VELAMMAL KNOWLEDGE PARK - PONNERI

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS

PONNERI, MADURAI, THENI, VELLORE, THANJAVUR, CHENNAI.

VISTO 2017-18
(VELAMMAL INTER SCHOOL SCIENCE TALENT OLYMPIAD)
SEASON – I
Duration: 2hrs. CLASS – VIII
Max. Marks: 100 ROLL NO:

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE: .......................................................................

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE

1. a) Write your NAME and CLASS in the space provided on OMR Response sheet.

b) You have to mark the answers on the OMR Response sheet only.

c) You have to handle the OMR Response sheet with utmost care.

d) Do not fold/mutilate or make any unnecessary markings on the OMR Response sheet.

e) Use BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN only to darken the appropriate circles in
OMR Response sheet.

2. Answers marked with PENCIL will not be considered for evaluation.

3. This Question Paper consists of 100 QUESTIONS, under four subjects heads,
MATHEMATICS (40 Questions), PHYSICS (20 Questions), CHEMISTRY (20 Questions)
and BIOLOGY (20 Questions).

4. Each question has four alternative responses marked a, b, c, d. You have to darken the
appropriate circle provided in the OMR Response sheet against each question.

5. 1 MARK will be awarded for every correct response for all the questions in ALL THE FOUR
SUBJECTS.

6. NO mark will be deducted for incorrect response.

7. Usage of Calculators, Log tables and Electronic gadgets is strictly prohibited in the
examination hall.

8. Return the OMR Response sheet to the Invigilator at the end of Examination, before leaving
the examination hall.

***** All the Best *****

MATHEMATICS
1
1. Which of the following is a greatest 5 digit number which is a perfect square?
a) 99864 b) 99854 c) 99856 d) 99568

2. Evaluate 10  25  108  154  225

a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 16

3. ABC is a right triangle right angle at B and AB  5  3 3 , BC  3 3  5 then AC is

a) 2 b) 10 c) 6 d) 8

5 10
4. Id 5  2.236 then the value of   125 is
2 5
a) 7.826 b) 10.062 c) 8.944 d) 5.59

5. 13  23  33  ......253 is
a) 567 b) 276 c) 256 d) 456
6. The number of natural number divisible by 7 between 1 to 1000 is
a) 152 b) 142 c)132 d) 122
7. In a quadrilateral ABCD, OA and OB are bisectors of  A and  B respectively then AOB
is
1 1 3
a) 2  C  D  b)  C   D  c)  C   D  d)  C   D 
2 4 2
8. If A = 2x, B = 4y, C = 8z where x  0.1 , y  0.4 , z  0.6 then A  B  C is
a) 8 b) 16 c) 4 d) 2
xy xz yz
9. If a  ,b  ,c  where a, b, c are other than zero then x equals to
x y xz yz
2abc 3ab 2abc 2abc
a) b) c) d)
ab  bc  ca ab  bc  ca ab  bc  ca bc  ac  ab
 x  y    A B 
10. If x  0.82 y  0.17 A  0.7, B  0.2 then  x  y    A  B   is

a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 3) 5

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2
11. If x  then x is
2
2  0.39
2
3
2
3
3
a) 1.07 b) 1.06 c) 2.06 d)2.07
2
12. The number of diagonals in a cuboid
a) 12 b) 16 c) 8 d) 4
13. Number of twin primes from 1 to 100
a) 8 b) 5 c) 7 d) 4
14. The smallest perfect square using the digits 0 to 9 is
a) 1026753849 b) 1026754 c) 1026755 d) 1026756
n 1 2007
 1  1 
15. Number of positive integers n satisfying  1    1  
 n  2007 
a) 0 b) 2 c) 4 d) 2007
16. AB = 2r is the diameter of a circle if a chord CD intersects AB at right angle at a point P in
the ratio 1 : 2 then CD is equal to

4 4 2 4 2 4 5
a) r b) r c) r d) r
3 3 5 3
17. The parallel sides of trapezium are 3cm and 9cm. The non – parallel sides are 4cm and
6cm. A line parallel to the bases divides the trapezium into two trapeziums of equal
perimeters. The ratio in which each of the non – parallel sides.
a) 4 : 1 b) 2 : 1 c) 3 : 2 d) 3 : 1

