a. it has a longer power stroke

b. more air gets into the cylinder each stroke

c. it develops twice as many powers strokes at the
same speed

d. higher combustion pressure is developed

Ans. C

401. In a single acting, two-stroke/ cycle diesel engine,

the power impulse in an individual cylinder

occurs _______.

a. once every crankshaft revolution

b. once every two crankshaft revolution

c. once every piston stroke

d. twice every piston stroke

Ans. A

402. Which of the two events listed occurs simultaneously

in a 2-stroke/cycle diesel engine?

a. Exhaust and scavenging

b. Scavenging and compression

c. Ignition and expansion

d. Exhaust and compression

Ans. A

59
403. Exhaust gases are generally removed from the
cylinders of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine by ___.

a. natural intake valves

b. masked intake valves

c. air cells

d. scavenging air

Ans. D

404. Exhaust gases in a two-stroke /cycle diesel

engine are discharged through __________.

a. the air valves

b. a roots-type blower

c. exhaust ports or valves

d. direct to the atmosphere

Ans. C

405. Which of the following types of engines have

a combustion chamber located

between a cylinder head and the piston crown?

a. Horizontal opposed

b. Oppose

c. Single acting

d. None of the above

Ans. C

406. When inspecting pistons, liners, and rings of

large two-stroke/cycle diesel engine
through the cylinder ports, a wet piston crown
would indicate a ________.

a. faulty piston lubricator

b. leaky fuel injector

c. broken compression ring

d. faulty oil ring

60
 Ans. B

407. The cylinder liner forming the cylinder wall and

the inside of the water jacket is called a ___

a. dry liner

b. wet liner
c. jacket liner
d. corrugated liner

Ans. B

408. Which of the diesel engine cylinder liners listed

has internal cooling water passages?

a. Internally finned liner

b. Externally finned liner.

c. Wet liner.

d. Integral water-jacket liner.

Ans. D

409. The integral water jacket liners use O-rings near

the bottom of the liner, these o-rings serve to ___.

a. form a water seal between the liner and engine

block
b. allow for slight misalignment of the liner
c. prevent the escape of lubricating oil from
the crankcase
d. ensure proper temperature flow between
the liner and engine block

Ans. C

410. A disadvantage of a four-stroke/ cycle diesel

engine is _______.

a. higher working temperature of piston and cylinder

b. the used of scavenge ports

c. fewer power strokes per revolution of the crankshaft

d. part of the fuel is burned as the piston is moving
away from top dead center

Ans. C

61
411. During which of the listed piston strokes of a
four-stroke/ cycle diesel engine

is the piston moving downward?

a. Intake stroke

b. Compression stroke

c. Exhaust stroke

d. Pumping stroke

Ans. A

412. In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, after the

completion of the power stroke,
the piston will move ________.

a. up and draw in a fresh air charge

b. Down to burn off fuel

c. Down to compress the fuel air charge

d. Up and force out the exhaust gases

Ans. D

413. In a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine,

the power impulse in an

individual cylinder occurs ________.

a. once every crankshaft revolution

b. once every two crankshaft revolution

c. once every piston stroke

Ans. B

414. In the operating cycle of a four-stroke/cycle diesel

engine, blowdown to exhaust
manifold pressure must occur before the piston
begins the exhaust stroke to

minimize __________.

62
 b. Exhaust pulsation

c. Excessive scavenging

d. Pumping loses

Ans. D

415. A piston in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine

makes four strokes during each _____.

a. Crankshaft revolution

b. mechanical cycle operation

c. period of two combustion cycles

Ans. B

416. Fuel oil is injected into the cylinder of a

four-stroke/cycle diesel engine during
the _________.

a. intake stroke

b. exhaust stroke

c. power stroke

d. compression stroke

Ans. D

417. Persistent knocking of one cylinder of a diesel

engine ceases when the fuel supply to that
cylinder is secured. This problem may be a
result of _________.

a. low loading of that cylinder

b. faulty combustion in that cylinder

c. sluggish piston ring action

d. excessive piston cooling

Ans. B

418. A four strokes or 4-cycle is meant that the engine

fires on the downstroke once

63
 in every four strokes or once in _________.

a. every revolutions

b. two revolutions

c. four revolutions

Ans. B
419. In a four strokes diesel engine, when the piston
move downward, creates

vacuum in the cylinder, this event is called ________.

a. Compression stroke

b. Ignition stroke

c. Suction stroke

Ans. C

420. An electric tachometer receives the engine

speed signal from a _________.

a. Small generator mounted on the engine

b. Bimetallic sensing device

c. Stroboscopic sensing device

Ans. A

421. The main propulsion diesel engine continues

running after you try to shut down.

You should attempt to _________.

a. stop the combustion air supply

b. engage the jacking gear

c. secure the lube oil pump
d. shut off the fuel at the day tank

Ans. A

64
422. A main propulsion diesel engine is normally
shut down by _________.

a. Shutting off the air supply

b. Overspeeding the engine

c. Securing the fuel supply

d. Securing the ignition system

Ans. C

423. Engine protection by means of an alarm or

shutdown control can be obtained

with devices that are sensitive to _________.

a. temperature

b. pressure

c. engine speed

d. all answers are correct

Ans. D

424. Which of the following is the required operating

medium for the reversing mechanism
in a main propulsion diesel engine?

a. Hydraulic oil

b. Compressed air

c. Lube oil and hydraulic oil

d. Compressed air and lube oil

Ans. D

425. Load control on a diesel engine is accomplished

by _________.

a. regulating the speed of the turbocharger

b. rotating the fuel injector pump plunger

c. regulating the speed of the fuel oil transfer pump
d. changing engine timing

65
 Ans. B

426. Which of the listed methods is considered the

best for stopping an overspeeding
diesel engine?

a. Disconnect the battery cables from the starting motor

b. Drain the hydraulic fluid from the governor sump.

c. Block the flow of cooling air to the radiator.

d. Block the air intake and secure the fuel supply.

Ans. D

427. Diesel engine control can be obtained by

the bridge _________.

a. At any time
b. Only after the engine room control station is
switched to "bridge control"
c. Whenever the secondary station is switched
to "bridge control"
d. With the approved of the chief engineer only

Ans. B

428. Which of the following valves is used to purge

air from the boiler?

a. Salinometer cock

b. Safety valves

c. Atmospheric valve

Ans. C

429. Accumulation test of safety valves determines _____.

a. how fast the safety valves could open or close

b. the discharge capacity of the safety valves

c. the strength of the safety valves

66
 Ans. B

430. Water hammering is a condition which can result

to severe vibration and possible

rapture of the pipeline when _______.

a. steam and air flow together in a pipeline

b. steam and moisture meet in a pipeline

c. steam and water flow together in a pipeline

Ans. C

431. Boiler mountings are distance pieces, valves,

of fittings attached directly to ____.

a. main steam pipe

b. condenser

c. hotwell

d. boiler

Ans. D

432. Which type of boiler requires constant supervision

with regards to water level and steam pressure?

a. Fire-tube boiler

b. Exhaust gas boiler

c. Water-tube boiler

Ans. C

433. Which of the following is reason why a water-tube

boiler can generate steam pressure

faster than any other types of boiler?

67
 a. Higher heat transfer

b. Higher thermal heat efficiency

c. Less volume of water in each generating tubes
d. Higher heat conductivity

Ans. C

434. What is the primary reason for easing off the main
stop valve during initial firing of the

boiler from cold state?

a. To relieve pressure in the boiler

b. To avoid thermal stress

c. To prevent jamming cause by expansion
d. Avoid uneven metal expansion

Ans. C

435. The pressure at which a safety valve lifts is

determined by the area of the valve and ___.

a. pressure rating

b. size of the safety valve

c. compression of spring

Ans. C

436. When cooling down a boiler, air vent valve

is opened to ________.

a. Relieve residual pressure in the drum

b. Avoid vacuum formation in steam drum

c. Protect the super heater
d. Reduce the pressure in the drummer rapidly

Ans. B

68
47. Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater
side of diesel engine heat exchangers to ___.

a. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals

b. keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean

c. prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth

d. provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces

Ans. A

438. What protect the interior of some diesel engine

salt water heat exchangers from corrosion?

a. Aluminum plates

b. Lead cathodes

c. Copper baffle plates

d. Sacrificial zincs

Ans. D

439. Which of the following statements is true concerning

an oil cooler?

a. The oil temperature is less than the cooling water

temperature

b. The oil pressure is less than the cooling water pressure.

c. The oil pressure is greater than the cooling water pressure.

d. The oil flow control valve is always installed in the oil
input line

Ans. C

440. Wich of the following factors tends to increase

scale formation on the salt water side
of a heat exchanger used in the diesel
engine cooling water system?

a. Baffle plates that have been bent during prior removal

b. Leaks in the cooler tube nest.

c. Operating the engine while maintaining a high

sea water outlet temperature.

d. A punctured sea water strainer supplying cooling

water to the heat exchanger.

