PART A (Answer all 90 (90*1=90 Marks)

questions)
1. What is the application fee for Act?
information under RTI
A. Rs.20
B. Rs.50 obtaining theC. Rs.25 D. Rs.10

2. ln non- selection posts,

A. merit position in the seniorityposition willbe based on
C. Both A and B panel. B. seniority in the lower post
D. None of these.

3. When date of birth will be considered for

determining seniority?
A. When two or more candidates are declared to be of equal merit in a selction poSt.
D. When two or more candidates are declared to be equal merit a. one and the same
examination/selection.
C. Both (A)and (B).
D. None of these.

4. Who is the competent authority to decide the classification of posts as Non-selection in each
department?
A. GM B. HOD C. Railway Board D. DRM

5. In case of trade test, anticipated vacancies will be

taken into account for
A. Next 4 months B. Next6 months C. Next 12 months D. None of the above.
6. Non-selection posts are filled by promotion of staff on the basis of
A. Seniority B.Suitability C.Seniority-cum-suitability D.None of the abOve

7. The service condition of 2 years for promotion within

Group-C should stand fulfilled
A. at the time of actual promotion
B. at the stage of consideration
C. at the stage of appearing the suitability test
D. None of the above

8. What are the main objectives of Employces Compensation Act 1923?

A. To provide relief to Employees and their dependents in case of accidents arising out of and
in the course of employment andcausing either death or disablement of workmen.
B. To provide payment of wages to certain classes of persons employed in
C. To provide for fixing minimum rates of wages in certain employment. industry.
D. None of the above.
 4

9. What is "partial disablement" under Employees

A. the disablement of a Compensation Act 1923?
temporary nature.
B. the disablement which rcduces thc earning capacity of an
employce ii any employment in
which hc/she was cngagcd at the time of the accident resulting in the disablement.
C. the disablement is of a permanent nature, which reduces his/her earnin:z capacity in every
cmploynment which he/she was capable of undertaking at that timc of the accident.
D. Allof the above

10.Under which of the following circumstances, the employer is not liable to pay compensation
under Employees Compensation Act 1923?
A. An injury which does not result in the total or partial disablement of the employee for a
period exceeding threedays.
B Any injury which does not resulting in death or permanent total disablement to an employce,
who is under the influence of drink or drugs at the time of accident.
C. Any injury which does not resulting in dcath or permanent total disablement to an employee,
whohas willfully removed or disregarded any safety guard or safety devices at the time of
accident.
D. Allof the above

11. Under Employces Compernsation Act 1923, the word employee is defined ir the Section
A. Section 2(1)(n) B. Section 2(1)(p) C. Section 1(2)(n) D. None of the above

12. As per section 2(ff) of the Employees Compensation Act 1923, minor means a person not
attained the age of
A. 14 years B. 15 years C. 18 years D.16 years
13. Which section of the Factory Act 1948 covers the list of notifiable diseases given in the
schedule?
A. Section 3 B. Section 25 C. Section 87 D. Section 89

14. Which section of the Factories act 1948 defines Adult*?

A. Section 2(b) B. Section 2(d) C. Section 2(a) D. Section 2(f)

15. Under Section 2(n) of the Factories Act 1948, Occupier of aFactory means:
A. An Administrative Head of the Factory
B. aperson who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory
C. aTechnical Head of the Factory
D. None of the above

J6. Asper Factories act 1948, who shallbe an Inspector for the district?
a) Welfare Inspector
b) Labour officer
c) District Magistrate
d) Nonc of the above.
 5
17.What is the
Notice period
Dispute Act 1947? for strike/lock out in public utility services under Industrial
A. 6 weeks
B.4 weeks C.3 weeks D. 5 weeks
18. What are the
A. Tosettle objectives of Industrial
industrial Dispute Act-1947?
B. To prevent
C. To illegal disputes
strikc/lockoutbetwecn
D. Allpromote good
of the above relationship employer and employet
17. WhIch one of the following is not a nmachinery for settlement of
disputes under inaustriat
Disputes Act 1947?
A. Conciliation Officer B. Board of Conciliation
C. Labour Court
D.Collective bargaining
20. Under I.D Act 1947, temporary closing ofa place of employment is called
A. Lock out B. Layoff C. Closure D. Allof the above

