OLD QUESTIONS

One of the major fear of a dying patient:

(a) distorted and left alone to die
(b) become addictive to drug
A patient is just returned to ward following abdominal surgery and complaint of abdominal pain,except
(a) provide comfortable position
(b) administer O2 inhalation
(c) reassurance to the patient
(d) giving frequent oral intake
Life threatening outcome for ineffective airway clearance:
(a) tachypnea
(b) dyspnea
(c) hypoxia
(d) dysphagia
When during oropharyngeal suctioning on patient, the nurse should apply suction
(a) when patient open mouth
(b) while introducing the catheter
(c) when the patient cough
(d) while taking out the catheter
Shock patient priority nursing care:
(a) foot end raise
(b) clear airway
(c) give O2
Which case needs to prevent from fall down?
(a) disorientation and confusion
Drug used for sinus bradycardia is
(a) phenytoin
(b) atrophine
(c) morphine
(d) lidnocaine
Drug used for premature ventricular contraction is
(a) dopamine
(b) atrophine
(c) morphine
(d) lidnocaine(xylocaine)
Diet rich in folic acid:
(a) leafy green vegetable, liver, fish and yeast
The followings are should be carefully handled standard precaution except
(a) sweat
(b) blood
(c) mucous
(d) secretion
Precaution glove should wear except
(a) when pt feeding
(b) when changing clothes with scabies
(c) when clean the mucous of pt”s nose
(d) when bathing the pt
After feeding, baby should keep up to prevent:
(a) chocking
(b) cough
(c) vomiting
(d) aspiration
Adult CPR, normal air blow rate is
(a) 400-800 l/min
(b) 500-1000 l/min
(c) 100-500 l/min
(d) 500-800 l/min
When O2 inhalaTion in adult pt, normal rate is
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 40%
Infant CPR, pulse rate should take from
(a) frontal
(b) brachial
(c) carotid
(d) femoral
In infant CPR, chest compression depth is
(a) 2 inches
(b) 3 inches
(c) 4 inches
(d) 5 inches
Uroshealth should change:
(a) 24 hr × 4hrly
(b) 24 hr × 6hrly
 (c) 24 hr × 8hrly
Wound for C&S should take
(a) before cleaning the wound
(b) after cleaning the wound
When patient’s dyspnea and asthmatic attack should keep patient in
(a) fowler position
(b) left lateral
(c) right lateral
(d) prone
We need to get bone development
(a) Na & Ca
(b) Ca & phosphorus
Universal blood recipient is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) AB
(d) O
Universal blood donor is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) AB
(d) O
The following causes are delay wound healing except
(a) steroid therapy
(b) anaemia
(c) ambulation
(d) infection
Before starting blood transfusion, you should start first
(a) 0.9% N/S
(b) 5% dextrose
(c) R/L
(d) D/S
Pt with breathing difficulty, advice following position
(a) prone
(b) lateral
(c) supine
(d) fowler
Before starting CPR, in causalty we will check carotid pulse for
 (a) 1 min
(b) 2 min
(c) 5-10 sec
(d) 10-20 sec
While taking rectal temperature ,we should keep the thermometer for
(a) 1 min
(b) 2 min
(c) 3 min
(d) 4 min
Cyanosis is a sign of
(a) lack of CO2 in the blood
(b) lack of O2 in the blood
(c) increase pH
Incontinent means inability to control passing of
(a) urine
(b) stool
(c) urine & stool
(d) blood
While caring female pt, prevent infection from anal to vaginal we should clean
(a) front to back
(b) back to front
(c) wipe with soft tissue
Pt admitted with severe dehydration and he is on parenteral and oral therapy. A nurse should keep
(a) accurate record of IV intake
(b) accurate record of oral intake
(c) accurate record of intake and output
First aid for burn pt is
(a) apply for antibiotic cream
(b) apply vaselline
(c) dip in cold water
After amputation, tight fit dressing is prevent for
(a) bleeding
(b) infection
While vomiting to prevent chocking we should
(a) turn the pt one side
(b) turn head to one side
(c) aspirate with suction tube
(d) insert NGT
In case of acute meningitis, line of treatment is
(a) start treatment ASAP
(b) provide clean environment
(c) record vital signs hrly
GTN is
(a) coronary vasodilator
(b) reduce muscle spasm
(c) increase BP
Before removing the indwelling catheter, check
(a) patency of catheter
(b) clamp the catheter before removing
(c) deflate the catheter
During an epileptic attack, nurse should take important action is
(a) keep airway
(b) prevent injury
(c) restraint the pt
(d) prevent chocking
First aid for the bleeding is
(a) apply pressure on the pressure point
(b) apply direct pressure on the digital part of the wound
(c) elevate the hand
(d) tie tourniquet on the radial
Level of consciousness and an unconscious patient better make out by
(a) verbal comment
(b) with a painful stimulation
(c) by seeing the pupil
While care an I. C. D. bottle patient accidently the bottle slipped of immediately nurse should do
(a) propped up the bottle

Acute appendicitis emergency except

(a) he
(b) Nothing by mouth
(c) I/V drip )

SNB OLD QUESTIONS

 QUESTIONS RELATED WITH ANATOMY &PHYSIOLOGY
1. Which organ is attacked by hypoxia?
(a) Heart
(b) Liver
(c) Brain ( irriversible brain death if no o2 for 4-6 mins)
(d) kidney
2. Adult CPR total breath /min
(a) 12 breath /min
(b) 16 breath /min
(c) 18 breath /min
3. Average female Hb%
(a) 10-12 mg
(b) 12-14 mg
(c) 14-18 mg
4. In burn case, first 24 hour fluid loss due to
(a) Increase permeability of capillaries
(b) Decrease permeability of capillaries
5. Hemophilia can cause
(a) brain tissue damage
(b) GI bleeding
(c) Bleeding in deeply lying structure muscle, joints
6. In burn case, fluid shift due to
(a) Osmosis
(b) Diffusion
(c) Filtration
7. Increase ICP can cause in
(a) Cerebral oedema
(b) Confusion
8. Pre meal blood sugar level
(a) 2-4 mmol/l
(b) 4-6 mmol/l (80-120 mol/dl)
(c) 6-8 mmol/l
9. Most common cause of breast cancer
(a) Cervical dysplasia
(b) Ovarian carcinoma
(c) Uterine cancer
10. LMP on 1st April 2001, EDD?
(a) 1st Jan 2002
 (b) 8th Jan 2002
(c) 1st Dec 2001
(d) 8th Dec 2001
11. Waste products excreted from blood dialysis are via
(a) Diffusion
(b) Filtration
(c) Osmosis
(d) Perfusion
12. What is the early complication of pt with illeostomy?
(a) Excoriation
(b) Wound sepsis
(c) Fluid &electrolyte imbalance
(d) Necrosis
13. Moron’s reflex in new born present
(a) Birth time( disappears at 3 months)
(b) 3-4 month
(c) 6-8 month
14. Heat regulation centre
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Hypothalamus ( thermostat)
15. Insulin is produced by
(a) Pancreas
(b) Islets of langerhan
16. Gray matter consists of
(a) Axons
(b) Peripheral nerve
(c) Neurogleal contraction tissue
(d) Nerve cells
17. Intelligence, thought, reason and unconscious are provided by
(a) Cerebral cortex
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Thalamus
(d) Basal ganglia
18. Which Ca could cause faster metastasis to brain
(a) Esophagus
(b) Lungs
(c) Kidney
 (d) Liver

19. Pt who are at risk of cervical Ca

(a) Active sexual activity with multiple sexual partners
(b) Family history of cervical Ca

20. Cause of colorectal Ca

(a) Smoking
(b) Alcoholism
(c) Low fiber & high fat consumption
21. Gall bladder dysfunction is evidence by
(a) Carbohydrate intolerance
(b) Fat intolerance
22. LMP on 1st April 2001, EDD?
(a) 1st Jan 2002
(b) 8th Jan 2002
(c) 1st Dec 2001
(d) 8th Dec 2001
23. Universal recipient of (blood group) is
(a) A
(b) O
(c) B
(d) AB
24. Universal donor of (blood group) is
(a) A
(b) C
(c) AB
(d) O
25. Normal pressure of H2O manometer for CVP
(a) 1-5 mmHg
(b) 5-10 mmHg
(c) 1-5 cm H2O
(d) 5-10 cm H2O (2-6 mmHg)
26. Exact location of H2O manometers to assess CVP,
(a) Atrium (midaxillary line)
(b) Lower axillary
(c) Upper axillary
(d) Axillary’s line
27. Edematous pt should take
(a) Low salt diet
(b) Low protein diet
(c) High residue diet
28. The vitreous humor
(a) Fills posterior four fifth bulb of the eye
(b) Is a nutrient of the lens
(c) Serves to regulate intra ocular pressure
(d) Circulates through the chamber of the eye
29. Hypovolumic shock is due to except
(a) Severe burn
(b) Severe pain
(c) Diarrhea
(d) Bleeding
30. Acid tends to
(a) Contribute H+ ion
(b) Liberate H+ ion
(c) Add H+ion
31. Highest concentration of potassium is found in
(a) Cells
(b) Plasma
(c) Urine
(d) CSF
32. Which one of the following does not cause hyprekalaemia?
(a) Acute renal failure
(b) Haemolysis of red blood cell
(c) A high cellular potassium
(d) Addison’s disease
33. Thiamine (B1) deficiency cause
(a) Cardiac failure in Beri Beri
(b) Night blindness
(c) Rackets (vitD)
(d) Hypothyroidism (Ca)
34. Hypoglycemia is due to
(a) Too much insulin in the body
(b) Little insulin in the body
(c) Excessive exercise
(d) Low level of sugar in the body
35. Bone building and reabsorption
(a) Remodeling
(b) Haematoma
(c) Callus
(d) Cellular proliferation
36. Ascites is caused by
(a) Fluids in the peritoneal cavity
(b) Fluids in the pleural
(c) Fluids in the pericardial
(d) Fluids in the pelvic
37. Osteoporosis is due to
(a) Decrease FHS& LH
(b) Increase FHS& LH
(c) Decrease oestrogen & progesterone
(d) Increase oestrogen& progesterone
38. Increase ICP sign and symptom
(a) Increase BP ,decrease pulse ,widening pulse pressure
(b) Increase BP ,increase pulse , increase resp
(c) Increase BP , increase temp, increase resp
(d) decrease BP ,increase pulse, increase resp
39. UTI most common cause
(a) E-coli
(b) Salmonella Typhi
(c) Streptococci
(d) Staphytococci
40. In CVA patient, the most first neuromuscular complication
(a) Planter extension
(b) Shoulder joint dislocation
(c) Contracture upper limp
(d) Knee jerk
41. Due to Cirrhosis of liver what changes in physiology
(a) Portal hypertension
(b) Anemia
(c) Platelet count decrease
(d) Water retention in peritoneal cavity
42. Late Cirrhosis of liver cause neurological pattern changes
(a) Delusion
(b) Coma
 (c) Schizophrenia
(d) Illusion
43. Donor recipient incompatibility is caused by
(a) Hemolytic reaction
(b) Urticardia
44. The nurse must access the client with severe vomiting for
(a) Respiratory acidosis
(b) Respiratory alkalosis
(c) Metabolic acidosis
(d) Respiratory alkalosis (OR) Metabolic alkalosis
45. Sign & Symptom of transfusion reaction include the following except
(a) Fever
(b) Tachycardia
(c) Bradycardia
(d) Breathlessness
46. S/S of hypovolumic shock include the following except
(a) Warm skin
(b) Tachycardia
(c) Hypotension
(d) Hemorrhage
47. Diabetic mellitus affects the metabolism of
(a) Carbohydrate, fat and protein
(b) Carbohydrate, fat and calcium
(c) Protein, electrolyte and vitamin
(d) Fat, mineral and electrolyte
48. Pre opt: appendectomy, the following investigation is done. According to which result is need to do
intervention
(a) Hb% 1.5
(b) K= 2.3mmol/l
(c) Partial prothrombin time 25 sec
(d) Na+ 140 mmol/l
49. Which of the following electrolyte is the greatest amount in the extra cellular compartment?
(a) Na+
(b) K+
(c) Ca+
(d) Chloride
50. CVP has to measure at 4th intercostals space and
(a) Mid clavicle line
 (b) Mid axillary line
(c) Lower axillary line
(d) Lower clavicle line
51. What is the pulse deficit?
(a) Different between the radial pulse and heart rate
(b) Different between systolic and diastolic pressure
(c) Pulse rate less than 160/min
(d) Nurse can’t feel the radial pulse
52. What is the complication of long term use of portex airway?
(a) Necrosis & stenosis
(b) Aspiration
(c) Haemorrhage
(d) Swelling
53. Causes of diabetic ketoacisis (hyperglycemia)
(a) Over eating
(b) Insulin overdose
(c) Infection
(d) Omission of feed
54. S/S of diabetic ketoacisis
(a) Drowsiness , nausea , vomiting & dry skin
(b) Double vision
(c) Headache
55. for above case, the first nursing is
(a) Withdrawal 24 hr food and fluids
(b) Give concentrated calories
(c) Put indwelling catheter &record I/O
(d) Give I/V solution with insulin
56. Degeneration of cognitive disorder in aging is
(a) Dementia
(b) Delirium
(c) Hallucination
(d) Anger
57. S/S of acute MI may cause except
(a) Profuse sweating
(b) Dyspnoea
(c) Chest pain
(d) Hypertension
58. Management of conscious MI pt may include except
 (a) Inotropic support
(b) O2 therapy
(c) Administer vasodilator
(d) DC shock
59. When the person alter perception, first symptom will be
(a) Illusion
(b) Delusion
(c) Auditory hallucination
(d) Visual hallucination
60. Open or compound #
(a) There is no communication between the site of # and the extension of the body
(b) There is a wound on the skin surface break down at the site of #
(c) Pathogen are introduced to # site
61. S/S of internal bleeding
(a) Tachycardia
(b) Hypotension
(c) Reduce urine out put
(d) All of above
62. Patient with peritoneal dialysis, 1st pre assessment
(a) Advise to empty bladder
(b) Body weight
(c) Catheter patency
(d) S/S of peritonitis
63. During PD, pt’s position
(a) Prone
(b) Semi recumbent
(c) Supine
(d) Upright
64. Oedema can be caused by the following except
(a) Excessive salt intake
(b) Excessive fluid intake
(c) Deficiency of K+
(d) Deficiency of plasma protein
65. Untreated hypertension pt can be followed by complications except
(a) Diabeties mellitus
(b) Stroke
(c) Heart failure
(d) Renal failure
66. Highest concentration of K+ is found in
(a) Cells
(b) Urine
(c) Plasma
(d) CSF
67. Hyperthyroid person is observed to be
(a) Restless & agitated
(b) Anorexia& constipated
(c) Cold & clammy skin
(d) Slow moving &deliberate
68. 50 Kg weighted man has burn 36% body surface, how much plasma dose he loss
(a) 660 36/100 x 50 = 18 x 50 = 900
(b) 900
(c) 960
69. Tracheotomy done between which levels of tracheal rings?
(a) 2nd & 3rd and 3rd & 4th
(b) 3rd & 4th and 4th & 5th
(c) 4th & 5th and 5th & 6th
(d) 5th & 6th and 6th & 7th
70. What is the 1st line management for cholecystitis
(a) Nasogastric suction, IV analgesis ,antibiotic
(b) Cholecystectomy
(c) Exploration of CBC
(d) Insertion of T tube
71. Glucose standard (normal blood glucose monitoring ) is met for Mr. Wong in Hospital setting.If he is resumed
to day activities, the following will occur.
(a) Hyperglycemia
(b) Hypoglycemia
(c) Normoglycemia
(d) Dyspnea
72. Contraindicated site to give insulin is
(a) Buttock
(b) Thigh
(c) Forearm
(d) Abdomen wall
73. Following are fat soluble vitamins except
(a) B
(b) A
 (c) D
(d) E
74. The earliest indication of complication in thrombolytic therapuy in acute stroke will be
(a) Hypotension
(b) Change in level of consciousness
c) Arrhythmia
75. Cold compress is compress is contraindicated in neonate because it can cause (cold stress in neonate can cause)
(a) Arrhythmia
(b) Hypertension
(c) Increased oxygen consumption
(d) Anemia
76. Signs of breathlessness in severe burn pt; are following except
(a) shallow breathing
(b) hoarsening of voice
(c) restless
(d) Dyspnea
76. Abnormality of bone an accident of joint called
(a) sprain
(b) dislocation
(c) strain
77. Assessment by using GCS, the following will be there
(a) Pupil size
(b) blood pressure
(c) Motor reflex of upper and lower extremities
(d) Temperature
78. Complication of long term colostomy except
(a) stenosis
(b) protrusion
(c) excoriation
(d) Necrosis
79. Hypercapnia means
(a) Increased CO2 in blood
(b) Decreased CO2 in blood
(c) Increased O2 in blood
(d) Decreased O2 in blood
80. Tonometer is used to measure
(a) IOP
(b) BP
 (c) ICP
81. In early period of pregnancy, which infection can cause congenital cataract for neonate?
(a) Rubella
(b) Diabetes
(c) Polio
82. Na restriction is advised on pt with CCF because
(a) Decreased circulatory volume
(b) Decreased blood volume
(c) Retained H2O in body
83. TB vaccine gets from
(a) Animal
(b) Human
84. The first priority investigation for TB pt is
(a) Mantoux test
(b) Urine test
(c) Sputum AFB
1) Post-op patient has BP 90/60 mm Hg, PR 112/min, RR 32/min. It can be
a) Haemorrhage
b) Infections
2) What is the first nursing action for above patient?
a) Inform S/N immediately
b) Take vital signs four hourly.
3) In diabetes Ketoacidosis’s patient, you can see this in patient’s urine:
a) Blood
b) Sugar
c) Protein
d) Ketones
4) Cyanosis is the sign of
a) Lack of carbon dioxide in the blood
b) Increased pH
c) Lack of oxygen in the blood
5) Incontinence means of inability to control passing of
a) Urine
b) Blood
c) Stool
d) Urine and Stool
6) Tiny red spots of haemorrhage into the tissue are called
a) Bruises
b) Haematoma
c) Petechia
d) Echymosis
7) Signs and symptoms of transfusion reaction includes the following except
a) Fever
b) Tachycardia
c) Bradycardia
d) Breathlessness
8) The signs and symptoms of hypovolumic shock include the following except
a) Tachycardia
 b) Hypotension
c) Warm skin
d) Haemorrhage
9) The mineral essential for bone growth are
a) Calcium and phosphorus
b) Calcium and sodium
c) Potassium and calcium
10) Diabetic mellitus affects the metabolism of
a) Carbohydrate, fat and protein
b) Carbohydrate, calcium and fat
c) Protein, electrolyte and vitamin
d) Fat, mineral and electrolyte
11) The aims of DM care are
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I, III and IV
d) I and III
i) control of blood glucose
ii) promotion of weight loss
iii) prevention of long term complication
iv) monitor blood sugar 4 time a day
12) Normal respiration rate of adult is
a) 10-14
b) 14-20
c) 12-20
d) 16-20
13) Sebaceous glands, sweat glands and hair follicles can be found in
a) Epidermis
b) Subcutaneous tissue
c) Dermis
d) Fat tissue
14) Failure of the kidney to produce any urine is called
a) Retention of urine
b) Oliguria
c) Anuria
d) Polyuria
15) Patient with COPD came to hospital,developed VF followed by asystole…which drug should be given
a) Adrenaline 1:1000
b) Adrenaline 1:10000
c) Lignocaine
d) Verapamil
16) When the nurse review ECG for above patient,two lethal arrhythmias to look out
a) AF&VF
b) AF&VT
c) VT&VF
d) VF& pulselessVT
17) How to administer oxygen for above patient
a) Nasal prong
b) Ventimask
c) Face mask
d) NRM
18) WHO standard-glucose level 2hrs after meal should be
a) <5 mmol/l
b) <7.8 mmol/l
c) 8-10 mmol/l
d) 10-15 mmol/l
19) Normal pupil size is
a) 2-5 mm
b) 2-6 mm
c) 3-5 mm
d) 3-6 mm
20) Care for terminally ill patient include
a) Dignity
b) Maintain nutrition
c) Maintain hydration
21) Function of the skin…..
a) Production of sebum
b) Vit.E synthesis
c) Regulation of body temperature
d) Protect the underlying organs
i) a&b
ii) a&c
iii) a,c&d
iv) a&d
22) pH-7.4, PaO2-85, PaCO2-45, BE-2
a) inform doctor immediately
b) keep in file
c) give oxygen 2l/min
d) inform doctor when they come to review patient
23) post vaginal delivery after 6 days later, lochia serosa should be
a) red bleeding
b) brownish
c) pinkish with occasionally blood clot
d) whitish color
24) Changes in CNS in aging….is
a) Decreased reflex time
b) Decreased weight and size of brain
c) Increased blood flow in the brain
d) Increased number of neurons

