PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 CM3 0 2 1 1 8 0 4 2

FORM NUMBER

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2018-2019)

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE

PHASE – ALL
TEST SYLLABUS : 11th & 12th SYLLABUS

TEST # 03 DATE : 16 - 01 - 2019

TEST TYPE : MAJOR TEST PATTERN : NEET-UG
INSTRUCTIONS
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and
shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019

 Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/16-01-2019
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1. For the system shown in figure, the pulleys are 4. P-type semiconductor has acceptor levels
light and frictionless. The tension in the string will 57 meV above the valence band. The maximum
be :- wavelength of light required to create a hole is
(Planck's constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s) :-
(1) 57Å (2) 57 × 10–3 Å
(3) 217100 Å (4) 11.61 × 10–33 Å
m
m E0x
5. If E = i (x - mt) then flux through the
a
2 3 shaded area of a cube is :-
(1) mg sin (2) mg sin
3 2
y
1
(3) 2 mg sin (4) mg sin
2
2. Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin
x
square plate of side 4R and mass M. The (a, 0)
z
moment of inertia of the remaining portion
about z-axis is :-
(1) E0a 2 (2) Zero
3
(3) E0a (4) - E0 a3
y
6. A block of mass 5 kg is kept on a rough
horizontal floor. It is given a velocity 33 m/s

x towards right. A force of 20 2 N continuouslyy

acts on the block as shown in the figure. If the
coefficient of friction between block and floor
is 0.5 the velocity of block after 3 seconds is
(g = 10 m/s2)

20 2 N
4
(1) MR 2
(2) MR 2
12 3 4 45º
5 kg 33 m/s

8 10 4 (1) 2 m/s (2) Zero

(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
3 16 3 6 (3) 33/12 m/s (4) None of above
3. A Carnot's engine working between 300 K 7. A copper solid cube of 60 mm side is subjected
and 600 K has a work output of 800 J per to a pressure of 2.5 × 10 7 Pa. If the bulk
cycle. How much heat energy is supplied to modulus of copper is 1.25 × 10 11 N/m 2, the
the engine from the source in each cycle ? change in the volume of cube is -
(1) 1400 J (2) 1500 J (1) – 43.2 m3 (2) – 43.2 mm3
(3) 1600 J (4) 1700 J (3) – 43.2 cm3 (4) – 432 mm3

2001CM302118042 H-1/21
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/Major Test/16-01-2019
8. Displacement-time equation of a particle 13. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic
mass = 4 amu) and 1 mole of argon gas (atomic
executing SHM is x = A sin t . mass = 40 amu) is kept at 300 K in a container.
6

Time taken by the particle to go directly from v rms (helium)

The ratio of the r.m.s. speeds v rms (argon) is
A A
x = – to x = + is:
2 2 (1) 0.32 (2) 0.45
(3) 2.24 (4) 3.16
2
(1) (2) (3) (4) 14. In the following circuit, the current flowing
3 2
through 1k resistor :-
9. In a transistor the collector current is always
less than the emitter current because :-
500
(1) Collector side is reverse biased and the
emitter side is forward biased
10V 5V 1k
(2) A few charge carriers are lost in the base
and only remaining ones reach the collector
(3) Collector being reverse biased, attracts less (1) 0 mA (2) 5 mA
electrons
(3) 10 mA (4) 15 mA
(4) Collector side is forward biased and emitter
15. What will be r.m.s. value of given A.C. over
side is reverse biased
one cycle.
10. A galvanometer of resistance, G, is connected V
in a circuit. Now a resistance R is connected
in series of galvanometer. To keep the main V0
current in the circuit unchanged, the resistance
to be put in parallel with the series combination 0 T T 3T t
of G and R is- 2 2

G2 R2 V0 V0 V0
(1) G (2) G (1) V0 (2) (3) (4)
R G 2 2 4

G2 R2 16. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top

(3) G (4) G of a tower at 4.9 ms–1. It strikes the pond near
R G
the base of the tower after 3 seconds. The height
11. A player throws a ball that reaches to the of the tower is :-
another player in 4s. If the height of each player
(1) 73.5 m (2) 44.1 m
is 1.5m, the maximum height attained by the
ball from the ground level is : (3) 29.4 m (4) None of these
(1) 19.6 m (2) 21.1 m 17. If the distance between centres of earth and
moon is D and the mass of earth is 81 times the
(3) 23.6 m (4) 25.1 m
mass of moon, then at what distance from
12. Water rises in a capillary upto a height of 4 cm. centre of earth the gravitational force will be
If it is titled to 30º from the vertical, then the zero-
length of water column in it will be -
D 2D
(1) (2)
8 2 3
(1) cm (2) 8 3 cm
3 4D 9D
(3) (4)
(3) 4 cm (4) 2 cm 3 10

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 Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/16-01-2019
18. The equation of a stationary wave is 22. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle
of radius R under the action of their mutual
x
Y = 10 sin cos20 t. The distance gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is-
4
between two consecutive nodes in metres 1 1 Gm
(1) v (2) v
is - 2R Gm 2R
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 8 1 Gm 4Gm
19. Threshold wavelength of a metal surface is (3) v (4) v
2 R R
5 × 10–10 m. When it is illuminated by light of 23. In an EM wave propagating along X-direction
wavelength 2 × 10–10 m , stopping potential is
magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of 3 × 1010
V 0 what will be stopping potential if
Hz along Y-direction and has an amplitude of
wavelength of light is doubled :-
10–7 T. The expression for electric field will be:-
V0 (1) Ez = 30 sin 2 (100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(1) (2) 2V0
2 (2) Ez = 300 sin 2 (100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(3) > (0.5 V0) (4) < (0.5 V0) (3) Ey = 30 sin 2 (100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
20. Two small spherical balls each carrying a (4) Ez = 300 sin 2 (100x – 3×10 10 t) V/m
charge Q = 10 C (10 micro-coulomb) are 24. A photon of energy h is absorbed by a free
suspended by two insulating threads of equal electron of a metal having work function
lengths 3 m each, from a point fixed in the < h :–
ceiling. It is found that in equilibrium threads (1) The electron is sure to come out
are separated by an angle 120° between them, (2) The electron is sure to come out with a
as shown in the figure. What is the tension in kinetic energy h – .