18. ABCD is a trapezium with AB || CD and D  2B , AD = 5cm and CD = 2cm then AB is

13
a) 8cm b) 7cm c) 6.5cm d) cm
4
19. Find the value of (13 + 23 + 33 +…… + n3) – (12 + 22 + 32 + …..n2)

n  3n  1  n 2  1  3n  n  n 2  1 4n  2n  3  n 2  1 n  3n 2  1 n n  1
2 2

a) b) c) d)
12 12 7 12

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p 4  x  81 p
20. If 2
   and x = y; p, q  N then  1 is
q  y  16 q
3 5 7 8
a) b) c) d)
4 4 4 4
21. The value of 12 - 22 + 32 - 42 + ……+ 20072 – 20082 is
a) -1008518 b) -1008519 c) -1008517 d)-1008516
22. The number of odd divisors of 560 is

3
 a) 4 b) 20 c) 8 d) 6

23. If x  2  3 2  3 4 then x3 – 6x2 + 6x + 8 is

a) 1 b) 8 c) 10 d) 0
24. The length of a rectangular field is double its width. Inside the field there is a square
1
shaped pond of 3m long. If the area of the pond is th of the area of the field then the
8
length of the field is
a) 12m b) 6m c) 24m d) 36m
25. Aravind has to type the numbers from 1 to 1000 on a typewriter. Number of times he has to
press the keys of the typewriter is
a) 2983 b) 3892 c) 2398 d) 2893
1
 1.2.4  2.4.8  3.6.12  .....  3
26. The value of 
1.3.9  2.6.18  3.9.27  ..... 
1 1 3 2
a) b) c) d)
3 2 2 3
Paragraph – I (Q.No – 27 – 29):
A square with side 14m has area same as a rectangle with length 28m
27. What is the breadth of rectangle?
a) 3m b) 7m c) 6m d) 5m
28. If the length of the rectangle is decreased by 8.5m then for maintaining the same area
breadth must be increased by
a) 1.8m b) 3.8m c) 2.8m d) 5.2m

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l
29. If l is the length and b is the breadth of the rectangle then is
b
a) 4m b) 6m c) 3m d) 2m
30. Matrix match type:
Column – I Column - II

A) 67  529 10 p) 16

B) 252  2  196 q) 54

4
 C) 1821  760  576 r) 30

D) 2907  18  3969 s) 43
t) Real number
a) A – r, B – p, C – s, D – q b) A - p, B – q, C – s, D – r
c) A – q, B – s, C – t, D – r d) A – p, B – s, C – t, D – r
31. Matrix match type:
Column – I Column - II
A B C A B C p) -1
A) If 0.475    then
10 100 1000 1000000
a c 175
B) If a = 3d = 15, 4b = c = 16 then  is q)
d b 432
3 5 9 a 9 a r) 7
C) If     then the additive inverse of is
4 3 5 b 4 b
5 a 2 p  5 2  p a 6 s) 0.000016
D)        then of  is
6 3 b q  3 7  q 12 b
2
 4 
t)  
 1000 

a) A– s, B – r, C – p, D – q b) A – r, B – t, C – s, D - q
c) A – r, B – s, C – p, D – q d) A – q, B – s, C – t, D – p

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32. The area of the square field 7200m2 then the time taken by a man to cross the field
diagonally at the rate of 2kmph is:
a) 216 sec b) 256sec c) 126 sec d) 160 sec
33. The number of zeroes at the end of 2005! is
a) 500 b) 300 c) 250 d) 420
34. The number of all types of squares in a chess board
a) 204 b) 196 c) 186 d) 64

Paragraph – II: (Q.No – 35 – 37):

Sum of all interior angles of a polygon is given by (2n – 4)  900
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35. Sum of all angles of a polygon is 2160 0, then the number of sides in the polygon is
a) 14 b) 10 c) 12 d) None
36. The sum of the interior angles of a 15 sided polygon is
a) 23600 b) 23400 c) 40230 d) None
37. One interior angle of a polygon is 120 0 then the number of sides in the polygon is
a) 10 b) 7 c) 6 d) 5
38. The average of first n natural numbers is

n2  n n 1 n 1 n2  1
a) b) c) d)
2 2 2 2
39. Statement – I: By joining the mid – point of a rhombus in an order we will get a square.
Statement – II: By joining the mid – point of a square in an order we will always get a
rectangle
a) Both Statements I, II are correct b) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct d) Both Statements I, II are incorrect
40. What least number must be added to 2945 to get a perfect square?
a) 70 b) 50 c) 60 d) 80