SNB OLD QUESTIONS

QUESTIONS RELATED WITH CARDIOVASCULAR PROBLEM

1. An elderly woman had cardiac arrhythmia during thyroidectomy, when she is returned to the word what is the
priority
(a) ECG monitoring
(b) Monitoring of vital sign
(c) Nurse in lateral position
2. The most appropriate treatment for ventricle fibrillation
(a) Compression of the heart
(b) Digoxin
(c) Defibrillaton
3. CVP is established by
(1) To assess hydration
(2) Rt Arterial pressure
 (3) Ventricle pressure
(4) Ventricle function
(a) (1)+(2) , (b) (1)+ (3), (c) (3)+(4), (d) (1)+(2)+(4)
4. Sodium is restricted in patient with CCF because of it might to
(a) Decrease circulatory volume
(b) Detain blood in tissue
(c) Cause irritation to the myocardium
(d) Promote tubular absorption of water
5. Which is not life threatening problem?
(a) Arterial fibrillation
(b) Ventricle fibrillation
(c) Ventricle tachycardia
(d) Sinus bradycardia & sinus tachycardia
6. Untreated hypertensions pt’s complication except
(a) DM
(b) Stroke
(c) Heart failure
(d) Renal failure
7. S/S of cardiac failure
(a) SOB
(b) Periobital edema
(c) Rebounding pulse
8. Why high BP in elderly patient?
(a) Decrease electricity of arterial wall
The pain of coronary thrombosis differs from that of angina pectoris because of
(a) May come on at rest ( angina pain will come on exertion)
(b) Radiates gradually both arms
(c) Last for a shorter period of time

25) ECG means

a) To read the function of cardiac
b) To investigate the renal function
c) To determine mobility of cardiac muscle
d) To investigate the whole circulatory system
 DRUGS AND PHARMACOLOGY
1. Before blood transfusion, we should start
(a) 0.9%N/S
(b) D/S
(c) 5% D/W
(d) R/L
2. Aspirin is not given in
(a) Peptic ulcer
(b) Infection
(c) Inflammation
(d) Fever
3. Cemitidine drug is used to
(a) Inhibit gastric juice
(b) Decrease gastric movement
4. Insulin is given s/c for
(a) Fast effect
(b) Slow and uniform absorption
(c) Decrease side effect
5. Metabolic alkosis to give
(a) NaCl
(b) NaHCO3(acidosis)
(c) K+
(d) Ca+
6. Management of patient with paracetamol overdose
(a) Charcoal
(b) Saline lavage
7. Viral pneumonia is treated by
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Steroids
(c) Depends on symptoms
(d) Sulphonides
8. The treatment of thorotoxicosis radioactive iodine is best prescribed for
(a) Women below 40 year
(b) Women above 40 year
(c) Women child bearing age
(d) Women who is pregnant
9. What is the action of Diamox?
(a) Decreases intraocular pressure
(b) Corrects closed angle glaucoma
(c) Prevents the flow of aqueous humor
10. The drug which reduce temperature is call
(a) Antipyretic
(b) Antihypertensive
(c) Antiematic
11. In case of extreme poisoning of salicylate
(a) Antiematic
(b) Peritoneal dialysis
(c) Haemodialysis
(d) Vit K inj
12. The drug of choice for bradycardia
(a) Atropine
(b) Morphine
(c) Lidnocane
(d) Phenytoin
13. Treatment for premature ventricular contraction
(a) Lidnocane (xylocaine)
(b) Dopamine
(c) Isoproterend
(d) Atropine
14. BCG is given for
(a) TB
(b) Polio
(c) Whooping cough
(d) DPT
15. What is the side effect of Morphine giving pt with advance Ca colon
(a) Drug addiction
(b) Constipation
(c) Vomiting
(d) Respiratory distress
16. Pre medication for ETT
(a) Atropine and Pethidine
17. Which drug can be given in epilepsy
(a) Phenytoin sodium
(b) Promotizine
18. What is the treatment for hyperkalemia
(a) Glucose & insulin
(b) Peritoneal dialysis
(c) Haemodialysis
19. The primary objective of drug therapy in the treatment of glaucoma is to
(a) Dilate the pupil
(b) Decrease intra ocular pressure
(c) Increase convexity of the lens
20. Why insulin is refrigerated
(a) To reduce bacterial growth
(b) To keep its potency
(c) To prevent cloudiness
21. All these medication can be given to epilepsy patient except
(a) Promethazine (antihistamine)
(b) D/Z
(c) Dilantin
(d) Carbimazepam
22. Patient with decrease HR can be given
(a) Digoxin
(b) Propanalol
(c) Niphedipine
(d) Atropine
23. Choose beta blocker for hypertension case
(a) Propanolol
(b) Nifedipine
(c) Analaprial
(d) Vasolid
24. Long term Rx for child asthma
(a) Prednisolone
(b) Nebulizer
25. Cirrhosis of liver with ascites, what drug should be avoided
(a) Asprin
(b) Prednisolone
(c) Diazepam
(d) Antibiotic
26. Pt is prescribed MAO have to avoid
(a) Tyramine yeast
(b) Protein
 (c) Fat
(d) Milk
27. Patient was given Phenargan (antihistamine) for which purpose
(a) For sedation
(b) For emesis
(c) For secretion
28. Patient was given Atropine inj: nurse recognized following complication
(a) Pulse rate above 150/min
(b) Unconscious
(c) Disoriented
(d) Increase BP
29. Potassium sparing diuretic drugs
(a) Lasix
(b) Spirolectone
(c) Mannyl
30. Rx for TB, 2-3 drugs component using
(a) Potentiated action
31. The post operative pt was given tab: Maxalon is for
(a) Sedation
(b) Pain
(c) Secretion
(d) Antiemetic
32. TB drugs that cause side effects to 8th cranial nerve
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Ethambutol
33. Side effect of 8th cranial nerve cause
(a) Vertigo
(b) Blur vision
(c) Facial
(d) Palsy
34. Instillation of Pilocarpine is to
(a) Constrict the pupil
(b) Lubricate eyeball
(c) Dilate the pupil
35. Choose beta blocker for hypertension case.
(a) Propanolol
(b) Analapril
 (c) Nifedipine
(d) Vasoptin
26) Elderly patient with taking oral frusemide, what is the priority of nursing action?
a) Assess the skin turgor
b) Note intake and output
27) What type of the drip is to be given before blood transfusion?
a) D/W
b) D/S
c) N/S
28) In case of acute meningitis first line of treatment is
a) Start treatment as early as possible
b) Reduce temperature with nursing measures
c) Provide a calm environment
d) Record TPR half hourly
29) In angina patient, GTN is given sublingual for
a) To reduce muscle spasm
b) As a coronary vasodilation
c) Increase BP
30) IV Amikacin 250mg diluted with 100 mls N/S, drop factor 60 over 1 hr to run , which drops/min have to give
a) 100 drops/min
b) 60 drops/min
c) 75 drops/min
d) 78 drops/min
31) Why GTN is given sublingually
a) Fast absorption
b) Slow absorption
c) Slow and uniform
d) Fast and uniform
32) K-3.8 mmol/l, Na-130mmol/l
a) Hypokalaemia
b) Hyperkalaemia
c) Hyponatremia
d) Hypernatremia
33) K-5.8 mmol/l, nurse’s action
a) Immediate inform doctor
b) KCl replacement
c) File it in case notes
d) Inform doctor later when they come to review the patient
34) Which drug enhance cardiac contractibility
a) Digoxin
b) Captopril
c) Hydralazine
d) Propranolol

SNB OLD QUESTIONS

QUESTIONS RELATED WITH GASTRO-INTESTINAL SYSTM

1. Impacted gall stone in which area cause jaundice
(a) Cystic duct
(b)Hepatic duct
 (c) Common bile dust
(d)Gall bladder
2. Acute appendicitis emergency except
(a) Obtain consent
(b)Nothing by mouth
(c) I/V drip
(d)Enema ( prevent from injury or perforation on appendix)
3. Appendectomy complication
(a) Peritonitis
(b)Bleeding
(c) Chronic appendicitis
4. One of the initial symptoms of oesophogeal tumor
(a) Difficulty in swallowing of solid food
(b)Projectile vomiting
(c) Bleeding
(d)Hoarse voice
5. Malena means bleeding from
(a) Esophagus
(b) Stomach
(c) Colon
(d) Liver
6. Name with complication of intestinal obstruction
(a) Peritonitis and nausea
(b)Nausea and vomiting
(c) Peritonitis and perforation
7. The early complication of tonsillectomy is
(a) Infection
(b)Pneumonia
(c) Hemorrhage ( hemrge if child swallows frequently )
8. In severe gastroenteritis, NAHCO3 given via IV is to treat
(a) Hyponatremia
(b) Hypocalcaemia
(c) Acidosis
(d) Alkalosis
9. Following abdominal surgery, abdominal distension is caused by
(a) Excessive air in the intestine
(b)Paralytic ileum
(c) Constipation
 (d)Increased intestine movement
10. Causes of intestinal obstruction
(a) Congenital hereditary
(b)Hereditary abdominal injury
(c) Ca stomach, Ca colon

EENT&ENDO& GLANDULAR SYSTME

1. What is the cause of hypoxia after subtotal throidectomy?
(a) Damage to the parathyroid gland
(b) Thyroid crisis
(c) Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
(d) Formation of haematoma leading airway obstruction
2. Iodine is the prime important in the formation of
(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Adrenalin
(c) Bone
(d) Thyroxin
35) What is the signs and symptoms of hyperglycaemia?
a) Extreme thirst, passing urine more frequently, tremor and dizziness
b) Loss of appetite, weight loss,
c) Tremor Dizziness Feeling hot Confusion,Sweating Tiredness
d) Anxiety Difficulty speaking Nausea Inability to concentrate Palpitations

36) How is the procedure to clean the eye?

a) Outer to inner

HAEMATOLOGICAL DISORDER
1. In a leukemia child, skin become bruises is caused by
(a) Absence of factor VIII
(b) Low platelet count (N-200-500x10 /L) --- high risk of bleeding
(c) Low Hb count
(d) Raised WBC count
2. In haemodialysis except
(a) Basic and blood
(b) Removal of waste product from blood
 (c) Decrease BUN and creatinine
(d) Increase urine out put
3. If the pt’s prothrombin time is 30 sec, you need to watch
(a) Insomnia
(b) Haematuria
(c) Articardia
(d) Inflammation
4. Patient’s blood chemistry result (K+ 3.0 mmol/l) means
(a) Hypokalemia
(b) Hypocalcemia
(c) Hyperkalaemia
(d) Hypercalcemia
5. Above patient main complaint
(a) Numbness
(b) Weak in lower limb muscle
(c) Tremor severe cramp
6. Pt’s K+ 3.8 and Ca+ 130
(a) Hypocalcaemia
(b) Hypercalcaemia
(c) Hyperkalemia
(d) Hypokalemia
37) What is the action of the donor and recipient blood incompatibility?
a) Allergic reaction
b) Haemolytic reaction
c) Anaphylatic reaction

INFECTION
1. Name the commonest type of micro organism in septicemia
(a) Pseudomonas & Escherichia coli
(b) Streptococcus & pseudomonas
(c) Staphylococcus & streptococcus
(d) Streptococcus & Escherichia coli
( I thought staphylococcus MRSA is more commom)
2. Hepatitis B is transmitted by
(a) Blood
(b) Food
(c) Saliva
 (d) Skin contact
3. Hepatitis A is transmitted by
(a) Blood
(b) Food ( oral fecal route)
(c) Saliva
(d) Skin contact
3.

38) Hepatitis B is transmitted by

a) Poor personal hygiene
b) Body fluids
c) Inhalation
d) Contaminated water and food

39) Moist sterilization is carried out by

a) Hot oven
b) Autoclave
c) Gas
d) Flaming

40) Sterilization means

a) Free from all bacteria, fungus, virus
b) Free from pathogenic, non pathogenic including spores.
c) Free from all pathogenic organisms including spores.
d) Free from all normal flora

41) How to discard the used needles?

a) Recap and discard into the sharp box.
b) Recap and discard into the general waste.
c) Discard directly into the sharp box.
d) Ask someone to discard directly into the sharp box.
42) Hospital infection is also known as
a) Nosocomial infection
b) Epidermic
c) Droplet infection
43) Sterilization method is using
a) Moist heat
b) Dry heat
c) Intra red light
d) –
44) Sterilization is free from
a) Bacteria
b) Bacteria & virus
c) Virus& spores
d) Bacteria, virus& spores
45) To prevent infection transmission by maintaining good skin integrity is eliminate
a) Portal of entry
b) Mode of transmission
c) Mode of existence
46) Wound swab should be taken
a) After clean thoroughtly
b) Before seeing by doctor
c) After giving antibiotic
d) Before dressing
47) The best way of infection control in the hospital is
a) Hand washing between attending patients
b) Hand washing before contacting the patient

SNB OLD QUESTIONS

QUESTIONS RELATED WITH NEUROLO-MUSCULAR SYSTM

1. A child with epilepsy is advised not to
(a) Participate in exercise
(b) Cycling alone (prevent from injury)
(c) Take cold food / drinks
2. The amputated stump is bandaged with a pressure bandage for weeks after surgery for a purpose of
(a) Prevent infection
(b) Prevent hemorrhage (immediate after surgery)
(c) Molding the stump for better prosthetic fit
3. In personality disorder, all these will be there except
(a) Mood change
(b) Alteration of though
(c) Alteration of memories