21. Which ofthe following will fall under the definition of 'information' under RTIAct 2005?
A. Log books B. Data material held in any electronic form
C. Orders and Circulars D. Allof the above

22. The officer designated by the public authorities in all administrative units or offices under it
to provide information to the citizens requesting for information under the RTI Act is known
as

A. Appellate Authority
B. Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
C. Public Information Officer (PIO)
D. Assistant Public Information Officer

time
23. If the interests of a third party are involved in information sought for, the maximum
limit to get the information will be
A. 30 Days B.40 Days C. 45 Days D. 60 Days
days or within
24. First Appeal shall be disposed of by the appellate authority within
such extended period not exceeding a total of days from the date of its receipt.
A. 40 Days , 60 days
B. 30Days , 45 days
C. 60Days, 90days
D. 45Days, 60 days

25. Minimum number of members requircd toC.apply for registration of a Trade Union is
Seven D. Five
A. Fourteen B. Ten

26. Application for registration of a Trade union should be submitted to

C. Registrar of Trade Union D.None of the above.
A. General Manager B. Railway Board
 6

27. What is the minimum age required to be a member of a registered Trade Union?
A. 18 years B. 15 ycars C. 14 ycars D. 21 ycars
of
28. A registered Trade Union may change its name with the consent of not less than
the total number of its members.
A. One-half B.Two-third C. Onc third D. Thrcc-fourth

29. Which of the following Acts has/have been repcalcd on enactment of the Code on
Wages, 2019?
i. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
ii The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
iii. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
iv. The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
A. (i) &(ii) B. (iii)&(iv) C.(i) & (ii) D. Allof the above

30. Asper Section 2(y) of Code on Wages 2019, "'wages" includes

A. Basic pay B. Dearness allowance C. House Rent allowance D. Both (A) and (B)

31. As per the provisions of Code on Wages 2019, which of the following statement(s) is/are
incorrect?
A. The employer can fix the wage period either as daily or weekly or fortnightly or
monthly
B. But, in any case the wage period in respect of any employee shall not exceed more than a
month.
A. Only A is correct
B. Only B is correct
C. Both A & B are correct
D. None of them are correct

32. What are the authorized deductions from the wages under Code on Wages 2019?
A. Fines imposed on him
B. Deduction for hisabsence from duty
C. Deductions for house-accommodation
D. All of the above

33. An officer drawing pay of Rs.36,500/- in Level-6 is promoted to officiate in Level-7

carrying dutics and responsibilities of greater importance on adhoc basis. His pay in the
promoted grade in Level-7 was arrived at minimum cell at Rs.44,900/- What will be his
pay on officiating promotion after applying the restriction under FR -35?
A. Rs. 44,900/- in Level-7 (minimum in the promoted Level)
B. Rs. 4l,100/- in Level-6( the next cellto the amount arrived by adding 12 ½% of Rs.36,500)
C. Rs. 43,200/- in Level-6 (the amount arrivcd by adding Rs.6,700/-)
D. None of the above.
 34. Which of the following condition(s) is/are correct for allowing pay protection under Rule
1313(1)(a)(3) Vol.II,
in not
A. Protection of pay should caseexcecd
of interthe transfer?
maximum
railway of the level of the new post ir. Pay matrix.
B. The post held by the railway servant at the time of transfer should be regular.
C. Both (A)
D, and (B)
None of the above
lower post on
35. A Railway servant holding a regular post on promotion was transferred to a
of IREC Vol 1. His pay on transfer was
Wn request to another unit under Pulo.227(a) 2
rule his pay on promotion in
INed under Rule 1313(1)(2)(3) ocIPEC VoIL Under which
which he was transferred ivili be regulated?
ie neW unit to the same or lower level from
A. Under Rule 1313(1)(a)(1) of IRECVOl.II
B. Under Rule 1313(1)(a)(2) of IREC Vol.II
C. FR 35
D. None of the above.

revised pay structure

36. What is the fitment factor applied for Ievel-13 of the pay matrix in the
of 7h CPC ?
A. 2.56 B. 2.57 C. 2.62 D. None of the above.