1 (3) Either the electron doen’t come out or it

the threads (Given : = 9 × 109 Nm/C2) come out with a kinetic energy h –
(4 0 )
(4) It may come out with kinetic energy less
than h –
120°
25. Electrostatic field of a long uniformly charged
Q
wire varies with distance (r) according to
Q
relation:
0.2
(1) N (2) 1.8 N
3 (1) E r (2) E
r
0.2
(3) N (4) None of the above
5 (3) E (4) E
r2 r3
21. Measure of two quantities along with the 26. If the position vector of a particle is
precision of respective measuring instrument
r costiˆ sin tjˆ 18tkˆ
is:
then what is the magnitude of its acceleration?
A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) sin2 t (4) cos t
The value of AB will be
27. 1 kg of ice at – 10°C is mixed with 4.4 kg of
(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m water at 30°C. The final temperature of mixture is:
(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m (specific heat of ice is 2100 J/kg/k)
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m (1) 2.3°C (2) 4.4°C
(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m (3) 5.3°C (4) 8.7°C

2001CM302118042 H-3/21
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/Major Test/16-01-2019
28. In young's double-slit experiment, the intensity (1) 60°C (2) 73.3°C
at a point where path difference is /6 is I'. If (3) 46.7°C (4) 37.3°C
I0 denotes the maximum intensity, then I'/I0 is
33. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm
equal to :-
diameter and is situated at a distance of 1 km
3 1 1 from two objects. The minimum distance
3
(1) (2) (3) (4) between these two objects which can be
4 2 2 2
resolved by the telescope, when the mean
29. At t = 0, number of active nuclei in a sample is N0. wavelength of light is 5000 Å, is the order of :-
How much no. of nuclei will decay in time (1) 0.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 5 mm (4) 5 cm
between its first mean life and second half life?
34. The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1
N0 N 0 N0 and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X are fused
(1) (2)
e e 4 to give one atom of Y and an energy Q is
N 0 N0 N0 released. Then
(3) (4)
2 e 4 (1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2–2E1
30. If a copper rod carries a direct current, the (3) Q = 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1
magnetic field associated with the current will be: 35. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire
(1) Only inside the rod carry currents Ic and Ie, respectively as shown
(2) Only outside the rod in figure. Assuming that these are placed in
the same plane. The magnetic fields will be zero
(3) Both inside and outside the rod
at the centre of the loop when the separation
(4) Neither inside nor outside the rod
H is :-
31. System shown in figure is released from rest.
Wire
Pulley and spring are massless and the friction R
is absent everywhere. The speed of 5 kg block, Ic
when 2 kg block leaves the contact with
ground is :- H
(take force constant of Ie
the sprign k = 40 N/m Straight
2
and g = 10 m/s ) Ie R Ic R Ic Ie
(1) I (2) I (3) I R (4) I R
(1) 2 m/s c e e c

(2) 2 2 m/s 36. Two identical balls A and B are released from
5kg the positions shown in figure. They collide
(3) 2 m/s
elastically on horizontal portion MN. The ratio
(4) 4 2 m/s 2kg of the heights attained by A and B after
32. Two rods are connected as shown. The rods collision will be :- (neglect friction)
are of same length and same cross sectional A

area. In steady state, the temperature ( ) of

the interface will be –
4h

B
h
45º 60º
M N
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 13 (4) 2 : 5

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 Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/16-01-2019
37. The motion of a particle varies with time
according to the relation y = a (sin t + cos t)
(1) the motion is oscillatory but not S.H.M. (3) (4)
(2) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude a

(3) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude a 2 43. Young's double-slit experiment is carried out
(4) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude 2a by using green, red and blue light, one colour
at a time. The fringe widths recorded are
38. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism
to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism G, R and B respectively. Then :-

must be made of a material whose refractive (1) G > B > R (2) B > G > R
index :- (3) R> B > G (4) R> G > B

(1) between 44. Fig. shows rough sketch of meter bridge.

2 & 1 (2) between 2 & 2
(G) deflects zero at length cm. Now R1 and
(3) less than 1 (4) Greater than 2 R 2 are interchanged then balancing length
39. The energy stored in the capacitor is 'U'. If an increases by 25 cm. Find R1 /R2 :-
uncharged capacitor of same capacity is
connected in parallel with it, then energy stored R1 R2
in each capacitor is G

U U U a c
(1) (2) (3) (4) U
6 4 2
E
40. A mgnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform
magnetic field. It experiences :-
3 2 2 5
(1) A force and a torque (1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 3 2
(2) A force but not a torque
45. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is
(3) A torque but not a force
placed in a uniform magnetic field
(4) Neither a torque nor a force perpendicular to the plane of the coil.The radius
41. Two particles of equal masses have velocities of the coil changes as shown in figure. The
graph of induced emf in the coil is represented
v1 2iˆ m/s and v 2 2 ˆjm/s . The first particle
by :-
has an acceleration a1 (3iˆ 3ˆj) m/s 2 , while Y

the acceleration of the other particle is zero. The

centre of mass of the two particles moves in a:
r
(1) circle (2) parabola
(3) straight line (4) ellipse O t(s) X

Y Y
42. An ideal gas follows a process PT = constant.
The correct graph between pressure & volume
e e
is :- (1) (2)
O X O X
1 2 t(s ) 1 2 t(s )

Y
Y
(1) (2)
e
(3) (4) e
O X X
1 2 t(s ) O 1 2 t(s)

