Nursing Welfare

2500+ MCQ’s For BSN 3rd Semester

By Zia Ud Din Zeb College Of Nursing Timergara Dir Lower

03409303928
 MCQ’s Of AHN-I By: Zia Ud Din ZCN

Table of Contents

S.NO SUBJECT Page No

1 Adult Health Nursing-I 01

2 Pathophysiology-I 140

3 Health Assessment-I 172

4 Pharmacology-I 204

5 English-III 250

6 Mathematics For Nursing 284

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Unit-1 Gastrointestinal Disorders;

GIT Anatomy, 1-Stomatitis, 2-Oral Cancer, 3-Salivary Gland Disorders, 4-
Gastro Esophageal Reflux Disorder;

1. Which is the longest segment of the digestive 5. Secretin and cholecystokinin are secreted in;
system in the human body?
a. Pyloric region
a. Pancreatic duct
b. Duodenum
b. Small intestine
c. Esophagus
c. Large intestine
d. Ileum
d. Esophagus
2. The majority of the water from the 6. Which three sections does the small intestine
indigestible food is absorbed in the_______? consists of?

a. Stomach a. Ileum duodenum, cecum

b. Pancreas b. Antrum, jejunum, duodenum
c. Food pipe c. Rectum, ileum, duodenum
d. Large Intestine d. Ileum, duodenum, jejunum

3. Which of the following glands are accessory 7. What converts pepsinogen to pepsin in the
organs of the digestive system? stomach?

a. Adrenal glands a. Hydrochloric acid

b. Pancreatic islets b. Gastrin
c. Gastric glands c. Intrinsic factor
d. Salivary glands d. Pepsinase

4. What is the role of gastrin in the digestive 8. What are the four accessory organs of
system? digestion?
a. Mouth, small intestines, large intestines,
a. To stimulate release of bile and
teeth
pancreatic juice
b. Salivary glands, gallbladder, liver,
b. To stimulate gastric secretion
pancreas
c. To activate pepsinogen
c. Esophagus, spleen, pancreas, liver
d. To hydrolyse proteins to polypeptides
d. Appendix, stomach, spleen, mouth

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9. Where is the gastro-esophageal sphincter? c. Participate in mechanical digestion.

d. Release cholecytokinin
a. Between the stomach and the duodenum
b. Between the stomach and the cecum 14. Which of the following is not a human
c. At the entrance to the stomach salivary gland?
d. Before the external anal sphincter a. Parotid
b. Submaxillary
10. What is the function of the esophagus in
c. Sublingual
digestion?
d. Infra-orbital
a. It is a site of mechanical digestion
b. It transfers food from the mouth to 15. Which of the following is NOT a function of
the stomach the mucosa of the small intestine?
c. The esophagus secretes amylase to
a. Protection against infectious disease.
begin carbohydrate digestion
b. Secretion of digestive enzymes.
d. The esophagus secretes hydrochloric
c. The absorption of end products of
acid
digestion.
11. Where is bile juice formed in the human d. Segmentation.
body?
16. A function of the LARGE intestine is to:
a. Kidney
b. Lung a. Absorb the products of digestion
c. Liver b. Absorb water
d. Salivary Gland c. Participate in mechanical digestion
d. Release intestinal gastrin
12. Which parts of the alimentary canal prepare
food for chemical digestion? 17. One of the following is NOT a function of
the stomach?
a. The mouth, esophagus and stomach.
b. The mouth, stomach and small intestine. a. Digestion of fats
c. The mouth, stomach and duodenum. b. Digestion of proteins
d. The teeth, stomach and pancreas c. Mechanical digestion
d. Storage of food
13. What is a function of the stomach?
18. The majority of fat digestion takes place in
a. Absorb the products of digestion.
a. Rectum
b. Participate in deglutition.
b. Small intestine

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c. Duodenum d. Amylase
d. Stomach
24. What is the primary function of the mouth in
19. What is a function of the SMALL intestine?
the digestive system?
a. Temporarily store ingested food a. Mechanical digestion
b. Absorb the products of digestion b. Chemical digestion
c. Participate in mechanical digestion c. Absorption
d. Secrete hydrochloric acid d. Elimination
25. Which structure helps mix food with saliva
20. Which of the following organs is an
and initiates swallowing?
accessory organ of the gastrointestinal tract?
a. Uvula
a. Jejunum b. Epiglottis
b. Appendix c. Tonsils
c. Cecum d. Tongue
d. Pancreas
26. Which enzyme in saliva begins the digestion
21. Which of the following is made and stored in
of carbohydrates?
the liver cells?
a. Lipase
a. Galactose
b. Pepsin
b. Lactose
c. Amylase
c. Glycogen
d. Trypsin
d. Arabinose
27. What is the role of the salivary glands?
22. Fatty acids are absorbed from the gut into
a. Produce bile for digestion
structures known as:
b. Produce insulin for blood sugar regulation
a. Triglycerides c. Produce saliva for lubrication and
b. Sinusoids enzyme secretion
c. Capillaries d. Produce gastric juice for stomach
d. Lacteals digestion
28. Which of the following is NOT a salivary
23. Which digestive enzyme in pancreatic juice
gland?
digests proteins?
a. Parotid gland
a. Trypsin b. Sublingual gland
b. Lipase c. Pancreatic gland
c. Pepsin d. Submandibular gland

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29. The uvula is responsible for preventing food 34. What is the function of the epiglottis during
from entering which structure during swallowing? swallowing?
a. Larynx a. It prevents food from entering the
b. Stomach trachea.
c. Esophagus b. It controls the release of saliva.
d. Pharynx c. It regulates the flow of bile.
30. The esophagus connects the mouth to which d. It aids in mechanical digestion.
organ? 35. Which of the following is a common disorder
a. Stomach of the esophagus where the lining is damaged due
b. Small intestine to chronic inflammation?
c. Liver a. Crohn's disease
d. Pancreas b. Esophageal cancer
31. Peristalsis is a coordinated muscular c. Barrett's esophagus
movement that helps propel food through which d. Celiac disease
structure? 36. The process of swallowing involves both
a. Stomach voluntary and involuntary muscle movements.
b. Small intestine Which part of the process is voluntary?
c. Esophagus a. Relaxation of the esophageal sphincter
d. Large intestine b. Movement of food through the
32. What is the function of the lower esophageal esophagus
sphincter (LES)? c. Formation of a bolus in the mouth
a. Prevents food from entering the d. Initiation of peristalsis
esophagus 37. What is the role of mucus in the esophagus?
b. Regulates the release of bile a. It aids in breaking down proteins.
c. Prevents stomach acid from entering b. It provides a source of energy for the
the esophagus body.
d. Controls the release of pancreatic c. It lubricates and protects the
enzymes esophageal lining.
33. The inner lining of the esophagus is composed d. It neutralizes stomach acid.
of which type of tissue? 38. How does the esophagus pass through the
a. Simple squamous epithelium diaphragm to connect to the stomach?
b. Stratified squamous epithelium a. Via the pyloric sphincter
c. Simple columnar epithelium b. Via the ileocecal valve
d. Pseudo stratified epithelium c. Via the cardiac sphincter
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d. Via the esophageal hiatus c. Sublingual gland

39. Which of the following is a common disorder d. Minor palatal gland
where there is an abnormal narrowing of the
44. Duct of each parotid gland empties onto the
esophagus?
inside of the cheek, near the molars of the upper
a. Diverticulitis
jaw is called;
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease a. Wharton Duct
(GERD) b. Stenson's Duct
d. Esophageal stricture
c. Bartholin Duct
40. What is the main function of the muscular
d. Adenoid Duct
layers in the esophagus?
a. Absorption of nutrients 45. One of the following is NOT a function of
b. Protection against pathogens the stomach. Which one?
c. Mechanical digestion of food
a. Digestion of fats
d. Synthesis of digestive enzymes
b. Digestion of proteins
41. How does the esophagus transport food from
c. Mechanical digestion
the mouth to the stomach?
d. Storage of food
a. By using gravity alone
b. By contracting and relaxing its 46. What is a function of the SMALL intestine?
muscles in a coordinated manner To:
c. By relying on the heartbeat
d. By pushing food with strong air
a. Temporarily store ingested food

currents b. Absorb the products of digestion

42. There are how many major salivary glands? c. Participate in mechanical digestion
d. Secrete hydrochloric acid
a. 2 Pairs
b. 5 Pairs 47. Which of the following organs is an
c. 3 Pairs accessory organ of the gastrointestinal tract?
d. 4 Pairs
a. Jejunum
43. Which of the following is not a major b. Appendix
salivary gland? c. Cecum
a. Parotid gland d. Pancreas
b. Submandibular gland

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48. Fatty acids are absorbed from the gut into a. Trypsin
structures known as: b. Lipase
c. Pepsin
a. Triglycerides
d. Amylase
b. Sinusoids
c. Capillaries 50. A function of the LARGE intestine is to:
d. lacteals
a. Absorb the products of digestion
49. Which digestive enzyme in pancreatic juice b. Absorb water
digests proteins? c. Participate in mechanical digestion

Disorders MCQ’s;
1. Stomatitis is derived from ______ word… 4. There are main --------------- types of
stomatitis;
a. Latin a. One
b. Greek b. Two
c. Spanish c. Four
d. English d. Six
2. Stomatitis is the medical term for a sore and 5. Which of the following is the types of
inflamed stomatitis. . .
a. Mouth a. Cold sore and Canker
b. Ear b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Stomach c. Cheilitise pharyngitis
d. Elbow d. None of the above
3. Stomatitis is the inflammation of.... 6. Which of the following is NOT a common
a. Gums cause of stomatitis?
b. Lips a. Viral Infection
c. Tongue b. Yeast Infection
d. All c. Diarrhea

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d. Xerostomia b. Aphthous stomatitis

7. Canker sore is also known as: c. Fever blister
a. Fever Blister d. None of them
b. Aphthous Ulcer 13.When a patient with oral cancer and have S/S
c. Cold sore of bleeding, numbness, pain and white and red
d. Both a & c patch on oral cavity it's mostly caused this
8. Oral Dysaesthesia- Means: because of viral infection so which virus involved
a. Irritation in mouth. here;
b. Dryness of mouth. a. HSV type 1
c. Burning feeling in mouth. b. Rotavirus
d. Numbness in mouth c. Ebola virus
9. Herpes simplex stomatitis is caused by herpes d. Type 4 piploma virus
simplex virus... 14. Includes all of the inflammatory processes of
a. Type I the oral soft tissues, except those of the free
b. Type II gingiva refers to
c. Type III a. Stomatitis
d. Rotavirus b. Tumor
10 Incubation period of HSS (Herpes simplex c. Heilitise Pharyngitis
stomatitis) is... d. Herpes simplex type 4
a. 36 Days 15. A 35 years old client has been receiving
b. 8 weeks chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment
c. 20 days finding suggests that the client has developed
d. 6 months stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)?
11. Ali on a duty which have implement the a. White, cottage cheese-like patches on
Daktarin Gel for stomatitis patient which kind of the tongue
infection to patient have occurred; b. Yellow tooth discoloration
a. Bacterial c. Red, open sores on the oral mucosa
b. Parasite d. Rust-colored sputum
c. Fungal 16. During chemotherapy, an oncology client
d. Viral has a nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous
12. The type of stomatitis which causes has membrane related to decreased nutrition and
mainly unknown; immunosuppression secondary to the cytotoxic
effects of chemotherapy. Which nursing
a. Herpes simplex stomatitis
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intervention is most likely to decrease the pain b. Providing a solution of hydrogen

of stomatitis? peroxide and water for use as a mouth
a. Recommending that the client rinse
discontinue chemotherapy c. Monitoring the client's platelet and
b. Providing a solution of hydrogen leukocyte counts
peroxide and water for use as a d. Checking regularly for signs and
mouth rinse symptoms of stomatitis
c. Monitoring the client's platelet and 20. Which type of stomatitis is commonly
leukocyte counts referred to as "cold sores"?
d. Checking regularly for signs and a. Herpetic stomatitis
symptoms of stomatitis b. Aphthous stomatitis
17. Which of the following conditions is most c. Erythema multiforme
likely to predispose the oral mucosa to d. Angular stomatitis
stomatitis? 21. Duct of each parotid gland empties onto the
a. Bruxism inside of the cheek, near the molars of the upper
b. Halitosis jaw is called;
c. Malocclusion a. Wharton Duct
d. Xerostomia b. Stenson's Duct
18. Which of the following interventions is most c. Bartholin Duct
appropriate for a client with stomatitis; d. Adenoid Duct
a. Drinking hot tea at frequent intervals 22. Which of the following is a salivary gland
b. Gargling with antiseptic wash disorder?
c. Electric toothbrush a. Gingivitis
d. Eating a soft bland diet b. Sialolithiasis
19. During chemotherapy, an oncology client c. Periodontitis
has a nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous d. Tonsillitis
membrane related to decreased nutrition and 23. Which salivary gland is most commonly
immunosuppression secondary to the cytotoxic affected by sialolithiasis?
effects of chemotherapy. Which nursing a. Submandibular gland
intervention is most likely to decrease the pain b. Parotid gland
of stomatitis? c. Sublingual gland
a. Recommending that the client d. Minor salivary glands
discontinue chemotherapy 24. What is the primary symptom of
sialadenitis?
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a. Pain and swelling in the affected d. All of the above

gland 30. Largest salivary gland is;
b. Dry mouth a. Submaxillary
c. Difficulty swallowing b. Parotid
d. Bad breath c. Sublingual
25. What is the most common cause of salivary d. Infraorbital
gland tumors? 31. About 85% of salivary gland tumors occur in
a. Viral infection which of the following glands?
b. Exposure to radiation a. Submandibular glands
c. Genetics b. Parotid glands
d. Unknown c. Sublingual glands
26. Which of the following is a common d. Minor salivary glands
treatment for salivary gland tumors? 32. Measures the amount of saliva production in
a. Surgery a certain time is called;. a.
b. Antibiotics a. Sialometery
c. Chemotherapy b. Sialochemistry
d. All of the above c. Cytology
27. Which of the following conditions is d. None of the above
characterized by chronic dry mouth? 33. Measures the composition of saliva refer to;
a. Sjogren’s syndrome a. Sialometery
b. Sialadenitis b. Sialochemistry
c. Sialolithiasis c. Cytology
d. Salivary gland tumor d. Sonography
28. Which of the following is a common cause 34. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most
of acute sialadenitis? common salivary gland cancer. Which of the
a. Bacterial infection following statements about malignant salivary
b. Viral infection gland tumors is true?
c. Exposure to radiation a. They are usually painless.
d. Unknown b. They are more common than benign
29.Which of the following is a potential
salivary gland tumors.
complication of salivary gland surgery?
c. They are well-circumscribed.
a. Facial nerve damage
d. Treatment is with chemotherapy
b. Tooth decay
c. Dry mouth
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35. Ultrasonic pattern when dealing with minor c. Difficulty swallowing

salivary glands ia known as; d. All of the above
a. Cytology 41. What is the most common site of oral cancer
b. Sonography in the mouth?
c. Sialomertery a. The tongue
d. Biopsy b. The lips
36. Development of cancerous cells in the lips, c. Mouth
throat, cheeks, tongue and sinuses is known as: d. The roof of the the gums
a. Oral cancer 42. What is the primary treatment for oral

b. Salivary gland disorder cancer?

c. Sjogren’s Syndrome a. Surgery

d. Cytology b. Radiation therapy

c. Chemotherapy
37. Which of the following is a risk factor for
d. All of the above
oral cancer?
43. The nurse is preparing a community
a. Poor oral hygiene
presentation on oral cancer. Which of the
b. Regular dental checkups
following is a primary risk factor for oral cancer
c. Eating a healthy diet
that the nurse should include in the presentation?
d. Using tobacco products
a. Use of alcohol.
38. Which type of oral cancer is most common?
b. Frequent use of mouthwash.
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Lack of vitamin B12.
b. Adenocarcinoma
d. Lack of regular teeth cleaning by a
c. Melanoma
dentist.
d. Lymphoma 44. A 70 years old patient is diagnosed with oral
39. Which of the following disease is most often
cancer, being a nurse which intervention will be
occurs in people over age 40;
you keep on priority:
a. Oral cancer
a. Promote bed rest
b. Stomatitis
b. Maintain nutritional status
c. Salivary glands disorder c. Encourage for exercised
d. None of these d. Promote emotional support
40. Which of the following symptoms may 45. Study of cancer is called:
indicate oral cancer? a. Radiology
a. White or red patches in the mouth b. Neurology
b. A sore throat
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c. Cancerology 51. An invasive visual diagnostic procedure that

d. Oncology is used to examine interior surfaces of an organ
46. Squamous cell carcinomas account for or tissue is;
over...... % of all oral cancers; a. Endoscopy
a. 70 b. MRI
b. 80 c. Parenthesis
c. 90 d. X-Ray
d. 50 52.Esophageal adenocarcinoma is carcinoma of
47. Persistent white patches, a non-healing ulcer, which of following cells of oesophagus;
unusual oral bleeding are symptoms of; a. Squamous epithelial cells
a. Stomatitis b. Cuboidal epithelial cells
b. Oral cancer c. Columnar epithelial cells
c. Parotitisc d. All of the above
d. Sialadenitis 53. Which disease is the client diagnosed with
48.. When a suspicious lesion is identified, the GERD at a greater risk for developing?
most important diagnostic test is ______ a. Twenty blood stools a day
a. Cytological examination b. Oral temperature of 102 degrees
b. Biopsy Fahrenheit
c. Examination under fluorescent light c. Esophageal cancer
d. Toluidine blue staining d. Gastric cancer
49. For small squamous cell carcinomas 54. The nurse is performing an admission
localized to the oral cavity (those without spread assessment on a client diagnosed with GERD.
to the neck), the most common treatment Which signs and symptoms would indicate
modality is ________ GERD?
a. Surgery a. Pyrosis, water brash, and flatulence
b. Radiation b. Weight loss, dysarthria, and diarrhea
c. Surgery + Radiation c. Decreased abdominal fat, proteinuria,
d. Surgery + Radiation + Chemotherapy and constipation
50. In oral cancer, the tumor or soar affected the d. Midepigastric pain, positive H. pylori
oral area which is made of: 55. Sialolith in the excretory duct, will result
a. Epithelial cells in______?
b. Smooth cells
c. Squamous cells a. Chronic sialadenitis
d. Fiber cells b. Mucous retention cyst

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c. Pleomorphic adenoma a. Cysts

d. of the duct b. Begnine tumors
c. Sialadenitis
56. A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by
d. Sialolithiasis
obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is
called_______? 61. Best nursing diagnose for GERD patient is:

a. Mucocele a. Risk for aspiration related to

b. Ranula regurgitation
c. Dermoid cyst b. acute pain related to disease processes
d. Dentigerous cyst c. . Impaired oral mucous membrane
d. Imbalanced nutrition less than body
57. Xerostomia” is seen in all of the following
EXCEPT in_______? 62. Sialorrhea is :

a. Anticholinergic drugs a. Hypo salivation

b. Dehydration b. hyper salivation
c. Sjogren’s syndrome c. infection of salivary gland
d. Oral sepsis d. infection of gall bladder

58. Which of the following is autoimmune 63. Which of these is most commonly
disorder of salivary glands? recognized as an "alarm symptom" that suggests
potentially serious complications associated with
a. Benign tumor
GERD?
b. Cysts
c. Sialadenitis a. Dysphagia
d. Sjogren's syndrome b. Constipation
c. Epigastric pain
59. Saliva is increased by_____?
d. Foul-smelling
a. Cholinergic drugs
64. Who is most likely to suffer from GERD?
b. Anticholinergic drugs
c. Andrenergic drugs a. Obesity
d. None of the above a. Pregnancy
b. Smoking
60. Radiation exposure and possibly smoking Is
c. All
Etiology of which kind of salivary glands
disorders : 65. Barrett's esophagus is;

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a. Present at birth in most cases b. Headache

b. Associated with development of c. Coughing
squamous cell carcinoma of the d. Painful mouth sores
esophagus 70. What is the primary cause of aphthous
c. Associated with development of stomatitis?
adenocarcinoma of the esophagus a. Viral infection
d. Occurs most often in women of b. Bacterial infection
Scandinavian origin c. Fungal infection
d. Unknown, but may be related to
66. GERD is closely linked to which type of
immune system reactions
cancer?
71. What is the treatment for viral stomatitis?
a. Oral Cancer a. Antibiotics
b. esophageal cancer b. Antifungal medication
c. pelvic cancer c. Antiviral medication
d. None d. Painkillers only
72. Which type of stomatitis is associated with
67. All of the following is the extraglandular
angular cheilitis (cracking at the corners of the
manifestation of primary Sjogren’s syndrome
mouth)?
Except ___ ?
a. Herpetic stomatitis
a. Raynaud’s phenomena
b. Angular stomatitis
b. Arthritis
c. Erythema multiforme
c. Lymphadenopathy
d. Contact stomatitis
d. Thrombocytopenia

68. Which pair of risk factors is most important 73. How can stomatitis be prevented?
in the development of esophageal squamous cell a. Avoiding hot beverages
carcinoma? b. Regular dental hygiene
c. Consuming only soft foods
a. Tobacco use, high fat diet
d. Avoiding fruits and vegetables
b. High fat diet, ingestion of smoked meats
74. What is the main symptom of candidiasis-
c. Alcohol abuse, tobacco use
associated stomatitis?
d. Ingestion of smoked meats, tobacco use
a. White patches on the tongue and

69. What is a common symptom of stomatitis? inner cheeks

a. Fever b. Red and inflamed gums
c. Cold sores around the mouth
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d. Excessive salivation d. ECG (Electrocardiogram)

75. Which of the following is a major risk factor 80. The most effective way to prevent oral cancer
for oral cancer? is:
a. Consuming fruits and vegetables a. Using mouthwash regularly
b. Regular dental check-ups b. Consuming high amounts of red meat
c. Tobacco use c. Practicing good oral hygiene
d. Adequate sun exposure d. Avoiding dental check-ups
76. Which part of the mouth is most commonly 81. The main treatment options for oral cancer
affected by oral cancer? include surgery, radiation therapy, and:
a. Gums a. Antibiotic therapy
b. Tongue b. Chemotherapy
c. Palate c. Homeopathy
d. Lips d. Acupuncture
77. Leukoplakia and erythroplakia are 82. Which of the following is a common symptom
precancerous lesions commonly found in the oral of oral cancer?
cavity. Which color is associated with a. Increased saliva production
leukoplakia? b. Tooth sensitivity
a. Red c. Persistent mouth ulcers
b. Blue d. Enhanced sense of taste
c. White 83. Which gender is more commonly affected by
d. Black oral cancer?
78. The TNM staging system is used to describe a. Males
the extent of spread of oral cancer. What does "N" b. Females
represent in the TNM system? c. Both genders equally
a. Node (lymph node involvement) d. Children
b. Neoplasm (tumor size) 84. Oral cancer can metastasize (spread) to other
c. Nodule (lesion appearance) parts of the body. Which of the following is a
d. Necrosis (cell death) common site of oral cancer metastasis?
79. Which imaging technique is commonly used a. Liver
to assess the extent of oral cancer invasion into b. Stomach
surrounding tissues? c. Lungs
a. X-ray d. Kidneys
b. Ultrasound
c. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
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85. Which salivary gland disorder is characterized a. Bile

by the sudden, painful swelling of the parotid b. Stomach acid
gland? c. Pancreatic enzymes
a. Sialolithiasis d. Intestinal gas
b. Parotitis
91. The primary symptom of GERD is:
c. Sjögren's syndrome
d. Xerostomia a. Abdominal pain
86. Which salivary gland disorder involves the b. Diarrhea
inflammation and destruction of salivary and c. Heartburn
lacrimal glands? d. Constipation
a. Sialadenitis
92. Which structure prevents stomach acid from
b. Sjögren's syndrome
flowing back into the esophagus?
c. Parotitis
d. Xerostomia a. Pyloric sphincter
87. Mumps primarily affects which salivary b. Ileocecal valve
gland? c. Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)
a. Parotid gland d. Duodenal papilla
b. Sublingual gland
93. Chronic exposure to stomach acid in the
c. Submandibular gland
esophagus can lead to:
d. Minor salivary glands
88. Which imaging technique is often used to a. Gallstones
diagnose salivary gland disorders? b. Ulcers
a. X-ray c. Appendicitis
b. Ultrasound d. Migraines
c. CT scan
94. Which lifestyle factor can contribute to
d. MRI
GERD?
89. The submandibular gland is responsible for
producing: a. Regular exercise
a. Serous saliva b. Low-fat diet
b. Mucous saliva c. Smoking
c. Mixed saliva d. Adequate sleep
d. Enzymatic saliva
90. GERD is characterized by the abnormal flow 95. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to

of what substance? assess the severity of GERD?

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a. Blood test a. Antibiotics

b. MRI scan b. Antihistamines
c. Upper endoscopy c. Beta-blockers
d. Electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)

96. Long-term untreated GERD can increase the 99. In severe cases of GERD, when conservative
risk of developing: treatments fail, what surgical option might be
considered?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Asthma a. Knee replacement
c. Diabetes b. Appendectomy
d. Alzheimer's disease c. Cholecystectomy
d. Fundoplication
97. What is a recommended dietary modification
for managing GERD? 100. Which of the following is NOT a common
symptom of GERD?
a. Increased caffeine intake
b. Spicy foods consumption a. Regurgitation
c. Small, frequent meals b. Difficulty swallowing
d. Fasting for extended periods c. Excessive thirst

98. Which medication class can help reduce

stomach acid production?

5- Hital Hernia, 6- Achalasia, 7- Diverticulum, 8- Esophageal Cancer/ Tumor;

Q.1 A weakened area of the diaphragm where a a. Oesophagitis

portion of the stomach and lower esophagus
protrude into the thoracic cavity is called b. Aspiration pneumonitis
______?
c. Volvulus
a. Hiatal Hernia d. Esophageal stricture
b. Hernia 3. What is the most common type of hiatus
c. GERD hernia?

d. Achalasia a. mixed or compound type hiatal hernia with

additional herniation of viscera
2. The most common complication seen in
hiatus hernia is:
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MCQ’s Of AHN-I By: Zia Ud Din ZCN
b. mixed or compound type, para-oesophageal 8. Type of hernia in which a part of greater
hiatal hernia with displaced gastro-oesophageal curvature of the fundus slides up and junction
junction remain in abdominal cavity is known......

c. para-oesophageal hiatal hernia with the a. Rolling hernia

gastro-oesophageal junction in a normal position
b. Sliding hernia
d. sliding hiatal hernia
c. Diaphragmatic hernia
4. Hiatal hernia has how many types?
d. None
a. 2
9. Which of the following can possibly cause
b. 3 hiatal hernia?

c. 4 a. loss of muscle strength and tone

d. 5 b. trauma

5. Hiatal hernia also called.....? c. congenital defects

a. Sliding hernia d. all of the above

b. Rolling hernia 10. Which of the following lifestyle

modifications should the nurse encourage the
c. Diaphragmatic hernia client with a hiatal hernia to include in activities
d. Paraesophageal hernia of daily living?

6. A type of H.H in which junction of esophagus a. Daily aerobic exercise

& a part of stomach slides up into thoracic b. Eliminating smoking and alcohol use
cavity is called.....
c. Balancing activity and rest
a. Sliding H.H
d. Avoiding high-stress situations
b. Paraesophageal
11. In developing a teaching plan for the client
c. Rolling with a hiatal hernia, the nurse's assessment of
d. diaphragmatic which work-related factors would be most
useful?
7. Strangulation is a common manifestation
occur in.... a. number and length of breaks

a. Rolling hernia b. Body mechanics used in lifting

b. Sliding hernia c. Temperature in the work area

c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Cleaning solvents used

d. All

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12. The absent or ineffective peristalsis of the b. Motility disorder
distal esophagus, accompainied by failure of the
esophageal sphincter to relax in response to c. Acute gastric ulceration
swallowing. .... d. Gastritis
a. diverticulum 17. Impaired peristalsis of the smooth muscles
b. Achalasia of esophagus and inadequate relaxation of the
lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is...
c. Hiatal Hernia
a. Pyrosis
d. GERD
b. Pyloric stenosis
13. The proximal part of the esophagus will be
__ is patients with achalasia.... c. Achalasia

a. dilated d. Diverticulum

b. constrict 18. All of the following are the causes of

achalasia except;
c. stricture
a. Neurogenic dysfunction
d. normal
b. Autoimmunic
14. Treatment for Achalasia includes which of
the following? c. Hereditary

a. Botox d. Loss of muscle tone

b. Esophageal dilation 19. Which of the following is not the clinical

manifestation of achalasia?
c. Surgical myotomy w/ or w/o fundoplication
a. Dysphagia
d. All the above
b. Regurgitation
15. An outpouching of mucosa and submucosa
through a weak portion of the musculature in the c. Pyrosis
esophagus is called... d. Diarrhea
a. Achalasia 20. The most common type of diverticulum
b. Diverticulum occurring in the upper area of the esophagus in
people over 60 Age...
c. Hitus Hernia
a. midesophageal
d. None
b. epiphrenic,
16. Achalasia is;
c. intramural diverticula
a. Inflammation of the stomach
d. Zenker's diverticulum

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21. Diverticulum is best diagnosed by; c. Long-standing history of ETOH (Ethyl
Alcohol) and tobacco with mild dysphagia
a. Colonoscopy
d. Long history of achalasia
b. Barium swallow
26. All are Risk factors for squamous cell
c. Nuclear scan carcinoma esophagus except •
d. laser jet a. Alcohol
22. Esophageal cancer typically arises from b. Ingested carcinogens
the...
c. Plummer vinson syndrome
a. lower part of esophagus
d. obesity
b. upper and middle section of esophagus
Barrett’s Esophagus;
c. inner lining of the esophagus and can
spread to nearby tissues and organs Metaplasia of esophageal squamous epithelium
into columnar in distal esophagus
d. All
27. All are the Risk factors for adenocarcinoma
23. which of the following is not the cause of esophagus except ;
Esophageal cancer/tumor;
a. GERD (leading to Barrett’s esophagus)
a. smoking
b. Obesity
b. achalasia
c. Scleroderma
c. acid reflux
d. Alcohol
d. under weight
28. Common site for Adenocarcinoma is...
24. What do you call a cancer that originates
from the gland cells, which are usually NOT a. lower one third
found in the inner esophagus?
b. Middle one third
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. top part of esophagus
b. Melanoma
d. All
c. Leukemia
29. Treated aggressively with nonsurgical
d. Adenocarcinoma therapy;

25. Which of the following has the greatest risk a. Adenocarcinoma

of esophageal cancer?
b. Squamous cell
a. Recently diagnosed tylosis in a 45 yr old
c. both
b. Recently diagnosed Barrett’s

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 MCQ’s Of AHN-I By: Zia Ud Din ZCN
d. None ʙ) Tᴏ ɪɴʜɪʙɪᴛ ᴛʜᴇ ᴄᴏɴᴛʀᴀᴄᴛɪᴏɴ ᴏғ sᴍᴏᴏᴛʜ
ᴍᴜsᴄʟᴇs
30. Diagnosis of carcinoma esophagus are by;
ᴄ) Boᴛʜ
a. Barium swallow:
ᴅ) Nᴏɴ ᴏғ ᴛʜᴇ ᴀʙᴏᴠᴇ
b. Endoscopy with biopsy
35. Dɪᴠᴇʀᴛɪᴄᴜʟᴀᴍ ᴅᴇᴠᴇʟᴏᴘ ᴡʜᴇɴ ᴛʜᴇ ᴍᴜsᴄʟᴇ
c. Endoscopic Ultrasound: ʙᴇᴛᴡᴇᴇɴ ᴛʜᴇ ᴛʜʀᴏᴀᴛ ᴀɴᴅ ᴇsᴏᴘʜᴀɢᴜs ᴋɴᴏᴡɴ ᴀs
d. all ᴄʀɪᴄᴏᴘʜᴀʀᴀɴɢᴇᴏᴜs ᴍᴜsᴄʟᴇ ᴏᴠᴇʀ ᴛɪɢʜᴛᴇɴ ᴄᴀᴜsɪɴɢ
ᴛʜᴇ ᴛʜʀᴏᴀᴛ ᴀʙᴏᴜᴛ ᴛᴏ ᴘᴏᴜᴄʜ ɪᴛ
31. Complications of Esophagectomy are?
ᴀ) Eᴘɪᴘʜʀᴇɴɪᴄ
a. Anastomotic Leak
ʙ) Mɪᴅᴇsᴏᴘʜᴀɢᴇᴀʟ
b. Anastomotic stricture
ᴄ) ᴢᴇɴᴋᴇʀs ᴅɪᴠᴇʀᴛɪᴄᴜʟᴜᴍ
c. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
ᴅ) Nᴏʀᴍᴀʟ ᴇsᴏᴘʜᴀɢᴜs
d. All
36. Aɴxɪᴇᴛʏ ʀᴇʟᴀᴛᴇᴅ ᴛᴏ;
32. Wʜᴀᴛ ɪs ᴛʀᴜᴇ ᴀʙᴏᴜᴛ ᴛʜᴇ ʜɪᴇᴛᴀʟ ʜᴇʀɴɪᴀ
ᴀ) ᴘʜᴀʀʏɴɢᴏᴇsᴏᴘʜᴀɢᴇᴀʟ ᴘᴜʟsɪᴏɴ ᴅɪᴠᴇʀᴛɪᴄᴜʟᴜᴍ
ᴀ) Sʏᴍᴘᴛᴏᴍ ɪɴᴄʟᴜᴅᴇ ᴡᴇɢʜᴛ ʟᴏss
ʙ) Sᴜʀɢɪᴄᴀʟ ɪɴᴛᴇʀᴠᴇɴᴛɪᴏɴ ғᴏʀ ᴅɪᴠᴇʀᴛɪᴄᴜʟᴜᴍ
ʙ) Sʏᴍᴘᴛᴏᴍ ɪɴᴄʟᴜᴅᴇ ʟᴏss ᴏғ ᴀᴘᴘᴇᴛɪᴛᴇ
ᴄ) Dʏsᴘᴀsɪᴀ
ᴄ) Aʟʟ ʜɪᴀᴛᴀʟ ʜᴇʀɴɪᴀ ʜᴀᴠᴇ sʏᴍᴘᴛᴏᴍs
ᴅ) Aʟʟ ᴏғ ᴛʜᴇ ᴀʙᴏᴠᴇ
ᴅ) Mosᴛ ʜɪᴀᴛᴀʟ ʜᴇʀɴɪᴀ ᴅᴏɴᴛ ʜᴀᴠᴇ sʏᴍᴘᴛᴏᴍs
37. Tʜᴇ ᴛʏᴘᴇ ᴏғ ᴇsᴏᴘʜᴀɢᴜs ᴡʜɪᴄʜ ɪs ғᴏᴜɴᴅ ɪɴ
33. A ᴘᴀᴛɪᴇɴᴛ sᴜғғᴇʀɪɴɢ ғʀᴏᴍ ʜɪᴀᴛᴀʟ ʜᴇʀɴɪᴀ ᴡᴇ ᴍɪᴅᴅʟᴇ ᴀɴᴅ ᴜᴘᴘᴇʀ sᴇᴄᴛɪᴏɴ ᴏғ ᴇsᴏᴘʜᴀɢᴜs ᴅᴜᴇ ᴛᴏ
ɪɴsᴛʀᴜᴄᴛɪɴɢ ᴛʜᴇ ᴘᴀᴛɪᴇɴᴛ ɴᴏᴛ ᴛᴏ ᴇᴀᴛ ᴡɪᴛʜ ɪɴ _ sᴍᴏᴋɪɴɢ ᴀɴᴅ ᴀʟᴄᴏʜᴏʟ ɪɴᴅɪɢᴇsɪᴏɴ ɪs ᴄᴀʟʟᴇᴅ
ʜᴏᴜʀs ᴏғ ɢᴏɪɴɢ ᴛᴏ ʙᴇᴅ
ᴀ) ᴀᴅᴇɴᴏᴄᴀʀᴄɪɴᴏᴍᴀ
ᴀ) 1
ʙ) sǫᴜᴀᴍᴏᴜs ᴄᴇʟʟ ᴄᴀʀᴄɪɴᴏᴍᴀ
ʙ) 2
ᴄ) Bᴏᴛʜ
ᴄ) 3
ᴅ) Nᴏɴ ᴏғ ᴛʜᴇ ᴀʙᴏᴠᴇ
ᴅ) 4
38. When trying to diagnose achalasia which of
34. A ᴘᴀᴛɪᴇɴᴛ sᴜғғᴇʀɪɴɢ ғʀᴏᴍ ᴀᴄʜᴀʟᴀsɪᴀ ᴡᴇ the following tests would show high LES resting
ɢɪᴠᴇ ɪᴛ ɪɴᴊᴇᴄᴛɪᴏɴ ᴏғ ʙᴏᴛᴜʟɪɴᴜᴍ ᴛᴏxɪɴ (ʙᴏᴛᴏx) pressures, incomplete relaxation of LES with
ғᴏʀ ᴛʜᴇ ᴘᴜʀᴘᴏsᴇ ᴏғ swallows, and no wave progression?
A) Endoscopy
ᴀ) Tᴏ ᴅᴇᴄʀᴇᴀsᴇ ᴇsᴏᴘʜᴀɢᴇᴀʟ ᴘʀᴇssᴜʀᴇ B) Gastric emptying study
C) Barium swallow
D) Esophageal manometry

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39. The client has been taking magnesium b. Weight gain.
hydroxide (milk of magnesia) at home in an
attempt to control hiatal hernia symptoms. The c. Diarrhea
nurse should assess the client for which of the d. Constipation.
following conditions most commonly associated
with the ongoing use of magnesium-based 40. Chocolate, caffeine, peppermint, alcohol,
antacids? and tobacco do which of the following?
a. Slow gastric emptying
a. Anorexia. b. Directly relaxes the LES
c. Irritates and disrupts mucosa

9- Gastritis, 10- Ulcer Disease, 11- Gastric Carcinoma;

1. Which of the following definitions best a. Salmonella

describes gastritis?
a. Erosion of gastric sphincter b. E.coli
b. Inflammation of a diverticulum c. H.pylori
c. Inflammation of gastric mucosa
d. Reflux of stomach acid into esophagus d. Staphylococcus

2. Weakness and wasting of the body due to 6. Chronic gastritis can be divided into.....
severe chronic illness is called... categories?
a. Dyspepsia
a. 2
b. Dysphaghea
c. Cachexia b. 3
d. Phobia
c. 4
3. Gastritis is categories to..... main types?
d. 6
a. 2
b. 3 7. Inflammation of the lining of the stomach that
c. 4 occurs gradually for a prolonged time due to
d. 5 intake of unhealthy/ spicy food is known as...
gastritis?
4. The stomach lining is composed of... layer?
a. Serious layer a. Type A
b. Muscular
b. Type B
c. Mucous
d. All of them c. Type C
5. A chronic cause of gastritis is infection with a d. All
microorganism........?

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8. Abdominal ache and indigestion are the d. Rectal cancer
symptom of..... gastritis?
13. Zeeshan is admitted to health care facilities
a. Acute with a diagnose of a bleeding gastric ulcer. The
nurse expects this client stools to be;
b. Type A
a. Coffee-ground like
c. Type B
b. Clay- colored
d. Type C
c. Black & tarry
9. Inflammation of the whole stomach is called:
d. Bright Red
a. gastritis
14. A physician order proton pumps inhibitors to
b. pan gastritis a patient, which one drug is ppi?
c. Antral gastritis a. Digoxin
d. Peptic ulcer b. Ranitidine
10. Which of following are the clinical c. Domperidone
symptoms of gastritis?
d. Pantoprazole
a. Heaviness
15. Which of the following diagnostic test may
b. Pain be performed to determine if a client has gastric
c. Vomiting & nausea cancer?

d. All a. Barrium anemia

11. An excavation (hole) that forms in the b. Colonoscopy

mucosal wall of the stomach is called; c. Gastroscopy
a. Peptic ulcer d. Serum electrolyte
b. Oral cancer 16. The best duration of treatment to ensure 90%
c. Gastric carcinoma duodenal ulcer healing with H2 receptor
antagonist is;
d. None of above
a. 3 days
12. The most common cause of duodenal ulcers
is... b.1-2 weeks

a. NSAIDS c. 4 weeks

b. H.Pyloric d. 6 weeks

c. Stress GERD

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17. How to prevent formation of recurrent peptic a. Chemotherapy
ulcers?
b. Surgery
a. Getting treated for helicobacter pylori
infection if present c. Antimalarial

b. Limiting alcohol and quitting smoking d. Antioxidant

c. Seeking medical advice on use of NSAID's 22. Which lesion is almost universally (more
than 90%) associated with Helicobacter pylori
d. All of the above infection?

18. Misoprostol is; a. Duodenal ulcer

a. a synthetic, oral PGE2 analog b. Gastric carcinoid

b. used for treatment and prophylaxis of c. Gastric carcinoma

NSAID-induced peptic ulcer
d. Gastric ulcer
c. safe during pregnancy
23. Which of the following conditions is 3 to 6
d. constipative in its side effects profilee- an more times likely to develop later in life among
antacid people with ulcers caused by Helicobacter
pylori?
19. Which drug belongs to the antacids class of
anti-peptic ulcer drugs? a. Second ulcer

a. omeprazole b. Diabetes

b. cimetidine c. Heart disease

c. pirenzepine d. Stomach cancer

d. calcium carbonate 24. Which of the following receptor is closed by

drug during a peptic ulcer?
20. ....... is a surgical operation in which one or
more branches of the vagus nerve are cut, a) H1
typically to reduce the rate of gastric secretion.
b) H2
a. Pyloroplasty
c) Proton pump
b. Vagotomy
d) H2 and proton pump
c. Antrectomy
25. What is the function of somatostatin?
d. Biopsy
a) Inhibits histamine and gastrin-releasing
21. Which is the drug treatment that used to kill cells
unwanted growth of the cell with the help of
powerful chemicals? b) Activates histamine and gastrin realising cells

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MCQ’s Of AHN-I By: Zia Ud Din ZCN
c) Inhibits H+ secretion c) Chemotherapy

d) Ensures H+ secretion d) Radiotherapy

29. Which of the following are included in the
26. Increase of acid production or decrease of signs of the stomach carcinoma?
bicarbonate can give a peptic ulcer
a) Cachexia
a) True
b) Virchows node
b) False c) Irish node
27. Most ulcers are due to the result of H. pylori. d) All of them

a) True 30. Which of the following technique helps in

assessing local invasion, ascitis and thickening
b) False of gastric wall?
a) Endoscopy
28. Which of the following will be primary
treatment in the stomach carcinoma? b) CT scan
a) By improving nutrition if needed c) Ultrasonography
b) Surgery d) ESR

12-IBS, 13 Hernias, 14 Hemorrhoid , 15 Intestinal Obstruction;

1. A functional disorder of intestine related to 3. What type of education should be provided

motility is called.... by a nurse about nutrition in care of IBS

a. GERD patient?

b. Hernia a. Take high fats diet

c. IBS b. Take low fats diet

d. Hemorrhoid c. High protein

2. Best nursing diagnose for irritable bowel d. High carbohydrates intake

syndrome.... 4. People suffering from IBS may suffer either

a. Anxiety related to disease from constipation or diarrhea?

b. Risk for aspiration related to a. True

regurgitation b. False

c. Alter bowel pattern related to disease 5. Swollen and inflamed veins located in the

process lower anal canal is called.....

d. Acute pain related to disease process a. Colorectal cancer

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MCQ’s Of AHN-I By: Zia Ud Din ZCN

b. Dyspepsia d. Obesity

c. Hemorrhoid e. All of the answers are correct

d. None

6. Once other disease conditions have been 10. A type of Hemorrhoid appearing outside the

ruled out, a person can be considered for the external sphincter is called.....

diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome if the a. Internal hemorrhoids

symptoms were present for the . . . . b. External hemorrhoids

a. last-One week c. Hydrophilic hemorrhoids

b. One fortnight d. All

c. One month 11. Symptoms of hemorrhoids can include:

10:33 pm, 13/06/2023 a. Flatulence (intestinal gas)

d. Three months b. Bright red blood in stool, toilet tissue,

7. There are .................. types of hemorrhoid? or in the toilet bowl

a. 1 c. Acid reflux

b. 2 d. Dry mouth

c. 3 12. Hemorrhoids are common in pregnant

d. 4 women and people over the age of;

8. The goal of non surgical procedures used to a. 20

treat hemorrhoids is called..... b. 30

a. Hemorrhoidectomy c. 40

b. fixative procedures d. 50

c. manometery 13. A nursing student is preparing the teaching

d. fecalith plane for Hemorrhoids patient. Which types

9. Which of the following can cause of diet will be appropriate for this patient;

hemorrhoids to develop? a. High cholesterol diet

a. Prolonged toilet sitting b. poultry products

b. Pregnancy c. high fiber diet

c. Chronic digestive disorders d. Soft diet

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14. Best nursing diagnose for Hemorrhoid; c. Hernia

a. High risk for bleeding R/T altered d. None

clotting mechanisms 19. A type of hernia in which the protruding

b. anxiety related to disease processes organ can be pushed back into its place is

c. Pain related to rectal swelling called.....hernia?

d. immobility related to disease a. irreducible

15. Surgical remove of hemorrhoids is called; b. incarcerated

a. fixative procedure c. reducible

b. hemorrhoidectomy d. strangulated

c. both 20. If the blood supply to the protruding organ is

d. none cut off, the hernia is considered to be

16. Which of the following measures pressure a. reducible

of the rectum and anus muscle; b. irreducible

a. fecalith c. strangulated

b. colostomy d. umbilical

c. manometry 21. Which of the following are the common

d. barrium swallow contributing factors in the development of a

17. What are treatments for hemorrhoids? hernia?

a. Scarring a. straining to lift heavy objects

b. Rubber banding b. chronic cough

c. Heat and cold therapies c. Chronic constipation, straining to void

d. All of the above or pass stool,

18. When a segment of the intestine protrudes d. ascites

through a defect in the muscular wall of the e. All of the above

abdomen, causing a lump or swelling is 22. Which of the following types of hernias

called... account for 75% of all abdominal hernias?

a. Achalasia a. Femoral

b. Diverticula b. Incisional

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c. Inguinal 27. a cause of intestinal obstruction in which

d. Unusual one part of intestine slips to another part

23. Which is the most common hernia in located below it is called;

female? a. volvulus

a. Femoral hernia b. Hernia

b. Indirect Inguinal hernia c. Adhesions

c. Umbilical hernia d. Intussusceptions

d. Incisional hernia 28. Small bowel obstruction (SBO) is a

24. Which of the following conditions can cause blockage that occurs in the small intestine,

a bowel obstruction? which prevents the normal passage of

a. Diabetes mellitus intestinal contents is caused by;

b. Hernia a. adhesions

c. Arthritis b. volvulus

d. Gout c. hernias

25. there are ...... types of Intestinal obstruction; d. tumors

a. 2 e. intussusception

b. 3 e. All of the above

c. 4 29. The Manifestations of Small bowel

d. 5 obstruction (SBO) are;

26. A type of intestinal obstruction caused by a. abdominal distention

muscular or neurological disorders known b. vomiting, dehydration

is... c. hypovolemic shock

a. Mechanical obstruction d. All of the above

b. Functional obstruction 30. Which of the following terms describes

inflamed or infected pouches in your
c. neoplasms obstruction intestine?
d. none
a. hernia
b. distension
c. virus
d. diverticulitis

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16-Colorectal Cancer, 17-Appendicitis, 18-Peritonitis, 19-Ulcerative Colitis;

1. Cancer that effect the colon and rectum is 7. Which of the following problems is thought
called.... to be the most common cause of
a. crohns Disease appendicitis?
b. Ulcerative Colitis a. A fecalith
c. colorectal cancer b. Bowel kinking
d. cholitis c. Internal bowel occlusion
2. Most common type of colorectal cancer is.... d. Abdominal wall swelling
a. Adeno Carcinoma
b. Adenoma 8. When the lining of the large intestine and
c. Hemangioma rectum become inflamed and result in ulcer
d. Leiomyoma condition is called....?
3. In regard to appendicitis the location of pain a. Crohn's disease
is in the lower abdominal quadrant which is b. Colon cancer
called.... c. Rectal cancer
a. Kerning’s sign d. Ulcerative colitis
b. Schrute's point
c. Mc Burney sign 9. What are the late symptoms of peritonitis?
d. Bradzinsk sign a. Oliguria
b. Nausea, vomiting
4. Weakness and wasting of the body due to c. Tachycardia
severe chronic illness is called... d. Malaise
a. Dysphasia
b. Dyspepsia 10. Which condition is a contraindication to
c. Cachexia appendectomy?
d. Phobia a. A perforated appendix
b. Bowel cancer
5. Removal of peritoneal fluid for analysis is c. Inflammatory bowel disease involving
called... the cecum
a. Enastamosis d. Morbid obesity (body mass index > 40
b. Sialometery kg/m2
c. Endoscopy
d. Paracenthesis 11. Ulcerative colitis is most closely associated
6. Symptoms of appendicitis include __? with which of the following condition?
a. Abdominal pain a. Appendicitis
b. Nausea & Vomiting b. Colon cancer
c. Constipation c. Hiatal Hernia
d. All of the above d. Hemorrhoid

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12. A nurse received post-operative patient of a. True
appendectomy. In which position she would b. False
put the patient in bed?
a. High Fowler 19. Which of the following conditions is most
b. Trendelenberg likely to directly cause peritonitis?
c. Prone a. Cholelithiasis
d. Sim's b. Gastritis
c. Perforated ulcer
13. A 29 years old patient with acute episodes of d. Incarcerated hernia
ulcerative colitis, which diagnostic test
confirms the diagnosis? 20. Which of the following symptoms would a
a. Endoscopy client in the early stages of peritonitis
b. Stool examination exhibit?
c. Gastric analysis a. Abdominal distention
d. Sigmoidoscopy b. Abdominal pain and rigidity
c. Hyperactive bowel sounds
14. McBurney Point is located ____? d. Right upper quadrant pain
a. Around the umbilicus
b. In the right lower abdomen 21. Appendicitis can cause:
c. In the left lower abdomen a. Peritonitis (inflammation of the
d. In the upper abdomen membranes that line the abdominal
cavity)
15. Other condition/s that could produce pain b. Irritable bowel syndrome
similar to appendicitis include......... c. Rupture of the appendix
a. Inflammation of gall bladder d. Both A and C
b. Stone in ureter
c. Inflammation of right colon 22. Which of the following laboratory results
d. All of the above would be expected in a client with
peritonitis?
16. Perforation is not a complication of a. Partial thromboplastin time above 100
appendicitis...? seconds
a. True b. Hemoglobin level below 10 mg/dL
b. False c. Potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L
d. White blood cell count above 15.000
17. The nurse is caring for an adult who has
ulcerative colitis, when planning care the 23. The most common treatment for
nurse knows that which nursing diagnose is appendicitis is:
of highest priority? a. Antibiotics
a. Disturbed body Image b. Surgery to remove the appendix
b. Risk for skin integrity c. Surgery to repair the appendix
c. Deficient fluid volume d. Pain relievers
d. Risk for ineffective health maintenance

18. Rebound tenderness occurs in appendicitis...

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24. Which of the following therapies is not 28. What are risk factors for developing
included in the medical management of a colorectal cancer?
client with peritonitis?
a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics a. Age and lifestyle

b. Electrolyte replacement b. Genetics

c. I.V. fluids c. Inflammatory bowel disease

d. Regular diet d. All of the above

25. If you suspect you have appendicitis, what 29. An invasive visual diagnostic procedure
type of medicine should you not take? that is used to examine the interior surfaces of
an organ or tissue is:
a. Laxatives
a. MRI
b. Pain relievers b. Endoscopy
c. Parenthesis
c. Allergy medicines d. X-Ray
d. A and B 30. Which of the following terms best
26. Which of the following aspects is the describes the pain associated with appendicitis?
priority focus of nursing management for a a. Aching
client?
b. Fleeting
With peritonitis?
c. Intermittent
a. Fluid and electrolyte balance
b. Gastric irrigation d. Steady
c. Pain management
d. Psychosocial issues 31. Which of the following nursing interventions
should be implemented to manage a client?
27. As the appendix becomes more inflamed,
which symptom(s) might be present? With appendicitis?

