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Mock Boards Module 2

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
87 views

Mock Boards Module 2

Uploaded by

Renesmae Gonzaga
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Module 2: Pharmacognosy

Proteins are the most versatile macromolecules in living organisms. Their key properties enable them to participate in a wide
range of functions, from the choices select:
V – If all statements are correct.
W – If 3 statements are correct.
X – If 2 statements are correct.
Y – If 1 statement is correct.
Z – If all statements are incorrect.
2. Protein Composition and Structure:
I. The functional group of amino acids in a protein molecule determine its three-dimensional structure.
II. The primary structure of proteins refer to the amino acid sequence.
III. The secondary structure of proteins refers to the conformation adopted by local regions of the polypeptide chain.
IV. Proteins are built from a repertoire of 20 amino acids.
a. W
b. X
c. Z
d. Y
3. The Primary Structure of Proteins:
I. Amino acids are linked by peptide bonds to form polypeptide chains.
II. The peptide bond is formed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the next amino
acid.
III. The peptide bond is electrically charged.
IV. The peptide bond is easily hydrolysed.
a. V
b. Z
c. Y
d. W
4. The Tertiary Structure of Proteins:
I. The tertiary structure describes the overall folding of the polypeptide chain.
II. The polypeptide chain folds so that its hydrophobic side chains are buried and its polar and charged chains are on the
surface.
III. Many alpha helices and beta strands are amphipathic; that is, the alpha helix or beta strand has a hydrophobic face
which points into the protein interior and a more polar face which points into the solution.
IV. Pairing all the CO and NH2 groups by H-bonding is the secret of burying a segment of the main chain in a hydrophobic
environment.
a. Z
b. V
c. X
d. Y
5. The Secondary Structure of Proteins:
I. The secondary structure refers to the folded segments of alpha helices, beta strands and turns that are formed by
regular patterns of H-bonds between the peptide N-H and C=O groups of amino acids that are near each other in a
linear sequence.
II. The alpha helix is stabilized by interchain hydrogen bonding.
III. All amino acids can be accommodated in the alpha helix.
IV. Branching at the beta carbon tend to stabilize the alpha helices
a. V
b. Z
c. X
d. Y
6. Protein Beta Sheets:
I. Beta sheets are stabilized by H-bonding between polypeptide strands.
II. The beta sheet is composed of two or more polypeptide chains called beta strands.
III. Adjacent strands in a beta sheet can ran in opposite directions or in the same direction.
IV. Beta sheets are more structurally diverse than alpha helices.
a. W
b. Y
c. V
d. X
7. Shows a positive red color upon interaction with imidazolyl or phenolic ring using the reagent diazotized sulfanilic acid.
a. Nitroprusside Test
b. Sakaguchi Test
c. Pauly Test
d. Biuret Test
8. State of nitrogen imbalance characterized by severe protein deficiency with a normal caloric intake:
a. Kwashiorkor
b. Marasmus
c. Primary Malnutrition
d. Secondary Malnutrition
Glycolysis is the major pathway for carbohydrate catabolism and the enzymes involved are located in the cytoplasm.
I. Phosphofructokinase-I
II. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate Dehydrogenase
III. Aldolase
IV. Triose Phosphate Isomerase
V. Hexose Phosphate Isomerase
Match the enzyme to the corresponding glycolytic reactions that they catalyze:
9. Splitting of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to an aldotriose and ketotriose:
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. I
10. Phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate:
a. IV
b. III
c. II
d. I
11. Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate:
a. III
b. V
c. IV
d. I
12. Conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate:
a. IV
b. III
c. II
d. I
13. Conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate:
a. II
b. I
c. III
d. IV
Vitamins are molecules that cannot be made by the body and therefore, must be obtained from the diet. These are excreted and
subject to turnover. Examples of these are:
I. Vitamin E IV. Riboflavin
II. Vitamin K V. Vitamin A
III. Biotin VI. Vitamin D

Identify the vitamin being described.