37. As per Rule-1309 of IREM, Vol.I, substantive pay includes

A. special pay B. personal pay
D. None of the above.
C. other emoluments classified as pay
shall be recovered in not more than equated
38. The interest on House Building Advance
monthly installments(EMIs)
A. 240 B.180 C.60 D.200

maximum amount of advance can be sanctioned from Provident Fund for treatment
39. What
purpose?
A. Equal to 3 months basic pay
B. Equal to 6 months basic pay
C. Upto 90% of the amount in the PF account
D. Upto75% of the amount in the PF account
employee is eligible for
40. During Study leave availedoutside India, an
A. StudyAllowance
B. Pay, Dearness Allowance and Study Alowance
Allowance
C. Pay, Dearness Allowance and House Rent
Allowance
D. Pay, Dearness Allowance, Study Allowance and House Rent

41. NDA may be granted to alleligible non-gazetted employees upto Pay Level
A. 5 B. 10 C.7 D. None of the above
 42. Maximum amount of House Building Advance ls
A. 34 times basic pav subiect to amaximum of Rs.25 lakhs .at present.
B. 25times basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.34 lakhs
C. SOtimes basic pay subiect to a maximum of RS.54 laks
D. None of the above.
43. Which period is applicable to get Night Duty Allowance during the night Working?
A. 8p.m to 04 a.m B. 10 p.m to 06 a.m
C. 12p.m. to 08 p.m D. None of the above

44. What are the circumstances where alteration of Date of Birth of a railway servant already
recorded can be done with the approval of General Manager?
where it had been falsely stated by the railway servant to obtain an advantage otherwise
inadmissible, provided that such alteration shall not result in the railway servant being
retained in service longer than if the alteration had not been made.
b. Where, in the case of illiterate staff, that a clerical error has occurred.
C. Where a satisfactory explanation of the circumstances in which the wrong date came to
be entered is furnished by the railway servant concerned.
d. Allof the above.

45. APAR stands for ?

A. Active Performance Administrative Report
B. Annual Performance Appraisal Report
C. Annual Performance Administrative Review
D. Annual Performance Assessment Report

46.e-APAR SPRROW system is used for?

A. Only for Gaz APAR. B. Non-Gaz APAR.
C. Both Gaz & Non-Gaz. D. None of the Above

47. Child born to second wife may also be considered for compassionate appointment even
where the second marriage has not been specifically permitted by the Administration
provided
A. NOC is given by first wife
B. NOCisgiven by first wife's children
C. Not at all permissible
D. Both (a)& (b) above

48. If a candidate under consideration for compassionate appointment is a minor at the time of
death/ mnedical invalidation of ex-emplovee but at the time of attaini ig majority, he/she is
already admitted to a course of study, he/she shall be allowed to complete the course with
permission of Administration subject to a maximum limit of years for completion.
A. 1 B. 2 C.5 D. 3
 49. The
cadre,serviccs
of Ministerial
but fail to candidates,
acquire typewriting
who are proficicncy
appointed on compassionate ground in
within the stipulated two years from the
date of
A.
appointment(being mandatory), may he
shifted to Non-Ministerial or
B. Terminated
C. Reduced in rank to
Non-Conmercial cadre
D. Continued in Levcl-1 post
same capacity
S0. Rule-6 under Railwav Services (Conduc) Rulcs, 1966 deals with:
A. Taking part in politics and elections
B. Devotion to duty
C. Employnent of ncar relatives of the Railway servant
D. Joining of Association or Union

51. Rule 1S under Railway Services (Conduct) Rules, 1966 deals with:
A. Promptness and Courtesy
B. Private trade or Employment
C. Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women
D. Criticism of Government.

the staff of Railwvay Consumer Co-operative societies are eligible for medical
52. Whcther
facilities in Railway hospitals?
A. Yes, as out-patient only
B. Yes, as in-patient only
C. Both as out-patient and in-patient
D. Not eligible should have
by the Disciplinary authority
53. Board of enquiry appointed
B. Not less than 2 members
A. Not more than S members D. Not more than 4 members
C. Not less than 3 members
Rules?
authority to modify a rule on RS (D&A)
S4. Who is the competent B. Ministry of Railways
D Secretary, Railway Board.
A. President of India
C. Member(Staff)
againstthe orders of
55. Under D & A Rules, no appeal lies
A. Any order made by the President
B. Any order passed by PCME
C. Any order passed by PCPO
D. None of the above.
 10

56.Which is relevant rule in R.S. (D&A) Kues, 1908 for common proceedings?