2001CM302118042 H-5/21
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/Major Test/16-01-2019
46. In any subshell, the maximum number of 53. The coordination number of a metal
electrons having same value of spin quantum crystallising in a hexagonal closed packed
number is :- structure is :
(1) 12 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 6
(1) l (l 1) (2) l + 2
54. The vapour density of undecomposed N2O4 is
(3) 2l + 1 (4) 4l + 2 46. When heated the vapour density decreases
47. The pressure of sodium vapour in a 1.0 L to 24.5 due to its dissociation to NO 2 (g).The
container is 10 torr at 1000°C. How many percentage dissociation of N2O4 is :
atoms are in the container ? (1) 87.75 (2) 60 (3) 40 (4) 70
17 19
(1) 9.7 × 10 (2) 7.6 × 10 55. Find the equilibrium constant for equilibrium
17
(3) 4.2 × 10 (4) 9.7 × 1019
HCOO– + H2O HCOOH + OH–
48. 25 g ethylene glycol is present in 100 g of water.
In a solution of 0.1 M HCOONa.
The solution is cooled to –10°C. Kf for H2O is
1.86 K kg mol–1. The amount of ice separated Ka(HCOOH) = 1.8 × 10–4
on cooling is :- (1) 1.8 × 10 –4 (2) 5.56 × 10 3
(1) 25 g (2) 50 g (3) 75 g (4) 20 g (3) 5.56 × 10 –11 (4) 1.8 × 10–18
49. Among the electrolytes Na 2 SO 4 , CaCl 2 , 56. Cell reaction is spontaneous, when :
Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3, and NH 4 Cl, the most effective
(1) E ored is negative (2) G is negative
coagulating agent for Sb 2S3 is :-
(1) Na2SO4 (2) CaCl2 (3) E ooxi is positive (4) G is positive
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) NH4Cl 57. CP – CV = R
1 This R is :
50. N2O5 2NO2 + O;
2 2 (1) Change in KE
In a definite time interval the rate of (2) Change in rotational energy
decomposition of N2O5 is 1.8 × 10–3 mol L–1
(3) Work done which system can do on
min–1, then the rate of formation of O2 will be:
expanding one mole of the gas per degree
(1) 1.8 × 10 –3 mol L–1 min–1 increase in temperature
(2) 9 × 10–4 mol L–1 min–1 (4) All are correct
–3 –1 –1
(3) 3.6 × 10 mol L min 58. If the PE of an electron in the first Bohr orbit
–4 –1
(4) 3.6 × 10 mol L min–1 of H atom is x ev, the total energy of the
51. Passage of a current for 548 seconds through electron in same orbit is:-
a silver coulometer results in the deposition of
x x
0.746 g of silver. What is the current (in A) : (1) eV (2) eV
8 8
(1) 1.22 (2) 1.16 (3) 1.07 (4) 1.00
52. H2 + Cl2 2HCl ; H = –xkJ x x
(3) eV (4) eV
NaCl + H2SO4 NaHSO4 + HCl ; 2 2
H = –ykJ
59. Two liquids A and B have PAo and PBo in the
2H2O + 2Cl2 4HCl + Cl2 H = –zkJ
ratio of 1 : 3 and the ratio of number of moles
From above equation the value of Hf of HCl of A and B in the liquid phase are 1 : 3 than
is : mole fraction of A in vapour phase in
equilibrium with the solution is equal to :
x
(1) –x kJ (2) –y kJ (3) –z kJ (4) kJ (1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.5 (4) 1
2
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 Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/16-01-2019
60. At low pressure, the vander Waal's equation 67. Which of the following order is correct
become : (1) Na2O < MgO < ZnO < P4O10(Acidic property)
(1) PVm = RT (2) Na < Si > Mg < A (First ionization potential)
(2) P(Vm – b) = RT (3) F > C > Br (Electron affinity)
a (4) Te–2 < I– < Cs+ < Ba+2(ionic size)
(3) P (Vm ) RT
Vm2 68. In which of the following pairs both the
complex show optical isomerism
RT a
(4) P Vm Vm2 (1) Cis – [Cr(C 2O4)Cl 2]–3, mer – [Co(gly)3]

61. The diamagnetic specie is :- (2) [Co(en)3]Cl 3, Trans – [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl

(1) [Ni(CN)4 ]2– (2) [NiCl 4]2– (3) [Pt Cl (dien)] Cl, [NiCl2(PPh3)2]

(3) [CoCl4 ]2– (4) [CoF 6 ]2– (4) [Co(NO3)3 (NH3)3], cis – [Pt(en)2Cl2]Cl 2

62. Which of the following pairs of nitrates gives the 69. In superoxides, oxygen is present in which
same gaseous products on thermal form:-
decomposition? (1) O2–2 (2) O2–1 (3) O3–2 (4) O2+2
(1) KNO3 and Pb(NO3)2 70.
(2) KNO3 and NaNO 3 Column I Column II
(3) Pb(NO3)2 and Cu(NO3)2 (i) [Ni(NH3)6]+2 (a) d2sp3 and diamagnetic
(4) All
(ii) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 (b) sp3d2 and diamagnetic
63. Which chemical used in clark method to
remove temporary hardness of water :- (iii) [Co(NH3)6]+3 (c) sp3d2 and two unpaired electrons

(1) CaO (2) Na2CO3 (iv) [Zn(NH3)6]+2 (d) d2sp3 and three unpaired electrons
(3) Zeolite (4) Ca(OH)2 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
64. Which of the following complex ion have (1) c d a b
lowest 0 value :-
(2) d c b a
(1) [Co(NH3)6]+3 (2) [CoF6]–3
(3) c d b a
(3) [Rh(NH3)6]+3 (4) [Ir(NH3)6]+3
(4) a b c d
65. Which of the following is correct
71. + +
Molecular shape of XeF3 , SF3 and CF3+ are:-
(1) S 3O9 Contains no S – S linkage
(1) the same with 2, 1 and 0 lone pairs of
(2) S 2O6–2 Contains – O – O – linkage electrons respectively
(3) (HPO3)3 Contains P – P linkage (2) different with 2, 1 and 0 lone pair of
–2
(4) S 2O8 Contains S – S linkage electrons respectively
66. Which of the following statements is false (3) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of
(1) H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 all are tribasic and electrons respectively
reducing in nature (4) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of
(2) Among anions, NO 3 –, SO 3–2 , CO 3 –2 and electrons respectively
BO3–3, only SO3–2 have P – d bonding 72. Which does not represent correct method
–2 –2 –2
(3) Among anions SO3 , SO4 , S 2O4 and
(1) TiCl2 + 2 Mg Ti + 2 MgCl2 (Kroll)
HSO4–, SO3–2 is basic and reducing in nature
(2) Ni(CO)4 Ni + 4 CO (Mond)
(4) Number of lone pairs of electrons on Xe atoms
(3) Ag2CO3 2 Ag + CO2 +1/2 O2 (van arkel)
in XeF 2, XeF 4 and XeF 6 are 3, 2 and 1
respectively (4) ZrI4 Zr + 2 I2 (Van Arkel)
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 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/Major Test/16-01-2019
73. 79. In the reaction :
Column I Column II HBr
OCH3 the products are :-
+
(i) N2 N 2
(a) Bond order increases and
Magnetic property changed
(1) Br OCH3 and H2
+ +2
(ii) O 2
O 2
(b) Bond order decreases and
Magnetic property is not changed (2) Br and CH3 –Br
(iii) B2 B2+ (c) Bond order increases and
magnetic property not changed (3) Br and CH3 –OH