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PHYSICS
41. An electric tuning fork completes one oscillation in 0.000125 s. Calculate the
frequency of the tuning fork. Will sound emitted by tuning fork be audible?
a) 80Hz(Audible) b) 800Hz(Audible) c) 8000Hz(Audible) d) None
o
42. The wave length of red light is 6500 A . If velocity of light is 3  108 ms-1.
Calculate (i) frequency and (ii) time period.
15 15
a) 0.46110 Hz,0.216 10 sec b) 4.6110 Hz, 21.6 10 sec
14 10

15 15
c) 4.6110 Hz, 2.16 10 sec d) 2.16 10 Hz, 4.6110 sec
14 14

43. The frequency of a tuning fork is 500 Hz. Calculate the time period.
a) 2 103 sec b) 2 105 sec c) 0.2 103 sec d) 0.2 105 sec
44. The wave length and frequency of a sound wave in a certain medium is 22cm
and 1500 Hz respectively. If wavelength is changed to 33 cm. Calculate (i) velocity of sound
(ii) new frequency.
6
 a) 330m/s, 1000Hz b) 3.3m/s, 100Hz
c) 330cm/sec, 1000Hz d) 300m/s, 100Hz
45. An electric vibrator produces ripples in a ripple tank, such that distance
between one crest and one trough is 4cm. If the vibrations are produced at a
rate of 4800/min. Calculate (i) time period (ii) wave velocity.
1 1 1 1
a) sec, 6.4m / s b) sec, 64m / s c) sec, 0.64m / s d) sec, 64m / s
80 40 60 80
46. A force of 500 dynes acts on a mass of 0.05 kg over a distance of 20m.
Assuming that the mass is initially at rest, find the velocity and time for which
the force acts
a) 20cm/sec, 20sec b) 200cm/sec, 20sec
c) 200m/sec, 20min d) None of the above
47. Calculate the equivalent height of a water barometer, If the pressure recorded
by mercury barometer is 60 cm of mercury, density of mercury is 13600 kg/m3
and density of water is 1000 kgm–3.
a) 816m b) 8.16cm c) 8.16m d) 81.6cm
48. The pressure in water pipe at the ground floor of a building is 120000 Pa.
whereas the pressure on the third floor is 30000 Pa. Calculate the height of
third floor. Take(g = 10 ms–2).
a) 9cm b) 9m c) 90m d) 0.9m
49. A hockey ball at a rest is hit by a hockey stick, such that the force acts on the
ball for 0.08 s. If the ball is of mass 100 g and covers a distance of 80m in 1.6 seconds, find
the magnitude of force.
a) 625N b) 6.25N c) 62.5N d) 62.5dynes

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50. A motor cyclist along with the machine(vehicle) weighs 160 kg. While driving at 72
kmh–1, he stops his machine(vehicle) over a distance of 8m. Find the retarding force of the
brakes.
a) 4000dynes b) 4000N c) 3000N d) 3000dynes
51. Calculate the pressure exerted by 75 cm of vertical length of water column in SI
units.
a) 7350pa b)735pa c) 7.35pa d) 0.7350pa
52. 0.96 m vertical height of liquid exerts a pressure of 17310.72 Pa. If ‘g’ is
9.8 ms–2, calculate the density of the liquid.
a) 184kg/m3 b) 1840kg/m3 c) 1.84kg/m3 d) 0.184kg/m3
53. Frictional force between two bodies
a) Increases the motion between the bodies
b) Destroys the relative motion between the bodies
c) Sometimes helps and sometimes opposes the motion
d) Increases the relative velocity between the bodies
54. Maximum value of static friction is
7
 a) limiting friction b) rolling friction c) static friction d) normal reaction
55. A good lubricant should be highly
a) viscous b) non-volatile c) both (a) and (b) d) transparent
56. Theoretically which of the following are best lubricants
a) Solids b) Liquids c) Gases d) Both b and c
57. Mechanical waves
a) are longitudinal only
b) are transverse only
c) can be both longitudinal or transverse
d) require no medium for propagation
58. Of the following properties of a wave, the one that is independent of the others
is it
a) velocity b) amplitude c) frequency d) wavelength
59. A constant force (F) is applied on a stationary particle of mass ‘m’. The velocity
attained by the particle in a certain displacement will be proportional to
1
a) m b) 1/m c) √𝑚 d)
√𝑚
60. A constant force (F), is applied on a stationary particle of mass ‘m’. The velocity
attained by the particle in a certain interval of time will be proportional to
1
a) m b) 1/m c) √𝑚 d)
√𝑚