14. It is a non-polar vitamin, mixture of tocopherols, serves as an anti-oxidant for biomembranes, protecting these and embedded
proteins against oxidative attack of free radicals and peroxides.
a. IV
b. I
c. III
d. IV
15. It is made by the gut bacteria, the bacterial source can supply most or all of the needs of a normal healthy adult. It serves as
a co-factor for carboxylation reactions.
a. II
b. VI
c. I
d. III
16. It serves as a co-factor in numerous biochemical index reactions, where its ability to accept and donate electrons, one at a
time, is quite valuable.
a. IV
b. I
c. III
d. IV
17. Vitamin that is required for clotting of the blood
a. III
b. I
c. VI
d. II
18. This vitamin is really three separate but chemically related compounds: Retinol, Retinal and Retinoic Acid. When converted
to the retinal, they serve as important co-factor for the protein rhodopsin, which is responsible for vision in rod cells.
a. II
b. VI
c. V
d. III
A number of quantitative tests are commonly used to evaluate the chemical standards of fixed oils and fats. Among these are:
I. Acid Value V. Acetyl Value
II. Saponification Value VI. Hydroxyl Value
III. Ester Value VIII. Peroxide Value
IV. Iodine Value

Identify the test that is described.


19. Refers to the number in mg of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize free acids and hydrolyze the esters in 1 g of the
substance
a. II
b. V
c. I
d. VIII
20. Refers to the difference between the saponification and acid values:
a. III
b. V
c. VI
d. IV
21. Refers to the number in mg of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the acetic acid freed by the hydrolysis of acetylated
fats or other substances
a. VII
b. V
c. VII
d. III
22. Refers to the number in mg of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the acid combined by acylation of the sample.
a. VIII
b. IV
c. VI
d. V
The sources of commercially useful gums or hydrocolloids are the following:
I. Shrubs or Tree Exudates IV. Plant Extracts
II. Marine Species V. Starch and Cellulose Derivatives
III. Seeds VI. Microbes
Select the sources of the following:
23. Locust Bean
a. V
b. III
c. IV
d. VI
24. Pectin
a. V
b. I
c. IV
d. II
25. Xanthan
a. VI
b. II
c. I
d. V
26. Carboxymethylcellulose
a. IV
b. VI
c. V
d. III
27. Tragacanth
a. II
b. V
c. I
d. III

Some chemical tests for carbohydrates include the following:


I. Seliwanoff’s Test IV. Molisch ‘sTest
II. Phloroglucinol Test V. Fehling’s Test
III. Keller-Killiani Test VI. Osazone Test
Identify the appropriate test for each of the following groups of compounds.
28. Ketones
a. III
b. IV
c. V
d. I
29. Pentoses
a. I
b. II
c. IV
d. III
30. Deoxysugars
a. III
b. VI
c. II
d. I
31. All carbohydrates
a. III
b. VI
c. IV
d. I
32. All monosaccharides
a. VI
b. V
c. III
d. II
Carbohydrates are among the first products to arise as a result of photosynthesis. They constitute a large proportion of the plant
biomass and are responsible for the rigid cellular framework and for providing important food reserve. Described below are
important primary carbohydrate materials used in pharmacy for their fibers, particularly as components of surgical dressings.
Match the description with the products below:
I. Cotton IV. Flax
II. Absorbent Wool V. Hemp
III. Pyroxylin VI. Alginate Fibers
33. Soft, fluffy staple fiber that grows around the seeds of plants of the genus Gossypium in the family Malvaceae.
a. I
b. IV
c. V
d. III
34. A flammable mixture of cellulose nitrates, usually with less than 12.5% nitrogen, that is soluble in a mixture of ether and
alcohol or organic solvents.
a. III
b. VI
c. I
d. IV
35. A member of the genus Linum, which is a food and fiber crop cultivated in cooler regions of the world.
a. II
b. IV
c. V
d. I

36. The fiber and seed part of Cannabis sativa


a. V
b. II
c. IV
d. II
37. The fibers are made from natural polymers extracted from brown seaweeds.
a. II
b. IV
c. III
d. VI