69
 Ans. C

441. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to _____.

a. eliminate hot air from the condenser

b. maintain steady pressure in a system

c. heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
d. reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates

Ans. C

442. In any heat exchanger, excessive water velocity

should be avoided to prevent ____.

a. erosive tube failure

b. waterside deposit buildup

c. tube sheet bowing
d. water hammer damage

Ans. A

443. When a flash evaporator is being operated in

extremely cold water, you may need to throttle
the sea water supply to _________.

a. prevent cold shocking the evaporator

b. maintain the feed water temperature above the required
minimum input temperature

c. avoid flooding the evaporator shell

d. increase the evaporator distilling rate

Ans. B

444. When securing a flash-type evaporator for an

extended period of time, you should ___.

a. fill the unit with saltwater

b. fill the unit with decaling compound

c. completely drain the unit
d. tightly seal the unit to exclude air

Ans. C

70
445. An excessive high brine level in a flash evaporator
can be caused by _________.

a. excessive brine pump motor speed

b. an excessive brine blowdown rate

c. failure of the brine pump
d. excessive distillate pump speed

Ans. C

446. Tube leak in the distillate cooler of a two stage

flash evaporator will result in _____.

a. loss of vacuum

b. contamination of distillate

c. lower feed inlet temperature

Ans. B

447. Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the _______.

a. rudder angle indicator

b. follow-up gear
c. telemotor position
d. rapson slide indicator

Ans. A

448. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder

shock is limited by ________.

a. a differential gear
b. return springs
c. a hydraulic accumulator

d. relief valves

Ans. D

71
449. Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation
bridge initiates oil pressure being

applied to the steering gear rams by ________.

a. regulating the oil flow with the six-way valve

b. moving the oil flow with the six-way valve
c. moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the
two-way valve
d. varying the angle of a tilting box or eccentricity of a
floating ring

Ans. D

450. The only point in the steering stand which needs

periodic lubrication is the _______.

b. steering wheel bearing

c. operation selector switch

d. course selector pointer

Ans. B

451. On electro hydraulic steering gear, which of the

listed devices will keep the rudder
from overtraveling the bridge signal?

a. Rudder angle indicator

b. Follow-up gear

c. Electric transmitter

d. Rudder angle limit switch

Ans. B

452. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder

movement is maintained in close
synchronization with the steering wheel position
by means of the _________.

a. trick wheel

b. follow-up control

c. six-way valve

d. rapson slide

72
 Ans. B

453. The function of the hydraulic telemotor transmitter

used in an electro-hydraulic
steering gear system is to _________.

a. Transmit the rudder angle to the bridge indicator

b. Prevent the control linkage from striking the stops
when hard over

c. Automatically purge all entrained air from the system

d. Send hydraulic signals to receiving unit

Ans. D

454. If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic

steering unit fails, the vessel's
steering can be initially and best maintained
by using the ________.

a. trick wheel

b. accumulator

c. standby pump

d. telemotor

Ans. C

455. Dual electro-hydraulic steering units

usually operate _________.

a. with both pumps on line at the same time

b. with one pump on standby

c. with the follow-up gear disconnected

d. only when the rudder is moved amidship

Ans. B

456. In an electro-hydraulic steering gear system,

damage due to rudder shock is prevented by ___.

a. buffer springs

b. relief valves
c. oil flowing through the pump
d. dashpots
73
 Ans. B

457. What is the purpose of relief valves in hydraulic

steering gears?

a. It function when the rudder is amidship.

b. Relieve excess whip pressure from hydraulic oil system.

c. Protect the piping assembly from external rudder shock.
d. Relieve excessive telemotor pressure

Ans. C

458. When the desired rudder angle is attained by a

typical double ram electro-hydraulic

steering gear, the _________.

a. Ram relief valves bypass oil to stop rudder movement

b. Six-way valve shifts to the neutral flow position
c. Steering pump electric motor is de-energized by the
transfer switch

d. Follow-up gear takes the hydraulic pump off stroke

Ans. D

459. When the steering wheel is turned, oil is directed

to the steering gear rams by ___.

a. modulating the oil flow with the six-way valve

b. moving the automatic pressure differential valve

c. moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the
two-way valve
d. varying the eccentricity of a floating ring or angle
of a tilting box

Ans. D

460. When there is no movement of the rams on an

electro-hydraulic steering gear,
the tilting box of the running pump is _________.

a. set for maximum torque

b. on the purge and vent stroke

74
 c. In the neutral position

d. rotating backwards

Ans. C

461. What controls the rudder when the "position

selector switch" of the steering stand

in "HAND" position?

b. Gyro-compass

c. Course selector pointer

d. Steering wheel

Ans. D

462. What controls rudder movement when the

Operation Selector Switch is in the

"NFU" position?

b. Non-follow up controller

c. Gyro-compass

d. Course selector pointer

Ans. B

463. Which of the devices listed, when used on an

electro-hydraulic steering gear,
keeps the movement of the rudder closely in
step with the steering wheel?

a. The follow-up gear

b. The rudder angle indicator

c. The synchronous electric transmitter
d. A rudder angle limit switch

Ans. A

464. Which of the following types of hydraulic pumps

would be used in a steering system?
75
 a. Lobe

b. Screw
c. Radial piston
d. Volute

Ans. C

465. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement

pump can be changed only by ___.

a. changing the angle of the tilting plate

b. changing the speed of the pump

c. moving the slide block and rotor

d. moving the shaft trunnion block

Ans. B

466. Which of the following statements is/are true

regarding hydraulic pumps in general?

a. Variable volumes can be obtained with gear

pumps only by variation of the pump drive speed.
b. A radial piston pump houses sliding pistons in a
stationary cylinder block through which passes

a rotating pintle or ported shaft.

c. The amount of the fluid displaced per revolution
of an axial piston rotary pump is dependent

on the angle formed between the cylinder

block and valve plate.
d. All of the above

Ans. A

467. One function of a replenishing pump installed in

many pressure-closed hydraulic

systems, is to supply fluid flow to _________.

a. The reservoir

b. A servo control circuit

c. Position a manually controlled valve
d. The main system accumulators under all operating
conditions

Ans. B
76
468. A combined hydraulic pump unit is generally
used where _________.

a. The flow rate across both pump elements is to be

the same, but the
head pressure from the second element is to be
doubled that of the first element
b. The combined flow rate from each pump element
will be doubled that of either single pump element
c. Each of the two pump elements will discharge to
segregated segments of a system.
d. All of the above

Ans. C

469. An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston

pump as the pistons of an axial

piston pump are positioned __________.

a. radially from the shaft

b. parallel to each other and to the shaft

c. parallel to each other but a right angle to the shaft

d. at an angle to each other and to the shaft

Ans. B

470. The delivery rate of a variable stroke axial piston

hydraulic pump is controlled by
varying the position of the _________.

a. Slide block

b. Tilting box

c. Pintle

d. Reaction ring

Ans. B

471. In a radial piston pump, reversal and control of

fluid flow are accomplished by moving the ___.

a. central valve

b. radial plunger
77
 c. floating ring

d. cylinder body

Ans. C

472. If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver

rated fluid volume, the cause can
can be _________.

a. Contaminated fluid

b. Pitted thrust rings

c. Worn pintle bearings

d. Obstructed suctions passage

Ans. D

473. What do you call the condition wherein liquid

reaches the compressor of a refrigeration

system through the suction line?

a. Flooding back

b. Superheating
c. Overflowing
d. Recycling

Ans. A

474. Which of the following best describes the thermodynamic

effect on the pressure and volume

relationship with regards to saturation gases?

a. As pressure decreases, volume increases

b. As volume increases, pressure decreases

c. As volume decreases, pressure decreases

d. As pressure increases, volume increases

Ans. A

475. Which of the following statements is correct

concerning heat transfer?

78
 a. Heat is given off from high temperature region
known as heat sink.
b. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the size of the
heat sink involved.
c. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the
temperature difference
between the heat source and the heat sink.
d. Heat transfer by radiation will occur only by mass
Motion of a fluid substance

Ans. C

476. The heat gain per pound of refrigerant in the

evaporator is known as the ________.

a. latent heat of evaporation

b. sensible heat
c. refrigerating effect
d. specific heat of vaporization

Ans. C

477. Subcooling is a method of reducing the temperature

of the liquid refrigerant below its __.

a. freezing point

b. floc point
c. condensing temperature
d. compression temperature

Ans. C

478. In a refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs

the latent heat of vaporization

in the _________.

a. compressor
b. condenser
c. receiver

d. evaporator

Ans. D

479. The only means of removing the latent heat

of condensation from a refrigerant
79
 in the normal refrigeration cycle is by __________.

a. passing it through the expansion valve

b. condensing the refrigerant in the system condenser

c. passing gaseous refrigerant through the heat
interchanger on the suction side of the compressor

d. maintaining a high pressure on the system's receiver

Ans. B

480. One refrigeration ton is equal to __________.

a. 180 BTU/hr

b. 2,000 BTU/hr

c. 12,000 BTU/hr

d. 2,990,000 BTU/hr

Ans. C

481. How much heat can a 5 ton refrigeration unit

remove from a refrigerated space?

a. 60,000 BTU/hr

b. 80,000 BTU/hr
c. 100,000 BTU/hr
d. 120,000 BTU/hr

Ans. A

482. Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor

refers to the condition of its ___.

a. frequently grounding off

b. frequently starting and stopping

c. running too fast
d. running too slow

Ans. B

483. Double trunk pistons are used in some refrigeration

compressors to reduce refrigerant boil off by _______.

80
 a. increasing compressor volumetric efficiency

b. producing higher compression pressures

c. minimizing free contact between refrigerant and

oil in the crankcase
d. eliminating the need for a shaft seal

Ans. C

484. Which of the listed types of refrigeration compressors

can be designed with short large diameter
suction lines?

a. Reciprocating

b. Rotary

c. Screw

d. Centrifugal

Ans. D

485. A device used to hold open the refrigeration

compressor suction valve that normally
draws gas from the suction manifold, but returns
it to the suction line without

compressing it is called a _______.

a. discharge line bypass

b. cylinder unloader
c. suction line bypass
d. relief valve

Ans. B

486. The safety heads of most large reciprocating

compressors are held in place by __.

a. discharge pressure in the safety return line

b. large teflon gaskets

c. heavy coil springs
d. tack welding on the sides

81
 Ans. A

487. The carbon ring of a refrigeration compressor

crankshaft mechanical seal is
held in position against the stationary ring
by using a/an _________.

a. Spring

b. Elliptical retaining assembly

c. Belleville spring
d. Thrust washer

Ans. A

488. For most refrigeration split systems that use one

sight glass, a good location for
the side glass is just ________.

a. before the compressor suction line

b. after the compressor discharge

c. upstream of the condenser

d. upstream of the liquid metering device

Ans. D

489. Copper piping has been used in refrigeration

systems because ________.

a. it is creep resistant at low temperatures

b. it offers less internal friction

c. iron is corroded by R-12
d. leaks are more easily detected in copper

Ans. B

490. When a refrigerated compartment of a multi-box

system serve by one compressor
reaches the correct temperature, the temperature
control in that one compartment

is achieved by/an _________.

a. expansion valve

82
 b. back pressure regulating valve
c. solenoid valve
d. low pressure cutout switch

Ans. C

491. Which statement is true regarding the

purpose/ use of chromium as alloying element?

a. Used in removing the possibility of

embrittlement in steel
b. It does not greatly reduce ductility until
8% chromium is reached
c. It is extensively used in heat exchangers, usually
of the plate type variety.
d. Increases grain size, induces hardness, improves
resistance to corrosion

and erosion.

