VIP TEST 2021

(Test 1- 4)
 LISTENING TEST 1
SECTION 1 Questions 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD AND/ORA NUMBER for each answer.

Beechen Festival

Date Time Activity Place Comments

June 19th 7 p.m. Example Concert the 1……………...

June 20th 2 …….. p.m. tour meet at the includes a visit to

3………………….
an old flour mill

June 21st all day children's Beechen bring a

4 …………… competition Community 5………………….
Centre

June 21st evening fireworks by the

6…………...

Questions 7-10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
● This year, activities end by 7…………………………….. .p.m.
● There won't be any 8..................................... in the town centre this year.
● The festival's web address is www.9………………………………………. com
● Festival organisers would like to receive 10……………………………..... online.

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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20
Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Walking Holiday
11 Approximately how many passengers does the ferry hold?
A. 160
B. 600
C. 2000

12 Which items should the tourists pack in a separate bag?

A. food
B. reading material
C. medicines

13 The hostel in La Vega de Liebana has

A. good washing facilities.
B. a games room.
C. a number of single bedrooms.

14 Residents at the hostel are not allowed to

A. take furniture out of the hostel building.
B. enter the hostel after a certain time.
C. smoke in the hostel gardens.

2
Questions 15-17
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Clothes and equipment

Bring:
boots with thick soles

spare 15…………………………….

light waterproofs

suncream: strength -16…………………………..

a 17……………………… folder for map, etc.

Questions 18-20
Choose THREE letters, A-G.
Which THREE of the following features of the area in Spain does the speaker talk about?
A. altitude
B. coastline
C. economy
D. geology
E. temperatures
F. vegetation
G. wildlife

3
SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30
Questions 21 - 24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Peer Assessment
21 Sally says many students see peer assessment as
A. a way for tutors to save time.
B. a useful learning tool.
C. a valuable form of assessment.
22 What do Steve and Sally agree is an advantage of peer assessment?
A. It's more reliable than self-assessment.
B. It increases students' self-awareness.
C. It builds rapport between students.
23 If the peer assessment marks seem incorrect,
A. students should mark the assignments again.
B. the tutor should check those assignments.
C. the marking criteria should be rewritten.
24 How were the presentations in the research project marked?
A. Students and lecturers marked all the presentations.
B. Students chose which presentations they wanted to mark. C
C. Lecturers marked a selection of presentations.

4
Questions 25 - 30
How did the following categories of student markers compare with the rest of the group
when marking student presentations?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 25-30.

A. They gave higher marks.

B. They gave lower marks.
C. Their marks were not significantly different

Categories of student markers

25 male students marking female presenters ………………………

26 female students marking male presenters ………………………
27 female students marking female presenters ………………………
28 younger students marking older presenters ………………………
29 students marking presenters from a different university ………………………
30 students who had helped set criteria ………………………

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SECTION 4 Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Bislama - The Pidgin English Language of Vanuatu

Languages in Vanuatu
Local languages: Actively spoken languages: 81
Declining languages: 17
31………………….. languages 8
Total: 106
Foreign languages: English is used in the 32………………………….. system
Bislama
● It is spoken by 90% of the population today.
● In the past this language was described as 33…………………………
History of Bislama
● Around 1800 it was used as a common language on many ships.
● After 1860 Vanuatu people worked in Australian 34…………………………
● After 1950 people moved to the 35………………………....
Description of Bislama
General
● Bislama should be called a 36……………………… 'pidgin.
Vocabulary
● Most words come from English.
● Words such as 'from' may have more 37…………………. in Bislama.
● Less than 10% of words are of 38………………………… origin.
● Pacific words describe the natural world and also local 39…………………
Grammar
● It is based on Vanuatu languages.
● The word 'long' acts as an important 40………………… in Bislama

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 READING TEST 1

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
on pages 2 and 3.

The development of the silk industry

Silk, a natural fibre produced by a particular worm called a silkworm, has been used in clothing for
many centuries.

When silk was first discovered in China over 4,500 years ago, it was reserved exclusively
for the use of the emperor, his close relations and the very highest of his dignitaries. Within the
palace, the emperor is believed to have worn a robe of white silk; outside, he, his principal wife,
and the heir to the throne wore yellow, the colour of the earth.
Gradually silk came into more general use, and the various classes of Chinese society
began wearing tunics of silk. As well as being used for clothing and decoration, silk was quite
quickly put to industrial use, and rapidly became one of the principal elements of the Chinese
economy. It was used in the production of musical instruments, as string for fishing, and even as
the world's first luxury paper. Eventually even the common people were able to wear garments of
silk.
During the Han dynasty (206 BC-220 AD), silk ceased to be a mere fabric and became a
form of currency. Farmers paid their taxes in grain and silk, and silk was used to pay civil servants
and to reward subjects for outstanding services. Values were calculated in lengths of silk as they
had previously been calculated in weight of gold. Before long, silk became a currency used in trade
with foreign countries, which continued into the Tang dynasty (616-907 AD). It is possible that this
added importance was the result of a major increase in production. Silk also found its way so
thoroughly into the Chinese language that 230 of the 5,000 most common characters of Mandarin1
have 'silk' as their key component.