SNB OLD QUESTIONS

QUESTIONS RELATED WITH NURSING PROCEDURE

1. How to promote a patient to get comfortable sleep except
(a) Give cold drink ( if cold, can get colic pain)
(b) Comfortable position
(c) Bladder empty
(d) Recommended sleeping drug
2. Nurse assessment in incompactable blood transfusion
(a) Allergic reaction
(b) Haemolytic reaction
(c) Increase in temperature
3. For IV site pain, nurse will check
 (a) Allergic reaction
(b) IV infiltration
(c) IV drip calculation
(d) Thrombosis
4. Nurse highest priority in burn pt
(a) To check weight
(b) To calculate IVfluid
(c) To assess body surface area
5. Which is the best position to prevent increase intracranial pressure for a head injury patient also suffering from
shock?
(a) Flat with head lower than the baby
(b) Elevate pt’s head
(c) Flat with lower extremities higher than the body level ( if shock only, lower the head. If increase ICP
only, elevate head to 30’)
(d) Line flat
6. What is the normal BP for 1 year child?
(a) 70-100 / 50-70
(b) 60-90 /55-60
(c) 65-95 /55-65
(d) 65-60 /50-60
7. Giving sitz bath after haemorrhoridectomy is to reduce pain and
(a) Reduce hemorrhage
(b) Promote bowel movement
(c) Promote healing
8. To prevent unconscious patient from complication of respiratory tract
(a) Side lying (prevent aspiration of secretion)
(b) Head tilt, chin lift
(c) Head tilt
(d) Jaw lift
9. The nurse highest priority for new born with cleft palate and cleft lip
(a) To feed new born ( nutrition)
(b) To concern with parental anxiety
10. The appropriate time for surgery for child with cleft palate
(a) 1-2months
(b) First 4 days
(c) 2-6month
(d) After 1 year
11. Nutritional needs of child with cleft palate &cleft lip
 (a) Spoon feed in sitting position
(b) Parental route
(c) R/T feed
(d) TPN
12. List 2 indicators for TURP
(a) Prostate megaly and Ca prostate
(b) Urinary incontinence and Ca bladder
(c) Urethral stricture
(d) Dribbling of urine
13. A patient undergone spinal anesthesia should be nursed in
(a) Prone position
(b) Supine (for at least 6 hrs) position
(c) Lateral position
(d) Semi-prone position
14. Following tonsillectomy pt should be nursed in
(a) Supine position
(b) Semi prone ( to prevent aspiration)
(c) Fowler’s
(d) Trendelenburg
15. The maintenance of flow in drainage system is done by
(a) Ensuring adequate length in tubing
(b) Close observation of nature of flow
(c) Ensuring adequate vacuum in the bottle
16. The following can delay wound healing except
(a) Steroid therapy
(b) Anemia
(c) Ambulation ( good circulation)
(d) Infection
17. The indicatives sign of hemorrhage following surgery
(a) Increase in pulse rate and BP
(b) Abdominal discomfort and pain
(c) Pallor & warm skin
(d) Progressive blood stained in the drainage
18. The following nursing care would be implemented for neonate except
(a) Maintain body temperature
(b) Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
(c) Promote early ambulation ( neonate is less than 1 month old, cant ambulate)
(d) Provide medical and surgical asepsis
19. Effective measure of stop bleeding palm
(a) Direct pressure on the wound
(b) Elevate the affected hand
20. Long time bed rest for heart failure pt, the main objective is to
(a) Reduce heart work load
(b) Promote blood circulation
(c) Increase cardiac contraction
21. How to prevent air not to go into baby’s stomach
(a) Expel air by rubbing back
(b) Teat of bottle filled with milk at all time
22. T tube is an after CBD surgery or for drainage of
(a) Bile
(b) Blood
(c) Pus
(d) Lymph
23. Rotation of insulin site to prevent
(a) Thickening of skin
(b) Skin infection
(c) Effect of insulin
24. Severe tissue damage needs
(a) Primary management
(b) Secondary management
(c) Tertiary management
(d) All of the above
25. The best time for self breast examination
(a) During ovulation time
(b) One week after menstruation
(c) One week before menstruation
26. The purpose of Pep smears
(a) Primary prevention
(b) Health promotion
(c) Secondary prevention
(d) Tertiary prevention
27. Unconscious pt found on road after accident, highest priority of nurse
(a) Assess of neck injury
(b) Pt air way
(c) Assess for bleeding
28. If unable to get IV line in collapse, epinephrine can be given
 (a) Intra-cardiac
(b) Endotracheal tube
(c) Intra-tracheal tube
29. Arm burn patient, need to do first
(a) Immediate dip in cold water
(b) Apply hydrocortisone cream
(c) Apply antibiotic cream
30. Unconscious patient, coughing & chocking nursed in
(a) Supine position
(b) Sit up
(c) Side lying
(d) Small pillow under abdomen
31. CPR rescue, air blowing: compression
(a ) 1:5
(b) 1:10
(c) 2:30
32. Nursing care for the relatives of a patient who die
(a) Leave him alone
(b) Refer to psychiatric
(c) Listen and accept it as a part of the living process
33. S/C injection, needle inserted
(a) 30’
(b) 45’
(c) 90’
(d) 15’ 45’ for thin and emaciated patient
34. IM injection given on the thigh, which muscle
(a) Ventrogluteal m/s
(b) Deltoid m/s
(c) Dersogluteal m/s
(d) Vastus lateralis
35. If give more than 2ml of IM inj: which m/s should use
(a) Gluteus medius
(b) Deltoid m/s
(c) Vastus lateralis
(d) Dersogluteal m/s
36. Technique of cleaning wound
(a) From surrounding skin to the wound
(b) From outer part to inner part of wound
 (c) From least contaminated to most contaminated area
37. Nurse must instruct pt who undergoes colostomy and removal of polyp to
(a) Wait for1 week to resume activity
(b) Wait for 1 day to resume activity
(c) After 48 hrs if there is no bleeding can resume activity
(d) Increase dietary fiber and fluid intake
38. Pre operation management of ruptured appendicitis
(a) Administer antibiotics
(b) Administer antipyretic
(c) Administer analgesic
(d) Administer I/V drip
39. Reason for taking vital signs and observing color of post operation patient
(a) Internal hemorrhage
(b) Respiratory status
40. Management in tension pneumothorax
(a) Chest tube insertion
(b) Thoracotomy
41. Positioning after hip arthroplasty
(a) Abduction of both legs
(b) Adduction of both legs
(c) Extended rotation of affected leg
42. Before skeletal traction, pt must be assessed for
(a) Muscle tone
(b) Skin integrity
(c) Mobility
(d) Neurovascular
43. Weights attached in traction must be
(a) Hanging freely
(b) Lie on bed
(c) Touch to the floor
44. Ileal conduit is to
(a) Drain faces
(b) Drain urine
(c) Drain bilirubin
45. Baby with inperforate anus, nurse observe
(a) Mucus with stool
(b) Absence of muconium
46. Pt with closed head injury, watches for
 (a) Cerebral edema ( increase ICP)
(b) Hypertension
(c) Bleeding
(d) Pain
47. Baby with inperforate anus, nurse observe
(a) Mucus with stool
(b) Absence of muconium
48. Pt with closed head injury, watches for
(a) Cerebral edema ( increase ICP)
(b) Hypertension
(c) Bleeding
(d) Pain
49. Healthy stoma
(a) Pinky and moist
(b) Pale skin
(c) Blue skin
50. If the patient c/o pain after TURP, what action should be taken by nurse
(a) Given analgesic
(b) Inform Dr
(c) Check patency of catheter
51. Primary aim to psychiatric patient in the hospital
(a) Discharge early
(b) Promote institutional care
(c) Ability to cope with life dependently
52. Patient with shock, body counteract by
(a) Vasoconstriction
(b) Vasodilatation
53. Pt with UTI diagnosis can be confirmed by
(a) Excessive bacteria in urine, dysuria with fever
(b) Haematuria
(c) Anuria
(d) Urine examination
54. While taking history of patient with hemorrhoid, nurse should ask for
(a) Long standing
(b) Diet habit
(c) Bleeding, bowel and dietary habit
55. Communicated # mean
(a) #more than one piece of bone
56. In early period of pregnancy, what can cause congenital cataract for child
(a) Rubella
(b) DM
57. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) patient should avoid
(a) Aggressive physiotherapy
(b) Coughing
58. Asthma can be distinguished from COPD which is
(a) Narrowing of air way (bronchoconstriction)
(b) Bronchodilator
(c) Can be cause by UTI
(d) Hyper secretion
59. Hypovolumic shock, primary nursing
(a) Hydrating with water
(b) Prevent shock with colloid
(c) Given vasodilatation
60. In communication with elderly patient, nurse should stand
(a) Face to face
(b) Sitting in 45
(c) Sitting in 30
(d) Standing near to the side
61. To prevent aspiration in NGT feeding
(a) Check residual volume
(b) Insert big tube
(c) Give bolus feeding
(d) Give continuous feeding
62. All these can be done for epilepsy patient except
(a) Restrain arms
(b) Turn pt’s head to the side
(c) Safe environment
(d) Maintain airway
63. How do you give cricoids pressure (ETT)
(a) Upward & back ward
(b) Down ward & back ward
(c) Press on Adam’s apple
64. The patient was stabbed in chest and came to A&E ,BP 100/60 mmHg ,HR 96/min and RR 40/min. You must put
him in
(a) Foot end raised
(b) Semi fowler’s position
 (c) Prone
(d) Recumbent
65. For above situation, first priority
(a) Chest tube insertion
(b) Lobotomy
(c) O2 inhalation
(d) CVP insertion
66. Above procedure should be concluded
(a) Interments low suction
(b) Under water seal
(c) CVP reading
67. During peritoneal dialysis, patient’s position
(a) Prone
(b) Semi recumbent
(c) Supine
(d) Upright
68. 2 nurse rescue breathing (2 men CPR)
(a) 12/min
(b) 16/min
(c) 18/min
(d) 20/min
69. Post loprotomy wound burst, 1st action
(a) Inform Dr
(b) Cover with sterile gauze with warm saline
(c) Inform OT
(d) Diathermy the bleeding point
70. During operation following response occurs due to surgical stress
(a) Increase heart rate
(b) Decrease heart rate
(c) Increase renal function
80. Post laboratory 6th day, patient’s wound burst when he cough, nurse notice
(a) Serious fluid comes out from the edge of wound
(b) Slight red blood comes out from the edge of wound
81. PU with acute bleeding, Dr ordered
(a) Saline lavage
(b) Antacid
(c) Continue milk drink
(d) Gastroscopy
82. 3rd day of post laboratory, nurse expect the following electrolyte loss
(a) Na
(b) K
(c) Ca
83. How to prepare the skin to give s/c insulin
(a) Clean the skin using alcohol swab &ask pt to blow to dry skin
(b) Gently pick the skin over the site of needle
84. why illeostomy whited
(a) Circulation
(b) Injection
(c) Necrosis
85. The best time for teaching, coughing exercise before operation
(a) 1 week before operation
(b) Just before opt
(c) In afternoon of opt:
86. Preoperation, 6 persons section is explained about procedure, for which reason
(a) To manage in less time
(b) To promote post operation recovery
(c) For routine regulation
87. Post operation with general Anesthesia, position
(a) Tredelenberg
(b) Supine
(c) Lateral
(d) High fowler’s
88. Gastrectomy post opts: gradually increased food intake, why?
(a) Dumping syndrome
89. KCL drip given slowly &consciously
(a) Not to get cardiac arrest
90. Post operation patient transfer from OT to ward, 1st priority care
(a) Check Dr’s post opts; order
(b) Check gag reflex (air way patency)
(c) Check wound
(d) Check position
91. Complication of IM injection
(a) Sciatic nerve injury
(b) Wound abscess
92. Reason for pressure dressing after operation
(a) To prevent edema & haematoma
 (b) To concell wound
(c) To prevent infection
(d) Protect from trauma
93. The best indications for renal failure & Glumerulo filtration are
(a) BUN& Urine out put
(b) Creatine & urine output
94. Obese female pt; with cholescysitis, going for operation, Dr want to reduce her body weight, nurse tell her
(a) You will feel better after you reduce body weight
(b) Don’t worry after opt: you will be fine
(c) If reduce weight, you will reduce getting post opt: discomfort
95. Prescribed Ranitidine dose of 225mg On hand, you have 150mg/tab, how many tab: should be given?
(a) 0.5tab
(b) 1 tab
(c) 1.5tab
(d) 2 tab
96. The client is to receive 1l of I/V Dextrose & 2L of I/V N/S for 24 hour. But I/V set delivers 20 drop/min.The
drip rate should be set at
(a) 42 drop/min
(b) 60 drop/min
(c) 32 drop/min
(d) 20 drop/min
97. Level of consciousness should be assessed by
(a) Orientate time, place and person
(b) Pain stimuli
(c) Seeing pupil
98. Neonate diaphragram hernia, a nurse should observe
(a) Moro’s reflex
(b) Respiratory distress
(c) Sucking ability
(d) Cyanosis
99. To get consent valid for operation with solid mind
(a) Pt with solid mind
(b) Avant with schizophrenia
(c) Avnt of 3 years girl
100. Post operative complication can be minimized by
(a) Daily dressing
(b) Monitor vital sign
(c) Early ambulation
 (d) Provide plenty of H2O
101. The effective method for preventing and treating complication of post surgery is
(a) Encourage pt to cough
(b) Advice pt to inspire as be could
(c) Advise pt to do deep breathing
102. Health education to the post operative hemorrhoid pt on discharge is
(a) Advise to drink water 1L/day
(b) Advise to change job
(c) Advise to take 5 types of fruits & high fiber diet
103. For suctioning, you have to choose the size of the catheter is because
(a) To remove secretion easily
(b) To prevent hypoxia and trauma to mucosa
(c) To fit the tracheotomy tube
104. Amikacin 250mg dilute with normal saline 100mls. The drop factor is 1ml=60drops ,during one hour has to
finish. Calculate drops/min
(a) 16/min
(b) 50/min
(c) 100/min
(d) 250/min
105. Desired does 0.0625mg/l, in hand is 0.25mg/l, calculate the amount
(a) 0.25
(b) 1.25
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.05
106. Patient receiving O2 at 3Lvia nasal prong is receiving
(a) 10-21 % O2
(b) 20-30
(c) 40-45
(d) 50-60
107. By giving humidified O2
(a) Loosen thick mucous
(b) Maintain adequate humidity to respiratory passage
108. In a burn pt, extensive tissue loss is healed by
(a) Primary intervention
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All of the above
108. Applying pressure on the cricoids process during ETT insertion is to
 (a) Prevent the ETT to go out of place
(b) Minimize bleeding
(c) Avoid pneumothorax
(d) Control spontaneous coughing
109. In your stock inj: Heparin 5000IU. If you need to give 3000IU to pt, how much do you need to withdrawal?
(a) 0.6 ml
(b) 1 ml
(c) 0.5 ml
(d) 1.5 ml
110. Care of the curved tracheostomy, main purpose is
(a) To prevent wound infection
(b) To maintain patency of air way
(c) To give O2 via tracheostomy tube
(d) Thorough hand washing need to do care
111. For S/C insulin inj to avoid
(a) Buttock
(b) Abdominal wall
(c) Upper arm
(d) Thigh
112. Which of the following is use for cleaning of tracheostomy wound?
(a) NaCl
(b) Chlorhexidine
(c) Antiseptic solution
(d) Hydrogen perioxide
113. Tracheotomy done immediately after operation because of
(a) Nasogastric feeding
(b) Mechanical ventilation
(c) Radiotherapy
(d) To suck secretion easily
114. Mr. Roy, 20 M is admitted with fit and airway obstruction, put oral airway inappropriate nursing measure for
this pt is
(a) Remove airway when pt; got response
(b) Fix oral airway with tape
(c) Suction
(d) Allow him to split out the airway when become conscious
115. Mr. Royya admitted with Peptic ulcer and acute bleeding, which one is immediate nursing measure?
(a) Administer ranitidine
(b) Administer antacid
 (c) Prepare for gastroscopy
(d) Milk feeding should be continued
116. The PU pt is treated with Cimetidine, which is for
(a) To reduce gastric motility
(b) To inhibit gastric acid secretion
117. Post opt pt, what is the reason for giving pressure dressing?
(a) Concelled incisional wound
(b) Prevent outside infection contaminated to wound
(c) Protect from trauma
(d) Prevent edema and haematoma
118. The post opt: is passing frequency of urine with little amount. What the first action that the nurse should take?
(a) Check bladder distension
(b) Send urine for culture
(c) Inform Dr immediately
(d) Give diuretics
119. Position for infant CPR is
(a) Supine with neutral neck position
(b) Supine with hyper extended neck position
(c) Lateral with slight extended neck position
120. Pt is on 30% O2, will be nursed with
(a) Nasal canula
(b) Venti mask
(c) Trachy mask
121. which one is an effective coughing method?
(a) Deep breathing after coughing
(b) Hold incision wound and cough
122. Mr. Wu is admitted with dyspnea and severe chest pain. For 12leads ECG, you have to place V2 lead on
(a) 4th intercostals space, mid clavicle line in left sternal region
(b) 4th intercostals space ,mid clavicle line in right sternal region
123. When the sound is alarmed during Mr. is in ICU, your first priority to do is
(a) Silence the alarmed sound
(b) Elevated the head of pt
(c) Check the pt position
(d) Check the connection (dislodgement) of the electrodes
124. The first aid to stop nose bleeding is
(a) Press just above the nasal bone
(b) Press just below the nasal bone
(c) Plug with sterile gauze
 (d) Block the nose
125. 14 year old, Wong was admitted for perforative tempanic membrane. Your advise for his discharge care should
be
(a) To blow the nose daily
(b) To keep clean and dry
(c) To sleep on the affected side
(d) To do ear syringing daily
126. Contraindication to do central stimulation (neurological pain assessment) to check unconsciousness of the pt:
who is suffering from severe facial injury is
(a) Supraorbital pressure
(b) Sternal rub
(c) Trapezium muscle squeeze
127. The initial assessment before applying skeletal traction will be
(a) Skin assessment
(b) Neuromuscular assessment
(c) Daily assessment of vital signs
128. The advantage of percutaneous endoscopic feeding is
(a) Save economically
(b) Prevent frequent aspirations
(c) Need to change every month only
(d) Not easily dislodged
129. When performing eye care, you have to clean the eye from
(a) Outer canthus to inner canthus
(b) Inner canthus to outer canthus
(c) Medial canthus to inner canthus
(d) Upper lid to lower lid
130. Situation: Mr. Toh was admitted for acute asthmatic attack into your ward. Dr ordered nebulization therapy and
monitoring of peak flow meter. Which situation will you use to dissolve the medication for the nebulization
therapy?
(a) Sodium chloride0.4%
(b) Sodium chloride0.9%
(c) Dextrose solution
(d) Sterile water for injection
131. Cold and non-isotonic solution wed in nebulizer can cause
(a) Bronchospasms
(b) Vasodilatation
(c) Bronchoconstriction
(d) Hypotension
132. You have to instruct Mr. Toh during monitoring of flow meter is
(a) To exhale slowly for 2-3 sec
(b) To hold and seal the pipe with mouth tightly and blow
(c) To place the meter the highest mark
133. Monitoring of peck flow meter means
(a) Expiration of the air after maximum lung infection
(b) Inspiration and exhalation of the lung
(c) Expiration of the air after normal lung inflation
134. Metered dose inhaler means giving medication inhale
(a) The lung through penetration
(b) Nasal congestion
135. Giving ventolin nebulization therapy, you will not see the following adverse effect.
(a) Tremor
(b) Palpitation
(c) Tachycardia
(d) Hypotension
136. Yeast infection is the common complication in the use of betamethasone inhaler, It can be prevented by except
(a) Mouth wash
(b) Use a spacer
(c) Application of antifungal lotion
(d) Brush teeth
137. After post op; management for the pt: who underwent above knee amputation will be
(a) Nurse in elevation of the affected leg
(b) Nurse in reversed trendelengburg position
(c) Nurse in head elevation
138. If a pt; is suspected for increased intracranial pressure, the earliest signs and symptoms will be
(a) Tachycardia, increase systolic pressure and widening of pulse
(b) Bradycardia, increase systolic pressure and widening of pulse
(c) Tachycardia, decrease pressure
139. The best place to do pulse oximetery for severe hypovolumic shock pt is
(a) Ear lobe
(b) Finger
(c) Toe
140. The best indication for removal of chest tube will be confirmed by
(a) Return of normal breathing
(b) Absence of adventious sound
(c) Absence of drainage in the tubing
(d) Checking of serve of radiological results
141. Pt complained of chest pain having pericarditis. In which position you will nurse
(a) Lying down
(b) Lean forwarded position
(c) Side lying position
142. If I/v cannula failed, which medication can be given by intratracheal route?
(a) Atropine, Lidocane and Adrenaline
(b) Atropine, Sodium bicarbonate and Adrenaline
(c) Lidocaine, Potassium chloride
(d) Xylocaine, Sodium bicarbonate and Adrenaline
143. One of the disadvantage of skeletal traction is
(a) Potential for infection
(b) Rotation of the limb
(c) Mobility of the pt
(d) Ability to withstand heavy weights
144. Weight applied to traction should be
(a) Removed when procedure is being performed
(b) Pulled at all time
(c) Rested on bed and floor
145. You have to avoid holding in the armpit of weaked side of paralyse pt: to prevent
(a) Ease of transferring
(b) Sub-laxation of the affected limb
(c) Fracture of the affected limb
146. Banding of the ampatutated leg first several weeks is to help
(a) To prevent bleeding
(b) To mold for the fixation of artificial limb
147. To do oropharyngeal airway insertion, you have to measure the length from
(a) Corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
(b) Corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
(c) Lip of the nose to the lobe of the ear
(d) Centre of the mouth to the ear
148. Assessment for the neutropenia pt is
(a) Gastrointestininal, skin and urine
(b) Gastrointestininal, skin and lung
(c) Urine, lung and mucous membrane
(d) Urine, lung and skin
149. Post ;op teaching in pt with sinus operation
(a) Breathe through the mouth
(b) Tell him to remove the nasal plug
150. Nursing action for Esophageal reflex disease is
(a) Give antibiotic as ordered
(b) Elevate the leg
(c) Give milk before going to sleep
151. TURP irrigation purpose
(a) To prevent blood clot blockage
152. Terminally ill pt, using action is
(a) Dignity
(b) Nutrition
153. Primary defense mechanism is
(a) Intact skin and mucous membrane
(b) Non-intact skin and mucous membrane
(c) Bones and tons
154. For vomiting pt nurse will
(a) Turn pt head
(b) Turn pt to one side
(c) Supine position
155. Post op, nurse noticed blood stained profuse, 1st action
(a) apply direct pressure on surgical wound
(b) inform Dr
(c) Reinforce wound dressing with elastic plaster
(d) Clean the wound and change dressing
156. Nurse reassured pt; who is on cardiac monitoring machine except
(a) moving around reduced dislodgement of electrodes will alarm
(b) Let him move freely in bed and out
157. Sterization is free from except
(a) Bacteria
(b) Spore
(c) Micro virus
(d) Fungus
158. Transferring pt is on chest tube from bed to chair, first action is
(a) To place bottle higher than pt’s shoulder
(b) To place bottle lower than tube site
(c) To clamp the chest tube
(d) To let move pt freely
159. Nurse will know sign of air leaking in chest tube pt by
(a) No bubble in bottle
(b) Water flatulence on inspiration and expiration
 (c) Bubble on inspiration
(d) Bubble continuously on inspiration and expiration
160. The reason of applying backslap for pt who has # radius & ulna is
(a) To immobile the hand
(b) To stabilize and immobile the fracture site
(c) To support the whole hand
161. Above pt will be reassured
(a) Not to come out of bed
(b) Not to let the cast wet the cast wet and keep it dry as possible
162. Nurse Pt above pt with backslaps to be completed with
(a) Slang to support hand/affected
(b) Put the affected hand on pillow all the time
(c) Manual traction at the waist 1-2 hour per day
163. during peritoneal dialysis, which position should be placed?
(a) Semi-Folwer
(b) Supine
(c) Semi-recumbent
164. How will you remove foreign body from ear?
(a) Syringing
(b) Using artery forcep
165. Giving ventilation in CPR, the causality will get air
(a) 200-600/min
(b) 500-800/min
(c) 500-1000/min
166. Before putting the skeletal traction, patient must be assessed for
(a) Muscle tone
(b) Skin integrity
(c) Mobility
(d) Neurovascular
167. Weight attached in traction should be
(a) Hanging freely
(b) Lie on bed
168. Foot care for DM pt is
(a) Daily wash of foot and proper fitting shoes
(b) Immerse foot in hot water for 20 mins daily
169. Condition when air enter pleural space of lung and unable to escape is referred to as
(a) Spontaneous pneumothorax
(b) Tension pneumothorax
 (c) Close pneumothorax
(d) Open pneumothorax
170. Mr.Tan is currently on chemotherapy.His latest laboratory report indicates WBC-3000mm3.The priority for nursing
intervention for care plan is to
(a) Protect from infection
(b) Protect from stressful situation
(c) Prevent dehydration
171. Hyperthyroid person is observed to be
(a) Restless and agitated
(b) Cold and clammy skin
(c) Anorexia and constipation
172. Platelet is administered
(a) Immediately after arrival
(b) 4 hrs later
(c) Anytime
173. The following complication of head injury demand surgery except
(a) Skull #
(b) Subdural haemorrhage
(c) Extradural haemorrhage
(d) Intracranial haemorrhage
174. If post-op pt’s vital signs are changed suddenly,the nurse should do
(a) To check wound dressing
(b) To inform Dr.
175. Which case need to prevent from fall down>
(a) Disorientation and confusion
(b) Febrile pt
(c) Afebrile pt
176. When pt came to A&E with chest injury and pneumothorax after car accident, the first thing is to
(a) Take CXR
(b) Check vital signs
(c) Give painkiller
(d) insert chest tube
177. During suction, how long will you insert the suction catheter
(a) 5-6 cm
(b) 6-10 cm
(c) 10-15 cm
(d) 15- 20 cm
178. Before suction through the tracheotomy tube, what the nurse doesn’t need to do
 (a) Position the pt
(b) Elevate the head of the bed
(c) Ask to cough vigorously
(d) Hyperventilate the pt
179. During care, tracheotomy tube suddenly dislodged, 1st action is
(a) Inform Dr
(b) Cover with sterile gauze
(c) Use the tracheodilator & open the tracheotomy
(d) Prepare for tracheotomy tube insertion
180. Patient was prescribed beta blocker hypertensive, what need to remind him
(a) Check pulse rat e frequently
(b) Not to stand up immediately
(c) Suggest to stay lie down position
181. Neonate diaphragmatic hernia, observe for
(a) Moro’s reflex
(b) Respiratory distress
(c) Sucking ability
182. What is the advice for patient after inguinal hernia repair
(a) Apply hot compress for relief
(b) Avoid lifting heavy objects