A. Rule9 B. Rule 10 C. Rule || D. None of the above.

57. Which of the below two statements are correcl.

i. The two ycars service condition for promotion will be relaxed by the Railways with the
personal approval of the General Manager except Ministerial categories
ii. The twO years service condition for promotion will be relaxcd by the Railways with the
personal approval of the General Manager exccpt running categories.
A. i. is correct.
B. ii. is correct
C. i& ii are correct.
D. None are correct.

S8. What is the objective of CPENGRAMS ?

A. Redressal of pensioners grievances
B. Redressal of employees grievances
C. Redressal of public grievances
D. None of the above.

$9. What is the normalterm of the SBF Committee?

A. Twoyears B. Three years C. One year D. None of the above.

60. What is the amount of immediate relief paid to the families of railway servants who die while
in service?
A. Rs.]0.000/ B.Rs.15,000/ C. Rs.25,000/ D. None of the above

61. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

J. Relired railway servants or persons removed/dismissed from railway 'service cannot
benominated to the SBF Committee.
II. Railway servants under suspension should be allowed to attend the SBF Committee
meetings.
A. Iis correct
B. II is correct
C. Both Iand Il are correct
D. None of them are correct

62. The Staff Bencfit Fund shall be managed by aCommittee at the Headquarters of the Railway
presided over by the
A. Principat Chief Medical Officer
B. Principal Chief Personnel Officer
C. Principal Chief Engineer
D. Welfare Officer
 11

63. The per

A. Rs.22 capita
contribution from Staff
B. Rs.30
Benefit Fund for Scouts
C. Rs.24
and Guidcs activities is
D. Rs.50
64.1f a railway wil| be reduced in
the next half servant availed the credit in LAP
leave, then th

A.1/10"th
year by Penod extra-ordinary
of such Loate subiect to a maximum
th D.I/30
th
o 15 days.
B.]/15 C. /18

65. Leave Not Due only on

may be granted Ito arailway servant
A. Medical ground (LND) B. D. AIlof the above.
Sports account C. Study purp0Se
66. Leave Not Due (LNDD) is dcbited
against
A. Lcave on halfaveragc pay to be carncd subscqucntly.
B. Leave on average pav to be carncd subsequcntly
C. No debit of LND
D. None of the above.
emnlovee can avail Child Care Leave (CCL) till the
67. In case of disabled children, a woman
children reaches the age of
B. 22 years C. 25 years D. No age limit
A. 18 years
station to another which necessitates change of
68. 0n the event of permanent transfer from one en1ployee is allowed. for a period of
residence, retention of railway accommodation to a Railway
months on payment of normal rent. D. Six
A. Two B. Three C. Five
quarters by
of unauthorized retention of railway
69. should be disallowed for every month (Pass) Rules.
of Railway Servants
retired employee as per the provisions
A. One set of post-retirement pass
B. Twosets of post retirement passes
C. All the sets of post retirement passes
D. None of the above
.years
continuous service for
70. Pension is payable to an employee after
of qualifying service
C. I5 ycars D. 20years
A. 05 years B. 10 years
dependent daughter may get family pension:
71. In case of death of an employec,
A. Life long
B. upto her marriage
C upto the age of 25
D None of the above.
the minimum
family pension IS .....% of basic pension subject to
72. The rate of percentage of
of Rs 9000/- at present. C.40%% D. 50%
A. 20% B. 30%o
 12

73. A Railway servant compulsorily retired from servicc as a penalty may be granted under Rule
64 of RS(P)R 1993, by the authority competent to imposc such penalty, pension or
both at a ratc not less than (i) and not morc than (ii) gratuity or
compcnsation pension or gratuity or
both admissiblc to him on the date of his compulsory rctircment?
A. (i) one third and (ii) ful|
B. (i) one third and (ii) half
C. ()two third and (ii) not more than full
D. Nonc of the above

74. As per Rule 64 of RS(P)R 1993, a Railway servant compulsorily retired from service as a
penalty may be granted pension or gratuity or both at prescribed rate on the date of his
compulsory retirement. Who isthe authority compctent to sanction that?
A. Appointing Authority
B. Appellate Authority
C. President of India
D. Authority competent to impose such penalty
75. Pension is subject to
A Future good conduct B. Future service C. Both A&B D. None of the above.

