COPYRIGHT: JONAS MARVIN ANAQUE RN, RM

FORMATIVE EXAM III

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURE ALLOWED

1. World sight saving month is celebrated every

A. March
B. June
C. August
D. October

2. Garantisadong Pambata aims to reduce mortality of children aged five years old and below.
The following are components of this program except
A. Immunization
B. Deworming
C. Vitamin A supplementation
D. Dental health

3. Garantisadong Pambata (GP), a nationwide health campaign is held every

A. January and July
B. April and October
C. May and November
D. February and August

4. The following are signs and symptoms of Vitamin A deficiency except

A. Night-blindness
B. Bitot spot
C. Reversible blindness
D. Keratomalacia

5. To prevent xeropthalmia, vitamin A is much better absorbed when taken with

A. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
C. Minerals
D. Fats

6. This parasite enters the intestinal mucosa and could be "spread through autoinfection". This is
typically exemplify by:
a. hookworm
b. tapeworm
c. whipworm

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d. pinworm

7. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infections in the Philippines are the following
EXCEPT:
a. Trichuriasis
b. Taenisis
c. Ancylostomiasis
d. Ascariasis

8. Antihelminthic drugs used include:

a. Omeprazole
b. Metronidazole
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Mebendazole

9. Antihelminthic drugs administration is:

a. Every 6 years
b. Every 3 months
c. Every 6 months
d. Every 3 years

10. Pinworm disease may be diagnosed by which procedure?

A. Direct fecal smear
B. Cellophane tape test
C. Fecal concentration methods
D. Egg-count technique

11. On 19 September 2019, an outbreak of polio was declared in the Philippines. The causative
agent of Polio is which of the following?
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Parasite
D. Fungi

12. The last known case of wild poliovirus recorded in the Philippines was in 1993. The country
was declared wild polio-free in year
A. 2020
B 2000
C. 2010
D. 2022

13. What is the pathognomonic sign of poliomyelitis?

A. Flaccid asymmetrical paralysis

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B. Spastic asymmetrical paralysis

C. Flaccid symmetrical paralysis
D. Spastic symmetrical paralysis

14. Oral polio vaccine should not be given to a child with

A. Fever of 38.4 Celcius
B. Diarrhea
C. Vomiting
D. HIV

15. Oral polio vaccine is given how many ml?

A. 0.5
B. 1.5
C. 5
D. 15

16. What herb is best for patient with diabetes

A. Bawang
B. Ampalaya
C. Bayabas
D. Sambong

17. For wound washing, what part of bayabas is used?

A. Leaves
B. Flowers
C. Fruits
D. Roots

18. What herbal medicine can be use for the treatment of gouty arthritis?
A. Sambong
B. Ulasimang bato
C. Yerba buena
D. Lagundi

19. What herb will you advise the community for the treatment of cough and colds?
A. Sambong
B. Bawang
C. Oregano
D. Lagundi

20. Which of the following herbal medicine is not approved by the Department of health
A. Bawang
B. Tawa tawa

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C. Sambong
D. Yerba buena

21. Environmental health needs to maintain safe water for the people. Hence, there are levels of
access to safe water. In which levels of access to safe water refers to protected well (shallow or
deep well), improved dug well, and developed spring or rainwater cisterns with an outlet but
without a distribution system?
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4

22. This safe water access level refers to a system composed of a source, reservoir, piped
distribution network, and communal faucet located not more than 25 meters from the farthest
house.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4

23. This level of access to safe water refers to a system with a source transmission pipe, a
reservoir, and a piped distribution network for household taps.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4

24. This level of the water system is common in remote areas. It can be shallow or deep but
without a distribution system:
a. Point source
b. Standpost
c. Waterworks system
d. Communal faucet

25. Water supply facilities composed of a system with a source, a reservoir, a piped distribution
network and household taps. This type requires a minimum treatment or disinfection common in
urbanized area.
a. Point source
b. Standpost
c. Waterworks system
d. Communal faucet

26. Level I toilet facilities includes the following except

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A. pour flush toilet

B. aqua privies
C. Pit latrines
D. Water sealed

27. Which among the following health problems is related to poor environmental condition as its
MAIN cause?
A. Diarrhea
b. Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever
c. Infectious hepatitis
d. Parasitism

28. For hospitals waste disposal, the recommendation is using

a. Shredder
b. Incineration
c. Land Fill
d. Compost pit

29. Where should you dispose used intravenous lines, you will place this in a:
a. Black bin
b. Yellow bin
c. Green bin
d. Red bin

30. All but one of the following are included in the color coded trash bin
A. Black
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Pink

31. The patient's IV site is cool to touch and edematous. Which complication has occured?
a. phlebitis
b. thrombus
c. infiltration
d. Extravasation