1
A group of related Chinese dialects which have been recognised as the ‘national language’ since
the early 20th century

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 Silk became a precious commodity, highly sought after by other countries from an early
date, and it is believed that the silk trade actually existed before the Silk Road2 was officially
opened in the second century BC. An Egyptian mummy with a silk thread in her hair, dating from
1070 BC, has been discovered in the village of Deir el Medina near the Valley of the Kings, and is
probably the earliest evidence of the silk trade. During the second century BC, the Chinese
emperor Han Wu Di's ambassadors travelled as far west as Persia and Mesopotamia, bearing gifts
including silks. A range of important finds of Chinese silks have also been made along the Silk
Road. One of the most dramatic of these finds was some Tang silk discovered in 1900. It is
believed that around 1015 AD Buddhist monks, possibly alarmed by the threat of invasion by
Tibetan people, had sealed more than ten thousand manuscripts and silk paintings, silk banners
and textiles in caves near Dunhuang, a trading station on the Silk Road in north-west China.

Some historians believe the first Europeans to set eyes upon the fabulous fabric were the
Roman legions of Marcus Licinius Crassus, Governor of Syria.
According to certain accounts of the period, at an important battle near the Euphrates River
in 53 BC, the Roman soldiers were so startled by the bright silken banners of the enemy that they
fled in panic. Yet, within decades Chinese silks were widely worn by the rich and noble families of
Rome. The Roman Emperor Heliogabalus (218–222 AD) wore nothing but silk. By 380 AD, the
Roman historian Marcellinus Ammianus reported that, 'The use of silk, which was once confined to
the nobility, has now spread to all classes without distinction - even to the lowest.” The desire for
silk continued to increase over the centuries. Despite this demand, the price of silk remained very
high.
In spite of their secrecy about production methods, the Chinese eventually lost their
monopoly on silk. Knowledge of silk production methods reached Korea around 200 BC, when
waves of Chinese immigrants arrived there. Shortly after 300 AD, it travelled westward, and the
cultivation of the silkworm was established in India.
Around 550 AD silk production reached the Middle East. Records indicate that two monks
from Constantinople (modern-day Istanbul), capital of the Byzantine Empire, appeared at their
emperor’s court with silkworm eggs which they had obtained secretly, and hidden in their hollow
bamboo walking sticks. Under their supervision the eggs hatched into worms, and the worms spun
silk threads. Byzantium was in the silk business at last. The Buzantine church and state created
imperial workshops, monopolising production and keeping the secret themselves. This allowed a

2
An ancient trade route between China and the Mediterranean Sea

8
silk industry to be established, undercutting the market for ordinary-grade Chinese silk. However,
high quality silk textiles, woven in China especially for the Middle Eastern market, continued to
achieve high prices in the West, and trade along the Silk Read continued as before. By the sixth
century the Persians, too, had mastered the art of silk weaving, developing their own rich patterns
and techniques. But it wasn’t until the 13th century that Italy began silk production, with the
introduction of 2,000 skilled silk weavers from Constantinople. Eventually, silk production became
widespread throughout Europe.

World silk production has approximately doubled during the last 30 years in spite of
man-made fibres replacing certain uses of silk. Before this period, China and Japan were the two
main producers, together manufacturing more than 50 per cent of world production each year. After
the late 1970s, however, China dramatically increased its silk production, and once again became
the world’s leading producer.

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Questions 1-7
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

Chinese silk
Early Uses
Clothing
● at first, silk only available to Chinese of high rank
● emperor wore 1 ...................... silk indoors
In industry
● silk items included parts of musical instruments, fishing strings and 2…………….
Currency
● silk was used as payment of 3 ................. as well as for wages and rewards
● silk replaced 4 ...........…. as a unit of value
● silk soon used as payment in 5 ................. trade

Evidence of silk trade

1070 BC, Egypt:
● hair of a 6 ................. contained silk
2nd century BC, Persia and Mesopotamia:
● gifts of silk were presented by Chinese ambassadors
1015 AD, north-west China:
● silk objects were hidden inside 7 .................

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Questions 8 - 13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

8 Their first sight of silk created fear among Roman soldiers.

9 The quality of Chinese silk imported by the early Romans varied widely.
10 The Byzantine emperor first acquired silkworm eggs from the Chinese emperor.
11 The price of high-grade Chinese silk fell due to competition from Middle-Eastern producers.
12 Silk was produced in the Middle East several centuries before it was produced in Europe.
13 Global silk production has declined in recent years.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2
on pages 6 and 7.