76. The expression 'emoluments' as defined under Rule 49 of RS(P)R 1993 means.
A. Basic Pay B. Basic Pay + DA C. Basic pay and allowances D. None of the above.

77. A Railway Servant shall retire from service with'effect from?

A. first day of the month in which the Government Servant turns 60 years of age.
B. aflernoon on the day in which the Government Servant turns 60 years of age.
C. afternoon of last day of the month in which Government Servant turns u0 years of age.
D. forenoon of the last day of the month in which Government Servant turns 60 years of age.
78.A Railway servant retiring in accordance with the provision of the Pension rules before
completing qualifying service of 10 years is entitled to in terms of Rule 69(1) of the
Pension Rules
A. Service Gratuity
B. Compassionate allowance
C. Compulsory retirement pension
D. Compensation pension

79. The enhanced farmily pension under Railway services (Pension) Rules 1993 payable to the
family of aRailway servant who dies inservice, from the date of death of the Railway servant is
for a period of withoul any upper age limi.
h. Ten years
B. Seven years
C. Eight years
D. Nine years
 13

80. In the event of a rate for payment of Death

railway servant dies while in service, what is the
oratuy to the tamily, if the lenoth ofhi sliGingservice is 11 years or more but less than 20
years?
A. 2 times of monthly
B. 6 times of monthly emoluments
cmoluments
C. 12 times of monthly emoluments
D. 20 times of monthly emoluments

sum compcnsaion to the family of a

81. An amount of Rs. 1S given towards ex-gratia lump performance of duties.
railway employee whose death occCurs due to accidents in the courseD.of25 lakhs
A. 10 lakhs B. 15 lakhs C.20 lakhs
public interest, who
right to retire any Government servant on
02. Which authority has the absolute or three
years of age by giving him notice of not less than three months in writing
nas attained S5
months' pay and allowances in lieu of such notice? D. Railway Board
A. PCPO B. PHOD C. Appointing Authority
servant on
Under which Rule the appointing authority has absolute right to retire a railway
83.
age by giving three months' notice?
public interest, who has attained 55 years of IREC D. Rule 225 of IREC
1802 of IREC B. RS(P)R 1993 C. Rule 1801 of
A. Rule
earlier panel gets exhausted is
conducting next selection, ifD.15
84. The minimum gap for months
B.06 months C.12 months
A.03 months
above will consist
selections, the selection Board for posts in Level-6 and
85. Within Group-C Grade
of officers of C.Junior Administrative Grade D. Senior Administrative
A. Sr.Scale B. Jr.Scale
to sports
relax minimum service period for out of turn promot ion
86. Who has got powers to
in Gr. C?
criteria
person fulfilling other
A. General Manager
Personnei Officer
B. Principal Chief Sports Assocjations
C. President of the
respective
D. Railway board
where all vacanci notified is
Group. B selection against 30%, in a situation
87. In Group. C to
from the following.
first in the panel
for UR, who would be placed
have got 90% marks
A. SC employees who have got 919% marks
who for UR
B. ST employces who haVe obtained qualilying marks as the post is meant and record of service
C. UR employecs all i.e. written test, viva
highest marks over
D. Employee getting communal belonging.
irrespective of
 14

88.Pre-promotional training for SC/ST

post of APO is mandatory employees in selection from Gr. 'C' to Gr. 'B' for the
A. in all selections
B. whenever SC/ST
candidates are participating in selcctions
C. when posts reserved for SC/ST is to be filled up and such
selection candidates are participating in the
D. when all the posts are for UR, but
SC/ST candidates are also participating in the
selection
89. In Group-B selections, what are the
A. 15
maximum marks allotted for record of service?
B. 20 C. 25 D. None of the above.