48) What is the patient’s position when you perform rectal examination?
a) Supine
b) Left lateral
c) Right lateral
d) Lithotomy

49) Which one is the action to promote defecation?

a) Diclofenac
b) Ducolax
c) Milk of Magnesium
d) Liquid paraffin
50) Why do people abstain from eating except
a) Cultural
b) Religious
c) Ethic
d) Social economic
51) Four hours later, patient complains of pain after post-op abdominal surgery. The nurse should do
a) Giving O2
b) Keep in comfortable position
c) To give water
d) To inform surgeon

52) The contraindications of taking temperature by oral are as followed except

a) Child under age of 4
b) Patient with oral surgery
c) Patient with history of epilepsy
d) Elderly patient

53) When you speak to the patient with hearing impairment, you should better to communicate by
a) Asking the family members to stay and translate
b) Sitting face to face and talking with action
c) Using communication booklet
d) Standing aside.

54) Which patient is not needed to record fluid intake and output
a) Patient with Nausea and vomiting
b) Patient with Diarrhoea and vomiting
c) Patient with renal problem
d) Patient undergoing aesthetic surgery

55) A patient is admitted to hospital with intestinal obstruction. Why do you insert the R/T?
a) To aspirate gastric contents
b) To give oral medication
c) To release abdominal pressure
d) To detect the site of obstruction.

56) A child with fever 37.9C is admitted. What should the nurse do
a) Inform S/N and give cold compress.
b) Inform S/N and give tapid sponging.
57) What is the important of post-op during 24 hours?
58) Which patients need to prevent from falling?
a) Confusion
b) Disorientation
59) What is the aim to do blood culture?
a) To choice antibiotic
b) To choice the effectiveness of antibiotics
60) Why urine specimen sent to laboratory urgently?
a) Ward environment do not like to keep long time
b) Microorganisms can grow very fast in urine
 c) None of above
61) When feeding patient, the patient got coughing, difficulty in swallowing, what should the nurse do?
a) Tell the patient to eat slowly
b) Stop feeding and inform to S/N
62) What is the important thing to assess the patient with POP at right arm?
a) Circulation
b) Vital Signs
c) Color of POP
63) When cleaning the wound have granulating tissue, you have to use
a) Normal Saline
b) Eusol
c) Chlorhexidine solution
d) Povidone Iodine
64) Where to keep the patient with meningitis
a) Cold, quiet, calm and dim light room
b) Near the window, can get the sunlight
65) How to communicate with the patient whose hearing impair
a) Ask the family to stay and translate for you
b) Stay face to face with him and talk loudly and show action
66) How to do skin preparation for operation?
67) Patient with breathing difficulty advised following position
a) Prone position
b) Lateral position
c) Sitting up position
d) Supine position
68) By starting CPR, we will check the carotid pulse for
a) 1 min
b) 2 sec
c) 5-10 sec
d) 10-20 sec
69) While taking rectal temperature of an infant, we should keep the thermometer for
a) 1 min
b) 2 min
c) 3 min
d) 4 min
70) While caring a female patient to prevent infection of anal canal to vagina, we should clean from
a) Front to back
b) Back to front
c) Sprinkle water
d) Wipe with soft tissue
71) A patient admitted with severe dehydration and he is on parentral or oral therapy. For him a nurse should keep
a) Accurate record of IV intake
b) Accurate record of oral intake
c) Accurate record of intake and output
72) First aid for burn is
a) Apply antibiotic cream
b) Apply Vaseline
c) Dip in cold water
73) After surgery if patient is not passing urine for 12 hours, a nurse should do
a) Catheterize the patient
b) Call the doctor
c) Try with nursing measures
74) Immediately after amputation tight fit dressing is
a) To prevent bleeding
b) Prevent infection
c) To promote stamp ovex
75) While vomiting to prevent choking, we should
a) Turn the patient to one side
b) Turn head to one side
c) Aspirate with suction tube
d) Insert RT
76) When patient is in shock, immediate action is
a) Elevate the foot end
b) Cover with warm clothes
c) Check the BP
d) Give IV fluids
77) Before removing the indwelling catheter check
a) Patency of the catheter
b) Clamp the catheter before removing
c) Deflate the bulb properly
78) During an epileptic attack, nurse should take important action is
a) Keep airway
b) Prevent injury
c) Restrain the patient
d) Preventing choking
79) While feeding an elderly patient,
a) We should cut the food in small pieces
b) Give propped up position while feeding
c) Give soft and easily digested food
80) Prevent air entry of an infant while bottle-feeding is
a) Bopping after feed
b) Mouth completely filled with tilt of the bottle
81) For the better result of suppository, a nurse should
a) Allow the patient to introduce himself
b) Introduce beyond the anal sphincter
c) Tell the patient to hold for some time
82) After giving the injection, the needle should
a) Blunt and throw
b) Recap and put in the container
c) Immediately without recapping put into the sharp container
83) First aid for a cut plum is
a) Apply pressure to the pressure point
b) Apply direct pressure to digital part of wound
c) Elevate the hand
d) Tie tourniquet on the radial
84) Level of consciousness of an unconscious patient better make out by
a) Verbal comments
b) With a painful stimulation
c) By seeing pupil
85) Patient had nausea and vomiting at 17:30, nurse should
a) Encourage patient to drink water
b) Provide oral gurgle 4 hrly
c) Advise patient easily ambulation
d) Monitor vital signs 2 hrly
86) While giving O2 ,humidifier mask is used to
a) Concentrate O2
b) Deliver 100%O2
c) Moisture O2
d) Adequate O2
87) Abdominal distension in post abdominal operation within 24 hrs is due to
a) Excessive air in the intestine
b) Paralytic ileus
 c) Constipation
d) Increased peristaltic movement
88) What is the most likely complication of prolonged tracheostomy
a) Trauma
b) Hypoxia
c) Trachea stenosis
d) Trachea necrosis
89) One of the major fear of a dying patient
a) Distorted and left alone to die
b) Awaken and conscious at end
c) Became addictive to drug
d) Leaving the loved ones
90) The life threatening outcome of ineffective airway clearance
a) Tachypnea
b) Dyspnea
c) Hypoxia
d) Dysphagia
91) During oro-pharangeal suctioning the nurse should apply suction
a) When patient opens his mouth
b) When patient is coughing
c) While introducing the catheter
d) While taking out the catheter
92) The range of pressure for oro-pharangeal suction in a dult patient is
a) 100-120 mmHg
b) 80-100 mmHg
c) 60-80 mmHg
d) 60-90 mmHg
93) During CPR nurse should check pulse on
a) Wrist
b) Radial
c) Neck
d) Groin
94) Which one is true statement of tapid sponging.
a) Water temperature should be 40C
b) Purpose of tapid sponging is to prevent heatloss
c) Use plenty soap and water
95) Mr Tan 50 yrs old was brought to hospital with RTA. Patient is unconscious with NGT. Before nasal feeding nurse
should check
a) Vital signs 4 hrly
b) Haemorrhage
c) Conscious level of patient
d) NGT is in correct position
96) During nasal feeding nurse notices that patient is to be coughing. Nurse should
a) Check the patient’s mouth if there is tube come out
b) Stop feeding and inform S/N immediately
c) Slow down the feeding rate
97) When providing nursing care to the patient with NGT. Nurse will
a) Attend oral hygiene
b) Change the tube everyday
c) Monitor vital signs 4 hrly
98) The effective method for preventing and treating complication of post surgery is
a) Encourage patient to cough
b) Advise patient to inspire as he could
c) Advise patient to do deep breathing
99) Complications of prolonged bed rest are the following except
a) UTI
 b) Chest infection
c) Heart failure
d) Bed sore
100) Nurse should notice the symptom of the patient with POP tightness right upper limb
a) Pain at axillary joint
b) Numbness at fingers
c) Redness in the extremes
d) Pulseless sensation
101) Education to the patient with low cast plaster left leg should include
a) Complete bed rest
b) Remove the cast whenever the leg is itching
c) Not to wet the cast during bathing
102) Which position is best position for rectal examination
a) Supine
b) Left lateral
c) Dorsal recumbent
d) Prone
103) Urine specimen for C&S should be taken
a) Midstream specimen urine
b) From urinary catheter
104) The purpose of pre-operative skin preparation
a) To sterile the skin
b) To reduce bacteria
105) If you are alone and witness at epileptic attack, most important nursing role is
a) Prevent physical injury
b) Remove denture to prevent airway obstruction
c) Run to call for medical assistance
d) Stay with patient and note time, duration and nature of fit
106) Patient with chest tube is connecting with suction machine, tube have
a) Enough length allow patient to move
107) A person with poor personal hygiene with frequent loose stool is prone to
a) Haemorrhage
b) Piles
c) Tissue necrosis at perianal area
d) Anal tissue necrosis
108) Health education to the post operative haemorrhoids patient on discharge is
a) Advise to drink water 1L/day
b) Advise to change job
c) Advise to take 5 types of fruits and high fibre diet
109) Mr.Tan with spinal injury during match is admitted to ward.Patient is on indwelling catheter.For indwelling
catheter care, nurse should observe the tubing leads from the catheter in order to
a) Assess the level of consciousness
b) Place the urinary bag on the floor
c) Ensure the patency of tubing
d) Observe the growth of bacteria
110) To prevent UTI, nurse should apply during catheter care
a) Change catheter every 24 hrs
b) Bladder lavage everyday
c) Maintain sterilized method
d) Change urinary bag every week
111) While transferring Mr.Tan from bed to trolley, the urinary bag should be always
a) Place above the bladder
b) Place on the floor
c) Maintain below the level of bladder
112) The proper way of measuring the correct size oral airway
a) Corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
 b) Corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
c) Middle of the incisor to the angle of the jaw
d) Middle of the incisor to the tragus of the ear
113) The advantage of PEG tube is…except
a) Economical and convenient
b) Prevent recurrent aspiration
c) To change monthly only
d) Can’t be dislodged easily
114) The purpose of using radivac drainage bottle in patient with surgical wound
a) Adequate length
b) To drain exudates and promote wound closure
c) Vacuum and promote healing
115) Patient with right arm# came to A&E, bleeding…….hypovolemic. What is the initial sign of hypovolemic?
a) Hypotension
b) Cold & clammy skin
c) Thirst
d) Polyuria
116) When the nurse check radial pulse of above patient feel irregular pulse rate. What is the next action should be
done
a) Check apical pulse 1 full min
b) Recheck radial pulse 1 full min
117) Above patient with hypovolemic shock, appropriate action?
a) Prepare for IV access
b) Give a sip of water
c) Prepare to take blood for G&M
d) Clean the right arm wound immediately
118) Patient with lower leg cast, noted to have swollen injury
a) Warm to touch
b) Cold to touch
c) Capillary refill > 3 sec
119) Traction care….
a) To put the weight all time
120) Post arthroplasty position…..
a) Slight abduction
b) Adduction
121) Post abdominal surgery patient pass flatus in post-op 2nd day means
a) Peristaltic rehabilitation
b) Paralytic ilieus
122) S/S of renal calculi
a) Flank pain and haematuria
123) Causing osteoperosis
a) Decrease oestrogen and progesterone
124) Patient who loses his body part is getting angry and shouting….
a) Let him shout
b) Tell him this behavior is not allowed
c) Listen him and accept it as a disease process
125) Long term management for asthma patient who is going to be discharged….which is included in discharge
planning
a) Steroid therapy
b) Antibiotics
c) Health education
126) Cause cold stress in neonate….
a) Delay physical growth
b) Increased oxygen consumption
127) Post CABG patient with taking wafarin is going to be discharged. Which instruction should include to be avoided
a) Brocoli
 b) Fatty foods
c) Weight gain

128) What is the action to minimize post-operative complications?

129) The purpose of skin care to patient with diarrhea:
130) What is the factor to handle epilepsy case except?
131) Oro-pharangeal tube insertion’s purpose:
132) The first priority to perform nursing measure for this patient:
133) Will give 3L of drips to this Patient. Drop factors is 20. How many drops per minute you need to carry on?
134) If you use IV infusion pump for that patient, how many ml per hour.
135) How to keep the post-op patient of above knee amputation.
136) To prevent post- op complication of thrombus, what nursing measure have to do?
137) For Supra condyl fractured patient, what is the purpose of using cast.
138) If the patient feels itching inside the cast, what nursing measure is better to do.
139) Patient with dyspnea, using mouth to breathe, which positions is better to keep this patient.
140) Where to take the temperature----------
141) After 5 hours, patient get severe vomiting, what nursing measure is better to perform
142) The immediate treatment for acute asthma attack
143) To prevent indwelling catheter infection, the nurse have to do?
144) Stab wound at abdomen is admitted at surgical ward. The first priority of nursing measure is

RENAL DISORDER
1. Massive edema in nephrotic syndrome is partly due to
(a) Too much fluid intake
(b) Difficulty in passing urine
(c) Decrease oncotic pressure in blood vessels
(d) Hyperalbuminemia
2. Ketonurea does not result from
(a) Starvation
(b) DM
(c) Nephritis
(d) Vomiting
3. The urgency to pass urine every five minutes but only a few drops are passed with difficult as in uterine colic is
called
(a) Urgency
(b) Incontinence
(c) Strangury
(d) Tenesmus
3. Why giving Prednisalone in glomeular nephritis
(a) Increase urine output
(b) Reduce inflammation
4. Anemia in kidney failure is due to
(a) RBC basing through the capillary membrane
(b) Kidney unable to produce erythroprotin
(c) RBC excrete through urine
(d) Failure in the transporation of RBC in bone marrow
5. Management of acute retention of urine
(a) Suprapubic tap
(b) Catheterization
(c) Diuretics
6. 3 year old nephrotic syndrome what medication will be given
(a) Corticosteroid
(b) Furosemide
(c) Solumendrol
(d) Antiemetic
7. Above case investigation showing
(a) Increase serum albumin
(b) Proteinuria
(c) Urine sugar
(d) Decrease WBC
A 60 years old patient is admitted at hospital with acute retention of urine. It can be due to
a. UTI
b. Enlarge prostate
c. Aging process
d. Fluid overload

145) Patient is admitted at ICU and he is on IV Normal saline 75ml/hr and urine output is 30ml/hr .You can say that
patient is in
a) Oliguria
b) Adequate Renal tissue perfusion
c) Need of more fluid intake.
(d) Need to restrict fluid intake