(iv) NO– NO (d) Bond order decreases and

(4) OH and CH3 –Br
magnetic property is changed
Note : Here change in Magnetic property refers O
to change from diamagnetic to paramagnetic H NaOH
80. (P)
or paramagnetic to diamagnetic H
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) O
(1) d a c b P will be :-
(2) d a b c O O
(3) c b d a
(1) OCH3 (2) ONa
(4) a d b c OH OH
74. Which of the following compound do not
exhibit Amphoteric behaviour :- O
COOH
(1) Zn(OH)2 (2) BeO (3) SiO2 (4) Pb(OH)2 (3) O (4)
COOH
75. Correct order for electron affinity is :-
(1) O < S < F < Cl (2) O < S < Cl < F 81. Product of which of the following reaction
(3) S < O < F < Cl (4) S < O < Cl < F gives haloform reaction :
76. Number of sigma bonds in given structure is:- (i) C2 H 5 MgBr
(1) CH3–CH 2–CH=O (2) H2 O
CH3
(i) CO2
(2) CH 3–MgBr (ii ) H 2 O

(1) 15 (2) 3 (3) 10 (4) 12 (3) CH3–C–CH2–CH3 NaBH 4

=

NH 2 OH O
77. IUPAC name is :-
(i) BH 3 ,THF
(1) 4-Amino-2-pentanol (4) CH 3–CH2–CH=CH2
(ii) H 2O 2 / OH

(2) 2-Amino-4-pentanol
82. Which of the following does not give alcohol
(3) 1-Amino-4-pentanol on reduction by using LiAlH4 :-
(4) 4-Amino-1-pentanol
O
=

OH (1) CH3–C–Cl
O
78. and are :- O
=

(2) CH3–C–NH2
(1) Chain isomer
O
=

(2) Functional group isomer (3) CH3–C–OC2H5

(3) Position isomer
(4) (CH3CO)2O
(4) None of above
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 Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/16-01-2019
83. Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard
O
reagent yields :- (1) LAH
87. (2) Conc.H 2SO4 / (A). Identify
(1) Secondary alcohol
(2) Tertiary alcohol major product A ?
(3) Cyclopropyl alcohol
(1) OH (2)
(4) Primary alcohol
84. Ozonolysis of 3-methyl-1-butene gives a
(3) (4)
mixture of :-
(1) Propanal and ethanal O (1)
(2) Propanone and ethanal 88. + MgCl (2) H 2 O (A)
(3) 2-methyl propanal and methanal
Conc. O3 / Zn OH
(4) Butanone and methanal H2 SO 4 / (B) (C) (D).
85. Identify W :-
Identify D product ?
(i) Li
Br 2 (ii) CuI Br2, h (i) Mg/Ether
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3 X(iii)14CH I Y Z (ii) D O W O
h 3 2 O
H
(1) H (2)
D
* H
* 2–CH3
(1) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 (2) CH3–C–CH
14 14
CH2D CH3 OH
OH
D (3) (4)
14 *
(3) CH3–C–CH2– CH 3 (4) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3
14
CH3 CH3 89. Among the following compounds identify
compound which give (+)ve. Iodoform test ?
H 2 Pd cold dil.
86. H3C–C C–CH3 CaCO3 X KMnO4 / O H
Y; O OH
Y is :- (1) (2)

OH OH
(3) (4) All of these
O
H CH3 H 3C H
(1) H C (2) H C 90. Select incorrect statement from the following-
3 H 3 H
(1) CH 3–CHO & HCHO can be distinguished
OH OH
by iodoform test
(2) CH 3 –CHO & CH 3 COOH can be
OH distinguished by NaHCO3
H 3C H (3) CH 3 –COOH & HCOOH can be
(3) (4) (1) & (3) both distinguished by Tollen's reagent
H CH3
(4) HCHO & HCOOH can be distinguished by
OH
Tollen's reagent

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91. Higher the taxonomic category, ________is the 96. Study the following table carefully and give the
number of organisms and _________is the correct answer from the options :-
number of common features.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(1) Higher, more (2) Fewer, less
(1) Chlorella Protein source Cyanobacteria
(3) Higher, fewer (4) Fewer, more
(2) Spirullina Chlorophyceae Protein source
92. Choose odd one w.r.t. obligate categories
Grow in salty
(1) Genus and Family (2) Family and Order (3) Halophiles Archaebacteria
areas
(3) Tribe and Variety (4) Order and Class
Saprophytic Forms
93. Which of the following taxonomic aids provide (4) Slime moulds
protists plasmodium
information about the local flora as well as flora
Options :-
of distant areas?
(1) i & ii - incorrect, iii & iv - correct
(1) Museum, herbarium
(2) i & iii - incorrect, ii & iv - correct
(2) Herbarium, botanical garden
(3) Botanical garden, museums (3) ii & iv - incorrect, iii & i - correct
(4) Herbarium, flora (4) i, ii & iii - correct, only iv is incorrect
94. 97. Choose the incorrect option regarding
S.N. Character Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia
Neurospora
(i) Cell type Prokaryotic (A) Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic (1) Drosophila of plant kingdom
Present /
(ii) Cell wall (B) Present Present Absent
absent (2) Member of Ascomycetes
Nuclear
(iii) Absent Present Present (C) Present
Membrane (3) Used for the study of genetics
Body Tissue/Organ/
(iv) Cellular (D) Multicellular Tissue/organ (4) Have dolipore septa and clamp connection
organiation Organ system

What will be the correct/suitable characters in place 98. Choose the correct match :-
of A, B, C, D in respective kingdoms in above table ? (1) Gonyaulax - Water bloom
B A D C (2) Algin - Obtained by red algae
(1) Noncellulosic Eukaryotic Cellular Present (3) Carrageen - Obtained by green algae
(2) Cellulosic Prokaryotic Tissue Absent
(4) Dinoflagellates - Chief producers in oceans
(3) Present Eukaryotic Multicellular Absent
May be
(4) Absent Eukaryotic Organ
present
99.
A
95. A B B
C