a. Loss of appetite a. Assessing for pain

b. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
b. A hard abdomen c. Providing discharge teaching
d. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis
c. Vomiting

d. All of the above

20- Crohn’s Disease, 21-Anorectal Cancer, 22-Anal Fissure, 23-Anal Fistula;

1. What is Crohn’s disease? c. A chronic inflammatory disease of the

a. Caused by an allergy to gluten intestines
b. Closely related to celiac disease d. A curable digestive disease

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a. Ulcerative colitis
2. Passing black tarry stool due to upper GIT b. Appendicitis
bleed is called... c. Crohn’s Disease
a. Hematamesis d. Diverticulitis
b. Malena
c. Hematochozia 8. Crohn’s disease is a digestive disease that
d. Hematuria also involves which additional system of
body?
3. Crohns Disease is closely related to a. The lymphatic system
Ulcerative colitis b. The CNS
a. True c. The endocrine system
b. False d. The immune system

4. A small cut or tear in the lining of the anus 9. To check occult blood test. Which specimen
causing pain and bleeding during bowel will you collect?
movement is called... a. Blood
a. Anorectal cancer b. Urine
b. Anal fistula c. Stool
c. Anal fissure d. Gastric juice
d. Crohn's disease
10. A small tubular tract that extends from
5. Crohn’s disease can be seen in: opening located near the anus is called...
a. Jejunum only a. Anal fistula
b. Colon only b. Anal fissure
c. Terminal ileum and right side c. Rectal Absece
d. Mouth to anus d. Anal cancer

6. An experienced nurse practitioner who 11. Most common site of fistula in client with
continually treats patients with IBD, you crohn's disease is?
know that the main cause of Crohn’s a. Ilium
Disease is? b. Transverse colon
a. Stressful life events c. Recto vagina
b. Unknown, but believed to be related d. Anorectal
to a bacterial infection
c. An underlying autoimmune disorder 12. Causes of anal fissure do not typically
d. H. pylori infection include:
a. Crohn’s disease
7. You are seeing a 35 year old patient in an b. Repeated episodes of diarrhea
outpatient clinic that presents with severe c. Enterococcus faecalis
malnourishment, ulcers in the mouth, d. Chlamydia trachomatis
diarrhea, and abdominal cramping in the
right lower quadrant. Which disease would 13. Which of the following are the
you suspect your patient has from these Inflammatory bowel diseases?
symptoms? a. Ulcerative colitis

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b. Crohn's Disease d. All of the above
c. Peritonitis
d. Both A & B 19. What is most important prognostic feature of
rectal carcinoma;
14. Which of the following factor is believed to a. Nodal involvement
be link to crohn’s disease...? b. Size
a. Diet c. Histology
b. Constipation d. Location
c. Heredity 20. Which one of the following is indicated in
d. Lack of exercise an individual thought to beat high risk of
colorectal cancer:
15. Crohn's disease is most common in... a. fecal occult blood testing
a. Large intestine b. rigid sigmoidoscopy
b. Small intestine c. MRI of the abdomen
c. Gastric d. Colonoscopy
d. Liver
21. The following may be useful in the
16. Typically, anal fissure causes: prevention of colorectal cancer except :
a. Abdominal pain and bright rectal a. Regular physical exercise
bleeding b. Cessation of smoking
b. Anal pain and bright rectal bleeding c. Supplementation with calcium
c. Anal pain and dark rectal bleeding d. Regular alcohol consumption
d. Abdominal pain and dark rectal bleeding e. Moderating caloric intake

17. A 30 year old female presents with 2 months 22. How does the Crohn’s disease affect the
of painless fresh rectal bleeding. There is no intestine?
relevant family history. Digital rectal a. Crohn’s disease causes ulceration in
examination is normal. Which of the intestine
following is the most suitable investigation? b. Crohn’s disease causes intestines to
a. MRI narrow
b. flexible sigmoidoscopy c. Crohn’s disease causes intestine to
c. Colon scopy stiffen
d. CT Scan d. All of the above

18. A 75 year old man presented with bleeding 23. A 17 year old male presents with diarrhea
PR. A colonoscopy revealed a rectal and multiple painful anal fissures and bright
adenocarcinoma at 10 cms from the dentate red rectal bleeding. There is also pus around
line. All the following tests are indicated the anus. What is the most likely diagnosis:
except: a. Ulcerative colitis
a. Staging CT scan b. Idiopathic anal fissure
b. MRI pelvis for local staging (nodes and c. Crohns disease
depth of invasion) d. Chlamydia trachomatis infection
c. EUS rectum can also be used for local
staging and is cheaper than MRI

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24. Severe rectal pain during defecation + pain 25. Part of the peri-operative management of a
during digital exam + tear in rectal mucosa patient with low rectal cancer would include
is; all except;
a. Anal Cancer a. Prophylactic antibiotics
b. Anal Fissure b. Albumin infusion
c. Anal Fistula c. Prophylaxis against deep vein
d. None thrombosis

24-Pancreatitis, 25-Pancreatic Pseudocyst /Abscess, 26-Pancreatic Cancer;

1. Secretion of pancreatic juice is triggered by;
a. secretion 6. Which of the following is the most common
b. enterogastrone cause of acute pancreatitis?
c. gastrin a. Alcoholism
d. enterokinase b. Gallstones
c. Smoking
2. This is a common passage for bile and d. Viral infection
pancreatic juice;
a. stomach 7. What is an alternate bedside test, with the
b. ampulla most number of clinical studies to support
c. duct of oddi its use in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
d. duct of wirsung a. Urinary trypsinogen activation peptide
(TAP)
3. This is most diagnostic investigation for b. Urinary trypsinogen-1
acute pancreatitis; c. Urinary trypsinogen-2
a. Serum LDH d. Urinary elastase
b. Serum amylase
c. Serum Lipase 8. What is the best fluid type to use for
d. Serum P-isoamylase resuscitation in acute pancreatitis?
a. Normal saline
4. Which of the following are parts of the b. Ringers lactate
pancreas in the human body? c. Dextrose saline
a. Head and leg d. Gelofusine
b. Head, tail, leg and hair
c. Head, neck, body and tail 9. Which is not a manifestation of pancreatitis
d. Head neck, leg and body and pancreatic insufficiency?
a. Hypertriglyceridemia
5. In the pancreas, the antidiabetic hormone- b. Hypocalcemia
Insulin is secreted by the c. Hypoglycemia
…………………… Cells. d. Normal blood amylase levels
a. Delta cells
b. Beta cells 10. Ringer lactate solution is also called as;
c. Alpha cells a. Sodium lactate
d. PP cells b. Potassium lactate

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c. Calcium lactate b. Diabetes Mellitus
d. All c. BRCA2 Gene Mutation
d. Lynch Syndrome
11. Which of the following are the s/s of
pancreatitis? 17. Risk factor(s) for pancreatic cancer;
a. Nausea or vomiting a. Alcohol abuse
b. abdominal tenderness b. Cholelithiasis
c. Hiccups, Anorexia c. Obesity
d. All of the above d. Coffee consumption
e. All of the above
12. All of the following are the complications of
pancreatitis except? 18. What is the most common type of pancreatic
a. kidney damage cancer?
b. pancreatic cancer a. Ductal adenocarcinomas
c. diabetes b. Islet cell tumors
d. Coronary artery disease c. Pancreatoblastomas
d. Mixed type
13. Trypsinogen is secreted by;
a. Salivary gland 19. Which is the most common site of
b. Stomach pancreatic cancer?
c. Small intestine a. Head
d. All of the above b. Body
e. None of the above c. Tail
d. Body and tail
14. The risk factors for pancreatic cancer
include all except; 20. What is the most common sign of carcinoma
a. Diabetes pancreas?
b. Hereditary a. Pain
c. chronic pancreatitis b.
d. smoking c. Jaundice
e. acute pancreatitis d. Pale stool
e. Palpable GB
15. It is possible to live without a pancreas?
a. True 21. How can you get a definite diagnosis in
b. False 100% of cases?
a. CT
16. Which of these is the least likely to cause b. MRI
pancreatic cancer? c. ERCP
a. Smoking d. Laparotomy

27-Hepatic Abscess, 28-Liver Cancer, 29-Liver Cirrhosis, 30-Cholecystitis, 31-Gall

Bladder Cancer;

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1. A pus-filled mass in the liver that can b. Liver
develop from injury to the liver or from an c. Kidney
intra-abdominal infection disseminated from d. Spleen
the portal vein due to pyogenic or amoebic
is called... 8. What important functions are affected by
a. Liver Cancer severe, acute, or chronic liver disease……?
b. liver abscess a. Blood clotting
c. liver cirrhosis b. Elimination of water, salt, drugs and
d. Gall bladder cancer toxins from the body
c. Manufacture of blood protein
2. Inflammation of gall bladder is known as; d. All of the above
a. Cholelithiasis
b. Cholecystitis 9. Liver disease also arise from …
c. Cystitis a. Mushrooms
d. Colitis b. Viruses
c. Obesity
3. Gallbladder is located in which quadrant of d. All of the above
your abdomen; 10. What is most common cause of chronic liver
a. Right Lower quadrant disease?
b. Left upper quadrant a. Genetics
c. Right upper quadrant b. Alcohol abuse
d. Left lower quadrant c. Bacteria
d. Virus
4. Late stage of chronic liver disease is
called… 11. Detoxification of RBC occurs in…
a. Liver failure a. Liver
b. Liver Cirrhosis b. Kidney
c. Liver cancer c. Spleen
d. Fatty liver disease d. None of the above

5. Cirrhosis is most accurately diagnosed by… 12. In a patient with liver cirrhosis, the
a. Eye exam recommended diet is?
b. Blood test a. low protein
c. Liver biopsy b. High Quality protein
d. All of the above c. High Caloric
d. both b & c
6. In liver parenchymal cells are…
a. Stellate 13. Which of the following terms is used to
b. Hepatocyte describe a chronic liver disease in which
c. Kupffer scar tissue surrounds the portal areas?
d. Endothelial cell a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
b. Postnecrotic cirrhosis
7. Bile is produced in… c. Biliary cirrhosis
a. Gall bladder d. Cardiac cirrhosis

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b. Loss of appetite
14. ------it occurs as a late result of a previous c. Headache
episode of acute viral hepatitis. Broad bands d. Nausea
of scar tissue develop in the liver as a result.
a. Alcoholic cirrhosis 20. Most common site of gall stone formation;
b. Postnecrotic cirrhosis a. Gall bladder
c. Biliary cirrhosis b. Cystic duct
d. Cardiac cirrhosis c. Common bile duct
d. Hepatic duct
15. Which condition is NOT a known cause of
cirrhosis? 21. Which is the best test to detect gallbladder
a. Obesity problems;
b. Alcohol consumption a. X-ray
c. Blockage of the bile duct b. Ultrasound
d. Hepatitis C c. CT scan
e. All are known causes of Cirrhosis d. MRI ( magneting resonance imaging

16. While providing mouth care to a patient 22. It occurs suddenly resulting in severe, steady
with late-stage cirrhosis, you note a pungent, pain in upper abdomen;
sweet, musty smell to the breath. This is a. Chronic calculous
known as: b. Acalculous
a. Metallic Hepatic c. Acute calculous
b. Fetor Hepaticus d. Cholecystitis
c. Hepaticoacidosis
d. Asterixis 23. It causes acute inflammation of gall bladder
in absence of obstruction by stones;
17. Each of the following is a commonly a. Acalculous
encountered complication of cirrhosis b. Chronic calculous
except. c. Acute calculous
a. Hepatic encephalopathy d. Cholecystitis
b. Ascites
c. Congestive Heart Failure 24. These all are nursing intervention for
d. Portal Hypertension cholecystitis patient except one;
a. Monitor vital signs for signs of
18. Which of the following is not a usual sign or perforation
symptom of cirrhosis? b. Provide comfort measures and
a. Weight loss and increasing abdominal administer analgesic as ordered
girth c. Advise the patient to eat high fatty
b. Elevated prothrombin time foods
c. Acute pain and fever d. Administer antibiotics for infection as
d. Jaundice ordered

19. Which is not a gall stones symptom; 25. Cancer that affects blood vessels of the liver
a. Fever is called...

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a. cholangio carcinoma b. False
b. liver angiosarcoma
c. Hepatocelular cancer 31. Which of the following are common
d. None symptoms of primary liver cancer?
a. Weakness or fatigue
26. Most common type of liver cirrhosis is... b. Unexplained weight loss
a. billiary c. Pain in the right upper quadrant of the
b. alcoholic abdomen
c. post necrotic d. All of the above
d. CBD cirrhosis
32. A blood test can be used to help diagnose
27. Which one is not the function of liver? primary liver cancer.
a. Metabolism a. True
b. Bile Production b. False
c. Storage Of Glucogen
d. Excrete Waste Product 33. Which of the following statements is true
about the human liver?
28. Removal of gall bladder is called... a. Liver is triangular in shape
a. Choledochtomy b. Liver is the only visceral organ that can
b. Cholecystotomy regenerate
c. Cholecystectomy c. Liver is the largest and the internal
d. All Of The Above organ of the human body
d. All of the above.
29. The most common type of primary liver
cancer is: 34. Most common type of gall stones;
a. Hepatocellular carcinoma a. Cholesterol stones
b. Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (bile b. pigment stone
duct cancer)
c. Hepatoblastoma 35. What is the most important cause of
d. None of the above cholesterol gallstone disease?
a. Bile supersaturation with cholesterol
30. Early-stage primary liver cancer is often b. Nucleation of cholesterol monohydrate
hard to detect during a physical c. Abnormal gall bladder motor function
examination. d. Bacterial infection
a. True

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Unit-2 Fluid, Electrolytes & Acid Base Imbalance

1. Body Fluid constitute...... % of the about c. Respiratory alkalosis not compensated

total body weight? d. Metabolic acidosis fully compensated
a. 70 6. The nurse on duty took her vital signs and
b. 60 noted the following: Temp = 100 °F; apical
c. 40 pulse = 95; respiration = 20 and deep.
d. 30 Measurement of arterial blood gas shows pH
2. Approximately one-third of the body water 7.37, PaO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 40 mm Hg,
exists in the; and HCO3 24 mmol/L. What is your
a. Kidneys and urinary bladder assessment?
b. Extracellular fluid compartment a. Hyperthermia
c. Blood b. Hyperthermia and Respiratory Alkalosis
d. Transcellular fluid compartment c. Hypothermia
3. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH level: d. Hypothermia and Respiratory Alkalosis
a. Increases 7. A person was admitted in a coma. Analysis
b. Decreases of the arterial blood gave the following
c. Stays the same values: PCO2 16 mm Hg, HCO3- 5 mmol/l
d. All of the above and pH 7.1. What is the underlying acid-
4. The primary route for water loss from the base disorder?
body is the ____ system. a. Metabolic Acidosis
a. Respiratory b. Metabolic Alkalosis
b. Urinary c. Respiratory Acidosis
c. Digestive d. Respiratory Alkalosis
d. Integumentary 8. Which of the following laboratory results
5. A patient has the following arterial blood below indicates compensated metabolic
gases: PaCO2 33, HCO3 15, pH 7.23. alkalosis?
Which condition below is presenting? a. Low p CO2, normal bicarbonate and,
a. Metabolic alkalosis partially high pH
compensated b. Low p CO2, low bicarbonate, low pH
b. Metabolic acidosis partially c. High p CO2, normal bicarbonate and,
compensated low p H

40 | P a g e
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d. High pCO2, high bicarbonate and 14. Most body water is located in;
High pH a. Plasma
9. Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all the b. Interstitial Fluid
following except. c. Cells
a. Mineral corticoid deficiency d. Lumens of organs open to the outside
b. Hypokalemia
c. Thiazide diuretic therapy 15. The hormone that directly controls water
d. Recurrent vomiting reabsorption by the kidneys is;
10. When giving an enema or tube feeding with a. Vasopressin
tap water, what concern is there? b. Aldosterone
a. Hyponatremia c. Epinephrine
b. Hypernatremia d. ANP
c. Cardiovascular overload 16. An increase in plasma potassium levels is
d. It is preferable to use tap water. properly called;
11. Which is not a possibility in the ECG of a pt a. Hyperpotassemia
with hypokalemia? b. Hyperpotasseplasmia
a. prolong PR interval c. Hyperkalemia
b. prominent U waves d. Hypercalcemia
c. T wave flattening 17. A person who suffers from hyperventilation
d. Prolonged QT interval will exhibit signs of;
e. T wave inversion in praecordial leads a. Respiratory Acidosis
12. Which of the following is not a symptom of b. Respiratory Alkalosis
hypokalemia? c. Metabolic Acidosis
a. Constipation d. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Muscle Weakness 18. The normal pH range for most body fluids is
c. Paralysis ____.
d. Seizures
a. 7 to 8
13. The two organ systems that work together to
regulate most aspects of the body's water b. 7.5 to 8
balance are;
c. 7.25 to 7.75
a. Digestive And Respiratory
b. Urinary And Respiratory d. 7.38 to 7.42
c. Cardiovascular And Respiratory
d. Urinary and cardiovascular

41 | P a g e
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19. Normal removal of excess water in urine is 23. What is the normal range of bicarbonate ion
known as; (HCO3-) in arterial blood?

a. 35-45
a. Diuresis
b. 22-26
b. Diuretics
c. 7.35-7.45
c. Osmotic Diuresis
d. Not listed

d. Filtration. 24. If HCO3- caused the acidosis or the

alkalosis, it is what?
2o. A rise in angiotensin II levels would result in
a. Metabolic
increased;
b. Respiratory
a. Blood Pressure
b. Retention Of Sodium Ions At The Kidney c. Combined

c. Water Retention. d. None

d. Blood volume
25. When there is an abnormal pH and change in
e. All of these effects. one blood parameter it is:

21. What is seen earliest in an ECG of a. Uncompensated

hyperkalemia? b. Partially compensated

a. Sine wave c. Fully compensated

d. Corrected
b. Peak T wave
26. When pH is normal, both HCO3 and CO2
c. Flattened p wave are abnormal. It is:

d. QRS widening a. Uncompensated

22. What is the normal range of carbon dioxide b. Partially compensated

(CO2) in arterial blood? c. Fully compensated

a. 35-45 d. Corrected

27. H 7.31, CO2 50mmHg, HCO3- 22mEq/L;

b. 22-26
a. Respiratory acidosis, Uncompensated
c. 7.35-7.45
b. Respiratory alkalosis, Partially compensated
d. Not listed
c. Metabolic acidosis, Fully compensated

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d. Metabolic alkalosis, Uncompensated 32. Compensation by cells the H+ will move
into the cells, as an exchange for electrical
28. Which of the following is the first acting neutrality-------- will shift from ICF to the ECF;
acid-base regulatory mechanism?
a. Na
a. Chemical buffer system
b. Ca
b. Protein buffer system
c. K
c. Respiratory mechanism
d. Cl
d. Renal mechanism 33. When assessing a patient for signs of fluid
overload, the nurse would expect to observe:
29. Identify the correct ratio of bicarbonate to
a. Bounding Pulse
carbon dioxide in the extracellular fluids under
normal physiological conditions. b. Dry Skin

a. 16: 1 c. Poor Skin Turgor

d. Vesicular
b. 20: 1
34. The physician has ordered IV replacement of
c. 24: 1 potassium for a patient with severe hypokalemia.
The nurse would administer this:
d. 28: 1
a. By Rapid Bolus
30. Which of the following condition causes
b. Diluted In 100 Cc Over 1 Hour
metabolic alkalosis?
c. Diluted In 10 Cc Over 10 Minutes
a. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
d. IV push
b. Starvation
35. The nurse is caring for a client who’s sodium
c. Excess alcohol level is 125 mEq/L (hyponatremia). The nurse
understands that hyponatremia may be caused
d. Excess Aldosterone
by;
31. Which electrolyte would the nurse identify
as the major electrolyte responsible for a. Cushing’s syndrome
determining the concentration of the b. Use of diuretics
extracellular fluid?
c. Hyperaldosteronism
a. Potassium
d. Use of corticosteroids
b. Phosphate
36. The primary route for ion loss from the body
c. Chloride
is the ________ system.
d. Sodium

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MCQ’s Of AHN-I By: Zia Ud Din ZCN
a. Respiratory a. Sweat glands.

b. Urinary b. Kidneys.

c. Digestive c. Liver.

d. Digestive system.
d. Integumentary
42. The most important factor affecting the pH
e. Cardiovascular
of plasma is the concentration of;
37. Cell volume (and therefore cell function) in
a. Lactic acid.
most cells is dependent upon careful regulation
of b. Ketone bodies.

a. Volume of extracellular fluid. c. Organic acids.

b. Blood pressure. d. Carbon dioxide.

c. Osmolarity of extracellular fluid. 43. The primary role of the carbonic acid-
bicarbonate buffer system is to
d. Permeability of cell membranes.
a. Buffer stomach acid.
38. Kidneys respond relatively ________ to
changes in blood volume. b. Buffer carbonic acid formed by carbon
dioxide.
a. Slowly
c. Prevent pH changes caused by organic and
b. Quickly fixed acids.

39. The primary osmoreceptors are located in d. Buffer the urine

the
44. PH 7.31, CO2 44 mmHg, HCO3 20 mEq/L
a. Pons.
a. Metabolic alkalosis, Fully compensated
b. Kidney.
b. Metabolic acidosis, Uncompensated
c. Stomach.
c. Respiratory alkalosis, partially compensated
d. Hypothalamus.
d. Respiratory acidosis, Uncompensated
40. ACE converts
45. PH 7.47, CO2 48 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L
a. Renin to angiotensinogen.
a. Metabolic alkalosis, partially compensated
b. Angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
b. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
c. Angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
c. Metabolic acidosis, fully compensated
d. Angiotensin II to aldosterone
d. Respiratory alkalosis, partially compensated
41. Excess potassium ions are eliminated from
the body by the

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46. PH 7.30, CO2 46 mmHg, HCO3 16 mEq/L c. Polyuria

a. Metabolic alkalosis, partially compensated d. Hallucinations

b. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated 51. An elderly patient comes to the clinic with
complaint of watery diarrhea for several days
c. Combined, partially compensated with abdominal and muscles cramping. The
nurse realizes that this patient is demonstrating
d. Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated
which of the following condition?
47. Which of the following is most appropriate
a. a.Hypernatremia
for a female suffering from Insulin dependent
diabetes mellitus with a pH of 7.2, HCO3-17 b. Hyponatremia
mmol/L and pCO2-20 mm HG a. Metabolic c. Fluid volume excess
Acidosis? d. Hyperkalemia

b. Metabolic Alkalosis 52. Serum potassium level less than 3.5mEq/L is

called;
c. Respiratory Acidosis
a. Hyponatremia
d. Respiratory Alkalosis
b. Hypovolemia
48. A patient has the following arterial blood c. Hypokalemia
gases: HCO3 38, pH 7.50, PaCO2 50. Which of d. Hypocrite decreases
the following signs may this patient exhibit as a 53. In which blood test do HIGH results mean
compensatory mechanism? dehydration, bronchitis, Cushing’s disease,
diabetes insipidus and insufficient water intake?
a. Hyperventilation (tachypnea)

b. Hypoventilation (bradypnea) a. Sodium (Na)

b. Hematocrit (Hct)
c. Increased potassium level (hyperkalemia) c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d. Platelet count Hemoglobin (Hgb)
d. Constipation

49. A patient has the following arterial blood 54. Movement of water through a selectively
gases: PaCO2 33, HCO3 15, pH 7.23. Which preamble membrane from an area of low solute
concentration to a higher concentration until
condition below is presenting?
equilibrium occurs;
a. Metabolic alkalosis partially compensated
a. Diffusion
b. Metabolic acidosis partially compensated b. Facilitated Diffusion
c. Osmosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis not compensated d. Hypertonic

d. Metabolic acidosis fully compensated 55. The normal Na level in the ECF is;
50. All of the following are the clinical signs of a. 190-195mmol/L
hypernatremia Except; b. 135-145mmol/L
c. 110-130mmol/L
a. Thirst d. None
b. Increased BP and pulse

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56. The hormones aldosterone and ADH both 58. Most of the body's potassium is found in the:
have an important function in:
a. Intracellular fluid
a. fluid balance in the body b. Extracellular fluid
b. the regulation of acid concentration in c. Plasma
the body d. Interstitial fluid
c. stimulation of a conscious desire for
water 59. A patient is admitted with Dysrhythmias,
d. the activity of buffer systems and ECG show high, peaked T wave, prolonged
PR interval and widen QRS. What can be the
57. Which of the following are the main signs & possible diagnose?
symptoms of Hypovolemia?
a. Hypokalemia
a. Weakness , Fatigue b. Hyperkalemia
b. Orthostatic Hypotension c. Hypovalemia
c. Flat jugular vein d. Hypernatremia .
d. All of the above
60. The metabolic parameter of the arterial blood gases is the...

a. pCO2
b. HCO3

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Unit-3 Genitourinary Tract Disorders

GUT Anatomy & Physiology, 1-UTIs, 2-Renal Abscess, 3-Renal Tuberculosis

1. What is the primary function of the 5. Which hormone regulates the water
genitourinary system? reabsorption in the kidneys?

a) Respiration a) Insulin

b) Digestion b) Thyroxine

c) Reproduction and waste elimination c) Aldosterone

d) Muscular movement d) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

2. Which organ stores urine before it is 6. Which structure transports urine from the
eliminated from the body? kidneys to the bladder?

a) Kidney a) Urethra

b) Bladder b) Ureter

c) Urethra c) Nephron

d) Ureter d) Glomerulus

3. Which part of the kidney is responsible for 7. What is a common symptom of a urinary
filtering blood and forming urine? tract infection (UTI)?

a) Cortex a) Muscle pain

b) Medulla b) Diarrhea

c) Renal pelvis c) Increased appetite

d) Nephron d) Painful urination

4. The basic functional unit of the kidney is 8. The male reproductive organ responsible for
called: producing sperm is called the:

a) Urethra a) Testis

b) Nephron b) Prostate gland

c) Glomerulus c) Ovary

d) Bladder d) Uterus

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9. Where does fertilization typically occur in the a) Erectile dysfunction
female reproductive system?
b) Prostate cancer
a) Uterus
c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
b) Fallopian tube
d) Testicular torsion
c) Cervix
14. What is the function of the Cowper's glands
d) Vagina (bulbourethral glands) in the male reproductive
system?
10. Which hormone is responsible for
maintaining pregnancy and is often detected in a) Production of sperm
pregnancy tests?
b) Secretion of testosterone
a) Estrogen
c) Lubrication of the urethra before ejaculation
b) Testosterone
d) Regulation of testicular temperature
c) Progesterone
15. The external female genitalia are collectively
d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) referred to as the:

11. What is the role of the epididymis in the a) Cervix

male reproductive system?
b) Vagina
a) Production of testosterone
c) Clitoris
b) Storage and maturation of sperm
d) Ovary
c) Secretion of seminal fluid
16. The last part of a nephron is the _____.
d) Transport of urine
a) Collecting Duct
12. The process of releasing an egg from the b) Renal papilla
ovary is known as: c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Glomerulus
a) Fertilization
17. Which blood vessel conveys blood out of
b) Ovulation the nephron?
c) Menstruation a) Efferent arteriole
d) Implantation b) Vasa recta
c) Peritubular capillary
13. Which condition is characterized by the d) Interlobular vein
enlargement of the prostate gland, leading to
difficulty in urination? 18. Which blood vessels surround the loops of
Henle?

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a) Vasa recta b) Dysuria (painful urination)
b) Peritubular capillaries
c) Interlobular arteries c) Hematuria (blood in urine)
d) Efferent arterioles d) Diarrhea
19. Which of these has the highest 24. Which group of individuals is at higher risk
concentration in the urine? for developing UTIs?
a) Glucose a) Young children
b) Sodium
c) Uric acid b) Middle-aged men
d) Phosphate
c) Postmenopausal women
20. Each minor calyx receives urine from the
d) Athletes
_____.
25. What is the term for a UTI that involves the
a) Renal papillae
kidneys?
b) Pelvis
c) Ureter a) Cystitis
d) Columns
b) Pyelonephritis
21. What is the most common causative agent
of uncomplicated UTIs? c) Urethritis

a) Escherichia coli d) Nephrolithiasis

b) Staphylococcus aureus 26. Which factor can contribute to the

development of UTIs?
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
a) Increased fluid intake
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Frequent urination
22. Which part of the urinary tract is most
commonly affected by UTIs? c) Wiping from back to front after using the
toilet
a) Kidneys
d) Regular voiding schedule
b) Bladder (
27. What is the gold standard diagnostic
c) Urethra method for UTIs?
d) Ureters a) Blood culture
23. Which of the following is NOT a common b) X-ray
symptom of a UTI?
c) Urinalysis and urine culture
a) Fever

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d) Ultrasound a) Flank pain

28. Which of the following is a common b) Chills and fever

treatment for uncomplicated UTIs?
c) Frequent urination
a) Surgical intervention
d) Nausea and vomiting
b) Antibiotics
33. A UTI that occurs due to the presence of a
c) Radiation therapy catheter is known as:

d) Herbal remedies a) Community-acquired UTI

29. Recurrent UTIs are defined as: b) Complicated UTI

a) UTIs that occur only once in a lifetime c) Asymptomatic bacteriuria

b) UTIs that occur more than twice within six d) Secondary UTI
months
34. Which age group is most likely to experience
c) UTIs that affect only the bladder asymptomatic bacteriuria?

d) UTIs that are asymptomatic a) Children

30. Cranberry juice is often suggested for UTI b) Young adults

prevention due to its potential to:
c) Middle-aged individuals
a) Kill bacteria directly
d) Elderly individuals
b) Increase urine acidity
35. Which test is used to measure the rate at
c) Promote healthy kidney function which urine flows from the bladder?

d) Prevent bacteria from adhering to the a) Urinalysis

urinary tract walls
b) Urine culture
31. Which gender is generally more prone to
UTIs? c) Uroflowmetry

a) Males 36. What is a renal abscess?

b) Females a) A benign kidney cyst

c) Both genders are equally prone b) An infectious collection of pus within the
kidney
d) Gender doesn't influence UTI risk
c) A type of kidney stone
32. Which of the following is NOT a common
symptom of pyelonephritis? d) An inflammation of the renal pelvis

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37. Which of the following is a common cause c) Over-the-counter painkillers
of renal abscess?
d) Blood pressure medications
a) Hyperthyroidism
42. Which bacteria are commonly associated
b) Hypertension with renal abscess?

c) Bacterial infection a) Escherichia coli (E. coli)

d) Autoimmune disease b) Influenza virus

38. Which imaging technique is often used to c) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
diagnose renal abscess?
d) Staphylococcus aurous
a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
43. Which part of the kidney is usually affected
b) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) by a renal abscess?

c) Positron Emission Tomography (PET) a) Renal cortex

d) Ultrasound or CT scan b) Renal medulla

39. What are the common symptoms of renal c) Renal pelvis

abscess?
d) Renal capsule
a) Visual disturbances
44. What is the primary goal of draining a renal
b) Joint pain abscess?

c) Flank pain, fever, and chills a) To reduce blood pressure

d) Hair loss b) To prevent future infections

40. Which of the following is a risk factor for c) To remove kidney stones
developing a renal abscess?
d) To remove pus and alleviate symptoms
a) Consuming too much calcium
45. Which laboratory test result might be
b) Having a history of kidney donations elevated in a patient with a renal abscess?

c) Diabetes and urinary tract infections a) Blood sugar levels

d) Being left-handed b) Hemoglobin levels

41. How is a renal abscess typically treated? c) White blood cell count

a) Surgical removal of the kidney d) Serum cholesterol levels

b) Antibiotics and sometimes drainage 46. How can renal abscess be prevented?

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a) Drinking excessive amounts of water c) Nephrologist

b) Frequent hand washing 51. What is the most common route of infection
in renal tuberculosis?
c) Vaccination against bacterial infections
a) Hematogenous spread
d) Performing regular lung exercises
b) Lymphatic spread
47. Which of the following is not a potential
complication of untreated renal abscess? c) Direct extension from adjacent structures

a) Kidney damage and scarring d) Retrograde infection from the bladder

b) Blood clot formation 52. Which part of the kidney is typically affected
by renal tuberculosis?
c) Spread of infection to other organs
a) Cortex
d) Increased hair growth
b) Medulla
48. What is the typical duration of antibiotic
treatment for a renal abscess? c) Pyramids

a) 1-2 days d) Renal pelvis

b) 1-2 weeks 53. What is the characteristic histological

feature of renal tuberculosis?
c) 1-2 months
a) Caseating granulomas
d) 1-2 years
b) Non-caseating granulomas
49. What role does fever play in diagnosing
renal abscess? c) Giant cell formation

a) Fever is not associated with renal abscess d) Fibrotic tissue

b) Fever can help rule out infection 54. Renal tuberculosis can present with all of
the following EXCEPT:
c) Persistent fever might indicate an abscess
a) Flank pain
d) Fever only occurs in advanced stages of
abscess b) Hematuria

50. Which medical specialist would be involved c) Painless gross hematuria

in the management of renal abscess?
d) Proteinuria
a) Cardiologist
55. What is the primary method of diagnosing
b) Dermatologist renal tuberculosis?

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a) Radiological imaging d) Streptococcus pyogenes

b) Urine culture 60. Which of the following tests is used to

confirm the diagnosis of renal tuberculosis?
c) Blood test
a) Tuberculin skin test
d) Biopsy
b) Acid-fast bacilli staining
56. What imaging technique is commonly used
to detect renal tuberculosis? c) Complete blood count

a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d) Creatinine clearance test

b) Computed tomography (CT) scan 61. Which renal structure is more frequently
affected by tuberculosis?
c) Ultrasound
a) Glomerulus
d) X-ray
b) Tubules
57. Which of the following is a common
complication of renal tuberculosis? c) Interstitium

a) Hyperkalemia d) Collecting ducts

b) Nephrotic syndrome 62. What is the hallmark symptom of renal

tuberculosis?
c) Hyponatremia
a) Fever
d) Hemoptysis
b) Dysuria
58. What is the recommended treatment for
renal tuberculosis? c) Flank pain

a) Surgical excision of the affected kidney d) Hematuria

b) Antibiotic therapy 63. Renal tuberculosis is commonly associated

with which other form of tuberculosis?
c) Chemotherapy
a) Pulmonary tuberculosis
d) Radiation therapy
b) Gastrointestinal tuberculosis
59. Renal tuberculosis is most commonly
caused by: c) Cutaneous tuberculosis

a) Escherichia coli d) Osteoarticular tuberculosis

b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 64. How can renal tuberculosis be prevented?

c) Staphylococcus aureus a) BCG vaccination

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b) Routine antibiotic prophylaxis a) Airborne transmission

c) Avoiding contact with infected individuals b) Fecal-oral transmission

d) Maintaining good hygiene c) Sexual transmission

65. What is the primary route of transmission of d) Blood borne transmission

renal tuberculosis?
4-Glomerulonephritis, 5-Hydroureter, 6-Hydronephrosis, 7-Urethral
Strictures

1. Glomerulonephritis is primarily a disorder 4. Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis

of which part of the kidney? is characterized by:
a. Renal Tubules a. Thickening of glomerular basement
b. Renal Cortex membrane
c. Glomeruli b. Isolated podocyte damage
d. Renal Pelvis c. Minimal inflammatory cells in glomeruli
2. A client has been admitted to the hospital d. Fusion of podocytes
with a diagnose of acute 5. The term "nephritic syndrome" is
glomerulonephritis. During history taking characterized by the presence of:
the nurse first asks the client about a recent a. Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and
history of: edema
a. Bleeding ulcer b. Hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria
b. Deep vein thrombosis c. Proteinuria, edema, and hyperlipidemia
c. Myocardial infarction d. Hematuria, proteinuria, and
d. Streptococcal infection hypoalbuminemia
3. Which immunoglobulin is commonly 6. The primary treatment goal in
deposited in the glomeruli in cases of IgA glomerulonephritis is to:
nephropathy? a. Reverse kidney damage completely
a. IgG b. Prevent infections
b. IgA c. Control blood pressure and proteinuria
c. IgM d. Eliminate all immune complexes
d. IgE 7. In acute Glomerulonephritis the most
common cause of infection is:

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a. Syphilis b. Daily weights and blood pressures
b. Measles c. Antibiotic dosage and regimen
c. Steptococcus d. Uremic symptoms such as nausea,
d. Toxoplasmosis vomiting, or anorexia
8. Patients with acute glomerulonephritis may e. All of the above
have mild hypertension due to: 13. Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis is
a. Increased intravascular pressure closely related to which type of
b. Retention of sodium and fluid glomerulonephritis?
c. Increased heart rate due to fever. a. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
d. Elevated liver enzymes (FSGS)
9. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of b. Membranoproliferative
glomerulonephritis? glomerulonephritis
a. Hematuria c. IgA nephropathy
b. Proteinuria d. Alport syndrome
c. Glycosuria 14. What is the most common cause of acute
d. Edema nephritic syndrome in children?
10. The immune complexes formed in a. IgA nephropathy
glomerulonephritis can deposit in all of the b. Minimal change disease
following areas EXCEPT: c. Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis
a. Glomerular capillaries d. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
b. Renal tubules 15. Good pasture syndrome involves the
c. Renal interstitium development of autoantibodies against
d. Blood vessels which type of tissue?
11. The diagnostic test that allows for precise a. Cardiac muscle
diagnosis and planning of treatment for b. Pulmonary alveoli and glomerular
glomerulonephritis is a renal biopsy; basement membrane
a. True c. Liver cells
b. False d. Skeletal muscle
12. On discharge a patient diagnosed with 16. What is hydroureter?
acute glomerulonephritis should be taught a. Inflammation of the ureter
about the following topics: b. Blockage of the ureter
a. Fluid and sodium restriction

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c. Enlargement of the ureter due to urine b. Lower back
accumulation c. Chest
d. Narrowing of the ureter d. Head
17. What is the most common cause of 23. Which condition might be mistaken for
hydroureter? hydroureter due to similar symptoms?
a. Ureteral stones a. Gastric ulcer
b. Urinary tract infection b. Appendicitis
c. Bladder cancer c. Migraine
d. Kidney transplant d. Cardiac arrhythmia
18. Which imaging technique is commonly used 24. Which organ is directly connected to the
to diagnose hydroureter? ureter?
a. Echocardiography a. Liver
b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. Spleen
c. Ultrasound c. Gallbladder
d. Electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Kidney
19. Hydroureter can result from: 25. Hydroureter is often associated with which
a. Excessive water consumption of the following conditions?
b. Obstruction of urine flow a. Type 2 diabetes
c. Elevated blood sugar levels b. Hypertension
d. Hyperactivity of the bladder muscles c. Polycystic kidney disease
20. Hydroureter can lead to: d. Asthma
a. Decreased urine production 26. What is hydronephrosis?
b. Kidney stones a. Inflammation of the kidneys
c. Kidney failure b. Swelling of the kidneys due to excess
d. Increased blood pressure fluid
21. Treatment for hydroureter often involves: c. Bacterial infection in the renal pelvis
a. Antibiotic therapy d. Kidney stones formation
b. Increasing fluid intake 27. Which of the following is a common cause
c. Surgery or removal of obstructions of hydronephrosis?
d. Stretching exercises a. Diabetes
22. Hydroureter can cause pain in the: b. Hypertension
a. Stomach c. Urinary tract obstruction

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d. Gastric ulcers a. True
28. Hydronephrosis refers specifically to the b. False
dilation of which part of the urinary 34. Hydronephrosis is more common in males
system? than females;
a. Bladder a. True
b. Urethra b. False
c. Ureters 35. What is the main goal of treating
d. Renal pelvis hydronephrosis?
29. Which imaging technique is commonly used a. Reducing blood pressure
to diagnose hydronephrosis? b. Relieving pain
a. X-ray c. Restoring normal urine flow and
b. MRI preventing kidney damage
c. Electrocardiogram d. Treating urinary tract infections
d. Blood test 36. What is a urethral stricture?
30. Unilateral hydronephrosis affects: a. A type of kidney stone
a. Both kidneys b. A narrowing of the urethra
b. One kidney c. An infection in the bladder
c. Bladder d. A condition affecting the prostate
d. Ureters 37. What can cause urethral strictures?
31. Hydronephrosis can lead to impaired kidney a. Excessive water consumption
function and potential kidney failure if left b. Trauma or injury to the urethra
untreated: c. Consumption of spicy foods
a. True d. Frequent urination
b. False 38. Which gender is more commonly affected
32. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of by urethral strictures?
hydronephrosis? a. Males
a. Flank pain b. Females
b. Blood in urine 39. Symptoms of a urethral stricture may
c. Frequent urination include:
d. Dry cough a. Excessive thirst
33. Hydronephrosis can be caused by both b. Frequent burping
congenital and acquired factors; c. Painful urination and weak stream

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d. Increased appetite d. Semen entering the bladder instead of
40. How is a urethral stricture diagnosed? exiting through the penis
a. Blood test 45. Which age group is most commonly
b. X-ray of the foot affected by urethral strictures?
c. Ultrasound of the abdomen a. Children under 5 years
d. Urethral imaging and urethroscopy b. Teenagers
41. Which treatment option is commonly used c. Adults over 65 years
for urethral strictures? d. Young adults
a. Antibiotics only 46. What is an internal urethrotomy?
b. Physical therapy a. Removal of the urethra
c. Surgery or dilation b. Repair of the bladder
d. Meditation c. Surgical procedure to open a stricture
42. What is urethral dilation? using a scope
a. A surgical procedure to remove the d. A type of urine analysis
urethra 47. Which preventive measures can reduce the
b. Expanding the urethra using a balloon risk of urethral strictures?
or dilators a. Avoiding all physical activities
c. Taking medication to reduce urethral b. Drinking excessive amounts of caffeine
inflammation c. Practicing safe sex and avoiding
d. A type of exercise for pelvic muscles trauma to the genital area
43. Which medical professional typically treats d. Consuming high-fat foods
urethral strictures? 48. Which of the following is a possible
a. Dermatologist complication of untreated urethral
b. Cardiologist strictures?
c. Urologist a. Brighter hair color
d. Ophthalmologist b. Increased sense of smell
44. What is retrograde ejaculation? c. Urinary retention and kidney damage
a. A type of urethral stricture d. Stronger nails
b. A condition where urine flows 49. What is the role of the urethra in the
backward into the kidneys body?
c. A complication of urethral dilation a. It carries blood to the heart

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b. It filters waste products from the 50. Which imaging technique might be used
blood to visualize a urethral stricture?
c. It transports urine from the bladder
a. Echocardiogram
to the outside of the body
b. MRI of the knee
d. It assists in digestion
c. CT scan of the brain
d. Retrograde urethrography

8-Urinary Incontinence, 9-Urinary Retention, 10- Urinary Calculi, 11- Acute &
Chronic Renal Failure 12- Bladder & Renal Cell Carcinoma

1. What is urinary incontinence? 4. Which factor is known to contribute to stress

urinary incontinence?
a) Inability to control bowel movements
a) Excessive fluid intake
b) Inability to control urination
b) Strong pelvic floor muscles
c) Excessive thirst
c) Chronic constipation
d) Inability to swallow
d) Pregnancy and childbirth
2. Which of the following is a common type of
urinary incontinence among women? 5. Which type of urinary incontinence is
characterized by a sudden, strong urge to
a) Stress incontinence urinate followed by involuntary leakage?
b) Overflow incontinence
a) Stress incontinence
c) Functional incontinence b) Urge incontinence
d) Reflex incontinence c) Mixed incontinence
3. Which muscle plays a key role in maintaining d) Overflow incontinence
urinary continence?
6. Which of the following diagnostic tests may
a) Biceps be used to evaluate urinary incontinence?
b) Hamstring a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c) Gluteus maximus b) Colonoscopy
d) Pelvic floor muscles c) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

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d) Urodynamic testing 11. What is the recommended treatment for
overflow incontinence caused by an obstruction
7. Which lifestyle modification can help manage in the urinary tract?
mild urinary incontinence?
a) Diuretics
a) Smoking
b) Fluid restriction
b) Decreased physical activity
c) Catheterization
c) Limiting fluid intake
d) Antidepressants
d) Weight loss
12. What is functional incontinence?
8. Which medical intervention is commonly
used to treat overactive bladder and urge a) Incontinence due to weakened pelvic floor
incontinence? muscles

a) Antidepressants b) Incontinence caused by an overactive

bladder
b) Antibiotics
c) Incontinence related to cognitive or physical
c) Antihistamines impairments
d) Anticholinergic medications d) Incontinence resulting from urinary tract
9. What is the purpose of pelvic floor exercises infections
(Kegel exercises) in managing urinary 13. Which surgical procedure involves placing a
incontinence? sling to support the urethra and treat stress
a) Strengthen pelvic floor muscles incontinence?

b) Increase bladder capacity a) Hysterectomy

c) Improve kidney function b) Myomectomy

d) Reduce fluid intake c) TURP (Transurethral Resection of the

Prostate)
10. Which condition might lead to overflow
incontinence due to incomplete bladder d) Midurethral sling procedure
emptying? 14. What role does caffeine intake play in
a) Diabetes urinary incontinence?

b) Hyperthyroidism a) It improves bladder control

c) Asthma b) It has no effect on bladder function

d) Hypertension c) It can worsen symptoms of urinary

incontinence

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d) It reduces the need to urinate A) Men

15. What is nocturnal enuresis? B) Women

a) Urinary incontinence during the day C) Both equally

b) Urinary incontinence caused by stress D) Children

c) Urinary incontinence only in men 20. Which medical condition is associated with
neurogenic urinary retention?
d) Bedwetting during sleep
A) Kidney stones
16. What is urinary retention?
B) Diabetes
A) Excessive urine production
C) Hypertension
B) Inability to empty the bladder
D) Allergies
C) Frequent urination
21. What is the first-line treatment for relieving
D) Leakage of urine urinary retention caused by an enlarged
17. Which of the following can cause acute prostate?
urinary retention? A) Antibiotics
A) Drinking plenty of water B) Painkillers
B) Prostate enlargement C) Surgical removal of the bladder
C) Regular exercise D) Catheterization
D) Low-sodium diet 22. Which type of urinary retention is more
18. What is the term for sudden and painful likely to be treated with medications to relax
urinary retention that requires immediate the bladder muscles?
medical attention? A) Acute urinary retention
A) Chronic urinary retention B) Chronic urinary retention
B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia C) Overflow urinary retention
C) Acute urinary retention D) Postvoid residual urinary retention
D) Overactive bladder 23. Which imaging technique might be used to
19. Which gender is more commonly affected diagnose the cause of urinary retention?
by urinary retention due to anatomical A) MRI
differences?
B) X-ray of the hand

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C) CT scan of the foot C) Transurethral resection of the prostate
(TURP)
D) Ultrasound of the knee
D) Appendectomy
24. Which of the following is a potential
complication of chronic urinary retention? 28. What role do pelvic floor exercises (Kegel
exercises) play in managing urinary retention?
A) Dehydration
A) They help reduce bladder sensitivity
B) Increased urine production
B) They strengthen the bladder muscles
C) Urinary tract infections
C) They promote urine production
D) Rapid weight loss
D) They help control urine leakage
25. Which medication might be prescribed to
alleviate urinary retention symptoms related to 29. Which type of catheter is inserted and
an enlarged prostate? removed intermittently to empty the bladder?

A) Diuretics A) Indwelling catheter

B) Antihistamines B) Suprapubic catheter

C) Alpha-blockers C) Condom catheter

D) Antidepressants D) Straight catheter

26. What is the term for incomplete emptying 30. In cases of chronic urinary retention, what
of the bladder, leading to residual urine left might be used to measure the amount of urine
behind? left in the bladder after urination?