1) If you see blood in urine, it may come from

a) Colon
b) Urethra
c) Stomach
d) Abdominal wall
 RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. The immediate action for a child with acute asthmatic attack is
(a) Administer bronchodilator
(b) Administer expectorant
(c) Administer hydrocortisone
(d) Administer antibiotics
2. What is the most clinical feature of pleural effusion?
(a) Dyspnoea
(b) Pain on exertion
(c) CXR indicating air in the pleural space
3. In cardiac asthma patient, patient get paroxymal natural dyspnea is due to
(a) Allergy
(b) Ankle edema
(c) Emphysema
(d) Left ventricular failure
4. In bronchial asthma all these will be there except
(a) Bronchial spasm
(b) Bronchial secretion
(c) Bronchial Dilation

146) Sign and symptom of inflammation

147) The colour of pressure sore
148) Pre-op patient for perforate appendicitis include
a) Antipyretic
b) Enema
c) Antibiotics
d) Analgesic
149) Nurse feels the following statement need further instruction to be provided to the newborn mother
a) Breast feeding 2 hrly
b) Use of pasifier
c) Brupting breast feeding every 15 mins
d) Every baby 30 mins after feeding
150) Severe vomiting & abdominal distension patient, nurse’s action should be done
a) Monitor vomiting
b) Assess dehydration
c) Aspirate gastric contents
d) All of the above
151) Burn patient with maintenance drip 70 mls/hr, patient’s UO is <30mls/hr ×2hrs.Nurse will inform because she
thick….
a) Urinary retention
b) Decrease excretion and nephritis
c) Decrease dieresis
 d) Need to increase drip because of hydration
152) Management for infectious wound…should be
a) Obtain C&S then antibiotics
153) Iron deficiency anemia in 6 months baby….symptom
a) Length and weight 25 cm
b) Pallor with clubby face
c) Delay teeth growing
154) Skin of elderly people can easily tear…..
a) Decreased elasticity of skin
155) Pyloric stenosis cause
a) Electrolyte imbalance
b) Dehydration
c) All of above
156) During operation, following response occurs due to surgical stress,
a) Decrease heart rate
b) Increase BP
c) Decrease renal perfusion
d) Decrease glucose level
157) Tracheostomy done between which tracheal ring
a) 2nd & 3rd or 3rd & 4th
b) 3th & 4th or 4th & 5th
c) 4th & 5th or 5th & 6th
d) 5th & 6th or 6th &7th
158) Tracheostomy done immediately after operation because of
a) Mechanical ventilation
b) Nasogastric feeding
c) Radiotherapy
159) To wash inner tracheostomy tube which solution should be used?
a) NaCl
b) Antiseptic
c) Chlorhexidine
d) Hydrogenperoxide
160) For suction how long will you insert catheter for him?
a) 5-6 cm
b) 6-10 cm
c) 10-15 cm
d) 15-20 cm
161) For suction why you choose the size of catheter?
a) To prevent hypoxia
b) To fit the tracheostomy
c) To remove secretion only
162) Before suctioning tracheostomy what will you do?
a) Patient to cough vigorously
b) To clean secretion surrounding first
163) Pre-op patient was giving phenangan, for which purpose?
a) Sedation
b) Antiemesis
c) Secretion
164) Pre-op patient was given injection atropine. Nurse recognized following side effect(complication)
a) Pulse rate >150/min
b) Low BP
c) Disoriented
165) Post laparotomy 6th day pt’s wound burst while he is coughing, nurse noticed
a) Serous fluid comes out from the edge of wound
b) Slight red blood comes out from the edge of wound
c) Pus comes out from the edge of wound
166) Condition aggrevated by effect of UV rays
a) Jaundice
b) Cataract
c) Hepatitis
d) Glaucoma
167) For visual acuity test, Snellen chart should be at which length?
a) 6 meters
b) 9 meters
c) 6 feet
d) 9 feet
168) What does the result of test 6/9 means?
a) Near sighted person
b) Snellen chart at 9 meters away
169) PU pt, treated with cimetidine for
a) Inhibit gastric acid secretion
b) Reduce gastric motility
170) PU with acute bleeding, Dr. order
a) Saline lavage
b) Antacid
c) Continue milk drink
d) Gastroscopy
171) If patient who has done laparotomy has abdominal distension. Priority of care
a) Gastric irrigation
b) Reinsert NGT
c) Inform surgeon immediately
d) Check suction bottle
172) 3rd post-op above pt, nurse expect following electrolyte loss.
a) Na
b) K
c) Cl
d) HCO3
173) For above pt, frequency of urine with little amount, nurse action
a) Check bladder distension
b) Send urine for C&S
c) Inform Dr
d) Give diuretics
174) Acid molecules( to be acid-base balance)
a) Give Hydrogen ion away
b) Absorb hydrogen ion
c) Buffer
175) For eye drop instillation, should be instilled into the center of
a) Cornea
b) Conjunctiva
c) Lower fornix of the lower lid
d) Upper fornix of the lower lid
176) For pt with PT time is 26 secs not to give
a) Paracetamol
b) Asprin
c) Sedative
d) Antibiotics
177) Post-op pt to prevent DVT, what should nurse do?
a) Encourage lower limb exercise
b) Raise lower limb
c) Increase oral intake
d) Prop.up position
178) Memory impairment in aged people
 a) Dementia
179) Old age person’s skin
a) Dry
180) Pink color lip, nail beds and skin flushing is sign of
a) CO monoxide poisoning
b) CO2 poisoning
c) O2 poisoning
d) Scorpion bite
181) Post-op pt, transfer from OT to ward, prior care
a) Check gag reflex
b) Check wound
c) Position
d) Dr.’s order
182) Post-op pt with general anaesthesia position
a) Trendelenberg
b) Supine
c) Lateral
d) Fowler
183) A patient with UTI can be confirmed by
a) Dysuria with fever
b) Anuria
c) Haematuria
d) Urine examination
184) All these medicines can be given for thrombocytopenia pt except
a) Asprin
b) Para
c) Antibiotics
d) Ranitidine
185) In epilepsy case, all these can be done except
a) Restrain arms
b) Turning the pt.’s head to side
c) Maintain airway
d) Safe environment
186) When doing percussion, dull sound can be heard on
a) Hollow organ
b) Solid organ like liver
c) Empty intestine
d) Stomach
187) In large intestine cancer case, one of the prominent symptoms is
a) Haematamesis
b) Haemoptysis
c) Vomiting
d) Malena
188) To detect early S/S of internal haemorrhage, post-op case must be observed for
a) Skin color
b) PR,RR,BP & temperature
c) a,b
189) In personality disorder, all these will be there except
a) Mood changes
b) Alteration of thoughts
c) Alteration of memories
d) Alteration of eating patterns
190) Primary health care is
a) To give optimal and basic care
b) To give care by nurses in PHC
191) Management for acute retention of urine is
 a) Suprapubic tab
b) Diuretics
c) Catheterization
192) Glove should be used for
a) Showering pt
b) Dressing a minor wound abrasion
c) Bolus administration of antibiotics
d) Giving water
193) Management of pt. with paracetamol overdose includes
a) Saline lavage
b) Charcoal
194) If a pt. with Sengstan blackmore tube suddenly complain of back pain, which indicates
a) Displacement of tube
b) Deflation of tube
c) Perforation of oesophagus
d) Haemorrhage
195) Pt. is in a state of shock, body counteract by
a) Vasodilation
b) Vasoconstriction
c) Decrease myocardial contractility
196) What is the cause of oedema in nephrotic syndrome?
a) Proteinuria
b) Decrease plasma colloid pressure
c) Inability to excrete sodium
d) Increase plasma colloid pressure
197) In glomerular nephritis, prednisolone is giving to
a) Increase urine output
b) Reduce inflammation
c) Decrease urine output
198) Anaemia in kidney failure is due to
a) RBCs losing through the capillary membrane
b) Kidneys unable to produce erythropoietin
c) Excrete RBCs through urine
d) Failure the transportations of RBCs in the bone marrow
199) Angina relieved by
a) GTN
b) Dopamine
c) Epinephrine
d) Lignocaine
200) S/S of CHF
a) SOB
b) Chest pain
c) Periorbital edema
d) Rebounding pulse
201) In bronchial asthma, all these will be there except
a) Bronchial spasm
b) Bronchial secretion
c) Bronchial dilation of mucosa
d) Dilation of alveolar cells
202) A patient with closed head injury need to observe for
a) Cerebral edema
b) Hypotension
c) Bleeding
d) Hypertension
203) Waste products excreted from haemodialysis is via
a) Diffusion
 b) Filtration
c) Osmosis
204) In haemodialysis, that is happened except
a) Increase base in blood
b) Removal of waste from blood
c) Decrease BUN & creatinine
d) Increased UO
205) S/S of renal failure is except
a) Increased BUN with decreased glomerular filtration
b) Increased Na
c) Increased creatinine
d) Increased UO
206) Insulin is refrigerated
a) To keep its pontency
207) Low BP in elderly patients because
a) Decrease elasticity of arterial wall
208) What is the treatment for hyperkalaemia?
a) To give glucose and insulin
b) To give NaHCO3 8.4%
c) Peritoneal dialysis
d) Haemodialysis
209) AIDS is not transmitted through
a) Intact skin
b) Blood
c) Sexual contact
d) Body fluids
210) What is the early complication for a patient with illeostomy?
a) Skin excoriation
b) Wound sepsis
211) Appearance of healthy stoma is
a) Pink and moist
b) Pale
212) If the patient complaint of pain after TURP, the action of the nurse is
a) Check the positioning of uretheral catheter
b) Give analgesics
213) After inguinal hernia operation, patient is advised to
a) Apply hot compress for pain relieving
b) Avoid lifting heavy objects
214) BCG is giving for
a) TB
b) Polio
c) DPT
d) Measles
215) Ileal conduit is for
a) Drain urine
b) Drain feces
c) Drain feces and urine
d) Drain bilirubin
216) What is the EDD for a woman who had LMP on 1st April 1999?
a) 8th Jan 2000
b) 6th Jan 2000
c) 1st Jan 2000
d) 8th Dec 1999
217) Which observation can be found when caring a newborn with imperforated anus?
a) Absence of muconium
218) Inj.Heparin 5000IU/ml in your stock. How much do you need to withdraw if you need to give 3000IU?
 a) 0.6 ml
b) 0.4 ml
c) 0.8 ml
d) 0.5 ml
219) A patient finding with prothrombin time is 30 secs. What do you need to watch?
a) Insomnia
b) Haematuria
c) Articaria
d) Inflammation
220) Why do you need to give cricoids pressure when intubation?
a) To guide endotracheal tube
b) To prevent aspiration of gastric contents
221) How do you give cricoid pressure?
a) Upward and backward
b) Downward and backward
c) Press on the Adam’s apple
222) In robbery case, a patient was stabbed and came to A&E, BP-100/60 mmHg, HR-96/min, RR-40/min. Which
position you have to choose?
a) Foot raised
b) Semi fowler
c) Prone
d) Recumbent
223) Why do you need to choose the above position?
a) Patient is bleeding
b) Low BP
c) Respiration is so fast
d) Need to do nursing assessment
224) For above situation, which procedure should be done for the 1st priority?
a) Lobectomy
b) Chest tube insertion
c) O2 inhalation
d) CVP insertion
225) For above procedure, which should be concluded?
a) Intermittent low suction
b) Under water seal
c) Continuous suction
226) Which is the potassium sparing diuretic drug?
a) Lasix
b) Spironolactone
227) Mr.john, 53 years old came to A&E department, complaint of chest pain accompanied with left shoulder pain. To
take history about
a) Pain assessment
b) Living standard
c) Social activity
d) Diet
i) a&b
ii) a,c&d
iii) b,c&d
iv) all of the above
228) For Mr.John, what is the first priority care?
a) To give O2
b) To relief pain
c) I/V drip
d) Encourage exercise
229) What medicine do you need to choose?
a) Ventolin
 b) Phenobarbitone
c) GTN
d) Cough syrup
230) 1 hr later, he was send to CCU and tested blood enzymes. This result will be shown
a) High AST,SGOT
b) High CKMB
c) High ALT
231) For that patient, ECG showing
a) ST elevation
b) ST depression
c) T wave inversion
d) Widening QRS
232) 4 hrs later, he experience chest pain again leading to cardiac arrest and ventricular fibrillation. What should you
do?
a) Cardioversion
b) Defibrillation
c) Lignocaine 200 mg
d) 10 ml of 1:10,000 Adrenaline
233) After gastrectomy done, B12 or pernicious anaemia can be developed.
234) Pre assessment for peritoneal dialysis is
a) Advise to empty bladder
b) Check body weight
c) Check catheter patency
d) Sign and symptom of peritonitis
235) Why do you need to insert central venous pressure catheter?
a) Check the pressure of blood in superior vena cava
b) Monitor cardiac output and cardiac failure
c) Check the right atrial pressure
d) Check peripheral venous return
i) a,b,c (ii) a,c,d (iii) b,c,d (iv) c,d
236) How to mark for CVP reading?
a) 5th intercostals space and mid clavicle line
b) Mid axillary line of 4th intercostals space
c) Carotid artery level
237) Which medicine should give to the patient 3years old with nephrotic syndrome
a) Corticosteroid (Prednisolone)
b) Solumedrol
c) Frusemide
d) Antiemetic
238) 14years old girl suffering from Juvinile diabetes complains of pallor, blurred vision, sweating, weakness and
headache. That is a sign of
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hypoinsulimism
d) Hyperreactivity
239) How to prepare the skin to give S/C insulin herself
a) Clean the skin using alcohol swab and ask her to blow to dry skin
b) Stretch the skin over the site to reach
c) Gentle grip the skin over the site to needle
240) Self breast examination usually performed
a) After 1st week of menstrual cycle
b) After stopping menstruation
c) 1st day of menstruation date
d) Last day of menstruation date
241) Sign and symptom of increased intracranial pressure
a) Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse, widening pulse pressure
 b) Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse, increased respiration
c) Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse, increased temperature
d) Increased blood pressure, increased temperature, increased respiration, increased pulse
242) For the treatment of Tuberculosis, using 2 to3 drugs given together to potentiate the action of the drugs
243) In A& E, a patient came with multiple head injury. 1st action should be
a) Call doctor
b) Pressure dressing on bleeding point
c) Clear airway
d) O2 inhalation
244) Most common cause of UTI is
a) Salmonella typhi
b) E. coli
c) Streptococcus
d) Staphylococcus Aureus
245) A patient with gastric ulcer should not take the following medication
a) Valium
b) Aspirin
c) Panadol
d) Prednisolone
246) A patient has been to OT for surgery under GA. The immediate care should be
a) Maintain clear and patent airway
b) Monitor intake and output
c) Change wound dressing
d) Monitor vital signs
247) A degenerative congenital disorder primarily associated with age in
a) Dementia
248) The best index for renal function is
a) BUN
b) Serum creatinine
c) Creatinine clearance
d) Urine for C&S
249) In hypovolemic shock, the most likely treatment include
a) Give dopamine
b) Administer antibiotic immediately
c) Give pethidine
d) Give I/V colloid to maintain blood pressure
250) A patient with hyperkalemia, the most appropriate treatment should be
a) Gastric lavage
b) Insulin and glucose administration
c) Administer NaHCO3
251) The most likely complication for head injury
a) Blindness
b) Depression
c) Cerebral edema
d) Hypotension
252) Oedema seen in Nephrotic syndrome is caused by
a) Hypotension
b) Inability to excrete sodium
c) Increased plasma colloid osmosis
d) Escape of fluid from intra and extra cellular space
253) The medication contraindicated in patient with congestive cardiac failure
a) Methyldopa
b) Propranolol
c) Lasix
d) Potassium
254) A curved tracheostomy tube inserted for patient with total laryngectomy is to prevent
 a) Tube from slipping out
b) Necrosis
c) Aspiration
255) The most important management of severely burn patient is to
a) Administer antibiotics
b) Administer pain killer
c) Replace fluid loss
d) Calculate the surface of burn
256) The most immediate treatment of upper GI tract bleeding includes
a) Ice gastric lavage
b) Low salt diet
c) Resection of stomach
257) The signs and symptoms of hypovolumic shock include the following except
a) Polyuria
b) Tachycardia
c) Hypotension
d) Cold and clammy skin
258) Patient was intubated and heart rate showed tachycardia, what was the most likely cause
a) Pain
b) Hypoxia
c) Stress
d) All of the above
259) Tachycardia affect the myocardium by
a) Reducing the O2 supply to myocardium
b) Reducing force of contraction
c) Decreasing coronary artery filling time
d) All of the above
260) The range of pressure
261) The hazard of needle strick injury can be prevented by
a) Disposing all needles in puncture resistant containers
b) Using gloves
c) Re-capping all used needles
262) Diabetes mellitus affect the metabolism of
a) Carbohydrate, protein and vitamin
b) Carbohydrate, fat and minerals
c) Carbohydrate, fat and protein
d) Carbohydrate, fat and calcium
263) The aims and objectives of diabetes mellitus care are
a) Control of blood glucose
b) Promotion of weight loss
c) Prevention of long term complications
d) Monitor glucosuria twice a day
264) The most effective method for preventing and treating pulmonary complication after surgery is to encourage
coughing.
265) Signs and symptoms of acute MI may include the following except
a) Profuse sweating
b) Dyspnea
c) Chest pain
d) Hypertension or hypotension
266) Treatment of conscious patient with myocardial infarct may include the following except
a) Give dopamine
b) O2 therapy
c) Administer vasodilator e.g.,GTN
d) DC shock
267) One of the disadvantage of skeleton traction includes
a) Potential for infection
 b) Rotation of the limb
c) Mobility of the patient
d) inability to stand heavy weight
268) Before starting CPR in causality we should check the carotid pulse for
a) 1 min
b) 2 seconds
c) 5-10 seconds
d) 10-20 seconds
269) While taking rectal temperature of an infant we should keep the thermometer for
a) 1 min
b) 2 mins
c) 3 mins
d) 4 mins
270) Cyanosis is a sign of
a) Lack of CO2 in the blood
b) Increased PH
c) Lack of O2 in blood
271) Incontinence means inability to control passing of
a) Urine
b) Stool
c) Blood
d) Urine and stool
272) While caring a female patient to prevent infection from anal canal to vagina, we should clean
a) Back to front
b) Front to back
c) Springe H2O
d) Wipe with soft tissue
273) A patient admitted with severe dehydration, he is an parental or oral therapy. For him a nurse should keep
a) Accurate record of I/V intake
b) Accurate record of oral intake
c) Accurate record of intake and output
274) First aid for burn is
a) Apply antiseptic cream
b) Apply Vaseline
c) Dip in cold H2O
275) Immediately after amputation , tight fit dressing is for
a) Prevent bleeding
b) Prevent infection
c) Promote stump shape
276) While vomiting, to prevent choking we should
a) Turn the patient to one side
b) Turn head to one side
c) Aspirate with suction tube
d) Insert Ryle’s tube
277) After inserting Ryle’s tube, how to make sure that it is in the stomach
a) Aspirate the contents and check with litmus paper
b) Push 10 ml of air and listen the sound over the stomach with stethoscope
c) Feed 50cc of water
278) When a patient is in shock, immediate action is
a) Elevate the foot end
b) Cover with warm clothes
c) Check blood pressure
d) Give I/V fluids
279) Before removing the indwelling catheter
a) Check the patency of catheter
b) Clamp the catheter before removing
 c) Deflate the bulb properly
280) How to check the level of consciousness for an unconscious patient
a) Verbal comments
b) Make out a painful stimulation
c) Seeing the pupil
281) Which organ is affected by hypoxia?
a) Heart
b) Brain
c) Kidney
282) Which type of shock is the patient with burn suffering from?
a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Septicaemic shock
c) Hypovolumic shock
283) Universal receipient of blood group is
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O

