CHAPTER 1: Microbiology—the Science b.

prions and viroids

1. Which of the following individuals is considered to be c. rickettsias
the “Father of Microbiology?” d. cyanobacteria
a. Anton von Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur 10. Which of the following individuals introduced the
c. Robert Koch terms “aerobes” and “anaerobes”?
d. Rudolf Virchow a. Anton von Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
2. The microbes that usually live on or in a person are c. Robert Koch
collectively referred to as: d. Rudolf Virchow
a. germs.
b. indigenous microflora. CHAPTER 2: Viewing the Microbial World
c. nonpathogens. 1. A millimeter is equivalent to how many nanometers?
d. opportunistic pathogens. a. 1,000
b. 10,000
3. Microbes that live on dead and decaying organic c. 100,000
material are known as: d. 1,000,000
a. indigenous microflora.
b. parasites. 2. Assume that a pinhead is 1 mm in diameter. How
c. pathogens. many spherical bacteria (cocci), lined up side by side,
d. saprophytes. would fit across the pinhead? (Hint: Use information
from Table 2-1.)
4. The study of algae is called: a. 100
a. algaeology. b. 1,000
b. botany. c. 10,000
c. mycology. d. 100,000
d. phycology.
3. What is the length of an average rod-shaped bacterium
5. The field of parasitology involves the study of which (bacillus)?
of the following types of organisms? a. 3 μm
a. arthropods, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses b. 3 nm
b. arthropods, helminths, and certain protozoa c. 0.3 mm
c. bacteria, fungi, and protozoa d. 0.03 mm
d. bacteria, fungi, and viruses
4. What is the total magnification when using the high-
6. Rudolf Virchow is given credit for proposing which of power (high-dry) objective of a compound light
the following theories? microscope equipped with a x10 ocular lens?
a. abiogenesis a. 40
b. biogenesis b. 50
c. germ theory of disease c. 100
d. spontaneous generation d. 400

7. Which of the following microbes are considered 5. How many times better is the resolution of the
obligate intracellular pathogens? transmission electron microscope than the resolution of
a. chlamydias, rickettsias, M. leprae, and T. pallidum the unaided human eye?
b. M. leprae and T. pallidum a. 1,000
c. M. tuberculosis and viruses b. 10,000
d. rickettsias, chlamydias, and viruses c. 100,000
d. 1,000,000
8. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Koch developed a rabies vaccine. 6. How many times better is the resolution of the
b. Microbes are ubiquitous. transmission electron microscope than the resolution of
c. Most microbes are harmful to humans. the compound light microscope?
d. Pasteur conducted experiments that proved the theory a. 100
of abiogenesis. b. 1,000
c. 10,000
9. Which of the following are even smaller than d. 100,000
viruses?
a. chlamydias
7. How many times better is the resolution of the 5. Of the following, which one is not found in
transmission electron microscope than the resolution of procaryotic cells?
the scanning electron microscope? a. cell membrane
a. 100 b. chromosome
b. 1,000 c. mitochondria
c. 10,000 d. plasmids
d. 100,000
6. The Three-Domain System of Classification is
8. The limiting factor of any compound light microscope based on differences in which of the following
(i.e., the thing that limits its resolution to 0.2 μm) is the: molecules?
a. number of condenser lenses it has. a. mRNA
b. number of magnifying lenses it has. b. peptidoglycan
c. number of ocular lenses it has. c. rRNA
d. wavelength of visible light. d. tRNA

9. Which of the following individuals is given credit for 7. Which of the following is in the correct sequence?
developing the first compound microscope? a. Kingdom, Class, Division, Order, Family, Genus
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus
b. Hans Jansen c. Kingdom, Division, Order, Class, Family, Genus
c. Louis Pasteur d. Kingdom, Order, Division, Class, Family, Genus
d. Robert Hooke
8. Which one of the following is never found in
10. A compound light microscope differs from a simple procaryotic cells?
microscope in that the compound light microscope a. flagella
contains more than one: b. capsule
a. condenser lens. c. cilia
b. magnifying lens. d. ribosomes
c. objective lens.
d. ocular lens 9. The semipermeable structure controlling the transport
of materials between the cell and its external
CHAPTER 3: Cell Structure and Taxonomy environment is the:
1. Molecules of extrachromosomal DNA are also a. cell membrane.
known as: b. cell wall.
a. Golgi bodies. c. cytoplasm.
b. lysosomes. d. nuclear membrane.
c. plasmids.
d. plastids. 10. In eucaryotic cells, what are the sites of
photosynthesis?