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CHEMISTRY
61. Terylene is a popular form of
a) Nylon b) Plastic c) Polyster d) Monomer
62. A synthetic fibre which resembles wool is known as
a) Acrylic b) Nylon c) PVC d) Polyester
63. The plastics which donot remould again on heating are called
a) Thermosetting polymer b) Thermoplastic polymer
c) Elastomers d) Fibres
64. The raw materials used in making nylon is
a) Woodpulp b) Cellulose c) Coal, water, air d) All of these
65. The purest natural form of cellulose is
a) Rayon b) Cotton c) Wool d) Silk
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66. The nonstick coating on pans and other cooking utensils is done by
a) Rayon b) Melamine c) Teflon d) PVC
67. Which of the following is not a part of 4R’s formula?
a) Reduce b) Recycle c) Reinvent d) Reuse
68. Read the given statement and mark the correct option.
Statement – I: Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution
Statement – II: Copper is more reactive than zinc.
a) Both Statements I, II are correct b) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
c) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect d) Both Statements I, II are incorrect
69. Which of the following oxides when dissolved in water will change the colour of blue litmus
to red?
a) Iron oxide b) Calcium oxide c) Sulphur dioxide d) Sodium oxide
70. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
a) Polythene b) Polyvinylchloride c) Cellulose d) Teflon
71. A greenish coating developed on copper utensils is due to the formation of
a) CuCO3 b) Cu(OH)2 c) CuO d) CuSO4

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72. Which of the following is not true for metals?

a) Metals are good conductors of heat
b) Generally metals are malleable
c) More reactive metals can displace hydrogen gas from dilute acids
d) Metals are electronegative nature
73. Which one of the following can’t be drawn into wires?
a) Fe b) Al c) Cu d) Coal
74. Match the Column – I with Column – II.
Column - I Column – II
(Polymer) (Uses of Polymer)
1) Bakelite p) In making pipes & toys etc.
2) Nylon q) In making electrical switches
3) PVC r) In making floor tiles & kitchen ware
4) Melamine s) In making parachutes

9
 a) 1 – s, 2 – q, 3 – r, 4 – p b) 1 – q, 2 – s, 3 – p, 4 - r
c) 1 – q, 2 – s, 3 – r, 4 – p d) 1 – s, 2 – q, 3 – p, 4 – r
75. Which of the following metals can be cut with a knife?
a) Gold b) Potassium c) Silver d) Aluminium
76. Which non- metal can be kept under water?
a) Carbon b) Sodium c) Phosphorous d) Potassium
77. Which of the following non metal is found in liquid state?
a) Mercury b) Bromine c) Chlorine d) Cesium
78. Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
a) Diamond b) Wood c) Glass d) Copper
79. Which of the following is not a ductile material?
a) Sulphur b) Iron c) Silver d) Aluminium
80. State whether true(T) or false(F) among the following:
1) Plastic is a natural polymer 2) Plastic is a bad conductor of electricity
3) Plastics are biodegradable 4) Nylon absorbs water & dries easily
a) FTTT b) TFTF c) TFFT d) FTFF
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BIOLOGY
81. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus?
a) Cholera b) Influenza c) Typhoid d) Tetanus
82. Which of the following micro organisms is the most common inhabitant of human
intestine?
a) E.coli b) Amoeba c) Yeast d) Lactobacillus
83. Match the following:
Column – I Column – II
A) Louis Pasteur 1) Anthrax causing bacteria
B) Alexander Flemming 2) Vaccine for small pox
C) Edward Jenner 3) Fermentation
D) Robert koch 4) Penicillin