C
D
match the A, B, C and D
D
(1) A – Amphitrichous, B – Lophotrichous,
C – Cephalotrichous, D – Peritrichous
Which option is correct match for above
(2) A – Amphitrichous, B – Cephalotrichous,
diagram
C – Lophotrichous, D – Peritrichous
(1) Bacteriophage, B-Head
(3) A – Peritrichous, B – Cephalotrichous,
(2) Nostoc, A-Head
C – Lophotrichous, D – Amphitrichous
(3) Bacteriophage, B-Collar, C-Sheath
(4) A – Peritrichous, B – Lophotrichous,
(4) Nostoc, A-Head, C-Sheath
C – Cephalotrichous, D – Amphitrichous
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100. Identify the following diagrams A to C : 104. Water potential and osmotic potential of pure
water are
(1) zero and zero (2) zero and 100
(3) 100 and zero (4) 100 and 100
105. Match the following figures with there related
plants ?
(A) (B) (C)
Options :- (A) i. China rose
(1) A - Laminaria, B - Porphyra, C - Chara
(2)A - Fucus, B - Dictyota, C - Laminaria
(3) A - Fucus, B - Polysiphonia, C - Porphyra
(4) A - Laminaria, B-Chara, C - Porphyra (B) ii. Argemone
101. On the Basis of characters in group A & group
B identify the correct :-

Group - A Group-B
(C) iii. Gulmohur
(i) Land plant (i) Land plant
(ii) Plant body (ii) Sporophyte is
forms thallus divided in to root,
stem & leaves (D) iv. Plum

(iii) Gemma cups (iii) Vascular tissue is (1) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
present on present
dorsal surface (2) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(iv) Multicellular (iv) Fruits are absent
scales are present (4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
106. Match the following columns I, II & III
(v) Gametophytic (v) Seeds are present
plant body Column-I Column-II Column-III

Options :-
(A) Malvaceae (i) (a) Beans
(1) A - Spirogyra B - Riccia
(2) A - Cycas B - Pinus
(3) A - Marchantia B - Cycas (B) Cruciferae (ii) (b) Radish

(4) A - Pinus B - Marchantia

102. Small specialised roots called 'Coralloid roots' (C) Gulmohar
are associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria,
present in -
(1) Pinus (2) Azolla (D) Fabaceae China Rose

(3) Fern (4) Cycas

Option :
103. Which of the following reduces transpiration
(1) A-ii-d, B-iv-b, C-iii-a, D-i-c
rate in plants ?
(2) A-iv-b, B-i-c, C-iv-d, D-iii-d
(1) Cellulose (2) Hemicellulose
(3) A-ii-d, B-iv-b, C-i-c, D-iii-a
(3) Cutin (4) Pectin
(4) A-iv-b, B-iii-a, C-ii-d, D-i-c
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107. Match the followings ? 111. Choose the correct combination from the
(A) Cypsela fruit i. Ficus following :-
(B) Silicula ii. Maize Property Active Simple Facilitated
(C) Caryopsis iii. Mustard transport diffusion diffusion
(D) Syconus iv. Sunflower
Transport saturationYes No Yes
(1) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
Require special Yes No Yes
(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
membrane proteins
(3) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i A Yes No Yes
108. Which of the following is not correctly Uphill transport B No C
matched? Requires ATP Yes No D
(1) Peroxisome = Breakdown of H2O 2
Energy
(2) Sphaerosome = Synthesis and storage of
lipids in all eukaryotic cells (1) A = Downhill transport, B, = No, C = yes, D = yes

(3) Glyoxysome = Conversion of fat into (2) A = Selective nature, B = yes, C = No, D = No
carbohydrates (3) A = Sensitive to inhibitors, B = No, C = yes, D = yes
(4) Peroxisome = -oxidation of fatty acids (4) A = Hormonal regulation, B = yes, C = yes,
109. Match the contents of column 'A' with column D = No
'B' & identify the correct one :-
112. Match the following column and choose the
Column - A Column - B
correct option :-
(a) Leucoplast (i) Flat membranous
sacs Column-I Column-II

(b) Carotenoid (ii) Double (A) Radial vascular (i) Cucurbita stem
membranous bundle
(c) Thylakoids (iii) Fat soluble pigments (B) Collateral vascular (ii) Dracaena stem
(d) Chloroplast (iv) Colourless plastids
bundle
(1) a - (iv), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iii)
(C) Bicollateral vascular (iii) Roots of
(2) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (ii)
(3) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv) bundle angiosperms

(4) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i) (D) Amphicribal (iv) Sunflower stem

A B vascular bundle
Solute (E) Amphivasal (v) Fern Rhizome
110. molecules
vascular bundle (stem)
Water
Semi
permeable
membrane (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
In the above diagram, the chamber with more (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (v) (ii)
negative solute potential and the chamber with (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (v) (iv)
less negative water potential, are respectively:-
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii)
(1) A and B (2) A and A
(4) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) B and B (4) B and A

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113. Identify the labelled part (a), (b), (c) and (d) in 115. Match the column -I with column-II :-
given diagram and select correct option about
them: Column-I Column-II