2. A bacterium possessing a tuft of flagella at one end of a. mitochondria
its cell would be called what kind of bacterium? b. plasmids
a. amphitrichous c. plastids
b. lophotrichous d. ribosomes
c. monotrichous
d. peritrichous CHAPTER 4: Microbial Diversity
1. Which one of the following steps occurs during the
3. One way in which an archaean would differ from a multiplication of animal viruses, but not during the
bacterium is that the archaean would possess no: multiplication of bacteriophages?
a. DNA in its chromosome. a. assembly
b. peptidoglycan in its cell walls. b. biosynthesis
c. ribosomes in its cytoplasm. c. penetration
d. RNA in its ribosomes. d. uncoating

4. Some bacteria stain Gram-positive and others stain 2. Which one of the following diseases or groups of
Gram-negative as a result of differences in the structure diseases is not caused by prions?
of their: a. certain plant diseases
a. capsule. b. chronic wasting disease of deer and elk
b. cell membrane. c. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease of humans
c. cell wall. d. “mad cow disease”
d. ribosomes.
3. Most procaryotic cells reproduce by: 10. An organism that does not require oxygen, grows
a. binary fission. better in the absence of oxygen, but can survive in
b. budding. atmospheres containing some molecular oxygen is
c. gamete production. known as a(n):
d. spore formation. a. aerotolerant anaerobe.
b. capnophile.
4. The group of bacteria that lack rigid cell walls and c. facultative anaerobe.
take on irregular shapes is: d. microaerophile.
a. chlamydias.
b. mycobacteria. CHAPTER 5: Microbial Diversity
c. mycoplasmas. 1. Which of the following statements about algae and
d. rickettsias. fungi is (are) true?
a. Algae are photosynthetic, whereas fungi are not.
5. At the end of the Gram staining procedure, Gram- b. Algal cell walls contain cellulose, whereas fungal
positive bacteria will be: cell walls do not.
a. blue to purple. c. Fungal cell walls contain chitin, whereas algal cell
b. green. walls do not.
c. orange. d. all of the above
d. pink to red.
2. All of the following are algae except:
6. Which one of the following statements about a. desmids.
rickettsias is false? b. diatoms.
a. Diseases caused by rickettsias are arthropod-borne. c. dinoflagellates.
b. Rickets is caused by a Rickettsia species. d. sporozoa.
c. Rickettsia species cause typhus and typhus-like
diseases. 3. All of the following are fungi except:
d. Rickettsias have leaky membranes. a. moulds.
b. Paramecium.
7. Which one of the following statements about c. Penicillium.
Chlamydia and Chlamydophila spp. is false? d. yeasts.
a. They are obligate intracellular pathogens.
b. They are considered to be “energy parasites.” 4. A protozoan may possess any of the following
c. The diseases they cause are all arthropod-borne. except:
d. They are considered to be Gram-negative bacteria. a. cilia.
b. flagella.
8. Which one of the following statements about c. hyphae.
cyanobacteria is false? d. pseudopodia.
a. Although cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, they do
not produce oxygen as a result of photosynthesis. 5. Which one of the following terms is not associated
b. At one time, cyanobacteria were called blue-green with fungi?
algae. a. conidia
c. Some cyanobacteria are capable of nitrogen b. hyphae
fixation. c. mycelium
d. Some cyanobacteria are important medically d. pellicle
because they produce toxins.
6. All of the following terms can be used to describe
9. Which one of the following statements about hyphae except:
archaea is false? a. aerial and reproductive.
a. Archaea are more closely related to eucaryotes b. septate and aseptate.
than they are to bacteria. c. sexual and asexual.
b. Both archaea and bacteria are procaryotic d. vegetative.
organisms.
c. Some archaea live in extremely hot environments. 7. A lichen usually represents a symbiotic relationship
d. The cell walls of archaea contain a thicker layer between which of the following pairs?
of peptidoglycan than the cell walls of bacteria. a. a fungus and an ameba
b. a yeast and an ameba
c. an alga and a cyanobacterium
d. an alga and a fungus
8. A stigma is a: one strand will be connected to thymine on the
a. light-sensing organelle. complementary strand by two hydrogen bonds.
b. primitive mouth. d. All of the above statements are true.
c. thickened membrane.
d. type of plastid. 7. The amino acids in a polypeptide chain are connected
by:
9. If a dimorphic fungus is causing a respiratory a. covalent bonds.
infection, which of the following might be seen in a b. glycosidic bonds.
sputum specimen from that patient? c. peptide bonds.
a. amebae d. both a and c.
b. conidia
c. hyphae 8. Which of the following statements about nucleotides
d. yeasts is (are) true?
a. A nucleotide contains a nitrogenous base.