There are 5 groups of well-studied plant regulators:


I. Auxins IV. Abscisic Acid
II. Gibberellins V. Ethylene
III. Cytokinins
Given the following properties, identify the growth regulator described.
38. This was the first growth hormone discovered; it was first isolated from human urine, found in growing stems and roots and
promotes flowering in plants.
a. I
b. IV
c. III
d. V
39. There are 100 kinds of this hormone, it lengthens the stem of sugarcane, hastens maturity period in group of conifers and
promotes early seed production.
a. V
b. II
c. I
d. IV
40. Exists in areas where rapid cell division takes place and delays leaf senescence.
a. III
b. I
c. II
d. V
41. Induces dormancy in seeds and helps withstand unfavorable growth factors.
a. IV
b. II
c. I
d. III
42. Hastens fruit ripening and increases root growth and root hair formation, thereby increasing their absorption surface area.
a. V
b. I
c. III
d. II

Alkaloids show various biochemical and botanical origins, consequently, many different systems of classifications are possible.
Based on their chemical structure, these are grouped into non-heterocyclic and heterocyclic alkaloids some of which include the
following:
I. Isoquinoline V. Tropane
II. Indole VI. Quinolizodine
III. Quinoline VII. Aporphine
IV. Imidazole VIII. Purine
Classify the following alkaloids.
43. Morphine
a. VIII
b. V
c. I
d. III
44. Ergotamine
a. IV
b. VII
c. V
d. II
45. Quinine
a. III
b. VII
c. V
d. I
46. Caffeine
a. VIII
b. V
c. III
d. IV
47. Atropine
a. V
b. VI
c. I
d. VII
The glycolytic pathway produces pyruvate that can produce intermediates for the Krebs cycle when oxygen is available, and
lactate when oxygen is unavailable.
I. Irreversible phosphorylation V. Substrate-level phosphorylation
II. Rearrangement reaction VI. Functional group transfer
III. Hexose splitting VII. Reversible dehydration
IV. Oxidation VIII. Hydration reaction
Match the glycolytic steps to the reaction types involved.
48. Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate:
a. V
b. IV
c. VI
d. II
49. Conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate:
a. VIII
b. IV
c. V
d. I
50. Conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate:
a. VII
b. II
c. V
d. I
51. Conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate:
a. II
b. III
c. I
d. V
52. Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate:
a. II
b. I
c. V
d. VII
The terpenoids are a large and diverse class of naturally occurring organic chemicals derived from the 5-carbon
compound isoprene, and the isoprene polymers called terpenes. Terpenoids are the largest class of plant secondary
metabolites, representing about 60% of known natural products. Many terpenoids have substantial pharmacological bioactivity
and are therefore of interest to medicinal chemists.
I. Hemiterpenoids IV. Diterpenoids
II. Monoterpenoids V. Triterpenoids
III. Sesquiterpenoids VI. Tetraterpenoids
Match the following terpenoid examples to their corresponding terpenoid class:
53. Artemisinin:
a. III
b. IV
c. VI
d. II
54. Carotene:
a. I
b. II
c. V
d. VI
55. Retinol:
a. I
b. IV
c. V
d. III
56. Limonene:
a. III
b. V
c. IV
d. II
57. Lycopene:
a. VI
b. II
c. III
d. V
Currently, there are three known biosynthetic pathways in plants, namely: the shikimic acid pathway, the mevalonate pathway
and the methylerythritol phosphate pathway.
58. Which of the following plant constituents is biosynthesized via the shikimate pathway?
I. Ergosterol IV. Prunasin
II. Sitosterol V. Vanillin
III. Morphine
a. II & III
b. I & II
c. I, III & V
d. III, IV & V
59. Which of the following plant constituents is biosynthesized via the mevalonate pathway?
I. Terpineol IV. Squalene
II. Camphor V. Methyl Salicylate
III. Hyoscyamine
a. II & III
b. I, II & IV
c. II, IV & V
d. I & III
60. Select the statements that best describe the methylerythritol phosphate pathway (MEP):
I. The precursor, l-deoxy-D-xylulose-5-phosphate is formed from glucose, which is formed from condensation of pyruvate
and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
II. Subsequent steps including a skeletal rearrangement to yield isopentenyl triphosphate.
III. The MEP was identified in eubacteria, green algae and higher plants.
IV. Plants have both MEP and MVA (Mevalonic Acid Pathway).
a. I, II, III & IV
b. II, III & IV
c. I, III & IV
d. I & III
61. Select the statements that best describe the shikimate pathway:
I. The pathway is found both in plants and animals.
II. It is a seven step metabolic route for the biosynthesis of folates and aromatic amino acids.
III. Products of this pathway represent essential amino acids.
IV. Lower forms of organisms like bacteria and protozoans do not have the shikimate pathway.
a. II & III
b. II, III & IV
c. I, II, III & IV
d. I & II
62. Select the statements that differentiate the mevalonate pathway (MVA) and the methylerytritol phosphate pathway (MEP).
I. MEP is a metabolic pathway for the biosynthesis of the isoprenoid precursors. While MVA is for the biosynthesis of
phenylpropanoids.
II. The MEP pathway occurs in plastids of plants while the MVA occurs in the cytosol of plants.
III. The MVA starts with condensation of two molecules of acetyl CoA to form acetoacetyl CoA while MEP starts with the
condensation of pyruvate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to form glucose.
IV. The end product of MEP is geranyl pyrophosphate while the end product of MVA is isopentenyl diphosphate.
a. I & II
b. II & III
c. II
d. I
Select:
V – If all statements are correct.
W – If 3 statements are correct.
X – If 2 statements are correct.
Y – If 1 statement is correct.
Z – If all statements are incorrect.
63. The immune system can produce antibodies against various short oligosaccharides.