Ans. D

492. What do you call the capability of a material to

absorb large quantity of energy before fracture?

a. Toughness

b. Ductility
c. Elasticity
d. Free stress

Ans. A

493. Which of the following is NOT an alloy element?

b. carbon manganese steel

c. Chromiun (Cr)

d. Carbon

Ans. D

494. Which of the following is NOT unalloyed steel?

c. Carbon manganese steel

d. Stainless steel

Ans. D
83
495. What metal is the main ingredient in steel?

c. Iron

d. Lead

Ans. C

496. Why is steel the most popular material in the

study of metallurgy?

a. Internal behavior of steel can be predicted.

b. Steel is easy to process.

Ans. A

497. It is the best heat-treating process that causes

the metal to relax and get rid

of internal stresses__________.

a. process annealing

b. tempering

Ans. A

498. What metallurgical process was used to solve

the problem that involved shock

forces and wear?

a. Process annealing

b. Case hardening

Ans. A

499. It is a process of reheating a metal to slightly

soften it. Usually helpful metallurgical process
performed and make the metal more stress-free,
distortion-free and crack-free _______.

84
 a. tempering

b. heating

Ans. A

500. Two elements combined but not chemically joined,

form a __________.

a. mixture

b. compound

Ans. A

501. If two or more metals are dissolved together in

a solid solution, the two materials

is known as a/an _________.

a. alloy

b. compound

Ans. A
502. What do you call a material that is composed of
two or more elements that are

chemically joined?

c. compound

d. Solution

Ans. C

503. It is one of the most widely used materials in

the world. It has high strength and

can be machined and formed easily called ________.

a. steel

b. copper

85
 Ans. A

504. What basic type of cast iron that is very hard and
brittle and has relatively poor
tensil strength because of the graphite flakes in its
structure?

a. Gray cast iron

b. Special cast iron

Ans. A

505. It is sometimes referred to as nodular cast iron

because its graphite is in the shape

of tiny shapes ________.

a. special alloy cast iron

b. ductile cast iron

Ans. B

506. It is almost pure iron which contains little carbon,

has very low strength and

hardness, very ductile and corrosion resistant _________.

a. cast iron

b. wrought iron

Ans. B

507. When an oscillatory external force is applied so

that the system vibrates at the
frequency of this exciting force, the system is
said to be undergoing _________.

A. backward
B. damped

C. concentric

86
 D. forced

Ans. D

508. When displacing forces occur repeatedly on an

elastic body, they cause vibration known as ________.

A. frequency sections
B. forced vibrations

C. resonance

D. forced rotations

Ans. C

509. The change in length of an object in some direction,

not necessarily the same
that is produced by an externally applied
load is called _________.

a. tension
b. contraction

c. strain

d. Stress

Ans. C

510. When a material on one side pushes on the material

on the other side of the surface with a force
parallel to the surface, the stress is said to be ____.

a. Shearing stress

b. Compacting stress
c. Tensile stress
d. Resisting stress

Ans. A

511. A contact pressure between two separate

bodies as between a rivet or bolt is called ___.

c. compressive stress

87
 d. bearing stress

Ans. D

512. Internal force that resist temperature deformation

in a body is called ________.

a. thermal stress

b. tangential stress

Ans. A

513. The effect of stress concentration on ductile

steel subjected to repeated loading
is similar to its effect on a brittle material
subjected to _________.

a. static loading

b. overloading

Ans. A

514. Flux is used when soldering, in order to ________.

a. decrease the melting point of the solder

b. make the solder 'flow'

c. ensure proper thinning

d. clean the joint area

Ans. D

515. Solder is an alloy of ________.

a. tin and lead

b. beryllium and antimony

c. copper and lead
d. Silicon and selenium

Ans. A

516. How does the soldering flux aid the

soldering process?

88
 a. Softening the metals
b. Fusing the metals

c. Removing oxides

d. Hardening the metals

Ans. C

517. It is a type of revet spacing in which the rivets

are arranged in a square of rectangular pattern ____.

a. staggered riveting

b. chain riveting

Ans. B

518. What do you call the rivets spacing in which

the rivets are arranged in zig=zag pattern?

a. Random riveting

b. Staggered riveting

Ans. B

519. Tinning a soldering iron will ________.

a. prevent the tip from overheating

b. protect the tip from scratches

c. add extra weight to the tip

d. prevent tip oxidation when heated

Ans. D

520. You should never watch the arc generated

during electric arc welding

with the naked eye because ________.

a. serious flash burns will result

b. arc blow will burn your face

c. the fumes are highly toxic
d. slag and metal splatter will get in your eyes

89
 Ans. A

521. When welding, you can reduce the chance of

a dangerous electric shock by ___.

a. using insulated electro holder’s

b. wearing dry welding gloves
c. avoid wet or damp areas while using arc
welding equipment

d. all answers are correct

Ans. D

522. Safe welding practice requires ________.

a. checking the area for item’s that may catch fire

b. that a fire watch be posted
c. checking of explosive gases to be carried out

d. all answers are correct

Ans. D

523. Welding cables shall be with undamage

insulation, properly mounted cable
connectors and ___.

a. water resistant type

b. oil resistant type

Ans. B

524. Working inside the confined space such as

ballast tank, the assistant should stay ___.

c. outside and do other jobs

d. outside within view of the welder

Ans. D

525. One of the hazards associated with electric

arc welding is ____.

a. the effect of radiation from the arc

90
 b. flying spark’s
c. electric shock

d. all answers are correct

Ans. D

526. Why is a covering applied to a welding electrode,

rather that using a bar electrode?

a. Protect the welder from electric shock

b. Prevent arc blow
c. Shield the arc during the welding process to
prevent oxidation.
d. Stabilize the electron emission rate and produce
uniform temperatures in the heat affected zone.

Ans. C

527. The best method in assisting the proper alignment

and welding of the flange and pipe is to ___.

a. insert a temporary sleeve into the pipe for alignment

b. tack weld flat iron straps from the flange to the
pipe to complete the fabrication
c. slip a temporary sleeve around the pipe
d. stand the flange on end vertically position the pipe
on the flange, tack weld, then lay flat
to complete the fabrication

Ans. A

528. Setting up a welding job, where the work is the

positive pole and the electrode __.

a. straight polarity welding circuit

b. inert-arc welding circuit

c. shielded-arc welding circuit
d. reverse polarity welding circuit

Ans. A

529. With reference to the oxyacetylene welding

of high carbon steels, hard-facing and the
welding of nonferrous alloys, such as monel,
the best flame to use is termed a/an ___.

a. oxidizing flame

b. neutral flame
c. nitriding fusion
d. carburizing flame

91
 Ans. D

530. While carrying out electric arc welding, there is

always the danger of ________.

a. developing burn’s to the eye retina

b. fire

c. electric shock

d. all answers are correct

Ans. D

531. In an oxygen welding outfit, the torch

tip orifice size__.

a. depends on the hose length

b. determines the amount of acetylene and oxygen
fed to the flames
c. can be varied by rotating the tip
d. depends on the regulator flow rate

Ans. B

532. An acetylene pressure regulator should never

be adjusted to maintain pressure

exceeding 15 PSIG (103.4 kPa) because _________.

a. the relief valve will lift

b. the fusible plug will blowout

c. rapid depletion of acetylene is hazardous

d. this gas becomes extremely unstable
under this condition

Ans. D

533. What is the principle involved in bonding materials

using adhesives?

a. The sealing and bonding of two or more materials

temporarily either metallic or non-metallic

by capillarity.

b. The joining or establishing permanent bond on similar or

dissimilar material by application of pressure.

c. The fastening together of 2 or more solid with or without
the application of heat
e. The bonding together of a wide variety of like and unlike
material’s resin’s and their chemical combination

Ans. D

92
534. What will happen to an elastic materials if loaded
above a point known as elastic limit?

a. The material will return to its original dimensions

when the load is removed.

b. The material will not return to its original dimensions

and will be permanently deformed when the load
is removed.
c. The material will sustain the load conditions without
failure
d. The material will break easily when given a sudden
blow

Ans. B

535. The main difference between ferrous metals from

nonferrous metal is ___.

a. Its substantial amount of alloying elements

b. The amount of carbon content

c. The presence of other impurities

d. Its substantial amount of iron

Ans. D

536. What is the main purpose of alloy?

a. To change the grain structure of the material

b. To create a new chemical element

c. To enhance the mechanical property of the material

d. To eliminate carbon content

Ans. C

537. A metal used in piping on board ships that is

more durable than copper pipes
and is also used in cooling water installations,
sanitary installations, oil coolers

and heat exchangers is called _______.

93
 a. Aluminum brass (Yorcalbro)

b. White metal ( Babbit Metal)

c. Cunifer
d. Bronze

Ans. A

538. What is meant by pig iron"?

a. The basic material used in the manufacture of

various steel and iron
b. Sand channel into which molten metals flow

c. The molten iron collected in the hearth of the furnace.

d. A crude, high-carbon iron produced by

reduction of iron ore in a blast furnace.