10. Which one of the following is not a fungus? b. A nucleotide contains a pentose.
a. Aspergillus c. A nucleotide contains a phosphate group.
b. Candida d. All of the above statements are true.
c. Penicillium
d. Prototheca 9. A heptose contains how many carbon atoms?
a. 4
CHAPTER 6: Biochemistry: The Chemistry of Life b. 5
1. Which of the following are the building blocks of c. 6
proteins? d. 7
a. amino acids
b. monosaccharides 10. Virtually all enzymes are:
c. nucleotides a. carbohydrates.
d. peptides b. nucleic acids.
c. proteins.
2. Glucose, sucrose, and cellulose are examples of: d. substrates.
a. carbohydrates.
b. disaccharides. CHAPTER 7: Microbial Physiology
c. monosaccharides. 1. Which of the following characteristics do animals,
d. polysaccharides. fungi, and protozoa have in common?
a. They obtain their carbon from carbon dioxide.
3. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is not b. They obtain their carbon from inorganic compounds.
found in an RNA molecule? c. They obtain their energy and carbon atoms from
a. adenine chemicals.
b. guanine d. They obtain their energy from light.
c. thymine
d. uracil 2. Most ATP molecules are produced during which
phase of aerobic respiration?
4. Which of the following are purines? a. electron transport chain
a. adenine and guanine b. fermentation
b. adenine and thymine c. glycolysis
c. guanine and uracil d. Krebs cycle
d. guanine and cytosine
3. Which of the following processes does not involve
5. Which one of the following is not found at the site of bacteriophages?
protein synthesis? a. lysogenic conversion
a. DNA b. lytic cycle
b. mRNA c. transduction
c. rRNA d. transformation
d. tRNA
4. In transduction, bacteria acquire new genetic
6. Which of the following statements about DNA is information in the form of:
(are) true? a. bacterial genes.
a. DNA contains thymine but not uracil. b. naked DNA.
b. DNA molecules contain deoxyribose. c. R-factors.
c. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine on d. viral genes.
5. The process whereby naked DNA is absorbed into a 3. The combination of freezing and drying is known as:
bacterial cell is known as: a. desiccation.
a. transcription. b. lyophilization.
b. transduction. c. pasteurization.
c. transformation. d. tyndallization.
d. translation.
4. Organisms that live in and around hydrothermal
6. In lysogenic conversion, bacteria acquire new genetic vents at the bottom of the ocean are:
information in the form of: a. acidophilic, psychrophilic, and halophilic.
a. bacterial genes. b. halophilic, alkaliphilic, and psychrophilic.
b. naked DNA. c. halophilic, psychrophilic, and piezophilic.
c. R-factors. d. halophilic, thermophilic, and piezophilic.
d. viral genes.
5. When placed into a hypertonic solution, a bacterial
7. Saprophytic fungi are able to digest organic molecules cell will:
outside of the organism by means of: a. take in more water than it releases.
a. apoenzymes. b. lyse.
b. coenzymes. c. shrink.
c. endoenzymes. d. swell.
d. exoenzymes.
6. To prevent Clostridium infections in a hospital
8. The process by which a nontoxigenic setting, what kind of disinfectant should be used?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae cell is changed into a a. fungicidal
toxigenic cell is called: b. pseudomonicidal
a. conjugation. c. sporicidal
b. lysogenic conversion. d. tuberculocidal
c. transduction.
d. transformation. 7. Sterilization can be accomplished by use of:
a. an autoclave.
9. Which of the following does (do) not occur in b. antiseptics.
anaerobes? c. medical aseptic techniques.
a. anabolic reactions d. pasteurization.
b. catabolic reactions
c. electron transport chain 8. The goal of medical asepsis is to kill __________,
d. fermentation reactions whereas the goal of surgical asepsis is to kill
__________.
10. Proteins that must link up with a cofactor to function a. all microorganisms . . . . . pathogens
as an enzyme are called: b. bacteria . . . . . bacteria and viruses
a. apoenzymes. c. nonpathogens . . . . . pathogens
b. coenzymes. d. pathogens . . . . . all microorganisms
c. endoenzymes.
d. holoenzymes. 9. Which of the following types of culture media is
selective and differential?
CHAPTER 8: Controlling Microbial Growth in Vitro a. blood agar
1. It would be necessary to use a tuberculocidal agent b. MacConkey agar
to kill a particular species of: c. phenylethyl alcohol agar
a. Clostridium. d. Thayer-Martin agar
b. Mycobacterium.
c. Staphylococcus. 10. All the following types of culture media are enriched
d. Streptococcus. and selective except:
a. blood agar.