284) Hyperthyroidism patient is observed to be

a) Anorexia and constipated
b) Restlessness and agitated
c) Cold and clammy skin
d) Slow movement
285) A patient diagnosed with CHF, which diet programme to be advised on?
a) Low protein, high carbohydrate, low fat
b) Low carbohydrate, low calories, high protein
c) Adequate protein, high calories, low fluid
d) Low calories, low fat, low bulky diet
286) Platelet is administered
a) Immediately after arrival
b) 2 hours later
c) 4 hours later
d) Anytime
287) Impacted gall stone in which area caused jaundice
a) Cystic duct
b) Hepatic duct
c) Common bile duct
d) Gall bladder
288) What is the cause of anorexia after subtotal thyroidectomy,
a) Damage to the parathyroid gland
b) Thyroid crisis
c) Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
d) Formation of haematoma leading to airway obstructions
289) Name the most common type of micro-organisms in septicemia
a) Pseudomonus and Escherichia coli
b) Streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus
c) Streptococcus and Escherichia coli
d) Streptococcus aureus and Pseudomonus
290) What is the most likely complications lollowing prolonged trachea-bronchial spasm
a) Trauma to the trachea
b) Hypoxia
c) Tracheal necrosis
d) Tracheal stenosis
291) What is the 1st line management for cholecystitis?
 a) Nasogastric suction with I/V analgesics and antibiotics
b) Cholecystectomy
c) Exploration of CBC
d) Insertion of T-tube
292) The following complications of head injury demand surgery except
a) Skull fracture
b) Extra dural haemorrhage
c) Sub dural haemorrhage
d) Extracranial abscess
293) The most common post operative complication is
a) Haemorrhage
b) Infection
c) Respiratory distress
d) Urinary retention
294) Life threatening outcome for ineffective airway clearance is
a) Tachypnea
b) Dyspnea
c) Hypoxia
d) Dysphagia
295) When administering O2, water is used in the humidifier to get
a) Purified O2
b) Adequate O2
c) Moistered O2
296) Potential for causing disease of a micro-organism depends on
a) Mode of transmission
b) Virulence of micro-organism
c) Nature of entry
d) Route of entry
297) Sterile equipment is free from
a) Pathogens
b) Micro-organisms
c) Non-organic substances
d) Organic, non-organic and spores
298) Number of ventilation used to inflate in one man CPR is
a) One breath
b) Two breath
c) Three breath
d) Four breath
299) A patient with a temperature of 39C, the nursing intervention should be
a) Giving antipyretic
b) Tapid sponging
c) Advise for more oral intake
300) What is the ratio of performing one man CPR?
a) 5:1
b) 5:2
c) 15:1
d) 15:2
301) When you checked the patient’s radial pulse, noticed that patient has dysarrythymia, you need to
a) Check blood pressure
b) Recheck and inform doctor
c) Compare with apex pulse
302) When an old lady taking frusemide therapy, the nurse must do
a) Record accurate intake and output chart
b) Give her lots of fluids
c) Observe for skin turgor
303) Hepatitis A is transmitted by
 a) Blood
b) Food
c) Virus
d) Semen
304) The amputated stump in bandaged with pressure for weeks after surgery for the purpose of
a) Controlling haemorrhage
b) Present infection
c) Moulding the stump for better prosthetic fit
305) The immediate treatment of child with acute asthmatic attack is to
a) Administer bronchodilators
b) administerO2
c) administer expectorant
306) A major side effect of repeated blood transfusion is
a) Allergic reaction
b) Haemolysis
c) Hemosiderosis
307) In a leukaemia child, skin burling is caused by
a) Absence of factor VIII
b) Low platelet count
c) Low Hb%
308) A child with epileptic history is advised not to
a) Participate in exercise
b) Cycle alone
c) Take cold foods or drinks
309) The primary objective of drug therapy in the treatment of glaucoma is to
a) Increased convercity of the lens
b) Dilate the pupils
c) Decreased intraocular pressure
310) The indicative sign of haemorrhage following surgery
a) Increased in pulse rate and blood pressure
b) Abdominal discomfort and pain
c) Pallor and warm skin
d) Progressive blood stained drainage
311) Name 2 complications of intestinal obstruction
a) Peritonitis and nausea
b) Nausea and vomiting
c) Peritonitis and perforation
312) Name 2 specific investigation for peritonitis
a) Abdominal X-rays and blood culture
b) WBC and chest X rays
c) ECG
313) List 2 indications for TURP?
a) Prostate megaly and Ca prostate
b) Urinary incontinence and Ca bladder
c) Urethral stricture and dribbling of urine
314) What is the most common clinical feature of pleural effusion?
a) Dyspnea
b) Pain in exertion
c) CXR indicating air in the pleural space
315) To promote sleep, the nurse must do the following except
a) Allow the patient empty bladder
b) Give sedation as ordered
c) Provide calm environment
d) Give cold milk before going to bed
316) Early ambulation after surgery is to
a) Prevent muscle weakness
 b) Prevent urinary tract infection
c) To promote sleep
317) The pre-operative preparation for appendectomy includes except
a) I/V fluid premedication
b) Nothing by mouth
c) Analgesics
d) Enema
318) Most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient is
a) Dentures
b) Secretion
c) Tongue falling back
d) Food particles
319) During routine nursing care, when the under water sealed drainage is accidently knocked over, the 1 st action
should be
a) Place the bottle upright
b) Clamp the tube
320) A patient with CRF is likely to be anaemic because of
a) Haematuria over many years has caused iron loss
b) Anorexia and vomiting has caused insufficient iron loss
c) Red cell production is reduced
321) Oedema can be caused by all of the following except
a) Excessive salt intake
b) Excessive fluid intake
c) Deficiency of potassium
d) Deficiency of plasma protein
322) Acute leukemia is treated with
a) Radiotherapy
b) Prednisolone and radiotherapy
c) Cytotoxic drugs, prednisolone and radiotherapy
323) Tiny red sots of haemorrhage in the tissues are called
a) Bruises
b) Haematoma
c) Petichiae
d) Echymosis
324) The common investigation done to confirm pyogenic meningitis is
a) Total WBC
b) Blood for C&S
c) CSF for C&S
325) After liver biopsy, the patient is advised to lie on his
a) Lateral position
b) Left lateral position
c) Prone position
d) Right lateral position
326) Condition of air entered to pleural space of lung and unable to escape is referred to as
a) Spontaneous pneumothorax
b) Tension pneumothorax
c) Open pneumothorax
d) Closed pneumothorax
327) Complication of untreated hypertension are except
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Stroke
c) Heart failure
d) Renal failure
328) Complication of prolong bed rest are except
a) Heart failure
b) Bed sore
 c) Urinary infection
d) Chest infection
329) Grey matter consists of
a) Axons
b) Peripheral nerve
c) Neurogeal connective tissue
d) Nerve cell
330) Intelligence, thought, reason and conscious are provided by the
a) Cerebral cortex
b) Hypothalamus
c) Thalamus
d) Basal ganglia
331) Muscular coordination is controlled by
a) Cerebellum
332) Hypertension may result from
a) Release of catecholamines at the alpha receptor
b) Stimulation of the adrenal medulla
c) Rennin Angiotensin Aldosterone mechanisms
d) Increased concentration of the sodium ions in the blood vessel wall
i) A and B only
ii) C only
iii) A,B and C
iv) All of the above
333) Cardiac asthma, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is due to
a) Allergy
b) Ankle edema
c) Emphysema
d) Left ventricular failure
334) The pain of coronary thrombosis differs from that of angina pectoris because it
a) May suffer on at rest
b) Always come on during exercise
c) Radiates down both arms
d) Lasts for a short period of time
335) Treatment for uncomplicated pulmonary embolism is
a) Patient should be nursed in lying position
b) O2, morphine, anticoagulants
c) O2 therapy
d) Reserve precaution
i) A and B
ii) B and D
iii) A, C and D
iv) All of the above
336) Which of the following is not a cause of periodontal disease?
a) Daily use of dental floss
b) Dietary use of refined sugar
c) Malocclusion
d) Gingivitis
337) Sign and symptom of cardiac failure
a) Chest pain
b) Shortness of breath
c) Preorbital oedema
d) Rebounding pulse
338) Hypovolumic shock- proiority of nursing care
a) Hydrating with water
b) Prevent shock with colloid
c) Give vasodilator
339) In bronchial asthma , all these will be there expect
a) Bronchial spasm
b) Bronchial secretion
c) Bronchial dilation of mucosa
d) Dilation alveolar cell
340) In Staphylococcal Aureus infection ( MRSA ) best way to prevent transmission
a) Isolate the patient
b) Washing hands after attending
c) Wear gown and mask
d) Wear mask and gloves
341) What is the cause of oedema in nephrotic sybdrome?
a) Proteinmia
b) Decrease plasma colloid pressure
c) Inability to execrate sodium
342) Why giving prednisolone in glomerular nephritis
a) Increase urine output
b) Reduce Inflammation
343) Anaemic in kidney failure is due to
a) RBC losing through the capillary membrane
b) Kidney unable to produce erythroprotein
c) RBC excreate through urine
d) Failure in the transportation of RBC in bone marrow
344) For patient having Iron supplement to increase production of iron which Vit should be given additionally
a) Vit A
b) Vit B
c) Vit C
d) Vit D
345) Hepatitis which is not transmitted through blood is
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Non A, Non B
d) Hepatitis C
346) Why insulin is refrigerated
a) To reduce bacterial growth
b) To keep it potency
c) To prevent cloudiness
347) Why low BP in elderly patient?
a) Decrease elasticity of arterial wall
b)
348) What is the side effect of morphine giving patient with advance carcinoma
a) Drug addiction
b) Constipation
c) Vomiting
d) Respiratory system depress
349) Sign and symptom of renal failure
a) Increased BUN with decrease glomelular filtration
b) Increased sodium
c) Increased creatinine
350) You are asked to collect sputum for c/s. What is the best time for the nurse to collect the specimen?
a) In the morning right after he awakens
b) Immediately after breakfast
c) Two hours after eating
d) Shortly before he retires for the evening
351) A thoracentesis was performed on a patient. After the procedure, the client has haemoptysis and a pulse rate of
80, RR-28 and temperature of 38 degrees. Which of these is of greatest concern?
a) Haemoptysis
 b) Respiration of 28
c) Pulse of 80
d) Temperature of 38 degrees
352) An adult patient is to have postural drainage qds. In developing the care plan, the nurse should schedule this for
a) 0700hrs, 1100hrs,1600hrs, 2200hrs
b) 1000hrs, 1400hrs, 1800hrs, 2200hrs
c) 0600hrs, 1200hrs, 1800hrs, 2400hrs
d) 0600hrs, 1000hrs, 1400hrs, 1800hrs
353) A male patient has a tracheostomy tube in place. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse
to take when suctioning the tracheostomy?
a) Use a sterile tube each time and suction for 30 seconds
b) Use sterile technique and turn the suction off as the catheter is introduced
c) Use clean technique and suction for 10 seconds
d) Discard the catheter at the end of every shift
354) During suctioning of a tracheostomy tube, the catheter appears to attach to the tracheal wall and creates a pulling
sensation. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
a) Release the suction by opening the vent
b) Continue suctioning to remove the obstruction
c) Increase the pressure
d) Suction deeper
355) A patient is noted to have a bloody nose. Which instruction is most appropriate?
a) Sit up with your head tilted forward. Grasp the soft part of your nose firmly between your thumb and forefinger.
b) Lie down and tilt your head backward. Grasp the end of your nose between your fingers
c) Sit up and lean backwards. Put pressure on the side of your nose with your hand
d) Lie down with your head lower than your feet. Grasp as much of your nose as possible with your fingers
356) A patient is diagnosed with cancer of the larynx. Which statement made by the client is most likely related to the
cause of his illness?
a) I have always enjoyed hot Mexican style food
b) I have smoked three packs of cigarettes a day for the last 40years
c) I used to work in a factory that burned coal
d) I sang in the church choir every Sunday until my voice got hoarse last year.
357) During the preoperative period, which nursing action will be of greatest priority for a person who is to have a
laryngectomy?
a) Establish a means of communication
b) Prepare the bowel by administration enemas until clear
c) Teach the client to use an artificial larynx
d) Demonstrate the technique for suctioning a laryngectomy tube
358) A Middle aged man is admitted with emphysema acute upper respiratory infection. Oxygen is ordered at 2 Lpm.
The reason for low flow oxygen is to
a) Prevent excessive drying of secretions
b) Facilitate oxygen diffusion of the blood
c) Prevent depression of the respiratory drive
d) Compensate for increased airway resistance
359) An adult Malay male patient is admitted with COPD. The nurse notes that he has neck vein distension and slight
peripheral oedema. You will then notify the Staff Nurse and continue frequent assessments because the nurse knows
that these are signs that signal the onset of
a) Pneumothorax
b) Cor pulmonale
c) Cardiogenic shock
d) Left sided heart failure
360) An 80 year old Chinese lady is admitted for pneumococcal pneumonia. The patient’s temperature is 39 degrees
Celsius, RR- 36 and PR- 92. Bed rest is ordered. This position is ordered for the client primarily to
a) Promote thoracic expansion
b) Prevent the development of atelectasis
c) Decrease metabolic needs
d) Prevent infection of others
361) An adult patient is to have tracheostomy performed. What is the nursing priority?
a) Shave the neck
b) Establish a means of communication
c) Insert a Foley catheter
d) Start an IV
362) Which nursing action is essential during tracheal suctioning?
a) Using a lubricant such as petroleum jelly
b) Administering 100% Oxygen before and after suctioning
c) Making sure the suction catheter is open or on during insertion
d) Assisting the client to assume a supine position during suctioning
363) A patient is on a chest drainage system. Several hours after the chest tube has been inserted, the nurse observes
that there is no bubbling in the water seal chamber. What is the most likely reason for the absence of bubbling?
a) His lungs have reexpanded
b) There is an obstruction in the tubing coming from the client
c) There is a mechanical problem with the pump
d) Air is leaking into the drainage system
364) A patient who is on chest tube drainage is reported to be restless. The nurse enters the room just in time to see
him pull out his chest tube. The most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take is
a) Go get petroleum jelly gauze and apply over the wound
b) Place her hand firmly over the wound
c) Apply a sterile 4*4 dressing
d) Reinsert the chest tube
365) A person who had a negative Mantoux test when he was first employed 2 years ago. A Year later, the man had a
positive Mantoux test and a negative chest X-ray. This indicated that at that time the client
a) Was less susceptible to a tuberculosis infection than the year before
b) Had acquired some degree of passive immunity to tuberculosis
c) Had fought the mycobacterium tuberculosis but had not developed active tuberculosis
d) Was harbouring a mild tuberculosis infection in an organ other than the lung
366) A lady is treated with Isoniazid and streptomycin for an active tuberculosis. Which of the following symptoms
would suggest a toxic effect of isoniazid?
a) Paroxysmal tachycardia
b) Erythema multiforma
c) Peripheral neuritis
d) Tinnitus and deafness
367) The lady also has pyridoxine ( Vitamin B6 ) added to the medications. Why?
a) Pyridoxine is bacteriostatic against the mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) To enhance her general nutritional status
c) To prevent side effects of Isoniazid
d) Pyridoxine acts to increase the effects of streptomycin
368) If a person with a positive Mantoux test and needs to start on prophylaxis tuberculosis treatment, what would be
the drugs of choice?
a) Streptomycin
b) Para amino salicylate acid
c) Isoniazid
d) Ethambutol
369) A farmer has had a cough for several months has noticed a lack of energy lately. He is being tested for
Histoplasmosis. Which factor reported by the farmer would be most related to the diagnosis of histoplasmosis?
a) He drinks raw milk
b) He cleans chicken coops
c) He handles fertilizers
d) He stepped on a rusty nail recently
370) The nurse is caring for a patient with histoplasmosis. What drug is most likely to be prescribed to the patient?
a) Pencillin
b) Chloromycetin
c) Streptomycin
d) AmphotericinB
371) A patient is to have thoracentesis done. What should the nurse do while preparing the patient for this procedure?
a) Keep him NBM for 8 hours
b) Prepare him to go to OT
c) Explain the procedure to him
d) Administer anticholinergic and analgesics as ordered
372) The nurse is planning care for a patient with COPD. Which statement is the client most likely to say about
activity tolerance?
a) The most difficult time of the day for me is the first hour after waking up in the morning
b) I feel best in the morning after a good night’s sleep
c) I seem to have more energy after eating a big meal
d) I don’t know why, but I get my ‘second wind’ at night and don’t want to go to bed
373) A patient with a diagnosis of pneumonia is anxious and short of breath but is able to respond to questions. One
hour later, the client becomes more dyspnoeic and less responsive, answering only yes and no questions. What is the
best action for the nurse to take at this time?
a) Stimulate the client until the client responds
b) Increase the oxygen form the ordered 6 litres to 10 litres
c) Assess the client again in 15 minutes
d) Notify the Staff Nurse immediately of the change in the patient’s mental status
374) A patient on Rifampicin has some side effects. Which of these is the client most likely to experience?
a) Reddish orange sputum, urine and saliva
b) Erythema and urticaris
c) Tinnitus and deafness
d) Peripheral neuritis
375) A patient with laryngectomy done is nearly ready for discharge. Which instruction is most appropriate for the
nurse to give?
a) Always be sure that you have a buddy with you when you go swimming or boating
b) You may take a tub bath but you should not take a shower
c) He sure to have only liquids for another 3 weeks
d) Never cover your stoma with anything
376) Why is inspiration preferable through the nose to through the mouth?
a) It produces greater blood oxygen levels
b) It is easier to breathe through the nose
c) The nares humidify, warm and filter the air
d) Mouth breathing dilutes the air and reduces the amount of air entering the lungs
377) During suctioning, the patient starts to cough. What should the nurse do?
a) Suction deeper to pick up secretions
b) Gently withdraw suction tubing to allow suction or coughing out of mucous
c) Remove the suction as quickly as possible
d) Put the suction tube in and out several times to pick up secretions

SOME USEFUL FACTS FOR SNB EXAM

-Thoracentesis puncture site is usually in the 7.8 under space in the posterior axillaries line.

-R of fluid more than 500 cc can cause cardiac distress.

-Removal of chest tube -re expense of lungs, block of tube, drainage less than 60ml/24hours

-X-ray must done before and after removal of chest tube.