Ans. D

539. What is the main reason for using glass fiber as a

filler material in polymers?

a. For reducing electrical conductivity

b. To improve corrosion resistance

c. For strength

d. To improve heat resistance

Ans. C

540. What are the factors/ material properties to

consider in the use of Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC)?

a. Resistant to corrosion and a good electrical

conductor
b. Unaffected by steam, petrol, paraffin, fuel oils and
lubricants

c. Unaffected by water and oil

d. Resistance to water and chemicals, and is a

good electrical insulator.

Ans. D

541. What are some of the uses of nitrile on board ship?

a. Used in place of rubber, for anti-vibration mountings,

jointings, etc.

94
 b. Used as thermal insulation
c. Used for pipes and fittings, electrical conduits, for
cable and wire insulation, etc.

d. Used for water lubricated bearings, gland rings,

jointing tape, etc.

Ans. A

542. How is annealing process carried out?

a. By heating the material at the prescribed temperature

and time in a furnace and then allowing

it to cool as slowly as possible.

b. By cooling the material in a furnace and then heating
it again as slowly as possible.

Ans. A

543. How is hardening process carried out?

b. By melting the material in the furnace and then allowing

it to cool inside the furnace
c. By slowly heating the material at a prescribed
temperature and time inside the furnace and

then apply abrupt cooling.

d. By reheating the material in a furnace at a lower

temperature and finally allowing it to cool as
slowly as possible.

Ans. C

544. Why do we apply tempering process on metals?

b. To soften the material for easy pressing or bending

purposes
c. To remove some of the hardness, making the steel
less brittle and more tough

d. To produce a hard strong steel with a refined grain structure.

Ans. C

545. Why are metallurgical tests carried out upon materials?

b. To test the mechanical properties of the materials

c. So that the life span of the material will be known.

d. To determine their suitability for use in engineering.

95
 Ans. D

546. A type of penetrant testing which is wiped or

sprayed over the metal surface which
is then washed, dried and inspected under
ultraviolet light is called ________.

a. red dye penetrant

b. flourescent penetrant

Ans. B

547. What precautionary measure/s is/are to be

observed when starting on a R-22 compressor?

a. Thoroughly ventile the space before doing the job

b. Depressurize by loosening filter

c. Freon can be toxic

d. Check all valves

Ans. D

548. If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel

workpiece in a lathe machine and see
blue chips coming off from the workpiece,
you should ________ .

a. decrease the flow of lubriating oil to the tool

b. reduce the cutting tool height above the center

c. reduce the tool feed or the depth of cut

d. decrease the cross compound speed

Ans. C

549. The dead center of the work can properly be

used only after the end of the work

piece has been _______.

a. counter bored
b. tapered

c. center drilled

96
 d. convexed

Ans. C

550. Which lathe operation is best done with the

carriage locked in position?

a. Facing work held in chuck

b. Turning work held between centers

c. Threading internal threads
d. Boring an angled hole

Ans. A

551. What will be the most logical thing to do after

identifying the hazards in workplace

such as machine shop?

a. Control the hazards

b. Evaluate and eliminate the hazards

c. Wear personal protective equipment (PPE)
d. Follow rules and regulations

Ans. B

552. Which of the following common welding hazards

can cause direct accident

(from minor burns to heart failure)?

a. Flying slugs

b. Electric shock
c. Radiation
d. Arc rays

Ans. B

553. Why is it necessary to wear a pair of safety

shoes when performing an electric

welding operation?

a. Because it will protect the wearer against

slippages.
b. It can be relied upon for protection
against falling objects.
c. Because the wearer can depend on it against
sharp objects
d. Because it can protect the wearer against
97
 excessive heat on the floor area

Ans. B

554. Which of the following practices is considered

safe in handling and use of compressed
gas cylinders?

c. The storage of cylinders in a well ventillated

compartment.
d. Cracking the valve on a hydrogen cylinder to
clear dust and dirt.

Ans. C

555. Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should always

be stored ________.

a. upright with the cylinder caps screwed on

b. horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on

c. upright with the cylinder caps off
d. horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on

Ans. A

556. Which of the following precautions listed should

be observed when working
with oxy-acetylene welding equipment?

a. Bottles should be labeled air and gas

b. Keep cylinders away from exposure to cold
temperatures
c. Keep gas cylinders supported so that they can not
tip over.
d. Keep oxygen regulators and valves coated with light
film of oil.

Ans. C

557. The principal hazard to personnel when a diesel

nozzle tester is in use is ________.

a. electric shocks
b. toxic fumes

c. explosion

d. blood poisoning

Ans. D

558. The welding process using an electric arc

developed between a flux covered
electrode and the metal being welded is

98
 known as _________.

a. flux cored arc welding

b. resitance spot welding

c. shielded metal arc welding

d. submerged arc welding

Ans. C

559. Which of the actions listed and instituted on your

part will have the greatest
lasting effect on the crew with respect to safety?

a. Posting posters illustrating practices

b. Showing video tapes of actual accident

c. Incorporating safety practices in daily routine

d. Publishing comprehensive safety rules

Ans. C

560. Which of the following conditions can contribute

to accidents?

a. Good housekeeping
b. Inspections

c. Unsafe conditions

d. intelligent work habits

Ans. C

561. Before the seas get rough, it is a good

safety practice to _________.

a. secure loose gears

b. move quickly about the ship

c. Increase lighting
d. Shutdown auxiliary equipment

Ans. A

562. A good housekeeping on a vessel prevents

fires by _________.

a. allowing better access in an emergency

b. eliminating potential fuel sources

c. eliminating trip hazards

99
 d. improving personnel qualifications

Ans. B

563. When required to work where there may be

explosive gases, you should use
tools which are ________.

a. high carbon steel

b. approved by the Coast Guard

c. fixed with ferrous cover

d. nonsparking

Ans. D

564. All portable electric tools should have a ground

connection to prevent _________.

a. electric shock if the tool is shorted

b. burning out the motor from an overload

c. overloading the motor from a short
d. grounding the plastic case through a short

Ans. A

565. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline,

you should _________.

a. determine the size of the gasket

b. hang a bucket under the joint

c. have a first aid kit on hand

d. be sure no pressure exists in the line

Ans. D

566. When using a portable droplight to work on

machinery, you should always insure that ___.

a. the bulb is protected by a shield or guard

b. the extension cord is yellow and clearly marked

c. the bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts
d. all of the above

Ans. A

100
567. Which of the following statements represents
the correct action to take when

three crew members discover a fire?

a. One man report the fire, and the other two men
fight the fire.
b. One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and
one man evacuate and

secure the area.

c. One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and
one man act as a safety observer

d. All three men fight the fire and report it immediately

after it is extinguised

Ans. B

568. As soon as you hear the fire and emergency

signal, you should ensure that ___.

a. the ring buoys are thrown overboard

b. the engines are stopped

c. the fire pumps are started

d. everyone is suited in an approved lefe preserver

Ans. C

569. Following a grounding, you can best determine

that a SLACK fuel tank has been holed by _________.

a. sounding the tank

b. waiting for the vessel to list

c. examining tank boundaries
d. checking fuel oil strainers

Ans. A

570. Your vessel has run aground and upon taking

fuel oil tank soundings, you find
that a fuel tank level has increased. You therefore
should suspect __________.

a. condensation in the fuel tank

b. a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank

c. a load of bad fuel
d. contamination from the saltwater flushing system

Ans. B

101
571. When abandoning ship in an emergency situation,
what should you do?

a. Jump off feet first from the windward side

b. Dive head first from the bridge

c. Dive head first from the main deck
d. Follow directly behind another person on the
leeward side

Ans. A

572. If you see an individual fall overboard,

you should _________.

a. throw them life ring

b. hail “man overboard”

c. pass the word to the bridge

d. all answers are correct

Ans. D

573. When entering the pumproom of a tank vessel

to rescue an unconscious
person, which items of the equipment listed
are you required to be using?

a. Protective clothing and explosion-proof flashlight

b. Flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment

c. Combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask

d. Self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines

Ans. D

574. The recommended equipment for a pumproom

rescue aboard a tank vessel is
a lifeline, harness, and breathing apparatus.
The lifeline should be ________.

a. new nylon line

b. a minimum of two inch line

c. longer than twice the depth of the pumproom

d. led through a two sheave block

Ans. C

102
575. While working in the engine room, you hear
seven short blast followed by
one long blast on the ship's whistle, supplemented
by the same signal on the

general alarm bells. What will be your action?

a. Start the fire pump to charge the fire main

b. Standby the main console and wait orders
from duty engineer.

c. Go to your fire station.

d. Go to your lifeboat station

Ans. D

576. Which of the following screw drivers is designed

to protect a small screws from over

tightening?

a. Magnetic screw driver

b. Torque limiting screwdriver

c. Variable speed screwdriving with a jacobs chuck
d. Constant RPM screwdriver with a jacobs chuck

Ans. B

577. Which of the following screw drivers is designed

for the precision assembly of small parts?

a. Rachet

b. Jeweler's
c. Cabinet-tip
d. Square shanked

Ans. B

578. Srewdrivers for fastest and most convenient

when tightening many is ___.

a. Square shank
b. Offset

c. Ratchet

d. standard

Ans. C

579. Which of the following types of files is generally

103
 used for finishing?

a. A double cut file

b. A single cut file

c. Any bastard cut file
d. Only a double bastard cut file

Ans. B

580. In a draw file method, which of the following

types of files will produce a fine finish?

a. A bastard cut file

b. A double cut file

c. A single cut file

d. A second cut file

Ans. C

581. Which of the following files can be used for

sharpening a tool?

a. A double cut file

b. A single cut file

c. Any bastard cut file
d. Only a double bastard cut file

Ans. B

582. Double cut file are most effective when

used for ________.

