CONTEST 32

ROUND 1
PREAMBLE: Find the solution set of the given inequality.
1. (x + 3)(x – 5) < 0
ANSWER: {x : -3 < x < 5}
2. (x – 3)(x + 2) > 0
ANSWER: {x : x < -2, or x > 3}
3. (x + 4)(x + 7) < 0
ANSWER: {x : -7 < x < -4}
4. When a radioactive element decays by beta emission, how do the atomic number and mass number
change?
ANSWER: Atomic number increases by 1: mass number remains unchanged
5. When a radioactive element decays by electron capture, how do the atomic number and mass number
change?
ANSWER: Atomic number decreases by 1, mass number remains unchanged
6. When a radioactive nuclide emits a proton how do the atomic number and the mass number change?
ANSWER: Atomic number decreases by 1 and mass number also decreases by 1
PREAMBLE: Distinguish between the cervical vertebra and the thoracic vertebra with respect to the
following.
7. Centrum.
ANSWER: The cervical vertebra has a small Centrum whereas the thoracic vertebra has a large
or prominent centrum
8. Neural spine.
ANSWER: The cervical vertebra has a short neural spine whereas the thoracic vertebra has a
long neural spine
9. Vertebraterial canal.
ANSWER: The cervical vertebra possesses Vertebraterial canal whereas the thoracic vertebra
lacks Vertebraterial canal

10. A uniform meter rule is balanced when the mark is placed on a knife edge and a mass is

suspended at the mark. Find the mass of the meter rule.

ANSWER:
11. Find the mass of a uniform meter rule which is balanced on the mark when an mass is

suspended at the mark and a mass is suspended at the mark.

ANSWER:

12. A uniform meter rule is to be balanced on the mark with a mass suspended at the

mark and a second mass suspended at the mark. Find the second mass.

ANSWER:

PREAMBLE: Solve the quadratic equation

13. (2x - 3)2 = 9.
ANSWER: x = 3, or x = 0
[2x – 3 = ± 3, 2x = 6 or 2x = 0, x = 3, or x = 0]
14. (2x + 5)2 = 49.
ANSWER: x = 1, or x = -6
[2x + 5 = ± 7, 2x + 5 = 7 or 2x + 5 = -7, 2x = 2 or 2x = -12, x = 1 or x = -6]
15. (3x – 1)2 = 25.
ANSWER: x = 2, or x = -4/3
[3x – 1 = ± 5, 3x = 6 or 3x = -4, x = 2 or x = -4/3]
PREAMBLE: Complete the following statements by filling in the blanks:
16. Magnesium is to sodium as phosphorus is to …………
ANSWER: Silicon. (Si)
17. Oxygen is to Sulphur as silicon is to …….
ANSWER: Germanium (Ge)
18. Calcium is to scandium as nitrogen is to …….
ANSWER: Oxygen (O)
PREAMBLE: Name the agent that is likely to pollinate flowers of the following plants.
19. Pawpaw
ANSWER: Insects
20. Maize
ANSWER: Wind
21. Tridax
 ANSWER: Insects
22. The displacement in meters of a one-dimensional simple harmonic oscillator is given by

where is time in seconds.

23. What is the frequency of the oscillator?

ANSWER:

24. What is the maximum displacement of the oscillator?

ANSWER:

25. What is the earliest time the oscillator is farthest from the equilibrium position?

ANSWER:

PREAMBLE: Determine the first four terms of the sequence given by the recurrence relation
Un + 1 = 3Un - 1, U1 = 1.
ANSWER: U1 = 1, U2 = 2, U3 = 5, U4 = 14
26. Un +1 = 5 – Un, U1 = 2.
ANSWER: U1 = 2, U2 = 3, U3 = 2, U4 = 3
27. Un = Un + 3, U1 = 2.
ANSWER: U1 = 2, U2 = 5, U3 = 8, U4 = 11
28. Elemental magnesium reacts with steam to give magnesium oxide and hydrogen gas. What mass of
magnesium oxide will be formed from 400 g of magnesium which is only 95% pure? Give your
answer in grams to one place of decimal.
Mg = 24.0, O = 16.0
ANSWER: Mg + H2O → MgO + H2
24 40
Mass of pure Mg = 0.95*400 g = 380 g
Therefore, mass of MgO formed= 380*40/24 = 633.3 g
29. Elemental magnesium reacts with steam to give magnesium oxide and hydrogen gas. If in a particular
preparation the process is only 80% efficient how much magnesium oxide can be produced from 720
g of pure magnesium? Give your answer in grams to one place of decimal Mg = 24.0;
O = 16.0
Ans: Mg + H2O → MgO + H2
24 40
For 100% efficiency, mass of MgO to be produced = (720/24)*40
= 1200 g
 Therefore, for 80% efficiency mass of MgO produced = (1200*0.8)
= 960.0 g
30. Elemental calcium is burnt in air to give calcium oxide. If in one of such preparations, 140 g of the
oxide are obtained, what mass of calcium was heated, assuming the yield is 100%. Give your answer
in grams to one place of decimal. Ca = 40.0, O
= 16.0
Ans: Ca + ½ O2 → CaO
40 56
56 g of CaO ≡ 40 g of Ca
Therefore, 140 g CaO = (140/56)*40 = 100.0 g
PREAMBLE: State the class to which the following organisms belong.
31. Ragworm
Polychaeta
32. Earthworm
Oligochaeta
33. Leech
Hirudinea
PREAMBLE: The activity of a radioactive object comes from carbon-10, which decays with a half-life

of to a stable nuclide.

34. Find the activity after of a piece of the object with an initial activity of .

Ans:

35. The activity of a sample of the object is . Find the activity of the sample earlier.

Ans:

36. How long will it take the activity of a sample to decay from to ?

Ans:
 ROUND 2 - SPEED ROUND
1. What is a fissile nuclide?
ANSWER: A nuclide that can undergo fission upon capture of slow or low-energy thermal neutrons.
Or a fissionable nuclide that can sustain a nuclear chain reaction.
2. What are the processes that make up the Otto cycle?
ANSWER: Adiabatic expansion, adiabatic compression and two isometric pressure changes
Accept two adiabatic and two constant volume processes.

3. Determine the charge on a spherical electrode with a radius of which is maintained at a potential of

ANSWER:

4.
When dust settles on the human eye, which part becomes inflamed and pink?
ANSWER: Conjunctiva (Don’t accept sclera)
5. If you cross breed a tall variety (Tt) of maize with a short variety (tt), how will the phenotypic ratio
differ from the genotypic ratio?
ANSWER: Same (1:1), No difference
6. When honey bee performs a dance, the dance follows a track. The angle between the central point of
the dance and the vertical point of the dance represents three things. Name any one of them
ANSWER: It represents the (1) the source of food, (2) the location of the hive and (3) the
position of the sun.
7. State which bond is shorter : carbon–carbon bond in benzene and carbon–carbon bond in ethene
ANSWER: The C–C bond in ethene
8. Which of the two compounds will have lower enthalpy of hydrogenation, 1,3–hexadiene and 1,4–
hexadiene.
ANSWER: 1,3–hexadiene. (It is more stable since the double bonds are conjugated)
9. Which carbon–oxygen will be longer : the one in 2–butanone or in carbon (IV) oxide
 ANSWER: The two C = O bonds will be the same.
10. Find the measures of two complementary angles whose measures are in the ratio 1 : 5
ANSWER: 15°, 75° [x + 5x = 90, x = 15, 5x = 75]
11. Find the next term of the sequence 3, 7, 15, 31, . . .
ANSWER: 63 [differences are 4, 8, 16, 32, . . .
12. Factorise completely 4a2b – 9b3
ANSWER: b(2a – 3b)(2a + 3b) [b(4a2 – 9b2) = b(2a – 3b)(2a + 3b)]

ROUND 3

PROBLEM OF THE DAY

The drawing below shows a group of three living cells. Make an outline drawing to
show how the cells would appear under the microscope if a thin section B-B was
cut and mounted on a slide.

B B

1. Which of the following eyepiece magnification of the light microscope will

one normally need to see plant cells with a microscope?
(a) x5, (b) xl0, (c) xl00, (d) xl000

2. The drawings below show stages in cell division but in the wrong order.
What is the most likely sequence of events?

3.
4.
5.

a b c d e f g
1. If a person is lying quite still, what does that person need energy for?

SOLUTION

1. The section would appear like this

2. The magnification at which plant cells could be seen would be about x

100.