-Tracheotomy- opening into the stoma by insertion of opens the trachea at 2-3 tracheal cartilage.

-Suction 10-15 sec. pressure 80-120mmHg long 10-15cm-suction when withdrawal of catheter.

-Post Op transfer from OT to ward, prior to check gag reflex.

-Cleft lip usually done at the age of 1-2 year of age.

-Male adult Hb% 13-18mg Female Hb% 12-14mg

-Insulin secrete beta cell of island cell of llangerhans of pancreas.

-Nephritic syndrome diet (high protein, restriction of Na, fluid, increase CHO)

s/s facial swelling(moonfaced) hypertension, pleural effusion, hepatomegaly, ascites, eripheral edema

-Peritoneal dialysis b/f empty bladder 3-4 cm below umbilicus

-CVA case nurse should be observed for plantar flexious (foot drop)

Pt with urinary problem - increase BUN ,creatinine.

Burn calculate Bwt x %of burn / 2 (need to added fluid amount in 1hour)

-While feeding CVA patient the food should be put at the back of tongue.

s/s of hyperkalemia cardiac irregularities, weakness, diarrhea, nausea, irritability, increase K level in blood

s/s of hypokalemia loss of m/s tone, cardiac dysrhythrimia, abdominal distension, vomiting, dec: K level

Question

BCG is given for

DTP tuberculosis Polio Whooping Cough

While caring a patient with wet cast should watch for

Alignment of the cast.

Management of patient with paracetamol overdose

Saline lavage Charcoal

For the patient with difficulty in passing in urine, before informing Dr, nurse should

Collect urine for 24 hours sent urine for CS check for bladder distension

While taking history from the patient who have hemorrhoid, nurse should ask for

Dietary habit &nutrition long standing bleeding bowel and dietary intake

While resuscitating patient, if iv cannula failed, epinephrine can be given via

Intra cardiac arterial line endotracheal oral

Iodine is prime importance in the formation of

Pyredone adrenalin bone thyroxine

Thiamine Vit B1 deficiency cause

Cardiac failure in the Beri Beri night blindness rickets hypothyroidism

Highest concentration of potassium is found in

Cells plasma urine CSF

Which one of the following does not cause hyperkalaemia-

ARF haemolysis of red cells.

Long time bed rest for heart failure, the main object is

Reduce heart work load promote blood circulation increase cardiac contraction

Priority nursing care for shock patient-

Foot end raise clear the airway giving oxygen

Which diet consist of iron?

Red meal, green vegetable green leaf

Folic acid deficiency can cause

Dermititis gout macrocytic anaemia hypochromic anaemia

Vitamin B12 deficiency lead to

Hypochromic anaemia microcytic anaemia macrocytic anaemia aplastic anaemia

Vitamin C is not required for the formation of

Antibodies saliva red cells fibrous tisue

Vitamin C is not found in

Fruit Vegetable tomatos meats

Vitamin K is required for the formation of

Fibrinogen bile platelet prothrombin

Impaired gallstone in which area cause jaundice

Cystic duct CBD hepatic duct gall bladder

Acute leukemia is treated with

Radiotherapy cytotoxic drug, prednisolone, radiotherapy prednisolone,

radiotherapy

The symptoms of IHD are caused by decrease of blood following

Through aortic valve through the pulmonary artery though the coronary arteries to the heart m/s

The common investigation done to confirm pyrogenic meningitis is

Total WBC Blood for CS CSF for CS CSF for all microscopic eamination

A patient with UTI dx can be confirmed by

 Dysuria with fever haematuria anuria urine examination

Epilepsy, all these can be done expect

Restrain arms safe environment turning patient head to the side maintain airway

Potential for microorganism to cause d/s depends on

Mode of transmission route of entry route of exit virulence of microorganism

Name 2 causes of intestinal obstruction

Congenital herridectory hereditary abdominal &injury Ca stomach& CA colon

Which of the best position to prevent increase of ICP for a head injury patient also suffering from shock

Flat with head lower than body elevate pt head flat with lower extremities higher than body area lie flat

What is the cause for anoxia after subtotal thyroidectomy

Damage to the parathyroid gland thyroid crisis damage recurrent laryngeal

nerve

formation of hamatoma leading to airway obstruction

What is the normal PB for a year old child

70-100/50-70 mmHg 60-90/55-60 mmHg 65-95/55-65 mmHg 65-90/50-60mmHg

Name 2 complications of intestinal obstructions

Peritonitis& nausea nausea& vomiting peritonitis& septicemia

Massive oedema in nephrotic syndrome is partly due to

Too much fluid intake difficulty in passing urine decrease oncotic pressure in bld vess:
hyperalbuminaemia

Following tonsillectomy, the patient should be nursed in a

Supine position semi prone position fowler’s position trendelenburg position

The most common post op complication is

 Bleeding(haemorrhage) urinary retension infection
respiratory distress

What is the action of diamex?

Decrease intraocular pressure corect closed angle glaucoma prevent flow of the aqueous humour
inhibit the protection of aqueous humours

What is the first line management for cholecystitis-

NG suction&IV analgesic,antibiotics cholecystectomy explanation fo CBC

insertion of T tube

The route of metastasis of breast cancer are the following except –

Extra mammary chain intra mammary chain blood stream

A patient with CRF and on dx program is most likely to be advised on diet of

Low protein,high CHO,high fat low CHO,low calories,high protein adequate protein,high calo,low fluid
low calories, low fat, low bulky diet

While giving enema, the nozzle should be inserted about-

3-4 inches(7-10 cm) 2-3 inches 1-2 inches 4-5 inches

One of the most s/s CCF is

Cyanosis dyspnea arrhythemia

The effect of giving high O2 in COAD patient,

O2 intoxication hyperventilation dyspnea

When bed bath the patient you should sponge patient’ s arm

From finger to axilla with long stroke using circular from finger to axilla using long stroke from axilla to
finger using circular from axilla to finger

Pt should not take Templ orally except-

Infant mentally in patient neck injury mouth ulcer

Neonate patient should not take temp from anus because

To prevent membrane tear to prevent infection to prevent discomfort

Neonate should keep warm after bathing to prevent

Hypothermia hyperthermia fever

When bed bathing should pay attention to breast, axilla, groin because

Moisten& organism can labour to prevent smelling

Infant patient, T(37-9C).the first priority you should do

Inform s/n &prepare for cold compress informSN tapid sponge,

prepare cold compress, encourage mother prepare tepid sponging and encourage to mother

A diabetic patient is advised on union diet restriction-

Mineral& vitamin protein fat carbohydrate

The following area should be carefully handled as standard precaution except

Sweat blood phegm mucus

As precaution glove should wear except-

When pt is feeding when changing clothes with scabies when clean mucus from pt’s nose
when bathing pt.

Maslow’s framework is-

Physical love esteem safety

Infant heart rate is

100-120 80-120 110-120 70-80

When a diabetic pt is having hypoglycemic attack, the nurse should advise him-

To eat some food to take rest admister insulin to eat some sweets
Pt has abdominal operation and just came back from recovery room. T100C, PR 98/min, resp:30/min If any changes

Monitor vital signs&documents, monitor vital signs& inform SN

Above pt after post-op can get complication

Haemorrhage hypovolumic shock paralytic ileus

Above pt, checking vital signs& skin colour is to prevent immediate complication of

Wound sepsis 2 haemorrhage neurological status onset paralytic ileus

Before doing surigcal dressing, hand washing is

Surgical hand washing medical hand washing social hand washing

Infant’s CPR, pulse rate should take from

Frontal bronchial carotid femoral

Infant’s CPR, chest compression depth is

2cm 5 cm 8 cm 10 cm

Urosheld should change& give care

24 hourly & 3 hourly 24 hourly & 4 hrly 24 hourly&6 hrly 24 hourly& 8

hrly

The most appropriate treatment for ventricular fribillation is

Digoxin difribillation compression of the heart

Centeral venous pressure is io assess

hydration right atrial pressure right ventricular pressure left ventricular pressure

a+b a+b+c b+c a+b+d

Normal CVP of H2O manometer is

1-5 mmHg 5-10 mmHg 1-5cmH2O 5-10 cmH2O

Exact location of H2O manometer to assess CVP is

Atrium(midaxillary line) Lower axillary upper axillary axillary line

Purpose of cyclosporin therapy after kidney transplantation is to prevent

Kidney rejection haemorrhage infection(side-effect) nutritional supplement

Side effect of cyclosporin is

Haemorrhage gastritis depression infection

In case of extreme posioning of salicylate is

Antiemesis peritoneal dialysis haemodialysis vit k injection

The appropiate time for surgery for child with cleft palate-

1-2 months first few days 2-6 months after 1 year(between 1-3year)

Nutritional needs of child with cleft palate

Spoon feeding in sitting position parenteral route R/T TPN

Aspirin is not given in

Peptic ulcer infection inflammation fever

One of the vital symptom of oesophageal tumour

Difficulty in swellowing of solid food projectile vomiting bleeding hoarses

of voice

Nurse’s assessment in incompatible blood transfusion

Allergic reaction haemodylic reaction increase temperature

Which is not life threatening problem

Atrial fibrillation ventricular fibrillation ventricular tachycardia sinus bradycardia

For IV site pain, nurse will check

 Allergic reaction IV infiltration IV drip calculation thrombosis

Nurse high priority in burn patient is

To check weigh to calculate IV fluid to assess body surface area

In burn case pt loss fluid on first 24 hours is due to

Increase permiability of capillaries decrese permiablility of capallaries

In burn case fluid shift d/t

Osmosis diffusion effusion

Pre meal blood sugar level is

2-4mmol/l 4-6 mmol/l 6-8mmol/l

Rotation of insulin site is to prevent

Thickening of the skin skin infection effect of insulin

Increase intracranial pressure can cause in

cerebral edema confusion delusion

Severe damage t/s needs

Primary management secondary management 3” management all of the above

Haemophilia can cause

Brain t/s damage GI bleeding

What is the best time for breast examination?

During ovalution time one week after mens: one week before mens:

The purpose of pap smear is

Primary prevention health promotion secondary prevention of d/s

Moro’s reflex in newborn present in

 Birth time 3-4 months 6-8 months

Cemetidine drug is used for

Inhibit gastric juice decrease gastric movement

Insulin is produced by

Pancreas islet cell of lengerhan

Insulin is given s/c for

Fast effect slow uniform absorption to decrease side effect

Unconscious pt found on road after accident, highest priority of nurse

Assess of neck injury patent airway assess for bleeding

If unable to get IV line on collapse patient, epinephrine can be given

Intracardiac endotracheal tube

In metabolic alkalosis, give

Nacl NaHCO3 Potassium

Gray matter consist

Axons peripherial nerves neurological connective tissue nerve

cells

Intellegence, though, reason and conscious are providey by

Cerebral cortex hypothalamus thalmus basal ganglion

Muscular coordination is controlled by

Cerebellum cerebrum

Highest concentration of potassium is found in

Cells plasma urine CSF

Which one of the following does not causes hyperkalaemia

ARF haemolysis of red cells high cellular potassium addison’s d/s

Hypoglycaemia due to

Too much insulin in the body little insulin excessive exercise low sugar level in the bodoy

Ketouria does not result from

Starvation DM nephritis vomiting

The urgence to pass urine every minute,but only a few drops are passed with difficulyt,as in ureteric colic is called

Urgency strangury incontinence tenesmus

Hypertension may result result from

Release of catecolamine at the alpha receptor stimulation of the adrenal medulla

Renin angiotensin aldosterone machanism increase concentration of the Na ion in the blood vessel
wall

.a&b c only all of the above except d all of the above

The pain of coronay thrombus differ from angina pectoris because of

May come on at rest always come on during exercise radiates down both armslasts for a shorter period of time

If you have any mistake you have to

Initial cross and initial rub scrub

To enhance heart m/s contracity in heart failure which medication would you give?

Digoxin propanolol

Which one should be done for pap smear

Active sexual woman young girl old aged

ABG take for which reasons

 Blood gas changes O2 CO2 respiratory function

Chronic hepatitis B can cause

Heptocellular carcinoma brain tumor

When pt with low back pain discharge, what instruction would you give? Proper lift up methods

Acid base balance means acid molecule are

Received hydrogen ions give off hydrogen ions

Why respiratory obstruction in adult fewer than child?

Short epiglotis adult respiratory assessory m/s function is stronger than child

Normal neonate anterior fontanels is

Soft & sunken flat & tense flat& soft (diamond shape)
bulging

Malena is bleeding from

Stomach sigmoid anus rectum

Dysphasia means

Difficult in breathing difficult in swallowing difficult in seeing

What is the best way test to confirm Ca cervix

Pap smear vaginal examination

Colon absorbs only water

Ovulation occurs

2 wks after mens: 1 wks before mens: 2 weeks before mens: 1 weeks after
mens:

EDD calculation add 7 -9

Newborn is wrapped by blanket because

 To prevent infection to maintain body temperature to dry

Pregnant pt can get what kind of anaemia

Iron deficiency anemia folic acid deficiency anemia vitamin C deficiency anemia

Pacemaker is for SA node

Which drug need to avoid giving for COL with ascites

Aspirin diazepan prednisolone antibiotics

Neurological changes in late COL pt

Delusion schizophrenia coma

Pt is prescribed with Mono –amine oxidase inhibitor(MAOI) have to avoid

Tyramine(eg cheese) fat protein milk

Tyramine occurs widely in plants and animals and is metabolized by the enzyme monoamine oxidase. In foods, it is often produced by the
decarboxylation of tyrosine during fermentation or decay. Foods containing considerable amounts of tyramine include meats that are
potentially spoiled or pickled, aged, smoked, fermented, or marinated (some fish, poultry, and beef); most pork (except cured ham);
chocolate; alcoholic beverages; and fermented foods, such as most cheeses (except ricotta, cottage cheese, cream cheese), sour cream,
yogurt, shrimp paste, soy sauce, soy bean condiments, teriyaki sauce, tofu, tempeh, miso soup, sauerkraut; broad (fava) beans, green bean
pods, Italian flat (Romano) beans, Chinese (snow) pea pods, avocados, bananas, eggplants, figs, red plums, raspberries, peanuts, Brazil
nuts, coconuts, processed meat, yeast, and an array of cacti.

The first action for post laprotomy wound burst out

Inform doctor cover with sterile gauze with warm saline inform OT diathermy the
bleeding point

Pt having iron supplement to increase production of iron, which vitamin should be given

Vitamin A vitamin B Vitamin C vitamin D

Newborn normal height is

52-58 cm 40-50 cm

Level of consciousness of an unconsciousness pt, better to make out by

Verbal commands with a painful stimulation by seeing the pupil

Nurse higher priority for post gastroctomy if abdominal distension have

To initiate RT to call surgeon immediately gastric lavage

Drug the nurse must prepare for ventricular fibrillation and the asystole

Atropine sulphate epinephrine(adrenalin) lignocaine

GCS score for patient who opens his eyes for painful stimuli, moaning and decorticate

3 7 9 15

Glasgow Coma Score

The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst, and 15 the best. It is composed of three parameters : Best Eye Response, Best Verbal
Response, Best Motor Response, as given below :
Best Eye Response. (4)
1. No eye opening.
2 .Eye opening to pain.
3. Eye opening to verbal
command.
4. Eyes open spontaneously.

Best Verbal Response. (5)

1. No verbal response
2. Incomprehensible sounds.
3. Inappropriate words.
4. Confused
5. Orientated

Best Motor Response. (6)

1. No motor response.
2. Extension to pain.
3. Flexion to pain.
4. Withdrawal from pain.
5 .Localising pain.
6. Obeys Commands.
The effective prevention of nosocomial infection is effective hand
washing

When nurse want to resuscitate adult patient, she should check carotid pulse

Nurse will clean the patient’s eye from inner cathus to

outer cathus

Patient has black tarry stool, it means bleeding from DU

What reflex help to move faces to rectum defecation reflex

When nurse take pt’s radial pulse, he noticed disarrhythmia, she must do chest apical pulse for 1
minute

Best position for rectal examination is left lateral position

Taking rectal temp is contraindicated for pt of high risk infection b/c injury to mucus
m/m

When a nurse is caring for dying pt increase dignity

Pt is cachexia (wt loss) looking because of inadequate

nutritional intake

When pt is on NGT, nurse must do oral toilet

Risk associate with NGT aspiration

Unconsciousness pt lying in bed for long time, nurse noticed the initial signs of pressure sore that getting redness

In severe diarrhea& vomiting pt, what can you see in urine ketone

A pt who can’t taken radial pulse, taken from apical pulse, full minute

Sebaceous glands, sweat glands are come from dermis

Pressure of suction in ET airway 80-120mmHg

Time of suction 10-15 sec(10-15 cm)

Pt was dead; nurse must do straighten ½ hour after dead

Pt’s suffering DM insulin injection 3 times/day, when pt can take food 30min after given
injection
Thymol dilution ration 1:4

Health education to post op hemorrhoid pt on discharge is advise to take 5 types of fruits and high fibre
diet.

Full MI to take a rest is advise for to reduce work load of the heart

Personality d/o will be there except mood change alteration memories alteration thought

Treatment of hyperkalemia insulin with

dextrose saline

Before blood transfusion we should start NS

Accurate measurement of dehydration measure I&O/weight daily

In angina pt, GTN is given SL, to get coronary vasodilatation

Management of acute retention of urine catheterization

How to communicate with elderly pt, a nurse should stand face to face

Treatment of diabetes ketoacidosis insulin with

potassium

Nurse should administered NGT 8 hourly to reduce hazards of abdominal

distension

Before removing the indwelling catheter, check deflate the bulb properly

For the better result of suppository, nurse should introduce beyond the anal
sp:

When the eyes are fixed on a near object, the following occur except

Visual axis of both eyes converge both pupils are constricted, lens become more convex
light reflect

Massive edema in nephritis syndrome is partly due to decrease oncotic pressure in

bld vess:

Primary objective of drug therapy in the Tx of glaucoma decrease IOP

The vitreous humour fill posterior four+4th of bulb of the

eye
When you feed cold milk, what the patient will happen abdominal cramp
&discomfort

If you don’t give proper oral care, the complication is halitosis

The side effect of thianacil is sore throat

Causes of peptic ulcer anxiety

S/S of barbiturate poisoning are exceptsluggishness, in coordination, difficulty in thinking, slowness of speech, faulty judgment, drowsiness or
coma, shallow breathing,

staggering and in severe cases coma and death. Pin point eye, hypotension, res: distress absence of bowel sound &coma
dysuria

Treatment of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is radiation

In hiatus hernia patient is diaphragm m/s

weak

In head injury patient, the pupil is constricted

Color of CSF in TB patient is straw color

Color of CSF in Meningitis cloudy color

S/s of nephritic syndrome is puffy face& edema

After having liver biopsy, the patient is advised lie on the right lateral position

Hyperthyroid person is observed to be restless and agitated

Palpitations, Heat intolerance Nervousness Insomnia Breathlessness Increased bowel movements Light or absent menstrual periods Fatigue

Fast heart rate Trembling hands Weight loss Muscle weakness Warm moist skin Hair loss Staring gaze

Condition when air entering pleural space of lung and unable to escape is refer to tension pneumothorax

The treatment of thyrotoxicosis radioactive iodine is best prescribed for women who are
above 40 yrs

Platelet is administered immediately after

arrival

Cardiogenic shock inc:CVP, decrease BP, Hypovolumic shock – decrease CVP, decrease BP

Ventricular fibrillation is most appropriate treated with digoxin

Heat regulation centre hypothalamus

Hemophilia can cause bleeding (GI, Joint is more

common)

Oxygen rate for adult patient is 20%/min

Sodium restriction is advised on patient with CCF is because of decrease circulatory volume

Tonometer is used to measure intraocular pressure

Foot care for DM patients daily wash of feet with

proper filling shoes

Ideal conduit is for drain urine

A baby with imperforated anus usually present with absence of

muconium

Patient with closed head injury, watch for cerebral

edema

Neonate diaphragmatic hernia observe for respiratory

distress

In elderly period of pregnancy what was congenital contract for neonate rubella

Cricoid pressure downward and backward

When preparing the patient for taking of an ear swab, the nurse must not cleanse the ear with cleaning
solutions

Stage of Lochia

Lochia rubra is the first discharge,red in color because of large amount of blood it contains. It typically lasts no longer than 3 to5
days after birth.