Oxidative
(i) (a) Lysosome
(d) Phosphorylation

(ii) Autolysis (b) Centriole

(c) (iii) Detoxification (c) Mitochondria

(b) (iv) Membraneless (d) SER

(a) (1) i c; ii d; iii a; iv b

(2) i d; ii c; iii b; iv a
(3) i c; ii a; iii d; iv b

(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) i d; ii b; iii c; iv a

116. Study the diagram given below :-
Root
Root
1. Plerome Protoderm apical
cap
meristem
C
Root A
2. Root cap apical Protoderm Plerome
meristem
B
Root
3. Protoderm Plerome Root cap apical
meristem A B C
Root (1) Funnel Aeration Nutrient Solution
Root
4. apical Plerome Protoderm (2) Aeration Nutrient Funnel
cap
meristem Solution
(3) Nutrient Funnel Aeration
114. Match the column-I with column-II and choose
the correct option on the basis of codes given Solution
in column-I & II :- (4) Aeration Funnel Nutrient Solution
117. Match the following to identify the correct
Column-I Column-II one :-
(A) Tracheids p Perforated end wall A. Ammonification (i) N2 NO3
(B) Vessels q Pitted end wall B. Nitrification (ii) NO3 NH3
(C) Ray parenchymatous r obliterated central C. Electrical Nitrogen(iii) N2 NH3
cells lumen Fixation (iv) NO3 N2
(D) xylem fibres s Radial conduction D. Denitrification (v) NH3 NO3
of water
(vi) Protein NH3
(1) A - p, B - q, C - r, D - s (1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iv)
(2) A - p, B - q, C - s, D - r (2) A-(vi), B-(v), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) A - q, B - p, C - s, D - r (3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(vi)
(4) A - q, B - s, C - p, D - r (4) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(vi), D-(ii)
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118. Match the following :- 123. Match the following and choose the correct
(A) Sulphur (i) Essential for the combination from the option given :
formation of Column–I Column–II
chlorophyll (A) Rr × Rr (i) 1 : 1
(B) Chlorine (ii) More abundant (B) Rr × rr (ii) 3 : 1
quantities in the
(C) RrYy × RrYy (iii) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
meristem
(C) Iron (iii) Constituent of cysteine (D) RrYy × rryy (iv) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
and methionine amino (1) A–ii, B–iv, C–iii, D–i
acids (2) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv
(D) Potassium (iv) Water splitting reaction in (3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
photosynthesis
(4) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
124. Which of the following condition will have
(2) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii same genotypic and phenotypic ratio ?
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(A) Test cross
(4) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
(B) Incomplete dominance
119. Find odd one out w.r.t. essential requirements
(C) Codominance
of pollen germination and pollen growth on
the stigma (D) Lethal gene
(1) High relative humidity (E) Pleotropic gene
(2) Ca++ (1) All except C
(3) B (2) A, B and D
(4) Mn ++ (3) All except E
(4) A, B and C only
120. If the plant is 6n and male plant is 4n,
125. Match the following :-
then calculate the ploidy of endosperm,
zygote and synergid respectively Column-I Column-II
(1) 8n, 5n, 6n (2) 8n, 5n, 3n (a) Preformation theory (i) Pythagorus
(3) 5n, 8n, 3n (4) 10n, 5n, 3n (b) Fluid theory (ii) C.Darwin
121. It is possible to store pollen grains of a large (c) Pangenesis theory (iii) Swammerdam
number of species for years in :- (d) Moist vapor theory (iv) Aristotle
(1) Liquid Nitrogen (–196°C) (1) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(2) Liquid Hydrogen (–196°C) (2) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii
(3) Liquid Helium (–194°C) (3) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(4) None of above (4) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
122. In which of following residual presistent 126. In case of ABO blood group allele IA and IB if
nucellus remains present :- together then -
(1) Sunflower & Wheat (1) Only IA allele expresses
(2) Castor & Maize (2) Only IB allele expresses
(3) Wheat & Barley (3) Both IA and IB alleles express
(4) Black pepper & Beet (4) None of these

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127. Gene for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants (1) (i) e, (ii) d, (iii) b, (iv) a
are generally located in the :- (2) (i) e, (ii) b, (iii) d, (iv) a
(1) Chloroplast genome (3) (i) c, (ii) d, (iii) a, (iv) b
(2) Mitochondrial genome (4) (i) c, (ii) b, (iii) d, (iv) b
(3) Nucleaer genome 130. Match the following column.
Column-I Column-II
(4) Cytosol
(A) Limnetic zone (i) P/R < 1
128. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(B) Keystone species (ii) Microrhizal fungi
matched ?
(C) Profundal zone (iii) Kangaroo rat
(i) Amensalism A population is inhibited
(D) Critical link speicies (iv) P/R > 1
whereas the other Option:
populations remain (1) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i
unaffected. (2) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(ii) Predation A population uses (3) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
the other as its food. (4) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
131. Identify the correct match
(iii) Mutualism Interaction favourable
Column-I Column-II
to both and obligatory.
(i) Species diversity (a) Great influence on
Select the correct answer using the codes given community stability
below ?
(ii) Species dominance (b) Zonation according to
Answer codes : the need of light
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) (iii) Stratification (c) Different types of
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iii) species in a community
129. Match the column-I with column-II :- (iv) Keystone species (d) Highest no of one type
of species
(1) i–c, ii-b, iii–a, iv–d (2) i–c, ii-d, iii–b, iv–a
(i) Population A species (a) Mutualism (3) i–b, ii-a, iii–d, iv–c (4) i–b, ii-d, iii–a, iv–c
B speeie 132. Identify the lines present in the given graph A,
Time B and C.

A species
(ii) Population (b) Competition
B speeie

Time

(iii) Population (c) Ammensalism

A species
B speeie
Time (1) A-Partial regulators, B-Regulators, C-Endotherms
(2) A-Partial regulators, B-Ectotherms,
C-Endotherms
(iv) Population A species (d) Predation (3) A-Partial regulators, B-Regulators,
B C-Conformers
speeie
Time (4) A-Conformers, B-Ectotherms, C-Partial
(e) Commensalism regulators

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133. Desert lizards lack the ...A... ability that 136. Read the following statements (A-D) :-
mapimals have to deal with the ...B... tempera- (A) All species of cockroaches are wild and are
tures of their , habitat, but manage to keep their not economically important.
body temperature fairly constant by ...C... (B) Cockroaches are pests because they destroy
means. food and contaminate it.
Choose the correct option for ,4, B and C.
(C) Cockroach is can transmit a variety of
(1) A-morphological; B high, C-behavioural bacterial diseases.
(2) A-physiological; B-high, C behavioural (D)Cockroaches are nocturnal, omnivorous
(3) A-behavioural; B-high, C-physiological animal that live in dry places through out
(4) A-physiological; B high, C-morphological the world.
134. Match the following columns Out of these which is/are statement not correctly
matched with cockroach?
Column I Column II
A. Mortality 1.Individuals of same (1) Only statements A
species going out (2) Statements B and C
from population. (3) Statement C and D
B. Immigration 2.Individuals of same (4) Statement A and D
species coming in 137. In cockroach, the first pair of wings are known as:
population.
(1) Terga (2) Sterna
C. Emigration 3. Numbers of deaths
(3) Tegmeta (4) Tegmina
in population during
given period. 138. Which one of the following is a matching pair
of' a body feature and the animal possessing it?
Codes:
A B C (1) Poison sting - Hippocampus