A) Nocturia A) Urine dipstick

B) Dysuria B) Blood pressure cuff

C) Hematuria C) Thermometer

D) Postvoid residual D) Bladder ultrasound

27. Which medical procedure involves surgically 31. What are urinary calculi?
removing part of the prostate to treat urinary
retention? a) Kidney tumors

A) Cystoscopy b) Kidney infections

B) Ureteroscopy c) Kidney stones

d) Kidney cysts

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32. Which mineral is commonly found in most b) Calcium phosphate stone
urinary calculi?
c) Cystine stone
a) Calcium
d) Struvite stone
b) Iron
37. Which imaging technique is commonly used
c) Potassium to diagnose urinary calculi?

d) Sodium a) Electrocardiogram

33. Which of the following is NOT a common b) Magnetic resonance imaging

symptom of urinary calculi?
c) X-ray
a) Hematuria (blood in urine)
d) Ultrasound
b) Flank pain
38. Which of the following can contribute to the
c) Nausea and vomiting formation of kidney stones?

d) Frequent urination a) Staying hydrated

34. Which type of kidney stone is associated b) Consuming a balanced diet

with high levels of uric acid?
c) Engaging in regular exercise
a) Calcium oxalate stone
d) Stress management
b) Struvite stone
39. What is the most common location for
c) Uric acid stone kidney stones to cause pain?

d) Cystine stone a) Lower abdomen

35. What dietary factor increases the risk of b) Pelvis

calcium oxalate stones?
c) Flank or back
a) High calcium intake
d) Groin
b) Low sodium intake
40. Which medical condition increases the risk
c) High oxalate intake of developing cystine stones?

d) High potassium intake a) Hypertension

36. Which type of urinary calculi is often linked b) Diabetes

to bacterial infections?
c) Gout
a) Uric acid stone
d) Cystinuria

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41. Which type of kidney stone is radio-opaque d) Chemotherapy
and easily visible on X-rays?
46. What is the primary characteristic of acute
a) Uric acid stone renal failure?

b) Calcium oxalate stone a) Gradual decline in kidney function

c) Struvite stone b) Sudden and rapid decrease in kidney

function
d) Cystine stone
c) Irreversible kidney damage
42. Which dietary modification is recommended
for preventing calcium oxalate stones? d) Asymptomatic kidney dysfunction

a) Decreasing fluid intake 47. Which of the following is a common cause

of acute renal failure?
b) Reducing calcium intake
a) Long-standing hypertension
c) Increasing oxalate intake
b) Diabetes mellitus
d) Ensuring adequate fluid and calcium intake
c) Urinary tract infection
43. What medical procedure uses shock waves
to break down kidney stones? d) Chronic alcohol consumption

a) Dialysis 48. What is the primary cause of chronic renal

failure?
b) Lithotripsy
a) Acute kidney injury
c) Endoscopy
b) Urinary tract obstruction
d) Biopsy
c) Prolonged and progressive kidney damage
44. Which gender is more prone to developing
urinary calculi? d) Autoimmune disorders

a) Men 49. Which of the following symptoms is more

likely to be associated with acute renal failure?
b) Women
a) Polyuria (excessive urination)
45. What is a common non-invasive way to
remove smaller urinary stones? b) Anemia

a) Surgery c) Hypertension

b) Laser therapy d) Decreased urine output

c) Lithotripsy

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50. Which laboratory parameter is commonly b) Low levels of potassium in the blood
elevated in both acute and chronic renal
failure? c) Elevated levels of nitrogenous waste
products in the blood
a) Serum creatinine
d) Elevated levels of calcium in the blood
b) Serum glucose
55. Which of the following is a potential
c) Serum potassium complication of chronic renal failure?

d) Serum cholesterol a) Hyperkalemia (high potassium levels)

51. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on b) Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar)
a client with acute renal failure. Which one of
the following should be reported c) Hypernatremia (high sodium levels)
IMMEDIATELY? d) Hypercalcemia (high calcium levels)
a) Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl 56. Chronic renal failure can lead to which
b) Hemoglobin of 10.3 mg/dl bone-related disorder?
c) Venous blood pH 7.30
d) Serum potassium 6 mEq a) Rickets

52. The most appropriate initial treatment for b) Osteoporosis

acute renal failure caused by dehydration is:
c) Gout
a) Dialysis
d) Scoliosis
b) Administration of diuretics
57. The primary goal of treatment in chronic
c) Fluid resuscitation renal failure is to:

d) Blood transfusion a) Cure the condition

53. Which type of renal failure is potentially b) Slow the progression of kidney damage
reversible with prompt intervention?
c) Reverse the damage completely
a) Both acute and chronic renal failure
d) Improve lung function
b) Only acute renal failure
58. Which imaging technique is commonly used
c) Only chronic renal failure to assess kidney structure and function?

d) Neither acute nor chronic renal failure a) Electrocardiography (ECG)

54. The term "azotemia" refers to: b) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

a) High levels of sodium in the blood c) Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

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d) Ultrasonography 63. Which symptom is commonly associated
with bladder cancer?
59. Which class of medications is often used to
manage hypertension in patients with chronic a) Night sweats
renal failure?
b) Visual disturbances
a) Beta-blockers
c) Blood in urine
b) Calcium channel blockers
d) Joint pain
c) Antibiotics
64. Which type of bladder cancer accounts for
d) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs the majority of cases?
(NSAIDs)
a) Squamous cell carcinoma
60. Which dietary restriction is commonly
recommended for patients with advanced b) Adenocarcinoma
chronic renal failure? c) Transitional cell carcinoma
a) Restriction of carbohydrates d) Basal cell carcinoma
b) Restriction of protein intake 65. Which imaging technique is commonly used
c) Restriction of healthy fats for diagnosing renal cell carcinoma?

d) Restriction of vitamin supplements a) Echocardiography

61. Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis are b) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
treatment options primarily used for: c) Colonoscopy
a) Acute renal failure d) Electroencephalography (EEG)
b) Chronic renal failure 66. The most common histological subtype of
c) Both acute and chronic renal failure renal cell carcinoma is:

d) Kidney transplantation a) Clear cell carcinoma

62. Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC) is most b) Squamous cell carcinoma

commonly associated with which risk factor? c) Small cell carcinoma
a) High carbohydrate diet d) Adenocarcinoma
b) Chronic alcohol consumption 67. What is the primary treatment for localized
c) Hypertension bladder cancer?

d) Sedentary lifestyle a) Chemotherapy

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b) Radiation therapy 73. What is the most common age group
affected by bladder cancer?
c) Surgery
a) Children
d) Hormone therapy
b) Adolescents
68. Which genetic syndrome is associated with
an increased risk of renal cell carcinoma? c) Young adults

a) Down syndrome d) Older adults

b) Turner syndrome 74. Which of the following is a risk factor for

developing renal cell carcinoma?
c) Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
a) High-fiber diet
d) Klinefelter syndrome
b) Low blood pressure
69. The most common symptom of advanced
renal cell carcinoma is: c) Family history of renal cell carcinoma

a) Hematuria d) Low-fat diet

b) Bone pain 75. What is the primary function of the

bladder?
c) Jaundice
a) Digestion
d) Chest pain
b) Respiration
70. Which of the following is a common site of
metastasis for renal cell carcinoma? c) Urine storage

a) Lungs d) Blood filtration

b) Stomach 76. Which of the following is a common sign of

advanced bladder cancer?
c) Colon
a) Frequent urination
d) Pancreas
b) Hematuria
72. Which cellular feature is characteristic of
clear cell renal cell carcinoma? c) Weight gain

a) Neuroendocrine differentiation d) Constipation

b) Psammoma bodies 77. Which protein mutation is often associated

with papillary renal cell carcinoma?
c) Reed-Sternberg cells
a) BRAF
d) Abundant clear cytoplasm

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b) HER2 d) Targeted therapy

c) KRAS 80. What is the primary risk factor for

developing bladder cancer?
d) EGFR
a) Physical inactivity
78. What is the initial symptom of bladder
cancer in many cases? b) Exposure to asbestos

a) Fatigue c) Family history of skin cancer

b) Lower back pain d) Smoking

c) Bone fractures Correct answer: d) Smoking

d) Hematuria 81. Which of the following is a common

symptom of metastatic renal cell carcinoma?
79. Which treatment modality uses high-energy
rays to target and kill cancer cells? a) Nausea

a) Immunotherapy b) Hair loss

b) Chemotherapy c) Fatigue

c) Radiation therapy d) Fever

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Unit-4 Reproductive Tract Disorders:

1-Reproductive Tract Infections,2-Menstrual Disorders,3 Dysfunctional

Uterine Bleeding, 4-Menopause, 5-Endometriosis, 6-Pelvic Inflammatory
Diseases, 7-Uterine Prolapse

1. What is the primary female sex hormone c) Site of fertilization

responsible for regulating the menstrual cycle?
d) Support the uterus
a) Testosterone
5. Which of the following is a female secondary
b) Estrogen sexual characteristic influenced by estrogen?

c) Progesterone a) Beard growth

d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b) Deepening of voice

2. Where does fertilization usually occur in the c) Breast development

female reproductive system?
d) Adam's apple
a) Uterus
6. What is the average length of the menstrual
b) Fallopian tube cycle?

c) Cervix a) 7 days

d) Vagina b) 14 days

3. Which structure produces eggs (ova) in the c) 28 days

female reproductive system?
d) 60 days
a) Ovary
7. Which hormone maintains the uterine lining
b) Uterus during pregnancy?

c) Cervix a) Estrogen

d) Vagina b) Progesterone

4. What is the main function of the fallopian c) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

tubes?
d) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
a) Produce eggs
8. Which structure connects the uterus to the
b) Menstruation external genitalia?

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a) Ovary d) Ovulatory phase

b) Fallopian tube 13. What is the medical term for the surgical
removal of the uterus?
c) Cervix
a) Hysterectomy
d) Vagina
b) Oophorectomy
9. Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves
the shedding of the uterine lining? c) Mastectomy

a) Menstrual phase d) Salpingectomy

b) Proliferative phase 14. Which hormone is responsible for

stimulating milk production in the mammary
c) Secretory phase glands after childbirth?
d) Ovulatory phase
a) Estrogen
10. What is the purpose of the cervix?
b) Progesterone
a) Egg production c) Prolactin
b) Menstruation d) Oxytocin
c) Fertilization 15. What is the function of the placenta during
d) Connect uterus to vagina pregnancy?

11. Which female reproductive disorder a) Egg production

involves the growth of tissue outside the b) Hormone production
uterus?
c) Fertilization
a) Endometriosis
d) Nutrient and waste exchange
b) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
16. What is the primary role of the corpus
c) Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) luteum in the female reproductive system?
d) Menopause a) Egg production
12. During which phase of the menstrual cycle b) Hormone production
does ovulation typically occur?
c) Fertilization
a) Menstrual phase
d) Menstruation
b) Proliferative phase

c) Secretory phase

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17. Which female reproductive disorder a) Nutrient exchange
involves the formation of small fluid-filled sacs
in the ovaries? b) Fetal waste removal

a) Endometriosis c) Protection and cushioning

b) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) d) Hormone production

c) Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) 22. What is the most common bacterial sexually
transmitted infection (STI)?
d) Menopause
a) Chlamydia
18. What is the role of the hymen in the female
reproductive system? b) Gonorrhea

a) Production of eggs c) Syphilis

d) Herpes
b) Hormone secretion
23. Which virus causes genital warts and is
c) Support of the uterus
linked to cervical cancer?
d) Covers vaginal opening
a) Herpes simplex virus
19. Which female reproductive disorder marks
the end of menstrual cycles and fertility? b) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

a) Endometriosis c) Hepatitis B virus

d) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

b) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

c) Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) 23. Which reproductive tract infection can lead
to Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
d) Menopause
a) Chlamydia
20. Which hormone is responsible for triggering
uterine contractions during labor and b) Trichomoniasis
breastfeeding? c) Yeast infection
a) Estrogen d) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
b) Progesterone 24. What is the primary symptom of bacterial
c) Prolactin vaginosis (BV)?

d) Oxytocin a) Itching and burning

21. What is the purpose of the amniotic fluid b) Thick, white discharge
during pregnancy? c) Foul-smelling discharge

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d) Painful urination a) Chlamydia

25. Which STI can be diagnosed using a blood b) Herpes

test?
c) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
a) Trichomoniasis
d) Trichomoniasis
b) Chlamydia
30. What is the recommended treatment for
c) Gonorrhea most cases of bacterial vaginosis?

d) Syphilis a) Antibiotics

26. What is the causative agent of gonorrhea? b) Antifungal creams

a) Chlamydia trachomatis c) No treatment is needed

b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae d) Topical corticosteroids

c) Treponema pallidum 31. Which STI can be prevented by using

condoms?
d) Human papillomavirus
a) Bacterial vaginosis
27. Which of the following is NOT a common
symptom of a yeast infection? b) Trichomoniasis

a) Itching c) Syphilis

b) Burning sensation d) HIV

c) Vaginal odor 32. Which reproductive tract infection is also

known as "clap"?
d) White, curd-like discharge
a) Gonorrhea
28. Which reproductive tract infection is caused
by a protozoan parasite? b) Chlamydia

a) Chlamydia c) Syphilis

b) Gonorrhea d) Trichomoniasis

c) Trichomoniasis 33. Which STI can be transmitted through

contact with contaminated surfaces, such as
d) Bacterial vaginosis towels or toilet seats?
29. Which STI can be transmitted through a) Chlamydia
contact with sores on the genitals, anus, or
mouth? b) Gonorrhea

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c) Syphilis 38. Which hormonal disorder is characterized
by irregular menstrual cycles and elevated
d) Trichomoniasis levels of androgens?
34. Which group of people should receive a) Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
regular screenings for STIs?
b) Endometriosis
a) Adults over 50
c) Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
b) Pregnant individuals
d) Menopause
c) Athletes
39. The absence of menstruation is called:
d) Vegetarians
a) Amenorrhea
35. What is a common complication of
untreated chlamydia or gonorrhea in females? b) Menorrhagia

a) Erectile dysfunction c) Dysmenorrhea

b) Infertility d) Oligomenorrhea

c) Bladder infection 40. Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) typically

occurs:
d) Allergic reaction
a) Before ovulation
36. Which menstrual disorder is characterized
by heavy and prolonged bleeding? b) After menstruation

a) Amenorrhea c) Before menstruation

b) Dysmenorrhea d) During ovulation

c) Menorrhagia 41. What is the average age at which

menopause occurs?
d) Oligomenorrhea
a) 35
37. Painful menstruation is known as:
b) 45
a) Menorrhagia
c) 55
b) Amenorrhea
d) 65
c) Dysmenorrhea
42. Endometriosis is a condition in which:
d) Oligomenorrhea
a) The endometrial lining grows outside the
uterus

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b) The uterus is removed surgically d) Regular cycles

c) Ovulation does not occur 47. Which menstrual disorder is characterized

by infrequent or very light periods?
d) Menstrual flow is absent
a) Menorrhagia
43. Primary dysmenorrhea is:
b) Amenorrhea
a) Painful menstruation without an underlying
cause c) Dysmenorrhea

b) Painful menstruation due to a medical d) Oligomenorrhea

condition
48. What is the medical term for the absence of
c) Absence of menstruation menstruation by the age of 16?

d) Irregular menstruation a) Amenorrhea

44. Which menstrual disorder involves the b) Menorrhagia

formation of uterine tissue outside the uterus?
c) Dysmenorrhea
a) Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
d) Oligomenorrhea
b) Menorrhagia
49. The shedding of the uterine lining is known
c) Endometriosis as:

d) Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) a) Menstruation

45. Which hormone is responsible for preparing b) Ovulation

the uterine lining for pregnancy?
c) Fertilization
a) Estrogen
d) Implantation
b) Progesterone
50. Which disorder is characterized by the
c) Testosterone growth of benign tumors in the uterus?

d) Insulin a) Endometriosis

46. A common symptom of premenstrual b) Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

syndrome (PMS) is:
c) Uterine fibroids
a) Absence of menstruation
d) Ovarian cysts
b) Mood swings and irritability
51. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) is
c) Light and short periods associated with:

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a) Regular menstrual cycles d) Regular menstrual cycles

b) Elevated androgens and insulin resistance 56. What is the primary characteristic of
dysfunctional uterine bleeding?
c) Early menopause
a) Regular menstrual cycles
d) Excessive bleeding
b) Heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding
52. Which condition involves the release of an
egg from the ovary? c) Absence of menstruation

a) Menopause d) Menstrual bleeding lasting less than 2 days

b) Ovulation 57. Which age group is most commonly affected

by dysfunctional uterine bleeding?
c) Implantation
a) Adolescents
d) Menstruation
b) Women in their 20s
53. What is the purpose of the menstrual cycle?
c) Women in their 40s
a) To prepare the body for pregnancy
d) Postmenopausal women
b) To eliminate toxins from the body
58. What is the main hormonal imbalance
c) To regulate body temperature associated with DUB?
d) To remove excess hormones a) Excessive progesterone
54. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD) is b) Low estrogen levels
a severe form of:
c) Elevated luteinizing hormone (LH)
a) Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
d) High testosterone levels
b) Dysmenorrhea
59. DUB can lead to which of the following
c) Oligomenorrhea
complications?
d) Menopause
a) Increased fertility
55. The most common symptom of menopause
b) Iron-deficiency anemia
is:
c) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
a) Heavy bleeding
d) Reduced risk of endometrial cancer
b) Painful cramps
60. What is the first-line treatment for acute
c) Hot flashes heavy bleeding in DUB?

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a) Surgical removal of the uterus d) Liposuction

b) Hormonal contraceptives 65. Which of the following is a common

symptom of DUB?
c) High-dose aspirin
a) Hot flashes
d) Blood transfusion
b) Increased facial hair growth
61. What diagnostic tool is commonly used to
evaluate DUB? c) Painful urination

a) Chest X-ray d) Inter-menstrual bleeding

b) Electrocardiogram (ECG) 66. What role does the endometrium play in

DUB?
c) Endoscopy
a) It produces excess testosterone
d) Transvaginal ultrasound
b) It causes pelvic pain
62. Which condition should be ruled out when
diagnosing DUB? c) It sheds excessively during menstruation

a) Hypertension d) It regulates thyroid function

b) Hypothyroidism 67. Which type of contraceptive method is

often prescribed to manage DUB?
c) Osteoporosis
a) Barrier methods
d) Diabetes mellitus
b) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)
63. What is the main objective of treatment for
DUB? c) Emergency contraceptives

a) Inducing menopause d) Sterilization

b) Correcting hormonal imbalances 68. What is the duration of menstrual bleeding

that typically characterizes DUB?
c) Achieving permanent sterility
a) 1-2 days
d) Promoting weight loss
b) 3-5 days
64. What surgical procedure may be considered
for women with severe, refractory DUB? c) 6-8 days

a) Appendectomy d) More than 7 days

b) Hysterectomy 69. What is the medical term for irregular

menstrual cycles?
c) Rhinoplasty

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a) Dysmenorrhea d) Melatonin

b) Menorrhagia 74. Which of the following is a common

symptom of menopause?
c) Amenorrhea
a) Increased fertility
d) Oligomenorrhea
b) Mood swings
70. Which hormone is responsible for
stimulating the growth of the uterine lining c) Irregular periods
during the menstrual cycle?
d) Early menstruation
a) Estrogen
75. What is perimenopause?
b) Progesterone
a) The phase before puberty
c) Testosterone
b) The phase after menopause
d) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
c) The transition to menopause, with
71. What is menopause? hormonal changes and symptoms

a) The beginning of menstruation d) The first year after menopause

b) The end of menstruation 76. What is a hot flash?

c) The time when periods become irregular a) A sudden feeling of intense warmth, often
with sweating and a flushed face
d) A medical condition related to the ovaries
b) A type of fever
72. At what age does menopause typically
occur? c) A type of heatstroke

a) Late teens d) A symptom of cold sensitivity

b) Early twenties 77. What health risks can increase after

menopause due to decreased estrogen?
c) Late thirties
a) Osteoporosis and heart disease
d) Late fourties to early fifties
b) Diabetes and asthma
73. What hormone decreases significantly
during menopause? c) Arthritis and migraines

a) Estrogen d) Allergies and hypertension

b) Progesterone 78. What is the medical term for the cessation

of menstruation for 12 consecutive months?
c) Testosterone

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a) Hypermenorrhea c) Weight loss

b) Amenorrhea d) Vaginal dryness

c) Menarche 83. What is the recommended approach to

managing menopause-related weight gain?
d) Menopause
a) Increase calorie intake
79. Which of the following is not a hormone
replacement therapy (HRT) option for managing b) Avoid exercise
menopausal symptoms?
c) Maintain a healthy diet and exercise
a) Estrogen therapy routine

b) Progesterone therapy d) Consume only high-protein foods

c) Testosterone therapy 84. Which organ plays a key role in regulating

hormonal changes during menopause?
d) Vitamin C therapy
a) Liver
80. What is the main purpose of hormone
replacement therapy (HRT) during menopause? b) Kidneys

a) To delay menopause c) Pancreas

b) To increase fertility d) Thyroid

c) To prevent mood swings 85. What is the average duration of

menopause-related symptoms?
d) To alleviate menopausal symptoms
a) A few weeks
81. What is the role of the ovaries during
menopause? b) A few months

a) They produce more estrogen c) One year

b) They stop producing eggs and release less d) Several years

estrogen
86 . What is endometriosis?
c) They become larger in size
a) A type of cancer
d) They produce more progesterone
b) A neurological disorder
82. Which symptom often leads women to seek
treatment during menopause? c) A chronic condition affecting the
reproductive system
a) Increased energy levels
d) A skin condition
b) Hair thickening

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87. Which tissue is primarily affected by c) Pelvic ultrasound
endometriosis?
d) Eye examination
a) Lung tissue
92. What is the main goal of endometriosis
b) Uterine tissue treatment?

c) Muscle tissue a) Curing the condition completely

d) Bone tissue b) Managing pain and symptoms

88. What happens in endometriosis? c) Strengthening the immune system

a) Uterine lining grows outside the uterus d) Increasing blood pressure

b) Uterine lining sheds normally 93. What is a common medication used to

manage endometriosis?
c) Uterine lining thickens within the uterus
a) Antibiotics
d) Uterine lining dissolves completely
b) Antidepressants
89. Which symptom is commonly associated
with endometriosis? c) Pain relievers (NSAIDs)

a) Elevated blood pressure d) Cough syrup

b) Chronic coughing 95. What is the relationship between

endometriosis and fertility?
c) Painful periods
a) Endometriosis has no impact on fertility
d) Excessive thirst
b) Endometriosis always leads to infertility
90. What is dysmenorrhea?
c) Endometriosis can affect fertility
a) Difficulty in breathing
d) Endometriosis improves fertility
b) Difficulty in speaking
96. What is the role of hormones in
c) Painful menstruation
endometriosis treatment?
d) Painful urination
a) Hormones have no effect on endometriosis
91. Which of the following can be a method for b) Hormones can exacerbate the condition
diagnosing endometriosis?
c) Hormones can help manage symptoms and
a) Listening to heartbeats slow tissue growth
b) Blood test for allergies d) Hormones cause sudden remission of
endometriosis

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97. What is laparoscopy in the context of c) An infection of the female reproductive
endometriosis? organs

a) A type of blood test d) A viral infection of the pelvis

b) A form of physical therapy 102. What is the most common cause of PID?

c) A surgical procedure to visualize and remove a) Yeast infection

tissue
b) Bacterial infection
d) A psychological counseling session
c) Fungal infection
98. What age group is commonly affected by
endometriosis? d) Parasitic infection

a) Only teenagers 103. Which type of bacteria is commonly

associated with PID?
b) Primarily individuals in their 40s
a) Streptococcus
c) Women of reproductive age
b) Staphylococcus
d) Elderly individuals above 70
c) Escherichia coli (E. coli)
99. What is the current cure for endometriosis?
d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia
a) Surgery trachomatis

b) Lifestyle changes 104. What is a common symptom of PID?

c) There is no definitive cure a) Dry cough

d) Herbal remedies b) Abdominal pain

100. What should a person with suspected c) Blurred vision

endometriosis do?
d) Earache
a) Ignore the symptoms
105. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor
b) Seek medical advice and evaluation for developing PID?

c) Start a strict diet a) Multiple sexual partners

d) Engage in intensive exercise b) Use of barrier contraceptives

101. What is Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)? c) History of sexually transmitted infections
(STIs)
a) A urinary tract infection
d) Intrauterine device (IUD) use
b) An inflammation of the pelvic bones

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106. Left untreated, PID can lead to: c) Elderly women

a) Hair loss d) Children

b) Liver damage 111. Which of the following is NOT a symptom

of PID?
c) Ectopic pregnancy and infertility
a) Vaginal discharge with foul odor
d) Chronic headaches
b) Painful urination
107. How is PID typically diagnosed?
c) Painful sexual intercourse
a) Blood test
d) Decreased appetite
b) Urine sample
112. How can PID be prevented?
c) Physical examination, pelvic ultrasound, and
lab tests a) Avoiding all sexual activity

d) X-ray b) Using barrier contraceptives consistently

and correctly
108. Which of the following is NOT a
recommended treatment for PID? c) Getting the flu vaccine

a) Antibiotics d) Consuming probiotics

b) Pain relievers 113. What is the role of Chlamydia and

gonorrhea in PID development?
c) Hormonal therapy
a) They directly cause PID
d) Rest and hydration
b) They increase the risk of PID by causing
109. PID can increase the risk of what inflammation
complication in pregnant women?
c) They prevent PID from occurring
a) Premature birth
d) They are not related to PID
b) Neonatal jaundice
114. Which imaging technique might be used to
c) Gestational diabetes diagnose PID?
d) Preeclampsia a) MRI of the brain
110. Which age group is most commonly b) Chest X-ray
affected by PID?
c) Echocardiogram
a) Adolescents and young adults
d) Pelvic ultrasound
b) Middle-aged women

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115. After completing treatment for PID, what is b) Irregular periods
important to prevent reinfection?
c) Back pain
a) Avoiding all physical activity
d) Feeling of pelvic pressure or bulge
b) Practicing good hand hygiene
120. Which of the following can help prevent
c) Taking a break from social interactions uterine prolapse?

d) Ensuring that sexual partners are treated as a) Smoking

well
b) Heavy lifting
116. What is uterine prolapse?
c) Maintaining a healthy weight
a) Inflammation of the uterus
d) Sedentary lifestyle
b) Displacement of the uterus from its normal
121. Which medical professional would you
position
consult for a diagnosis of uterine prolapse?
c) Uterine cancer
a) Dermatologist
d) Uterine infection
b) Cardiologist
117. Which of the following factors can
contribute to uterine prolapse? c) Gynecologist

a) Regular exercise d) Ophthalmologist

122. What is a common treatment option for

b) Strong pelvic floor muscles
mild uterine prolapse?
c) Chronic coughing
a) Antibiotics
d) Low body weight
b) Bed rest
118. Uterine prolapse is most commonly seen in
which group of women? c) Surgery

a) Young adults d) Pelvic floor exercises

b) Teenagers 123. Severe uterine prolapse might require

what kind of treatment?
c) Postmenopausal women
a) Physical therapy
d) Pregnant women
b) Hormonal therapy
119. What is a common symptom of uterine
prolapse? c) Surgical intervention

a) Weight gain d) Meditation

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124. Which of the following is a risk factor for a) Appendectomy
developing uterine prolapse?
b) Hysterectomy
a) High estrogen levels
c) Rhinoplasty
b) Multiple vaginal deliveries
d) Tonsillectomy
c) Sedentary lifestyle
128. Which of the following is NOT a symptom
d) High-fiber diet of uterine prolapse?

125. What is the main purpose of pelvic floor a) Painful urination

exercises in managing uterine prolapse?
b) Vaginal bleeding
a) To strengthen abdominal muscles
c) Urinary incontinence
b) To improve lung capacity
d) Lower back pain
c) To enhance memory
129. How can women reduce the risk of uterine
d) To strengthen pelvic muscles prolapse after childbirth?

126. What is the term used to describe the a) Avoid breastfeeding

descent of the bladder into the vaginal space
along with uterine prolapse? b) Delaying postpartum exercises

a) Cystocele c) Using abdominal binders

d) Doing Kegel exercises

b) Endometriosis

c) Fibroids 130. In stage 3 uterine uterine prolapse the

uterus is prolapsed...?
d) Menopause
a) Less than 1 cm below the hymen
127. Which surgical procedure is often used to b) Greater than 1 cm above the hymen
correct severe uterine prolapse? c) Greater than 2 cm below hymen
d) Greater than 1 cm below hymen

8: Cystocele/ Rectocele/Fistulas, 9: Ectopic Pregnancy, 10: Hydatidiform Mole

1. What is a cystocele? c) A condition affecting the heart's rhythm

a) A type of brain disorder d) A lung-related illness

b) A herniation of the bladder into the vagina

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2. Which anatomical structure is involved in a b) Physical therapy and pelvic floor exercises
cystocele?
c) High-sugar diet
a) Urethra
d) Hearing aids
b) Small intestine
7. What is the purpose of pelvic floor exercises
c) Liver in managing cystocele?

d) Esophagus a) To strengthen abdominal muscles

3. What is the primary cause of a cystocele? b) To improve eyesight

a) Genetic factors c) To reduce heart palpitations

b) Aging and weakening of pelvic muscles d) To strengthen pelvic muscles and support
the bladder
c) Excessive caffeine intake
8. In severe cases of cystocele, what might be
d) Overactive bladder
considered for treatment?
4. Which of the following is a common a) Hair transplant
symptom of cystocele?
b) Cardiac catheterization
a) Chest pain
c) Surgical repair
b) Shortness of breath
d) Vitamin injections
c) Difficulty urinating or incomplete emptying
of the bladder 9. Which group of people is most commonly
affected by cystocele?
d) Vision problems
a) Children
5. How is a cystocele diagnosed?
b) Teenagers
a) Blood test
c) Young adults
b) X-ray of the chest
d) Women, especially after childbirth and as
c) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the they age
brain
10. What is a potential complication of an
d) Pelvic examination and medical history untreated cystocele?
6. Which of the following treatments might be a) Broken bones
recommended for a cystocele?
b) Kidney stones
a) Antibiotics
c) Urinary tract infections and bladder issues

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d) Hearing loss A) Blood test

11. What is a rectocele? B) Electrocardiogram (ECG)

A) A type of anal fissure C) Colonoscopy

B) A bulging of the front wall of the rectum D) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
into the vagina
16. The primary treatment for a small,
C) A herniation of the small intestine asymptomatic rectocele may include:

D) A tear in the anal sphincter A) Surgical repair

12. Which of the following is a common B) Antibiotic therapy

symptom of rectocele?
C) Lifestyle modifications and pelvic floor
A) Urinary incontinence exercises

B) Severe abdominal pain D) Radiation therapy

C) Difficulty swallowing 17. What is the main symptom associated with

a rectovaginal fistula?
D) Chest pain
A) Painful urination
13. A Vesicovaginal fistula involves an abnormal
connection between: B) Fecal incontinence and passage of stool
through the vagina
A) The rectum and the vagina
C) Vaginal dryness
B) The rectum and the urinary bladder
D) Irregular menstrual periods
C) The bladder and vagina).
18. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor
D) The large intestine and the stomach for developing rectocele or fistula?
14. Which condition can lead to the A) Childbirth trauma
development of rectovaginal fistulas?
B) Chronic constipation
A) Inguinal hernia
C) Regular exercise
B) Crohn's disease
D) Previous pelvic surgery
C) Migraine
19. Surgical repair of a rectovaginal fistula
D) Osteoporosis typically involves:
15. Which diagnostic tool is commonly used to A) Removing the colon
detect rectocele and fistulas?
B) Reattaching the rectum to the uterus

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C) Closing the abnormal connection and 24. What are common symptoms of ectopic
restoring normal anatomy pregnancy?

D) Performing a heart bypass surgery a) Vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain

20. Which healthcare professional would be b) Frequent urination and constipation

most appropriate to consult for rectocele or
c) Headache and dizziness
fistula concerns?

A) Cardiologist d) Swelling of the ankles

B) Dermatologist 25. How is ectopic pregnancy usually

diagnosed?
C) Gastroenterologist
a) Blood type analysis
D) Colorectal surgeon
b) Urine pregnancy test
21. What is an ectopic pregnancy?
c) Ultrasound and blood tests
a) A pregnancy with twins
d) X-ray
b) A pregnancy occurring outside the uterus
26. Which medical emergency can occur due to
c) A pregnancy with genetic abnormalities a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

d) A pregnancy after the age of 40 a) Appendicitis

22. Where is the most common location for an b) Stroke

ectopic pregnancy?
c) Eclampsia
a) Ovary
d) Hemorrhage
b) Cervix
27. What is the primary treatment for ectopic
c) Uterus pregnancy?

d) Fallopian tube a) Administration of antibiotics

23. Which of the following is a risk factor for b) Bed rest and relaxation
ectopic pregnancy?
c) Surgical removal of the ectopic pregnancy
a) Regular menstrual cycles
d) Intravenous fluids
b) Previous ectopic pregnancy
28. What is methotrexate used for in the
c) Low levels of stress context of ectopic pregnancy?

d) Obesity a) Pain relief

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b) Inducing labor d) Prolactin

c) Dissolving the ectopic pregnancy 33. What is the "cul-de-sac" sign in relation to
ectopic pregnancy?
d) Preventing morning sickness
a) A sign of gestational diabetes
29. Which type of ectopic pregnancy is
extremely rare and occurs in the cervix? b) Fluid accumulation in the rectal area

a) Cornual ectopic pregnancy c) Fluid accumulation in the vaginal area

b) Abdominal ectopic pregnancy d) Fluid accumulation in the abdominal area

c) Interstitial ectopic pregnancy 34. Which surgical technique might be used to

treat an ectopic pregnancy while preserving the
d) Cervical ectopic pregnancy fallopian tube?
30. Can an ectopic pregnancy develop into a
a) Hysterectomy
normal pregnancy?
b) Oophorectomy
a) Yes, in most cases
c) Salpingectomy
b) Only if treated with surgery
d) Salpingostomy
c) No, it's not possible
35. What is the primary danger of an untreated
d) Only if it relocates to the uterus on its own ectopic pregnancy?
31. Which imaging technique is commonly used
a) Fetal abnormalities
to diagnose ectopic pregnancies?
b) Maternal hypertension
a) MRI
c) Maternal hemorrhage
b) PET scan
d) Maternal infection
c) X-ray
36. Which contraceptive method can help
d) Transvaginal ultrasound reduce the risk of ectopic pregnancy?
32. Which hormone is responsible for a) Barrier methods (e.g., condoms)
maintaining a pregnancy and is also detected in
blood tests to diagnose ectopic pregnancies? b) Intrauterine device (IUD)

a) Estrogen c) Withdrawal method

b) Progesterone d) Fertility awareness method

c) Testosterone

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37. If an ectopic pregnancy is discovered early b) A gestational trophoblastic disease
and is not yet causing severe symptoms, what
treatment option might be considered? c) A neurological disorder

a) Emergency surgery d) An autoimmune condition

b) Medical management with methotrexate 42. Which of the following is a characteristic

feature of a complete hydatidiform mole?
c) Bed rest and pain relief medication
a) Presence of a normal embryo
d) Natural expulsion through hormonal changes
b) Presence of two distinct cell populations
38. Which condition can mimic the symptoms of
ectopic pregnancy and lead to a misdiagnosis? c) Formation of multiple ovarian cysts

a) Gastroenteritis d) Absence of fetal tissue

43. Which of the following is a risk factor for

b) Migraine
developing a hydatidiform mole?
c) Endometriosis
a) Multiple pregnancies
d) Common cold
b) Advanced maternal age
39. How soon after an ectopic pregnancy can a
woman try to conceive again? c) Smoking

a) Immediately after treatment d) Regular exercise

44. What is the most common clinical

b) After 1 month
presentation of a hydatidiform mole?
c) After 3 months
a) Heavy menstrual bleeding
d) After 6 months
b) Severe abdominal pain
40. What percentage of pregnancies are
estimated to be ectopic? c) Painless vaginal bleeding

a) Less than 1% d) Urinary tract infection

b) About 5% 45. Which imaging technique is commonly used

to diagnose a hydatidiform mole?
c) Approximately 10%
a) MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
d) Around 25%
b) CT scan (Computed Tomography)
41. What is a hydatidiform mole?
c) Ultrasound
a) A type of benign skin lesion
d) X-ray

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46. Which hormone is typically elevated in the c) It is characterized by the absence of any fetal
blood of patients with a hydatidiform mole? tissue.

a) Estrogen d) It is never associated with high levels of hCG.

b) Progesterone 49. What term is used to describe the potential

development of choriocarcinoma from a
c) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
hydatidiform mole?
d) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) a) Metastasis
47. How is a hydatidiform mole treated? b) Ablation
a) Antibiotics c) Malignancy
b) Surgery to remove the mole d) Trophoblastic transformation
c) Chemotherapy
50. After the successful treatment of a
d) Physical therapy hydatidiform mole, how long is close
monitoring recommended?
48. Which of the following statements is true
about a partial hydatidiform mole? a) 1 month

a) It has a higher risk of developing into a b) 6 months

malignancy. c) 1 year
b) It always contains a normal embryo. d) 5 year

11- Abortion, 12–Ovarian Cyst, Tumor & Cancer, 13-Uterine Tumor/ Fibroids,
14- Breast Cancer.
1. What is abortion? a) First trimester

a) The process of childbirth b) Second trimester

b) Termination of pregnancy before the fetus c) Third trimester

can survive
d) Any trimester
c) Adoption of a child
3. Which of the following is a medical method
d) Fertilization of an egg of abortion?

2. Which trimester of pregnancy is an abortion a) Hysterectomy

typically performed in?
b) Cesarean section

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c) Dilation and curettage (D&C) 8. What is a "back-alley abortion"?

d) Medical abortion pills a) An abortion performed in a hospital

4. What is a surgical abortion? b) An abortion performed by a registered

doctor
a) Taking abortion pills
c) An unsafe and illegal abortion performed by
b) Using contraception untrained individuals
c) A procedure to remove the fetus and d) An abortion performed in the second
placenta from the uterus trimester
d) A natural miscarriage 9. Which abortion method involves the use of
5. In many countries, what is the legal time limit suction to remove the embryo or fetus?
for abortion? a) D&C (Dilation and Curettage)
a) Up to 12 weeks b) D&E (Dilation and Evacuation)
b) Up to 20 weeks c) Medical abortion
c) Up to 28 weeks d) RU-486 pill
d) No time limit 10. What does "pro-choice" mean?
6. Which organization provides counseling and a) Supporting the right to choose abortion
information about reproductive health,
including abortion? b) Supporting only surgical abortions

a) WHO (World Health Organization) c) Supporting only natural childbirth

b) UNICEF d) Supporting government control over

reproductive rights
c) Red Cross
11. What does "pro-life" mean?
d) Planned Parenthood
a) Supporting the right to choose abortion
7. What is a "safe abortion"?
b) Supporting only surgical abortions
a) An abortion performed by a qualified
medical professional using safe methods c) Opposing abortion and advocating for fetal
rights
b) An abortion performed without any medical
assistance d) Supporting government control over
reproductive rights
c) An abortion performed at home

d) An abortion performed during any trimester

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12. In cases of "ectopic pregnancy," where does b) A fluid-filled sac that forms on the ovary
the fertilized egg implant?
c) An inflammation of the fallopian tube
a) Uterine lining
d) A uterine abnormality
b) Cervix
17. Which of the following is a common
c) Fallopian tube or elsewhere outside the symptom of an ovarian cyst?
uterus
a) Persistent cough
d) Ovary
b) Changes in appetite
13. What is "Roe v. Wade"?
c) Pelvic pain or discomfort
a) A medical procedure
d) Earache
b) A famous abortion clinic
18. Most ovarian cysts are:
c) A court case that established the legality of
a) Always cancerous
abortion in the U.S.

d) A type of contraceptive b) Harmless and resolve on their own

14. What is the "morning-after pill"? c) Caused by stress

a) A pill taken in the morning to prevent d) Only found in postmenopausal women

pregnancy 19. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) is
characterized by:
b) A type of abortion pill

c) Emergency contraception to prevent a) A single large cyst on the ovary

pregnancy after unprotected sex b) Multiple small cysts on the ovaries
d) A pill taken during pregnancy for nutrition c) Cysts that only develop after menopause
15. Which country was the first to legalize d) Cysts that only affect teenagers
abortion in 1938?
20. Which imaging technique is commonly used
a) United States to diagnose ovarian cysts?
b) United Kingdom a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c) Soviet Union b) Ultrasound
d) Sweden c) X-ray
16. What is an ovarian cyst? d) Blood test
a) A type of cancerous tumor

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21. Which type of ovarian cyst can twist and c) Consuming more caffeine
cause severe pain?
d) Avoiding all physical activity
a) Dermoid cyst
26. What is the most common type of ovarian
b) Functional cyst tumor?

c) Endometrioma a) Germ cell tumor

d) Ovarian cystadenoma b) Surface epithelial-stromal tumor

22. When should a woman seek medical c) Sex cord-stromal tumor

attention for an ovarian cyst?
d) Metastatic tumor
a) Only if the cyst is larger than a grape
27. Which type of ovarian tumor is often
b) If the cyst causes sudden and severe pain associated with Meigs syndrome?

c) After trying home remedies for a few years a) Serous cystadenoma

d) Only during a leap year b) Brenner tumor

23. Which type of ovarian cyst contains tissue c) Granulosa cell tumor
similar to that in other parts of the body?
d) Fibroma
a) Functional cyst
28. Which ovarian tumor is most commonly
b) Dermoid cyst found in young women and often contains
components like hair and teeth?
c) Endometrioma
a) Serous cystadenoma
d) Corpus luteum cyst
b) Mucinous cystadenoma
24. Which hormonal disorder can contribute to
the development of ovarian cysts? c) Teratoma (dermoid cyst)

a) Thyroid disorder d) Endometrioid carcinoma

b) Diabetes 29. Which ovarian tumor is known for

producing androgens and may lead to
c) Hypertension virilization?
d) Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) a) Serous cystadenocarcinoma
25. Treatment for ovarian cysts may include: b) Dysgerminoma
a) Ignoring them until menopause c) Granulosa cell tumor
b) Surgery to remove the cyst d) Serous cystadenoma

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30. Which histological subtype of ovarian tumor 34. Krukenberg tumors, which are metastatic
is associated with the Call-Exner bodies? ovarian tumors, often originate from which
primary site?
a) Serous cystadenoma
a) Breast
b) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
b) Colon
c) Granulosa cell tumor
c) Stomach
d) Brenner tumor
d) Lung
31. Which ovarian tumor is characterized by a
"coffee bean" appearance under the 35. What is the most common type of ovarian
microscope? cancer?

a) Serous cystadenocarcinoma a) Germ cell tumors

b) Serous cystadenoma b) Epithelial ovarian carcinoma

c) Mucinous cystadenoma c) Stromal tumors

d) Brenner tumor d) None of the above

32. Which ovarian tumor is most likely to 36. Which of the following is a known risk factor
secrete beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β- for ovarian cancer?
hCG)?
a) Early menopause
a) Dysgerminoma
b) Multiple pregnancies
b) Serous cystadenocarcinoma
c) Hormone replacement therapy
c) Brenner tumor
d) Smoking
d) Fibroma
37. The CA-125 blood test is used for:
33. Which ovarian tumor is associated with
elevated serum inhibin levels? a) Detecting breast cancer

a) Dysgerminoma b) Monitoring ovarian cancer treatment

b) Mucinous cystadenoma c) Diagnosing lung cancer

c) Thecoma d) Screening for colon cancer

d) Fibroma 38. Which stage of ovarian cancer is

characterized by spread to both ovaries?

a) Stage I

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b) Stage II 43. Ovarian cancer often goes undetected until
which stage?
c) Stage III
a) Stage I
d) Stage IV
b) Stage II
39. Which imaging technique is commonly used
for diagnosing ovarian cancer? c) Stage III

a) CT scan d) Stage IV

b) Echocardiogram 44. Which type of ovarian tumor is more

common in younger women and often contains
c) Electroencephalogram different types of tissue?
d) PET scan a) Epithelial tumors
40. Which gene mutation is commonly
b) Germ cell tumors
associated with hereditary ovarian cancer?
c) Stromal tumors
a) BRCA1 and BRCA2
d) None of the above
b) TP53
45. What is the most common type of uterine
c) EGFR tumor?
d) KRAS a) Leiomyoma (fibroid)
41. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of
b) Leiomyosarcoma
ovarian cancer?
c) Endometrial carcinoma
a) Bloating
d) Ovarian cyst
b) Fatigue
46. Which uterine tumor is usually benign and
c) Back pain composed of smooth muscle tissue?
d) Persistent indigestion or nausea a) Leiomyoma
42. What is the main treatment for advanced b) Endometrial polyp
ovarian cancer?
c) Ovarian cyst
a) Radiation therapy
d) Endometrial carcinoma
b) Surgery only
47. Which imaging technique is commonly used
c) Chemotherapy to diagnose uterine tumors?
d) Hormone therapy a) MRI

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b) Echocardiogram 52. Which uterine tumor type can lead to
irregular menstrual bleeding or spotting?
c) Colonoscopy
a) Leiomyosarcoma
d) EEG
b) Endometriosis
48. Which symptom is commonly associated
with uterine fibroids? c) Leiomyoma

a) Postmenopausal bleeding d) Endometrial polyp

b) Dysuria 53. Which condition involves the growth of

endometrial tissue outside the uterus?
c) Hemoptysis
a) Endometriosis
d) Heavy menstrual bleeding
b) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
49. Which term refers to the removal of the
uterus? c) Endometrial hyperplasia

a) Hysterectomy d) Ovarian cyst

b) Salpingectomy 54. What is the treatment of choice for uterine

leiomyomas causing severe symptoms?
c) Oophorectomy
a) Radiation therapy
d) Myomectomy
b) Chemotherapy
50. Which type of uterine tumor is malignant
and arises from the endometrial lining? c) Hysterectomy

a) Leiomyoma d) Antibiotic therapy

b) Endometrial carcinoma 55. Which type of uterine tumor originates from

the smooth muscle layers of the uterus and can
c) Ovarian cyst cause pelvic pain?
d) Cervical dysplasia a) Endometrial carcinoma
51. What is the main risk factor for developing b) Endometriosis
endometrial carcinoma?
c) Leiomyosarcoma
a) Smoking
d) Endometrial polyp
b) Obesity
56. Which uterine tumor is associated with
c) Physical inactivity abnormal uterine bleeding?
d) High alcohol consumption a) Ovarian cyst

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b) Cervical dysplasia d) Endometrial biopsy

c) Endometrial polyp 61. What is the main symptom of uterine

tumors like leiomyosarcoma?
d) Leiomyoma
a) Abdominal bloating
57. What is the most common age range for the
development of uterine fibroids? b) Muscle weakness

a) 10-20 years c) Visual disturbances

b) 20-30 years d) Vaginal bleeding

c) 30-40 years 62. Which uterine tumor type is associated with

hormonal imbalances and can cause infertility?
d) 40-50 years
a) Leiomyoma
58. Which hormone is commonly associated
with the growth of uterine fibroids? b) Endometrial carcinoma

a) Estrogen c) Endometriosis

b) Progesterone d) Ovarian cyst

c) Testosterone 63. What is the role of genetic factors in the

development of uterine tumors?
d) Thyroxine
a) No genetic factors are involved.
59. Which type of uterine tumor can spread to
other parts of the body and is considered b) Genetic factors play a minor role.
malignant?
c) Genetic factors play a significant role.
a) Leiomyoma
d) Genetic factors only affect men.
b) Endometrial polyp
64. Which uterine tumor type is often
c) Leiomyosarcoma discovered incidentally during imaging tests?

d) Endometriosis a) Leiomyoma

60. Which procedure involves the removal of a b) Endometrial carcinoma

small piece of tissue from the uterine lining for
examination? c) Leiomyosarcoma

a) Laparoscopy d) Cervical dysplasia

b) Colonoscopy 65. What are uterine fibroids primarily

composed of?
c) Endoscopy

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a) Muscle tissue d) Urinalysis

b) Fat tissue 70. Uterine fibroids are always cancerous.

c) Nerve tissue a) True

d) Bone tissue b) False

66. Which hormone is known to stimulate the 71. Which treatment option involves the
growth of uterine fibroids? surgical removal of uterine fibroids?

a) Estrogen a) Radiation therapy

b) Progesterone b) Chemotherapy

c) Testosterone c) Hysterectomy

d) Insulin d) Antibiotic treatment

67. Which age group of women is most 72. Which non-invasive procedure uses sound
commonly affected by uterine fibroids? waves to shrink or destroy uterine fibroids?

a) Teenagers a) Laparoscopy

b) Women in their 20s and 30s b) Endometrial ablation

c) Women in their 40s and 50s c) Myomectomy

d) Women in their 60s and older d) High-intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU)

68. Which of the following is a common 73. What is the main goal of treating uterine
symptom of uterine fibroids? fibroids?

a) Vision problems a) Increasing estrogen levels

b) Joint pain b) Reducing fertility

c) Heavy menstrual bleeding c) Relieving symptoms and improving quality

of life
d) Dry cough
d) Inducing menopause
69. Which imaging technique is often used to
diagnose uterine fibroids? 74. Which lifestyle factor is believed to
influence the development of uterine fibroids?
a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
a) Consuming a diet rich in fruits and vegetables
b) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
b) Engaging in regular exercise
c) Blood test

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c) Getting enough sleep 79. Which stage represents the earliest form of
invasive breast cancer?
d) Stress management
a) Stage I
75. What is the most common type of breast
cancer? b) Stage II

a) Inflammatory breast cancer c) Stage III

b) Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) d) Stage IV

c) Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) 80. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are genes associated
with:
d) Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)
a) Lung cancer
76. Which factor increases the risk of
developing breast cancer? b) Ovarian cancer

a) Having a first child at a younger age c) Skin cancer

b) Early menopause d) Prostate cancer

c) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) 81. What is a common symptom of breast

cancer?
d) Physical activity
a) Increased appetite
77. What is HER2/neu?
b) Persistent cough
a) A genetic mutation causing breast cancer
c) Change in breast size or shape
b) A hormone associated with breast
development d) Blurred vision

c) A protein that can contribute to cancer 82. Which type of biopsy involves removing a
growth small piece of tissue with a needle?

d) A type of benign breast tumor a) Lumpectomy

78. What is a common method for breast b) Mastectomy

cancer screening?
c) Excisional biopsy
a) MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
d) Needle biopsy
b) Colonoscopy
83. What does TNM staging for breast cancer
c) PSA test stand for?

d) Pap smear a) Tumor, Nodules, Metastasis

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b) Tumor, Nodes, Margin d) To repair damaged tissue

c) Tissue, Nodes, Metastasis 88. Which type of breast cancer spreads more
readily to other parts of the body?
d) Tumor, Node, Metastasis
a) Non-invasive carcinoma
84. What percentage of breast cancers are
thought to be hereditary? b) Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

a) Less than 5% c) Invasive carcinoma

b) About 15% d) Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

c) Around 30% 89. What is a sentinel lymph node biopsy used

to determine?
d) More than 50%
a) The size of the tumor
85. Which treatment option is commonly used
after breast cancer surgery to target any b) The stage of cancer
remaining cancer cells?
c) Whether cancer has spread to nearby lymph
a) Chemotherapy nodes

b) Radiation therapy d) The genetic mutations present

c) Hormone therapy 90. Which of the following is NOT a common

risk factor for breast cancer?
d) Immunotherapy
a) Age
86. Which imaging technique is often used for
breast cancer staging and monitoring treatment b) Gender
response?
c) Consuming dairy products
a) Ultrasound
d) Family history
b) PET scan
91. What is a common side effect of
c) CT scan chemotherapy for breast cancer?

d) Mammography a) Increased appetite

87. What is the purpose of adjuvant therapy in b) Hair loss

breast cancer treatment?
c) Weight gain
a) To relieve pain and discomfort
d) Improved energy levels
b) To prevent cancer recurrence
92. Which of the following is a type of targeted
c) To remove the tumor therapy used for HER2-positive breast cancer?

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a) Tamoxifen a) To cure the cancer

b) Trastuzumab (Herceptin) b) To provide emotional support to patients

c) Doxorubicin c) To manage symptoms and improve quality

of life
d) Methotrexate
d) To prevent cancer recurrence
93. What is the main goal of palliative care in
breast cancer?

15-Infertility, 16-Benign Prostate Hypertrophy, 17-

Erectile Dysfunction, 18- Prostate and Testicular Cancer

1. What is infertility? b) Endometriosis

a) The inability to conceive after one year of c) Blocked fallopian tubes

unprotected intercourse
d) Hormonal imbalances
b) The inability to conceive after six months of
unprotected intercourse 4. Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) involves:

c) The inability to conceive after three months a) Collecting and fertilizing eggs outside the
of unprotected intercourse body

d) The inability to conceive after two years of b) Directly injecting sperm into the uterus
unprotected intercourse c) Transferring a fertilized embryo into the
2. Which of the following factors can contribute uterus
to male infertility? d) Surgically removing blocked fallopian tubes
a) Age 5. Which lifestyle factor can negatively impact
b) Smoking fertility in both men and women?

c) Stress a) Regular exercise

d) All of the above b) A balanced diet

3. What is the most common cause of female c) Excessive alcohol consumption

infertility? d) Meditation
a) Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

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6. What is the purpose of ovulation induction a) Prostate gland
medications?
b) Testes
a) To prevent ovulation
c) Epididymis
b) To stimulate ovulation
d) Vas deferens
c) To block fallopian tubes
11. What is the function of the cervix in
d) To remove uterine fibroids reproduction?

7. What is the role of the fallopian tubes in a) Producing eggs

conception?
b) Providing nourishment to the embryo
a) They produce eggs
c) Allowing sperm to enter the uterus
b) They transport the sperm to the uterus
d) Storing eggs
c) They provide a nourishing environment for
12. What is the primary cause of male infertility
the embryo
due to hormonal imbalance?
d) They connect the ovaries to the uterus and
facilitate fertilization a) Hypogonadism

8. Which sexually transmitted infection can lead b) Hyperthyroidism

to infertility if left untreated? c) Diabetes
a) Chlamydia d) High estrogen levels
b) Gonorrhea 13. Which assisted reproductive technology
c) Syphilis (ART) involves combining sperm and eggs in a
laboratory dish?
d) All of the above
a) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
9. What is the medical term for the surgical
removal of the uterus? b) Intrauterine insemination (IUI)

a) Hysterectomy c) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)

b) Oophorectomy d) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)

c) Salpingectomy 14. Which of the following is NOT a potential

treatment option for female infertility?
d) Myomectomy
a) Ovulation induction
10. Which male reproductive organ produces
sperm? b) Tubal ligation

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c) Intrauterine insemination (IUI) 19. Which hormone is responsible for
stimulating the development of the ovarian
d) In vitro fertilization (IVF) follicles?
15. What is the term for a fertilized egg that has a) Estrogen
implanted outside the uterus, typically in the
fallopian tube? b) Progesterone

a) Ectopic pregnancy c) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

b) Molar pregnancy d) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

c) Twin pregnancy 20. What is the average age at which a woman

experiences menopause?
d) Placenta previa
a) 25 years old
16. Which of the following is a risk factor for
female infertility? b) 40 years old

a) Frequent exercise c) 55 years old

b) Normal body weight d) 70 years old

c) Smoking 21. Which of the following conditions can affect

both male and female fertility?
d) Early menopause
a) Erectile dysfunction
17. What percentage of infertility cases are
estimated to be due to unexplained causes? b) Premature ejaculation

a) 5% c) Obesity

b) 15% d) Endometriosis

c) 30% 22. What is the purpose of a

hysterosalpingogram (HSG) test in infertility
d) 50% diagnosis?
18. What is the function of the male accessory a) To measure hormone levels
glands in reproduction?
b) To assess sperm count
a) Produce testosterone
c) To evaluate the fallopian tubes and uterus
b) Produce sperm
d) To check for genetic abnormalities
c) Produce seminal fluid
23. Which contraceptive method involves the
d) Produce eggs removal of a small piece of the vas deferens?