Lochia serosa is the term for lochia which has thinned and turned brownish or pink in color. It contains serous exudate,
erythrocytes, leukocytes, and cervical mucus. This stage continues until around the tenth day after delivery.

Lochia alba is the name for lochia once it has turned whitish or yellowish-white. It typically lasts from the second through the
third to sixth week after delivery. It contains fewer red blood cells and is mainly made up of leukocytes, epithelial cells,
cholesterol, fat, and mucus.
Epinephrine Injection, USP is administered by intravenous injection and/or in cardiac arrest, by intracardiac injection into the left
ventricular chamber or via endotracheal tube directly into the bronchial tree. The adult intravenous dose for hypersensitivity
reactions or to relieve bronchospasm usually ranges from 0.1 to 0.25 mg (1 to 2.5 mL of 1:10,000 solution), injected slowly.
Neonates may be given a dose of 0.01 mg per kg of body weight; for the infant 0.05 mg is an adequate initial dose and this may be
repeated at 20 to 30 minute intervals in the management of asthma attacks.

In cardiac arrest, 0.5 to 1.0 mg (5 to 10 mL of 1:10,000 solution) may be given. During a resuscitation effort, 0.5 mg (5 mL)
should be administered intravenously every five minutes.

Intracardiac injection should only be administered by personnel well trained in the technique, if there has not been sufficient time
to establish an intravenous route. The intracardiac dose usually ranges from 0.3 to 0.5 mg (3 to 5 mL of 1:10,000 solution).

Alternatively, if the patient has been intubated, epinephrine can be injected via the endotracheal tube directly into the bronchial
tree at the same dosage as for intravenous injection. It is rapidly absorbed through the lung capillary bed.

One ampoule of 1:1000 adrenaline in 1 ml volume.

 This equals 1mg in 1 ml
 This equals 1000 μg/ml

If one ampoule is diluted to 10ml

 This equals 0.1 mg/ml
 This equals 100 μg/ml
 This is 1:10,000 adrenalin

If one ampoule is diluted to 100ml

 This equals 0.01 mg/ml
 This equals 10 μg/ml
 This is 1:100,000 adrenalin

If one ampoule is diluted to 1000ml

 This equals 0.001 mg/ml
 This equals 1.0 μg/ml
 This is 1:1,000,000 adrenalin

Slow Intravenous (IV) Injection when indicated

Adult: 500 μg over 5 minutes

This equals 5ml of 1:10,000 adrenaline, which is 100 μg/ml
(Dilute 1 ampoule of 1mg to 10ml with water and draw up 5 ml)

A useful ADULT preparation via central venous access, for either an adrenaline, a noradrenaline or an isoprenaline infusion, is to
mix 6 mg (6 mls of 1:1000) in 100 ml.
This dilution will contain 60 μg /ml and when infused, ml/hour = μg /minute.
Any of these infusion preparations may be started at 3 ml/hour (3 mcg/min) in adults, using a controlled infusion pump to
minimise the risk of over-dosage with this concentrated solution.

Child: 10 μg/kg, which is 0.01 mg/kg

This equals 0.1 ml/kg of 1:10,000 adrenalin
Adult usage of adrenalin

(1) Adrenaline for cardiac arrest - IV bolus,

1ml of 1:1000 (1mg)

(2) Adrenaline for cardiac arrest - IV infusion

Make 1mg up to 20ml in a syringe
Start at 1-2ml/min

Indications for adrenaline other than for cardiac arrest

Anaphylaxis
Bronchospasm
Hypotension
Angioneurotic oedema
(3) Adrenaline for other indications - IV bolus
Make 1mg up to 20ml in a syringe (50 mcg/ml)
Give 1ml (50 mcg) slow bolus injections, repeat as necessary
Remember, with bolus injections there is a chance of:
VT, VF
Severe hypertension
Pulmonary oedema
Use an IV infusion if time allows - see (4)

(4) Adrenaline for other indications - IV infusion peripherally in an emergency, or centrally

Make 1mg up to 100ml in a burette
Start infusing at 1ml/minute
Increase to 10ml/min, feeling the pulse
Titrate against heart rate and blood pressure
Use more if the problem is life-threatening
Note: A useful infusion preparation via central venous access, for either adrenalin, noradrenalin or isoprenaline:
Mix 6 mg of any one of these drugs in 100 ml. (Take great care against over-dosage with this high concentration)
At this concentration ml/hour = mcg/min
Start all at 3ml/hour (3 mcg/min) in adults, using a controlled infusion pump..

(5) Atropine: For cardiac arrest or bradycardia - 0.6mg IV bolus

For other indications - 0.1mg IV increments

(6) Suxamethonium:
100-200mg, preferably IV, for intubation

(7) Salbutamol
0.5% - 1ml by nebuliser (5mg)
0.5% - 0.1ml in 1ml (0.5mg), inject down ETT

Potassium level 3.8-5.0mm/l Glucose level(fasting) 4-6mmol/l

Calcium 2.1.-2.6mmol/l

Na 136-145mmol/l

Ph lower than 7.35,HCO3 lower than 22 metabolic acidosis

Ph more than 7.45,PaCO2 lower than 35. Respiratory alkaosis

Ph more than 7.45HCO3 more than24 metabolic alkalosis

Ph lower than 7.35, PaCO2 higher than 45 respiratory acidosis

PaO2 80%

CPR Adult 4-5cm 30:2

Infant 2 cm 30:2

Child 3 cm 30:2

Gastric dumping syndrome, or rapid gastric emptying, happens when the lower end of the small
intestine, the jejunum, fills too quickly with undigested food from the stomach. "Early" dumping begins
during or right after a meal. Symptoms of early dumping include nausea, vomiting, bloating, cramping,
diarrhea, dizziness and fatigue. "Late" dumping happens 1 to 3 hours after eating. Symptoms of late
dumping include weakness, sweating, and dizziness. Many people have both types. The syndrome is most
often associated with gastric surgery
The prothrombin time (PT) and its derived measures of prothrombin ratio (PR) and international
normalized ratio (INR) are measures of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. They are used to determine
the clotting tendency of blood, in the measure of warfarin dosage, liver damage, and vitamin K status. The
reference range for prothrombin time is usually around 12–15 seconds; the normal range for the INR is 0.8–
1.2. PT measures factors II, V, VII, X and fibrinogen. It is used in conjunction with the activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT) which measures the intrinsic pathway.

Downsyndrome

Individuals with Down syndrome may have some or all of the following physical characteristics: oblique
eye fissures with epicanthic skin folds on the inner corner of the eyes, muscle hypotonia (poor muscle tone),
a flat nasal bridge, a single palmar fold, a protruding tongue (due to small oral cavity, and an enlarged
tongue near the tonsils), a short neck, white spots on the iris known as Brushfield spots,[2] excessive joint
laxity including atlanto-axial instability, congenital heart defects, excessive space between large toe and
second toe, a single flexion furrow of the fifth finger, and a higher number of ulnar loop dermatoglyphs.
Most individuals with Down syndrome have mental retardation in the mild (IQ 50–70) to moderate (IQ 35–
50) range,[3] with individuals having Mosaic Down syndrome typically 10–30 points higher.[4] In addition,
individuals with Down syndrome can have serious abnormalities affecting any body system. They also may
have a broad head and a very round face.

Briefly explain esophagitis and its treatment.

Answer:

Esophagitis is an inflammation of the esophagus. (Clinical note: itis as a suffix always refers to
inflammation) Esophagitis can be caused by bacterial or viral organisms. Other forms of esophagitis include
inflammation caused by reflux of gastric content, and taking medications such as daily pill ingestion.
Esophagitis is a self-limiting disorder in the individual who is not immune compromised. Esophagitis is
treated with antimicrobial agents depending on the organism. Fungal, bacterial or viral agents are all utilized
as necessary. Viscous lidocaine is often used as a method of controlling the pain that is associated with
esophagitis. Clear liquid or bland diets are utilized to decrease irritation and maximize nutrition

Explain the purpose and attributes of informed consent.

Answer:

Informed consent is intended to facilitate appropriate, knowledgeable decision making among clients who
are hospitalized, receiving specialty services and/or making any type of decision regarding health care.
Informed consent should be directed toward the educational and cognitive level of the client. All possible
outcomes and consequences of the procedure or treatment should be explained in as much detail as needed
to ensure the client fully understands what is to be done and the potential outcomes. Informed consent must
be signed and acknowledged by both the physician and the patient; nurses are no longer responsible for the
information on and for obtaining informed consent, but do function as the witness to informed consent.
Briefly discuss the normal physiological changes of the nervous system in the older adult.

Answer:

The nervous system of the older adult age sixty-five and up will begin to experience dilatation of the
cerebral ventricles, loss of neurons, and a decrease of 5 to 7 percent in brain weight. The older individual
will have impaired vision that includes decreased transparency of the lens, decreased pupil size, and altered
vitreous humor. The older adult will have a decrease in the ability to hear high-pitched, high-frequency
sounds, as well as a decrease in the ability to smell and distinguish odors. The older individual will have
decreased tactile sensation, and slower reaction time related to slower conductivity of impulses. The older
adult will begin to experience memory changes such as decreased short-term memory. Many older adults
who experience short-term memory loss will retain the long-term memory.

Briefly discuss the nurses rights and responsibilities.

Answer:

The primary responsibility of the nurse is to provide safety in healthcare for all individuals. Therefore nurses
have the right to refuse assignments that jeopardize the client or the nurse, or place the client in immediate
or serious danger. Nurses have the right to refuse to treat patients that are beyond their scope of practice.
Nurses have the right to not be abused by clients, co-workers or employers. Nurses have the right to ask for
clarity with assignments, assess his or her personal abilities as they relate to clients and client situations, and
assist in identifying options that will fulfill the assignment. Nurses are responsible to know their scope of
practice, the patient's rights, hospital policies and procedures, as well as standards of care and community
norms.

Briefly discuss causes and treatment of pulmonary edema.

Answer:

Pulmonary edema is characteristically caused by left heart failure, ischemic disease of the heart, acute
myocardial infarction (MI or heart attack), aortic mitral valve disease, hypertensive heart disease,
cardiomyopathy, fluid overload, arrhythmias, endocarditis, myocarditis, congenital heart disease, rheumatic
fever, septal defects, shock, trauma, infection, sepsis, pneumonia, pulmonary obstruction, embolism and
pancreatitis. Treatment of pulmonary edema consists of treating the underlying condition or cause of
pulmonary edema. Other treatment measures include having the patient sit up and allow the legs to dangle,
the use of oxygen, rotating tourniquets, mechanical ventilation that may include a ventilator with positive
end expiratory pressure (PEEP). Low sodium diet, bedrest, fluid restriction, and education on the disease
process are all part of treatment of pulmonary edema. Medications utilized to treat pulmonary edema include
morphine sulfate, furosemide, nitroglycerin, and angiotensin converting enzymes. Patients who experience
pulmonary edema on a chronic basis are often treated with digoxin, beta-blockers, and isosorbide dinitrates.

Briefly discuss the pathogenesis of acute respiratory syndrome.

Answer:

The hallmark of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is inflammation of the lungs. Early in acute
respiratory distress syndrome the pulmonary neutrophils gather in great amounts at the site of inflammation,
intraluminal fibrin and platelets also aggregate at the site of inflammation. Injuries from inflammation lead
to edema from capillary leaks. This fluid contains plasma proteins that can inactivate the surfactant of the
alveoli and cause lack of elasticity with respiration and lead to alveolar collapse. Fibrin clotting then causes
obstructed airspaces. The result is decreased respiratory compliance, decreased function, decreased residual
volumes, and dead airspace. The end result for the client is ventilation perfusion mismatching,
intrapulmonary shunting, and hypoxemia, thrombus, and hypertension, and death.

Briefly discuss gout.

Answer:

Gout is a disorder of altered purine metabolism. Gout occurs most often in men and is characterized by
elevated uric acid levels that cause inflammation. Gout accompanies severe arthritis as well. Gout has a
sudden onset of crystal deposits and sodium urate in the connective tissues and articular cartilage. Gout has a
familial tendency. Systems involved with gout include the musculoskeletal, endocrine, metabolic, and renal.
Signs and symptoms of gout include, but are not limited to acute onset of swelling, pain, erythema, to one or
more joints. Gout is characterized by soft tissue redness, swelling, and warmth. Tenderness and pain often
accompany gout. Gout is a recurring disorder. The nurse should teach the patient to rest the area until the
acute phase of the disease subsides. The diet of an individual with gout will be characterized by low fat, low
or no alcohol, no sardines, anchovies, liver or sweetbread.
TSH (Thyroid stimulating hormone): The normal TSH values are: Adult 0.35-5.5 uIU/ml. Newborn: <25
uIU/ml.

Answer:

Thyroid stimulating hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland (anterior hypophysis) in response to
thyroid releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is a catalyst
(stimulates) the production of T4 (thyroxine) from the thyroid gland. TSH is dependent upon the negative
feedback mechanism of the body; decreased levels of T4 cause the release of TRH and in turn stimulate the
production of TSH. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and T4 (thyroxine) measurements are utilized to
differentiate thyroid and pituitary functions among individuals with hormonal irregularities, and suspect
disease states. Thyroid stimulating hormone is often utilized to determine hypothyroidism caused by the
pituitary. Decreased levels of TSH may indicate secondary hypothyroidism related to pituitary problems.
The nurse should keep in mind that ASA (aspirin), steroids, dopamine and heparin will alter the results of
TSH and may cause false readings.

Briefly define the term dietary standards.

Answer:

Dietary standards are a set of guidelines in which an individual can understand essential nutrients, food
consumption and the relationship they possess. Not only do dietary standards increase understanding of
foods and their nutritional values they offer a mechanism of comparison. Recommended Dietary Allowances
(RDA) is a set of standards the federal government mandates each individual needs on a daily bases to
maintain balanced and adequate nutrition. Reference Dietary Intake (RDI) is a combination of recommended
daily allowances and mechanisms of risk reduction for diseases such as coronary artery disease, obesity,
cancer, and osteoporosis. Dietary standard of RDA, and RDI are used today with meal preparation for our
military personnel, groups such as WIC (Women, Infants, and Children), and meals on wheels programs
through out the country.

Discuss the body mass index (BMI).

Answer:

The body mass index is a method of measurement that includes the height and weight of an individual to
determine body fat as it relates to nutritional status. The body mass index is determined by dividing the
weight in kilograms by the height in meters squared. The preferred range for BMI for the adult is 18-25
kg/m2. A body mass index of less than 18 is considered malnourished. A body mass index of greater than 25
designates the individual as overweight. A body mass index of greater than 30 is considered obese. Body
mass index is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the height in meter squared.

Answer:

Enteral feedings require a tube to be placed into the stomach or jejunum via the abdominal wall; this feeding
tube provides liquid nutrition while maintaining the functionality of the gastrointestinal system. Enteral
feedings can be temporary or permanent and provide 100% of the daily nutritional requirement of
individuals in multiple situations. Feedings are specific to disease process as with the pulmonary, renal and
cardiovascular systems, and often contain milk products. It is common to begin enteral feeding at a slow rate
and graduate hourly intake to a maintenance goal. Enteral feedings often cause diarrhea upon initial usage,
but this does clear with time and gastrointestinal adjustment. Keep in mind feeding tube should be kept
patent and placement checked per facility policy at minimum every shift.

Briefly explain Dumping Syndrome.

:Answer:

Dumping syndrome is a term used to describe a rapid cycle of gastric emptying. Symptoms associated with
dumping syndrome include flushing, diaphoresis, weakness, dizziness, nausea, abdominal cramping,
diarrhea, and potential vasomotor failure (tachycardia, orthostatic or positional hypertension). When large
volumes of food are placed into the small intestine to quickly fluid is pulled from within the cells to
accommodate digestion and hypovolemia occurs causing the symptoms associated with dumping syndrome.
Dumping syndrome occurs most often after ingestion of a large meal (post-prandially). It is not uncommon
for a client to experience both intestinal and vascular symptoms together or have a mono reaction of the
intestinal symptoms or the vascular symptoms

Briefly discuss opioid analgesics.

Answer:
Opioid analgesics include drugs such as heroin, and morphine. Opioids are derived from opium and opium is
harvested from poppy. Opioids are highly addictive, cause emotional lability and decrease the ability to
learn and memorize. The most common opioids used today are morphine, methadone, fentanyl, naloxone,
and butorphanol. The effects of opioids include pain relief (analgesia), elevated mood, and euphoria,
decreased respiratory status, decreased cardiovascular status, and altered gastrointestinal and endocrine
function. Opioids act in the forebrain to cause an analgesic effect. Respiratory depression that often
accompanies opioid use involves a reduction of responses from the brainstem or respiratory center.
Morphine an opioid is often used in treating pain accompanying an MI. The action of morphine is treating
angina pectoris by decreasing preload, inotropy and chronotropy relieving ischemia and allowing oxygen to
return to the myocardium.

Bleeding time 1.5-9.5 min

Prothrombin time 9.5 12 sec

Blood Gas Partial Pressure PaO2 85-95mmHg

SaO2 95-99 %

PaCO2 35-45mmHg increasePaCO2 Resp: acidosis, Metabolic alkalosis

decreasePaCO2 Resp: alkalosis, Metabolic acidosis

Metabolic acidosis decrease pH, HCO3,PCO2,urine pH below 6 if increase HCO3,PCO2 respiratory

acidosis

Metabolic acidosis increase pH, HCO3,PCO2,urine pH above7 if decrease HCO3, PCO2 respiratory
acidosis

SNB OLD QUESTIONS

QUESTIONS RELATED WITH VITAMIN& MINERALS

1. To promote wound healing, which elements are need?
(a) Protein & vitB
(b) Protein & vitC
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Fat