a. Sharpening tools
b. Draw filling

c. Finish work

d. Rough work

Ans. D

583. Which of the following files is best for producing

a fine finish on metal?

a. Mill

b. Float
c. Warding
104
 d. Second cut

Ans. A

584. Which of the following types of files will produce

a fine finish when draw filing?

a. Mill cut

b. Bastard
c. Double cut
d. Second cut

Ans. A

585. The proper file for a finishing cut on soft metal,

such as brass, is the ___.

a. warding file
b. smooth cut file

c. mill file

d. second cut file

Ans. C

586. The teeth of a file may "clog up" and scratch

your work. This condition is known as ___.

a. binding

b. pinning
c. drawing
d. jamming

Ans. B

587. Heavy pressure on the ends on a file will

cause the work surface to become ___.

a. tapered
b. smooth

c. rough

d. rounded

Ans. D

105
588. Which of the following is commonly referred to
as a "rattail" file?

a. Small half round

b. Small round
c. Small triangular
d. Small flat

Ans. B

589. The term rough, course, bastard, second cut,

smooth and dead smooth refers to ___.

a. parts of the file

b. shape of the file

c. distance between the parallel cuts on the file

d. size of the file

Ans. C

590. The best type of chisel to use for cutting a

keyway is the ________.

a. round nose chisel

b. flat

c. diamond point chisel

d. cape chisel

Ans. D

591. The proper use of flat chisel is for cutting ______.

a. inside corners
b. slots or keyways

c. half-round grooves

d. flat stock

Ans. D

106
592. Which of the following chisels should be used
for cutting oil grooves?

a. Diamond point
b. Flat cold

c. Round nose

d. Square nose

Ans. C

593. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting _______.

a. oil grooves in bearings

b. V-grooves and inside sharp angle

c. hole through metal plate
d. keyways having square corners

Ans. B

594. A drill that wobbles while the drill in

operation may _______.

a. be bent
b. have severely worn shank

c. have been placed in the chuck off center

d. all answers are correct

Ans. D

595. If the speed of the drill is too great, the drill will _______.

a. cut slower
b. cut faster

c. rapidly dull

d. not cut

Ans. C

596. Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good

shop practice to follow is to ___.
107
 a. use a tapered reamer
b. drill to the large diameter of the taper

c. drill to the small diameter of the taper

d. bore a straight hole

Ans. C

597. Rapid wear on the extreme outer corners to

the cutting edges of a drill bit
is the result of a drill having _______.

a. too much cutting speed

b. not enough cutting speed

c. too much clearance angle

d. not enough margin width

Ans. C

598. If a drill press is used to completely bore

through a metal plate, feed pressure
on the drill bit should be eased as the bits
breaks through the bottom of

the hole to prevent _______.

a. drill bit breakage

b. undersized bore
c. straining the spindle
d. dulling the drill

Ans. A

599. When drilling blind holes with a standard drill

press, the proper method of
stopping the progress of the drill boring
through the work is by ___.

a. Moving the working table

b. Using a depth stop

c. Adjusting the spindle return spring
d. Gaging chuck motion

Ans. B

108
600. As the drill is being fed into a metal work piece,
a squeaking sound from

the tip of the bit indicates _______.

a. the bit is too large for the hole

b. the bit tip has not been properly ground

c. insufficient force has been applied on the drill bit
d. a continuous chip is being taken by the drill bit

Ans. B

601. All straight shanked twist drills must be mounted

or held in a ____.

a. drill socket
b. tapered sleeve

c. drill chuck

d. morse sleeve

Ans. C

602. If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at

different angles, the _____.

a. drill will not cut

b. hole will be oversized

c. hole will be undersized
d. drill will seize immediately

Ans. B

603. If the drill point lips are of unequal length,

the drill will wobble and ____.

a. cut a continuous chip

b. jam in the hole and break

c. cut an oversized hole

d. overheat rapidly from rubbing

Ans. C

604. If a point angle of a drill is less than 59 deg, the _____.

109
 a. a hole will be drilled too large

b. hole will take longer to drill

c. drill will not center properly
d. drill will cut undersized

Ans. B

605. Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to

bore a hole in a metal, the
harder the metal, the greater should
be the drill's ______ .

a. diameter
b. lip clearance

c. included point angle

d. cutting speed

Ans. C

606. When drilling holes in metal, which of the

materials listed does not have to

be lubricated?

a. Tool steel
c. Mild steel
b. Cast iron

d. Cast steel

Ans. B

607. A drilled hole is accurately finished to

size with a ________.

a. center drill
b. finish drill
c. broach

d. reamer

Ans. D

608. If you have to completely grind a new point

on a high speed drill, which of the
following could happen if its cooled in cold

110
 water immediately after grinding?

a. The edges will be dulled

b. The 59 deg. angle will be lost due to metal
contraction

c. Cracks may appear on the metal.

d. The cutting surface will become annealed
by the cold water.

Ans. C

609. When using a micrometer to measure a drill

for size, you should measure

across the drill ________.

a. margins

b. flutes
c. shank
d. web

Ans. A

610. To determine the diameter of a small hole,

which of the following tools must be
used with a small hole gage to get an
accurate reading?

a. A center gage
b. Wire gage

c. Micrometer

d. None is correct

Ans. C

611. The correct torque value for a micrometer

torque wrench is reached when ___.

a. the scale is read on the handle

b. the dial is read on the handle

c. an audible click is heared and the handle releases

d. a dial lights on the handle

Ans. C

612. A bridge gage is normally used to determine

turbine ________.

111
 c. blade axial clearance

d. bearing wear

Ans. D

613. To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the

gasket and ___.

a. and quench it in oil

b. cherry red and quench in water

c. and let it cool slowly in the air

d. and carbonized it

Ans. C

614. Reheating a hardened component to a

temperature lower than the hardened
temperature and cooling it is known as _______.

a. low temperature hardening

b. case hardening

c. annealing

d. tempering

Ans. D

615. Which of the following propeller materials will

not require stress relief treatment
after minor repairs, straightening of the tips or
the thinning of the blade edges?

a. Manganese bronze
b. Nickel manganese bronze

c. Manganese nickel aluminum bronze

d. Nickel aluminum bronze

Ans. D

616. The size of ball and roller bearings can

be identified by _______.

a. rolling member size

112
 b. inner race cone width

c. manufacturer's numerical code

d. outer ring width

Ans. C

617. Which of the anti-friction bearings listed will

carry the load on two small points
diametrically opposite to each other?

a. Needle
b. Tapered roller

c. Roller

d. Ball

Ans. D

618. The most practical method of fixing a wing

motor bearing of the sealed type
that is running hot is to _______.

a. add grease through the zerk fitting

b. allow the winch to run at slower speeds only

c. replace the bearing with a new one

d. apply a light oil to the bearing housing

Ans. C

619. If the ball bearing installed on a pump is

completely packed full of grease,

this can result in _______.

a. bearing failure

b. smoother pump operation

c. reduced corrosion in the bearing
d. increased pump capacity

Ans. A

620. When replacing ball bearings on an electric

motor shaft, you should ___.

a. tap the outer race with a mallet

b. apply even pressure to the outer race
113
 c. apply even force to the inner race

d. apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races

Ans. C

621. With oil bath lubrication of ball bearings in a

cargo pump, the oil level _________.

a. should never be higher than the center of the lowest

ball in the bearing housing

b. cover the bottom of the pump shaft

c. cover the top ball in the bearing housing
d. be kept at the top of the oil reservoir

Ans. A

622. Which of the following statements correctly

describes the construction of the

of the closed coupled sanitary pump?

a. Pump suction and discharge connections have

screwed pipe couplings.

b. The pump and motor have a common shaft.

c. The pump is connected to the motor by a
solid disk-type coupling.
d. The pump housing is attached to the motor frame
which holds the coupling together

Ans. B

623. Which of the following term is used to identify

the pressure of the liquid entering a pump?

a. Suction head

b. Pump head

c. Discharge head
d. Total head

Ans. A

624. The existing vapor pressure is subtracted

from the indicated pressure at the
pump suction, the remainder is the _______.

a. pump head

b. total suction head

114
 c. discharge head

d. apparent net positive suction head

Ans. D

625. Which of the units of measurement listed below

are used to express positive and
negative suction heads when calculating pump
head or hydraulic horsepower?

a. Inches of mercury for positive head and feet

of water for negative head
b. Feet of water for positive had and inches of
mercury for negative head

c. Inches of mercury for both positive and negative heads

d. Feet of water for both positive and negative heads

Ans. D

626. The pressure of liquid leaving the pump can be

referred to as the _________.

a. total head

b. discharge head

c. net positive suction head

d. suction head

Ans. B

627. The total static head of a system resisting the

operation of a centrifugal pump is

the difference in elevation between the _________.

a. Discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level

b. Discharge liquid level and the pump centerline

c. Suction liquid level and the pump centerline

d. Suction submergence level and the pump discharge

Ans. A

628. Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids,

must have a minimum flow
through them under all operating conditions.
This flow serves to ______.

115
 a. prevent overheating and damage to pump rotating
parts due to rubbing

b. maintain the net positive suction head of the pump

c. maintain hydraulic differential in the pump
impeller passages
d. purge the pump of noncondensable vapors and gases

Ans. A

629. Which of the following statements is true about

centrifugal pumps?

a. They are particularly suited for pumping high

viscosity fluids

b. They are started with discharge valve opened.

c. The flow of liquid is developed by the pump through
imparting energy developed through

rotation of the impeller.

d. They are always mounted in a horizontal position.

Ans. C

630. A centrifugal pump operating against a closed

discharge valve has a/an _____.

a. capacity of 100%

b. efficiency of 0%

c. internal slippage of 0%
d. shut off horsepower rating of 100%

Ans. B

631. A pump is defined as " a device that ________.

a. produces pressure
b. imparts energy to a fluid to move it from level
"A to level B"

c. creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations

d. is to develop a pressure differential

Ans. B

632. A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting

discharge head by energy conversion. It is typical

for the energy conversion to follow the order of ________.