I. People with A blood type will produce antibodies against the B-type oligosaccharides. Conversely, people with B blood
type will produce antibodies against the A-type antigen.
II. The antigens can cause blood cells to clump up together.
III. People with O-type antigen are called universal recipients.
IV. People with O-type antigen are universal donors, in recognition of the fact that people with A- or B- type blood lack
antibodies to the O antigen.
a. V
b. X
c. W
d. Y
64. The reducing sugar glucose has a free aldehyde that reacts with amino groups, so that glucose can be covalently linked to a
protein through the side chain amino group.
I. The extent of glycosylation of a common protein such as hemoglobin in circulating erythrocytes, depends on the
concentration of free glucose.
II. Glucose levels in the blood are unusually high in patients with diabetes mellitus so that Hb becomes glycosylated
(HbA).
III. The major sugar derivative, HbA1C, is formed from the reaction of glucose with the amino terminal group on the beta
subunit of Hb.
IV. The lifetime of a typical erythrocyte is 110-120 days so, the amount of HbA1c is a record of the average level of glucose
in the blood over the previous couple of months.
a. Z
b. V
c. W
d. X
When there is lack or excess of nutrients, certain clinical conditions result such as those listed below. Match the clinical condition
with their appropriate descriptions.
I. Ketosis V. Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
II. Diabetes Insipidus VI. Wilson’s Disease
III. Diabetes Mellitus Type 1 VII. Wolman Disease
IV. Diabetes Mellitus Type 2
65. Condition developed when the body is starved from glucose during prolonged fasting or starvation.
a. I
b. II
c. VI
d. V
66. A pituitary disorder that directly affects kidney function, NO unusual level of glucose in the urine observed.
a. III
b. IV
c. II
d. VII
67. Beta-cells of the pancreas are gone, NO insulin is produced, condition is controlled by daily injections of insulin.
a. IV
b. II
c. VI
d. III
68. A normal amount of insulin is produced, either it is not released fast enough when blood sugar rises or the target tissues
have a reduced responsiveness.
a. III
b. II
c. I
d. IV
69. A neuropsychiatric disorder that arises from lack of thiamine in the diet, poor absorption of thiamine from the gut, or poor
storage of thiamine in the liver.
a. VI
b. III
c. I
d. V
Nucleotides form the basic structural unit of nucleic acids such as DNA and RNA.
70. Select the statements that best describe DNA molecules.
I. DNA is a deoxyribose acid composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a single helix carrying genetic
instructions.
II. The four bases in the DNA that are responsible for encoding genetic information are thymine, adenine, cytosine and
uracil.
III. In DNA, adenine pairs with thymine, and cytosine with guanine.
IV. DNA replication occurs in all living organisms.
V. The keto tautomers of purine and pyrimidines form the base to base H bonds that are important for base pairing in the
DNA.
a. III, IV & V
b. II, III
c. I & III
d. II, II & III
71. Select the statements that best characterize RNA molecules.
I. RNA naturally occurs as a duplex of two separate strands
II. The secondary structure of the RNA resembles a clover-leaf.
III. The base pairs in RNA molecules are adenine and thymine, uracil and cytosine.
IV. RNA is a ribonucleotide.
V. RNA is synthesized from the DNA by RNA polymerase during transcription.
a. II, III & IV
b. II & IV
c. II, IV & V
d. I & II
72. Select the statements that best describe protein synthesis.
I. Proteins are synthesized stepwise by the polymerization of amino acids in a unidirectional manner, beginning at the C-
terminus and ending at the N-terminus.
II. The mRNA provides the instruction for the synthesis of a specific protein.
III. The information encoded in mRNA is translated by tRNA molecules that bind to the mRNA at one end and carry
specific amino acids at the other end.
IV. The synthesis of the growing polypeptide is carried out on toposomes that contain RNA and associated proteins.
a. I, II & III
b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, IV
d. II, III
73. Which statements best describe DNA replication?
I. The first step in DNA replication is the unzipping of the double helix structure of the DNA molecule.
II. DNA polymerases are enzymes that synthesize a DNA polymer.
III. A polymerase adds nucleotides to an existing strand.
IV. A topoisomerase cuts and rejoins the helix.
V. A helicase joins the two separate strands.
a. I, II, III & IV
b. II, III, IV & V
c. I, II, III, IV V
d. I, III & IV
74. Which statements best describe nucleosides?
I. Nucleoside consists of a nucleobase and a five carbon sugar.
II. Nucleosides are precursors for nucleic acid synthesis.
III. Nucleoside and nucleoside analogues are used in anti-viral and anti-cancer drug therapy.
IV. Nucleosides are composed of nucleobases covalently attached to a 5-carbon sugar.
V. The nucleobases of nucleosides are non-aromatic heterocyclic compounds containing N.
a. II, III & IV
b. I, III & V
c. I, II, III & IV
d. I, II, III, IV, V
75. Select the pairs that are correctly matched.
I. Hyoscyamus niger – Hyoscyamine
II. Datura stramonium – Hyoscyamine
III. Erythroxylon coca – Cocaine
IV. Areca catechu – Nicotine
V. Lobelia inflata - Hyoscine
a. I & II
b. I, II & III
c. III & IV
d. II, III & IV
76. Select the pairs that are correctly matched:
I. Belladonna – spasmolytic agent
II. Coca – local anesthetic
III. Stramonium – spasmolytic agent
IV. Atropa belladonna – anti-sialogogue
a. I, III & IV
b. I, II, III & IV
c. II & III
d. I, II & IV
There are 5 nitrogenous bases found in nucleic acids that serve as patterns for forming the structures of proteins and cellular
components:

77. Which of the nitrogenous bases form 2 hydrogen bonds with each other in the DNA double strand?
a. I & IV
b. II & IV
c. III & V
d. I & V
78. Which of the nitrogenous bases form 3 hydrogen bonds with each other in special RNA double-strand like structures?
a. I & V
b. I & IV
c. III & V
d. II & IV
79. Which of the nitrogenous bases is exclusively found in strands that undergo replication?
a. II
b. I
c. IV
d. III
80. Structure R is known as:
a. Histidine
b. Prephenic Acid
c. Dehydroshikimic Acid
d. Tryptophan
81. Substrate P is known as:
a. Histidine
b. Prephenic Acid
c. Dehydroshikimic Acid
d. Tryptophan
82. Substrate Q is known as:
a. Chorismic Acid
b. Prephenic Acid
c. Dehydroshikimic Acid
d. Anthranilic Acid
*Given the mRNA sequence below:
AUG-UCU-UAU-AGA-GGG-UAA
UCU: Ser
UAU: Tyr
AGA: Arg
GGG: Gly
GGA: Gly
83. What mutations occur if the last U from the 3rd codon is removed?
a. Frameshift, Missense
b. Frameshift, Silent
c. Point, Non-sense
d. Point, Silent
84. What mutations occur if the last G in the 5th codon is replaced by U?
a. Frameshift, Silent
b. Frameshift, Non-sense
c. Point, Transition
d. Point, Transversion