32. The patient's IV site is warm, red, and tender to touch. Which complication has occurred?
a. phlebitis
b. infiltration
c. thrombus formation
d. Extravasation

33. Infiltration of a vesicant medication that is infusing intravenously is called:

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a. phlebitis
b. thrombophlebitis
c. Infiltration
d. extravasion

34. What angle should be the insertion of needle in IV therapy?

A 10- 15 degrees
B 15-30 degrees
C 30-45 degrees
D 45 degrees or higher

35. When monitoring the peripheral access IV sites of various clients receiving IV therapy, you
would assess closely for which finding as the most common complication related to IV therapy?
A) Phlebitis
B. Sepsis
C) Thrombus
D) Infection

36. The seven cardinal movements of labor in proper sequence are:

A. Engagement, internal rotation, external rotation, expulsion and flexion
B. Engagement, descent, internal rotation, external rotation, extension
C. Extension, internal rotation, external rotation and expulsion
D. Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Internal Rotation, Extension, External Rotation, Expulsion

37. Which of the following mechanisms of labor occurs when the widest diameter of the
presenting part has passed the pelvic inlet and usually corresponds to a 0 station?
A. Engagement
B. Restitution
C. Flexion
D. Descent

38. When the presenting part is the fetal head, which cardinal movement occurs when resistance
from the pelvic structures during contractions causes the fetal chin to be tucked onto the chest
and the spine to curve ventrally?
a. Descent
b. Flexion
c. Internal rotation
d. Restitution

39. This mechanism is a turning of the fetal head from left to right, aligning it with the long axis
of the maternal pelvis and causing the occiput to move anteriorly towards the symphysis pubis.
a. Engagement
b. Descent

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c. Flexion
d. Internal Rotation

40. This cardinal movement begins when the head is crowning.

A. Engagement
B. Extension
C. Flexion
D. Expulsion

41. The normal amount of amniotic fluid at term ranges from

A. 500 to 1000 ml
B. 500 to 800 ml
C. 1000 to 2000 ml
D. 300 to 400 ml

42. When the bag of waters ruptures, you should check the characteristic of the amniotic fluid.
The normal color of amniotic fluid is
A Yellowish
B Bluish
C Greenish
D Clear as water

43. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. You interpret this to be the result of which
of the following?
A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnios
C. Meconium
D. Vernix

44. When the mothers bag of water ruptured the amniotic fluid is dark yellow in color this is
A. Normal
B. Meconium
C. Hemolytic disease
D. Postmaturity

45. What test can confirm the rupture of membranes and leakage of amniotic fluid?
A. Clean catch urine
B. Culture and sensitivity
C. Nitrazine paper test
D. Sterile speculum exam

46. The proper technique to monitor the intensity of a uterine contraction is

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A Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the fundal area and try to indent the abdominal wall at the
height of the contraction
B Put the palm of the hands on the fundal area and feel the contraction at the fundal area
C Place the finger tips lightly on the suprapubic area and time the contraction
D Place the palm of the hands on the abdomen and time the contraction

47. The peak point of a uterine contraction is called the

A Deceleration
B Axiom
C Acceleration
D Acme

48. To monitor the frequency of the uterine contraction during labor, the right technique is to
time the contraction
A From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
B From the deceleration of one contraction to the acme of the next contraction
C From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
D From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction

49. Timing the contraction from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next
contraction is the
A. Duration
B. Frequency
C. Interval
D. Acme

50. When determining the duration of a uterine contraction the right technique is to time it from
A The beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
B The beginning of one contraction to the end of another contraction
C The acme point of one contraction to the acme point of another contraction
D The end of one contraction to the beginning of another contraction

51. The type of play in which infants engage is called:

a. Solitary
b. Parallel
c. Associative
d. Cooperative.

52. Which toy would be developmentally appropriate for a 6-month-old infant?

A. Push-pull
B. Wooden blocks
C. Squeeze toys
D. Soft stuffed toys

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53. which of the following is the most important characteristic of toys for infants?
a. small
b. brightly-colored
c. washable
d. enhances development

54. According to Erikson, infancy is the age for developing which psychosocial task?
a. Sense of initiative versus guilt
b. Sense of trust versus mistrust
c. Sense of identity versus role diffusion
d. Sense of industry versus inferiority

55. The most significant person to the infant is the

a. parents
b. mother
c. father
d. basic family

56. The nurse notes the first stool of a newborn is black and tarry. Which term is used to describe
this type of stool?
a.Meconium
b.Transitional
c.Miliaria
d.Milk stool