116
 a. mechanical energy to kinetic energy to
potential energy
b. mechanical energy to potential energy
to kinetic energy
c. potential energy to mechanical energy
to kinetic energy
d. kinetic energy to mechanical energy to potential energy

Ans. A

633. The discharge rate or capacity of a centrifugal

pump will vary directly as the ________.

a. change in the impeller diameter

b. square of the impeller radius

c. cube of the impeller diameter

d. impeller efficiency for large changes in its size

Ans. A

634. Assume identical impeller diameter, width

and speed. Which of the following

impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity?

a. A single stage straight vane impeller

b. A single stage curved vane impeller

c. A dual integral impeller unit operating at
10% lower speed
d. A dual impeller with multiple stepped curved vanes

Ans. B

635. One of the consequences in continuing to

operate a centrifugal bilge pump with

the discharge valve closed, is that the _________.

a. motor overload will open

b. relief valve will open

c. pump will overheat

d. motor will overheat

Ans. C

636. Which of the following statements about pump

operation is NOT a correct statement?

a. In order for a fluid to be pumped, a fluid must be

117
 made to flow

b. A substance must be cold in order for it to be pumped.

c. The kinetic energy imparted by the pump can
be used to forced a liquid through a hydraulic system.

d. A pump must receive its energy from an external source.

Ans. B

637. If a horizontal centrifugal pump becomes air

bound, the pump should be vented
at the ________.

a. suction line

b. discharge flange

c. top of the volute

d. bottom of the casing

Ans. C

638. A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming ________.

a. Primarily to lubricate the shaft seals

b. due to inability of this type of pump to lift water to
cover the suction (eye) of the impeller
c. to initially unload the pump by having its head
pressure equal to the discharge pressure
d. in order to overcome the potential energy of water
in the discharge line

Ans. B

639. Reduced capacity accompanied by vibration

and noise at the suction of a

centrifugal pump is a result ________.

a. cavitation

b. water hammer

c. fluid friction
d. steam knock

Ans. A

640. If you are operating a centrifugal water

118
 service pump with worn wearing rings,

the ________.

a. pump would be very noisy

b. pump would vibrate excessively

c. pump would develop insufficient flow

d. stuffing box would leak excessively

Ans. C

641. If a centrifugal pump vibrates and is noisy

when operating, the cause could
be ________.

a. worn gland sealing shaft

b. worn wearing rings

c. a bent shaft

d. reversed pump coupling

Ans. C

642. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating

pump making 160 strokes per
minute with 3" diameter cylinder and 4" stroke
with 95% volumetric efficiency,

what is the capacity of this pump?

b. 28 gpm

c. 19 gpm

d. 9 gpm

Ans. D

643. If you have a simplex double acting reciprocating

pump making 140 strokes/
with 5" diameter cylinder, a 11" stroke and
operating with 94% volumetric

efficiency, what is the capacity of this p[ump?

119
 a. 123 gpm

b. 39 gpm

c. 20 gpm

Ans. A

644. In a reciprocating pump, the position of the

pilot valve is controlled by the position of the _______.

a. main piston valve

b. piston in the steam cylinder

c. cushioning valve
d. governor valve spindle

Ans. B

645. When securing the a steam reciprocating pump,

which of the valves listed should remain open?

a. Steam supply valve

b. Steam exhaust valve

c. Steam cylinder valve

d. Water cylinder drain valve

Ans. C

646. When the danger of freezing exist, all steam

driven reciprocating pumps and

deck equipment should be _________.

a. cycled at least once a day

b. cycled once every 4 days

c. cycled once every week
d. watch carefully while idled

120
 Ans. A

647. Which of the following conditions would prevent

a steam reciprocating pump

from delivering its rated capacity?

a. Excessive suction lift

b. Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber

c. A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the
suction side of the pump
d. All answers are correct

Ans. A

648. A liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft

ends of a helical gear pump by ___.

a. overlapping spaces between gear teeth

b. a roller bearing

c. a stuffing box
d. the use of shaft end caps

Ans. C

649. A positive displacement, helical gear pumps

are well suited for pumping oil because ________.

a. Stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems

usually associated with other gear pumps
b. Helical gear pumps are essentially self- priming
and produce high suction lift
c. Closely maintained designed clearances in this
pump is not necessary
d. Helical gear pumps are designed with extreme
tooth angles

Ans. B

650. If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred

remains constant as the discharge
pressure increases, the rotary pump ________.

a. capacity will increase

b. capacity will decrease

c. suction pressure will increase

d. suction pressure will decrease

121
 Ans. B

651. The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a

constant velocity fluid, will decrease
when the discharge pressure is increased, due to ________.

a. decreased suction pressure

b. increased suction pressure

c. reduced slippage

d. increased slippage

Ans. D

652. The capacity of a rotary pump, when operated

at a constant speed will
decrease with an increase in the pump _______.

a. discharge volume

b. suction pressure

c. steeped speed

d. rotor clearance

Ans. D

653. A spur gear pump should be operated with

the discharge valves ________.

a. slightly opened

b. throttled

c. fully opened
d. halfway opened

Ans. C

654. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone

gear pump is steadier than the
discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?

a. Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller

b. The gear teeth are smaller smaller than those of
the simple spur gear pump.

122
 c. One discharge phase begins before the previous
discharge phase has been completed.
d. The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears
instead of two.

Ans. C

655. When installing a new rotary pump, the suction

piping should _______.

a. be on the same diameter as the pump

suction connection
b. be at least one size larger than the pump
suction connection
c. be the next size smaller than the pump
suction connection
d. be sloped to the pump

Ans. B

656. Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above

its rated speed will result in which
of the following conditions to occur?

a. Loss of suction

b. Increased clearances

c. Decreased clearances

d. Decreased slippage

Ans. B

657. A device which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid

to entrain another fluid and
thereby move it from one place to another
are called ______.

a. Mixed flow pumps

b. Jet pumps

c. Volute pumps
d. Centrifugal pumps

Ans. B

658. Which of the following methods applies to

how a vacuum is created by a jet

pump or an eductor?

a. Centrifugal force converted into potential energy.

b. A reciprocating plunger directly applying
force to a fluid.

123
 c. A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing
through a nozzle.
d. A propeller drawing a fluid through a venturi nozzle

Ans. C

659. The three basic parts of any eductor are the

nozzle, the suction chamber, and ___.

a. injector

b. compressor

c. diffuser

d. siphon

Ans. C

660. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when

compared to other pumps, is ________.

a. discharge end being smaller than the suction end

b. small size of impeller

c. lack of moving parts

d. ease at which the wearing rings may be changed

Ans. C

661. Some auxiliaries are not designed to handle

auxiliary steam at boiler pressure.
Which of the devices listed is usually fitted in
the branch line to deliver steam at the

correct pressure?

a. An orifice

b. A steam pressure reducing valve

c. A nozzle valve
d. A constant quantity regulating valve

Ans. B

662. Which of the following systems can be supplied

by auxiliary exhaust system?

a. Main feed pump

b. High pressure evaporator

c. Boiler air heaters

124
 d. Boiler steam atomizers

Ans. C

663. The auxiliary exhaust system is typically

supplied by steam directly from ______.

a. the main engine

b. turbine and reciprocating pumps

c. the turbogenerators
d. all of the above

Ans. B

664. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does

not properly seat, the _______.

a. bilge well connected to that valve , plus the second

bilge well being

pumped will be completely emptied

b. bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent other
bilges from being pumped out
c. bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon
its contents to forward bilge wells
d. all of the above

Ans. B

665. The bilge system has been performing well;

however, the aft starboard engine
room bilge-well suddenly fails to be pumped out.
Which of the following
should be done first to determine the cause?

a. Open the bilge pump for inspection

b. Remove each of the manifold valves.

c. Remove only the manifold valve to the affected
bilge-well.
d. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to
determine if the entire system is affected.

125
 Ans. D

666. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a

sanitary system to ________.

a. reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump

b. prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction
c. provide a higher pressure in the system, then
the pump can deliver

d. increase water flow through the system

Ans. A

667. The flame screens installed on sewage

system tank vents prevent explosions
by ________.

a. allowing the escape of flammable vapors

b. dissipating the heat of a fire

c. absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity

d. preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank

Ans. B
668. A constant pressure range is maintained in the
potable water system of many
vessels by using ________.

a. Constant speed supply pumps

b. Variable speed supply pump

c. An air cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank

d. A pressure regulator in the pressure tank
discharge piping

Ans. C

669. Short cycling of the potable water system's

pump is prevented by using ____.

a. a constant speed supply pumps

b. a variable speed supply pumps

c. a variable delivery supply pumps
d. a hydropneumatic pressure tank

Ans. D

670. The main feed check valve functions to _______.

126
 a. check pressure pulsations in the feed line
b. prevent backflow of water from the boiler in the
event of feed pump failure

c. provide feed pump positive discharge head

d. Reduced feed pump discharge pressure loading

Ans. B

671. In the boiler steam and water system, pressure

is highest in the _______.

a. steam stop

b. dry pipe

c. feed line

d. mud drum

Ans. C

672. The pressure in the feed water system must

exceed boiler steam drum pressure
in order to ________.

a. prevent water hammer in the lines

b. prevent air leakage into the feed water system

c. force the feed water into the boiler

d. remove the steam from the steam drum

Ans. C

673. Which of the following liquids can ordinarily

be discharged overboard without
being processed through an oily water separator?

a. Cargo tank ballast

b. Segregated ballast

c. Engine room bilges

d. Cargo pumproom bilges

Ans. B

127
674. If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be
stopped by tightening the coupling
bolts, you should ________.