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a) Tubal ligation d) Chest Pain

b) Intrauterine device (IUD) 28. Which part of the prostate gland enlarges in
BPH?
c) Vasectomy
a) Central Zone
d) Birth control pills
b) Peripheral Zone
24. What is the term for the inability to
maintain an erection sufficient for sexual c) Transition Zone
intercourse?
d) Anterior Zone
a) Impotence
29. Which imaging technique is commonly used
b) Sterility to diagnose BPH?

c) Oligospermia a) MRI

d) Infundibulum b) X-ray

25. What is BPH? c) CT Scan

a) Benign Prostate Hypertrophy d) Ultrasound

b) Benign Prostate Hyperplasia 30. Which medication is often prescribed to

manage BPH symptoms?
c) Benign Prostate Hyperactivity
a) Antibiotics
d) Benign Prostate Hysterectomy
b) Aspirin
26. Which age group is most commonly affected
by BPH? c) Alpha-Blockers

a) 20-30 years d) Insulin

b) 40-50 years 31. Which surgical procedure may be

recommended for severe BPH?
c) 60-70 years
a) Appendectomy
d) 80-90 years
b) Prostatectomy
27. What is the primary symptom of BPH?
c) Tonsillectomy
a) Hematuria
d) Splenectomy
b) Erectile Dysfunction
32. What is the gold standard test for
c) Frequent Urination diagnosing BPH?

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a) PSA Blood Test d) Nocturia

b) Digital Rectal Exam (DRE) 37. Which ethnic group is at a higher risk of
developing BPH?
c) Cystoscopy
a) Asian
d) Prostate Biopsy
b) Caucasian
33. What is the role of the prostate-specific
antigen (PSA) test in BPH? c) African American

a) It confirms the diagnosis of BPH. d) Hispanic

b) It helps predict the risk of prostate cancer. 38. What is the term for the surgical removal of
the prostate gland?
c) It measures prostate size.
a) Cystectomy
d) It assesses kidney function.
b) Prostatectomy
34. Which of the following complications is
associated with BPH? c) Nephrectomy

a) Glaucoma d) Appendectomy

b) Osteoporosis 39. Which hormone is primarily responsible for

the growth of the prostate gland?
c) Urinary Retention
a) Estrogen
d) Migraine
b) Testosterone
35. What is the first-line treatment for mild BPH
symptoms? c) Insulin

a) Surgery d) Thyroxine

b) Lifestyle modifications 40. Which of the following is not a common side

effect of BPH medications?
c) Radiation therapy
a) Dizziness
d) Chemotherapy
b) Dry mouth
36. Which of the following is not a common
symptom of BPH? c) Hair loss

a) Weak urine stream d) Nasal congestion

b) Urgency to urinate 41. What is the main goal of BPH treatment?

c) Constipation a) Cure the condition

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b) Relieve symptoms and improve quality of D) A common sexual dysfunction in women
life
46. Which of the following is NOT a common
c) Prevent prostate cancer risk factor for ED?

d) Lower blood pressure A) Diabetes

42. Which procedure uses heat energy to shrink B) High blood pressure
the prostate tissue in BPH?
C) Regular exercise
a) TURP (Transurethral Resection of the
Prostate) D) Smoking

b) Lithotripsy 47. What is the primary symptom of erectile

dysfunction?
c) Cryotherapy
A) Decreased libido
d) Radiotherapy
B) Painful erections
43. Which of the following is not a risk factor for
developing BPH? C) Inability to achieve or maintain an erection

a) Age D) Premature ejaculation

b) Family history 48. Which of the following medications can

contribute to ED as a side effect?
c) Smoking
A) Antidepressants
d) Obesity
B) Antibiotics
44. What is the term for the condition where
the bladder muscle becomes thickened due to C) Vitamin supplements
BPH? D) Cough syrup
a) Cystitis 49. What is the first-line treatment for mild to
b) Hydronephrosis moderate ED?

c) Bladder diverticulum A) Penile implant surgery

d) Bladder hypertrophy B) Psychotherapy

45. What is erectile dysfunction (ED)? C) Oral medications like Viagra (Sildenafil)

A) A psychological disorder D) Acupuncture

B) A common sexual dysfunction in men 50. Which medical condition is often associated
with ED and involves the hardening and
C) A type of urinary tract infection narrowing of arteries?

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A) Osteoporosis C) Middle-aged and older men

B) Atherosclerosis D) Elderly women

C) Ovarian cancer 55. What is the role of testosterone in erectile

function?
D) Glaucoma
A) Testosterone has no impact on erectile
51. What percentage of men over the age of 40 function.
may experience occasional ED?
B) Testosterone is responsible for regulating
A) 5% ejaculation.
B) 20% C) Testosterone is essential for maintaining
C) 50% sexual desire and function.

D) 75% D) Testosterone only affects women's sexual

health.
52. Which lifestyle modification can help reduce
the risk of ED? 56. What is the term for a prolonged, painful
erection that lasts for more than four hours and
A) Excessive alcohol consumption requires immediate medical attention?

B) Regular exercise A) Priapism

C) A high-sugar diet B) Pre-ejaculation

D) Sedentary lifestyle C) Paraphimosis

53. What is the purpose of PDE5 inhibitors like D) Phimosis

Cialis (Tadalafil)?
57. What percentage of men with diabetes are
A) To increase testosterone levels estimated to experience ED?

B) To relax blood vessels and improve blood A) 10-15%

flow to the penis
B) 25-30%
C) To reduce anxiety
C) 50-60%
D) To prevent premature ejaculation
D) 75-80%
54. Which age group is most commonly affected
by ED? 58. Which of the following is a non-invasive
treatment option for ED that involves creating a
A) Adolescents vacuum to draw blood into the penis?

B) Young adults in their 20s A) Penile prosthesis

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B) Penile injections 63. Testicular cancer most commonly affects
men of what age group?
C) Vacuum erection device
A) Teens and young adults
D) Herbal supplements
B) Middle-aged men
59. In addition to physical causes, what other
factors can contribute to ED? C) Senior citizens

A) Only medical conditions D) Children

B) Only psychological factors 64. Which of the following is a common

symptom of testicular cancer?
C) A combination of medical and psychological
factors A) Frequent urination

D) Diet and exercise B) Erectile dysfunction

60. What is the most common cancer in men? C) Testicular lump or swelling

A) Lung cancer D) Chest pain

B) Prostate cancer 65. What is the most common type of prostate

cancer?
C) Testicular cancer
A) Sarcoma
D) Colorectal cancer
B) Adenocarcinoma
61. Which age group is at the highest risk for
developing prostate cancer? C) Lymphoma

A) Under 30 D) Melanoma

B) 30-40 66. Which of the following is a known risk factor

for prostate cancer?
C) 50-60
A) Regular exercise
D) 70 and older
B) High intake of fruits and vegetables
62. What is the primary function of the prostate
gland? C) Family history of the disease

A) Digestion D) Low red meat consumption

B) Reproduction 67. What is the primary treatment for localized

prostate cancer?
C) Hormone production
A) Chemotherapy
D) Urinary control

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B) Radiation therapy A) Surgery

C) Hormone therapy B) Radiation therapy

D) Surgery C) Chemotherapy

68. Which test is commonly used to diagnose D) Immunotherapy

prostate cancer?
70. Failure of the testes to descend into the
A) Mammogram scrotum is called…?

B) PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) blood test A) Impotency

C) Pap smear B) Cryptorchidism

D) Colonoscopy C) Castration

69. What is the mainstay of treatment for D) Pachogenesis

advanced testicular cancer?

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Unit-5 Hematology Disorders

1-hemolytic disease , 2-lymph proliferative disorders, 3-Thrombocytopenia,

4-Sickle Cell Anemia, 5-Immunohemolytic Anemia, 6-Iron Deficiency Anemia,
7-Vitamin B12 & Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia, 8-Aplastic Anemia.
1. What is the primary cause of hemolytic d) IgG
disease of the newborn (HDN)?
5. What medical procedure is often used to
a) Rh incompatibility prevent Rh incompatibility during pregnancy?

b) ABO incompatibility a) Blood transfusion

c) Maternal hypertension b) Amniocentesis

d) Gestational diabetess c) RhoGAM injection

2. Which blood type is considered the universal d) Cesarean section

donor and is least likely to cause ABO
incompatibility? 6. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of
hemolytic anemia in newborns?
a) A
a) Jaundice
b) B
b) Anemia
c) AB
c) High blood pressure
d) O
d) Enlarged spleen
3. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs
when antibodies from the mother target 7. What is the term for the destruction of red
antigens on the surface of which blood cells? blood cells due to an immune response in
hemolytic disease of the newborn?
a) White blood cells
a) Hemostasis
b) Platelets
b) Hematuria
c) Red blood cells
c) Hemolysis
d) Plasma
d) Hemophilia
4. Which immunoglobulin class is involved in
the immune response that leads to hemolytic 8. Which maternal blood type is most likely to
disease of the newborn? cause ABO incompatibility with the fetus?

a) IgA a) Type A

b) IgD b) Type B

c) IgE c) Type AB

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d) Type O a) 50,000 - 100,000 per microliter

9. Which component of the fetal blood is b) 150,000 - 450,000 per microliter

responsible for the development of jaundice in
hemolytic disease of the newborn? c) 1,000,000 - 2,000,000 per microliter

a) Bilirubin 15. Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is

characterized by:
b) Hemoglobin
a) High platelet count
c) Platelets
b) Low platelet count
d) Albumin
c) Normal platelet count
10. What is the recommended treatment for
severe cases of hemolytic disease of the 16. Which of the following can be a treatment
newborn? option for severe thrombocytopenia?

a) Intravenous fluids a) Platelet transfusion

b) Phototherapy b) Antibiotics

c) Antibiotics c) Painkillers

d) Physical therapy 17. Thrombocytopenia is a condition that

primarily affects:
11. What is thrombocytopenia?
a) Red blood cells
a) High platelet count
b) White blood cells
b) Low platelet count
c) Platelets
c) Normal platelet count
18. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is
12. Which of the following is not a common a complication associated with:
symptom of thrombocytopenia?
a) Antibiotics
a) Easy bruising
b) Blood thinners (heparin)
b) Excessive bleeding
c) Iron supplements
c) Elevated heart rate
19. Thrombocytopenia may result in which of
13. Thrombocytopenia can be caused by: the following complications?

a) Increased platelet production a) Increased risk of clotting

b) Decreased platelet destruction b) Hemorrhage (bleeding)

c) Bone marrow disorders c) High blood pressure

14. What is the normal range for platelet count 20. Which imaging test can help diagnose the
in adults? underlying cause of thrombocytopenia?

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a) X-ray b) Glutamine to arginine

b) CT scan c) Valine to glutamine

c) MRI scan d) Valine to arginine

21. What is the primary cause of sickle cell 26. What is the typical shape of sickle cells?
anemia?
a) Round
a) Bacterial infection
b) Oval
b) Genetic mutation
c) Crescent or sickle-shaped
c) Environmental toxins
d) Star-shaped
d) Allergies
27. Sickle cell anemia primarily affects which
22. Which type of genetic mutation leads to type of blood cells?
sickle cell anemia?
a) Red blood cells
a) Deletion mutation
b) White blood cells
b) Substitution mutation
c) Platelets
c) Insertion mutation
d) Plasma
d) Inversion mutation
28. Which organ is most severely affected by
23. Sickle cell anemia is most commonly sickle cell anemia due to reduced blood flow?
inherited in which manner?
a) Brain
a) Autosomal recessive
b) Liver
b) Autosomal dominant
c) Spleen
c) X-linked recessive
d) Kidneys
d) Inheritance
29. Sickle cell anemia patients are at an
24. What is the name of the protein affected by increased risk of which type of infection?
the genetic mutation in sickle cell anemia?
a) Viral
a) Hemoglobin A
b) Bacterial
b) Hemoglobin B
c) Fungal
c) Hemoglobin C
d) Parasitic
d) Hemoglobin S
30. What is the common symptom of a sickle
25. Which amino acid substitution occurs in cell crisis?
hemoglobin S?
a) High blood pressure
a) Glutamine to valine

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b) Severe joint pain b) 50-60 years

c) Skin rash c) 40-50 years

d) Visual disturbances d) 20-30 years

31. How is sickle cell anemia typically 36. Which of the following can trigger a sickle
diagnosed? cell crisis?

a) X-ray a) Hydration

b) Blood test b) Rest

c) Urine analysis c) Stress

d) MRI Scan d) Warm weather

32. Which of the following is a treatment option 37. What is the primary goal of treatment for
for sickle cell anemia? sickle cell anemia?

a) Antibiotics a) Pain management

b) Blood transfusion b) Eliminating the genetic mutation

c) Radiation therapy c) Boosting the immune system

d) Physical therapy d) Increasing platelet count

33. What is the only known cure for sickle cell 38. What is the term for a genetic condition
anemia? where an individual has one normal and one
sickle cell hemoglobin gene?
a) Bone marrow transplant
a) Homozygous
b) Chemotherapy
b) Heterozygous
c) Gene therapy
c) Hemizygous
d) Dialysis
d) Recessive
34. In which population is sickle cell anemia
most commonly found? 39. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of
sickle cell anemia?
a) Asians
a) Fatigue
b) Caucasians
b) Jaundice
c) Africans and African-Americans
c) Increased oxygen levels in the blood
d) Hispanics
d) Shortness of breath
35. What is the average lifespan of individuals
with sickle cell anemia? 40. How is oxygen delivery to tissues affected
by sickle cell anemia?
a) 70-80 years

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a) Enhanced oxygen delivery 45. What is the most common age for sickle cell
anemia symptoms to start appearing?
b) Normal oxygen delivery
a) At birth
c) Impaired oxygen delivery
b) During adolescence
d) Oxygen delivery is unaffected
c) In the 20s or 30s
41. What is the recommended way to prevent
sickle cell anemia? d) After the age of 60

a) Avoiding cold weather 46. Which type of immunohemolytic anemia is

characterized by the presence of
b) Genetic counseling and testing autoantibodies against red blood cells (RBCs)?
c) Consuming a high-iron diet A) Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
(WAIHA)
d) Taking daily pain medications
B) Cold agglutinin disease (CAD)
42. Which blood type is most commonly
associated with sickle cell anemia? C) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
a) A+ D) Mixed-type autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b) B- 47. In warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
(WAIHA), autoantibodies primarily react with
c) O+
RBCs at which temperature range?
d) Sickle cells are not associated with a specific
A) Below 0°C
blood type
B) 4-10°C
43. Which of the following is NOT a potential
complication of sickle cell anemia? C) 18-25°C
a) Stroke D) 37°C
b) Vision problems 48. Which laboratory test is commonly used to
diagnose warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c) Reduced risk of infection
(WAIHA)?
d) Organ damage
A) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT, Coombs test)
44. What is the recommended treatment for
B) Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)
pain during a sickle cell crisis?
C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
a) Rest and relaxation
D) Complete blood count (CBC)
b) Over-the-counter pain relievers
49. Cold agglutinin disease (CAD) is
c) Intravenous opioids
characterized by the presence of
d) Physical therapy autoantibodies that react with RBCs at which
temperature?

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A) Below 0°C D) Oxidative stress

B) 4-10°C 54. Which condition is characterized by

transient episodes of hemolysis that occur
C) 18-25°C following exposure to cold temperatures?
D) 37°C A) Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
(WAIHA)
50. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is
associated with the development of B) Cold agglutinin disease (CAD)
autoantibodies against which antigen on RBCs?
C) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
A) Rh antigen
D) Sickle cell anemia
B) ABO antigen
55. What is the first-line treatment for warm
C) P antigen autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)?
D) I antigen A) Blood transfusion
51. Which immunoglobulin class is commonly B) Immunosuppressive therapy
involved in warm autoimmune hemolytic
anemia (WAIHA)? C) Iron supplementation

A) IgA D) Antibiotics

B) IgD 56. What is the most common cause of iron

deficiency anemia?
C) IgE
a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) IgG
b) Chronic kidney disease
52. The Coombs test is used to detect the
presence of which of the following on the c) Inadequate dietary iron intake
surface of RBCs?
d) Hemolytic anemia
A) Hemoglobin
57. Which of the following is a common
B) Antibodies symptom of iron deficiency anemia?

C) Complement proteins a) Jaundice

D) Platelets b) Fatigue

53. In autoimmune hemolytic anemias, what is c) High fever

the primary mechanism of RBC destruction?
d) Vision changes
A) Phagocytosis by neutrophils
58. Which laboratory test is typically used to
B) Agglutination of RBCs diagnose iron deficiency anemia?

C) Hemolysis mediated by complement a) Complete blood count (CBC)

proteins

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b) Urinalysis b) Ferritin

c) Electrocardiogram (ECG) c) Myoglobin

d) Liver function test d) Bilirubin

59. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by a 64. In severe cases of iron deficiency anemia, a
decrease in which blood cell type? blood transfusion may be necessary. What type
of blood is typically transfused?
a) Platelets
a) Type A
b) White blood cells
b) Type B
c) Red blood cells
c) Type AB
d) Plasma cells
d) Type O
60. What dietary source of iron is more readily
absorbed by the body? 65. Which population group is most at risk for
developing iron deficiency anemia?
a) Heme iron (found in animal products)
a) Young children
b) Non-heme iron (found in plant-based foods)
b) Teenagers
61. Which gastrointestinal condition can impair
iron absorption and lead to iron deficiency c) Older adults
anemia?
d) Athletes
a) Celiac disease
66. Which condition is often associated with a
b) Hypertension deficiency of folic acid during pregnancy?

c) Asthma a) Gestational diabetes

d) Osteoarthritis b) Neural tube defects in the fetus

62. Iron supplements are commonly prescribed c) Preeclampsia

to treat iron deficiency anemia. What is a
common side effect of these supplements? d) Osteoporosis

a) Weight gain 67. Which of the following can lead to a

deficiency of folic acid?
b) Constipation
a) Excessive sun exposure
c) Increased energy levels
b) Vegan diet
d) Reduced appetite
c) Dairy consumption
63. What is the term for the storage form of
iron in the body? d) High intake of red meat

a) Hemoglobin 67. What is the recommended daily intake of

folic acid for most adults?

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a) 50 micrograms (mcg) 72. In which type of anemia is there a problem
with the maturation of red blood cells in the
b) 200 mcg bone marrow?
c) 400 mcg a) Iron-deficiency anemia
d) 1000 mcg b) Hemolytic anemia
68. Which population group is at a higher risk of c) Aplastic anemia
developing vitamin B12 deficiency?
d) Megaloblastic anemia
a) Children
73. Which of the following can interfere with
b) Elderly individuals the absorption of vitamin B12 in the stomach?
c) Athletes a) Gastric bypass surgery
d) Vegetarians b) High-fiber diet
69. Which of the following is a symptom c) Vitamin C supplementation
commonly associated with both vitamin B12
and folic acid deficiency anemia? d) Dairy consumption

a) Muscle weakness 74. What is the neurological complication often

associated with long-term untreated vitamin
b) High blood pressure B12 deficiency?
c) Bone pain a) Osteoporosis
d) Vision problems b) Peripheral neuropathy
70. Which laboratory test is commonly used to c) High blood pressure
diagnose vitamin B12 deficiency?
d) Diabetes
a) Complete blood count (CBC)
75. Which of the following is a common
b) Electrocardiogram (ECG) symptom of folic acid deficiency anemia in
adults?
c) Urinalysis
a) Jaundice
d) Serum vitamin C levels
b) Delirium
71. Which vitamin is essential for the formation
of DNA and RNA? c) Frequent nosebleeds
a) Vitamin A d) Swollen lymph nodes
b) Vitamin B12 76. What is the most effective way to prevent
vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency anemia?
c) Vitamin C
a) Avoiding all animal products
d) Folic acid

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b) Consuming fortified foods and supplements 81. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of
as needed aplastic anemia?
c) Excessive sun exposure A) Fatigue
d) Drinking plenty of water
B) Easy bruising and bleeding
77. What is the primary characteristic of aplastic
C) Fever and chills
anemia?
D) Pale skin
A) Increased production of red blood cells
82. How is aplastic anemia diagnosed?
B) Excessive platelet production
A) Physical examination
C) Decreased production of blood cells
B) Urine test
D) Elevated white blood cell count
C) Bone marrow biopsy
78. Which of the following is a common cause
of acquired aplastic anemia? D) X-ray

A) Genetic mutation 83. What is the treatment of choice for severe

aplastic anemia?
B) Viral infections
A) Blood transfusion
C) High iron intake
B) Antibiotics
D) Excessive exercise
C) Chemotherapy
79. Aplastic anemia can affect which type of
blood cells? D) Stem cell transplant

A) Red blood cells only 84. Which age group is most commonly affected
by aplastic anemia?
B) White blood cells only
A) Infants
C) Platelets only
B) Children
D) All of the above
C) Young adults
80. What is the main function of red blood
cells? D) Elderly

A) Fighting infection 85. In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow fails to

produce enough:
B) Carrying oxygen to tissues
A) Red blood cells
C) Blood clotting
B) White blood cells
D) Phagocytosis

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C) Platelets a) Folates
b) Folic hydro compound
D) All of the above c) Hydro folic
86. What is the prognosis for aplastic anemia d) Filipina
with appropriate treatment? 89. __________ is a blood disorder in which the
A) Always fatal body's bone marrow doesn't make enough new
blood cells. Bone marrow is a sponge-like tissue
B) Complete recovery inside the bones. It makes stem cells that
develop into Red blood cells, white blood cells,
C) Partial recovery
and platelets.
D) Depends on the cause and severity
a) Sickle cell anemia
87. The only difference between Hodgkin and b) Pernicious anemia
non Hodgkin lymphoma is; c) Hemolysis anemia
d) Aplastic anemia
a) The presence of the lymphoid tissue
b) The presence of encapsulated tissue 90. Petechia means __________due to blood
c) The presence of Reed Sternberg cell disease.
d) The presence of abnormal RBC’s
a) Red or purple spot on the tongue.
88. Folic acid deficiency is caused anemia. It is b) Red or purple spot on the genital organs
stored as compounds in a body referred to as c) Red or purple spot on the spleen.
________. d) Red or purple spot on the body

9-Polycythemia, 10-Leukemia, 11-Hodgkin and non- Hodgkin’s Lymphomas,

12-Autoimmune/Thrombotic/ Thrombocytopenic Purpura, 13-Disseminated
Intravascular Coagulation
1. What is polycythemia? B) Secondary polycythemia

A) Increased platelet count C) Hemolytic polycythemia

B) Increased red blood cell count D) Hypoxic polycythemia

C) Decreased white blood cell count 3. What is the primary hormone responsible for
regulating red blood cell production?
D) Decreased hemoglobin levels
A) Insulin
2. Which type of polycythemia is characterized
by an overproduction of red blood cells due to a B) Thyroxine
genetic mutation?
C) Erythropoietin
A) Primary polycythemia

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D) Estrogen C) Iron deficiency anemia

4. Secondary polycythemia can be caused by: D) Allergic reactions

A) Genetic mutations 9. Which of the following is NOT a potential

complication of polycythemia vera?
B) Smoking
A) Stroke
C) Lack of exercise
B) Heart attack
D) Vitamin C deficiency
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
5. Symptoms of polycythemia may include:
D) Pulmonary embolism
A) Fatigue, dizziness, and headache
10. What is the primary goal of treatment for
B) Hair loss and skin rashes polycythemia?
C) Frequent urination and thirst A) To reduce red blood cell production
D) Joint pain and muscle weakness B) To increase white blood cell production
6. Which medical test is commonly used to C) To improve liver function
diagnose polycythemia?
D) To boost platelet counts
A) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
11. What is leukemia?
B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
a) A type of bone fracture
C) Complete blood count (CBC)
b) A cancer of the blood and bone marrow
D) Urinalysis
c) A bacterial infection
7. Treatment for polycythemia may include:
d) A neurological disorder
A) Blood transfusions
12. Which of the following is not a common
B) High-altitude therapy symptom of leukemia?
C) Drinking more caffeine a) Fatigue
D) Reducing dietary iron intake b) Frequent infections
8. Polycythemia vera is associated with a higher c) Unexplained weight gain
risk of developing:
d) Easy bruising or bleeding
A) Hypertension
13. What are the two main types of leukemia?
B) Blood clots

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a) Breast and lung leukemia d) Myeloid leukemia

b) Acute and chronic leukemia 18. Which age group is most commonly affected
by acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)?
c) Hodgkin's and non-Hodgkin's leukemia
a) Children
d) Benign and malignant leukemia
b) Teenagers
14. Which of the following is a risk factor for
developing leukemia? c) Adults over 40

a) Regular exercise d) Seniors over 65

b) Exposure to ionizing radiation 19. What is the most common form of leukemia
in adults?
c) Vegetarian diet
a) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
d) Drinking herbal tea
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
15. Which blood cells are primarily affected in
leukemia? c) Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

a) Red blood cells d) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

b) Platelets 20. Which of the following is a potential

complication of leukemia treatment?
c) White blood cells
a) Increased white blood cell count
d) Plasma cells
b) Improved appetite
16. What is the treatment option often used for
leukemia? c) Secondary cancers

a) Surgery d) Enhanced physical fitness

b) Chemotherapy 21. Which of the following is NOT a symptom

commonly associated with both Hodgkin's and
c) Physical therapy non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
d) Acupuncture a) Fever
17. Which type of leukemia progresses more b) Weight loss
rapidly?
c) Enlarged lymph nodes
a) Chronic leukemia
d) Joint pain
b) Acute leukemia
22. Reed-Sternberg cells are a characteristic
c) Lymphocytic leukemia feature of:

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a) Hodgkin's lymphoma b) Joint pain, fatigue, and itching

b) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 29. Which type of lymphoma is often associated

with a waxing and waning course?
23. Which type of lymphoma is more common
in adults? a) Hodgkin's lymphoma

a) Hodgkin's lymphoma b) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

b) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 30. Which of the following imaging techniques

is commonly used to stage lymphomas?
24. Which lymphoma typically has a bimodal
age distribution with peaks in young adults and a) MRI
those over 55?
b) PET-CT
a) Hodgkin's lymphoma
c) X-ray
b) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
31. Which chemotherapy regimen is frequently
25. The presence of the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) used to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma?
is associated with which type of lymphoma?
a) CHOP
a) Hodgkin's lymphoma
b) ABVD
b) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
c) R-CHOP
26. Which of the following is NOT a subtype of
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma? 32. The presence of CD15 and CD30 markers is
typical of:
a) Follicular lymphoma
a) Hodgkin's lymphoma
b) Mantle cell lymphoma
b) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
c) Hodgkin's lymphoma
33. Which type of lymphoma is often
d) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by a slow, indolent course?

27. Which staging system is commonly used for a) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Hodgkin's lymphoma?
b) Follicular lymphoma
a) Ann Arbor staging
34. What is the primary treatment for early-
b) Lugano staging stage Hodgkin's lymphoma?

28. The presence of B symptoms in lymphoma a) Surgery

includes:
b) Radiation therapy
a) Weight loss, night sweats, and fever
c) Stem cell transplant

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35. Which of the following is a potential long- c) White blood cells
term complication of lymphoma treatment?
d) Kidney cells
a) Hypertension
41. Which of the following is NOT a common
b) Secondary cancers symptom of immune thrombocytopenic
purpura (ITP)?
c) Hearing loss
a) Petechiae
36. Which type of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is
derived from T-cells? b) Hematuria

a) Mantle cell lymphoma c) Joint pain

b) Peripheral T-cell lymphoma d) High fever

37. The presence of a "bulky" mass in 42. Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

lymphoma indicates: (TTP) is characterized by the formation of:

a) Enlargement of lymph nodes over 5 cm a) Blood clots in the arteries

b) Enlargement of lymph nodes under 2 cm b) Blood clots in the veins

38. Which of the following is NOT a common c) Microscopic blood clots throughout the body
treatment for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
d) Blood clots in the heart
a) Chemotherapy
43. What is the primary cause of TTP?
b) Radiation therapy
a) Autoimmune response
c) Surgery
b) Bacterial infection
39. Which subtype of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
is associated with the overexpression of the c) Genetic mutation
BCL-2 gene? d) Viral infection
a) Mantle cell lymphoma 44. Which organ is most affected in Thrombotic
b) Burkitt lymphoma Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)?

40. What is the primary target of the immune a) Liver

response in autoimmune thrombocytopenic b) Kidneys
purpura (ITP)?
c) Brain
a) Platelets
d) Lungs
b) Red blood cells

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45. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura d) Genetic mutation
(ITP) is characterized by a decrease in the
number of: 49. What is the mainstay of treatment for
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)?
a) Red blood cells
a) Antibiotics
b) Platelets
b) Immunosuppressive therapy
c) White blood cells
c) Plasma exchange (plasmapheresis)
d) Hemoglobin
d) Blood transfusions
46. Which of the following treatments is
commonly used for immune thrombocytopenic 50. What is the primary underlying condition
purpura (ITP)? associated with DIC?

a) Antibiotics a) Hypertension

b) Blood transfusions b) Diabetes

c) Platelet transfusions c) Sepsis

d) Steroids d) Asthma

47. Which of the following laboratory findings is 51. Which of the following is a hallmark
typically associated with Thrombotic laboratory finding in DIC?
Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)? a) Elevated platelet count
a) Elevated platelet count b) Prolonged prothrombin time (PT)
b) Decreased hemoglobin levels c) Decreased fibrin degradation products
c) Decreased LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) d) Increased anticoagulant levels
levels
52. DIC is characterized by the simultaneous
d) Increased ADAMTS13 activity occurrence of:
48. What is the primary mechanism responsible a) Excessive clotting and bleeding
for the platelet destruction in immune
thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)? b) Elevated blood pressure

a) Increased platelet production in the bone c) Low red blood cell count
marrow
d) High platelet count
b) Autoantibodies targeting platelet antigens
53. Which organ is often most affected by DIC-
c) Infection of platelets by a virus related clotting?

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a) Kidneys 57. What is the goal of DIC management?

b) Liver a) To normalize platelet counts

c) Lungs b) To restore normal coagulation balance

d) Heart c) To increase clotting factor production

54. DIC can be triggered by all of the following d) To lower blood pressure
conditions except:
58. Which laboratory test is used to monitor DIC
a) Trauma progression and response to treatment?

b) Cancer a) Complete blood count (CBC)

c) Iron deficiency b) Serum electrolyte panel

d) Obstetric complications c) Urinalysis

55. In DIC, what is the primary mechanism d) Lipid profile

leading to excessive bleeding?
59. Which of the following is a potential
a) Increased platelet production complication of DIC?

b) Decreased clotting factor synthesis a) Hypertension

c) Consumption of clotting factors and b) Organ failure

platelets
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Hyperactivity of the coagulation cascade
d) Increased red blood cell count
56. Which of the following is a common
treatment for DIC? 60. TTP stand for;

a) Administration of vitamin K a) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

b) Thrombotic thromboembolism purpura
b) Platelet transfusion
c) Thrombotic thrombocynotic purpura
c) Bloodletting d) Thrombotic thrombosis purpura
d) Increased physical activity

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Unit-6 Cellular Adaptation & Aberrant cell growth

1. In response to environmental stress the c. Hyperplasia
change in cell shape, size, pattern of growth d. Hypertrophy
and metabolic activity in order to escape 6. Hyperplasia generally means:
and protect themselves from injury is a. An organ will increase in size due to
called... excessive formation of extracellular
a. cell growth fluids
b. cell injury b. Increased cell production in a normal
c. cellular adaptation tissue
d. aberrant cell growth c. Shrinkage in cell size
2. Cells which continuously multiply & divide d. Blebbing at the periphery
throughout life is called... 7. In atrophy the cells are;
a. Stable cell a. Dead cells
b. Labile cell b. Shrunken cells
c. Permanent cell c. Irreversibly injured cells
d. Nervous cells d. Reversibly injured cells
3. Hepatocytes are the example of........ Cells. 8. For metaplasia the following holds true
a. Labile except:
b. Stable a. It is a disordered growth
c. Permanent b. It affects only epithelial tissues
d. All c. It is a reversible change
4. There are how many types of cell d. It is an irreversible and progressive
adaptation? change
a. 2 9. The type of cell change to stimuli in which
b. 3 cellular organelles decreases and also the
c. 4 metabolic process is reduced called....
d. 5 a. Hypertrophy
5. Which one of the following cellular b. Atrophy
adaptation is related to Change in size... c. Metaplasia
a. Dysplasia d. Dysplasia
b. Metaplasia 10. Hypertrophy is most seen in....

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a. Stable cell a. True
b. Skeletal muscles b. False
c. Cardiac muscles 16. A 4 year Girl has a broken arm. After her
d. All cast is removed 6 week later, her healing
11. Which of the following statements is true? arm is markedly smaller than her normal
a. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell size arm. The mechanism of atrophy in this case
b. Atrophy is always reversible is;
c. Metaplasia always results in tumor a. Pressure atrophy
formation b. Loss of endocrine stimulation
d. Hypertrophy is reversible c. Denervation atrophy
12. All of the following are the pathological d. Disuse atrophy
atrophies except; 17. Dysplasia is refers to;
a. Disuse a. Change in morphology
b. Denervation b. Change in number of cells
c. Ischemic c. Change in cell type
d. Loss of breast size after pregnancy d. Change in cell size
13. An adaptive response in which one adult 18. Which of the following statements is true?
cell type is replaced by another adult cell a. Dysplasia is an example of adaptation
type is called... b. Adaptations are all reversible
a. Dysplasia c. All adaptations are active, requiring ATP
b. Metaplasia d. Adaptations only occur in pathological
c. Anaplasia states
d. Hyperplasia
19. …………………. Is deranged cell growth that
14. Hypertrophy of muscles is due to...
result in cells that vary in size, shape, and
a. Increase in number of cells
organization.
b. Increase in size of cell
c. Abnormal shape of cell a) Hyperplasia
d. Decrease in number of cell b) dysplasia
15. Mechanism of hypertrophy in the heart c) metaplasia
involves signal transduction pathways, d) Hypertrophy
induction of particular genes and increased
20. Muscles mass in body building is due to;
synthesis of certain cellular protein...

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a) Hyperplasia a) G protien receptors
b) Metaplasia
b) Cytokines
c) Dysplasia
d) Hypertrophy c) Cell adhesion molecules

21. What is an aberrant cell? d) Ion channels

a) A normal body cell 25. A type of tumor which enclosed in a fibrous

capsule is called... tumor?
b) A cell that has altered and now can damage
the body a) Benign

c) A cell tha kills virus-infected cells b) Malignant

d) A cell that has mutations but still functions c) Both

normally
d) None

22. Which of the following is an example of an

26. Carcinoma is the name of malignant tumor
aberrant cell?
given to..... tissue?

a) An immune cell
a) Connective

b) A virus
b) Epithelial

c) A cancerous cell
c) Bone

d) A heart cell
d) Neuron

23. What causes a cell to become cancerous?

27. Adenoma is the epithelial tumor of

a) Tobacco smoke glandular tissues. To which type of tumor name

we add suffix "oma"?
b) A viral infection
a) Malignant
c) UV radiation
b) Cancerous
d) All of these
c) Benign
24. Immune system in the body is activated by
d) All

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28. Currently how many cancer staging systems b) N-Nodes
are used...?
c) N-number of tumors
a) 2
d) None
b) 3
32. A tumor is classified as M0 on TNM system
c) 4 M0 is code for tumor which is......?
10:18 pm, 07/06/2023
a) Not assessed
d) 5
b) No distant metastasis
29. Four levels of cancer grading scale first
c) Distant metastasis
introduce by;
d) None
a) MaCburney
33. A patient is lying on bed in an oncology
b) Albert Compton
ward which has cancer the physician documents
c) McCollum his charting and writes T3, N1, M0. The patient
is in which stage of cancer?
d) None
a) I
30. The description of the microscopic
appearance of the tumor cell and tissue is b) II
known as......?
c) III
a) Staging
IV
b) Grading
34. Which of the following is an anti-oncogene
c) Classification which inhibits cell division?

d) All a) RAS

31. TNM is a system for classifying a b) ERK

malignancy. In which N is used for....?
c) P53
a) N-normal
d) MYC

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35. All of the following are the characteristics of a) Benign neoplasm
abnormal cell except?
b) Malignant neoplasm
a) Rapid and continuous cell division
c) Tumor
b) Large nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
d) Both a & b
c) Adhere loosely
39. The best related to malignant tumor is;
d) Non-migratory
A) Rate of growth is usually low
36. Cancer that begins in the skin or tissues that
b) Usually encapsulated
line or cover internal organs is. . .
c) Resemble to normal cells
a) Carcinoma
d) Metastasis
b) Leukemia
40. Which of the following is most appropriate
c) Lymphoma
for sarcoma?
d) Myeloma
a) Malignant tumor of connective tissue
37. Which of the following is benign tumor?
b) Malignant tumor of muscular cells
a) Fibro sarcoma
c) Malignant tumor of epithelial cells
b) Osteosarcoma
d) Malignant tumor of nerve cells
c) Fibroma
41. Which of the following is the best related to
d) Adenosarcoma proto-oncogene?

38. Neoplasms tend to grow rapidly, spread a) Causes cell mutation

widely, and have the potential to kill regardless
b) Protect cell from carcinogens
of their original location is;
c) Contain genetic materials

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Unit-7 Immunological Disorder

1. The human body capacity to resist almost 6. Which of the following immunity is present
all type of organism and toxins which tend from our birth?
to damage tissue or organs is called... a. Innate Immunity
a. Homeostasis b. Active immunity
b. Immunity c. Passive immunity
c. defecation d. Acquired immunity
d. voiding 7. Neutrophils, basophil, lymphocytes,
2. Which of the following is not a component eosinophil and monocytes are examples of
of immune system....? ____
a. lymphocytes a. Physical barrier
b. neutrophils b. Cellular barriers
c. Macrophages c. Cytokine barriers
d. Platelets d. Physiological barriers
3. Which of the following immunity is 8. B-cells and T-cells are two types of cells
obtained during a lifetime? involved in _____
a. Acquired immunity a. Innate Immunity
b. Active immunity b. Active immunity
c. Passive immunity c. Passive immunity
d. None of the above d. Acquired immunity
4. How many types of antibodies are there? 9. Which of the following statements is true
a. Five about Passive Immunity?
b. Three a. This immunity causes reactions
c. Two b. This immunity develops immediately
d. Four c. This immunity lasts only for a few
5. Which of the following cells is involved in weeks or months
cell-mediated immunity? d. All of the above
a. Leukemia 10. Which of the following cells is involved in
b. T cells cell-mediated immunity?
c. Mast cells a. T-cells
d. Thrombocytes b. B-cells

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c. Mast cells d. Cells
d. Both T and B cells e. All of the above
11. Which of the following conveys the longest- 16. Which of the following immunity is called
lasting immunity to an infectious agent? the first line of defence?
a. Active immunity a. Innate Immunity
b. Passive immunity b. Active immunity
c. Both (a) and (b) c. Passive immunity
11:21 pm, 27/07/2023 d. Acquired immunity
d. None of the above 17. Which antibody can transfer placenta?
12. Which of the following does not act as a a. IgA
protecting barrier for the body surface? b. IgM
a. Skin c. IgG
b. Mucus d. IgD
c. Gastric acid 18. Which of these immunoglobulin classes is
d. Salivary amylase mainly found in external secretion
13. Which of the following cells is involved in a. IgM
humoral immunity? b. IgG
a. T-cells c. IgA
b. B-cells d. IgD
c. Mast cells 19. Newborn get their antibody from mother
d. Both T and B cells milk. This is an example of;
14. Skin, body hair, cilia, eyelashes, the a. Naturally acquired active immunity
respiratory tract and the gastrointestinal b. Naturally acquired passive immunity
tract are examples of ____ c. Artificially acquired active immunity
a. Cytokine barriers d. Artificially acquired passive immunity
b. Physical barriers 20. All of the following are the component of
c. Cellular barriers innate immunity except;
d. Physiological barriers a. Complement
15. Cells Involved In Innate Immunity are_____ b. NK cells
a. Phagocytes c. Macrophages
b. Natural Killer d. T cells
c. Macrophages 21. CD4 are associated with;

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a. Helper T cell 27. B cells mature in the……….. while T cells
b. Suppressor T cell mature in the;
c. NK cells a. Thymus/bone marrow and gut-
d. T cells antigen receptor complex associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
22. Active immunity is not acquired by; b. Spleen/bone marrow and GALT
a. Infection c. Bone marrow and GALT/thymus
b. Vaccination d. Liver/kidneys
c. Immunoglobulin transfer 28. The specificity of an antibody is due to;
d. All of the above a. Its valence
23. Opsonization occurs due to; b. The heavy chains
a. Endotoxins c. The Fc portion of the molecule
b. Complement d. The variable portion of the heavy and
c. IgM light chain
d. IgE 29. Cell-mediated immunity is carried out
24. All of the following are the monomer by………….. While humoral immunity is
structure antibodies except; mainly carried out by………………..
a. IgE a. B cells/T cells
b. IgD b. Epitopes/antigens
c. IgA c. T cells/B cells
d. IgG d. Antibodies/antigens
25. Neutrophils and macrophages are the 30. The ability of the immune system to
components of ...... line of defence. recognize self-antigens versus non self
a. First antigen is an example of:
b. 2nd a. Specific immunity
c. 3rd b. Tolerance
d. Cell mediate immunity c. Cell-mediated immunity
26. B and T cells are produced by stem cells d. Humoral immunity
that are formed in: 31. The antibody that is first formed after
a. Bone marrow infection is:
b. The liver a. IgG
c. The spleen b. IgM
d. lymph nodes c. IgD

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d. IgE c. Innate immunity
32. Antibodies disappear very quickly in which d. All of the above
immunity? 37. Antibodies are made by;
a. Active immunity a. RBC's
b. Naturally induced immunity b. Platelets
c. Passive immunity c. B lymphocytes
d. Autoimmune response d. T lymphocytes
33. A molecule that produces an immune 38. Protection provide by skin is an example of;
response is; a. Specific defence
a. Antigen b. Nonspecific defence
b. Antibody c. Passive
c. Carcinogens d. Active
d. Mutagen 39. Chemical substance that when introduced
34. Which of the following cells activate into the body is recognized as foreign body
macrophages and B cells; is called;
a. Helper T cells a. Antibody
b. Cytotoxic T cells b. Antigen
c. Suppressor T cells c. Drug
d. Memory T cells d. All of the above
35. During your clinical, you have a chance to 40. Which of the following is an antigen
administer oral polio vaccine to a 6 months presenting cell?
old infant. How does this vaccine develop a. Neutrophils
immunity? b. Macrophages
a. Naturally acquired active immunity c. T lymphocytes
b. Naturally acquired passive immunity d. Mast cells
c. Artificially acquired active immunity 41. First line of body defense is
d. Artificially acquired passive immunity a. Antibody molecules
36. A short term immunity that comes when b. Unbroken skin
free from antibodies is taken from some c. Antigen molecules
other source is called... d. Phagocytic cells
a. Active immunity 42. The major immunoglobulin present in the
b. Passive immunity human serum is;

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a. IgG provide? Naturally acquired
b. IgA passive immunity for the new
c. IgE born.
d. IgD a. IgA
b. IgG
43. Antibody formation depends on
c. IgE
a. Age of the person
d. IgM
b. Amount of antigen
c. Well being of the person 48. General purpose antibody is
d. All of the above
a. IgA
44. Antibodies are b. IgG
c. IgD
a. Proteins
d. IgM
b. Glycoprotein’s
c. Phospholipids 49. ….plays a major role in allergic
d. None of these
reactions by sensitizing cells to
45. Antigen-antibody reactions are certain antigens;
a) IgA
a. Reversible
b) IgE
b. Irreversible
c) IgM
c. Specific
d) IgG
d. Both a and b
50. Naturally acquired active immunity
46. Acquired immunity can be
would be most likely acquired through which of
developed by the following processes?
a. Natural means e) Vaccination
b. Artificial means f) Drinking colostrums
c. Both a and b g) Natural birth
h) d) Infection with disease causing
d. None of these
organis
47. Which of the following can

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51. Undesirable overactive immune responses c. Immune complex (Type III)
to a particular allergens or antigen are called;
d. Cell-Mediated (Type IV)
a. Tachphylaxis
55. Type II hypersensitivity is due to:
b. Tolrence
a. Activation of cytotoxic T cells
c. Hypersensitivity
b. Pollen
d. Immunity
c. Mismatched blood types in transfusion
52. There are how many types of
d. due to complement system
hypersensitivity?
56. A positive tuberculin test is an example of;
a. 2
a. Pollen allergic response
b. 3
b. Acute contact dermatitis
c. 4
c. Delayed type hypersensitivity
d. 5
d. Type I hypersensitivity
53. All of the following are the antibody
mediated hypersensitivity except ----- which is 57. The predominant hypersensitivity reaction
cell mediated hypersensitivity? involving IgE is;

a. Type I a. Type I

b. Type II b. Type II

c. Type III c. Type III

d. Type IV d. Type IV

54. Pollen would most likely evoke which type 58. Which if the following is NOT a primary
of hypersensitivity response: product of degranulating masts cells;

a. Immediate type (Type I) a. Histamine

b. Cytotoxic (Type II) b. Il-12

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c. Prostaglandins b. Type II

d. Heparin c. Type III

59. Rheumatoid arthritis is a ……….disease that d. Type IV

affects the……….
63. T helper cell mediated hypersensitivity is;
a. Autoimmune/ joints
a. Type I
b. Allergic/ cartilage
b. Type III
c. Autoimmune/nerves
c. Type IV
d. Immunodeficiency/ muscles
d. Type V
60. A tissue graft between two people who are
64. K cells and IgG mediated hypersensitivity is;
not genetically identical is termed a:
a. Type II hypersensitivity
a. Allograft
b. Type IV hypersensitivity
b. Xenograft
c. Type I hypersensitivity
c. Isograft
d. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Autograft
65. “Wheal and flare” reaction is characteristic
61. An example of a type III immune complex
reaction associated with identification of;
disease is:
a. Type IV hypersensitivity
a. Serum sickness
b. Type II hypersensitivity
b. Graft rejection
c. Type I hypersensitivity
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Atopy
66. Theoretically, type………… blood can be
62. Allergy to penicillin is an example of
donated to all persons because it lacks…………;
a. Type I
a. O/antibodies

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b. AB/ antibodies a. Reduction in the number of platelets

c. A/ antibodies b. Very less RBC count

d. O/antigens c. Reduction in the number of T4 -lymphocytes

67. Which of the following is considered an d. Very High Blood Pressure

autoimmune disease?
71. Through which of the following routes, the
a. Agammaglobulinemia transmission of AIDS does not take place?

b. Aids a. Parenteral Route

c. Scid b. Sexual Route

d. Rheumatoid Arthritis c. Transplacental Route

68. HIV has a high mutation rate due to the d. Faeco-oral Route
imprecise operation of it’s:
72. Why does AIDS patient start suffering from
a. Reverse transcriptase other common infections?

b. Viral membrane a. The decrease in RBC count

c. CD4 receptor b. Reduction in the number of platelets

d. protease c. Low WBC count

69. What is the full form of AIDS? d. The decrease in the number of Helper T-
lymphocytes
a. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
73. The genetic material of AIDS virus is ___;
b. Assimilated Infectious Death Syndrome
a. single-stranded DNA
c. Auto Immunity Diseased Syndrome
b. single-stranded RNA
d. Auto-Immune Disorders
c. double-stranded DNA
70. AIDS is characterized by which of the
following? d. double-stranded RNA

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74. Which of the following glycoprotein’s on the b. Not wearing latex condoms during sex
protein coat of virus helps it in the attachment
c. Injecting Narcotic drugs
of the virus to CD4 receptors?
d. B and C
a. GP120
78. HIV can also spread through;
b. GP41
a. Sharing water
c. GP121
b. Breathing in infected droplets
d. GP17
c. Sharing needles
75. Which of these is a symptom of HIV
infection? d. Kissing

a. Swollen lymph nodes 79. How many stages of HIV infection exist?

b. Fever a. 3

c. Tiredness b. 2

d. All of the above c. 1

76. A person has AIDS when which of these d. No stages

occurs?
80. HIV is thought to have originated from;
a. Exposure to HIV
a. Birds
b. HIV antibodies are found in the blood
b. Mosquitos
c. The CD4+ count is lower than 200 or
c. Chimpanzees
opportunistic infections develop in an HIV-
infected person d. None of the above

d. A person has HIV for 5 years 81. There are how many types of HIV?

77. The risk for HIV/AIDS is tied to behaviors. a. 2 (HIV-I, HIV-II)

Which of these behaviors can put you at risk?
b. 3
a. Spending time with someone who has AIDS

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c. 4 85. Which of the following bacterial infections is
predominant in chronic HIV-infected patients or
d. 6
AIDS?
82. AIDS is caused by HIV, among the following,
a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV?
b. Tuberculosis
a. Transfusion of contaminated blood
c. Candidiasis
b. Sharing the infected needles
d. Toxoplasmosis
c. Shaking hands with infected persons
86. All of the following are the active current
d. Sexual contact with infected persons
preventive methods for HIV infection, EXCEPT?
83. HIV belongs to which of the following genus
a. Safe and protected sex
member of the virus?
b. Use of sterile injection needles
a. Ortho myxovirus
c. Use of available vaccines
b. Retrovirus
d. Safe blood transfusion method
c. Parvovirus
87. Select the opportunistic infections which are
d. Reovirus
common in the HIV/AIDS
84. Which of the following enzyme is required
a. Candidiasis
for the viral replication process and plays a
critical role in the pathogenesis of HIV b. Toxoplasmosis
infection?
c. Meningitis
a. RNA polymerase
d. Pneumonia
b. DNA polymerase
e. All of the above
c. RNA polymerase II
88. Which of the following is an important
d. Reverse transcriptase molecule present in the outer membrane of HIV
that helps the virus to enter the host cell and
cause infection?