The discovery of a baby mammoth

A near-perfect frozen mammoth offers clues to a great vanished species

А On a May morning in 2007, on the Yamal Peninsula in northwestern Siberia, a Nenets

reindeer herder named Yuri Khudi stood on a sandbar on the Yuribey River, looking
carefully at a diminutive corpse. Although he'd never seen such an animal before, Khudi
had seen many mammoth tusks, the thick corkscrew shafts that his people found each
summer, and this persuaded him the corpse was a baby mammoth. It was eerily well
preserved. Apart from its missing hair and toenails, it was perfectly intact. Khudi realised
the find might be significant and he knew he couldn't just return home and forget all about it.
He therefore decided to travel to the small town of Yar Sale to consult an old friend named
Kirill Serotetto. His friend took him to meet the director of the local museum, who
persuaded the local authorities to fly Khudi and Serotetto back to the Yuribey River to
collect the baby mammoth.

B Mammoths became extinct between 14,000 and 10,000 years ago and since the extinctions
coincided with the end of the most recent ice age, many researchers believe that the
primary cause of the great die-off was the sharp rise in temperature, which dramatically
altered the vegetation. We have strong evidence that the temperature rise played a
significant part in their extinction,' says Adrian Lister, a palaeontologist and mammoth
expert at London's Natural History Museum. 'In Eurasia, the timing of the two events
matches closely.' The extinctions also coincided, however, with the arrival of modern
humans. In addition to exploiting mammoths for food, they used their bones and tusks to
make weapons, tools, and even dwellings. Some scientists believe humans were as much
to blame as the temperature rise for the great die-off. Some say they caused it.
C The body of the baby mammoth was eventually sent to the St Petersburg Zoological
Museum in Russia. Alexei Tikhonov, the museum's director, was one of the first scientists to
view the baby, a female. According to Tikhonov, Khudi had rescued the best preserved
mammoth to come down to us from the Ice Age', and he gratefully named her Lyuba, after

12
 Khudi's wife. Tikhonov knew that no-one would be more excited by the find than Dan
Fisher, an American colleague at the University of Michigan who had spent 30 years
researching the lives of mammoths. Tikhonov invited Fisher, along with Bernard Buigues, a
French mammoth hunter, to come and view the baby mammoth. Fisher and Buigues had
examined other specimens together, including infants, but these had been in a relatively
poor state. Lyuba was another story entirely. Other than the missing hair and toenails, the
only flaw in her pristine appearance was a curious dent above the trunk.
D Fisher was particularly excited about one specific part of Lyuba's anatomy: her milk tusks.
Through his career, Fisher has taken hundreds of tusk samples. Most of these came from
the Great Lakes region of North America, and his research showed that these animals
continued to thrive, despite the late Pleistocene3 temperature change. On the other hand, to
Fisher the tusks often revealed telltale evidence of human hunting. His samples frequently
came from animals that had died in the autumn, when they should have been at their peak
after summer grazing, and less likely to die of natural causes, but also when humans would
have been most eager to stockpile meat for the coming winter. He has done limited work in
Siberia, but his analysis of tusks from Wrangel Island, off the coast of Siberia, suggests the
same conclusion.
E In December 2007, Buigues arranged for the specimen to be transported to Japan to
undergo a CT scan by Naoki Suzuki of the Jikei University School of Medicine. The test
confirmed her skeleton was undamaged, and her internal organs seemed largely intact. It
also showed that the end of her trunk, and her throat, mouth, and windpipe were filled with
dense sediment. Six months later, in a laboratory in St Petersburg, Fisher, Buigues, Suzuki,
Tikhonov and other colleagues began a three-day series of tests on Lyuba. During these,
Fisher noted a dense mix of clay and sand in her trunk, mouth and throat, which had been
indicated earlier by the scan. In fact, the sediment in Lyuba's trunk was packed so tightly
that Fisher saw it as a possible explanation for the dent above her trunk. If she was
frantically fighting for breath and inhaled convulsively, perhaps a partial vacuum was
created in the base of her trunk, which would have flattened surrounding soft tissue. To
Fisher, the circumstances of Lyuba's death were clear: she had asphyxiated. Suzuki,
however, proposed a different interpretation, seeing more evidence for drowning than
asphyxiation.

3
Pleistocene era: the time between roughly 2.6 million years ago and 10,000 years ago

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F Studies are ongoing, but Lyuba has begun to shed the secrets of her short life and some
clues to the fate of her kind. Her good general health was shown in the record of her dental
development, a confirmation for Fisher that dental research is useful for evaluating health
and thus key to investigating the causes of mammoth extinction. Analysis of her
well-preserved DNA has revealed that she belonged to a distinct population of Mammuthus
primigenius and that, soon after her time, another population migrating to Siberia from
North America would take their place. Finally, Lyuba's premolars and tusks revealed that
she had been born in late spring and was only a month old when she died.