(1) 4 3 2 (2) Pharyngeal gill slits - Chamaeleon

absent in embryo
(2) 4 2 1
(3) 3 2 1 (3) Electric organ - Pristis

(4) 2 1 4 (4) Placoid scale - Scolidon

135. Fill up the blanks. 139. Select the correct statement :-
I. Herbivores are also called ...A... (1) Darwinian variations are small and
II. Secondary consumers are eaten by larger ...B... non-directional
III. ...C... consumers eats the secondary (2) Fitness is the end result of the ability to
consumers. adapt and gets selected by nature.
IV. A network of many food chains is called a (3) All mammals except whale and camels have
...D... seven cervical vertebrae
Choose the correct option for A, Bf C and D. (4) Mutation are random and directional
(1) A-secondary consumers. B-top predator, 140. When our body is exposed to antigen for
Quaternary, D-food web second time a relatively faster and high inten-
sity immune response is produced. What is not
(2) A-primary consumer, B -predators,
true about this response ?
C-Tertiary consumer. D-food web
(1) Main antibody formed is IgM
(3) A-tertiary consumers. B-natural enemies,
(2) Based on memory cells
C-Primary consumer, D-food web
(3) Also known as anamnestic response
(4) A-quaternary consumers, B-alligator, C-Top
consumer, D-food web (4) Gives effective immunity
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141. The character that proves that frog have evolved 144. When two species of different genealogy come
from fishes is :- to resemble each other as a result of adaptation,
(1) The ability to swim in water the phenomenon is termed as :-
(2) The tadpole larva in frogs which resembles (1) Divergent evolution
the fishes in many character
(2) Micro evolution
(3) Similarity in the shape of the head
(3) Co-evolution
(4) The tadpole larva of frogs and fishes are
uricotelic (4) Convergent evolution
142. Read the following statement and choose the 145. Which of the following statement is not true....
correct option? (1) Causative organism of pneumonia is
A. Most of the cartilages of vertebrate embryo streptococcus.
are replaced into bones during adult stage.
(2) Typhoid fever spread by contaminated
B. Cartilage are main tissue that provides water and food.
structural frame to the human adult body.
(3) Edward syndrome is trisomy of 21 st
C. Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
chromosome
substance rich in magnesium salts.
D. The bone-marrow in all bones is the site of (4) Barr body is present in male with
production of blood cells. Klinefelter's syndrome
Options :- 146. Which of the following is incorrectly paired
(1) Statement A and B are correct while C and with its function.
D are wrong. (1) Ovary Synthesis and secretion
(2) Statement A is correct while B, C and D are of steroid hormones.
wrong. (2) Fimbriae Collection of the ovum
(3) Statement B, C and D are correct and A is after ovulation
wrong.
(3) Seminal vesicle Produces a sugar
(4) Statement D is correct while A, B and C are containing fluid to
is wrong. nourish sperm.
143. Read the following statements (A-D)
(4) Bartholin glands Secrete alkaline fluid
(A) Noradrenaline and adrenaline are called as to destroys the acidity
catecholamines.
of the urethra.
(B) Parathyroid hormone stimulates
reabsorption of Ca+2 by the renal tubules 147. What amount of urea is excreted out per day
and increases Ca +2 absorption from the by healthy person?
digested food (1) 40-60 gm (2) 25-30 mg
(C) Maintenance of water and electrolyte (3) 30-40 mg (4) 25-30 gm
balance is also influenced by thyroid
hormones. 148. In the given list how many structures are
responsible for maintenance of balance of the
(D) Thyroid gland also secretes a
body.
thyrocalcitonin which regulates the blood
calcium levels. Macula, organ of corti, tectorial membrane,
crista, cochlea
How many of the above statements are true :-
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5

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149. Select the correct statement for given figure :- Column-A Column-B
A. Glycosuria Presence of glucose in
urine
B. Angina Acute chest pain due
to myocardial
ischaemia
C. Heart failure Heart stops beating
D. Heart attack Heart muscles are
suddenly damaged by
an inadequate blood
supply
E. Uremia Accumulation of
hippuric acid in blood
F. Ketonuria Presence of ketone
bodies in blood
G. Glomerulonephritis Inflammation of
glomeruli of kidney
(1) Only A, B and G are correct
(1) b it operates in stable envoirment
(2) Only A, B and E are correct
(2) a mean value is changed
(3) A, B, D and G are correct
(3) c mean value shifts in one direction
(4) Only C, E and F are correct
(4) b mean value shifts in one direction
153. Nucleotide has :–
150. Lymphoid organs where immature lympho-
(1) One heterocyclic compound
cytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lym-
phocytes are .... (2) One mono saccharide
(3) One phosphate
(1) Bone marrow and spleen
(4) All
(2) Thymus and Tonsils
154. Which of the following structure contains
(3) Bone marrow and Thymus Centres, which control respiration,
(4) Spleen and lymph nodes cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions:-
151. Read the following four statements (A - D) : - (1) Mid brain (2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons (4) Medulla oblongata
(A) Removal of gonads cannot be considered
as a contraceptive option 155. How many alcholic drinks of following are
formed by distillation :-
(B) Complete lactation could help as a natural
(A) Wine (B) Beer (C) Whisky
method of contraception
(D) Brandy (E) Rum
(C) Surgical methods of contraception prevent
(1) Only one (2) Only three
gamete formation
(3) Only four (4) All five types
(D) Medical termination of pregnancy is
156. Which of the following is not correctly
legalised in our country
matched.......
How many statements are correct? (1) Activation of oncogene - oncogenic
(1) Four (2) Three transformation
(3) Two (4) One (2) Alpha interferon - Biological response modifiers

152. Select the correct matched pairs from following (3) Biopsy - use of magnetic field
table? (4) Metastasis - property of cancerous cells