10
 A B C D A B C D
a) 3 2 4 1 b) 3 1 2 4
c) 3 4 2 1 d) 4 2 3 1
84. Which one of the following statements is correct about “Red Data Book”?
a) Contains the data of all types of birds in India only.
b) Contains the data of endangered plants only
c) Contains the recorded data of the endangered animals and plants.
d) Contain the recorded data of the endangered animals only
85. Find out the wrong statements from the following with regards to advantages of manure
a) It makes the soil porous due to which exchange of gases becomes easy
b) It increases water retaining capacity of the soil
c) It increases the number of friendly microbes
d) It improves the texture of the soil.
86. The following is an antibiotic
a) Sodium bicarbonate b) Streptomycin c) Alcohol d) Ascorbic acid
87. The microorganisms which cause diseases in plants and animals including human beings
are called …..
a) Carriers b) Vector c) Pathogens d) Antibiotics

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88. Restoring of the destroyed forests by planting new trees is known as

a) Reforestation b) Ecosystem c) Afforestation d) Deforestation
89. A group of population which is capable of interbreeding is known as
a) Flora b) Species c) Animals d) Kingdom
90. Cutting and clearing of forests to use the land for other purposes is known as
a) Afforestation b) Urbanization c) Deforestation d) Modernization
91. The plants, animals and micro organisms along with climate, soil, river, etc., of an area is
referred to as
a) Fauna b) Ecosystem c) Species d) Flora
92. The organic substance obtained from dead plants and animals wastes is
a) Manure b) Fertilizer c) Pesticide d) Antibiotic
93. Which leaves are used by farmers to protect their crops from weeds and insects?
a) Peepal leaves b) Basil leaves c) Neem leaves d) Mango leaves
94. The management of rearing animals for food and other products is known as

11
 a) Granaries b) Animal husbandary c) Horticulture d) Ware house
95. Which of the following is not a communicable disease?
a) Cholera b) Chicken pox c) Tuberculosis d) Cancer
96. Assertion (A): Chicken pox is a communicable disease
Reason (R): It spreads by physical contact.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) (A) is false but (R) is true

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97. Observe the following diagram of Hoe and find I, II, III, IV & V parts.

I II III IV V
a) Grip Handle Bent plate Rod beam
b) Handle Bent plate Grip Rod beam
c) Grip Handle Bent plate beam Rod
d) Bent plate Handle Rod Grip beam

98. Read the following diseases and identify how many of them are plant diseases.
12
 I) Citrus canker II) Rust III) Typhoid IV) Yellow mosaic V) Measles
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
Read the following passage to answer the questions (9 & 100):
In organic farming, farmer always prefers biofertilizers to enrich nutrient quantity &
quality in the soil. For the same, he cultivates leguminous crop in between two successive
cereal crops.
In the roots of these leguminous plants, root nodules are formed which are inhabited by
symbiotic bacteria which form a necessary enzyme called nitrogenase.
99. Which of the following nutrients enrich the soil after growing leguminous plants?
a) Nitrogen b) Magnesium c) Phosphorus d) Potassium
100. Symbiotic organism in the root nodules of leguminous plant is
a) Nostoc b) Spirogyra c) Anabena d) Rhizobium

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VISTO-2017
SEASON - I ANSWER KEY
TO
CLASS – VIII
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A

1 c 11 b 21 a 31 a 41 c 51 a 61 c 71 a 81 b 91 b

2 c 12 d 22 a 32 a 42 c 52 b 62 a 72 d 82 a 92 a

3 d 13 a 23 c 33 a 43 a 53 c 63 a 73 d 83 c 93 c

4 a 14 a 24 a 34 a 44 a 54 a 64 c 74 b 84 c 94 b

5 b 15 a 25 d 35 a 45 a 55 c 65 b 75 b 85 a 95 d
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6 b 16 b 26 d 36 b 46 a 56 c 66 c 76 c 86 b 96 a

7 b 17 a 27 b 37 c 47 c 57 c 67 c 77 b 87 c 97 a

8 a 18 b 28 c 38 b 48 b 58 b 68 c 78 d 88 a 98 a

9 d 19 a 29 d 39 d 49 c 59 d 69 c 79 a 89 b 99 a

10 a 20 c 30 a 40 d 50 b 60 b 70 c 80 d 90 c 100 d

14