2. Pasteurization is an example of what kind of b. colistin–nalidixic acid agar.
technique? c. phenylethyl alcohol agar.
a. antiseptic d. Thayer-Martin agar.
b. disinfection
c. sterilization
d. surgical aseptic
CHAPTER 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in Vitro a. Alexander Fleming
Using Antimicrobial Agents b. Paul Ehrlich
1. Which of the following is least likely to be taken into c. Selman Waksman
consideration when deciding which antibiotic to d. Sir Howard Walter Florey
prescribe for a patient?
a. patient’s age 9. All the following antimicrobial agents work by
b. patient’s underlying medical conditions inhibiting cell wall synthesis except:
c. patient’s weight a. cephalosporins.
d. other medications that the patient is taking b. chloramphenicol.
c. penicillin.
2. Which of the following is least likely to lead to drug d. vancomycin.
resistance in bacteria?
a. a chromosomal mutation that alters cell membrane 10. All the following antimicrobial agents work by
permeability inhibiting protein synthesis except:
b. a chromosomal mutation that alters the shape of a. chloramphenicol.
a particular drug-binding site b. erythromycin.
c. receiving a gene that codes for an enzyme that c. imipenem.
destroys a particular antibiotic d. tetracycline.
d. receiving a gene that codes for the production of a
capsule CHAPTER 10: Microbial Ecology and Microbial
Biotechnology
3. Which of the following is not a common mechanism 1. A symbiont could be a(n):
by which antimicrobial agents kill or inhibit the a. commensal.
growth of bacteria? b. opportunist.
a. damage to cell membranes c. parasite.
b. destruction of capsules d. all of the above
c. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d. inhibition of protein synthesis 2. The greatest number and variety of indigenous
microflora of the human body live in or on the:
4. Multidrug therapy is always used when a patient is a. colon.
diagnosed as having: b. genitourinary tract.
a. an infection caused by MRSA. c. mouth.
b. diphtheria. d. skin.
c. strep throat.
d. tuberculosis. 3. Escherichia coli living in the human colon can be
considered to be a(n):
5. Which of the following terms or names has nothing a. endosymbiont.
to do with the use of two drugs simultaneously? b. opportunist.
a. antagonism c. symbiont in a mutualistic relationship.
b. Salvarsan d. all of the above
c. Septra
d. synergism 4. Which of the following sites of the human body
does not have indigenous microflora?
6. Which of the following is not a common mechanism a. bloodstream
by which antifungal agents work? b. colon
a. by binding with cell membrane sterols c. distal urethra
b. by blocking nucleic acid synthesis d. vagina
c. by dissolving hyphae
d. by interfering with sterol synthesis 5. Which of the following would be present in highest
numbers in the indigenous microflora of the human
7. Which of the following scientists discovered mouth?
penicillin? a. α-hemolytic streptococci
a. Alexander Fleming b. β-hemolytic streptococci
b. Paul Ehrlich c. Candida albicans
c. Selman Waksman d. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Sir Howard Walter Florey
6. Which of the following would be present in highest
8. Which of the following scientists is considered to be numbers in the indigenous microflora of the skin?
the “Father of Chemotherapy?” a. C. albicans
b. coagulase-negative staphylococci 4. Which of the following arthropods is the vector of
c. Enterococcus spp. Lyme disease?
d. E. coli a. flea
b. mite
7. The indigenous microflora of the external ear canal c. mosquito
is most like the indigenous microflora of the: d. tick
a. colon. 5. The most common zoonotic disease in the United
b. mouth. States is:
c. skin. a. Lyme disease.
d. distal urethra. b. plague.
c. rabies.
8. Which of the following are least likely to play a role d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
in the nitrogen cycle?
a. indigenous microflora 6. Which one of the following organisms is not one of
b. nitrifying and denitrifying bacteria the four most likely potential BW or bioterrorism
c. nitrogen-fixing bacteria agents?
d. bacteria living in the root nodules of legumes a. B. anthracis
b. Ebola virus
9. Microorganisms are used in which of the following c. V. major
industries? d. Y. pestis
a. antibiotic
b. chemical 7. All of the following are major steps in the treatment
c. food, beer, and wine of a community’s drinking water except:
d. all of the above a. boiling.
b. filtration.