3. The correct sequence of events

b e d a c g f

4. A person lying quite still needs energy for breathing movements (rib
muscles and diaphragm), circulation of blood (heart contraction),
temperature maintenance, nerve impulses in the brain and nervous
system.
ROUND 4

TRUE OR FALSE

1. Tropisms are the only way that plants respond to environmental stimuli.
ANSWER: False
2. The rapid folding of the leaves of a sensitive plant are the result of nastic movement.
ANSWER: True
3. Nastic movements are plant responses that are dependent of the direction from which the stimulus
comes.
ANSWER: False (Independent)
4. Lithium is a metal.
ANSWER: T
5. Across the period from left to right, the metallic bond strength increases.
ANSWER: T
6. Across the period from left to right, the metallic character increases.
ANSWER: F. Metallic character decreases
PREAMBLE: In the following, x is a real number
7. If x < 1, then x2 < 1.
ANSWER: False
8. If x > 1 then x2 > 1.
ANSWER: True
9. If x2 < 1, then -1 < x < 1.
ANSWER: True
10. The orbital period of a satellite is independent of the mass of the satellite.
ANSWER: True
11. The orbital period of a satellite is directly proportional to the semi-major axis of the.
ANSWER: orbit. False
12. The orbital period of a satellite in an elliptical orbit is equal to the orbital period for a circular orbit
whose radius equals the semi-major axis of the elliptical orbit.
ANSWER: True
13. Arthropods may have either an open or a closed circulatory system.
ANSWER: False
14. The bodies of arthropods are encased in a shell-like exoskeleton,
ANSWER: True
15. Except for the number of legs, millipedes and centipedes are basically the same in structure and diet.
ANSWER: False
16. In a flame test of cations, a blue colour is an indication of the presence of copper or lead.
ANSWER: T
17. In a flame test of cations, a violet or lilac colour is an indication of Rubidium.
ANSWER: F. It is potassium
18. In a flame test of cations a yellowish green flame colour is an indication of barium.
ANSWER: T
19. The compound statement ‘P or Q’ is true if P is true.
ANSWER: True
20. The compound statement ‘P and Q’ is false if Q is false.
ANSWER: True
21. The implication ‘if P then Q’ is true whenever P is true.
ANSWER: False
22. The frictional force on a sphere falling from rest through a viscous fluid is greatest near the beginning
of the fall.
ANSWER: False
23. When a sphere falling through a viscous fluid approaches terminal velocity, the weight of the sphere
very nearly equals the sum of the buoyant and viscous forces on it.
ANSWER: True
24. There are no viscous effects on a sphere falling in air because the density of air is small so the sphere
can avoid collisions with air molecules as it falls.
ANSWER: False
ROUND 5
RIDDLES
RIDDLE 1
1. I am a line or a line segment.
2. I am perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact.
3. Two of me from an external point to a circle are congruent.
4. I meet a circle in exactly one point.
5. The angle formed by me and a chord is equal to any angle in the alternate segment.
Who am I?
ANSWER: Tangent

RIDDLE 2
1. In origin, I am a variant form of the word pound, meaning a confining enclosure.
2. I can result from a wide range of natural processes.
3. But, I am frequently constructed by humans.
4. Usually, I contain shallow water with marsh and aquatic plants and animal.
5. The most important service provided by me is the production of fish and other wildlife
Who am I?
ANSWER: Pond
RIDDLE 3

1. I am a charged particle with mass.

2. I am a fundamental particle,
3. So I am not an alpha particle and I am not a proton,
4. Both of which have the opposite sign of my charge.
5. I am named for the means of my production.
6. Which involves shining light on objects?
Who am I?
ANSWER: Photoelectron

RIDDLE 4
1. My parents were rich and so I was sent to very expensive and prestigious schools.
2. I was born in January 1627, and lived for 64 years, living all my life as a bachelor.
3. I did not have any formal University education.
4. I worked for some prominent scientists in London and Oxford and while doing so learnt enough
science to be able to carry out experiments and publish the results.
5. I was the foundation member of the Royal Society of London but declined the offer to be the
President.
6. I am very well noted for my experiments that led to the discovery of the relationship between
pressure and volume of a gas at constant temperature.
Who am I?
ANSWER: Robert Boyle