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a) Polysaccharides b) Monocytes

b) Glycoprotein’s c) Macrophages

c) Proteins d) Dendritic cells

d) Lipopolysaccharides 90. Which of the following is an important HIV

antigen in determining the early detection of
89. The envelope protein gp120 (Glycoprotein
HIV infection?
120) is required for the attachment of the HIV
virus to CD 4 receptors of target host cells. a) p24
Identify the immune cells that consist of CD 4
b) gp120
receptors:
c) Pol gene
a) T helper cells
d) Gp120

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Unit-1 Introduction to Pathophysiology

Q.1 The study of function altered by disease Q.5 The branch of medical sciences that study
process is known as? distribution of disease and its causes in
population is called;
a. Histology
a. Pathology
b. Pathology
b. Physiology
c. Pathophysiology
c. Pathophysiology
d. Microbiology
d. Epidemiology
Q.2 The study of suffering (Disease) is termed
as; Q.6 Wearing a mask which chain should be
break among chain of infection;
A .Physiology
a. Portal of exist
b. Microbiology
b. Portal of entry
c. Pathology
c. Both
d. Pathophysiology
d. Reservoir
Q.3 When the etiology of a disease is
unknown, the disease is said to be; Q.7 Cystic fibrosis:

a. Chronic a. Is a genetic disease

b. Inherited b. Is a congenital disorder

c. Congenital c. Is an acquired disease

d. Idiopathic d. Results from the mother's alcohol intake

Q.4 The characteristic combination of signs Q.8 Tuberculosis is an example of:

and symptoms associated with a particular
disease is called; a. Idiopathic disease

a. Signs b. Acquired disorder

b. Symptoms c. Congenital disorder

c. Pathogenesis d. Genetic disease

d. Syndrome Q.9 Usual the time of diagnosis in which stage

occurs of disease;

a. Stage of susceptibility

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b. Stage of clinical disease Q.14 The measure of existing disease in a
population at a given point in time is called;
c. Stage of subclinical disease
a. Incidence
d. Stage of recovery
b. Prevalence
Q.10 If we identify the death in our country
from disease which term should be used? c. Virulence

a. Virulence d. Pathogenicity

b. Pathogenicity Q.15 You are expecting your first child and

are told that the child has a 1 in 800 chance of
c. Infectivity being born with a congenital anomaly. This
d. Toxigenicity statistic refers to the:

Q.11 Infectious disease due to chemical or a. Incidence

exposed to radiation is the examples of; b. Prevalence
a. Intrinsic c. Epidemic
b. Extrinsic d. Diagnosis
c. Idiopathic Q.16 You have an appointment for routine
d. Animate health screening and blood cholesterol level
checked and it is within the expected range.
Q.12 Which of the following is not an aspect This activity represents which level of
of the pathophysiology in disease? prevention?

a. Morphological changes a. Primary prevention

b. Therapeutic treatment b. Secondary prevention

c. Causes c. Tertiary prevention

d. Pathogenesis d. None of these

Q.13 The ability of microorganisms which Q.17 A patient wants to know what has
can produce injurious substance which caused his illness. This information is termed
damage the host the term is; the;

a. Pathogenicity a. Etiology

b. Toxigenicity b. Pathogenesis

c. Virulence c. Epidemiology

d. Immunogenicity d. Nosocomial

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Q.18 Your grandmother is diagnosed with a. Epidemic
congestive heart failure and is told that she
has 6 months to live. This prediction is b. Endemic
referred to as he; c. Pandemic
a. Prognosis d. Morbidity
b. Diagnosis Q.20 Artherosclerosis is a type of disease;
c. Morbidity rate a. Acute
d. Prevalence b. Chronic
Q.19 Cancer is on the rise across the globe. c. Subacute
Which term describes this phenomenon?
d. Nosocomial

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Unit-2 Mechanism of Infection & Inflammation

1. Invasion and multiplication of b) Fibrinous
microorganism in body tissue which is c) Purulent
characterized by cellular injury is called: d) Hemorrhagic
a) Inflammation 6. Chemical mediator responsible for
b) Abrasion bronchoconstriction in the inflammatory
c) Infection process is:
d) Allergic reaction a) Prostaglandin
2. All of the following are the cardinal signs of b) Histamine
inflammation except: c) Leukotriene
a) Rubor d) Interferon
b) Tumor 7. The process by which leukocytes migrate in
c) Calor response to a chemical signal during
d) Paresthesia inflammation is called:
3. The chemical which is immediately secreted a) Chemotaxis.
by mast cells when a person come in contact b) Emigration
with an allergen is: a) Phagocytosis
a) Leukotriene b) Opsonization
b) Prostaglandin 8. The type of exudate in an inflammation
c) Heparin which contain RBCs is called:
d) Histamine e) Serous
4. The chemical mediator formed from f) Fibrinous
arachidonic acid through the lipoxygenase g) Purulent
pathway in inflammation and which causes h) Hemorrhagic
bronchoconstriction is: 9. The molecule on the surface of the pathogen
a) Prostaglandin that is able to bind to a particular receptor is
b) Histamine called:
c) Leukotriene a) Ligands
d) Serotonin b) Flagella
5. The type of exudate in an inflammation c) Toxin
which contain pus remains of WBCs protein d) Adhesion factor.
and tissue debris is called: 10. The period Between the initial contact with
a) Serous the microbe and the appearance of the first

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symptoms is called: d) Exudation
a) Convalescence
15. Edema in acute inflammation is mainly the
b) Incubation period
result of which one of the following?
c) Invasive period
d) Colonization a) Accumulation of neutrophils
11. Bacterial toxins released from bacterial cell b) Plasma leaking from capillaries
which enzymatically inactivate or modify c) Fluid liberated from dead cells
key cellular constituents leading to death or d) Increased fibrinogen
dysfunction are called:
16. The most important cells in chronic
a) Exotoxin
inflammation are:
b) Endotoxin
c) Phospholipases a) Neutrophils
d) Elastase b) Lymphocytes
12. The silent stage of an infectious disease the c) Giant cells
pathogen has gained entry into the host and d) Eosinophils
starts replicating :
17. Cytotoxic T lymphocyte infiltrate of tissue is
a) incubation stage
a sign of?
b) prodormal stage
c) peak / clinical stage a) Acute inflammation
d) decline stage b) Chronic inflammation
13. The total elimination of a pathogen from the c) Ischemic foci
body without residual sign or symptoms of d) Caseous necrosis
disease.
19. Inflammatory extravascular fluid with high
a) Incubation stage
protein concentration and cellular debris.
b) Prodromal stage
c) Peak / clinical stage a) Exudates
d) Resolution stage b) Transudate
c) Oedema
14. Which is not a systemic manifestation of
d) All of the above
inflammation?

20. What is the name of the phenomenon where

a) Leucocytosis (increased WBCs)
WBC's marginate and become attached to the
b) Fever
edge of the endothelium?
c) Malaise (feeling of illness/flu-like
symptoms) a) Cementing

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b) Pavementing 25. What are the 5 cardinal signs of

c) Margination Inflammation?

d) Adhesion a) Functioner, rubarbo, tamar, dola,

21. A protective response intended to eliminate b) b. Functioner, rubor, tumor, dola,
the initial cause of cell injury, remove the c) c. Calor, rubor, tumor, dolor, functio
damaged tissue, and generate new tissue is laesa
called: d) Calor, rubarbo, tamar, dolor, functio laesa

a) Infection 26. Immunoglobulin’s (IgG-Fc) and complement

b) Inflammation (C3) both act as opsonins. State true or false.
c) Leukocytosis
a) True
d) Rubor
b) False
22. The medical term for the cardinal sign of
27. Concerning “inflammation”, which of the
inflammation in which redness occur:
following is not TRUE?
a) Dolor
a) It’s a local action of vascularized living
b) Rubor
tissue
c) Tumor
b) Its aim is to dilute toxins
d) Laesa
c) Prepares tissue for repair
23. Due to Release of cellular mediators, cellular d) None of the above
influx, and elevated cellular metabolism which
28. A localized collection of pus within an organ
cardinal sign of inflammation occur?
or tissue is Called an Abscess.
a) Rubor a) True
b) Calor b) False
c) Tumor 29. Which of the following are not classic signs
d) Dolor of acute inflammation?
a) Rubor
24. Which scientist identifying the causative
b) Dolor
agents of infectious diseases?
c) Collagen deposition
a) Robert koch d) Loss of function
b) Louis Pasteur
30. The period between the initial contact with
c) Robert hook
the microbe and the appearance of the first
d) Joseph lister

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symptoms is called: c) Invasive period
a) Convalescence d) Colonization
b) Incubation period

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Unit-3 Cellular Adaptation & Aberrant cell growth

19. In response to environmental stress the e. An organ will increase in size due to
change in cell shape, size, pattern of growth excessive formation of extracellular
and metabolic activity in order to escape and fluids
protect themselves from injury is called... f. Increased cell production in a normal
e. cell growth tissue
f. cell injury g. Shrinkage in cell size
g. cellular adaptation h. Blebbing at the periphery
h. aberrant cell growth 25. In atrophy the cells are;
20. Cells which continuously multiply & divide e. Dead cells
throughout life is called... f. Shrunken cells
e. Stable cell g. Irreversibly injured cells
f. Labile cell h. Reversibly injured cells
g. Permanent cell 26. For metaplasia the following holds true
h. Nervous cells except:
21. Hepatocytes are the example of........ Cells. a. It is a disordered growth
e. Labile b. It affects only epithelial tissues
f. Stable c. It is a reversible change
g. Permanent d. It is an irreversible and progressive
h. All change
22. There are how many types of cell 27. The type of cell change to stimuli in which
adaptation? cellular organelles decreases and also the
e. 2 metabolic process is reduced called....
f. 3 e. Hypertrophy
g. 4 f. Atrophy
h. 5 g. Metaplasia
23. Which one of the following cellular h. Dysplasia
adaptation is related to Change in size... 28. Hypertrophy is most seen in....
e. Dysplasia e. Stable cell
f. Metaplasia f. Skeletal muscles
g. Hyperplasia g. Cardiac muscles
h. Hypertrophy h. All
24. Hyperplasia generally means: 29. Which of the following statements is true?

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e. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell size e. Pressure atrophy
f. Atrophy is always reversible f. Loss of endocrine stimulation
g. Metaplasia always results in tumor g. Denervation atrophy
formation h. Disuse atrophy
h. Hypertrophy is reversible
30. All of the following are the pathological 35. Dysplasia is refers to;
atrophies except; e. Change in morphology
e. Disuse f. Change in number of cells
f. Denervation g. Change in cell type
g. Ischemic h. Change in cell size
h. Loss of breast size after pregnancy 36. Which of the following statements is true?
31. An adaptive response in which one adult cell a) Dysplasia is an example of adaptation
type is replaced by another adult cell type is b) Adaptations are all reversible
called... c) All adaptations are active, requiring
e. Dysplasia ATP
f. Metaplasia d) Adaptations only occur in pathological
g. Anaplasia states
h. Hyperplasia 19. Is deranged cell growth that result in cells
32. Hypertrophy of muscles is due to... that vary in size, shape, and organization.
e. Increase in number of cells a) Hyperplasia
f. Increase in size of cell b) dysplasia
g. Abnormal shape of cell c) metaplasia
h. Decrease in number of cell d) Hypertrophy
33. Mechanism of hypertrophy in the heart
20. Muscles mass in body building is due to;
involves signal transduction pathways,
induction of particular genes and increased a) Hyperplasia
synthesis of certain cellular protein... b) Metaplasia
c. True c) Dysplasia
d. False d) Hypertrophy
34. A 4 year Girl has a broken arm. After her
21. What is an aberrant cell?
cast is removed 6 week later, her healing
arm is markedly smaller than her normal a) A normal body cell
arm. The mechanism of atrophy in this case
is;

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b) A cell that has altered and now can b) Malignant
damage the body
c) Both
c) A cell that kills virus-infected cells
d) None
d) A cell that has mutations but still functions
26. Carcinoma is the name of malignant tumor
normally
given to..... Tissue?
22. Which of the following is an example of an
a) Connective
aberrant cell?
b) Epithelial
a) An immune cell
c) Bone
b) A virus
d) Neuron
c) A cancerous cell
27. Adenoma is the epithelial tumor of glandular
d) A heart cell
tissues. To which type of tumor name we add
23. What causes a cell to become cancerous? suffix "oma"?

a) Tobacco smoke a) Malignant

b) A viral infection b) Cancerous

c) UV radiation c) Benign

d) All of these d) All

24. Immune system in the body is activated by 28. Currently how many cancer staging systems
are used...?
a) G protein receptors
a) 2
b) Cytokines
b) 3
c) Cell adhesion molecules
c) 4
d) Ion channels
10:18 pm, 07/06/2023
25. A type of tumor which enclosed in a fibrous
d) 5
capsule is called... tumor?

a) Benign

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29. Four levels of cancer grading scale first d) None
introduce by;
33. A patient is lying on bed in an oncology
a) MaCburney ward which has cancer the physician documents
his charting and writes T3, N1, M0. The patient
b) Albert Compton
is in which stage of cancer?
c) McCollum
a) I
d) None b) II
c) III
30. The description of the microscopic
d) IV
appearance of the tumor cell and tissue is known
as......? 34. Which of the following is an anti-oncogene
which inhibits cell division?
a) Staging
a) RAS
b) Grading
b) ERK
c) Classification
c) P53
d) All
d) MYC
31. TNM is a system for classifying a
malignancy. In which N is used for....? 35. All of the following are the characteristics of
abnormal cell except?
a) N-normal
a) Rapid and continuous cell division
b) N-Nodes
b) Large nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
c) N-number of tumors
c) Adhere loosely
d) None
d) Non-migratory
32. A tumor is classified as M0 on TNM system
M0 is code for tumor which is......? 36. Cancer that begins in the skin or tissues that
line or cover internal organs is. . .
a) Not assessed
a) Carcinoma
b) No distant metastasis
b) Leukemia
c) Distant metastasis

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c) Lymphoma d) Metastasis

d) Myeloma 40. Which of the following is most appropriate

for sarcoma?
37. Which of the following is benign tumor?
a) Malignant tumor of connective tissue
a) Fibro sarcoma
b) Malignant tumor of muscular cells
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Malignant tumor of epithelial cells
c) Fibroma
d) Malignant tumor of nerve cells
d) Adenosarcoma
41. Which of the following is the best related to
38. Neoplasms tend to grow rapidly, spread
proto-oncogene?
widely, and have the potential to kill regardless
of their original location is; a) Causes cell mutation

a) Benign neoplasm b) Protect cell from carcinogens

b) Malignant neoplasm c) Contain genetic materials

c) Tumor d) Regulates normal cell division

d) Both a & b 42. Which one of the following gene converts

normal cells into cancer cells when they muted?
39. The best related to malignant tumor is;
a) Proto-oncogene
A) Rate of growth is usually low
b) RNA
b) Usually encapsulated
c) DNA
c) Resemble to normal cells
d) Oncogene

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Unit-4 Trauma & Cell Injury

1. Necrosis is: 6. Caseous necrosis is characterized
a. Reversible morphologically by:
b. Lack of oxygen to the tissue a. Preservation of tissue outlines
c. Not reversible b. Semi-liquid consistency
d. Blebbing at the periphery c. Amorphous / Cheesy appearance
2. In hypoxic cell injury, cell swelling occurs d. Basophilia
because of increased intracellular: 7. The pattern of cell death that is
a. Lipid characterized by the conversion of a single
b. Protein cell to an acidophilic body, usually with loss
c. Lipofuscin of the nucleus but with preservation of its
d. Water shape to permit recognition of cell
3. Which tissue is the most susceptible to boundaries, is termed:
liquefactive necrosis following ischemic a. Apoptosis
injury? b. Caseous necrosis
a. Pancreas c. Fibrinoid necrosis
b. Brain d. Liquefactive necrosis
c. Spleen 8. Program cell death is called;
d. Liver a. Cellular adoptation
4. A patient suffers a stroke and has left-sided b. Trauma
weakness and paralysis in the upper c. Apoptosis
extremity. The type of necrosis associated d. Necrosis
with a well-developed infarct of the brain is: 9. Which of the following is an example of an
a. Coagulative agent capable of producing a toxic
b. Enzymatic fat metabolite and indirect chemical injury?
c. Liquefactive a. Alcohol
d. Gangrenous b. Aspirin
5. Coagulative necrosis usually results from: c. Carbon monoxide
a. Abscess formation d. Mercury poisoning
b. Ischemia 10. A pathologist notes cloudy swelling,
c. Trauma hydrophic change, and fatty change in a
d. Tuberculosis patient's liver with a history of alcohol

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abuse. These morphological changes are all d. Fatigue
examples of: 16. A series of changes that accompany cell
a. Patterns of cell death death, largely resulting from the degradative
b. Early neoplastic change action of enzymes on lethally injured cells is
c. Irreversible cell injury known as?
d. Reversible cell injury a. Apoptosis
11. ---------is characterized by the "ghostly" b. Necrosis
(dead) appearance of cells. c. Cancer
a. Liquefactive Necrosis d. Adaptation
b. Gaseous Necrosis 17. --------occur when an autoimmune disease or
c. Fat Necrosis infection damage your blood vessels.
d. Caogulative Necrosis a. Fat Necrosis
12. Fragmentation of the nucleus; b. Caseous Necrosis
a. Karyolysis c. Fibrinoid Necrosis
b. Pykonosis d. Gaseous Necrosis
c. Karyorrhexis 18. Burns, deep cold, radiation, mechanical
d. Exudate trauma and electric shock are the examples
13. The enlargement of left ventricle in of------ causes of cell injury.
hypertensive heart disease is an example of; a. Hypoxia
a. Ischemia b. Biological
b. Infarction c. Physical
c. Hypoxia d. Chemical
d. None of the above
14. Which of the following is genetic cause of 19. Type of Necrosis mostly occur in pulmonary
cell injury? TB;
a. Hypoxia & Ischemia a. Coagulative
b. Physical agents b. Liquefactive
c. Chemical agents c. Caseous
d. Cytogenetic Defect d. Fat
15. All of the following are the emotional 20. The major mechanism of damage to plasma
symptoms of trauma except? membrane in ischemia is:
a. Denial a. Reduced intracellular pH
b. Anger b. Increased intracellular accumulation of
c. Sadness sodium

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c. Increased Ca++ ions in the cytosol
d. Reduced aerobic respiration 26. The action of putrefactive bacteria on
21. Out of various free radical species, the necrotic tissue results in;
following radical is most reactive: a. Coagulation
a. Superoxide (O2’) b. Infarction
b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) c. Gangrene
c. Hydroxyl (OH–) d. Embolism
d. Nitric oxide (NO) 27. What would be an example of hypertrophy?
22. Enzymatic digestion is the predominant a. Breast development at puberty
event in the following type of necrosis: b. Enlargement of the uterus during
a. Coagulative necrosis
pregnancy
b. Liquefactive necrosis
c. Enlargement of the uterus during
c. Caseous necrosis
menstruation
d. Fat necrosis
d. A papillomavirus induced skin wart
23. Diabetic foot is an example of:
28. All the following are features of apoptosis
a. Dry gangrene
except;
b. Wet gangrene
a. Cell swelling
c. Gas gangrene
b. Chromatin condensation
d. Necrotising inflammation
c. Formation of cytoplasmic blebs
24. In atrophy, the cells are:
d. lack of inflammation
a. Dead cells
29. Irreversible cell injury is characterized by;
b. Shrunken cells
a. Cell swelling
c. Irreversibly injured cells
b. Nuclear chromatin clumping
d. Reversibly injured cells
25. Apoptosis has the following features except: c. Lysosomal rupture

a. There is cell shrinkage in apoptosis d. Cell membrane defects

b. There are no acute inflammatory cells 30. Caspases are seen in which of the

surrounding apoptosis following?

c. There may be single cell loss or affect a. Cell division

clusters of cells b. Apoptosis

d. Apoptosis is seen in pathologic c. Necrosis
processes only d. Inflammation

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Unit-5 Fluid, Electrolytes & Acid Base Imbalances

1. The balance refers to a balance of f. The regulation of acid concentration in

intracellular volume (ICV) and extracellular the body
volume. (ECV) which includes interstitial g. Stimulation of a conscious desire for
fluid (ISF) and intravascular fluids is called; water
a. Acid Base Balance h. The activity of buffer systems
b. Harmonal balance 6. A solution that is similar to the osmolality of
c. Fluid & Electrolytes balance plasma that will cause no cell damage, it is
d. Energy balance called:
2. Body Fluid constitute...... % of the total a. Hypotonic
body mass in females? b. Normal Saline
a. 70 c. Isotonic
b. 66 d. Hypertonic
c. 55 7. which patient is at more risk for fluid &
d. 60 electrolyte imbalance;
3. Approximately one-third of the body water a. An 8 month old with a fever of 102.3
exists in the; ‘F and diarrhea
a. Kidneys and urinary bladder b. A 55 year old diabetic with nausea and
b. Blood vomiting
c. Extracellular fluid compartment c. A 5 year old with RSV
d. Transcellular fluid compartment d. A healthy 87 year old with intermittent
4. Water leaves the body by all the following episodes of gout
mechanisms except: 8. Daily intake amount of water in drinkable
a. Through air expired from the lungs form is . . . . . ml?
b. Through metabolic reactions taking a. 1600
place in the cells b. 2500
c. Through sweat given off at the skin c. 2000
d. From feces eliminated from the intestine 10:22 pm, 14/06/2023
5. The hormones aldosterone and ADH both d. 700
have an important function in: 9. Movement of water through a selectively
e. Fluid balance in the body preamble membrane from an area of low

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solute concentration to a higher c. Passive transport
concentration until equilibrium occurs; d. Facilitated diffusion
e. Diffusion 15. Which of the following is the example of
f. Facilitated Diffusion Isotonic Imbalance?
g. Osmosis a. Hypervalemia
h. Hypertonic b. Hyponatremia
10. The normal Na level in the ECF is; c. Hypokalemia
e. 190-195mmol/L d. Na gain in excess
f. 135-145mmol/L 16. Which of the following are the main signs &
g. 110-130mmol/L symptoms of Hypovolemia?
h. None e. Weakness , Fatigue
11. Most of the body's potassium is found in f. Orthostatic Hypotension
the: g. Flat jugular vein
e. Intracellular fluid h. All of the above
f. Extracellular fluid 17. All the following are important electrolytes
g. Plasma in the body except:
h. Interstitial fluid a. Potassium ions
12. Fluid in and around tissue spaces are known b. Carbon ions
as; c. Chloride ions
a. Intra vascular d. Sodium ions
b. Intra cellular 18. The intracellular fluid compartment refers to
c. Interstitial all the water found in:
d. Extracellular a. The bones of the body
13. Total body water in a normal person is........ b. Areas outside the body cells
of body weight; c. Areas within the gastrointestinal tract
a. 20% d. All cells of the body
b. 40% 19. Normal Hematocrit (Hct) level of a female
c. 60% body is;
d. 100% a. 42% - 52%
14. The passive movement of molecules across b. 35%-47%
the cell membrane via the aid of channels or c. 60-70%
proteins is called; d. 11-15%
a. Simple Diffusion
b. Active transport

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20. A nurse is caring for a pt who receiving a b. Water rush into the cell
low potassium diet. Which food should the c. Water flows out from the cell to
nurse teach the pt to avoid? interstitial spaces
a. Tomatoes soup d. The osmotic pressure is zero
b. Lima beans 26. A 30 year old male patient is admitted to
c. Spinach medical ward with elevated urine
d. All osmolarity , elevated BUN,HCT
21. A patient is diagnosis with dehydration and (hematocrit) what is this thi condition
hypokalemia which type of daily fluid a called?
patient is receiving; a. Hypokalemia
a. Normal saline b. Hyperkalemia
b. Ringer c. Hypovalemia
c. ORS d. Hyponatremia
d. Lasix 27. A patient is admitted with Dysrhythmias,
22. The most abundant intracellular cation is; and ECG show high, peaked T wave,
a. Na prolonged PR interval and widen QRS.
b. Cl- What can be the possible diagnose?
c. Mg+ e. Hypokalemia
d. K+ f. Hyperkalemia
23. Normal movement of fluids through the g. Hypovalemia
capillary wall into the tissues depends on ; h. Hypernatremia
a. osmotic pressure 28. An elderly patient comes to the clinic with
b. Hydrostatic pressure complaint of watery diarrhea for several
c. net filtration pressure days with abdominal and muscles cramping.
d. blood colloidal pressure The nurse realizes that this patient is
24. Serum potassium level less than 3.5mEq/L demonstrating which of the following
is called; condition?
e. Hyponatremia a. a.Hypernatremia
f. Hypovolemia b. Hyponatremia
g. Hypokalemia c. Fluid volume excess
h. Hypocrite decreases d. Hyperkalemia
25. W hen the concentration of solutes is same 29. The major extracellular cation is;
on both insides & outsides cells then; a. Potassium
a. Water leaves the cell b. Sodium

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c. Calcium a. Hypocalcemia
d. Magnesium
b. Hypernatremia
30. In which blood test do HIGH results mean
c. Hyponatremia
dehydration, bronchitis, Cushing’s disease,
diabetes insipidus and insufficient water intake? d. Hypokalemia

a. Sodium (Na) 33. . Normal removal of excess water in urine is

b. Hematocrit (Hct) known as;
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
a. Diuresis
d. Platelet count Hemoglobin (Hgb)
b. Diuretics
31. Which disorder has the following signs and
symptoms: hypotension, nausea, diarrhea, c. Osmotic Diuresis
increased bowel sounds, malaise, muscle
d. Filtration
weakness, decreased deep tendon reflexes,
personality changes, altered level of 34. What is seen earliest in an ECG of
consciousness, and possibly seizures? hyperkalemia?

a. Hypercalcemia a. Sine wave

b. Hypernatremia b. Peak T wave

c. Hypocalcemia c. Flattened p wave

d. Hyponatremia d. QRS widening

32. Which disorder may be caused by 35. The primary osmoreceptors are located in
insufficient water intake, insufficient sodium the
excretion due to hormone imbalance, renal
a. Pons.
failure, corticosteroids, increased water loss due
to fever, hyperventilation, increased metabolism, b. Kidney.
and dehydration due to sweating, vomiting or
diarrhea? c. Stomach.

d. Hypothalamus.

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Acid-Base Imbalance
1. Substance which produces hydrogen ions in a. Lungs
solution is called...
a. Acid b. Blood buffers
b. Base c. Kidney
c. Salt
d. All d. They work at the same rate
2. Electron pair donar is....
a. Acid 7. The metabolic parameter of the arterial blood
b. Base gases is the...
c. Alkali
a. pCO2
d. None
b. HCO3
3. Normal PH of blood is....
c. pO2
a. 7.55
d. Ph
b. 7.4
8. Normal amount of PCO2 in arterial blood is...
c. 7
a. 22-26 mmHg
d. 6.8
b. 35-45 mmHg
4. A solution which resists changing in PH is
called.... c. 80-100 mmHg

a. Acidic solution d. 4-16 mmHg

b. Basic solution 9. Body response to Acid-Base imbalance is

called...
c. Buffer solution
a. Neutralization
d. None
b. Buffering
5. All of the following are the chemical buffer
systems except... c. Compensation

a. Bicarbonate buffer system d. Orientation

b. Phosphate buffer system 10. High level of Co2 in blood is called...

c. Protein buffer system a. Hypercarbia

d. Respiratory buffer system b. Hypercapnia

6. Which of the following mechanisms is the c. Hypocapnia

fastest working in regulating pH?

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d. Both a & b 15. Which of the following is the most common
acid-base imbalance...?
11. Which of the following is non electrolyte...?
a. Respiratory alkalosis (due to
a. Acid hyperventilation)
b. Base b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Salt c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Urea d. Metabolic acidosis
12. In metabolic acidosis the arterial blood PH 16. The treatment of respiratory acidosis
will... includes;
a. Remain in between 7.35-7.45 a. IV fluid administration
b. More than 7.45 b. Bronchodilator administration
c. Less than 7.35 c. Encourage activity & exercise
10:41 pm, 20/07/2023
d. Diuretics administration
d. Both a & b
17. Which of the following would be a potential
13. In metabolic alkalosis as the PH increases cause for respiratory acidosis?
the HCO3 should;
a. Diarrhea
a. Remain normal
b. Vomiting
b. Decrease
c. Hyperventilation
c. Increase
d. Hypo-ventilation
d. None of the above
18. Mr. Rayan has the following ABGs results:
14. A 25 years old patient is admitted to PaO2 96, pH 7.47, PaCo2 44, and HCO3 32.
emergency department with severe diarrhea, his Which type of acid-base imbalance does Mr. R.
ABG's report shows a PH; 7.32,PCO2; 45mmHg have?

and HCO3; 18mmol/L. The correct a. Respiratory acidosis

interpretation of the report is;
b. Respiratory alkalosis

a. Respiratory alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis

b. Metabolic alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

c. Metabolic acidosis 19. A patient was presented to ER with ABG's

value PH=7.2, PCO2=36, HCO3=15. What will
d. Both a & b be your diagnose?

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a. Respiratory alkalosis d. Will eliminate H+ ions only

b. Metabolic alkalosis 23. PH less than 7.35 is related to...

c. Respiratory acidosis a. Alkalosis

d. Metabolic acidosis b. Acidosis

20. Normal bicarbonate (HCO3) in human c. Hyperglycemia

is......mEq/L
d. Hypernatremia
a. 12-18
24. If the patient has take intentionally overdose
b. 22-28 of salicylates (aspirin) which condition he will
develop.
c. 42-52
a. Metabolic Acidosis
d. 35-45
b. Respiratory alkalosis
21. The loss of bicarbonate ions from the body
through urine excretion; c. Both

a. Relieves the alkaline condition of the blood d. None of the above

b. Increase the excretion of protein from blood 25. A 20 years old patient was brought to
surgical intensive care unit with the complaint of
c. Has effect on nerve conduction system Myasthenia Gravis the ABG report shows, Ph =
d. Change temperature of body surface 7. 30mmhg, PCO2 = 60mmhg,
HCO3=28meq/dl. Find out the correct diagnose
22. In order to compensate respiratory acidosis for this patient.
kidney will;
a. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.
a. Eliminate HCO3 and retain H+ ions
b. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Will retain HCO3 only
c. Metabolic Acidosis
c. Retain HCO3 and eliminate H+ ions
d. Compensated respiratory acidosis

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Unit-6 Immunity, Hypersensitivity, AIDS

43. The human body capacity to resist almost all e. Innate Immunity
type of organism and toxins which tend to f. Active immunity
damage tissue or organs is called... g. Passive immunity
a. Homeostasis h. Acquired immunity
b. Immunity 49. Neutrophils, basophil, lymphocytes,
c. defecation eosinophil and monocytes are examples of
d. voiding ____
44. Which of the following is not a component e. Physical barrier
of immune system....? f. Cellular barriers
e. lymphocytes g. Cytokine barriers
f. neutrophils h. Physiological barriers
g. Macrophages 50. B-cells and T-cells are two types of cells
h. Platelets involved in _____
45. Which of the following immunity is e. Innate Immunity
obtained during a lifetime? f. Active immunity
e. Acquired immunity g. Passive immunity
f. Active immunity h. Acquired immunity
g. Passive immunity 51. Which of the following statements is true
h. None of the above about Passive Immunity?
46. How many types of antibodies are there? e. This immunity causes reactions
e. Five f. This immunity develops immediately
f. Three g. This immunity lasts only for a few
g. Two weeks or months
h. Four h. All of the above
47. Which of the following cells is involved in 52. Which of the following cells is involved in
cell-mediated immunity? cell-mediated immunity?
e. Leukemia e. T-cells
f. T cells f. B-cells
g. Mast cells g. Mast cells
h. Thrombocytes h. Both T and B cells
48. Which of the following immunity is present 53. Which of the following conveys the longest-
from our birth? lasting immunity to an infectious agent?

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e. Active immunity g. Passive immunity
f. Passive immunity h. Acquired immunity
g. Both (a) and (b) 59. Which antibody can transfer placenta?
11:21 pm, 27/07/2023 e. IgA
h. None of the above f. IgM
54. Which of the following does not act as a g. IgG
protecting barrier for the body surface? h. IgD
e. Skin 60. Which of these immunoglobulin classes is
f. Mucus mainly found in external secretion
g. Gastric acid e. IgM
h. Salivary amylase f. IgG
55. Which of the following cells is involved in g. IgA
humoral immunity? h. IgD
e. T-cells 61. Newborn get their antibody from mother
f. B-cells milk. This is an example of;
g. Mast cells e. Naturally acquired active immunity
h. Both T and B cells f. Naturally acquired passive immunity
56. Skin, body hair, cilia, eyelashes, the g. Artificially acquired active immunity
respiratory tract and the gastrointestinal tract h. Artificially acquired passive immunity
are examples of ____ 62. All of the following are the component of
e. Cytokine barriers innate immunity except;
f. Physical barriers e. Complement
g. Cellular barriers f. NK cells
h. Physiological barriers g. Macrophages
57. Cells Involved In Innate Immunity are_____ h. T cells
f. Phagocytes 63. CD4 are associated with;
g. Natural Killer e. Helper T cell
h. Macrophages f. Suppressor T cell
i. Cells g. NK cells
j. All of the above h. T cells antigen receptor complex
58. Which of the following immunity is called 64. Active immunity is not acquired by;
the first line of defence? e. Infection
e. Innate Immunity f. Vaccination
f. Active immunity g. Immunoglobulin transfer

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h. All of the above g. The Fc portion of the molecule
65. Opsonization occurs due to; h. The variable portion of the heavy and
e. Endotoxins light chain
f. Complement 71. Cell-mediated immunity is carried out
g. IgM by………….. While humoral immunity is
h. IgE mainly carried out by………………..
66. All of the following are the monomer e. B cells/T cells
structure antibodies except; f. Epitopes/antigens
e. IgE g. T cells/B cells
f. IgD h. Antibodies/antigens
g. IgA 72. The ability of the immune system to
h. IgG recognize self-antigens versus non self
67. Neutrophils and macrophages are the antigen is an example of:
components of ...... line of defence. e. Specific immunity
e. First f. Tolerance
f. 2nd g. Cell-mediated immunity
g. 3rd h. Humoral immunity
h. Cell mediate immunity 73. The antibody that is first formed after
68. B and T cells are produced by stem cells that infection is:
are formed in: e. IgG
e. Bone marrow f. IgM
f. The liver g. IgD
g. The spleen h. IgE
h. lymph nodes 74. Antibodies disappear very quickly in which
69. B cells mature in the……….. while T cells immunity?
mature in the; e. Active immunity
e. Thymus/bone marrow and gut- f. Naturally induced immunity
associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) g. Passive immunity
f. Spleen/bone marrow and GALT h. Autoimmune response
g. Bone marrow and GALT/thymus 75. A molecule that produces an immune
h. Liver/kidneys response is;
70. The specificity of an antibody is due to; e. Antigen
e. Its valence f. Antibody
f. The heavy chains g. Carcinogens

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h. Mutagen 81. Chemical substance that when introduced
76. Which of the following cells activate into the body is recognized as foreign body
macrophages and B cells; is called;
e. Helper T cells e. Antibody
f. Cytotoxic T cells f. Antigen
g. Suppressor T cells g. Drug
h. Memory T cells h. All of the above
77. During your clinical, you have a chance to 82. Which of the following is an antigen
administer oral polio vaccine to a 6 months presenting cell?
old infant. How does this vaccine develop e. Neutrophils
immunity? f. Macrophages
e. Naturally acquired active immunity g. T lymphocytes
f. Naturally acquired passive immunity h. Mast cells
g. Artificially acquired active immunity 83. First line of body defense is
h. Artificially acquired passive immunity a. Antibody molecules
78. A short term immunity that comes when free b. Unbroken skin
from antibodies is taken from some other c. Antigen molecules
source is called... d. Phagocytic cells
e. Active immunity 84. The major immunoglobulin present in the
f. Passive immunity human serum is;
g. Innate immunity a. IgG
h. All of the above b. IgA
79. Antibodies are made by; c. IgM
e. RBC's d. IgD
f. Platelets
43. Antibody formation depends on
g. B lymphocytes
a. Age of the person
h. T lymphocytes
b. Amount of antigen
80. Protection provide by skin is an example of;
c. Well being of the person
a. Specific defence
d. All of the above
b. Nonspecific defence
44. Antibodies are;
c. Passive
a. Proteins
d. Active
b. Glycoprotein’s
c. Phospholipids

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d. None of these 48. General purpose antibody is
a. IgA
45. Antigen-antibody reactions are
b. IgG
a. Reversible
c. IgD
b. Irreversible
d. IgM
c. Specific
49. ….plays a major role in allergic
d. Both a and b
reactions by sensitizing cells to certain
46. Acquired immunity can be antigens;
developed by a. IgA
a. Natural means b. IgE
b. Artificial means c. IgM
c. Both a and b d. IgG
d. None of these
50. Naturally acquired active immunity
47. Which of the following can would be most likely acquired through which of
provide? Naturally acquired the following processes?
passive immunity for the new a. Vaccination
born. b. Drinking colostrums
a. IgA c. Natural birth
b. IgG d. Infection with disease causing
c. IgE organism
d. IgM

51. Undesirable overactive immune responses to b. 3

a particular allergens or antigen are called;
c. 4
a. Tachphylaxis
d. 5
b. Tolrence
53. All of the following are the antibody
c. Hypersensitivity mediated hypersensitivity except ----- which is
cell mediated hypersensitivity?
d. Immunity
a. Type I
52. There are how many types of
hypersensitivity? b. Type II

a. 2 c. Type III

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d. Type IV 58. Which if the following is NOT a primary
product of degranulating masts cells;
54. Pollen would most likely evoke which type
of hypersensitivity response: a. Histamine

a. Immediate type (Type I) b. Il-12

b. Cytotoxic (Type II) c. Prostaglandins

c. Immune complex (Type III) d. Heparin

d. Cell-Mediated (Type IV) 59. Rheumatoid arthritis is a ……….disease that

affects the……….
55. Type II hypersensitivity is due to:
a. Autoimmune/ joints
a. Activation of cytotoxic T cells
b. Allergic/ cartilage
b. Pollen
c. Autoimmune/nerves
c. Mismatched blood types in transfusion
d. Immunodeficiency/ muscles
d. due to complement system
60. A tissue graft between two people who are
56. A positive tuberculin test is an example of;
not genetically identical is termed a:
a. Pollen allergic response
a. Allograft
b. Acute contact dermatitis
b. Xenograft
c. Delayed type hypersensitivity
c. Isograft
d. Type I hypersensitivity
d. Autograft
57. The predominant hypersensitivity reaction
61. An example of a type III immune complex
involving IgE is;
disease is:
a. Type I
a. Serum sickness
b. Type II
b. Graft rejection
c. Type III
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Type IV
d. Atopy

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62. Allergy to penicillin is an example of a. O/antibodies

a. Type I b. AB/ antibodies

b. Type II c. A/ antibodies

c. Type III d. O/antigens

d. Type IV 67. Which of the following is considered an

autoimmune disease?
63. T helper cell mediated hypersensitivity is;
a. Agammaglobulinemia
a. Type I
b. Aids
b. Type III
c. Scid
c. Type IV
d. Rheumatoid Arthritis
d. Type V
68. HIV has a high mutation rate due to the
64. K cells and IgG mediated hypersensitivity is;
imprecise operation of it’s:
a. Type II hypersensitivity
a. Reverse transcriptase
b. Type IV hypersensitivity
b. Viral membrane
c. Type I hypersensitivity
c. CD4 receptor
d. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Protease
65. “Wheal and flare” reaction is characteristic
69. What is the full form of AIDS?
reaction associated with identification of;
a. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
a. Type IV hypersensitivity
b. Assimilated Infectious Death Syndrome
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Auto Immunity Diseased Syndrome
c. Type I hypersensitivity
d. Auto-Immune Disorders
d. Type III hypersensitivity
70. AIDS is characterized by which of the
66. Theoretically, type………… blood can be
following?
donated to all persons because it lacks…………;

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a. Reduction in the number of platelets 74. Which of the following glycoprotein’s on the
protein coat of virus helps it in the attachment of
b. Very less RBC count
the virus to CD4 receptors?
c. Reduction in the number of T4 -
a. GP120
lymphocytes
b. GP41
d. Very High Blood Pressure
c. GP121
71. Through which of the following routes, the
transmission of AIDS does not take place? d. GP17

a. Parenteral Route 75. Which of these is a symptom of HIV

infection?
b. Sexual Route
a. Swollen lymph nodes
c. Transplacental Route
b. Fever
d. Faeco-oral Route
c. Tiredness
72. Why does AIDS patient start suffering from
other common infections? d. All of the above

a. The decrease in RBC count 76. A person has AIDS when which of these
occurs?
b. Reduction in the number of platelets
a. Exposure to HIV
c. Low WBC count
b. HIV antibodies are found in the blood
d. The decrease in the number of Helper T-
lymphocytes c. The CD4+ count is lower than 200 or
opportunistic infections develop in an HIV-
73. The genetic material of AIDS virus is ___;
infected person
a. Single-stranded DNA
d. A person has HIV for 5 years
b. Single-stranded RNA
77. The risk for HIV/AIDS is tied to behaviors.
c. Double-stranded DNA Which of these behaviors can put you at risk?

d. Double-stranded RNA a. Spending time with someone who has AIDS

b. Not wearing latex condoms during sex

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c. Injecting Narcotic drugs 82. AIDS is caused by HIV, among the
following, which one is not a mode of
d. B and C
transmission of HIV?
78. HIV can also spread through;
a. Transfusion of contaminated blood
a. Sharing water
b. Sharing the infected needles
b. Breathing in infected droplets
c. Shaking hands with infected persons
c. Sharing needles
d. Sexual contact with infected persons
d. Kissing
83. HIV belongs to which of the following genus
79. How many stages of HIV infection exist? member of the virus?

a. 3 a. Ortho myxovirus

b. 2 b. Retrovirus

c. 1 c. Parvovirus

d. No stages d. Reovirus

80. HIV is thought to have originated from; 84. Which of the following enzyme is required
for the viral replication process and plays a
a. Birds
critical role in the pathogenesis of HIV
b. Mosquitos infection?

c. Chimpanzees a. RNA polymerase

d. None of the above b. DNA polymerase

81. There are how many types of HIV? c. RNA polymerase II

a. 2 (HIV-I, HIV-II) d. Reverse transcriptase

b. 3 85. Which of the following bacterial infections

is predominant in chronic HIV-infected patients
c. 4
or AIDS?
d. 6
a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

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b. Tuberculosis a) Polysaccharides

c. Candidiasis b) Glycoprotein’s

d. Toxoplasmosis c) Proteins

86. All of the following are the active current d) Lipopolysaccharides

preventive methods for HIV infection,
89. The envelope protein gp120 (Glycoprotein
EXCEPT?
120) is required for the attachment of the HIV
a. Safe and protected sex virus to CD 4 receptors of target host cells.
Identify the immune cells that consist of CD 4
b. Use of sterile injection needles
receptors:
c. Use of available vaccines
a) T helper cells
d. Safe blood transfusion method
b) Monocytes
87. Select the opportunistic infections which are
c) Macrophages
common in the HIV/AIDS
d) Dendritic cells
a. Candidiasis
90. Which of the following is an important HIV
b. Toxoplasmosis
antigen in determining the early detection of
c. Meningitis HIV infection?

d. Pneumonia a) p24

e. All of the above b) gp120

88. Which of the following is an important c) Pol gene

molecule present in the outer membrane of HIV
d) Gp120
that helps the virus to enter the host cell and
cause infection?

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Unit-1 Introduction to HA Concepts

Q.1 ...... is a disorder or bad functioning d. Objective data
(malfunction of mind or body) which leads to
departure of good health; 5. A assessment technique in which critical
observation of client done without touching
a. Physical disease by nurse or health care provider is…

b. Health a. Inspection

c. Disease b. Palpation

d. Infectious disease c. Percussion

2. Which of the following is not dimension of d. Auscultation

health?
6. How many sub type of percussion there
a. Nutritional are....

b. Physical a.2

c. Social b. 3

d. Mental c. 4

3. A plan of care that identifies the specific d. 5

needs of the client and that needs will be
addressed by the healthcare system or skilled 7. If we identify the location and size, sound
nursing facility is… and boundary of the organ which step follow
by us;
a. Health identification
a. Percussion
b. Health assessment
b Palpation
c. Health examination
c. Assessment
d. Disease identification
d. Auscultation
4. A patient admit in general ward and has a
complain of vertigo a nurse check blood 8. After collecting the data, the nurse begins
pressure and inform to doctor it is called. . . data analysis with which action?

a. Subjective data a. Clustering data

b. Take vital sign of client b. Documenting subjective data

c. Health history c. Reporting information to other health team

members

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d. Documenting objective information c. Pulses present in lower extremities

9. After conducting the health interview, the d. Blood pressure 110/68

nurse begins to measure the client's vital
signs. The nurse is collecting: 13. During the assessment complains of
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. Which
a. Subjective data symptoms need to be assessed first?

b. Secondary data a. Fever

c. Constant data b. Nausea

d. Objective data c. Diarrhea

10. During the health assessment, the nurse d. Vomiting

reviews the client's laboratory data. This is an
example of… 14. In interview elicit a “yes” or “no”
response, to client this type of question are'
a. A primary source of information
a. Open question
b. Subjective data
b. Closed question
c. A secondary source of information
c. Direct ques-tion
d. Constant data
d. Indirect question
11. The nurse is looking at the information
collected during the health interview in an 15. When a nurse performed the physical
effort to cluster or group the data together. examination of abdomen the sequence of
The nurse is demonstrating which phase of examination should be;
the nursing process? a. Inspection, auscultation, Percussion,
a. Planning palpation

b. Evaluation b. Inspection, palpation, Percussion,

auscultation,
c. Diagnosis
c. Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion,
d. Assessment palpation

12. The nurse is documenting the findings d. Percussion, Inspection, auscultation,

from a health assessment. Which of the palpation
following demonstrates the documentation of
subjective information? 16. For which person is a screening
assessment indicated?
a. Abdomen soft and non tender to palpation
a. The person who had abdominal surgery
b. "It hurts when I put weight on my leg." yesterday

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b. The person who is unaware of his high d. Emergency
serum glucose levels
21. Which part of the SOAP progress note is
c. The person who is beginning rehabilitation the following statement?"Patient states:
after a knee replacement "Don't bother me!

17. Which phase of nursing process is based a. S-Subjective

on critical thinking?
b. O-Objective
a. Assessment
c. A-Assessment
b. Planning
d. P-Plan
c. Diagnosing
22. What does Focus charting DAR include?
d. Implementation
a. Data
18. In emergency Situation, Nurse should go
first for the assessment of; b. Action

a. Bone fracture c. Response

b. Circulation d. all of the above

c. Airway 23. This allows for better communication of

data to resolve the patient’s problems
d. Pulse collaboratively.

19. PIE--nursing based charting. PIE stand a. POMR

for...?
b. SOMR
a. Problem, information and Expectations
c. CBE
b. Public, information and ethics
d. Narrative Notes
c. Problem, intervention and etiology
24. Nurses use physical assessment skills to
d. Problem, Intervention and Evaluation
a. To identify and manage a variety of
20. Assessments can be done with an initial patient problems
assessment. They identify new or overlooked
problems. They are important because they b. To discharge the patient from hospital
can "flag “existing problems.

a. Initial c. To collect the health history

b. Focused d. To realize the patient importance to

relative
c. On-going

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25. When a client have a complain of severe c. Nondirective interview
headache a nurse assess that it is d. History taking step

a. Objective data 30. ___ is done alone and in combination with

other
b. Subjective data assessment techniques. . .

c. Client history a. Palpation

b. Inspection
d. Chief complain c. Auscultation
d. Percussion
26. During assessment a sounds produced by
striking body surface of individual 31. Clinical judgments about a person's
this step of technique is called… response to an actual or potential health
a. Subjective data state
b. Objective data
c. Inspection a. Biographic data
d. Percussion b. Source of History
c. Nursing diagnosis
27. A Stethoscope is used to listen the sounds d. Nurses use the medical model
produced by the body of 32. Which of the following are the types of
patient or individual this technique is called… assessment?

a. Inspection a. Initial
b. Palpation b. Focused
c. Percussion c. Emergency
d. Auscultation d. All of the above

28. When client have a complain of congested 33. Which of the following is an open
chest and sounds are audible ended question?
Without stethoscope it is… a. What brought you in today?
b. Where does it hurt?
a. Direct auscultation c. Have you been checking your blood
b. Indirect auscultation pressure?
c. Inspection d. When was the last time you were seen
d. Percussion by?
29. The interviews require less time and are 34. When discussing the nursing process with
very effective for obtaining factual a group of students, which of the following
data with specific questions and are statements best describes it?
controlled by the nurse…
a. Each step is independent of the others.
a. Interview b. It is ongoing and continuous.
b. Directive interview c. It is used primarily in acute care settings.

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d. It involves independent nursing actions. d. Age

35. When performing the steps of the 38. The position that maximizes the nurse’s
assessment phase of the nursing process, ability to assess the client’s body for
which of the following would the nurse do symmetry is:
first?
a. Sitting
a. Collect objective data b. Supine
b. Validate the data c. Prone
c. Collect subjective data d. Dorsal recumbent
d. Document the data
39. During nurse patient interviewing patient
36. Which of the following client situations told "Do you think I should tell the doctor?"
would the nurse interpret as requiring an
Nurse: "Do you think you should tell
emergency assessment?
the doctor?" which therapeutic
a. A client with severe sunburn technique is used by the Nurse
b. A client needing an employment physical a. Restating
c. A client who took a drug overdose b. Reflecting
d. A client who wants a pregnancy test c. Focusing
d. Exploring
37. The nurse is collecting data from a client.
Which of the following best reflects objective 40. All of the following are non-therapeutic
data? techniques except one

a. Asking two questions at one time

a. Religion
b. Offering false reassurance
b. Occupation
c. Asking leading or biased questions
c. Appearance
d. Asking open ended questions first

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Unit-2 Interviewing Skills & Health History

1. All of the following are the key principles 5. All of the following are the non verbal
of interview except: communication except:
a. Introduce yourself
a. Touch
b. Don't rush
c. Maintain eye contact b. Silence
d. Not listening actively
c. Conversation
2. There are how many phases of
d. Eye contact
interviewing:
6. For interviewing you will adopt which type
a. 2
of approach:
b. 3
a. Sympathetic
c. 4
b. Empathetic
d. 5
c. Personal
3. Built trust and rapport occur in which
7. All of the following are concern with family
phase of interview:
history except:
a. Introductory
a. Coronary artery disease
b. Working
b. Diabetes
c. Termination
c. Hypertension
d. None
d. Bone fracture
4. Standard distance for interviewing is up to:
8. Diet, exercise and Daily activities are type
a. 1 foot of........History?
b. 2 feet
a. Family
c. 2 meter
d. 4 feet b. Past

c. Social

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9. What are the purposes of an Interview? b. Functional health pattern

a. Identify health status, concerns and c. Reason for seeking care

problems
d. Family history
b. Screening
13. You are taking health history of a patient
c. Identify need for education and observe eyes seem yellow it describe
what of observation?
d. All Of The above
a. A sign
10. Type of interview which is Informal and
focused on specific area of concern, process b. A symptom
freedom, open ended;
c. An emergency
A. In Directive
d. A Complication of treatment
B. Directive
14. When reviewing a medical record you see
C. Interruptions the patient stated "I have had a cough for the
last 10 days and now my chest feels very
D. None
tight." What is this an example of?
11. Saying “hmm” or “go on” I m listening.
a. Functional assessment
This communication technique refers to:
b. Chief Complaint
a. Greeting
c. Past History
b. Empathetic
d. Normal finding
c. Facilitation
15. Which of the following is an example of
d. Reflection
subjective data?
12. A patient is in your office complaining of a
a. The patient presents with shaky hands.
sharp pain in his wrist. The patient complaint
best describe which element of health b. The patient has a pulse of 79
history?
c. The patient tells you her migraines have
a. Past history gotten worse since beginning nursing
school

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d. The patient has a BP of 110/40 a. Current physiologic status

16. What is the most important part of b. Effect of health on lifestyle

communication?
C. Past medical history
a. Listening
d. Motivation for compliance
B. Being assertive
20. The nurse is collecting data from a client.
c. Speaking clearly and directly Which of the following best reflects objective
data?
d. Giving ample time for your patient to
respond. a. Religion

17. Which of the following is an OBJECTIVE b. Occupation

data?
c. Appearance
a. Dizziness
d. Age
b. Anxiety
21. During nurse patient interviewing patient
c. Blue nails told "Do you think I should tell the doctor?"
Nurse: "Do you think you should tell the
d. Chest pain
doctor?" which therapeutic technique is used
18. What a person says about him or her by the Nurse,
during history taking.
a. Restating
a. Diagnostic reasoning
b. Focusing
b. Objective data
c. Reflecting
c. Subjective data
d. Exploring
d. Assessment, diagnosis, planning,
22. A nurse while taking interview from a 50
implementation, and evaluation
years old male patient, during the interview
19. In comparison with the physician's she maintain eye contact with the patient
medical exam, the comprehensive health and state “Go on”. What type of interviewing
assessment performed by the nurse focuses techniques has been demonstrated?
on which aspect?