10. The term that best describes a symbiotic relationship c. flocculation.
in which two different microorganisms occupy the same d. sedimentation.
ecologic niche, but have absolutely no effect on each
other is: 8. The largest waterborne epidemic ever to occur in
a. commensalism. the United States occurred in which of the following
b. mutualism. cities?
c. neutralism. a. Chicago
d. parasitism. b. Los Angeles
c. Milwaukee
CHAPTER 11: Epidemiology and Public Health d. New York City
1. Which of the following terms best describes
chlamydial genital infection in the United States? 9. Typhoid fever is caused by a species of:
a. arthropod-borne disease a. Campylobacter.
b. epidemic disease b. Escherichia.
c. pandemic disease c. Salmonella.
d. sporadic disease d. Shigella.

2. Which of the following are considered reservoirs of 10. Which of the following associations is incorrect?
infection? a. ehrlichiosis . . . tick
a. carriers b. malaria . . . mosquito
b. contaminated food and drinking water c. plague . . . flea
c. rabid animals d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever . . . mite
d. all of the above
CHAPTER 12: Healthcare Epidemiology
3. The most common nationally notifiable infectious 1. An HAI is one that:
disease in the United States is: a. develops during hospitalization or erupts within
a. chlamydial genital infections. 14 days of hospital discharge.
b. gonorrhea. b. develops while the patient is hospitalized.
c. the common cold. c. is acquired in the community.
d. TB. d. the patient has at the time of hospital admission.

2. An example of a fomite would be:

a. a drinking glass used by a patient.
b. bandages from an infected wound.
c. soiled bed linens. 10. Contact Precautions are required for patients with:
d. all of the above. a. C. difficile-associated diseases.
b. infections caused by multidrug-resistant bacteria.
3. Which of the following Gram-positive bacteria is c. viral hemorrhagic fevers.
most likely to be the cause of an HAI? d. all of the above.
a. C. difficile
b. S. aureus CHAPTER 13: Diagnosing Infectious Disease
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae 1. Assuming that a clean-catch, midstream urine was
d. S. pyogenes processed in the CML, which of the following colony
counts is (are) indicative of a urinary tract infection?
4. Which of the following Gram-negative bacteria is a. 10,000 CFU/mL
least likely to be the cause of an HAI? b. 100,000 CFU/mL
a. a Klebsiella species c. >100,000 CFU/mL
b. a Salmonella species d. both b and c
c. E. coli
d. P. aeruginosa 2. Which of the following statements about blood is
false?
5. A Protective Environment would be appropriate for a. As it circulates throughout the human body,
a patient: blood is usually sterile.
a. infected with MRSA. b. Following centrifugation, the layer of leukocytes
b. with leukopenia. and platelets is referred to as the buffy coat.
c. with pneumonic plague. c. Bacteremia and septicemia are synonyms.
d. with tuberculosis. d. Plasma constitutes about 55% of whole blood.

6. Which of the following is not part of Standard 3. Which of the following statements about
Precautions? cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimens is false?
a. handwashing between patient contacts a. They are collected only by clinicians.
b. placing a patient in a private room having negative air b. They are treated as STAT (emergency) specimens in
pressure the laboratory.
c. properly disposing of needles, scalpels, and other c. They should always be refrigerated.
sharps d. They should be rushed to the laboratory after
d. wearing gloves, masks, eye protection, and gowns collection.
when appropriate
4. All clinical specimens submitted to the CML must be:
7. A patient suspected of having tuberculosis has been a. properly and carefully collected.
admitted to the hospital. Which one of the following is b. properly labeled.
not appropriate? c. properly transported to the laboratory.
a. Droplet Precautions d. all of the above
b. an AIIR
c. Standard Precautions 5. Which of the following is not one of the three parts of
d. use of a type N95 respirator by healthcare professional a urine culture?
who are caring for the patient a. isolation and identification of the pathogen
b. performing a colony count
8. Which of the following statements about medical c. performing a microscopic observation of the urine
asepsis is false? specimen
a. Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique. d. performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing
b. Handwashing is a medical aseptic technique.
c. Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique. 6. Which of the following matches is false?
d. The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all a. CPE . . . Virology Section
microorganisms from an area. b. KOH preparation . . . Mycology Section
c. Tease mount . . . Bacteriology Section
9. Which of the following statements about an AIIR is d. Type of hemolysis . . . Bacteriology Section
false?
a. Air entering the room is passed through HEPA filters. 7. Who is primarily responsible for the quality of
b. The room is under negative air pressure. specimens submitted to the CML?
c. An AIIR is appropriate for patients with meningo- a. microbiologist who is in charge of the CML
coccal meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza. b. pathologist who is in charge of “the lab”
d. Transmission-Based Precautions will be necessary. c. person who collects the specimen
d. person who transports the specimen to the CML
8. Which of the following is not one of the four major 6. Enterotoxins affect cells in the:
day-to-day responsibilities of the CML? a. central nervous system.
a. identify (speciate) pathogens b. gastrointestinal tract.
b. isolate pathogens from clinical specimens c. genitourinary tract.
c. perform antimicrobial susceptibility testing when d. respiratory tract.
appropriate
d. process environmental samples 7. Which of the following bacteria is least likely to be
the cause of septic shock?