90. Seniorityof adirectly recruited junior clerk is determined on the

A. Merit order assigned by RRB or any other recruiting authority. basis ef
B. Date ofjoining of working post
C. both A and B
D. None of the above.

PART-B (Answer any 10 questions) 10*1=10 marks

91. The procedure for imposing major & minor penalties under DAR are
covered under Rules
A. Rule-9 & 10 B. Rule-9 & 11 C. Rule-1.0&11 D. Rule-12&14

92. In case if the training period of a direct recruit is curtailed, the date of joining the
working
post in case of such a direct recruit shall be :
A. The date of posting to working post irrespective of the training period.
B. The date he would have normally come to a working post after completion of the
prescribed
period off training.
C. Thedate of passing the departmental examination at the end of the training perisd
D. None of the above.

93. As per the provisions of Para-302 of IREM Vol.I, when the dates of entry
into a grade of
promoted railway servants and direct recruits are the same and then they should be put in
alternate positions. Who will be senior in this case?
A. the promotees being sernior to the direct recruits
B. the direct recruits being senior to the
C. the inter-se-seniority need not be promotees
D. None of the above. maintained

94. An ICF employee's ward is studying in class R at the time of his transfer to Southern
Railway. Upto what period he can be allowed to retain JCF quarters. Choose the correct opuon
given below:
A. 4 months
B. 1month
B. Till the end of.
academic/scholastic session of class X. D. None of the above.
 15

95.The correct expansion for UMID card is

A. Unique Medical Identity Card
B. User Medical Identity Card
C.Union Medical Identity Card
D. Unique Medical Insurance Card.
annuallyto SBF is Rs.
96. The per capita contribution bcing made D. 150)
A. 600 B. 800 C. 1000

97. Match the Head/Activity with Allocations.

Allocation (Rs.)
Head/Activity of SBF
Sports activities 16
Promotion of Cultural b 32
activities
Recreation other than c 120
iii
Sports 30
iv Relief of distress, d
sickness for staff in
GP upto 4600.
A i a, ii b. iii c, iv d
B i d. ii a, iii b, iv c
C ic. ii b. iiid, iv a
D ib. iid. ii a iv c representation
nmajor penalty charge has submitted a which of the
was issued with a should be put up to
98. An employee who Enquiry officer. This representation
alleging bias against the
following authorities. B. Appellant authority
A. Disciplinary authority D. Appointing authority
C. Revisionary authority

99. Match the following: Subject

Conduct Rules No. borrowing.4
Investment, Lending and
1 7 Criticism of Government 2
Demonstration i
iii 13
/v 16
d Gifts 2
A ia, iib, iii c. iv d
i d, iia, ii b, iv c
C ic, iib, ii d, iv a
D ib, ii d, ii a ivc
child care leave?
Which of the following is/arc correct about the
100.
for 6 spells cvery ycar. CCL.
A. CCL can be availed go abroad during
is allowed tomaximum
B. Anenmployeeavailed of 736days,
CCL can be for a
C.
D. None of the above.
 16

101. Name the category of employee for whom Hindi Training is not required.
A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D

102. The Official Language Act 1963 was passed on

A. 01/06/1963 B. 10/05/1963 C. 15/06/1993 D. 20/09/1963

103. Which Articleof the Constitution contains the provision regarding the Official Language
of the Union of India?
A.. Article 341 C. Article 343 D. Article 344
B.Article 342

104. What is the lumpsum award for passing Pragya course?

A. Rs. 1500 B. Rs, 1600 C. Rs. 2500 D. None of the above.

105. What is the minimum percentage of marks to be obtained by an employee to pass in the
Hindi Typewriting examination?
A. 25% B.40% C. 50% D.60%

106. When HindiDay is celebrated every year?

A. 1" September B. 14" September C. 15hSeptember D. 16" September
Official
107. How many Lok Sabha members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on
Language?
A.5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

108.Employees under Category D will begin training from COurse.

A. Prabodh B. Praveen C. Pragya D. Parangat

109.What the amount of cash award for passing Praveen with 70% or more marks?
A. Rs.1000 B. Rs.1500 C. Rs. 1800 D. Rs.2000

110. Which State from the following come under Region B?

A. Rajasthan B. Gujarat C. Karnataka D. West Bengal