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a. Reflection a. Accepting
b. Making observation
b. Echoing
c. Offering self
c. Clarification d. Giving advice

d. Facilitation 27. After completing the health history of a

health assessment, the nurse begins to ask
23. While interviewing patient you are asking
more questions about specific information.
questions about pain according to FHP which
This portion of the health assessment is:
pattern you are assessing:
a. Documentation follow up
a. Activity And Exercise Pattern
b. Interpretation of findings
b. Cognitive Perceptual Pattern
c. Focus interview
c. Rest And Sleep Pattern
d. Physical assessment
d. Self-perception /self concept pattern
28. Secondary prevention focuses
24. The collection of subjective and objective on______________.
data provided by the client and compelled by
a. Protecting from disease
health professional.
b. Early detection and treatment of a
a. health history disease
b. physical examination c. Decreasing the effects of a disease or
c. General survey disability& Rehabilitation
d. Inspection d. All of the above

25. Which individual typically would be 29. Moving From Open-Ended to Focused
responsible for collecting the subjective data Questions is one of the :
on a client during the initial comprehensive
a. Mon therapeutic techniques
assessment?
b. Therapeutic techniques
a. Physician c. Both A & B
b. Nurse d. None of the above
c. Secretary
30. Use of therapeutic self-come under which
d. Technician
phase

26. Which of the following is non therapeutic

a. Introductory
communication techniques?

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b. working phase d. Both a and c

c. Termination phase

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Unit-3 Introduction to PE & the General Survey

1. Physical examination starts from? a. Mid-auxiliary line
a. Introduce yourself to the patient b. Over the sternum
b. Positioning of the patient c. Mid clavicular line 5th intercostals
c. Wearing gloves space
d. Washing hands d. 3rd intercostals space
2. The best sequence for abdominal 6. A pregnant woman is most likely to
examination is; demonstrate which of the following
a. Inspection, palpation, percussion and alterations in her posture, which is
auscultation directly related to her pregnancy?
b. Inspection, percussion, palpation and a. Kyphosis
auscultation b. Lordosis
c. Inspection, auscultation, palpation c. Scoliosis
and percussion d. List
d. Auscultation, palpation, inspection 7. This part of the body is used to assess
and percussion pulsation (Pulse), texture and shape;
3. To percuss the liver of an adult, where a. Finger pads
should the nurse begin the assessment? b. Back of the hand
a. Right upper quadrant c. Palm
b. Right lower quadrant d. Ulnar surface
c. Left upper quadrant 8. The type of percussion used for the
d. Left Lower quadrant assessment of lungs is called;
4. The nurse is planning to assess the a. Direct
abdomen of an adult male. What should b. indirect
be done first? c. Blunt
a. Ask client to empty bladder d. Both
b. Place the client in side-lying position 9. All of the following are the techniques of
c. Ask client to hold his breath for a few Physical Examination except one;
seconds a. Inspection
d. Tell client to raise arms above the b. Palpation
head c. Auscultation
5. Apical heart sound is best heard at ______; d. Olfaction

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10. There are how many types of palpation? b. Scoliosis
a. 2 c. Listerosis
b. 3 d. Lordosis
c. 4 16. A client’s abnormality in gait, ataxia, and
d. 5 uncoordinated muscles while walking
11. The type of percussion is used for the indicates;
assessment of Frontal and Maxillary a. Neuromuscular system
sinuses: b. Renal system
a. Direct c. Cardiovascular system
b. indirect d. GI tract
c. Blunt 17. To explore the symptom pain which
d. Both direct and indirect approach the nurse can use?
12. Neck flexion normal range of motion of a. COLDERR
degree is ... b. COCA
a. 40 to 80 c. GCS
b. 30 to 40 d. APGAR
c. 110 to 180 18. The striker finger during percussion is
d. All called;
13. Abnormal Breath Sounds Are Called ... a. Pleximeter
a. Bronchovesicular b. Plexor
b. Bronchial c. Both A & B
c. Tracheal d. None of the above
d. Adventitious 19. The best position for abdominal
14. This part of the body is best for assessment is;
measuring temperature during physical a. Sitting position
examination of the skin... b. Supine position with arms at the
a. Finger pads side and knees bent
b. Back of the hand c. Side lying position
c. Palm of the hand d. Prone position
d. Finger tip 20. The nurse is preparing to assess a client
15. Increase lateral curvature of the lumbar with flank pain and discomfort and pink-
spine is called as: tinged urine. Which of the following
a. Kyphosis

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assessment techniques would be a. Toe to head
appropriate for the nurse to use? b. Head to toe
a. Direct percussion c. Toe to toe
b. Blunt percussion d. All of the above
c. Reflexive percussion 26. An 8-year-old boy is returned to his room
d. Indirect percussion following a tonsillectomy. He remains
21. While doing a physical examination with sleepy from the anesthesia but is easily
a 2 year old child, which assessment awakened. The nurse should place the
should be done last? child in which of the following positions?
a. Rectal temperature a. Sims
b. Breath sounds b. supine
c. Apical heart rate c. prone
d. Motor functions d. Side lying
22. In reproductive assessment which two of 27. What are the purposes of a physical
the following examination techniques are examination?
not implemented? a. To obtain baseline data
a. Inspection and auscultation b. To identify nursing diagnoses
b. Inspection and palpation c. To monitor the status of a previously
c. Auscultation and percussion identified problem
d. Percussion and palpation d. All of the above
23. The normal capillary refill time is;
a. 3 seconds 28. What are the components of a general
b. 5 seconds survey?
c. 7 seconds a. Appearance and behavior
d. 1 second b. Body type and posture
24. To explore the vomiting which of the c. Height and Weight
following the nurse can use? d. All of the above
a. COLDERR 29. What is the proper sequence of four
b. COCA techniques of physical examination?
c. Both A & B a. Auscultation, percussion, palpitation
d. None of the above and inspection
25. In physical examination the _____ b. palpation ,inspection ,auscultation
approach is used; and percussion

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c. Inspection, palpation, auscultation b. Physical appearance
and percussion c. Mobility
d. Inspection , palpation , percussion d. Age-related considerations
and auscultation 34. The nurse notices that a client walks with
30. Measure the leg circumference of a client a limp and has long legs. Which of the
with bipedal edema is best done in what following aspects of the general survey is
position... this nurse assessing?
a. Dorsal recumbent a. Physical appearance
b. Sitting b. Mental status
c. Standing c. Mobility
d. Supine d. Behavior
31. The best position for any procedure that 35. There are how many types of percussion?
involves vaginal and cervical examination a. 2
is; b. 3
a. Dorsal recumbent c. 4
b. Side lying 36. A nurse needs to obtain a pulse on a
c. Lithotomy client. Which physical assessment
d. Supine technique should the nurse use?
32. During the interview with Mr. Miller, the a. light palpation
nurse observes his body shape and build. b. deep palpation
The examiner also notes that he is well c. both a and b
nourished and appears his stated age. d. percussion
What component of the general survey
37. This abnormal yellow appearance is due
has the nurse observed?
to a liver disorder
a. Mental status
b. Physical appearance a. Hematomas
c. Behavior of client b. Jaundice
d. Mobility c. Pallor
33. During the interview with Mr. Miller, the d. Erythema
nurse asks the client, “What is today’s 38. Which examination technique involves
date?” Which component of the general listening to internal body sounds with a
survey is the nurse assessing? stethoscope?
a. Mental status a. Auscultation

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b. Percussion d. Sitting
c. Inspection 40. During assessment a sounds produced by
d. Manipulation striking body surface of individual
39. A seated position back unsupported and This step of technique is called
legs’ hanging freely is a. Subjective data
a. Dorsal recumbent b. Objective data
b. Sims c. percussion
c. Lithotomy

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Unit-4 Assessment of Skin, Head & Neck

1. The largest organ of the human body is... 7. The degree of pitting edema is measured
a. Heart on a scale of;
b. Lung a. 1 to 6
c. Skin b. 1 to 5
d. Liver c. 1 to 4
2. Integumentary system is made of; d. 1 to 3
a. Skin, hair , nails, bones 8. Jaundice is often the results of;
b. Skin, heart, nails a. Infection
c. Skin, hair, nails b. Renal disease
d. Kidney and heart c. Liver disorder
3. Human skin composed of layers... d. Cardiac disorder
a. 2 9. Normal capillary refill time is;
b. 3 a. Less than 1 sec
c. 4 b. Less than 3 sec
4. The skin color is due to . . . . . Cell; c. Less than 10 sec
a. Melanocytes d. More than 10 sec
b. Langerhans 10. Normal color of nail is...
c. Markel a. Bluish
d. None b. Pinkish
5. Bluish discoloration of the skin is known c. Yellowish
as; d. Dark red
a. Erythema 11. One of the following assessments is not
b. Cyanosis considered palpation of skin...
c. Clubbing a. Temperature
d. Jaundice b. Moisture
6. Central cyanosis is best assessed by; c. Texture
a. Ears d. Odor
b. Nails 12. This color can result from blood loss, lack
c. Lips of circulation, anemia, anxiety or fear,
d. Cheeks cold cigarette smoking;
a. Cyanosis

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b. Pallor d. Bullae
c. Jaundice 17. Ms.Sidra is a 20 year old young female,
d. Erythema who presented to the hospital with the
13. The macule is; complaint of Acne. On examination you
a. Primary skin lesion noticed lesions characterized by an
b. Secondary skin lesion elevated cavity containing thick, turbid
c. Not a skin lesion fluid which are called;
d. None of the above a. Papule
14. The ease with which a fold of skin lifts up b. Vesicle
in physical examination of skin is known c. Bulla
as; d. Pustule
a. Mobility 18. Which of the following is primary lesion;
b. Elasticity a. Patch
c. Tension b. Nodule
d. Texture c. Scale
15. Mr. Salar is a 54-year old patient on his d. Crust
initial assessment the nurse note a non e. A & B both
palpable change in skin color larger than 19. A 15 year old patient entered the
1 cm in size. Which of the following term examination room, on examination the
best describes this lesion? nurse noted that the angle between the
a. Macule nail plate and nail is more than 180
b. Patch degrees , this examination is termed as;
c. Fissure a. Normal nail
d. Acne b. Clubbing
16. Zonaira a 30 year old female patient who c. Paronychia
represents with a complaint of skin d. Koilonychia
problem. On examination you note 20. The skin lesion that are found by the
circumscribed, elevated Superficial nurse during physical examination of a
lesions, containing free fluid smaller than patient and described as firm, edematous
0.5 cm in diameter, which are called; and irregularly shaped areas of varying
a. Pustule diameter are called;
b. Vesicles a. Macule
c. Wheals b. Papule

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c. Wheal b. The head measures 1/7th of the
d. Pustule adult body size.
21. A client comes into the clinic complaining c. The head is 1/5th the weight of the
of ear pain. During the examination, the person.
nurse notes swelling directly in front of d. The head measures 5-9 inches
the client’s right ear. Which lymph nodes 25. The sternocleidomastoids divide the neck
should the nurse document as being into a portion called the anterior cervical
edematous? triangle. Which of the following would not
a. Post auricular be found in this physiological region?
b. Preauricular a. Anterior cervical lymph nodes
c. Submental b. Cervical spine
d. Occipital c. Jugular veins
22. The type of percussion is used for the d. Thyroid
assessment of Frontal and Maxillary 26. In the larynx of a male, which anatomical
sinuses: structure forms Adam’s apple?
a. Direct a. Arytenoid cartilage
b. indirect b. Epiglottis
c. Blunt c. Thyroid cartilage
d. Both direct and indirect d. Cricoid cartilage
23. The presence of red glow on Trans- 27. Name the largest endocrine gland in the
illumination of the frontal sinuses body.
indicates: a. Ovaries
a. Normal sinuses b. Adrenal gland
b. Presence of Exudate c. Hypothalamus
c. Sinusitis d. Thyroid
d. Sinus blockage 28. A patient comes in complaining of head
24. After measuring your adult, males client’s and neck problems. Out of the following,
height and head length, which proportion which is the least likely to be one of their
would be the best indication of a chief complaints?
normocephalic head size? a. Swollen lymph nodes
a. The head measures 6 inches shorter b. Neck pain and stiffness
than the left arm span. c. Vertigo
d. Headache

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29. Bell’s palsy is best defined as asymmetry d. At the base of the skull
affecting ___. 34. You are assessing the lymph nodes of the
a. The mouth head and neck. Where are the submental
b. The eyelids nodes located?
c. The lower face a. Under the jaw
d. The entire side of the face b. Behind the ears
30. lymph nodes should not be ____ in the c. Under the chin
healthy adult patient. d. At the angle of the jaw
a. Tender 35. You are assessing the lymph nodes of the
b. Too close together head and neck. Where are the posterior
c. Palpable cervical nodes located?
d. Under muscle masses a. On the sternomastoid muscle
31. When assessing the face, which area is b. In the anterior angle
best for assessing symmetry of facial c. In the posterior triangle
features? d. Above the clavicle
a. Nasolabial folds 36. A patient is admitted to the ENT ward on
b. Inner canthus initial examination of tonsils you find that
c. Anterior triangle the tonsils meet the mid line of the throat
d. Posterior triangle what grade of tonsil you will document?
32. The anterior and posterior triangles are a. 1
two landmarks used to assess the neck. b. 2
What two muscles make up these c. 3
triangles? d. 4
a. Omohyoid and trapezius 37. Among the four techniques of assessment
b. Masseter and sternomastoid which one is used for the assessment of
c. Trapezius and sternomastoid Sinuses?
d. Temporalis and omohyoid a. Auscultation
33. You are assessing the lymph nodes of the b. Palpation
head and neck. Where are the occipital c. Percussion
nodes located? d. Inspection
a. In front of the ears 38. Which of the following is not lymph node
b. Behind the sternomastoid muscle of the neck;
c. Behind the ears a. Deep Trapizious

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b. Preauricular 43. The nurse is palpating a client's neck as
c. Superficial part of a physical assessment. Which of
d. Superaclaviculer the following blood vessels should the
39. Neutral, Hyper extended, swallowing for nurse be especially careful to avoid
masses, symmetry, condition of the skin & bilaterally compressing during the
ROM used the assessment of which assessment?
organ? a. External Jugular Vein
a. Head b. Carotid Artery
b. Neck c. Temporal Artery
c. Face d. Internal jugular vein
d. Ear ,nose& mandible 44. A client is having trouble turning her head
40. sensorineural hearing loss is the result of to the side. Which of the following
abnormality in ____; muscles should the nurse most suspect as
a. External Ear being involved?
b. Middle Ear a. Masseter
c. Internal Ear b. Temporalis
d. A&B Both c. Sternocleidomastoid
41. A nurse is assessing a client with d. Trapezius
hyperthyroidism for the presence of a 45. In reviewing a client's health history, the
bruit. Which assessment technique nurse notes that the client has had a
should the nurse use? history of TMJ pain. The nurse recognizes
a. Palpation that which of the following bones is
b. Percussion involved in this dysfunction?
c. Inspection a. Parietal Bone
d. Auscultation b. Mandible
42. Which instruction to the client will help c. Maxilla
facilitate examination of the tempo d. Frontal bone
mandibular joint by the nurse?
46. Upon examination of the head and neck
a. Perform A Chewing Action
of a client, a nurse notes that the
b. Open The Mouth
submandibular nodes are tender and
c. Sit Without Moving
enlarged. The nurse should assess the client
d. Sit upright
for further findings related to what condition?
a. Acute infection

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b. Chronic infection c. Flex The Head Toward The Side Being
c. Cushing's disease Examined
d. Metastatic disease d. Flex the head away from the side being
examined
47. A nurse needs to palpate a client's
49. While performing an examination of the
submandibular lymph nodes. Where should
head and neck, a nurse notices left-sided
the nurse place her hands to do this?
facial drooping. The nurse recognizes this as
a. On The Medial Border Of The Mandible
what condition?
b. At The Posterior Base Of The Skull Bone
a. Preauricular Adenitis
c. At The Angle Of The Mandible On The
b. Trigeminal Neuralgia
Anterior Edge Of The Sternomastoid
c. Bells Palsy
Muscle
d. Temporomandibular joint syndrom
d. A Few centimeters behind the tip of the
50. The nurse is palpating a client's cervical
mandible
vertebrae. Which vertebra can be easily
48. A nurse needs to examine a client's
palpated when the neck is flexed and
thyroid as part of the head and neck
Should help the nurse locate the other
assessment.
vertebra?
How should the nurse instruct the client to
a. C1
position his head to best facilitate this exam?
b. C5
a. Hyperextend The Head, Keeping Midline
c. C3
Alignment
d. C7
b. Hyperextend The Head To The Side Being
Examined

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Unit-5 Assessment of Nose, Mouth & Pharynx

1. Bleeding from the nose is called... 6. While examining the upper surface of the
a. Heamaturia tongue, the nurse noted bald tongue; this
b. Heamangioma condition may be caused by:
c. Epistaxis a. Dehydration
d. Heamemeses b. Excessive smoking
2. Which type of percussion is used for the c. Fever
assessment of nasal sinuses...? d. Iron deficiency anemia
a. Direct 7. During oral cavity assessment nurse
b. Indirect notice patient lips color is bluish that
c. Blunt indicates which of the following
d. All condition;
3. A patient has difficulty in swallowing a. Anemia
medication and foods. The nurse would b. Systemic Allergy
document that this patient has; c. Hypoxia
a. Aphasia d. Polycythemia
b. Anorexia 8. On inspection back of the throat appears
c. Dyspepsia bright red with white or yellow exudates
d. Dysphasia show sign of;
4. Para nasal sinuses percussion is a. Tonsillitis
performed to assess; b. Pharyngitis
a. Tenderness c. Laryngitis
b. Discharge d. Sinusitis
c. Blockage 9. When nurse ask client to occlude with
d. Location finger right nostril then left nostril and
5. Bleeding from the gums occur in all of the sniff in this way she is checking;
following conditions except one: a. Nasal Obstruction
a. Acute leukemia b. Odor
b. Thrombocytopenia c. Nasal patency
c. Scurvy d. Sinusitis
d. Chronic lead poisoning 10. Which of the following structure is
located across the upper molar teeth?

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a. Frenulum d. Pattern
b. Tonsils 15. Which sinuses can we examine...?
c. Parotid gland a. Sphenoid
d. Uvula b. Frontal
11. A patient complained loss of taste which c. Maxillary
of the following answer nurse will d. Both b & c
probably give; 16. Tonsils touching each other mark as.....
a. Zinc deficiency grade tonsils.
b. 7th cranial nerve defect a. 1
c. 10th cranial nerve defect b. 2
d. Both A&B c. 3
12. A staff nurse on inspection of mouth d. 4
found protrusion of upper and lower 17. Cheery red lips indicate...?
incisors this condition she documented as a. Anemia
: b. Hypoxemia
a. Tooth decay c. Acidosis
b. Periodonitis d. Shock
c. Malocclusion 18. Mucous lined, air filled cavities that
d. Missing teeth surround the nasal cavity and perform
13. The roof of oral cavity is made up of the same air processing functions of
anterior part as hard plate and posterior filtration, moistening and warming are...?
part is called... a. Nasal septum
a. Uvula b. Palate
10:35 pm, 21/07/2023 c. Uvula
b. Palatine pillar d. Para nasal sinuses
c. Pharynx 19. Presenting some fragrance to a patient to
d. Soft palate test the sense of smell the nurse knows to
14. When nurse asked patient how long your test which cranial nerves function?
sore throat lasts? She is asking the ...... of a. CN I
infection. b. CN II
a. Onset c. CN IV
b. Location d. CN VII
c. Duration

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20. Normally healthy tonsils contains..... 25. It innervates tongue muscles that
Grams in weight. promotes the movement of food and
a. 10-15 talking:
b. 15-20 a. Abducent nerve
c. 20-25 b. Trocheal nerve
d. 25-30 c. Hypoglossal nerve
21. ......... Sinuses located deeper in the skull. d. Glossospharyngeal nerve
a. Maxillary 26. A 70-years-old woman complains of dry
b. Sphenoid mouth. The most frequent cause of this
c. Ethmoid problem is:
d. Both B & C a. Aging process
22. Translumination of frontal sinuses should b. Related to medication she may be
be assess in....... room. taking
a. Lightened c. Use of dentures
b. Dark d. Atrophy of esophagus
c. Warm 27. Cleft palate is a congenital defect where
d. Ventilated the maxillary process fails to fuse. This
23. The presence of red glow on cause a gap in the:
translumination of the frontal sinuses a. Hard palate and possibly the lower lip
indicates: b. Soft palate and possibly the upper lip
a. Normal sinuses c. Hard palate and possibly the upper
b. Sinusitis lip
c. Presence of exudates d. Hard palate and possibly the corner of
d. Sinus blockage the lip
24. The cranial nerve that has sensory fibers 28. There are how many paranasal sinuses?
for taste and fibers that result in the " gag a. 2
reflux" is the: b. 3
a. Optic nerve c. 4
b. Trigeminal nerve d. 5
c. Hypoglossal nerve
29. Submandibular gland Located in the
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve
lower jaw open under the tongue opening
called …
a. stenson’s duct

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b. Wharton’s duct a. Dysgeusia
c. Mandibular duct b. Parageusia
d. Lackrimal duct c. Ageusia
30. Complete lack of taste is called... d. Hypogeusia

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Unit-6 Assessment of Abdomen, Anus & Rectum

1. The nurse is planning to assess the a. Obturator sign
abdomen of an adult male. What should
b. Psoas sign
be done first?
c. McBurney Sign
a. Ask client to hold his breath for a few
seconds d. all of the above

b. Place the client in side-lying position 5. Which of the following tests is used to
assess ascites?
c. Ask client to empty bladder
a. Test for shifting dullness
d. Tell client to raise arms above the head
b. Test for a fluid wave
2. For Accurate assessment purpose the
abdomen can be divided into __ regions. c. Rovsing sign

a. 4 d. Both A & B

b. 6 6. To percuss the liver of an adult, where

should the nurse begin the assessment?
c. 8
a. Right upper quadrant
d. 9
b. Right lower quadrant
3. In abdominal examination auscultation is
done before performing percussion or c. Left upper quadrant
palpation because;
d. Left lower quadrant
a. Alteration in bowel sounds may occur
7. The liver span is assessed at;
b. There is no effect on bowel sounds
a. MCL (Mid Clavicular line)
c. It may cause pain in abdomen
b. MSL (Mid sternal Line)
d. Both B & C
c. MAL (Mid Auxiliary Line)
4. In appendicitis the following signs are
d. both A & B
positive;

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8. The best position for abdominal b. Resonance
assessment is;
c. Dullness
a. Sitting position
d. Flatness
b. Supine position with arms at the side
12. For which time period would the nurse
and knees bent
notify the health care provider that the client
c. Side lying position had no bowel sounds?

d. Prone position a. 3 minutes

9. The spleen is palpated; b. 5 minutes

a. At mid-auxiliary line on the left side of the c. 2 minutes

body
d. 4 minutes
b. At mid-auxiliary line on the right side of the
13. The vertical span of liver is examined
body
through which of the following technique;
c. At the mid clavicular line on the left side of
a. Inspection
the body
b. Palpation
d. At the mid clavicular line on the right
side of the body c. Percussion

10. The normal liver space at mid-clavicular d. Auscultation

line ranges from;
14. Hooking technique is used for obese
a. 5 to 8 cm patient to assess which of the following
organ;
b. 3 to 5 cm
a. Liver
c. 6 to 12 cm
b. Kidney
d. 2 to 4 cm
d. Appendix 10:44 pm, 28/07/2023
11. This is heard when you percuss the liver;
15. Percussion tenderness is done on
a. Hyper resonance
costovertebral angle to assess;

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a. Heart 19. Abdominal gases usually produce which
sound;
b. Liver
a. Resonance
c. Lungs
b. Hyper resonance
d. Kidney
c. Tympany
16. Discoloration over the umbilicus
indicates; 20. Rebound tenderness when pressure is
relieved indicates;
a. Blumberg sign
a. Positive McBurney sign
b. Gray Turner's sign
b. Positive Cullen sign
c. Cullen sign
c. Positive psoas sign
d. Mc Burney sign
d. Positive Blumberg sign
17. Normal bowel sounds occur in one
minute; 21. Positive Murphy's sign indicate pain of;

a. 11-25 a. Kidney

b. 5-34 b. Spleen

c. 12-20 c. Gall bladder

d. 7-16 d. Rectal

18. Abdominal gases can be assessed 22. Felling of incomplete defecation is called;
through;
a. Pilonidal sign
a. Inspection
b. Pruritus anus
b. Auscultation
c. Rectal tenesmus
c. Percussion
d. Fecal impaction
d. Palpation
23. Rectal examination is done with client
in.... Position.

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a. Dorsal recumbent d. Protuberant

b. Sim's 27. For the spleen to be palpable it must be;

c. Supine a. Enlarged three times its normal size

24. The nurse knows that during an b. Twice its normal size
abdominal assessment, deep palpation is
c. Located superficially under the 11th rib
used to determine;
d. Rotated to the left side
a. Bowel motility
28. Purpose of...... is to find out the density of
b. Enlarged organs
the tissue.
c. Superficial tenderness
a. Palpation
d. Overall impression of the skin
b. Auscultation
25. Which of these percussion findings would
c. Percussion
the nurse expect to find in a patient with a
large amount of ascites? d. Inspection

a. Dullness across the abdomen 29. To palpate tenderness of an adult's

appendix, where should you begin?
d. Flatness in the RUQ
a. Left lower quadrant
c. Hyper resonance in LUQ b. Left upper quadrant
c. Right lower quadrant
d. Tympany in right & LLQ
d. Right upper quadrant
26. A patient abdomen is bulging and
30. Which term would the nurse use to
stretched in appearance. The nurse should
documentpain at one site that is perceived in
describe this finding as;
other site?
a. Obese
a. Phantom pain
b. Herniated
b. Aftermath of pain

c. Scaphiod c. Referred pain

d. d. intractable pain

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Unit-7 Assessment of Breast, Axilla & Genitalia

1. Self-breast examination is helpful in the types of hernias is more common in
screening of: females?
a. lungs cancer a. Direct hernia
b. breast cancer b. Indirect hernia
c. both A & B c. Femoral hernia
d. only A d. Sliding hernia
2. The best position for any procedure that 6. Self breast examination in supine
involves vaginal and cervical examination position, individual should lie down with
is; pillow under your;
a. Dorsal recumbent a. Left shoulder
b. Side lying b. Right shoulder
c. Supine c. Breast
d. Lithotomy d. Back
3. In reproductive assessment which two of 7. Storage and transport of sperm cells,
the following examination techniques are sperm maturation occur in;
not implemented? a. Prostate gland
a. Inspection and auscultation b. Seminal vesicle
b. Inspection and palpation c. Epididymis
c. Auscultation and percussion d. Penis
d. Percussion and palpation 8. A tight prepuce that cannot be retracted
4. The best time to do the self-Testicular over the glans is;
exam is: a. phimosis
a. after a bath or shower b. Para phimosis
b. before a bath or shower c. balanitis
c. in the morning d. balanoposthitis
d. at bed time 9. A congenital ventral displacement of the
5. Hira comes to your office with her 12- meatus on the penis is known;
year-old daughter with a complaint of a a. excoriation
lump in her groin. On examination you b. hypospadias
detect a hernia. Which of the following c. urethritis
d. gonorrhea

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10. Breast examination can be done in -------- b. Suspensory ligaments
position? c. Axillary tail
a. sitting d. Acini cells
b. standing 16. Thick, yellow discharge that may leak
c. supine from breasts in the month prior to birth
d. all of the above in preparation for lactation;
11. All of the following methods are used for a. Gynecomastia
breast examination except? b. Colostrum
a. Wedge method c. Peau d'orange
b. Strip method d. Galactorrhea
c. Circle method 17. Benign temporary breast enlargement in
d. Hook method one or both breasts in males;
12. Delayed puberty if no pubic hair or breast a. Gynecomastia
development has occurred by age of ; b. Galactorrhea
a. 10 c. Colostrum
b. 13 d. Peau d'orange
c. 18 18. Orange peel" appearance caused by
d. 22 edema from blocked lymphatic drainage
13. Breast tissue that extends in advanced cancer;
superiolaterally into the axilla; a. Cancer Colostrum
a. Areola b. Gynecomastia
b. Acni cells c. Peau d'orange
c. Axillary tail d. Galactorrhea
d. Mammary Ridge 19. Lactation not associated with
14. Glandular tissue in each breast that childbearing or breast-feeding;
produce milk; a. Galactorrhea
a. Areola b. Peau d'orange
b. Montgomery's glands c. Gynecomastia
c. Axillary tail d. None of the above
d. Acini cells 20. A client asks the nurse, "Why do I need to
15. Milk line", which extends from each axilla examine my underarms when I perform
to the groin; my breast exam?" Which of the following
a. Mammary ridge

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is the most appropriate response for the d. Women can stop breast self exams
nurse to make to this client? after menopause
a. Breast tissue extends into the axilla 23. Which of the following positions
b. This is the hardest area to feel for accentuates the presence of dimpling
changes during the inspection phase of breast
c. This is the least likely area for breast assessment?
cancer to occur. a. Sitting with arms relaxed at the sides
d. It is easier to detect abnormalities in b. Leaning forward with arms in front of
this area than in the breast tissue the client
21. What is the nurse assessing when c. Sitting with arms raised over the
performing a breast assessment on a head
client and palpating along the inner d. Supine with arm elevate
aspect of the humerus? 24. During a breast assessment, the nurse
a. Brachial (lateral axillary) nodes notes an inverted right nipple. The nurse
b. Pectoral nodes knows that this is:
c. Subscapular nodes a. A significant finding if it is recent
d. Central axillary nodes b. Always indicative of a slow growing
22. A 65-year-old female client wants to tumor
know if she should still continue to c. A normal finding in most women
perform self breast assessments. The d. Usually found on lactating mothers
most appropriate response by the nurse 25. Among the following choose the best
is: position for male client genital parts
a. Breast cancer can still develop examination?
when you get older. a. Side Lying
b. After age 60, it is not really necessary. b. Standing
c. Self exam is not necessary if you get c. Kneelin
yearly mammograms

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Unit-I Introduction to Pharmacology

Q.1 Pharmacology word derived from... a. General

a. Latin b. Basic

b. Italian c. Specific

c. English d. Clinical

d. Greek 6. The study of drugs in animals for treatment of

disease is called........pharmacology?
2. Study of drugs and their interaction with
living system is called. . . a. Medicine

a. Bioavailibity b. Dosage

b. Efficacy c. Clinical

c. Pharmacology d. Physiological

d. Toxicology 8. Any substances which change the physiology

of cell, tissue, organ, or organism are called.....
3. Amoxillin inhibits the synthesis of..........
Mucopeptide by bacteria that cause the a. Medicine
infection:
b. Drug
a. DNA
c. Dosage
b. Enzyme
d. Analgesic
c. Cell wall
9. Physical form of the medicine is called.....
d. RNA
a. Dose
4. On basis of study of drugs pharmacology is
divided into........branches? b. Drugs

a. 6 c. Dosage

b. 4 d. Potency

c. 3 10. WHO define drug in......

d. 2 a. 1960

5. The study of drugs in isolated tissue animal or b. 1962

other livings for experimental work is called.... c. 1964
pharmacology?

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d. 1966 a. Therapeutic

11. Pharmacokinetics is: b. Toxicology

a. The study of biological and therapeutic effects c. Analgesics

of drugs
d. Antipyretics
b. The study of absorption, distribution,
metabolism and excretion of drugs 17. The investigation of the mechanisms of drug
action, including how drugs bind to receptors,
c. The study of mechanisms of drug action alter enzyme activity, or affect other cellular
processes is called....
d. The study of methods of new drug
development a. pharmacokinetics

12. The amount of the drug to be taken is b. pharmacodynamic

called....
c. First pass effect
a. Dose
d. efficacy
b. Dosage
18. When we use any drugs and its unexpected
c. Potency reaction comes, so which type it is called...

d. Efficacy a. Idiosyncratic

14. What does “pharmacokinetics” include? b. Teratogenic

a. Pharmacological effects of drugs c. Antagonism

b. Unwanted effects of drugs d. Synergism

c. Chemical structure of a medicinal agent 19. Patient telling the nurse I am in so much pain
which medicines will use to reduce the pain is
d. Distribution of drugs in the organism called….
15. The main mechanism of most drugs a. Antipyretics
absorption in GI tract is;
b. analgesic
a. Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
c. beta blocker
b. Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
d. antacids
c. Endocytosis and exocytosis
20. A type of drug interaction in which one drug
d. Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion) interferes with or blocks the effects of another
16. The study of the harmful effects of drug Is called...
chemicals and other substances on living a. Synergism
organisms is called....

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b. Antagonism d. Is too slow for emergency use

c. Teratogenic 25. Father of modern pharmacology is....

d. Idiosyncratic a. Oswald shmielder berg

21. Tʜᴇ ᴍᴀxɪᴍᴜᴍ ᴇғғᴇᴄᴛ ᴛʜᴀᴛ ᴛʜᴇ ᴅʀᴜɢ ᴄᴀɴ b. Alexander Fleming
ᴘʀᴏᴅᴜᴄᴇ ʀᴇɢᴀʀᴅʟᴇss ᴏғ ᴅᴏsᴇ....
c. Gram buch
a. ʙɪᴏᴀᴠᴀɪʟᴀʙɪʟɪᴛʏ
d. Anthony van
b. ʜᴀʟғ ʟɪғᴇ
26. Aɴʏ ᴅʀᴜɢ ᴛʜᴀᴛ ᴘʀᴇᴠᴇɴᴛ ᴀ ᴅɪsᴇᴀsᴇ ᴏʀ
c. ᴇғғɪᴄᴀᴄʏ ɪʟʟɴᴇss ғʀᴏᴍ ᴏᴄᴄᴜʀɪɴɢ (ᴠᴀᴄᴄɪɴᴇs) ...

d. ᴘᴏᴛᴇɴᴄʏ a. Aɴᴛɪʙɪᴏᴛɪᴄs

22. Tʜᴇ ᴜɴᴡᴀɴᴛᴇᴅ/ᴜɴɪɴᴛᴇɴᴅᴇᴅ ᴇғғᴇᴄᴛ ᴏғ ᴅʀᴜɢ b. Aɴᴀʟɢᴇsᴛɪᴄs

ᴛʜᴀᴛ ʜᴀᴘᴘᴇɴ ᴡɪᴛʜ ɴᴏʀᴍᴀʟ ᴅᴏsᴇs, sᴇʀɪᴏᴜsʟʏ
ᴇɴᴅᴀɴɢᴇʀɪɴɢ ᴛʜᴇ ʟɪғᴇ ᴏғ ᴛʜᴇ ʀᴇᴄɪᴘɪᴇɴᴛ ᴀɴᴅ ɪs c. Aɴᴛɪᴘʏʀᴇᴛɪᴄs
ɴᴏᴛ ᴘʀᴇᴅɪᴄᴛᴀʙʟᴇ ... d. Pʀᴏᴘʏʟᴀᴄᴛɪᴄs
a. ᴀᴅᴠᴇʀsᴇ ᴇғғᴇᴄᴛ 27. .......... is the degree to which or the
b. sɪᴅᴇ ᴇғғᴇᴄᴛ proportion of the drug that is available to the site
of action or target tissue to produce the desired
c. ᴛᴏxɪᴄ ᴇғғᴇᴄᴛ effect?

d. First pass effect a. Bioequalency

23. Which route of drug administration is most b. Bioavailability

likely to lead to the first-pass effect?
c. Potency
a. Sublingual
28. Nᴇᴇᴅᴇᴅ ɪᴍᴇᴅɪᴀᴛᴇʟʏ
b. Oral
a. sᴛᴀᴛ ᴏʀᴅᴇʀ
c. Intravenous
b. sɪɴɢʟᴇ ᴏʀᴅᴇʀ
d. Intramuscular
c. ᴘʀɴ ᴏʀᴅᴇʀ
24. Parenteral administration:
d. ʀᴏᴜᴛɪɴᴇ ᴏʀᴅᴇʀ
a. Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
29. In 1842, who's made a significant
b. Generally results in a less accurate dosage contribution to the field of pharmacology by
than oral administration demonstratic arrow poison, on the
neuromuscular junction?
c. Usually produces a more rapid response
than oral administration a. John Jacob Abel

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b. Claude Bernard 34. Which of the following drugs have the
highest potential for abuse?
c. Oswald Schmiedeberg
a. Alprazolam
d. Rudolf Buchheim
b. ketamines
30. The drug order, written by the physician,
has.......essential parts for administration of c. fentanyl
drugs safely.
d. ecstasy
a. 5
35. Intravenous injections are more suitable for
b. 6 oily solutions:

c. 7 a. True

d. 9 b. False

31. A drug....................... name which helpful in 36. Absorption of drug is define as passage of
predicting a substance’s physical and chemical drug from the site of administration into...
properties?
a. Infected Area
a. Generic
b. Liver
b. chemical
c. Circulation
c. trade
d. Out from the body
d. SI
37. Which route of drug administration has no
32. A drug’s ......... name is assigned by the need of absorption...
company marketing the drug.
a. Oral
a. generic
b. IM
b. IUPAC
c. IV
c. chemical
d. Topical
d. proprietary or product
38. Fraction of drug that reaches the systemic
33. Schedule................drugs have the lowest circulation is called...
potential for abuse;
a. First pass effect
a. I
b. Bioequalency
b. II
c. Half life
c. IV
d. Bioavailibilty
d. V

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39. All of the following regarding drug d. trachyphylaxis
absorption are correct except...
44. The condition in which repeated
a. small particle size better absorb administration of a drug may produce effects
that are more pronounced than those produced
b. presence of food decreased absorption by the first dose is called ...
c. lipid soluble absorb faster than water soluble a. Cumulative Effects
d. ionized drugs absorb well than unionized b. Additive Effects
40. The most important organ of excretion is... c. Synergistic Effects
a. Liver d. Antagonistic Effects
b. Lung 45. A rectal suppository is used to treat a fever.
c. Kidney This would represent what type of drug
delivery?
d. Small intestine
a. Parenteral and local
41. Captoprill work on mechanism of....
b. Parenteral and systemic
a. Through receptors
c. Enteral and systemic
b. Through enzyme pumps
d. Enteral and local
c. Through ion channels
46. A patient is being administered a drug that
d. Physically offers the most first pass metabolism. Through
which route is the drug most likely being
42. Ratio between effective dose and lethal dose administered?
is called...
a. Inhalation
a. Synergistic effect
b. Intramuscular
b. Additive index
c. Rectal
c. Therapeutic index
d. Oral
d. antonist
47. The nurse is giving a medication that has a
43. The rapid development of tolerance is called high first-pass effect. The physician has changed
... the route from IV to PO. The nurse expects the
oral dose to be:
a. desenitization
a. Higher because of the first-pass effect
b. cumulative effect
b. Lower because of the first-pass effect
c. first pass effect
c. The same as the IV dose

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d. Unchanged b. 1885

48. Tʜᴇ ᴘʜʏsɪᴄᴀʟ ᴛʀᴀɴsғᴇʀ ᴏғ ᴍᴇᴅɪᴄɪɴᴇs ғʀᴏᴍ c. 1986

sᴛᴏʀᴀɢᴇ ᴀʀᴇᴀ ɪɴ ᴀ ʜᴏsᴘɪᴛᴀʟ ᴛᴏ ᴛʜᴇ ᴘᴀᴛɪᴇɴᴛs
ʙᴇsɪᴅᴇ; d. 1985

a. ᴅʀᴜɢ sᴜᴘᴘLʏ 53. Wʜɪᴄʜ ᴏғ ᴛʜᴇ ғᴏʟʟᴏᴡɪɴɢ ᴅʀᴜɢs sʜᴏᴜʟᴅ ᴋᴇᴘᴛ

ᴜɴᴅᴇʀ ʟᴏᴄᴋ ᴀɴᴅ ᴋᴇʏ;
b. ᴅʀᴜɢ ᴅɪsʀɪʙᴜᴛɪᴏɴ
a. ᴄᴇɴᴛʀᴀʟɪᴢᴇᴅ ᴅʀᴜɢs
c. ᴇғғɪᴄɪᴇɴᴛ ᴅʀᴜɢs
b. ᴅᴇᴄᴇɴᴛʀᴀʟɪᴢᴇᴅ ᴅʀᴜɢs
d. ɴᴏɴe ᴏғ ᴛʜᴇ ᴀʙᴏᴠᴇ
c. ᴄᴏɴᴛʀᴏʟʟᴇᴅ ᴅʀᴜɢs
49. Hᴏᴡ ᴍᴀɴʏ ᴄʟᴀssɪғɪᴄᴀᴛɪᴏɴ ᴏғ ᴏᴜᴛ ᴘᴀᴛɪᴇɴᴛs;
d. ɴᴏɴe ᴏғ ᴛʜᴇ ᴀʙᴏᴠᴇ
a. 3
54. Tʜᴇ ᴅʀᴜɢ ᴍᴏᴠᴇs ᴀᴄᴄʀᴏss ᴀ ᴍᴇᴍʙʀᴀɴᴇ
b. 4 ᴡɪᴛʜᴏᴜᴛ ᴀɴʏ ɴᴇᴇᴅ ғᴏʀ ᴇɴᴇʀɢʏ;

c. 5 a. Aᴄᴛɪᴠᴇ ᴛʀᴀɴsᴘᴏʀᴛ

d. 6 b. Pᴀssɪᴠᴇ ᴛʀᴀɴsᴘᴏrᴛ

50. Hᴏᴡ ᴍᴀɴʏ ᴛʏᴘᴇs ᴏғ ᴅʀᴜɢs ᴅɪsᴛʀɪʙᴜᴛɪᴏɴ c. Bᴏᴛʜ

sʏsᴛᴇᴍs;
d. NᴏɴE
a. 3
55. Tʜᴇ ᴅᴏsᴇ ᴏғ ᴛʜᴇ ᴅʀᴜɢ ᴡʜɪᴄʜ ᴄᴀɴ ᴄᴀᴜsᴇ
b. 4 ᴅᴇᴀᴛʜ;

c. 5 a. ᴍᴀɴɪᴍᴜᴍ ᴅᴏsᴇ

d. 6 b. ᴍᴀxɪᴍᴜᴍ ᴅᴏsᴇ

51. Tʜᴏsᴇ ᴅʀᴜɢs ғᴏʀ ᴡʜɪᴄʜ ᴘᴀᴛɪᴇɴᴛ ɪs ᴄʜᴀʀɢᴇᴅ c. ᴛᴏxɪᴄ ᴅᴏsᴇ

ғᴏʀ ᴇᴠᴇʀ sɪɴɢʟᴇ ᴅᴏsᴇ ᴀᴅᴍɪɴɪsᴛᴇʀᴇᴅ ᴛᴏ ʜɪᴍ;
d. ʟᴇᴛʜᴀʟ ᴅᴏsᴇ
a. Fʟᴏᴏʀ sᴛᴏᴄᴋ ᴅʀᴜɢs
56. Drug binds to activate the receptor is same
b. Cʜᴀʀɢᴇ ғʟᴏᴏʀ sᴛᴏᴄᴋ ᴅʀᴜɢs fashion, which directly or indirectly brings effect
is_____?
c. Nᴏɴ ᴄʜᴀʀɢᴇ ғʟᴏᴏʀ sᴛᴏᴄᴋ ᴅʀᴜɢs
a. Inverse agonist
d. NONE ᴏғ ᴛʜᴇ ᴀʙᴏᴠᴇ
b. Antagonist
52. Tʜᴇ ᴘʀᴇsᴄʀɪᴘᴛɪᴏɴ ᴏғ ɴᴀʀʀᴄᴏᴛɪᴄ ᴅʀᴜɢs ᴜɴᴅᴇʀ
ɴᴀʀᴄᴏᴛɪᴄs ᴀɴᴅ ᴘsʏᴄʜᴏᴛʀᴏᴘɪᴄ sᴜʙsᴛᴀɴᴄᴇs ᴀᴄᴛ ɪɴ: c. Agonist

a. 1785 d. Partial agonist

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57. When a drug creates an effect that is d. Synergism
unpredictable and unique it is termed as______?
62. Which tissue has the greatest capacity to bio-
a. Side effect transform drugs?

b. Toxicity effect a. Brain

b. Kidney
c. Idiosyncratic effect c. Liver
d. Lung
d. Drug on Drug effect
63. Which of the following describes the
58. Drug efficacy refers to_______? maximum response that can be achieved
with a drug?
a. Range of disease in which the drug beneficial
a. Affinity
b. Maximal intensity of response that can be b. Efficacy
produced by the drug c. Potency
d. Agonist
c. The therapeutic does range of the drug
64. What kind of substances can’t permeate
d. The therapeutic index of the drug membranes by passive diffusion?

59. Which effect may lead to toxic reactions a) Lipid-soluble

when a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly?
b) Non-ionized substances
a. Tachyphylaxis
c) Hydrophobic substances
b. Refractoriness
d) Hydrophilic substances
c. Cumulative effect
65. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
d. Tolerance
a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance
60. The Liver is the major organ for …
b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
a. Absorption
c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching
b. excretion the systemic circulation following any route
administration
c. metabolism
d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the
d. distribution
initial doze
61. What phenomenon can occur in case of
66. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of
using a combination of drugs?
administration when passage of drugs through
a. Tolerance liver is minimized:

b. Tachyphylaxis a) Oral

c. Accumulation b) Transdermal

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c) Rectal d) Placenta

d) Intraduodenal 69. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of

following?
67. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal
agent administration: a) Mechanisms of drug action

a) Rectal b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism

b) Oral c) Distribution of drugs in the organism

c) Sublingual d) Excretion of drug from the organism

d) Inhalation 70. If an agonist can produce submaximal

effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:
68. Biological barriers include all except:
a) Partial agonist
a) Renal tubules
b) Antagonist
b) Cell membranes
c) Agonist-antagonist
c) Capillary walls
d) Full agonist
71. What is pharmacology? C) Pharmacogenetics

A) Study of weather patterns D) Pharmacognosy

B) Study of drugs and their effects 74. Which term refers to the study of the
mechanisms of drug action?
C) Study of human behavior
A) Pharmacology
D) Study of ancient civilizations
B) Pharmacokinetics
72. Which of the following is NOT a primary
goal of pharmacology? C) Pharmacodynamics

A) Understanding drug interactions D) Pharmacy

B) Enhancing surgical techniques 75. The study of genetic factors that influence an
individual's response to drugs is known as:
C) Developing new drugs
A) Pharmacokinetics
D) Optimizing drug therapy
B) Pharmacodynamics
73. What is the branch of pharmacology that
deals with how drugs move through the body? C) Pharmacogenetics

A) Pharmacokinetics D) Pharmacology

B) Pharmacodynamics 76. What is the therapeutic index of a drug?

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A) The time it takes for a drug to act C) A placebo effect

B) The range of doses between therapeutic D) The interaction between two drugs
and toxic effects
81. Which organ is primarily responsible for
C) The price of the drug in the market metabolizing drugs?

D) The number of side effects a drug has A) Heart

77. Which route of drug administration bypasses B) Kidneys

the gastrointestinal tract?
C) Liver
A) Oral
D) Lungs
B) Intravenous
82. What is the term for a drug's ability to
C) Sublingual produce the desired therapeutic effect?

D) Transdermal A) Efficacy

78. Which of these is an example of a placebo B) Potency

effect?
C) Bioavailability
A) A drug's side effect
D) Absorption
B) A patient's belief that a sugar pill is a
powerful drug 83. The process by which a drug is transported
from its site of administration to the bloodstream
C) An allergic reaction to a drug is called:

D) A drug's interaction with another medication A) Metabolism

79. Which phase of clinical trials involves a B) Excretion

small group of healthy volunteers to assess
safety and dosage? C) Absorption

A) Phase 1 D) Distribution

B) Phase 2 84. What is the study of drugs derived from

natural sources, such as plants or animals?
C) Phase 3
A) Pharmacology
D) Phase 4
B) Pharmacodynamics
80. What is an adverse drug reaction?
C) Pharmacognosy
A) The desired effect of a drug
D) Pharmacokinetics
B) An unintended and harmful response to a
drug 85. Which term refers to the use of drugs to treat
disease?

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A) Pharmacology B) The process of eliminating drugs from the
body
B) Pharmacy
C) The process of altering drugs in the body
C) Pharmacotherapy
D) The process of testing drugs in clinical trials
D) Pharmacodynamics
90. What is the primary function of the kidneys
86. The science of preparing and dispensing in relation to drugs?
drugs is known as:
A) Metabolism
A) Pharmacology
B) Absorption
B) Pharmacotherapy
C) Distribution
C) Pharmacy
D) Excretion
D) Pharmacodynamics
91. The abbreviation "OTC" stands for:
87. Which of the following statements about
generic drugs is true? A) Over the Counter

A) They are always more potent than brand- B) On the Clock

name drugs
C) On the Case
B) They are always more expensive than brand-
name drugs D) Off the Chart

C) They have the same active ingredients as 92. What does the term "pharmacodynamics"
brand-name drugs refer to?

D) They are never as effective as brand-name A) How the body affects drugs
drugs B) How drugs affect the body
88. Which phase of clinical trials involves a C) The process of drug metabolism
larger group of patients and further evaluates the
drug's effectiveness and side effects? D) The interaction between two drugs

A) Phase 1 93. If two drugs with the same effect, taken

together, produce an effect that is equal in
B) Phase 2 magnitude to the sum of the effects of the drugs
C) Phase 3 given individually, it is called as:

D) Phase 4 a) Antagonism

89. What is drug metabolism? b) Potentiation

A) The process of manufacturing drugs c) Additive effect

d) None of the above

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94. What does the term “potentiation” mean? c) Tolerance

a) Cumulative ability of a drug d) Teratogenic action

b) Hypersensitivity to a drug 98. Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:

c) Fast tolerance developing a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction

d) Intensive increase of drug effects due to b) A type of drug antagonism

their combination
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively
95. The types of antagonism are: abnormal reaction to a drug

a) Summarized d) Quantitatively exaggerated response

b) Potentiated 99. Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:

c) Additive a) Biotransformation

d) Competitive b) Time of drug absorption

96. A teratogenic action is: c) Concentration of a drug in plasma

a) Toxic action on the liver d) Rate of drug elimination

b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal 100. What is the reason of complicated
malformation penetration of some drugs through brain-blood
barrier?
c) Toxic action on blood system
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
d) Toxic action on kidneys
b) Meningitis
97. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn’t
related to a dose or to a pharmacodynamic c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary
property of a drug is called: endothelium

a) Idiosyncrasy d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary

b) Hypersensitivity

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Unit-II (A) Introduction to Antibiotics

1. Drugs that are used against microorganisms a. It means our body has become resistant
are called... to the antibiotic
a. Anti-Viral b. It means the bacteria have developed
b. Anti-Fungal antibiotic resistance
c. Antibiotics c. Both (a) and (b)
d. All d. None of the above
2. Bacteristatic effect is: 7. What type of side effect is most commonly
a. Inhibition of bacterial cell division observed in beta-lactam antibiotics?
b. Inhibition of young bacterial cells a. Hearing loss
growth b. Aplastic anaemia
c. Destroying of bacterial cells c. Allergic reaction
d. Formation of bacterial L-form d. Yellowing of teeth
3. Minimal duration of antibacterial treatment 8. Endotoxins released by....... bacteria
usually is; a. G+ve
a. Less than 1 day b. G-ve
b. Not less than 5 days c. Both
c. Not less than 3 weeks d. NONE
d. Not less than 10-14 days 9. A type of antimicrobial therapy which is
4. Which of the following drugs is a gastric given for disease which causing agent not
acid resistant: yet identified....
a. Penicillin G a. Definitve
b. Penicillin V b. Empiric
c. Carbenicillin c. Prophylatic
d. Procain penicillin d. Preventive
5. G+ve bacteria give ....colour on staining. 10. Which type of drugs can easily pass the
a. Purple blood brain barrier...?
b. Pink a. Large molecular size
c. Red b. Hydrophilic
d. Dark red c. Lipophilic
6. What is meant by antibiotic resistance? d. Charged
11. Penicillin is discovered by...