a. notify the Coast Guard of a potential oil spill

b. reduce pumping pressure to reduce
leakage rate
c. spread absorbent materials on deck
beneath the leak
d. notify the terminal operator, then shutdown
and repair the leak

Ans. D

675. If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be

stopped be tightening a coupling
bolts, you should _________.

a. notify the Coast Guard of a potential pollution incident

b. reduce the pumping pressure to reduce
the leakage rate
c. spread absorbent material on deck
beneath the leak

d. stop transfer operations and renew the gasket

Ans. D

676. While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose

begins leaking, causing a sheen on the

water. You should ________.

a. apply dispersant to the sheen

b. repair the leak with a duck tape

c. reduce the rate of transfer
d. shut down operations

Ans. D

677. The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution

occurring during tanker operations is ________.

a. due to collisions
b. routine discharge of oil during ballasting and
tank crude oil washing

128
 c. loading and discharging

d. due solely to grounding

Ans. C

678. Latent heat can be defined as the heart which must be added to a substance in order to change it from a _________.

a. Solid to liquid
b. Liquid to vapor
c. Solid to vapor
d. All of the above

Ans. D

679. Where is Day/Dry Pipe located in a boiler?

I. at the superheater outlet

II. behind the superheater screen tubes
III. in the top of the steam drum
IV. below the generation tube bank

A. I,II,III & IV
B. I only
C. III only
D. II only

Ans. C

680. An area considered on enclosed space is the _________.

I. Accommodation space
II. Bilge keel
III. Duct keel
IV. Electrical space

Ans. C
681. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _____.
B
A. inner tube
B. braided inner layers
C. outer cover
D. outer armor

Ans. B

682. The size of flexible hose used in hydraulic system is indicated by ____.
B
A. the inside diameter of the tube
B. the numerical designation found on the skin of the hose
C. a color code on the armor
D. the thickness of the tube wall

Ans. B

683. Where is the location of stay tube in scotch boiler?

C
A. Uptake end
B. Combustion chamber end
C. Combustion chamber and uptake end
D. None of the given answer

Ans. C

684. Which of the listed design features is most common to a two-stroke/cycle low-speed main propulsion diesel engines?

a. Crosshead construction
b. Cross-scavenging air flow
c. Trunk type pistons
d. Single reduction gearing

Ans. A

685. One method of constructing large marine diesel engines and reducing the total engine frame weight is through
________.

129
 a. casting interlocking components
b. welding plates to form sections for assembly
c. forging integral components
d. case hardening integral component

Ans. B

686. A hand held digital tachometer give a bad reading if _________.

a. aimed directly at the shaft

b. partially aimed at a 60 Hz fluorescent light
c. positioned 5-10 inches from the shaft
d. the tae is too shinny

Ans. B

687. If a crankcase explosion has occurred in a diesel engine, and the crankcase remains intact, which of the following
precautions should be observed?

a. The cylinder indicator cocks should be opened

b. The sump lube oil scavenge pump should be secured immediately
c. The explosion relief valves should be manually opened
d. The crankcase should remain unopened until the engine has cooled

Ans. D

688. Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as _________.

a. clean ballast
b. dirty ballast
c. segregated ballast
d. crude oil

Ans. B

689. The steam soot blower piping should be thoroughly drained before operating to prevent _____.

a. Accidental flameout a. Accidental flame out

b. Feed water losses OR b. Feedwater losses
c. Nozzle plugging c. Erosion of the corbel
d. Erosion of refractory d. Nozzle/elements eroding

OR

a. Feedwater losses
b. Plugging of nozzles
c. Warping of soot blower elements
d. Impinging of generating tube surfaces

Ans. D

690. The drill size is marked on the ________.

A. point
B. shank
C. margin
D. flute

Ans. B

691. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a ________.

A. cooling agent
B. smothering agent
C. barrier against radiant heat
D. all of the above

Ans. D

692. When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is _________.

A. reducing the possibility of electrical shock to personnel

B. preventing a total loss of electrical power
C. preventing saltwater damage to electrical equipment
D. eliminating the toxic fumes from burning insulation

130
 Ans. A

693. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precisions manufactured roller bearings?

A. They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time
B. They have a relatively high power loss due to friction
C. They are well adapted to variable speed operation
D. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention

Ans. C

694. The most effective method assuring a long service life of boiler refractory is to_____?

A. Maintain a high furnace temperature at all time

B. Patch refractory with plastic chrome one
C. Properly secure refractory with and one bolts
D. Avoid rapid temperature changes & follow recommended operating procedure

Ans. D

695. A large lore – speed diesel engine has developed excessive piston clearance and can be restored by_______?

A. decreasing the thickness of the cylinder head gasket

B. inserting shims between the crankpin bearing box & the connecting rod foot
C. replacing the complete bearing set
D. rotating the crankpin bearing until the proper end clearance is obtained

Ans. B

696. Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams , which serve to________.

I. Keep piston crown temperatures elevated for smoother combustion

II. Reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression ring
III. Help retain the heat of compression to prevent ignition relay
IV. Help retain the heat of compression to prevent combustion knock

Ans. B

697. A viscous damper, as used on a marine diesel , is a sealed precision built device which dampers the torsional
vibrations in the _______.

A. Camshaft
B. Flywheel
C. Crankshaft
D. Thrust shaft

Ans. C

698. Steam line water hammer can be prevent by ________.

A. Keeping lines drained & insulated

B. Ensuring that all drains lines are properly insulated
C. Replacing all 90o elbows with capped tees

Ans. A

699. Which material has high tensile strength and corrosion resistance and has been used to replace steel metal in both
flat plate form and in matched-metal die processes. Where parts are molded in the preformed shape?

A. Fiber glass
B. Rubber
C. Silicon
D. Titanium

Ans. D

700. What device listed prevent to water from entering a ship’s hull via the propulsion shaft.
A
131
 A. Stern tube packing or mechanical shaft seal
B. Deflector ring and drain
C. Spring bearings
D. Oiler ring

Ans. A
B

701. The primary function of AUTOMATIC SPRINKLER system is to _______.

A. Instantaneously extinguish the fire which triggered it

B. Limit spread of the fire and control the amount of heat produced
C. Protect people in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed
D. Alert the crew to the fire

Ans. B

702. Which welding fault may occur , if you use correct current & too large/longer electrode/rod for the groove to be
welded?

A. Pores or porosity
B. Fusion faults
C. Root faults
D. Bead edge fault

Ans. C

703. Which defects of weld may occur due to moisture content in the electrode coating.

A. Fusion
B. Porosity / Pores
C. Root faults
D. Bead edge fault

Ans. B

704. What would occur if the base material to be welded is WET or DAMP?

A. Pores / Porosity
B. Root faults
C. No fusion
D. Bead edge

Ans. A

705. Which crack may appear during or just after cooling off period.

A. Heat crack
B. Shrinkage crack
C. Slay embedded in weld
D. Hydrogen crack

Ans. A

706. What fault may occur when carrying out ARC WELDING if both filler and the material have INSUFICIENT MELTING.

A. Pores / Porosity
B. Fusion faults
C. Under cut
D. Bead edge faults

Ans. B

707. Which of the ft, rows of tube installed to form walls, roof and floors of boiler.

A. Water walls tube

B. Screen tubes
C. Down corner
D. Generating tubes

Ans. A

132
708. If the coolant temperature is excessively low as it passes through the internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors
may be damaged by _________.

A. water condensation in the fuel

B. corrosion of the nozzle tip
C. carbon deposits on the leak off inlet
D. over lubrication of the needle valve

Ans. B

709. In milling, if the cutting begins to produce long, continuous chips, it is best that the feed is ______.

A. increase
B. decrease
C. stopped
D. removed

Ans. B

710. Describes STAY TUBE in Scotch boiler?

a. Stay tube is unscrewed in the tube sheet

b. Stay tube is THICKER than the common tube
c. Stay tube is longer than the normal tube
d. Stay tube is larger than the common tube

ANS. B

711. An Axial piston pump differs from radial piston pump as the piston of Axial piston pump are positioned__________.

a. Radially from the shaft

b. Parallel to each other and to the shaft
c. Parallel to each other but at right angle to the shaft
d. At right angle to each other and to the shaft

ANS. B

712. The best type of CHISEL use for cutting a KEYWAY

a. Round nose chisel

b. Flat cold chisel
c. Diamond point chisel
d. Cape chisel

ANS. D

713. If an OIL SPILL occurs on DECK, you should STOP TRANSFER OPERATION and________.

a. Cover the area with foam

b. Cover the area with absorbent materials
c. Wash down immediately with a fire hose
d. Wash down immediately with an oil dispersing solvent

ANS. B

714. What safety precautions should be observed by the crew while working around machinery in an engine room?

I. Wear safety shoes

II. Wear safety helmet
III. Avoid wearing jewelry

a. I, II , III
b. I an II
c. II and III
d. I and III

ANS. A

133
 715. What safety precautions should be observed by the crew while working around machinery in an engine room?

I. Wear safety shoes

II. Wear ear protection
III. Avoid wearing jewelry

a. I, II , III
b. I an II
c. II and III
d. I and III

ANS. A

716. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 120 stroke per minute with 3” diameter cylinder and a
4” stroke with 95% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump.

a. 14 gpm
b. 7 gpm A = ∏d2 or 2∏R Volume = A x L = 7.065 IN2 x 4 IN IN3 = 0.004329 GAL
c. 28 gpm 3 4 Volume = 28.26 IN3 = 1,610.82 IN3 x 0.004329 GAL
d. 19 gpm
4 = 3.14 (3)2 Single acting 120 stroke/min. MIN IN3
ANS. B 4 = 28.26 IN3 x 120 stroke/min = 6.97 GAL or 7 GPM
A = 7.065 IN2 2 min
= 1610.82 IN3/min
717. How can you detect explosive gases in a tank?