9. Which of the following sections is least likely to be a. E. coli
found in the CML of a small hospital? b. Haemophilus influenzae
a. Bacteriology Section c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b. Mycology Section d. Neisseria meningitidis
c. Parasitology Section
d. Virology Section 8. Which of the following produces both a cytotoxin and
an enterotoxin?
10. In the Mycology Section of the CML, moulds are a. C. botulinum
identified by __________. b. C. difficile
a. biochemical test results c. C. tetani
b. macroscopic observations d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c. microscopic observations
d. a combination of b and c 9. Which of the following virulence factors enable(s)
bacteria to avoid phagocytosis by white blood cells?
CHAPTER 14: Pathogenesis of Infectious Disease a. capsule
1. Which of the following virulence factors enable(s) b. cell membrane
bacteria to attach to tissues? c. cell wall
a. capsules d. pili
b. endotoxin
c. flagella 10. Which of the following can cause toxic shock
d. pili syndrome?
a. C. difficile and C. perfringens
2. Neurotoxins are produced by: b. M. pneumoniae and M. tuberculosis
a. Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani. c. N. gonorrhoeae and E. coli
b. Clostridium difficile and Clostridium perfringens. d. S. aureus and S. pyogenes
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Mycobacterium
tuberculosis. CHAPTER 15: Nonspecific Host Defense Mechanism
d. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. 1. Host defense mechanisms—ways in which the body
protects itself from pathogens—can be thought of as an
3. Which of the following pathogens produce army consisting of how many lines of defense?
enterotoxins? a. two
a. Bacillus cereus and certain serotypes of Escherichia b. three
coli c. four
b. C. difficile and C. perfringens d. five
c. Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.
d. all of the above 2. Which of the following is not part of the body’s first
line of defense?
4. A bloodstream infection with __________ could result a. fever
in the release of endotoxin into the bloodstream. b. intact skin
a. C. difficile or C. perfringens c. mucus
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae or E. coli d. pH of the stomach contents
c. S. aureus or M. tuberculosis
d. S. aureus or S. pyogenes 3. Each of the following is considered a part of the
body’s second line of defense except:
5. Communicable diseases are most easily transmitted a. fever.
during the: b. inflammation.
a. incubation period. c. interferons.
b. period of convalescence. d. lysozyme.
c. period of illness.
d. prodromal period.
4. Which of the following is not a consequence of 2. Antibodies are secreted by:
activation of the complement system? a. basophils.
a. attraction and activation of leukocytes b. macrophages.
b. increased phagocytosis by phagocytic cells c. plasma cells.
(opsonization) d. T cells.
c. lysis of bacteria and other foreign cells
d. repair of damaged tissue 3. Humoral immunity involves all the following except:
a. antibodies.
5. Each of the following is a primary purpose of the b. antigens.
inflammatory response except: c. NK cells.
a. to localize the infection. d. plasma cells.
b. to neutralize any toxins being produced at the site.
c. to prevent the spread of microbial invaders. 4. Immunity that develops as a result of an actual
d. to stimulate the production of opsonins. infection is called:
a. artificial active acquired immunity.
6. Which of the following cells is a granulocyte? b. artificial passive acquired immunity.
a. eosinophil c. natural active acquired immunity.
b. lymphocyte d. natural passive acquired immunity.
c. macrophage
d. monocyte 5. Artificial passive acquired immunity would result
from:
7. All the following would be considered an aspect of a. having the measles.
microbial antagonism except: b. ingesting colostrum.
a. competition for nutrients. c. receiving a gamma globulin injection.
b. competition for space. d. receiving a vaccine.
c. production of bacteriocins.
d. production of lysozyme. 6. The vaccines that are used to protect people from
diphtheria and tetanus are:
8. Which of the following function as opsonins? a. antitoxins.
a. antibodies b. attenuated vaccines.
b. antigens c. inactivated vaccines.
c. complement fragments d. toxoids.
d. both a and c
7. Natural passive acquired immunity would result from:
9. Which of the following statements about interferons is a. having the measles.
false? b. ingesting colostrum.
a. Interferons are virus-specific. c. receiving a gamma globulin injection.
b. Interferons have been used to treat hepatitis C and d. receiving a vaccine.
certain types of cancer.
c. Interferons produced by a virus-infected cell will not 8. Which of the following statements about IgM is false?
save that cell from destruction. a. IgM contains a J chain.
d. Interferons produced by virus-infected rabbit cells b. IgM has a total of 10 antigen-binding sites.
cannot be used to treat viral diseases in humans. c. IgM is a pentamer.
d. IgM is a long-lived molecule.