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a. Abraham 17. Which of the following are called beta-
b. Alexandar fleming lactam antibiotics;
c. Dr.funk a. Penicillin
d. McCollum b. Cephalosporin
12. Penicillin is made from.... c. Quinolone
a. Staphylococcus d. A&B both
b. Penicillin aurus 18. The penicillin’s act by :
c. Penicillin Notatium a. Inhibition of protien synthesis
d. Bacillus b. Interfering with bacterial cell wall
13. Penicillin group of antibiotics have.... synthesis
Classes of drugs. c. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
a. 2 d. Phagocytic action
b. 3 19. Co-amoxiclav is a:
c. 4 a. Penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor
d. 5 combinations
14. Penicillin are inactive against.... b. Penicillin active against gram negative
a. Mycobacterium bacteria
b. Protozoa c. Carbapenem group of antibiotic.
c. Fungi d. Narrow spectrum penicillin
d. All 20. Penicillin was accidentally discovered in:
a. 1922
15. Penicillin inhibits the enzyme ...... and b. 1924
blocks the peptido glycan of bacteria cell c. 1921
wall. d. 1928
a. Aminase 21. The most frequent effect of oral Ampicillin
b. Peptidase is?
c. Transpeptidase a. Nausea and vomiting
d. All b. Loose motion
16. Type of antibiotic related to penicillin group c. Constipation
having anti-staphylococcal action d. Urticaria
a. Amoxicillin 22. The word antibiotic means:
b. Tikarcillin a. Life-giving
c. Piperacillin b. Against life
d. Cloxacillin c. Birth giving

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d. Loss d. All of the above
23. Bacteriocidal effect is;
26. Which of the following groups of antibiotics
a. Inhibition of bacterial cell division
demonstrates a bactericidal effect?
b. Inhibition of young bacterial cells
growth a) Tetracyclines
c. Destroying of bacterial cells b) Macrolides
d. Formation of bacterial L-form c) Penicillins
24. What does the term “antibiotics” mean: d) All of the above
a. Non-organic or synthetic substances that
27. Which of the following antibiotics contains a
selectively kill or inhibit the growth of
beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure?
other microorganisms
b. Substances produced by some a) Penicillins
microorganisms and their synthetic b) Cephalosporins
analogues that selectively kill or c) Carbapenems and monobactams
inhibit the growth of other d) All groups
microorganisms
c. Substances produced by some 28. Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall
microorganisms and their synthetic synthesis are:
analogues that inhibit the growth of a) Beta-lactam antibiotics
organism cells b) Tetracyclines
d. Synthetic analogues of natural c) Aminoglycosides
substances that kill protozoa and d) Macrolides
helminthes
29. Biosynthetic penicillins are effective against:
25. General principles of anti-infective therapy a) Gram-positive and gram-negative cocci,
are: corynebacterium diphtheria, spirochetes,
clostridium gangrene
a. Clinical judgment of microbiological
b) Corynebacterium diphtheria, mycobacteries
factors
c) Gram positive cocci, viruses
b. Definitive identification of a bacterial
d) Gram negative cocci, Rickettsia, mycotic
infection and the microorganism’s
infections
susceptibility
c. Optimal route of administration, dose, 30. Mechanism of penicillins’ antibacterial
dosing frequency and duration of effect is:
treatment

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 MCQ’s of Pharmacology-I By: Zia Ud Din ZCN
a) Inhibition of transpeptidation in the c. Cytoplasm
bacterial cell wall
d. DNA
b) Inhibition of beta-lactamase in the bacterial
cell 34. The optimum activity of all first generation
c) Activation of endogenous proteases, that cephalosporin drugs is against........ Such as
destroy bacterial cell wall staphylococci and streptococci.
d) Activation of endogenous phospholipases,
a. Gram+ive
which leads to alteration of cell membrane
permeabil b. Gram-ive

31. Cephalosporins are similar to another group c. Both

of beta-lactam antibiotics called?
d. None
a. Fluoruquinolones
35. All of the following are the first generation
b. Aminoglycosides cephalosporins antibiotics except....

c. Macrolides a. Cefazolin

d. Penicillin b. Cefadroxil
10:06 pm, 12/06/2023
32. Cephalosporin was first isolated from a
fungus named as cephalosporium acremonium c. Cefaclor
by Dr. Abraham in......
d. Cephalexin
a. 1958
36. The second generation drugs have more
b. 1954 activity against ....bacteria in comparison to first
generation.
c. 1948
a. Gram-ive
d. 1952
b. Gram+
33. Cephalosporin drugs are beta-lactam
antibiotics that inhibit the...... of bacteria. c. Both

a. Protien d. Acid fast

b. Cell wall

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37. Which of the following second generation c. 4th
cephalosporins below can target gram-negative
d. Fifth
anaerobes such as Bacteriodes Fragilis?
41. Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis
a. Cefazolin
are.
b. Cefdroxil
a. Penicillin
c. Cefoxitin
b. Monobactams
d. Cefixime
c. Glycopeptides
38. The 3rd generation drugs have more activity
d. All of the above
against ....bacteria in comparison to first
generation. 42. Vancomycine is in a class of medication
called glycopeptides antibiotics are used as a
a. Gram+
treatment for a.....
b. Gram-
a. Complicated skin infection
c. Both
b. Bloodstream infection and endocarditis
D. these are narrow spectrum
c. Bone and joint infection
39. Cefepime is classified as a.... Generation
d. all the above
cephalosporin’s and must be administered
parentally. 43. Aminoglycoisde dose need to be adjusted in
a ....patient
a. 1st
a. Kidney patient
b. 2nd
b. Liver patient
c.3rd
c. Heart patient
d. 4th
d. All
40. Ceftaroline is a ..... generation cephalosporin
and effective against MRSA. 44. Macrolides are protein synthesis inhibitor
bind with...subunit of the bacteria ribosomes.
a. 1st
a. 30s
b. 2nd

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b. 50S 48. Gray baby syndrome is the most side effect
of:
c. Both
a. Tetracycline’s
d. None
b. Chloramphenicol
45. Tetracycline is protein synthesis inhibitor
bind reversible to...subunit and blocks the c. Oxazolidinones
binding of the amino acids containing TRNA on
d. Fluroquinolones
MRNA ribosomes complex....
49. Aztreonam is a commercially available
a. 30s
monobactams antibiotics are used for...
b. 50s
a. Used for bone infection endometritis
c. 70s
b. Intra abdominal infection
d. 80s
c. Pneumonia urinary tract infection
46. Which one is the true about tetracycline...?
d. All of the above
a. Tetracycline brown to yellow discoloration in
50. Gram-positive bacteria have a thinner
young children
peptidoglycan layer than gram-negative bacteria.
b. Tetracycline cause bone deformity
a. True
c. Both
b. False
d. None
c. Some time true
47. Chloramphenicol binds reversibly to the
d. Some time False
bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits
protein synthesis at the.... 51. All of the following are the RNA, DNA
inhibitors except.....
a. Initiation complex
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Peptidyl transferase reaction
b. Levofloxacin
c. Inhibit transfer of tRNA
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Miss reading of message
d. Levaquin

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52. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics- 56. Aminoglycosides have the following
monobactams: unwanted effects:

a. Ampicillin a. Pancytopenia

b. Bicillin b. Hepatotoxicity

c. Aztreonam c. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

d. Imipinem d. Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa

53. All of antibiotics are aminoglycosides, 57. FluroQuinolones work on which mechanism
EXCEPT: to kill bacteria?

a. Gentamycin a. Inhibit topoisomerase II

b. Streptomycin b. Inhibit topoisomerase IV

c. Clindamycin c. Inhibit DNA gyrase

d. Neomycin d. All of the above

54. All of the following antibiotics inhibit the 58. Ciprofloxacin is a drug of choice for
protein synthesis in bacterial cells, EXCEPT: prophylaxis and treatment of...

a. Macrolides a. Anthrax

b. Aminoglycosides b. TB

c. Glycopeptides (Inhibits cell wall synthesis c. Diarrhea

in Gram- positive bacteria)
d. Gonorrhea
d. Tetracyclines
59. Cotrimoxazole is a combination of drugs.....
55. Carbapenems are effective against:
a. Sulphonamide + Chloramphenicol
a. Gram-positive microorganisms
b. Sulphonamide + Lincomycin
b. Gram-negative microorganisms
c. Sulphonamide + Trimethoprim
c. Only bactericide infections
d. Sulphonamide + Tetracycline
d. Broad-spectrum

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60. Which of the following antibiotics acts by b. Quinolones
inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis?
c. Sulphonamides
a. Penicillin
d. Cephalosporin

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Unit-II (B) Anti- Fungal Drug

1. Infectious diseases caused by 9/8fungi 7. Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis By:
called..... a. Griseofulvin
a. Fungicitis b. Nystatin
b. Tinae cruris c. Azoles
c. mycosis [10:31 pm, 17/07/2023]
d. both b & c d. Terbinafine
2. Unique characteristic of fungal cell wall is.... 8. The drug of choice for fungal nail infection
a. presence of murine is;
b. presence of beta lactam ring a. Flucytosine
c. presence of cholesterol b. Terbinafine
d. presence of ergosterol c. Ketoconazole
3. Tinea capitis is the infection of...... d. Griseofulvin
a. Groin 9. Which of the following is Given by IV route
b. Foot only;
c. Scalp a. Flucytosine
d. Nails b. Terbinafine
4. Aspergillosis is.....infection? c. Caspofungin
a. Superficial d. both a & b
b. Mucocutaneous 10. Which of the following antifungal is
c. Systemic fungistatic;
d. both a & b a. Amphotericin
5. Fungal cell wall synthesis inhibitor is; b. Nystatin
a. Azoles c. Terbinafine
b. Caspofungin d. Griseofulvin
c. Terbinafine 11. The most important toxicity of amphotericin
d. Flucytosine B is;
6. Which of the following is fungicidal; a. Nephrotoxicity
a. Flucytosine b. Neurotoxicity
b. Fluconazole c. Hepatotoxicity
c. Echinocandin d. Bone marrow depression
d. Both B & C

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12. Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the d. None
following except; 18. What is the half life of itraconazole:
a. Gynaecomastia a. 10 -20hrs
b. Oligospermia b. 30- 40hrs
c. Kidney damage c. 40 -50 hrs
d. Menstrual irregularities d. 70 -90 hrs
13. Select the fungicidal drug that acts by 19. Drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis;
interfering fungal squalene epoxidase a. Ketoconazole
enzyme; b. Itraconazole
a. Ketoconazole c. Fluconazole
b. Terbinafine d. All Of Above
c. Tolnaftate 20. Half life of flucytocin is ___;
14. Fungi are ______ cell? a. 1-5 hrs
a. Prokaryotic b. 3-6 hrs
b. Eukaryotic c. 4-8 hrs
c. Both d. None of the above
d. None of them 21. Absorption of which drug is enhanced by
15. Ketoconazole is belonging to Azole group fatty food?
which is given ______? a. Flucytosine
a. Topically b. Ketoconazole
b. Systemically c. Griseofulvin
c. A and B d. Capsofungin
d. None of them 22. The drug which acts by forming microspore
16. Oral route of drug administration is not in cell membrane is _?
preferred in; a. Griseofulvin
a. Peptic ulcer b. Vanconazole
b. Children c. Fluconazole
c. Unconscious patient d. Amphotericin B
d. Elderly 23. Drug act by inhibiting DNA synthesis is_?
17. Which part of amphotercin B forms pores in a. Ketoconazole
the fungal cell membrane ___? b. Griseofulvin
a. Hydrophilic part c. Fluconazole
b. Liphophallic part d. Itraconazole
c. Both

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24. Which antifungal drug is used for 25. Which of the following drug is an example
dermetophytosis as well as systemic of polyenes?
mycosis? a. Amphotericin B
a. Clotrimazole b. Griseofulvin
b. Griseofulvin c. Fluconazole
c. Ketoconazole d. Miconazole
d. Amphotericin B

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Unit-II (C) Anti- Malarial Drugs

1. The causative agent of malaria origination a. Gut of mosquito
is;
b. Gut of man
a. Bacterial
b. Viral c. Liver of man
c. Fungal
d. Saliva of mosquito
d. Parasitic ( Protozoal)
2. Malaria can be caused by how many species 6. All of the following are the 4 aminoquinolines
of plasmodium parasite? except;
a. 1
a. Chloroquine
b. 3
c. 4 b. Amodiaquine
d. 5
c. Pipraquine
3. Which of the following plasmodium species
d. Primaquine
cause severe malaria?

7. All of the following antimalarial drugs

a. Plasmodium.vivax
influence blood (erythrocytic) schizonts except;
b. P. Ovale
a. Mefloquine
c. P . Falciparum
b. Chloroquine
d. P. Malariae
c. Primaquine
4. Due to which of the following plasmodium
d. Quinidine
species relapsing of malaria can occur?

8. Tick the antimalarial drug belonging to 8-

a. P. Vivax
aminoquinoline derivatives;
b. P. Ovale
a. Doxycycline
c. P. Falciparum
b. Primaquine
d. Both a & b
c. Chloroquine
5. Asexual life cycle of plasmodium occur in;
d. Quinidine

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9. Wʜɪᴄʜ ᴅʀᴜɢ sᴜᴘʀᴇss ᴛʜᴇ ᴇʀʏᴛʜʀᴏᴄʏᴛɪᴄ ᴘʜᴀsᴇ c. Amino-alcohol
ᴀɴᴅ ᴘʀᴇᴠᴇɴᴛ ᴛʜᴇ ᴀᴛᴛᴀᴄᴛ ᴏғ ᴍᴀʟᴀʀɪᴀ ?
d. Pyramethanine
a. Pʀɪᴍᴀǫᴜɪɴᴇ
13. Which of the following drug is suitable for
b. Qᴜɪɴɪɴᴇ treatment of malaria during pregnancy?

c. Qᴜɪɴɪᴅɪɴᴇ a. Quinine

d. Cʟᴏʀᴏǫᴜɪɴᴇ b. Chloroquine

c. Pyrimethamine
10:44 pm, 24/07/2023
d. Primaquine
10. Tick the antimalarial drug belonging to
14. Tinnitus, Dizziness, Blurred vision and
pyrimidine derivatives:
headache are indicative of toxicity to which one
a. Mefloquine of the following anti malarial drugs;

b. Pyrimethamine a. Primaquine

c. Quinidine b. Quinine

d. Chloroquine c. Pyrimethamine

11. Tick the antimalarial drug having a d. Chloroquine

gametocidal effect:
15. Tick the antimalarial drug influencing tissue
a. Mefloquine schizonts:

b. Primaquine a. Mefloquine

c. Doxycycline b. Chloroquine

d. Sulfonamides c. Quinidine

12. The drug which is antimalarial action and is d. Primaquine

more toxic is...
16. Which of these phases of malarial parasite is
a. Quinine the target for prophylactic treatment?

b. Chloroquine a.Pre-erythrocytic phase in liver

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b. Erythrocytic phase b. Cinnamon

c. Exo-erythrocytic phase c. Coriander

d. Any of the above d. Quircus

17. Which of these drugs is not used for 21. Cinchonism side effect is seen with which of
prophylaxis of malaria? the following antimalarial drugs;

a. Chloroguanide a. Primaquine

b. Chloroquine b. Quinine

c. Quinine c. Chloroquine

d. Primaquine d. Mefloquine

18. Primaquine as a radical cure for malaria is 22. A 25 year old female is suffering from acute
used in the following dosage: attack of malaria due to P. vivax. He is given
chloroquine for this attack, but to prevent future
a. 15 mg daily for one week
relapse of such attack he must be given;
b. 15 mg daily for 2 weeks
a. Mefloquine
c. 15 mg daily for three weeks
b. Quinine
d. 15 mg daily for four weeks
c. Primaquine
19. The sexual phase in malarial parasite occurs
d. Proguanil
in;
23. Which of the following antimalarial drugs
a. Human
Collapses mitochondrial membrane &
b. Anopheles interferes ATP production?

c. Air a. Pyrimethamine

d. Soil b. Sulfonamides

20. Quinine which is used for malaria treatment c. Naphthoquinone

is extracted from;
d. Amino alcohols
a. Cinchona

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24. Quinine is obtained from b. Bark
CINCHONA______?
c. Leaves
a. Root

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Unit-II (D) Anti- Viral Drugs

1. All is true about viral replication except 6. Which of the following is not used in the
___? HIV-1 treatment?
a. It must attach to and enter a host cell a. Delavirdine
b. Virus can replicate by its own b. Zidovudine
c. It then uses the host cell’s energy to c. Rimantadine
synthesize protein, DNA, and RNA d. Stavudine
d. A virus cannot replicate on its own 7. Which of the following is used to treat CMV
2. Many anti-viral drugs are analogs of......? infections?
a. Purin a. Foscarnet
b. Pyrimidine b. Saquinavir
c. Thymine c. Ritonavir
d. Both a & b d. Nelfinavir
3. Which of the following is nonnucleotide 8. Which of the following is easily blocked by
reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)? antivirals?
a. Gancyclovir a. Virus penetration
b. Zilcitabine b. Nucleic acid replication
c. Nevirapine c. Virus absorption
d. Abacavir d. Removal of the virus from the cell
4. In first line ARV therapy all regimens 9. Which of the following cannot be treated by
should have 2NRTI +? antiviral drugs?
a. 1 NNRTI a. Smallpox
b. 2NNRTI b. Tuberculosis
c. 3NNRTI c. Hepatitis
d. 4NNRTI d. Warts
5. Which of the following antiviral drug is 10. The mutations in the M2 gene is responsible
used to treat influenza A? for drug resistance in influenza A virus.
a. Dextran sulfate a. True
b. Amantadine b. False
c. Ganciclovir 11. An ester Pro drug of acyclovir is.
10:27 pm, 31/07/2023 a. famciclovir
d. Cidofovir b. cidofovir

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c. Val acyclovir d. All of them
d. Ganciclovir 17. A viral drug protease inhibitor is active
12. The drug of choice for herpes and against_______?
cytomegalovirus infection treatment is; a. HIV 1
a. Saquinavir b. HIV2
b. Interferon alfa c. Against both
c. Didanozine d. None of them
d. Acyclovir 18. Cidofover is ____ analogue?
13. Mechanism of action of the ribavirin is a. Cytosine
______? b. Thymine
a. Inhibit capping of viral messenger RNA c. Guanine
b. Inhibit viral RNA depend RNA d. All of them
polymerase 19. Select the drug which is active against both
c. Inhibit replication of the RNA and DNA HIV and hepatitis B virus;
d. All of them a. Lamivudine
14. Mechanism of action of the acyclovir b. Indinavir
(antiviral medicine) is that ____? c. Didanoside
a. Inhibit viral DNA polymerase d. Efivirenz
competitively 20. The virus directed reverse transcriptase
b. Incorporate with viral DNA and stop the enzyme is inhibited by;
lengthen of DNA strand a. Amantadine
c. Both A and B b. Zidovudine
d. None of them c. Vidarabine
15. Nurses have to follow the ______ rights of d. Acyclovir
Medication Administration? 21. Select the drug that acts by inhibiting HIV
a. Two protease enzyme;
b. Three a. Zalcitabine
c. Five b. Efavirenz
d. Six c. Stavudine
16. Amantadine is not active again influenza B d. Indinavir
which lack ______ channel? 22. The drug used for HIV infection treatment,
a. M1 a derivative of nucleosides is;
b. M2 a. Acyclovir
c. M3 b. Zidovudine

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c. Gancyclovir b. Amantadine
d. Trifluridine c. Rifampin
23. Drugs that are converted in the body to d. Fomivirsen
active form are called ------? 28. Which is not an adverse/ side effect of
a. Prodrugs Acyclovir (Zorivax);
b. Prototype drugs a. Tremors,Delirium
c. Xenobiotic b. Burning
d. Antibiotic c. Nephrotoxicity
24. Interferon is indicated in the following state; d. Bone marrow suppression
a. Influenza A,B 29. Which drug should be administered with
b. HSV extreme caution to asthma/COPD patients
c. Hepatitis because of possible bronchospasm?
d. Measles a. Zanamivir (Relenza)
25. A patient who has undergone a lung b. Acyclovir ( Zorivax)
transplant has contracted cytomegalovirus c. Cidofovir (Vistide)
(CMV) retinitis. The nurse expects which d. None of the above
drug to be ordered for this patient? 30. Which of the following is not a Reverse
a. Acyclovir (Zovirax) transcriptase inhibitor?
b. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) a. NRTI
c. Ribavirin (Virazole) b. NNRTI
d. Amantadine (Symmetrel) c. NtRTI
26. An infant has been hospitalized with a d. PI
severe lung infection caused by the 31. Which is an NRTI?
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and will be a. Abacavir (Ziagen) PO
receiving medication via the inhalation b. Didanosine (Videx) PO
route. The nurse expects which drug to be c. Zidovudine (Retrovir) PO/ IV
used? d. All of the above
a. Acyclovir (Zovirax) 32. Which is not an NNRTI?
b. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) a. Lamivudine (Epivir) PO
c. Amantadine (Symmetrel) b. Delavirdine (rescriptor)
d. Ribavirin (Virazole) c. Efavirenz (Sustiva)
27. Which of the following is uncoating d. None of the above
inhibitors? 33. Which of the following is used for health
a. Enfuvirtide care workers who have been exposed to HIV

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and to reduce transmission rate of HIV from a. Stage I
mother to fetus? b. Stage IV
a. Oseltamivir (Tamifu) c. Stage V
b. Zidovudine (Retrovir) d. Stage III
c. Tenofovir (Viread) 36. The asymptomatic stage (II) of AIDs may
d. None of the above last up to several years.?
34. Prevents fusion of the HIV virus with the a. True
human cellular membrane, prevents HIV-1 b. False
from entering the cell; 37. Which of the following is not an adverse
a. Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) Sub Q effect of HAART?
b. Delevirdine (Rescriptor) a. Rash
c. Nevirapine (Viramune) b. Seizure
d. None of the above c. Acute renal failure
35. A CD4 count of 200 or less or an AIDS- d. None of the above
defning illness signifes which stage of 38. Resistance develops quickly to which of
AIDS. these drugs?
a. Atazanavir (Reyataz) PO
b. Fosamprenavir (Lexiva) PO
c. Saquinavir ( Invirase) PO
d. All of the above
39. HIV is a retrovirus.
a. True
b. False
40. HIV attacks on ;
a. Memory T cells
b. Helper T cells
c. B cells
d. All of the above

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Unit-3 Drugs Affecting Gastrointestinal System

1. Which of the following cells produces HCL? b. Bismuth chelate
a. Beta cells c. Sucralfate
b. Chief cells d. Metoclopramide
c. Alphacells 7. Only class of antiulcer drugs that can
d. Parietal cells eradicate Helicobacter pylori and cure
2. The gastric juice contains ___; associated gastritis:
a. Trypsin, pepsin, lipase a. sucralfate (Carafate)
b. Pepsin, lipase, rennin b. colloidal bismuth
c. Pepsin, amylase, trypsin c. H2 blockers
d. Trypsin, pepsin, rennin d. Anticholinergic agents
3. Peptic ulcer disease; 8. Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of;
a. Is a chronic disorder a. Bromocriptine
b. Characterized by frequent recurrences b. Levodopa
c. Comprises duodenal and peptic ulcers c. Famotidine
d. All of the above d. Cimetidine
4. Which of the following is mucosal 9. Which of the following is not an antiulcer
protective agent? drug;
a. Omeprazole a. Ranitidine
b. Cimetidine b. Pantoprazole
c. Sucralfate c. Ondansetron
d. Aluminium hydroxide d. Propantheline
5. Antacids: 10. The following drug is an inhibitor of gastric
a. React with gastric acid to form a neutral mucosal proton pump;
salt a. Carbenoxolone sodium
b. Produce prompt pain relief b. Sucralfate
c. Are very effective at healing duodenal c. Lansoprazole
ulcer d. Famotidine
d. All of the above 11. Antidiarrheal drugs used to treat acute
6. All of the following Drugs enhancing diarrhea act as Antimotility agent;
mucosal resistance in the stomach Except: a. Loperamide
a. Carbenoxolone b. Aluminum hydroxide

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c. Bismuth subsalicylate d. Hyoscine & Dicyclomine
d. Methylcellulose 18. Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump
12. Lactulose is a; inhibitors:
a. Bulking agents a. Pirenzepine
b. Osmotic laxatives b. Ranitidine
c. Stimulant drugs c. Omeprazole
d. Stool softners d. Trimethap
13. Which of the following is Stool Softener; 19. Choose the drug which is a H2-receptor
a. Emollients antagonist:
b. Psyllium (ispaghol) a. Omeprazole
c. Sodium Phosphates b. Pirenzepine
d. Castor Oil c. Carbenoxolone
14. Drugs which prevent or control the d. Ranitidine
Vomiting/Nausea is called; 20. Which drug is an analog of prostaglandin
a. Antacid E1?
b. PPI a. Misoprostole
c. Antiemetic b. De-nol
d. H2 blockers c. Sucralfate
15. Misoprostol; d. Omeprazole
a. Is helpful in preventing ulcers 21. Tick the mechanism of Metoclopramide
induced by NSAIDs antiemetic action:
b. Can cause constipation a. H1 and H2-receptor blocking effect
c. Does not inhibit acid secretion b. M-cholinoreceptor stimulating effect
d. Can delay labor in a pregnant woman c. D2-dopamine receptor blocking effect
16. All of the following are antiemetic except; d. M-cholinoblocking effect
a. Hyoscine 22. Select the drug which inhibits peristalsis:
b. Apomorphine a. Castor oil
c. Granisetron b. Bisacodyl
d. Domperidone c. Loperamide
17. Which of the drug is Prokinetics (Dopamine d. Sorbitol
receptor (D2) Antagonists): 23. Cyclizine is;
a. Ondansetron a. Proton pump inhibitor
b. Olanzapine b. H-2 receptor blockers
c. Meclozine c. Antiemetics

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d. Mucosal protective agent c. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
24. Tick the main approach of peptic ulcer d. All the above
treatment: 25. Antacids are weak bases that react with
a. Neutralization of gastric acid gastric hydrochloric acid to form salt and
b. Eradication of Helicobacter pylori water. It’s ;
a. True
b. False
26. The most effective anti emetic for controlling anti cancer drug induced vomiting is:
a. Prochlorperazine
b. Ondansetron
c. Metochlopramide
d. Promethazine
27. Panadol is a;
a. Chemical name
b. Generic name
c. Local name
d. Trade name

28. All of the following drugs act by reducing gastric acid secretion, Except:
a. Omeprazole
b. Sucralfate
c. Pirenzepine
d. Famotidine
29. All of the following statements about antacid are true, Except:
a. Weak bases that neutralize gastric pH
b. Inhibits the formation of pepsin
c. Aluminum antacids cause diarrhea and magnesium antacids cause constipation
d. Aluminum antacids cause constipation and magnesium antacids cause diarrhea
30. Which of the following is the most active drug for travel (motion sickness)?
a. Hyoscine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Prochlorperazine
d. Haloperidol

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Unit-4 Drugs Affecting Hematology System

1. All are the indication of the anticoagulant b. Defense against toxins and pathogens
except? c. Restriction of fluid losses at injury
a. MI sites
b. DVT d. Stabilization of body temperature
c. Pulmonary embolism 7. Which anticoagulant is indicated for oral
d. Hypertension administration?
2. The non-living fluid matrix of blood is a. Protamine
called; b. Warfarin
a. Formed elements c. Heparin
b. Connective tissue d. Dalteparin
c. Plasma 8. The initial mechanism of action of heparin
d. None of the above is:
3. Thrombocytes are a part of plasma a. Combining with antithrombin III
a. True b. Inhibition of platelet aggregation
b. False c. Stimulating conversion of plasmin to
4. Which of the following is not found plasminogen
dissolved in plasma; d. Interference with Vitamin K synthesis
a. Proteins 9. Which of the following anticoagulant is used
b. Nutrients to prevent blood clotting both in vivo and
c. Platelets invitro;
d. Waste products a. Warfarin
5. Which plasma protein is converted to form b. Heparin
the basic framework for a blood clot; c. Both
a. Globulin d. None
b. Fibrinogen 10. Which drug is given in the case of overdose
c. Albumin with heparin?
d. Bilirubin a. Epoetin alfa
6. Platelets aid in which one of the major b. Tranexamic acid
functions of blood? c. Protamine
a. Regulation of pH & ion concentration of d. Vitamin K
interstitial fluids

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11. What drug is considered the first choice in 16. Protamine sulphate is given to;
the prevention of thromboembolism in a. Sensitize the anticoagulant system
pregnancy? b. Synergistically amplify warfarin action
a. Aspirin c. Reverse warfarin action
b. Streptokinase d. Reverse heparin action
c. Dalteparin 17. Warfarin is;
d. Warfarin a. Direct thrombin inhibitors
12. An adverse reaction possible to both b. Indirect thrombin inhibitors
anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents is: c. Safe in pregnancy
a. Rashes d. Contraindicated in pregnancy
b. Bleeding 18. Prothrombin is present in blood plasma that
c. Anaphylaxis is converted into active thrombin by a
d. Severe headaches clotting factor known as factor;
13. Heparin is a naturally produced a. VIII
anticoagulant in the body. It is produced in b. IX
cells; c. X
a. Mast cells d. XII
b. Basophils 19. In general, blood clotting occurs in ----
c. None stages:
d. Both a. 2
14. Which would not be considered a b. 3
mechanism of action of antiplatelet drugs? c. 4
a. Inhibition of ADP binding to platelet d. 6
receptors 20. Which Anticoagulants are used to prevent
b. Inhibition of thromboxane A2 formation clotting of blood during dialysis process;
c. Blockade of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa a. Warfarin
receptors b. Heparin
d. Inhibition of plasminogen activation c. Rivaroxaban
15. Vitamin k is indicated for the treatment of d. All of the above
bleeding occurring in patients: 21. Anti-coagulant prevents the ________ clot
a. Being treated with heparin formation?
b. Being treated with streptokinase a. Venous
c. Being treated with warfarin b. Arterial
d. Of peptic ulcer c. Both of A and B

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d. None of them a. 7
22. Effect of heparine we measured through; b. 8
a. aPTT c. 11
b. PT d. 12
c. CBC 28. Warfarin acts as a substrate for Vit k
d. Both a & b epoxide reductase and inhibits the
23. 1mg of protamine will inactivate how many conversion of vitamin K epoxide to;
units of heparin; a. Prothrombin
a. 400 b. Zymogens
b. 300 c. Vit. K hydroquinone
c. 200 d. Plasminogen
d. 100 29. The MOA of aspirin (anti-platelet) is
24. All of the following are the adverse effects ______?
of Rivaroxaban except; a. Block cyclooxygenase pathway
a. Thrombocytopenia (low platelets count b. Block lipooxygenase pathway
in the blood) c. Botha A and B
b. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage d. None of them
c. Hypersensitivity 30. Warfarin has a long half-life;
d. Mylosuppression a. 7-12 days
25. Heparin Combines with ant thrombin III b. 3-4 hrs
which will inactivate clotting factors IX, X, c. 1.5 to 2 days
XI and XII, inhibits conversion of d. 3 weeks
prothrombin to ______? 31. The mass of coagulated blood contains all
a. Thrombin of the following contents except;
b. Fibrinogen a. RBCs
c. Proconvertin b. WBCs
d. Both B and A c. Plasmins
26. Warfarin value is measured through; d. Platelets
a. aPTT 32. Streptokinase activate;
b. PT a. Plasmin
c. INR value b. Plasminogen
d. HC03 c. Fibrin
27. Which of the following is Vit-K dependent d. Fibrinogen
clotting factor; 33. Normal clotting occurs in ____ minutes;

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a. 2 d. PTT
b. 6
e. PPD
c. 25
d. 15 38. Inhibits specific clotting factors and interfere
34. Hemostasis is the process that halts with the clotting cascade and thrombin
bleeding, which of its following phases are formation
the last to occur;
a. Anticoagulants
a. Coagulation
b. Vascular spasms b. Antiplatelet agents
c. Platelet plug formation
c. Thrombolytics
d. None
35. Tranexamic acid indication;b d. None of the above
a. Major trauma
39. Anti-platelet agents interfere with the
b. Post partum bleed
clotting cascade at the point of:
c. Bleeding in surgery
d. Bleed from tooth removal a. Thrombin formation
e. All of the above
b. Formation of the platelet plug
36. Which of the following would affect
hemostatis? c. Steps leading to fibrin formation

a. Vit. k synthesis d. None of the above

b. Clotting factors 40. Which is not a drug for coagulation

disorders?
c. Liver disorder
a. Anticoagulants
d. All of the above
b. Antiplatelets
37. Coagulation lab studies include all of the
following except c. Thrombolytics

a. Platelet count d. Anti-Emetics

b. INR 41. Promotes formation of new clots

c. PT a. Thrombolytics

b. Anticoagulants

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c. Hemostatics b. Argatroban

d. Antiplatelet c. Antithrombin

42. Thrombolytics break down an existing d. Dalterparin (Fragmin)

thrombus by stimulating the _____system
46. Inhibits conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
a. Fibrin
a. Heparin
b. Plasmin
b. Alteplase (Activase)
c. Thrombin
c. Tirofiban (aggrastat)
d. Complement
d. None of the above
43. Which of the following is not an
47. A patient is suffered from vitamin K
Anticoagulant?
deficiency. Which of the coagulation factors
a. Warfarin will not be affected?

b. Dalteparin (Sub Q) a. Factor II

c. Heparin b. Factor VII

d. Ticlopidine (Ticlid) (PO) c. Factor VIII

e. Antithrombin (IV) d. Factor IX

44. Which of the following is not a Sub Q 48. Identify the class of drug prescribed for
ANTICOAGULANT? acute management of deep vein thrombosis:
a. Anticoagulants, eg. warfarin
a. Dalteparin
b. Thrombolytics, eg. tPA
b. Fondapirinux c. Antiplatelets, eg. Aspirin
d. All of the above
c. Heparin Sodium
49. Identify the correct statement regarding
d. Warfarin
Warfarin:
45. Used to prevent thrombosis in heparin a. Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist
induced thrombocytopenia b. Warfarin specifically inhibits epoxide
reductase enzyme
a. Bivalrudin (Angiomax)

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c. Warfarin is metabolized by the microsomal inhibiting the interaction of fibrinogen and von
P450 enzyme Willebrand's factor to the integrin receptor;
d. All of the above a. Aspirin
b. Abciximab
50. The ...... drug inhibits platelet aggregation by
c. Clopidogrel
binding to integrin receptor GPIIb/IIIA and
d. Warfarin

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Unit-5 Anti-Neoplastic Drugs

1. Which class of anti-neoplastic drugs interferes c) Tyrosine kinase
with DNA synthesis and replication?
d) RNA polymerase
a) Alkylating agents
5. Which anti-neoplastic drug is associated with
b) Antimetabolites the side effect of cardiotoxicity?

c) Topoisomerase inhibitors a) Paclitaxel

d) Monoclonal antibodies b) Rituximab

2. Methotrexate is an example of which type of c) Trastuzumab

anti-neoplastic drug?
d) Vinblastine
a) Alkylating agent
6. Vinca alkaloids such as vincristine and
b) Antimetabolite vinblastine exert their effects by:

c) Topoisomerase inhibitor a) Inhibiting DNA synthesis

d) Monoclonal antibody b) Stabilizing microtubules

3. Which anti-neoplastic drug class includes c) Blocking tyrosine kinase activity

drugs like doxorubicin and epirubicin?
d) Inhibiting ribonucleotide reductase
a) Alkylating agents
7. Which anti-neoplastic drug class includes
b) Antimetabolites drugs like cisplatin and carboplatin?

c) Anthracyclines a) Alkylating agents

d) Tyrosine kinase inhibitors b) Antimetabolites

4. Imatinib targets which specific enzyme in the c) Topoisomerase inhibitors

treatment of certain cancers?
d) Platinum compounds
a) DNA polymerase
8. Which anti-neoplastic drug is commonly used
b) Topoisomerase to treat chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?

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a) Rituximab a) Cisplatin

b) Trastuzumab b) Cyclophosphamide

c) Dasatinib c) Etoposide

d) Bevacizumab d) Docetaxel

9. Which anti-neoplastic drug inhibits the 13. Which drug inhibits the enzyme
enzyme thymidylate synthase? topoisomerase I, preventing DNA repair and
replication?
a) 5-Fluorouracil
a) Irinotecan
b) Gemcitabine
b) Methotrexate
c) Cytarabine
c) Paclitaxel
d) Mercaptopurine
d) Mercaptopurine
10. Tamoxifen is commonly used in the
treatment of: 14. HER2-positive breast cancer can be treated
with:
a) Breast cancer
a) Trastuzumab
b) Lung cancer
b) Rituximab
c) Prostate cancer
c) Bevacizumab
d) Colorectal cancer
d) Imatinib
11. The main mechanism of action of
monoclonal antibodies in cancer treatment is: 15. Which anti-neoplastic drug is a proteasome
inhibitor used in the treatment of multiple
a) Direct DNA damage
myeloma?
b) Inhibition of microtubule formation
a) Lenalidomide
c) Activation of apoptosis
b) Bortezomib
d) Targeting specific antigens
c) Gefitinib
12. Which anti-neoplastic drug is associated
d) Sorafenib
with the side effect of peripheral neuropathy?

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16. Alkylating agents exert their effects by: 20. Which class of anti-neoplastic drugs includes
drugs like busulfan and melphalan?
a) Inhibiting topoisomerase
a) Alkylating agents
b) Crosslinking DNA strands
b) Antimetabolites
c) Inhibiting ribonucleotide reductase
c) Topoisomerase inhibitors
d) Inhibiting microtubule formation
d) Monoclonal antibodies
17. Which anti-neoplastic drug is a folic acid
analog? 21. The drug rituximab targets which specific
type of cells in the treatment of certain cancers?
a) 5-Fluorouracil
a) T cells
b) Gemcitabine
b) B cells
c) Cytarabine
c) Natural killer cells
d) Methotrexate
d) Platelets
18. Erlotinib and gefitinib are examples of:
22. Which anti-neoplastic drug class includes
a) Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
drugs like temozolomide and procarbazine?
b) Monoclonal antibodies
a) Alkylating agents
c) Platinum compounds
b) Antimetabolites
d) Vinca alkaloids
c) Nitrosoureas
19. Which anti-neoplastic drug is derived from
d) Proteasome inhibitors
the Pacific yew tree and stabilizes microtubules?
23. Which anti-neoplastic drug is used to treat
a) Docetaxel
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
b) Vincristine
a) Dasatinib
c) Irinotecan
b) Ibrutinib
d) Etoposide
c) Erlotinib

d) Sorafenib

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24. Which drug inhibits the enzyme 28. The drug fludarabine is classified as a:
dihydrofolate reductase?
a) Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
a) 5-Fluorouracil
b) Monoclonal antibody
b) Gemcitabine
c) Purine analog antimetabolite
c) Cytarabine
d) Platinum compound
d) Methotrexate
29. Which anti-neoplastic drug class includes
25. The drug paclitaxel exerts its effects by: drugs like etoposide and topotecan?

a) Inhibiting DNA synthesis a) Alkylating agents

b) Stabilizing microtubules b) Antimetabolites

c) Blocking tyrosine kinase activity c) Topoisomerase inhibitors

d) Inhibiting ribonucleotide reductase d) Platinum compounds

26. Which anti-neoplastic drug is associated 30. Bevacizumab exerts its effects by inhibiting:
with the side effect of pulmonary fibrosis?
a) DNA synthesis
a) Cisplatin
b) Microtubule formation
b) Busulfan
c) Angiogenesis
c) Etoposide
d) Ribonucleotide reductase
d) Doxorubicin
31. Which anti-neoplastic drug is used in the
27. Which drug is commonly used in treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
combination therapy for testicular cancer and and inhibits BCR-ABL kinase activity?
can cause ototoxicity?
a) Imatinib
a) Vincristine
b) Erlotinib
b) Cisplatin
c) Gefitinib
c) Tamoxifen
d) Sorafenib
d) Bevacizumab

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32. Which drug is used in the treatment of d) Bevacizumab
multiple myeloma and can cause peripheral
36. Which anti-neoplastic drug class includes
neuropathy?
drugs like hydroxyurea and fludarabine?
a) Lenalidomide
a) Alkylating agents
b) Bortezomib
b) Antimetabolites
c) Gefitinib
c) Topoisomerase inhibitors
d) Sorafenib
d) Ribonucleotide reductase inhibitors
33. Which anti-neoplastic drug class includes
37. Which drug is used in the treatment of
drugs like mitoxantrone and idarubicin?
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and
a) Alkylating agents inhibits Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK)?

b) Anthracyclines a) Ibrutinib

c) Nitrosoureas b) Dasatinib

d) Proteasome inhibitors c) Erlotinib

34. Which anti-neoplastic drug is commonly d) Sorafenib

used in the treatment of ovarian cancer?
38. Which anti-neoplastic drug is associated
a) Paclitaxel with the side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis?

b) Rituximab a) Cisplatin

c) Trastuzumab b) Cyclophosphamide

d) Erlotinib c) Etoposide

35. Which drug is a monoclonal antibody used d) Doxorubicin

in the treatment of colorectal cancer?
39. Which drug inhibits the enzyme
a) Rituximab ribonucleotide reductase?

b) Trastuzumab a) 5-Fluorouracil

c) Cetuximab b) Gemcitabine

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c) Cytarabine b) Gemcitabine

d) Hydroxyurea c) Cytarabine

40. Which anti-neoplastic drug is used in the d) Mercaptopurine

treatment of non-small cell lung cancer
44. Which drug is used in the treatment of
(NSCLC) and targets EGFR mutations?
chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) and inhibits
a) Imatinib the fusion protein BCR-ABL?

b) Erlotinib a) Imatinib

c) Gefitinib b) Erlotinib

d) Sorafenib c) Gefitinib

42. Which anti-neoplastic drug class includes d) Sorafenib

drugs like lomustine and carmustine?
45. Which anti-neoplastic drug class includes
a) Alkylating agents drugs like tamoxifen and letrozole?

b) Anthracyclines a) Hormonal agents

c) Nitrosoureas b) Monoclonal antibodies

d) Topoisomerase inhibitors c) Tyrosine kinase inhibitors

43. Which drug is used in the treatment of renal d) Proteasome inhibitors

cell carcinoma and inhibits VEGF signaling?
46. Which drug is used in the treatment of
a) Bevacizumab advanced melanoma and enhances T-cell-
mediated immune responses?
b) Trastuzumab
a) Ipilimumab
c) Sunitinib
b) Nivolumab
d) Ibrutinib
c) Trastuzumab
43. Which anti-neoplastic drug is a purine
analog? d) Erlotinib

a) 5-Fluorouracil

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47. Which anti-neoplastic drug is associated 49. Which anti-neoplastic drug class includes
with the side effect of hand-foot syndrome? drugs like temsirolimus and everolimus?

a) Cisplatin a) Tyrosine kinase inhibitors

b) Capecitabine b) Monoclonal antibodies

c) Etoposide c) mTOR inhibitors

d) Doxorubicin d) Proteasome inhibitors

48. Which drug is used in the treatment of 50. Which drug is used in the treatment of acute
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and promyelocytic leukemia (APL) and targets the
inhibits PI3K delta? PML-RARα fusion protein?

a) Ibrutinib a) All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)

b) Dasatinib b) Gemtuzumab ozogamicin

c) Erlotinib c) Brentuximab vedotin

d) Sorafenib d) Dasatinib

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Speed Reading, Reading & Skimming

1. What is speed reading? a. Skimming
a. Reading quickly and understanding b. Scanning
the text c. Subvocalization
b. Glancing over the words without d. Chunking
understanding 7. Which type of reading is used when
c. Reading only the first and last you're looking for errors in a document?
sentences a. Skimming
d. Skipping every other word b. Scanning
2. What is subvocalization? c. Intensive reading
a. Reading without moving your lips d. Extensive reading
b. Reading aloud 8. Which of the following is not a benefit of
c. Reading silently speed reading?
d. Reading backwards a. Improved comprehension
3. How can you improve reading speed? b. Increased reading speed
a. Increase subvocalization c. Enhanced focus and concentration
b. Focus on individual letters d. Greater enjoyment of literature
c. Read word by word 9. What is the main purpose of skimming?
d. Group words together a. To understand every detail
4. Skimming is used to: b. To quickly grasp the main idea
a. Memorize every detail c. To memorize the text word-for-word
b. Understand complex vocabulary d. To critique the author's style
c. Get a quick overview of the content 10. Scanning involves:
d. Read slowly and carefully a. Reading every word carefully
5. What is the recommended reading speed b. Reading the entire text thoroughly
for effective comprehension? c. Searching for specific keywords or
a. 100 words per minute phrases
b. 300 words per minute d. Ignoring headings and subheadings
c. 500 words per minute 11. Which of the following is a skimming
d. 800 words per minute technique?
6. Which technique involves looking for a. Reading every paragraph carefully
specific information in a text? b. Reading out loud

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c. Reading the entire text multiple times 17. What type of reading is used to quickly
d. Reading headings and subheadings find a specific phone number in a
12. What is the process of understanding directory?
written language? a. Skimming
a. Writing b. Scanning
b. Speaking c. Analytical reading
c. Reading d. Extensive reading
d. Listening 18. Reading a novel for pleasure and
13. Reading for pleasure and enjoyment is relaxation is an example of:
known as: a. Skimming
a. Skimming b. Scanning
b. Scanning c. Analytical reading
c. Analytical reading d. Extensive reading
d. Extensive reading 19. Chunking is the process of:
14. Reading a news article to quickly a. Dividing text into meaningful
understand the main points is an example groups
of: b. Reading each word individually
a. Skimming c. Reading backwards
b. Scanning d. Reading aloud
c. Analytical reading 20. Which technique involves using your
d. Intensive reading finger or a pointer while reading?
15. Which type of reading is most suitable for a. Skimming
reviewing a text for a test? b. Scanning
a. Skimming c. Subvocalization
b. Scanning d. Meta Guided reading
c. Analytical reading 21. Which of these is a common barrier to
d. Intensive reading effective speed reading?
16. Reading a menu to choose what to order a. Subvocalization
at a restaurant is an example of: b. Reading aloud
a. Skimming c. Skimming
b. Scanning d. Chunking
c. Analytical reading 22. Which statement is true about speed
d. Intensive reading reading?

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a. It's only about reading as fast as c. To improve writing skills
possible d. To impress others
b. It sacrifices comprehension for speed
27. When reading a passage, what should
c. It's about finding shortcuts to skip
you do if you come across an unfamiliar
text
word?
d. It aims to balance speed and
a. Ignore it and move on
comprehension
b. Look it up in a dictionary
23. The reading technique used to find a job
c. Try to guess the meaning based on
advert in the local newspaper is ______.
context
a. Skimming
d. All of the above
b. Scanning
c. Detailed 28. What is the main purpose of asking
d. Extensive questions while reading?
24. Which reading technique is used for a. To improve reading speed
learning a subject for an exam? b. To improve memory retention
a. Skimming c. To identify key points
b. Intensive d. To better understand the text
c. Scanning 29. What is the purpose of previewing
d. Extensive before reading?
25. Reading a recipe before cooking comes a. Reading the entire text carefully
into the _____ technique of reading. b. Reading the conclusion first
a. Skimming c. Getting an idea of the content
b. Scanning d. Highlighting important sections
c. Detailed 30. What is the purpose of previewing
d. Extensive before reading?
a. Reading the entire text carefully
26. What is the main purpose of reading?
b. Reading the conclusion first
a. To acquire new information
c. Getting an idea of the content
b. To pass the time
d. Highlighting important section

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Summary & Paragraph Writing

1. What is the purpose of summarizing a text? 6. Which of these sentences is a good
summary?
a. To copy the entire text
b. To condense the main points a. A detailed overview of the entire text
c. To analyze every detail b. A brief restatement of the entire text
d. To create a new story c. A rephrased version of the first paragraph
d. A lengthy critique of the author's style
2. Which of the following is NOT a step in
summarizing? 7. What should be avoided in a summary?

a. Identifying key points a. Paraphrasing key points

b. Rewriting the text verbatim b. Including personal opinions
c. Removing unnecessary details c. Providing context
d. Organizing information logically d. Mentioning the author's name

3. What should a good summary include? 8. Summaries are particularly useful for:

a. All supporting evidence a. Authors wanting to republish

b. Only the author's opinions b. Skimming through research papers
c. Main ideas and key details c. Ignoring the original text's content
d. Long quotations from the text d. Expanding on the original ideas

4. When summarizing, it's important to focus 9. What's the main goal of a summary?
on:
a. To challenge the reader's understanding
a. Minor side stories b. To present a biased interpretation
b. Tangential anecdotes c. To provide an abridged version
c. The central ideas d. To confuse the reader
d. All adjectives used
10. Which of the following is NOT essential in
5. What is the preferred length of a summary? a summary?

a. Longer than the original text a. Mentioning the author's name

b. Approximately the same length b. Highlighting key points
c. A few sentences to a paragraph c. Preserving the original tone
d. Only one word d. Keeping the original structure

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11. What does a summary of a fictional story b. Removing all key points
focus on? c. Reorganizing the text randomly
d. D) Using your own words to restate
a. Describing every character's appearance
main ideas
b. Recreating the original dialogue
c. Capturing the main plot points 16. A paragraph is a subdivision of a
d. Discussing the author's biography composition.

12. In academic papers, what role does a a. Reading

summary play? b. Written
c. Studying
a. Provides a thorough analysis
d. None
b. Substitutes for the introduction
17. A paragraph consists of …………………
c. Helps readers decide to read further
sentences.
d. Adds footnotes and references
a. One
13. What should you do if you need to include b. Two
a direct quote from the original text in your c. More than one
summary? d. One and more than one
18. A paragraph gives words of ……………….
a. Use the quote without any changes
Speakers.
b. Paraphrase the quote
a. Two speakers
c. Omit the quote completely
b. Three speakers
d. Translate the quote into another language
c. More than one speakers
14. When summarizing, what should you do if d. One speakers
you come across unfamiliar terms or 19. ……. means establishing a relationship
concepts? between the ideas presented in
a paragraph.
a. Replace them with synonyms
a. Coherence
b. Include a detailed explanation
b. Unity
c. Omit them from the summary
c. Structural bridge
d. Consult additional sources
d. Thematic bridge
15. Which of the following is an effective 20. Unity in a paragraph means that the
summarizing strategy? entire paragraph should focus on one
single idea and …………..
a. Expanding upon minor details

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a. Tense d. None
b. Theme 26. The purpose of a persuasive
c. Two tenses essay/paragraph is to ……………..the
d. None reader to agree with the writer.
21. The supporting details should ………..the a. Convince
main idea. b. Force
a. Explain c. Explain
b. Exaggerate d. Descriptive
c. Introduce 27. The purpose of …………………. type of
d. None essay/paragraph is to explain something.
22. The …………..sentence should end a. Expository
the paragraph with the same idea. b. Descriptive
a. Topic sentence c. Narrative
b. Supporting d. Persuasive
c. Concluding sentence 28. ……………… will have a beginning, middle,
d. None and an end.
23. There are ……… basic types of a. Narrative paragraph
essays/paragraphs. b. Descriptive Paragraph
a. Three c. Exposition paragraph
b. Five d. Persuasive paragraph
c. Four 29. The main idea of a paragraph is
d. None introduced by what?
24. The object of descriptive paragraph can a. A collection of only adjectives.
be b. A topic sentence.
a. a person c. A collection of only nouns.
b. a place d. d)A numerical beginning
c. a thing, or an idea 30. Paragraphs that are coherent describe a
d. all of the above writer's thoughts to be what?
25. The purpose of a narrative a. Flowery.
essay/paragraph is to tell a ……….. b. Beautiful.
a. Essay c. Logical.
b. Story d. Numerical.
c. Tale
31. What is a topic sentence?