57. At the time of birth, what is the grayish white, cheeselike substance that normally covers the
newborn's skin called?
a.Miliaria
b.Meconium
c.Amniotic fluid
d.Vernix caseosa

58. What are distended sebaceous glands that appear as tiny white papules on cheeks, chin, and
nose in the newborn period called?
a.Milia
b.Lanugo
c.Mongolian spots
d.Cutis marmorata

59. Where would nonpathologic cyanosis normally be present in the newborn shortly after birth?
a.Feet and hands
b.Bridge of nose

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c.Circumoral area
d.Mucous membranes

60. What term describes irregular areas of bluish-black pigmentation on the dorsal area of the
buttocks seen in newborns?
a.Acrocyanosis
b.Erythema toxicum
c.Mongolian spots
d.Harlequin color changes

61. A nursing student content creator uploaded a video clip on her social media account showing
a patient flat line ECG violates the
A. Philippine Nursing Act
B. Code of Ethics for nurses
C. Hospital regulation and policy
D. School regulation and policy

62. Preventing a patient from leaving a health facility due to unpaid hospital bill is a form of a
A. Assault
B. Battery
C. False imprisonment
D. None of these

63. A clinical instructor temporarily left the students in the area. The students switches the babies
in the same nursing room. A doctrine that could be applied to determine the liability of the
clinical instructor is:
A. Res ipsa loquitor
B. Respondent superior
C .Res ut des
D. Force majeure

64. When the court orders the person during a hearing to act as a witness together with
evidences/documents like her certificate of registration, it will issue an order called:
A. Summons
B. Subpoena
C. Mandamus
D. Subpoena ducestecum

65. A well-known celebrity is in the hospital recovering from a heart attack. A health care
worker takes several pictures of the celebrity without permission and gives the pictures to a
newspaper reporter. What type of offense has the health care worker committed?
A. Assault
B. Slander

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C. Invasion of privacy
D. Libel

66. Which of the following is the most serious adverse effect associated with oxytocin (Pitocin)
administration during labor?
A. Hypotonic contractions
B. Tetanic contractions.
C. Fetal tachycardia
D. Dizziness

67. For which reason will betamethasone IM be administered to the mother in premature labor?
a. To stop uterine contractions
b. To prevent precipitous labor
c. To stimulate lung maturity in the fetus
d. To stimulate prolactin to enhance breastfeeding

68. Which drug is administered when a patient is experiencing premature labor?

a. Magnesium sulfate
b. Oxytocin (Pitocin)
c. Levonorgestrel (Mirena)
d. Terbutaline (Brethine)

69. A pregnant client with severe preeclampsia is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. What should
you keep at the bedside to prepare for the possibility of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Oxygen
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Calcium gluconate
D. Suction equipment

70. A client in the prenatal clinic presents with an increase blood pressure reading of 134/90 mm
Hg, which is an elevation from last month's reading of 104/66 mm Hg. Which of the following
drug is contraindicated for her.
A. hydrazaline
B. magnesium sulfate
C. methergine
D. oxytocin

71. The pheochromocytoma is a benign mass commonly located in the:

A. Testicle
B. Thyroid gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Liver

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72. What cells do pheochromocytomas originate from?

A. Chromaffin cells
B. Plasma cells
C. Beta cells
D. Stem cells

73. Which of these hormones is secreted by the adrenal medulla?

A. aldosterone
B. cortisone
C. glucocorticoids
D. epinephrine

74. The most common diagnostic test for a client with pheochromocytoma is ___________
A. 24-hour urine collection for vanillylmandelic acid
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. CT scan
D. MRI

75. The most common and severe complication of pheochromocytoma is ________

A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Myocarditis

76. What blood pressure is considered as hypertensive emergency?

A. Systolic > 180 diastolic >120
B. Systolic 120/129: diastolic less than 80
C. Systolic 130/139:diastolic 80/89
D. Systolic 140 diastolic

77. The following are target organs damaged in hypertensive emergency except
A. Brain.
B. Kidneys.
C. Liver
D. Eyes.

78. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority
assessment in the first hour of care is
A. heart rate.
B. pedal pulses.
C. lung sounds.
D. pupil responses.