10. Which of the following is not one of the four
cardinal signs or symptoms of inflammation? 9. Which of the following could be an effect of type III
a. edema hypersensitivity?
b. heat a. glomerulonephritis
c. loss of function b. rheumatoid arthritis
d. redness c. SLE
d. all of the above
CHAPTER 16: Specific Host Defense Mechanisms:
An Introduction to Immunology 10. Most likely, immunology got its start in 1890 when
1. Of the following, which is the least likely to be these scientists discovered antibodies while developing a
involved in CMI? diphtheria antitoxin.
a. antibodies a. Edward Jenner and Louis Pasteur
b. cytokines b. Elie Metchnikoff and Robert Koch
c. macrophages c. Emil Behring and Kitasato Shibasaburo
d. T cells d. Jonas Salk and Albert Sabin
CHAPTER 17: Overview of Infectious Diseases 10. Which of the following is not one of the three most
1. Otitis media is an inflammation or infection of the: common causes of bacterial meningitis?
a. ear. a. E. coli
b. eye. b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. brain. c. Neisseria meningitidis
d. urinary bladder. d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

2. Keratitis is an inflammation or infection of the: CHAPTER 18: Viral Infections

a. conjunctiva. 1. Which of the following is the cause of smallpox?
b. cornea. a. vaccinia virus
c. kidney. b. varicella virus
d. skin. c. variola virus
d. none of the preceding choices
3. Which of the following is/are the most common cause
of pharyngitis? 2. Which of the following are considered to be
a. Escherichia coli oncogenic?
b. Staphylococcus aureus a. Epstein-Barr virus and HPVs
c. Streptococcus pyogenes b. HIV and Ebola virus
d. viruses c. rubella and rubeola viruses
d. variola and varicella viruses
4. Which of the following is the most common cause of
tooth decay? 3. Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is usually made
a. S. aureus by which of the following?
b. Streptococcus agalactiae a. electron microscopy
c. Streptococcus mutans b. growth of HIV in cell culture
d. S. pyogenes c. growth of HIV in embryonated chicken eggs
d. immunodiagnostic procedures for the detection of
5. An infection of the urinary bladder is known as: antigen and antibodies
a. cystitis.
b. pyelonephritis. 4. Which of the following is also known as infectious
c. ureteritis. hepatitis?
d. urethritis a. HAV
b. HBV
6. The most common cause of cystitis is: c. HCV
a. Candida albicans. d. HDV
b. E. coli.
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis. 5. Mosquitoes serve as vectors in all of the following
d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. viral diseases, except:
a. dengue fever.
7. The most common cause of urethritis is: b. hepatitis.
a. Chlamydia trachomatis. c. West Nile virus disease.
b. E. coli. d. yellow fever.
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
d. S. aureus. 6. Which of the following viruses is/are not transmitted
sexually?
8. Which of the following terms means swollen lymph a. hantavirus
glands? b. HSVs
a. lymphadenitis c. HIV
b. lymphadenopathy d. papillomaviruses
c. lymphangitis
d. lymphitis 7. Which of the following is a DNA virus?
a. HAV
9. Inflammation or infection of the brain is called: b. HBV
a. encephalitis. c. HCV
b. meningitis. d. HDV
c. myelitis.
d. otitis externa. 8. Which of the following is a type of herpes virus?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. measles virus
c. mumps virus
d. rabies virus 7. Which of the following organisms is the most
common cause of cystitis?
9. Which of the following viral diseases has been a. C. trachomatis
acquired in the United States by handling pet prairie b. E. coli
dogs? c. N. gonorrhoeae
a. chickenpox d. T. vaginalis
b. hantavirus
c. monkeypox 8. Which of the following is the most common
d. smallpox arthropod-borne disease in the United States?
a. Lyme disease
10. The disease known as severe acute respiratory b. plague
syndrome (SARS) is caused by a type of: c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
a. coronavirus. d. tularemia
b. herpes virus.
c. papillomavirus. 9. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a
d. picornavirus. spirochete?
a. Lyme disease
CHAPTER 19: Bacterial Infections b. plague
1. The most common STD in the United States is caused c. relapsing fever
by: d. syphilis
a. Candida albicans.
b. Chlamydia trachomatis. 10. Which of the following associations is incorrect?
c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. a. Lyme disease . . . tick
d. Trichomonas vaginalis. b. plague . . . rat flea
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever . . . tick
2. _______________ is the most common cause of d. typhoid fever . . . mosquito
pneumonia in the world.
a. Chlamydophila pneumoniae CHAPTER 20: Fungal Infections
b. Legionella pneumophila 1. Which of the following diseases is caused by an
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae encapsulated yeast?