85. Process 5 is known as:


a. Glycolysis
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Glycogenolysis
d. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt
86. Which of the following enzyme/s is/are involved in process 2?
a. Glycogen Phosphorylase
b. Glycogen Synthase
c. Debranching Enzyme
d. Two of the choices
87. In process 3, what molecules are expected to be produced?
a. Nucleic acids
b. Erythrulose
c. Glyceraldehyde and fructose
d. Two of the choices
88. Which process will dominate in oygen-starved states?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 6
d. 8
89. Which of the following is required for process 7 to take place?
a. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
b. Acetyl-CoA Isomerase
c. Acetyl-CoA Synthase
d. Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
90. Evaluate the following statements:
I. Non-hydrolysable tannins result from the condensation of catechin and leucocyanidin.
II. Hydrolyzable tannins are called pyrogallotannins.
III. Condensed tannins form a red insoluble polymerization product on hydrolysis.
IV. Pyrogallotannins are decolorized when subjected to KMnO4 test.
a. Only one statement is true.
b. Two statements are true.
c. Three statements are true.
d. All statements are true.
Glycosides comprise any of a wide variety of naturally-occurring substances in which a carbohydrate portion consisting of one or
more sugars or a sugar acid and is combined with a hydroxyl compound. Various medicines, condiments and dyes from plants
occur as glycosides. Below are their classifications:
I. Cardiac VI. Alcohol
II. Anthraquinone VII. Aldehyde
III. Saponin VIII. Lactone
IV. Cyanophore IX. Flavonoid
V. Isothiocyanate X. Phenol
Match the plant source or the constituent to their chemical class.
91. Oleander
a. III
b. IV
c. VIII
d. I
92. Salicin
a. III
b. X
c. VI
d. IX
93. Rhein
a. II
b. X
c. VII
d. IV
94. Milk Thistle
a. III
b. X
c. IX
d. VII
Many crude drugs are used medicinally because of their volatile oil content. However, in numerous cases, volatile oils separated
from the drugs are used as drugs themselves. Similarly, various crude drugs are powdered and are employed as spices and
condiments. The volatile oil drugs and the separated oils are most commonly used for flavouring purposes.
I. Bergamot Oil V. Lemon Oil
II. Cardamom Oil VI. Roman Chamomile
III. Clove Oil VII. Star Anise Oil
IV. Lavender Oil VIII. Sweet Orange Oil
Match the volatile oils to their botanical origin.
95. Citrus sinensis
a. VIII
b. II
c. VI
d. V
96. Illicium verum
a. VIII
b. I
c. V
d. VII
97. Syzygium aromaticum
a. I
b. VI
c. III
d. II
98. Anthemis nobilis
a. I
b. III
c. VI
d. II
99. Absinthe Oil:
a. Hydrocarbon Volatile Oil
b. Phenol Volatile Oil
c. Ketone Volatile Oil
d. Aldehyde Volatile Oil
100. Cajuput Oil:
a. Alcohol Volatile Oil
b. Phenolic Ether Volatile Oil
c. Phenol Volatile Oil
d. Oxide Volatile Oil
101. Which of the following is used for glucose control among diabetic patients?
a. Allium sativum
b. Peperomia pellucida
c. Momordica carantia
d. Blumea balsamifera

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