A. By lowering the probe

718. What to be done after using a portable Halon fire extinguisher, is to be _______.

A. hydrostatically tested before reuse

B. put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remains
C. discarded
D. non-return valves

Ans. C

719. Which of the following must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?
B
A. Pull on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter
B. Push on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter
C. Push on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter
D. Pull on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter

Ans. B
B

720. Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2 it is advisable to ______.

A. Use all CO2 available to the surrounding area

B. Standby with water or other agent
C. Thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2
D. Jettison all burning materials

Ans. B

721. An offset screwdriver is best used for ________.

A. Driving self-tapping screws only

B. Screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver
C. Tightening Allen head screws only
D. Tightening or loosening offset type machine screws

Ans. B

134
A 722. One method of accurately checking the alignment of lathe centers is by moving the dial indicator securely mounted
on compound rest between the two positions indicated on the test bar. If the dial indicator reading on the tailstock end
of the test bar shows a higher (plus) reading than the dial indicator reading at the headstock end, you should move
the tailstock __________.

OR

Workpiece has been mounted between centers and test out machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe
centers. If a test cut on the tailstock is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved
_______.

A. Away from you to correct alignment

B. Toward you to correct alignment
C. Closer to the headstock to reduce offset
D. Away from the headstock to decrease misalignment

Ans. A

723. An aligning punch is used to _________.

A. Line up corresponding holes in adjacent parts

B. Completely loosen a jammed bolt
C. Make a starting mark for a drill
D. Mark centers and lines in layout work

Ans. A

724. What is the process that consumes the greatest amount of power while producing the greatest amount of heat?

A. Overcoming sliding friction

B. Overcoming rolling friction
C. Overcoming fluid friction
D. Increased power consumption

Ans. A

725. If the water level dropped rapidly in the expansion tank of a closed diesel engine cooling system, you should suspect
a___.

a. loss of suction in the circulating line

b. leak in the primary cooling system
c. broken raw water pump
d. burn or cracked piston in one cylinder

Ans. B

726. Which of the following condition is responsible for the fuel oil to atomize when using a steam atomizer in an auxiliary
boiler.

I. expansion of the steam in the furnace

II. expansion of steam in the whirling chamber
III. expansion of steam in the orifice plate

a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. I, and III

Ans. A

727. Each pressure gauge used for oil transfer operation must be accurate nearest to _______.

A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 10%

Ans. D

728. Which of the following must be carried out in order to manually carry out laundering of an inflatable life raft not
designed for float-free operation?

A. It will be easily launch by simply breaking the weak link

B. Depress the hydrostatic release button
C. It is easily launch by cutting the container securing straps
135
 D. It is only necessary to attach the weak link to the vessel

Ans. B

729. A boiler internal feed pipe is perforated to ______.

A. Provide positive flow to the down comers

B. Create a slight turbulence in the steam drum
C. Distribute water evenly throughout the steam drum
D. Reduce the weight of the steam drum internals

Ans. C

730. Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for producing chemical foam should be stored ____.

A. In a freezer
B. In a cool dry place
C. At a temperature not less than 80oF
D. In open bins

Ans. B

731. When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating frequency become synchronized at a particular speed,
that speed is known as the _____.

A. Critical speed
B. Breakaway speed
C. Synchronous speed
D. Sympathetic speed

Ans. A

732. The ability of lubricating oils to resist viscosity changes during temperature changes is indicated by the ______.

A. Viscosity index number

B. Pourpoint

Ans. A

733. Most bearings can only hold a few drops and excess oil runs out and is lost when the milling machine starts to
operate so it is better to ________.

A. Apply a few drops of oil to each bearing at frequent intervals

B. Flood each bearing with continuous flow of oil and some diesel
C. Apply grease over the bearings every month
D. Apply a few drops of oil with graphite before starting the machine

Ans. A

734. A fire main system must have enough fire hydrant for each accessible space to be reached with ______.

A. At least two spray patterns of water

B. A low velocity spray
C. A water spray or solid stream
D. At least 25 PSI delivery pressure

Ans. A

735. The discharge rate or capacity of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as the _______.

A. Change/size in the impeller diameter

B. Square of the impeller radius
C. Cube of the impeller diameter
136
 D. Impeller efficiency for large changes in its size

Ans. A

736. How does stay tube is installed?

A. Connected by tube sheet or fire tube

B. Connected by girder stay
C. Connected by external boiler plating
D. Connected by separate crown sheets

Ans. A

737. A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the piece of material to be work/threaded is slightly _______.

A. center drilled
B. chamfered
C. peened
D. reamed

Ans. B

738. The capacity of a rotary pump will decrease with an increase in the pump ________.

A. operating speed
B. rotor clearance
C. suction pressure
D. discharge volume

Ans. B

739. Which of the firefighting foams listed would require the mechanical mixing of air/water & foam concentrate?

OR

A mechanical foam which require the mixture H2O & foam?

I – Protein foam
II – AFFF (Aqueous film forming foam)
III – “Synthetic” alcohol foam
IV – “Synthetic” carbonated foam

A. I, II & III
B. I, II & IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III & IV

Ans. A

740. An important point of consideration when replacing a dry type intake filter on an air compressor is to ______.

A. Install a recommended disposable filter

B. Use the same element made by other maker but cheaper in price
C. Install a small or under size filter to allow for expansion of the element
D. Select the proper size that will not restrict air suction

Ans. D

741. Why should the fuel be circulated before lighting off a cold boiler?

A. To allow the fuel strainers to thoroughly clean the fuel

B. To heat the fuel enough for proper atomization
C. To ensure that all water is removed from the fuel
D. To allow fuel pressure to build up gradually

Ans. B

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742. To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down, you should pull on the ________.

A. Canopy
B. Manropes
C. Sea painter
D. Righting lines

Ans. D

743. When a turbine bearing shows signs of overheating you should _______.

A. Immediately reduce speed

B. Increase the lube oil pump discharge pressure
C. Stop the turbine
D. Increase the cooling water supply to the lube oil cooler

Ans. A

744. What will happen if fuel is injected too early in the injection cycle?

A. Early detonation & loss of power

B. Better fuel atomization
C. Temperature is too low
D. Auxiliary condenser

Ans. A

745. Which of the construction technique listed is used on new piston rings to facilitate run-in or seating?

A. Special ring facings, such as a thin bearing surface of antifriction metal

B. The oil control ring face is machined at an angle of 10 degrees
C. The ring diameter, when free, is machined slightly smaller than the cylinder bore to allow for
expansion at high combustion temperatures
D. Oil control rings maintain continuous oil film

Ans. A

746. A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding the contact surfaces together of a valve, is called
________.

A. Honing
B. Grinding-in or lappin-in
C. Refacing
D. Spotting-in

Ans. B

747. The most probable cause why centrifugal pumps fails to discharge liquid is because of ______.

A. insufficient speed
B. impeller plugged/broken
C. pump not primed
D. seal ring
Ans. D

748. According to regulation, the construction of boiler feedline discharge should be installed _______.

A. according to manufacturer design

B. feed check valve adjacent to stop valve
C. stop check before the drum
D. check valve before the drum

Ans. B

749. Upon entering a refrigerating room (with existing refrigerant vapor at the atmosphere) to recharge the refrigerant,
what safety protective gear should be use?

A. All purpose gas mask

B. Respirator
C. Face shield
D. Rubber gloves

Ans. D

750. When an engine will not start on air, which of the following maybe the cause of the problem?
138
 A. Stop valves between air reservoirs and engine are shut
B. Emergency stop interlock activated
C. The turning gear is engaged
D. All of these choices

Ans. D

751. After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks until the
movement is stopped by the _______.

A. Hoist man
B. Limit switch
C. Brake handle
D. Preventer bar

Ans. B

752. Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower than the required operating pressure will result
in _______.

A. Accelerated action of the system component

B. Overheating of the system or lowers the operating efficiency of the system
C. Overspeeding of the hydraulic pump
D. Extended system life

Ans. B

753. The longer the ignition delay period resulting from improper use of low cetaine fuel, the ________.

A. less fuel will enter the cylinder

B. higher the cylinder combustion temperature
C. more complete the fuel combustion
D. more rapid the rise in combustion

Ans. D

754. Foam is effective in combating which of the listed classes of fire?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class A & B
D. Class B & C

Ans. C

755. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?

A. Classes A & B
B. Classes B & C
C. Classes C & D
D. Classes A & D

Ans. B

756. The designation ‘schedule 80 extra strong’ refers to _________.

A. weight of steel plate

B. tensile strength of bolts
C. pipingwall thickness
D. tubing bursting strength

Ans. C

757. Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker can be isolated from the crude oil washing system by _______.

A. spade blanks
B. face blanks
C. non-return valves
D. analyzing job for safer methods

Ans. A

758. The process of flaring the section of a boiler tube extending beyond the tube sheet into the drum is known as
C _______.

139
 A. expanding
B. jamming
C. belling
D. breeching

Ans. C

759. Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gases as a percentage of the _______.

A. flash point
B. upper explosive limit
C. lower explosive limit
D. fire point

Ans. C

760. Tapping threads into a blend hole should be finished by using a __________.

A. plug tap
B. bottoming tap
C. short tap
D. taper tap

Ans. B

761. If you have a duplex single acting reciprocating pump making 140 strokes/minute, with a 3” diameter cylinder, a 11”
stroke & operating with 94% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?

A. 20 GPM Given: D = 3 inc

B. 108 GPM L = 11 inc.
C. 10 GPM Eff = 94% x x Eff.
D. 39 GPM
Sol’n: x length
Vol = area x length Cap = vol.. stroke
Ans. D
= ∏d2 min
4 = 77.715 in3 x 140 stroke x 94%
= 3.14 (3 in)2 x 11 in min
4 = 10,227.30 in3/min x 0.004329 Gal
Vol = 7.065 m2 x 11 in 1 in3
= 77.715 in3 = 44.27 Gal/min
* Note: Nearest answer is 39 GPM

140