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Cryptococcosis
3. Gas gangrene is always caused by: c. Histoplasmosis
a. Bacillus anthracis. d. Pneumocystis pneumonia
b. Clostridium spp.
c. Staphylococcus aureus. 2. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a
d. Streptococcus pyogenes. dimorphic fungus?
a. Coccidioidomycosis
4. The bacterial species most frequently associated with b. Cryptococcosis
necrotizing fasciitis is: c. Histoplasmosis
a. Francisella tularensis. d. Sporotrichosis
b. S. aureus.
c. S. pneumoniae. 3. Which of the following diseases is a synonym for
d. S. pyogenes. ringworm infection of the nails?
a. tinea barbae
5. Which of the following diseases may be caused by C. b. tinea cruris
trachomatis? c. tinea nigra
a. inclusion conjunctivitis d. tinea unguium
b. nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
c. trachoma 4. Which of the following is the most common systemic
d. all of the above fungal disease in the United States?
a. Cryptococcosis
6. Which of the following organisms is the most b. Coccidioidomycosis
common cause of urethritis? c. Histoplasmosis
a. C. albicans d. Pneumocystis pneumonia
b. C. trachomatis
c. N. gonorrhoeae
d. T. vaginalis
5. One should associate the India ink preparation with
diagnosis of which of the following? 3. Which of the following protozoal diseases is not
a. Cryptococcal meningitis transmitted via an arthropod vector?
b. thrush a. African trypanosomiasis
c. tinea pedis b. American trypanosomiasis
d. yeast vaginitis c. babesiosis
d. giardiasis
6. Bread moulds are most commonly associated with
which of the following diseases? 4. Which of the following protozoal diseases is least
a. thrush likely to be transmitted via blood transfusion?
b. tinea versicolor a. American trypanosomiasis
c. vaginitis b. babesiosis
d. zygomycosis c. malaria
d. trichomoniasis
7. Which of the following is the fungus most often
isolated from human clinical specimens? 5. Which of the following protozoal diseases is least
a. Candida albicans likely to be transmitted via an infected food handler
b. C. neoformans who fails to wash his or her hands after using the
c. Histoplasma capsulatum bathroom?
d. Pneumocystis jiroveci a. amebiasis
b. cryptosporidiosis
8. Which of the following methods is the quickest and c. giardiasis
most common way to diagnose yeast vaginitis? d. toxoplasmosis
a. culture
b. India ink preparation 6. You are visiting a friend whose parents raise pigs.
c. KOH preparation Which of the following diseases are you most likely
d. saline wet mount to acquire by drinking well water at their farm?
a. amebiasis
9. In the United States, C. albicans causes approximately b. balantidiasis
__________ of the cases of vaginitis. c. cryptosporidiosis
a. 10% d. giardiasis
b. 25%
c. 33% 7. You are working on a cattle ranch. Which of the
d. 50% following diseases are you most apt to acquire as you
perform your duties at the ranch?
10. Tinea cruris is a ringworm infection of which of a. amebiasis
these body sites? b. balantidiasis
a. feet c. cryptosporidiosis
b. groin area d. giardiasis
c. nails
d. palms of the hands 8. Which of the following protozoal diseases are you
most likely to acquire by eating a rare hamburger?
CHAPTER 21: Parasitic Infections a. amebiasis
1. Humans develop malaria after the injection of b. balantidiasis
Plasmodium __________ into the bloodstream by an c. giardiasis
infected female Anopheles mosquito when she takes a d. toxoplasmosis
blood meal.
a. male and female gametocytes 9. Which of the following associations is incorrect?
b. schizonts a. African trypanosomiasis . . . tsetse fly
c. sporozoites b. amebiasis . . . fecally contaminated water
d. trophozoites c. Chagas’ disease . . . mosquito
d. toxoplasmosis . . . cats
2. These Plasmodium life cycle stages must be ingested 10. Which of the following is an example of an
by a female Anopheles mosquito for the Plasmodium infectious disease that is caused by a facultative
life cycle to continue in the mosquito. parasite?
a. male and female gametocytes a. African trypanosomiasis
b. schizonts b. giardiasis
c. sporozoites c. malaria
d. trophozoites d. PAM