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157. Match the column-A with column-B : - (1) A bacterium (2) A virus
Column-A Column-B (3) A fungus (4) A mycoplasma
(A) Transfer of sperms into (i) Ejaculation 162. Potato and sweet potato :-
the female genital tract (1) have edible parts which are homologous
(B) Sperms released from (ii) Semination organs
the seminiferous (2) have edible parts that are analogous organs
tubules
(3) have been introduced in India from the same
(C) Expulsion of semen (iii) Spermiation
place
from body of male
(D ) Liberation of sperms (iv) Insemination (4) are two species of the same genus
from testes 163. Choose the correct option for filling up the
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i blanks :
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv The human male ejaculates about ____ million
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii sperms during a coitus of which, for normal
fertility, at least _____ percent sperms must
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
have normal shape and size and least _____
158. "An unique vascular system forms between the percent of them must show vigorous motility.
digestive tract and liver is known as ___ A ___
(1) 100–200, 40, 60 (2) 200–300, 60, 40
and it is found in ___ B ___ ."
(3) 300–400, 50, 30 (4) 500, 70, 70
What are the A and B ?
164. Read the following statements :
(1) A = Hepatic portal system
(i) About 20-30 % of the body weight of
B = All invertebrate animals human adult is contributed by muscles.
(2) A = Renal portal system (ii) Muscle is specialized tissue and is derived
B = Fishes and amphibians from mesoderm.
(3) A = Hepatic portal system (iii)Activities of nonstriated muscle are under
B = All vertebrate animals the voluntary control of nervous system.
(4) A = Systemic circulation (iv)Non striated muscle are closely associated
B = All vertebrate animals with the skeletal component of the body.
159. Amino acids are :– (v) Striated muscles are primarily involved in
locomotion and changes of body postures.
(I) Organic compounds
(vi)Cardiac muscles are striated and are
(II) Substituted methanes
involuntary in nature.
(III) Containing amino group
Out of these how many statements are incorrect
(IV) Macromolecule
with regards to muscles?
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, II, III
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) II, III, IV (4) I, II, IV
(3) Four (4) One
160. Which of the following structure is under direct
165. The separated bands of DNA are cut from the
control of nervous system :-
agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
(1) Thyroid (2) Adrenal cortex This process is known as :-
(3) Anterior pituitary (4) Adrenal medulla (1) Elution
161. A bioactive molecule, cyclosporin A that is used (2) Transduction
as an immunosuppressive agent in
(3) Down streaming
organ-transplant patients, is produced by :-
(4) Transformation
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166. First time bipedal locomotion is present in :- Identify a, b & c in above diagram :-
(1) Australopithicus (2) Homo habilis (1) a - Hepatic artery, b - Hepatic vein,
(3) Homo erectus (4) Dryopithecus c - Hepatic portal vein
167. What is true for Reptilia ? (2) a - Hepatic vein, b - Hepatic artery,
(1) They have external ear opening c - Hepatic portal vein
(2) Sexes are separate and fertilization is (3) a - Hepatic portal vein, b - Hepatic artery,
external c - Hepatic vein
(3) Homoeothermy and glandular skin (4) a - Hepatic artery, b - Hepatic portal vein,
c - Hepatic vein
(4) Snakes and lizards shed their scales as skin cast
170. Raw cheese is known as :-
168. Match the column-I and II and select the correct
(1) Blue cheese (2) Cottage cheese
option?
(3) Swiss cheese (4) Roquefort cheese
Column-A Column-B 171. In AIDS ,HIV virus infects T helper cells and
A. Fibrous Joint (i) Between tarsals macrophages. Which of the following state-
ment is wrong related to above statement
B. Cartilaginous (ii) Between the
(1) CD8 protein present on these cells acts as
Joint carpals
HIV receptor
C. Pivot Joint (iii) Between the (2) Viral RNA forms viral DNA
cranial bones
(3) Macrophage acts as HIV factory
D. Hinge Joint (iv) Between the two (4) Person eventually becomes immunodeficient
adjoining 172. Which one assists in locomotion?
vertebrae
(1) Trichocysts in Paramecium
E. Gliding Joint (v) Between Atlas (2) Pedicellariae of star fish
and Axis (3) Clitellum in Pheretima
(vi) Between Femur (4) Posterior sucker in Hirudinaria.
and Tebia 173. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a
(vii) Between humerus nephron. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and
and radioulna D and select the correct option about then ?
B
Options :-
A B C D E
A
1 (iii) (iv) (i), (ii) (vi), (vii) (v)
2 (iv) (v) (vi), (vii) (iii) (i), (ii)
3 (iii) (iv) (v) (vi), (vii) (i), (ii) C D
4 (iv) (i), (ii) (v) (vi), (vii) (iii)

169. Heart
b A B C D
Medulary
a Liver
1 Renal capsule Renal pelvis Calyx
pyramid
2 Renal column Renal pyramid Renal capsule Cortex
c Medullary Renal
3 Calyx Renal capsule
pyramid pelvis
Alimentary Medullary
4 Renal pelvis Renal capsule Calyx
canal pyramid

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174. Blood capillaries are made up of :- 179.
(1) Tunica externa & Tunica interna
(2) Tunica interna & Tunica media
(3) Tunica externa & Tunica media a c
(4) Tunica interna only (pO2) (pO2)

175. Interferons are :-

(1) Antiviral proteins
(2) Complex proteins b d
(pCO2) (pCO2)
(3) Anti-bacterial proteins
(4) Anti-fungal proteins
176. Please read following sentences carefully .
(A) Injection of antiserum is artificial method
to induce active immunity. What are correct values of a, b, c, & d in the
(B) Skin cells forms cellular barriers of non spe- above diagram.
cific immunity. (1) a-45, b-40, c-40, d-95
(C) When our body is exposed to antigen for (2) a-40, b-45, c-95, d-40
the first time, a slow and low intensity (3) a-95, b-40, c-95, d-45
immune response is produced.
(4) a-45, b-40, c-95, d-40
(D) Blood group and tissue matching is done
180. Diagram is showing chemical structure of
before transplantation.
morphine. Which one of the following
(E) Blood circulation was discovered by
statements is/are not-incorrect about it :-
William Harvey.
Which of the above mentioned statements are
false..
(1) Only A and B (2) Only A, B and D
(3) Only A, C, D and E (4) Only B and E
177. Which one of the following statements about
Hyla, Rana, Rattus and Elephas is correct?
(1) All are poikilotherms
(2) All have 12 pairs of cranial nerve
(3) All have dicondylic skull (a) Very effective sedative and painkiller
(4) Sexes are separate and fertilisaion is internal (b) Obtained from Cannbis
178. Which one is not the significance of (c) Site of action is CNS and GIT
inbreeding?
(d) Very useful in patients who have
(1) It increases homozygosity
undergone surgery
(2) It helps in accumulation of superior gene
(1) b, d
and elimination of recessive gene.
(3) It helps in aggregation of qualities of two (2) a, c, d
different species in an individual. (3) d only
(4) It helps in development of pure line (4) a, b, c, d
pedigree.

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