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79. What is the best position for the nurse to place a patient with hypertensive emergency
A. High Fowlers
B. Semi fowlers
C. Side lying
D. Flat lying

80. The nurse is caring for a patient in hypertensive emergency. What should the nurse expect to
be the goal when treatment is provided for this patient?
a. Increase urine output
b. Negate the impact of sodium in the body
c. Ensure an adequate potassium blood level
d. Reduce blood pressure by 25% in one hour

81. Trigeminal neuralgia (Tic Doulourex) is a condition affecting which cranial nerve
A. Cranial nerve I
B. Cranial nerve X
C. Cranial nerve VII
D. Cranial nerve V

82. What is characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)?

A. Unilateral facial drooping
B. Inability to hear whispered speech
C. One-sided facial stabbing pain
D. Attacks of severe dizziness

83. What is a common treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A. Warm, moist compressions
B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
C. Ice packs applied intermittently
D. Vitamin D

84. To limit triggering the pain associated with trigeminal neuralgia the nurse should instruct the
client to
A. Avoid oral hygiene
B. Apply warm compresses
C. Drink iced liquids
D. Chew on the unaffected side

85. The nurse has given suggestions to a client with trigeminal neuralgia about strategies to
minimize episodes of pain. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the
client makes which statement?
A. "I will wash my face with cotton pads."
B. "I'll have to start chewing on my unaffected side."

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C. “I should rinse my mouth if toothbrushing is painful."

D. “I'll try to eat my food either very warm or very cold."

86. A person has minor physical injuries after an automobile accident. The person is unable to
focus and says, "I feel like something awful is going to happen." This person has nausea,
dizziness, tachycardia, and hyperventilation. What is this person's level of anxiety?
a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. Panic

87. A student says, "Before taking a test, I feel a heightened sense of awareness and
restlessness." The nurse can correctly assess the student's experience as:
a. Moderate anxiety
b. Severe anxiety.
c. Panic.
d. mild anxiety.

88. A patient experiencing anxiety suddenly begins running and shouting, "I'm going to
explode!" Im dying im dying!
A. Mild
B. Panic
C. Severe
D. Moderate

89. A client, who is experiencing anxiety, is trembling and complaining of dizziness and
palpitations. The client is having a hard time following the nurse's instructions. Based on this
data, which level of anxiety is the client likely experiencing?
A) Panic
B. Severe
C) Moderate
D) Mild

90. The nurse observes a client who is becoming increasing upset. He is rapidly pacing,
hyperventilating, clenching his jaw, wringing his hands, and trembling. His speech is high
pitched and random; he seems preoccupied with his thoughts. He is pounding his fist into his
other hand. The nurse identifies his anxiety level as
a) mild
b) moderate
c) severe
d) panic

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91. To take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts is the target of which
sustainable development goal?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 13

92. To combat climate change and its impacts is targeted by what year
A. 2025
B. 2030
C. 2040
D. 2050

93. What is the effect of climate change in the life of Filipinos?

A. Climate change
B. Population
C. Heat waves
D. Poverty

94. A flash flood is a flood that_________

A. Is caused by heavy flooding of a river
B. Occurs in urban areas
C. Occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration
D. Is caused by the blocking of drains

95. As a public health nurse and as a citizen, you are concerned about the Earth's warming up
fast from the production of greenhouse gases which are involved in the greenhouse effect. The
most common greenhouses gases are the following, EXCEPT:
A. Oxygen
B. Methane
C. Water Vapor
D. Carbon dioxide

Situation- You are a staff nurse in the Psychiatric Unit of the hospital taking care of patients with
manic disorder. The following questions relate to this statement.

96. The client comes to the nurse's station at 3:00 AM demanding that the nurse call the provider
immediately. What would be your MOST therapeutic response to a manic patient demanding that
you call his attending physician to make an order for a pass to go out at the middle of the night?
A. ”You go to the recreation hall now while I call your attending physician”
B. ”You must really be upset to want a pass immediately. I will give you a medication to make
you calm”
C. ”I can’t call your physician now but you can talk to me about your request to pass”

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D. ”Don’t be unreasonable. I can’t call your attending physician in the middle of the night”

97. A charge nurse is admitting a client who has bipolar disorder and who is in the manic phase.
Which of the following room assignments should the nurse give the client?
A. A semi-private room across from the day room
B. a private room across the nurse's station
C. a private room across from the exercise room
D. a semi-private room across from the snack area

98. The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with bipolar disorder, manic phase. Which of the
following snacks would be BEST for the client with mania?
a. Potato chips
b. Apple
C. Diet cola
D. Milkshake

99. One of your patients lacks food and fluid intake due to poor appetite. What foods would be
the BEST meet the patient’s nutritional needs?
A. Steak and spaghetti
B. Peanut butter, sandwich and milk
C. Carrots, celery, raisins, apple
D. Beef and non-diet

100. During lunchtime you have observed that a patient with mania taking food from other
patient. What principle would guide you in determining the appropriate intervention in this
situation?
A. The patient needs food and fluids any way possible
B. The patient will calm down as soon as lunchtime is over
C. The intrusive behavior of a manic patient is not a threat to other patients
D. Other patients need to be protected from the intrusive behavior of other patients

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