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a. A sentence with signal words that b. Paragraph Incoherence.
increase effectiveness of organization. c. Paragraph Unity.
b. A way to conclude the paragraph so the d. None of the above
reader knows what the entire paragraph
36. Is necessary for writing.
was about.
c. Reasons, examples, and other details that a. Planning

support the main point of the paragraph. b. Time

d. The sentence that expresses the main
c. Place
point, or idea, of a paragraph.
d. None
32. Topic sentence is usually...
37. A way of gathering ideas about a topic is
a. Unknown called.
b. The first sentence of a paragraph a. Delusion
c. The last sentence of a paragraph
b. Strategy
d. In the middle of the paragraph
c. Brainstorming
33. Which of these is not an important feature
of a paragraph? d. None of these

a. Length 38. After revising your writing, check your

b. Breadth grammar, capitalization and spelling errors is
c. Unity called _________
d. Coherence
a. Drafting
34. An average length of sentence in a
b. Editing
paragraph should be _____
c. Revising

a. 15 to 20 words d. Proofreading

b. 25 to 30 words
39. Which choice shows examples of words
c. 2 to 5 words
and phrases that could signal a cause-and-
d. 5 to 10 words
effect connection?
35. What is smooth and logical flow of
sentences in a paragraph, called? a. Indeed, very, infect, extremely, but
b. Therefore, as a result, consequently
a. Paragraph Coherence.
c. Above, behind, below

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d. None of the above are used a. To restate the topic sentence
b. To introduce a new idea
40. What is the primary purpose of a topic c. To summarize the main idea
sentence in a paragraph? d. To present the weakest supporting detail

a. To provide background information 45. What type of paragraph would likely use
b. To summarize the main idea chronological order as its organizational
c. To present supporting details structure?
d. To conclude the paragraph
a. Comparison and contrast
41. Which of the following should be included b. Cause and effect
in the introduction of a paragraph? c. Problem and solution
d. Narrative
a. The main supporting details
b. A clear thesis statement 46. Which of the following is NOT a step in
c. A concluding statement the process of paragraph development?
d. A restatement of the topic sentence
a. Brainstorming ideas
42. In a well-developed paragraph, b. Writing the conclusion first
supporting details should: c. Organizing supporting details
d. Editing for clarity and coherence
a. Be unrelated to the topic sentence
b. Be repetitive and redundant 47. What is the purpose of using examples in
c. Provide evidence and examples a paragraph?
d. Only consist of opinions
a. To confuse the reader
43. Which transitional word would best b. To provide evidence and support
connect two contrasting ideas in a paragraph? c. To repeat information
d. To introduce unrelated ideas
a. Furthermore
b. However 48. Which sentence is most likely to be a topic
c. In addition sentence for a paragraph?
d. Therefore
a. "In conclusion, global warming is a
44. What is the purpose of a concluding pressing issue."
sentence in a paragraph?

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b. "There are many factors contributing to a. To make the paragraph shorter
pollution. b. To confuse the reader
c. "The first reason for the popularity of c. To provide a source citation
smart phones is their versatility." d. To improve the flow and coherence
d. "Pollution affects the environment and
human health." 50. Which of these should be avoided in a
paragraph?
49. What is the purpose of using transitional a. Courtesy
words and phrases in a paragraph? b. Positive attitude
c. Discriminatory language

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Prepositions and Parts of Speech

1. She walked __ the park. 5. The keys are __ the drawer.

a) through a) between

b) in b) in

c) on c) under

d) between d) with

2. The book is __ the table. 6. They met __ 3 o'clock.

a) over a) at

b) under b) on

c) above c) in

d) beside d) by

3. He lives __ the street from me. 7. The school is __ the corner of the street.

a) in a) at

b) on b) on

c) at c) in

d) across d) beside

4. The cat jumped __ the fence. 8. She is allergic __ cats.

a) above a) on

b) over b) at

c) beside c) to

d) under d) with

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9. The store is open __ Mondays. c) during

a) at d) from

b) on 14. Nafeesa is afraid_____ spiders.

A) from
c) in
B) in
d) during C) about
D) of
10. The bookshelf is __ the wall.
15. My room is infested _________ insects.
a) above
b) against a) In
c) on b) On
d) below c) From
d) With
11. The cat is sleeping __ the bed.

a) on 16. The planes flew in formation _________

the fields.
b) at

a) On
c) in
b) Above
d) between c) At
d) Over
12. The museum is __ the end of the street.

a) at 17. The shopkeeper sells sweets made

______ pure milk.
b) on
a) Of
c) in
b) By
d) near c) With
d) From
13. She's been waiting for you __ an hour.

a) for 18. This chair is made______ wood.

b) since a) With

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b) Of 23. Which part of speech is the word
c) From "quickly"?

d) By
a) Noun

19. I am glad _______ your success. b) Verb

a) To c) Adjective
b) For
d) Adverb
c) Of
d) None of these 24. What is the verb in the sentence? They
are swimming in the lake.
20. We suffered ________ your neglect.
a) They
a) From
b) lake
b) To
c) Of c) swimming
d) None of These
d) in
21. What part of speech is the word "cat"?
25. Choose the correct part of speech for the
a) Verb word "happiness."

b) Adjective a) Adjective

c) Noun b) Adverb

d) Adverb c) Noun

22. Identify the adverb in the sentence: She d) Pronoun

speaks softly.
26. What part of speech is the word "happy"?
a) speaks
a) Noun
b) softly
b) Verb
c) She
c) Adjective
d) She speaks
d) Adverb

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27. Identify the conjunction in the sentence: I d) on
like both tea and coffee.
31. What part of speech is the word
a) I "beautiful"?

b) like a) Adjective

c) tea b) Noun

d) and c) Verb

28. Which part of speech is the word d) Adverb

"running" in the sentence "She is running
32. Choose the correct part of speech for the
fast"?
word "quick."
a) Verb
a) Noun
b) Adjective
b) Verb
c) Noun
c) Adjective
d) Adverb
d) Adverb
29. What is the adjective in the sentence? The
33. Which part of speech describes an action
tall man wore a blue hat.
or occurrence?
a) tall
a) Noun
b) wore
b) Verb
c) man
c) Adjective
d) blue
d) Adverb
30. Identify the preposition in the sentence:
34. Identify the adjective in the sentence:
The book is on the table.
"The red apple is juicy."
a) The
a) red
b) book
b) apple
c) is

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c) is a) Noun

d) juicy b) Adjective

35. What part of speech is the word "quickly" c) Verb

in the sentence: "She ran quickly to catch the
d) Adverb
bus."
39. Which part of speech is a word that
a) Noun
describes a place, person, thing, or idea?
b) Adjective
a) Noun
c) Verb
b) Verb
d) Adverb
c) Adjective
36. Which part of speech connects words or
d) Adverb
groups of words within a sentence?
40. Identify the conjunction in the sentence:
a) Noun
"I want to go to the movies, but I don't have
b) Verb enough money."

c) Conjunction a) want

d) Adjective b) go

37. Identify the pronoun in the sentence: c) to

"They went to the park."
d) but
a) They
41. What part of speech is the word "friendly"
b) went in the sentence: "She is a friendly neighbor."

c) to a) Noun

d) park b) Adjective

38. What part of speech is the word "happily" c) Verb

in the sentence: "She smiled happily at her
d) Adverb
friend."

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42. Which part of speech shows the 44. What part of speech is the word "after" in
relationship between a noun or pronoun and the sentence: "We'll meet after the party."
other words in a sentence?
a) Noun
a) Noun
b) Verb
b) Preposition
c) Preposition
c) Adjective
d) Adverb
d) Adverb
45. Which part of speech is used to replace a
43. Identify the verb in the sentence: "The cat noun and prevent repetition?
sleeps on the windowsill."
a) Verb
a) cat
b) Pronoun
b) sleeps
c) Adjective
c) on
d) Conjunction
d) windowsill

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Nursing Objectives, Subject Verb Agreement & Articles

1. What is the primary purpose of setting 5. What does the "A" in SMART goals stand
goals and objectives? for?

a. To create a to-do list a. Achievable

b. To provide direction and purpose b. Ambiguous
c. To increase stress levels c. Artistic
d. To limit creativity d. Arbitrary

2. Goals are generally: 6. Which is an example of a time-bound

objective?
a. Specific, measurable, achievable,
relevant, and time-bound (SMART) a. "Improve customer satisfaction by
b. Subjective, minimal, accessible, reactive, 10% within a year"
and timely b. "Increase brand awareness"
c. Simple, mundane, aggressive, random, c. "Promote creativity"
and timeless d. "Maintain quality standards"
d. Sensible, moderate, ambiguous, routine,
7. Which statement best describes the
and long-term
relationship between goals and objectives?
3. Which characteristic is essential for an
a. Goals and objectives are interchangeable
effective objective?
terms
a. Vague b. Goals are broader intentions, while
b. Ambiguous objectives are specific steps to achieve
c. Generalized them
d. Specific c. Goals are the smallest components of
objectives
4. Which term refers to a long-term,
d. Goals and objectives have no connection
overarching aim?
8. What is the purpose of regularly reviewing
a. Objective
goals and objectives?
b. Target
c. Mission a. To ignore progress
d. Goal b. To stay stagnant

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c. To ensure relevance and adjust as 13. Neither Alice nor her friends ____ to the
needed party.
d. To discourage innovation
a. is coming
9. What is the final step after achieving a b. are coming
goal? c. has come
d. have come
a. Forget about it and move on
b. Evaluate the results and celebrate 14. Everyone in class (needs/need) to study.
achievements a. Needs
c. Lower the bar for the next goal b. Need
d. Avoid setting new goals
15. The football team (practices/ practice)
10. What is the primary goal of nursing care? every day.
a. Practices
a. Diagnosing diseases
b. Practice
b. Administering medications
c. Promoting patient well-being 16. Either my aunts or my uncle (is/are)
d. Conducting surgical procedures going to be at my party.

11. What does the term "holistic care" mean a. Is

in nursing? b. Are

a. Focusing solely on physical health 17. Near the center of the campus (is/ are)
b. Treating only psychological issues the counselors' offices.
c. Addressing all aspects of a patient's a. Is
well-being b. Are (Two subjects joined by "and" take a
d. Concentrating on family dynamics plural verb)

12. The dog ____ in the park every morning. 18. Abbas and Ali (is/ are) finished with the
essay.
a. run
a. Is
b. runs
b. Are
c. running
d. ran 19. Twenty dollars (is/ are) not a lot of
money these days.

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a. Is (The word "dollars" is considered one b. An, an
amount so it's singular) c. The, the
b. Are d. No article needed

20. Claudia, as well as Judy, (speaks/ speak) 27. I need _____ book that you borrowed last
American Sign Language. week.
a. Speaks
a. a
b. Speak
b. an
21. There (is/ are) several reasons for c. the
Desiree’s happy expression today. d. No article needed
a. Is
28. She wants to become _____ astronaut.
b. Are
a. a
22. Some of the fruit in our local market
b. an
(comes/ come) from Chile.
c. the
a. Comes
d. No article needed
b. Come
29. Could you pass me _____ salt, please?
23. Some of the grapes in our local market
(comes/ come) from Mexico. a. a
a. Comes b. an
b. Come c. the
d. No article needed
24. Where _______ your grandmother and
grandfather live? 30. My sister is ____ doctor at ____ local
a. Does hospital.
b. Do
a. a, the
25. Mathematics (is/are) a required subject b. an, a
for a college degree. c. the, a
a. Is (The word "mathematics" is considered d. No article needed
singular even though it ends in –s)
31. ____ Nile River is ____ longest river in _____
b. Are
world.
26. ____ at is sitting on ____ windowsill.
a. A, a a. A, a, the

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b. An, an, a c. the
c. The, the, the d. no article
d. No article needed
37. _____ Apple a day keeps the doctor away.
32. We're going to _____ movie tonight. a. A
b. An
a. a
c. The
b. an
d. No article
c. the
d. No article needed 38. He is _____ M.A.
a. a
33. I saw ____ interesting documentary on ____
b. an
nature yesterday.
c. the
a. a, a d. no article
b. an, an
39. Ant is ______ insect.
c. the, the
d. No article needed a. A
b. An
34. She has ____ MBA from ____ Harvard
c. The
University.
d. No article
a. a, a
40. He saw _____ aeroplane in the sky.
b. an, an
c. the, the a. A
d. No article needed b. An
c. The
35. ____ honesty is ____ best policy.
d. No article
a. A, a
41. The children are making _____ noise.
b. An, an
a. a
c. The, the
b. an
d. No article needed
c. the
36. Can you speak ____ Spanish? d. no article
a. a
42. I saw ____ one eyed person.
b. an
a. a

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b. an 44. She never goes out without ___ umbrella.
c. the a. a
d. no article b. an
c. the
43. _____ English is an international language.
d. no article
a. a
b. an 45. _____ Rich should help the poor.
c. the a. A
d. no article b. An
c. The

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Active & Passive Voice

1. The cat chased the mouse. c) Delicious meals have been prepared by
the chef.
a) The mouse was chased by the cat.
d) Delicious meals were being prepared
b) The mouse chased the cat.
by the chef.
c) The cat is chasing the mouse.
d) The cat has been chased by the mouse. 6. The teacher will teach a new lesson.

2. They are building a new bridge. a) A new lesson will be taught by the
teacher.
a) A new bridge is built by them.
b) A new lesson will teach the teacher.
b) A new bridge is being built by them.
c) A new lesson was taught by the teacher.
c) A new bridge was built by them.
d) The teacher will be taught a new lesson.
d) A new bridge will be built by them.
7. They have completed the project.
3. She had written a beautiful song.
a) The project was completed by them.
a) A beautiful song was written by her.
b) The project has been completed by them.
b) A beautiful song is written by her.
c) The project completed them.
c) A beautiful song had been written by her.
d) The project will be completed by them.
d) A beautiful song was being written by
her. 8. The storm damaged the house.

4. Someone stole my wallet. a) The house was damaged by the storm.

b) The house damaged the storm.
a) My wallet was being stolen by someone.
c) The house was being damaged by the
b) My wallet has been stolen by someone.
storm.
c) My wallet was stolen by someone.
d) The house has been damaged by the
d) My wallet will be stolen by someone.
storm.
5. The chef prepares delicious meals.
9. She sings a beautiful song.
a) Delicious meals are prepared by the chef.
a) A beautiful song is sung by her.
b) Delicious meals were prepared by the
b) A beautiful song was sung by her.
chef.
c) A beautiful song sang her.
d) A beautiful song is singing her.

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10. The company is launching a new product. d) The suspect has been arrested by the
police.
a) A new product is launching by the
company. 14. He will repair the car.
b) A new product has been launched by the
a) The car will be repaired by him.
company.
b) The car will repair him.
c) A new product will launch the company.
c) The car was repaired by him.
d) A new product is being launched by the
d) The car will be repairing by him.
company.
15. The children are watching a movie.
11. The gardener plants flowers in the
garden. a) A movie is being watched by the
children.
a) Flowers were planted in the garden by
b) A movie was watched by the children.
the gardener.
c) A movie watched the children.
b) Flowers are planted in the garden by
d) The children watched a movie.
the gardener. Flowers will be planted in
the garden by the gardener. 16. The chef had cooked a delicious meal.
c) Flowers planted the garden by the
a) A delicious meal had been cooked by the
gardener.
chef.
12. They had finished their homework. b) A delicious meal was cooked by the chef.
c) A delicious meal had cooked the chef.
a) Their homework was finished by them.
d) A delicious meal had been cooked the
b) Their homework had been finished by
chef.
them.
c) Their homework finished them. 17. The team will play the championship
d) Their homework had been finished by game.
them.
a) The championship game will be played
13. The police arrested the suspect. by the team.
b) The championship game will play the
a) The suspect was arrested by the police.
team.
b) The suspect arrested the police.
c) The championship game was played by
c) The suspect was being arrested by the
the team.
police.

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d) The team will be playing the b) A new dress has been bought by her.
championship game. c) A new dress bought her.
d) A new dress was being bought by her.
18. They can solve the problem.
20. The teacher teaches grammar.
a) The problem can be solved by them.
b) The problem can be solving them. a) Grammar is taught by the teacher.
c) The problem can solve them. b) Grammar teaches the teacher.
d) The problem can solving by them. c) Grammar is being taught by the
teacher.
19. She bought a new dress.
d) Grammar taught the teacher.
a) A new dress was bought by her.

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Idiom’s
1. "Bite the bullet" means: d) Cleaning up a mess

a) Taste something spicy 5. "A piece of cake" means:

b) Face a difficult situation with courage a) A dessert item

c) Chew on a pencil b) Something that is easy to do

d) Avoid making a decision c) A puzzle to solve

2. "Break a leg" is an idiom used to: d) A difficult challenge

a) Encourage someone to be careful 6. "Kick the bucket" means:

b) Wish someone good luck, especially in a) Literally kicking a bucket

the theater
b) Passing away or dying
c) Give medical advice
c) Cleaning the house
d) Challenge someone to a physical contest
d) Going on a long journey
3. "Hit the nail on the head" means:
7. "Cost an arm and a leg" means:
a) Miss the target completely
a) Being very affordable
b) Achieve a perfect result
b) Being extremely expensive
c) Get injured while working
c) Buying something unusual
d) Avoid making a decision
d) Bargaining for a better price
4. "Cry over spilled milk" means:
8. "Burn the midnight oil" means:
a) Literally crying when milk is spilled
a) Literally burning oil at midnight
b) Regretting something that has already
b) Staying up late to work or study
happened and cannot be changed
c) Cooking a late-night meal
c) Celebrating a small achievement

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d) Sleeping peacefully at night c) Swimming in a heated pool

9. "Jump the gun" means: d) Enjoying a warm beverage

a) Participate in a race 13. "Don't cry over spilt milk" means:

b) Start too soon or act prematurely a) It's okay to cry when things go wrong

c) Avoid taking any action b) Don't waste time on regrets

d) Lose a competition c) Always clean up messes immediately

10. "A penny for your thoughts" means: d) Crying can solve problems

a) Asking someone to pay for their opinion 14. "Read between the lines" means:

b) Asking what someone is thinking or a) Literally reading a book

feeling
b) Understanding the hidden or implied
c) Offering a coin as a reward meaning

d) Discussing financial matters c) Skipping important information

11. "Keep your eyes peeled" means: d) Taking words at face value

a) Protect your eyes from harm 15. "Under the weather" means:

b) Keep your eyes closed a) Traveling by sea

c) Pay close attention and watch carefully b) Feeling unwell or sick

d) Avoid looking at something c) Enjoying a sunny day

12. "In hot water" means: d) Being in a great mood

a) Experiencing a hot bath

b) In a difficult or troublesome situation

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Letter Writing
1. What is the purpose of a cover letter when C) Thank-you letter
applying for a job?
D) Birthday invitation
A) To request a job interview
5. What is the closing phrase in a formal letter
B) To provide references typically followed by?

C) To list personal hobbies A) A comma (,)

D) To share your favorite quote B) An exclamation mark (!)

2. Which of the following is the appropriate C) A colon (:)

salutation for a formal business letter?
D) A period (.)
A) Dear John
6. Which part of a letter contains the date?
B) Hello
A) The header
C) To Whom It May Concern
B) The body
D) Hey there
C) The closing
3. In a formal letter, where should your
D) The salutation
address be placed?
7. Which of the following is a common way to
A) At the bottom
begin the body of a formal letter?
B) In the top-right corner
A) "Hi there,"
C) In the center
B) "I hope this finds you well."
D) At the top-left corner
C) "What's up?"
4. Which type of letter is commonly used to
D) "Dear Sir/Madam,"
complain about a product or service?
8. In a letter, what should be included in the
A) Love letter
subject line (if applicable)?
B) Complaint letter

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A) Your life story 12. Which of the following is NOT an
appropriate way to address a formal letter
B) The main topic or purpose of the letter
recipient?
C) A joke
A) Mrs. Sajid
D) Your favorite recipe
B) Jawad
9. Which type of letter is used to express
C) Mr. Jamil
gratitude?
D) Dr. Ahmad
A) Apology letter
13. Which type of letter is used to formally
B) Complaint letter
quit a job?
C) Thank-you letter
A) Love letter
D) Resignation letter
B) Apology letter
10. What is the purpose of the CC line in a
C) Resignation letter
business letter?
D) Birthday card
A) To indicate the carbon copy of the letter
14. What should be your tone when writing a
B) To share a secret message
complaint letter?
C) To provide contact information
A) Angry and confrontational
D) To write a humorous note
B) Sarcastic and humorous
11. What should you include in the opening
C) Polite and constructive
paragraph of a cover letter?
D) Indifferent and apathetic
A) Your life story
15. What is the purpose of the enclosures
B) A brief introduction and the position
notation in a letter?
you're applying for
A) To list all your personal belongings
C) Your hobbies and interests
B) To indicate that additional documents
D) A list of your demands
are included with the letter

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C) To draw a smiley face A) Nothing, just send it right away

D) To show your favorite movie title B) Proofread and edit for errors

16. Which part of a formal letter is located at C) Tear it up and start over
the very top and contains your name, address,
D) Sign it with your favorite color
and contact information?
19. What is the purpose of the PS (postscript)
A) The body
in a letter?
B) The salutation
A) To write a secret message
C) The header
B) To apologize for the letter's content
D) The closing
C) To add an afterthought or additional
17. When should you use a formal letter information
format?
D) To sign your name again
A) When writing to a close friend
20. Which of the following is NOT a common
B) When sending a thank-you note way to close a formal letter?

C) When corresponding with a potential A) Sincerely

employer
B) Yours truly
D) When sending a casual invitation
C) See you later
18. What should you do after writing a letter
D) Yours faithfully
but before sending it?

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Direct & Indirect Narration

1. He said, "Let us wait for your teacher." a) Nazir said that he had done his duty with
a) He proposed that they should wait for full justices.
their teacher. b) Nazir said he had done his duty with
b) He requested that they would wait for full justice.
their teacher. c) Nazir asked if he had done his duty with
c) He proposed that they shall wait for their full justice.
teacher. d) Nazir said that he was doing his duty with
d) He proposed that they can wait for their full justice.View Answer
teacher.
6. Tariq said, "Hurrah! I have won the match"!
2. He said to him, "Thank you for your kind a) Tariq exclaimed with joy that he had
help." won the match.
b) Tariq said with joy that he had won the
a) He told him for his kind help.
match.
b) He requested him for his kind help.
c) Tariq exclaimed with joy, he had won the
c) He asked him for his kind help.
match.
d) He thanked him for his kind help.
d) Tariq exclaimed with joy that he has won
3. He said, "I am leaving for Peshawar." the match.
a) He said that he has been leaving for 7. Sajid said, "Alas! How foolish I have
Peshawar. been"!
b) He said that he is leaving for Peshawar. a) Sajid said with sorrow that he had been
c) He said that I was leaving for Peshawar. very foolish.
d) He said that he was leaving for b) Sajid exclaimed with sorrow that he
Peshawar. had been very foolish.
c) Sajid exclaimed with sorrow as he had
4. She said to me, "Start."
been very foolish.
a) She forbade me to start. d) Said exclaimed with sorrow that he is
b) She asked me to start. very foolish
c) She requested me to start. 8. He said, "I shall get up early in the
d) She advised me to start. morning".

5. Nazir said, "I did my duty with full justice".

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 MCQ’s of English-III By: Zia Ud Din ZCN
a) He said that he would get up early in tongue.
the morning. C). The judge told the accuse, hold your
b) He said he would get up early in the tongue.
morning. D). The judge told the accused, hold his
c) He said that he will get up early in the tongue.
morning. 12. The traveler said, "Can you show me the
d) He asked that he would get up early in the way to the nearest inn"?
morning. A). The traveler asked that would he show
9. The teacher said, "Let the boy go home him the way to the nearest inn.
now". B). The traveler requested the man if he will
a) The teacher asked if the boy might be show him the way to the nearest inn.
allowed to go home then C). The traveler requested the man if he can
b) The teacher said the boy might be show him the way to the nearest inn.
allowed to go home then. D). The traveler asked that will he show him
c) The teacher said that the boy might be the way to the neatest inn.
allowed to go home then. 13. He said to his friend, "Please wait for me".
d) The teacher said that the boy may be A). He requested his friend to wait for him.
allowed to go home now. B). He said to his friend to wait for him.
10. I said to him, "Good morning, how do you C). He told his friend to wait for him.
do". D). He requested his friend that he should
a) I said to him that good morning, how he wait for him.
did. 14. He said to his son, "May you live long"!
b) I wished him good morning and asked A). He told his son that he might live long.
him how he did. B). He prayed that his son might live long.
c) I told him good morning and asked him C). He prayed, his son might live long.
how he did. D). He wished his son might live long.
d) I said to him good morning and asked him 15. He tells me again and again "I am leaving
how he did. for Gujrat tomorrow".
11. The judge said to the accused, "Hold your A). He tells me again and again that he is
toungue". leaving for Gujrat tomorrow.
A). The judge ordered the accused to hold B). He tells me again and again that he will be
his tongue. leaving for Gujrat the next day.
B). The judge asked the accused to hold his C). He told me repeatedly that he was leaving

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for Gujrat the next day. D). She says now that she will read this book.
D). He tells again and again he is leaving for View Answer
Gujrat next day. 20. My friend said to me, “You should consult
16. He said, "I shall go as soon as possible". a doctor for your stomach problem.”
A). He said that he would go as soon as it a) My friend told me to consult a doctor for
was possible. your stomach problem.
B). He said that he would go as soon as b) My friend suggested me that I should
possible. consulted a doctor for my stomach
C). He said he would go as soon as it was problem.
possible. c) My friend suggested I consult a doctor
D). He said that he will go as soon as it was for my stomach problem.
possible. 21. The preacher said, “Death keeps no
17. He said, "The horse died in the night". calendar.”
A). He said the horse had died in the night. a) The preacher advised that death keeps
B). He said that the horse had died in the no calendar.
night. b) The preacher advised that death kept ne
C). He said that the horse died in the night. calendar.
D). He said that the horse has died in the c) The preacher advised that death had kept
night. no calendar.
18. He said to him, "Is not your name 22. He said to Rahim, “Will you give me a
Ahmad". pen?”
A). He asked whether his name was Ahmad. b) He asked Rahim that would he give him
B). He inquired whether his name was not apen.
Ahmad. c) He asked Rahim to give him a pen?
C). He said if his name was not Ahmad. d) He asked Rahim for a pen.
D). He told whether his name was not Ahmad. 23. She said to the students, “Do not tell lies.”
19. She says, "Now I shall read this book". a) She insisted the student to tell lies.
A). She says that now she will read this b) She forbade the students to tell lies.
book. c) She forbade the students for telling lies.
B). She says that now she would read this 24. The father said to children, “Have you
book. completed your homework?”
C). She says now she will read this book. b) The father asked children whether
they had completed their homework.

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c) The father asked children whether they b) She told me that she broke a chair
had completed their homework? yesterday.
d) The father asked children whether they c) She told me she had broken a chair the
have completed their homework. previous day.
25. She said to me, “I broke a chair
yesterday.”
a) She told me that she broke a chair the
previous day.

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Application Writing
1. _____ is also known as a job letter. (A). Opening, body, and closing paragraphs
(B). A letter which is addressing to a specific
(A). Cover letter
individual or department
(B). Application
(C). Your skills connection to the job
(C). Prospecting letter
advertisement
(D). Resume
(D). None of these
2. A good cover letter is that which:
(E). All of the above
(A). Explain the answer_____Why should I
hire you? 6. Where in the cover letter a signature is
done?
(B). Makes a good first impression
(A). Anywhere
(C). Presents your qualification directly
(B). At the Start
(D). All of the above mentioned
(C). At the end
3. What resume and the job application
(D). None of these
perform?
7. _____ should be the length of the cover
(A). The same tasks letter.
(B). Overlapping tasks
(A). More than two pages
(C). Two opposite tasks (B). More than one page
(D). Two different tasks (C). More than three pages
(D). None of these
4. _____ is the job application letter.
8. The space should be ____ in the format of a
(A). A statement of your job objective
job application.
(B). A summary of your qualifications and
experiences (A). Double space
(C). A description of your core strength (B). Single space
and suitability for job (C). Triple space
(D). A foreword (D). Tab

5. For a successful cover letter, choose the 9. _____ should be the size of the font.
option that is necessary:

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(A). 10.5 (C). None of these
(B). 14 (D). Both a and b
(C). 12
13. First paragraph of job application
(D). 16
contains __________
10. For searching or seeking a job, the letter
(A). Educational information
written is called ________
(B). Professional information
(A). Job Application (C). Personal information
(B). Resume (D). All of these
(C). CV
14. There are ____ types of the job application
(D). Prospecting Letter
forms.
11. How should be the Job letter?
(A). 3
(A). Informal (B). 2
(B). Formal (C). 4
(C). Both a and b (D). 5
(D). None of these
15. The main content of letter is in _________
12. The font size in the job application should
(A). Heading
be ______
(B). Body of the letter
(A). Time new roman (C). Complimentary close
(B). Arial (D). None of these

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MCQ’s of Mathematics for Nursing By: Zia Ud Din ZCN

Mathematics For Nursing

1. What is 0.5 written as a fraction? d) 1/6

a) 5/10 5. What is the result of multiplying 0.6 by 10?

b) 1/2 a) 0.06

c) 2/5 b) 6

d) 10/5 c) 60

2. Which decimal is equivalent to 3/4 as a d) 0.6

fraction?
6. What is the decimal equivalent of the
a) 0.75 fraction 7/8?

b) 0.25 a) 0.875

c) 0.5 b) 0.25

d) 0.125 c) 0.7

3. What is the place value of the digit 6 in the d) 0.8750

number 6.782?
7. Which decimal is equivalent to the fraction
a) Tens 5/10?

b) Hundreds a) 0.5

c) Thousandths b) 0.05

d) Ten-Thousands c) 0.005

4. Which of the following is a terminating d) 5

decimal?
8. What is the sum of 0.2 and 0.3?
a) 1/3
a) 0.23
b) 1/4
b) 0.5
c) 1/7
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c) 0.6 c) $32

d) 0.35 d) $48

9. Which of the following decimals is greater: 13. If you scored 85% on a test with 50
0.45 or 0.54? questions, how many questions did you
answer correctly?
a) 0.45
a) 40
b) 0.54
b) 42.5
c) They are equal.
c) 45
d) It cannot be determined.
d) 47.5
10. What is the result of subtracting 0.75
from 1? 14. If a product's price is increased by 15%,
and the new price is $230, what was the
a) 0.25
original price?
b) 1.25
a) $200
c) 0.5
b) $210
d) 0.75
c) $220
11. What is 25% of 80?
d) $250
a) 15
15. What is 30% of 150?
b) 20
a) 15
c) 25
b) 30
d) 30
c) 45
12. If a shirt originally costs $40 and is on
d) 50
sale for 20% off, what is the sale price?
16. If you receive a 10% discount on a $500
a) $8
laptop, how much money do you save?
b) $10
a) $5

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b) $50 B) 1/2

c) $100 C) 2/3

d) $250 D) 3/3

17. If you need to score at least 70% on a test 21. What is the simplest form of the fraction
to pass, and you score 84%, how much did 10/20?
you exceed the passing mark by?
A) 1/2
a) 4%
B) 2/5
b) 14%
C) 5/10
c) 24%
D) 3/4
d) 34%
22. What is 3/8 expressed as a decimal?
18. What is the reciprocal of 3/4?
A) 0.375
A) 4/3
B) 0.3
B) 3/4
C) 0.038
C) 1/3
D) 0.875
D) 1/4
23. If you subtract 1/5 from 3/5, what is the
19. Which of the following fractions is result?
equivalent to 2/5?
A) 1/5
A) 4/10
B) 2/5
B) 1/3
C) 4/5
C) 3/7
D) 3/10
D) 5/8
24. Which fraction is greater: 5/6 or 7/8?
20. If you add 1/3 and 2/3, what is the result?
A) 5/6
A) 1/6
B) 7/8

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C) They are equal 29. If you multiply 2/5 by 3/4, what do you
get?
D) It cannot be determined
a) 5/6
25. What is the product of 2/3 and 4/5?
b) 6/20
A) 8/15
c) 1/2
B) 6/8
d) 6/5
C) 10/15
30. What is 3 divided by 0.6?
D) 2/8
a) 0.18
26. What fraction represents 75%?
b) 5
A) 3/4
c) 0.5
B) 1/2
d) 50
C) 5/8
31. What is the ratio of 3 to 5?
D) 7/9
a) 1:2
27. What is 1/4 + 1/3?
b) 2:3
a) 2/7
c) 3:5
b) 5/12
d) 5:3
c) 7/12
32. If the ratio of boys to girls in a class is 2:3,
d) 3/7
and there are 20 girls, how many boys are
28. What is 0.5 - 0.25? there?

a) 0.75 a) 10

b) 0.25 b) 15

c) 0.3 c) 30

d) 0.1 d) 40

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33. If 4:5 is the same as 8:x, what is the value 37. What does "PO" indicate on a drug
of x? prescription?

a) 8 a) Physician's Order

b) 10 b) Postoperative

c) 12 c) By Mouth

d) 16 d) Pain Overdose

34. What does "BID" mean on a prescription 38. "QHS" on a prescription label signifies:
label?
a) Every Hour Sleep
a) Before Indulging Daily
b) Every Morning
b) Twice a Day
c) Every Night
c) Once a Week
d) Quickly Heal Sleep
d) Bedtime Injection
39. What does "PR" stand for in a
35. Which abbreviation represents "as prescription?
needed" on a prescription?
a) Personal Record
a) PRN
b) Pro Re Nata
b) SOS
c) Per Rectum
c) TID
d) Pain Relief
d) QID
40. "QOD" on a prescription means:
36. "TID" on a prescription means:
a) Every Day
a) Three Times a Day
b) Every Other Day
b) Two Times a Day
c) Quickly On Demand
c) Four Times a Day
d) Quicker Overdose
d) Every Other Day
41. "AC" on a prescription label means:

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a) After Cooking 45. Which one of the following abbreviations
means “left ear”?
b) After Consuming
a) AD
c) Before Meals
b) AU
d) After Cleaning c) LE
d) EL
42. "UD" in a prescription abbreviation
e) AS
represents:
46. What does the symbol Rx mean?
a) Until Dawn
a) To take (prwscription)
b) Under Doctor's Orders b) Should date
c) How to take
c) Use as Directed
d) What to take
d) Urgent Dosage
47. What does "PO" stand for in drug
43. Express 7/10 as a decimal. administration?

A) 0.07 a) Peritoneal

B) 0.7 b) Parenteral

C) 0.75 c) Oral

D) 0.007 d) Intramuscular

44. A patient is ordered to be N.P.O. The 48. Which route is abbreviated as "IV"?
nurse will?
a) Intravenous
a) Encourage the patient to consume foods
b) Intrathecal
high in potassium
b) Make sure the patient does not take c) Intradermal
anything via the mouth
d) Intramuscular
c) Takes all medications via the mouth
d) Avoid intramuscular injections due to 49. "IM" represents which drug
clotting time administration route?

a) Intranasal

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b) Intramuscular b) Subcutaneous

c) Intradermal c) Intravenous

d) Intraocular d) Intramuscular

50. What does "SL" mean in drug 54. Which route is abbreviated as "POA"?
administration?
a) Periorbital
a) Subcutaneous
b) Peritoneal
b) Sublingual
c) By mouth with food
c) Intramuscular
d) By mouth on an empty stomach
d) Intravenous
55. "IN" represents which drug
51. Which route is represented by "PR"? administration route?

a) Periocular a) Intramuscular

b) Paravertebral b) Intranasal

c) Rectal c) Intradermal

d) Percutaneous d) Intraocular

52. "TD" stands for which drug 56. What does "PRN" stand for in drug
administration method? instructions?

a) Transdermal a) Prescribed regularly

b) Intradermal b) Pro re nata (as needed)

c) Tracheal c) Prior to meal

d) Topical d) Postoperative regimen

53. What does "SC" mean in drug 57. What does "OTC" mean in the context of
administration? medication?

a) Sublingual a) Over The Cupboard

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b) On The Counter c) Recommended Dosage

c) Over The Counter d) Medication Refund

d) On Top of Cereal 62. What is the abbreviation for "Pharmacy"?

58. What does "FDA" stand for? a) PHRM

a) Federal Drug Administration b) PHC

b) Food and Drug Association c) PHAR

c) Free Drug Assessment 63. Which abbreviation represents "mcg" in

drug dosages?
d) Federal Drug Authorization
a) Microgram
59. What does "mg" represent in medication
dosage? b) Milligram

a) Microgram c) Nanogram

b) Megagram d) Gram

c) Milligram 64. "ml" stands for:

d) Milliliter a) Millimeter

60. What is the abbreviation for "Antibiotic"? b) Megaliter

a) ATB c) Milliliter

b) ABT d) Microgram

c) ANT 65. The abbreviation "L" in drug

measurements stands for:
d) ANTI
a) Liter
61. What does "Rx" signify on a prescription?
b) Milliliter
a) Refill Request
c) Centiliter
b) Prescription Only
d) Deciliter

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66. What does "mmol" represent in drug 70. What does "Tbsp"/ “T” stand for in a
measurements? prescription?

a) Micromole A) Tablespoon

b) Millimole B) Teaspoon

c) Megamole C) Tablet

d) Milliliter D) Topical

67. "nmol" is an abbreviation for: 71. "mg" in a prescription signifies:

a) Nanomole A) Microgram

b) Nanogram B) Milligram

c) Nanometer C) Milliliter

d) Picomole D) Maintenance

68. What does "kg" stand for in drug weight 72. Which abbreviation represents "hour" in
measurements? a prescription?

a) Kilogram A) h

b) Megagram B) hr

c) Milligram C) min

d) Centigram D) mL

69. The abbreviation "µg" represents: 73. What does "tsp" stand for in a
prescription?
a) Microgram
A) Teaspoon
b) Milligram
B) Tablespoon
c) Millimeter
C) Topical
d) Microliter
D) Twice a day

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74. What does "q.i.d" mean in a prescription? A) Signature

A) Every day B) Special instructions given

B) Four times a day C) Significant

C) Three times a day D) Single dose

D) At bedtime 79. What does "mg/mL" represent in a

prescription?
75. "OD" in a prescription signifies:
A) Milligram per milliliter
A) Once daily
B) Microgram per liter
B) On demand
C) Milligram per liter
C) Oral dosage
D) Milliliter per gram
D) Outside delivery
80. What does "gr" stand for in the
76. What does "NPO" mean in a prescription?
apothecary system?
A) Not prescribed orally
a) Grain
B) No patient observed
b) Gram
C) Nothing by mouth
c) Gallon
D) New prescription order
d) Granule
77. "c" in a prescription abbreviation usually
81. Which abbreviation represents "ounce" in
stands for:
the apothecary system?
A) Chewable
a) oz
B) Capsule
b) o
C) Cream
c) fl. oz
D) With
d) ap. oz
78. What does "sig" represent in a
prescription?

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82. In the apothecary system, what does "ss" d) Gargle
stand for?
86. In the apothecary system, what does "ozs"
a) Sulfate stand for?

b) Subcutaneous a) Ounces

c) Semi-solid b) Ointment

d) Half (abbreviation for the Latin "semis" c) Orally administered

meaning "half",)
d) Over-the-counter
83. What does "m" represent in the
87. Convert 500 mg to grams.
apothecary system?
A) 0.5 g
a) Milligram
B) 5 g
b) Microliter
C) 50 g
c) Minim
D) 5000 g
d) Molar
88. How many milliliters are in 1 liter?
84. Which abbreviation signifies "fluid dram"
in the apothecary system? A) 100 ml

a) dr (unit of volume) B) 1000 ml

b) fdr C) 10 ml

c) fldr D) 10,000 ml

d) fm 89. What is the abbreviation for "tablets" in

medical prescriptions?
85. What does "g" represent in the
apothecary system? A) Tbsp

a) Gallon B) TB

b) Grain C) Tbl

c) Gram D) Tab

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90. Convert 2.5 liters to milliliters. A) Milligram

A) 250 ml B) Microgram

B) 25 ml C) Megagram

C) 2500 ml D) Milliliter

D) 0.025 ml 95. Convert 3.2 grams to milligrams.

91. Convert 750 micrograms to milligrams. A) 32 mg

A) 0.0075 mg B) 320 mg

B) 0.075 mg C) 3200 mg

C) 0.75 mg D) 0.32 mg

D) 7.5 mg 96. Convert 0.75 liters to milliliters.

92. How many milligrams are in a gram? A) 7500 ml

A) 100 mg B) 75 ml

B) 10 mg C) 7.5 ml

C) 1000 mg D) 750 ml

D) 1 mg 97. What is the formula for calculating the

intravenous infusion rate in mL/hr?
93. The abbreviation "q8h" in a prescription
means: a) Volume (mL) × Time (hours)

A) Every 8 hours b) Volume (mL) ÷ Time (hours)

B) 3 times in 24 hrs c) Volume (mL) + Time (hours)

C) Both a & b d) Volume (mL) − Time (hours)

D) Quicker than 8 hours 98. If a patient needs 600 mL of fluid over 4

hours, what is the infusion rate in mL/hr?
94. What does "mcg" stand for?
a) 100 mL/hr

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b) 150 mL/hr 102. How many mL per hour should a patient
receive if they need 900 mL of IV fluids over 6
c) 200 mL/hr
hours?
d) 250 mL/hr
a) 100 mL/hr
99. A doctor orders 1,200 mL of medication
b) 150 mL/hr
to be infused over 8 hours. What is the
infusion rate in mL/hr? c) 200 mL/hr

a) 100 mL/hr d) 250 mL/hr

b) 150 mL/hr 103. If a medication is prescribed at a rate of

25 mL/hr and needs to be administered for
c) 200 mL/hr
10 hours, how many mL will be given in total?
d) 300 mL/hr
a) 100 mL
100. If a nurse sets an infusion pump to
b) 200 mL
deliver 50 mL of a medication over 30
minutes, what is the infusion rate in mL/hr? c) 250 mL

a) 50 mL/hr d) 300 mL

b) 100 mL/hr 104. A patient should receive 1,800 mL of IV

fluids over 12 hours. What is the infusion rate
c) 120 mL/hr
in mL/hr?
d) 150 mL/hr
a) 100 mL/hr
101. A patient requires 2,400 mL of IV fluids
b) 150 mL/hr
over 24 hours. What is the infusion rate in
mL/hr? c) 200 mL/hr

a) 50 mL/hr d) 300 mL/hr

b) 100 mL/hr 105. If a medication is ordered to infuse at 10

mL/hr and is to run for 5 hours, how many
c) 150 mL/hr
mL will be administered?
d) 200 mL/hr
a) 25 mL

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b) 50 mL 109. If a medication is prescribed at a rate of
15 mL/hr and needs to be administered for 6
c) 75 mL
hours, how many mL will be given in total?
d) 100 mL
a) 30 mL
106. A patient requires 20,00 mL of IV fluids
b) 60 mL
over 10 hours. What is the infusion rate in
mL/hr? c) 90 mL

a) 100 mL/hr d) 120 mL

b) 150 mL/hr 110. What is the standard drop factor for

most adult IV tubing sets?
c) 200 mL/hr
a) 10 drops/mL
d) 250 mL/hr
b) 15 drops/mL
107. How many mL per hour should a patient
receive if they need 540 mL of IV fluids over 3 c) 20 drops/mL
hours?
d) 30 drops/mL
a) 160 mL/hr
111. To calculate the IV flow rate in drops per
b) 180 mL/hr minute, you need to know:

c) 200 mL/hr a) The patient's weight

d) 250 mL/hr b) The type of medication

108. If a nurse sets an infusion pump to c) The drip factor

deliver 40 mL of a medication over 20
d) The patient's age
minutes, what is the infusion rate in mL/hr?
Drops per minute = (Volume × Drop
a) 60 mL/hr
factor) / (Time)
b) 90 mL/hr
Dose = Amount Available / Volume
c) 120 mL/hr
Flow Rate for IV Medication:
d) 150 mL/hr

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Flow Rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to Infuse b) 20 drops/min
(mL) / Time (hr))
c) 40 drops/min
Weight-Based Dosage Calculation:
d) 60 drops/min
Dose = Weight (kg) × Dosage per kg
115. The drop factor for microdrip tubing
112. A doctor orders 1,000 mL of normal sets is typically:
saline to be infused over 8 hours. What is the
a) 10 drops/mL
IV flow rate in drops per minute using a 15
drops/mL tubing set? b) 15 drops/mL

a) 31.25 drops/min (1000 multiply by 15 c) 20 drops/mL

divide by 480 minutes which is equal to 8
d) 60 drops/mL
hrs)
116. If a patient's IV flow rate is 40 drops per
b) 15.63 drops/min
minute, how many milliliters will they receive
c) 62.5 drops/min in 2 hours?

d) 125 drops/min a) 120 mL

113. Which factor affects the drop factor of an b) 160 mL

IV tubing set?
c) 240 mL
a) Patient's age
d) 480 mL
b) IV solution volume
117. What is the IV flow rate for an infusion
c) Tubing length of 750 mL over 5 hours using a 10 drops/mL
tubing set?
d) Nurse's experience
a) 15 drops/min
114. If a physician orders 500 mL of
medication to be infused over 4 hours using a b) 25 drops/min
20 drops/mL tubing set, what is the IV flow
c) 30 drops/min
rate in drops per minute?
d) 40 drops/min
a) 10 drops/min

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118. In a pediatric unit, a common drop c) The rate at which drops fall from the
factor for IV tubing is: tubing

a) 10 drops/mL d) The patient's heart rate

b) 15 drops/mL 122. Which of the following is true regarding

the calculation of IV flow rates?
c) 20 drops/mL
a) Flow rates remain constant throughout
d) 60 drops/mL
the entire infusion.
119. Which factor determines the total
b) Flow rates vary depending on the patient's
volume of IV fluid to be administered to a
position.
patient?
c) Flow rates are influenced by the patient's
a) The patient's age
age.
b) The physician's preference
d) Flow rates depend on the tubing diameter.
c) The patient's condition
123. A nurse sets an IV flow rate at 60 drops
d) The physician's order per minute for a patient. If the tubing has a
drop factor of 15 drops/mL, how many
120. If a patient requires 1,500 mL of IV fluid
milliliters per hour is the patient receiving?
to be administered over 12 hours, what is the
IV flow rate in drops per minute using a 20 a) 15 mL/hr
drops/mL tubing set?
b) 30 mL/hr
a) 20 drops/min
c) 45 mL/hr
b) 30 drops/min
d) 60 mL/hr
c) 40 drops/min
124. When calculating IV flow rates, what
d) 60 drops/min should the nurse do if the ordered volume
and time units differ (e.g., mL/hr vs. L/min)?
121. The drop factor refers to:
a) Consult the pharmacist
a) The speed of the IV pump
b) Refuse to administer the IV
b) The size of the IV catheter

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c) Convert one of the units to match the a) 450 mL
other
b) 300 mL
d) Notify the patient's family
c) 525 mL
125. What is the correct formula for
d) 600 mL
calculating the flow rate of an IV infusion?
128. The healthcare provider orders 0.05 mg
a) Flow rate (mL/hr) = Volume (mL) /
of a medication to be administered. The
Time (hr)
available ampule contains 0.1 mg/mL. How
b) Flow rate (mL/min) = Volume (mL) x Time many milliliters should be drawn up?
(min)
a) 0.1 mL
c) Flow rate (mL/hr) = Volume (L) / Time
b) 0.5 mL
(hr)
c) 0.05 mL
d) Flow rate (mL/min) = Volume (L) / Time
(min) d) 0.01 mL

126. A physician orders 500 mg of a 129. A patient is prescribed 2,000 units of a

medication to be administered intravenously. medication. The vial is labeled as containing
If the medication is supplied in a vial 500 units per milliliter. How many milliliters
containing 250 mg/mL, how many milliliters should be administered?
should be administered?
a) 0.5 mL
a) 2 mL
b) 2 mL
b) 1 mL
c) 4 mL
c) 0.5 mL
d) 8 mL
d) 4 mL
130. If a medication is ordered to be infused
127. A patient requires a continuous infusion over 4 hours and the total volume is 500 mL,
of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) at a what should the flow rate be in mL/hr?
rate of 75 mL/hour. How many milliliters
a) 125 mL/hr
should be infused in 6 hours?
b) 250 mL/hr

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c) 100 mL/hr 134. If a patient weighs 80 kilograms and the
prescribed dosage is 0.1 mg/kg, what is the
d) 50 mL/hr
correct dosage?
131. A medication is prescribed to be
a) 8 mg
administered at a rate of 60 drops per minute
using a standard IV tubing with a drop factor b) 16 mg
of 20 drops/mL. What should the flow rate be
c) 64 mg
in milliliters per hour (mL/hr)?
d) 80 mg
a) 120 mL/hr
135. Drug W is administered at 3 mg/kg. If a
b) 180 mL/hr
patient weighs 45 kilograms, what is the
c) 360 mL/hr appropriate dosage?

d) 90 mL/hr a) 9 mg

132. Drug Y is prescribed at 5 mg/kg. How b) 12 mg

much should a patient weighing 70 kilograms
c) 135 mg
receive?
d) 18 mg
a) 10 mg
136. A patient weighs 55 kilograms and
b) 250 mg
needs Drug A at a dosage of 1.5 mg/kg. What
c) 350 mg is the correct dosage?

d) 50 mg a) 33 mg

133. For Drug Z, the dosage is 2.5 mg/kg. A b) 45 mg

child weighing 25 kilograms needs this drug.
c) 60 mg
What is the correct dosage?
d) 82.5 mg
a) 10 mg
137. Drug B is prescribed at 0.25 mg/kg. How
b) 62 mg
much should be administered to a 30-
c) 50 mg kilogram patient?

d) 75 mg a) 5 mg

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b) 7.5 mg d) 15 mg

c) 10 mg

138. Order: Heparin 50 units/Kg/hr. The a) 30ml/hr

solution is labeled 1000 units/ ml. b) 35ml/hr
The patient weighs 10 Kg. What is the correct c) 40ml/hr
rate ml/hr? d) 54ml/hr

a) 10ml/hr 142. A patient requires risperidone 80mg.

b) 15ml/hr The stock dose is 40mg/10ml. What volume
c) 25ml/hr is required?
d) 30ml/hr
a) 05ml
139. Order: Dobutamine 10 mcg/Kg/min. b) 10ml
The bag is labeled 1 mg/ ml. The patient c) 15ml
weighs 23 Kg. What is the correct rate ml/hr? d) 20ml

a) 3ml/hr 143. A twenty-two pound infant is to receive

b) 6ml/hr 2 mg/kg of a drug. The drug is available in 10
c) 10ml/hr mg/0.5 ml. How many ml’s will be given ?
d) 14ml/hr
a) 5cc
140. Order: Pitocin 5 miliunits/minute. The b) 3cc
bag is labeled 10 units/liter. What is c) 2cc
the correct rate? d) 1cc

a) 5ml 144. A sixty-six pound child is to receive 0.4

b) 13ml meq/kg of a drug. The drug is available
c) 15ml in 2 meq/4 cc. How many cc's will be given?
d) 30ml
a) 5cc
141. Order: Ritodrine 10 miliunits/ Kg/ min. b) 15cc
The bag is labeled 100 units/100 ml. c) 20cc
The patient weighs 198 lbs. What is the d) 24cc
correct rate ml/hr?

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145. A 66 lbs. child is to receive a drug 2.5 a) 24mg
mg/kg of body weight. How many mg’s will b) 26mg
the child receive ? c) 34mg
d) 36mg
a) 25mg
b) 45mg 147. Order: 25 mg/kg of body wt.Available: 5
c) 68mg gm/20 ccHow many cc's do you give to a 30
d) 75mg lb. child?

146. The physician ordered 0.4ml of a) 2cc

potassium iodide (lostate) expectorant. The b) 5cc
label reads 324mg/tsp. How many mg are c) 1.4cc
contained in this dose? d) 6cc

148. Ordered: 3 mg
Available:1.5 mg/tablet a) 4
How many tablets should be given? b) 3

c) 2
d) 1

149. Ordered: 2 mg/kg 2.2 lbs = 44 lbsClient weighed: 44 lbs. 1 kg X kg

How many mg will client receive?

a) 50mg
b) 40mg
c) 30mg
d) 20mg
150. Order: Morphine 5 mg/hr. The syringe is labeled 100 mg/ 100 ml.
How fast will the IV run to deliver the correct dosage?
a) 10ml/hr
b) 7ml/hr
c) 6ml/hr
d) 5ml/hr

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