Questions 14 - 18
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet

14 similarities between studies of mammoth remains from different parts of the world
15 details of the uses to which mammoth body parts were put
16 a theory that accounts for the damage to Lyuba's face
17 an explanation of how an individual was able to identify a small corpse
18 a comparison between Lyuba and other young mammoth corpses

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Questions 19 - 23
Look at the following statements (Questions 19-23) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct person, A-G.
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

19 The indications are that mammoths died as a result of climate change.

20 Teeth analysis is important in discovering why mammoths died out.
21 The corpse of the baby mammoth is in better condition than any other that has been
discovered.
22 It would be a mistake to ignore the baby mammoth's discovery, because of its potential
importance.
23 Mammoths often died at a time of year when they should have been in good physical
condition.

List of People
А Yuri Khudi
B Kirill Serotetto
C Adrian Lister
D Alexei Tikhonov
E Dan Fisher
F Bernard Buigues
G Naoki Suzuki

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Questions 24 - 26
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

24 Some researchers say that a marked rise in temperature impacted on mammoths by

changing the type of ................ available.
25 Fisher concluded that many of the mammoth tusks he looked at displayed signs of
................. .
26 Not long after Lyuba's death, the Mammuthus primigenius group she belonged to was
replaced by another group that came from………………….. .

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3
on pages 10 and 11.

What makes a musical expert?

How does someone become an expert in music?
And is it really possible to have a 'talent for music?

Does that class of people acknowledged to be musical experts just have more of the same basic
skills we are all endowed with, or do they have a set of abilities - or neural structures – that are
totally different from those of the rest of us? Are high levels of musical achievement simply the
result of training and practice, or are they based on innate brain structure - what we refer to as
'talent? Talent can be defined as something that originates in genetic structures and that is
identifiable by trained people who can recognize its existence before a person has achieved
exceptional levels of performance. The emphasis on early identification means that to investigate
it, we study the development of skills in children.

It is evident that some children acquire skills more rapidly than others: the age of onset for walking
and talking varies widely, even between children in the same household. There may be genetic
factors at work, but these are closely linked with other factors - with a presumably environmental
component - such as motivation and family dynamics. Similar factors can influence musical
development and can mask the contribution of genetics to musical ability.

Brain studies, so far, haven't been of much use in sorting out the issues. Gottfried Schlaug at
Harvard collected brain scans of individuals with absolute pitch4 (AP) and showed that a region in
the brain called the planum temporale is larger in these people than in others. This suggests that
the planum is involved in AP, but it's not clear if it starts out larger in people who eventually acquire
AP, or if the acquisition of AP makes the planum increase in size.

Results of research into the areas of the brain involved in skilled motor movement are more
conclusive. Studies of violin players have shown that the region of the brain responsible for

4
individuals with absolute pitch: people who can identify or sing any musical note correctly without
help

17
controlling the movement of the left hand (the hand that requires greater precision in violin playing)
increases in size as a result of practice. We do not know yet if the propensity for increase
pre-exists in some people and not others.

The evidence against talent comes from research on how much training the experts do. Like
experts in mathematics, chess, or sports, experts in music require lengthy periods of instruction
and practice. In several studies, the very best music students were found to have practiced more
than twice as much as the others. In another study, students were secretly divided into two groups
based on teachers' perceptions of their talent. Several years later, it was found that the students
who achieved the highest performance ratings had practiced the most, irrespective of which talent'
group they had been assigned to, suggesting that practice does not merely correlate with
achievement, but causes it.

Anders Ericsson, at Florida State University, approaches the topic of musical expertise as a
general problem in cognitive psychology. He takes as a starting point the assumption that there are
certain issues involved in becoming an expert at anything; that we can learn about musical
expertise by studying expert chess players, athletes, artists, mathematicians, as well as the
musicians themselves. The emerging picture from such studies is that ten thousand hours of
practice is required to achieve the level of mastery associated with being a world-class expert - in
anything. In study after study, of composers, ice skaters, concert pianists, chess players and
master criminals, this number comes up again and again. Someone would do this amount of
practice if they practiced, for example, roughly 20 hours a week for ten years. Of course, this
doesn't address why some people don't seem to get anywhere when they practice, and why some
people get more out of their practice sessions than others. But no-one has yet found a case in
which true world-class expertise was accomplished in less time. It seems that it takes the brain this
long to assimilate all that it needs to know to achieve true mastery.

The ten-thousand-hour theory is consistent with what we know about how the brain learns.
Learning requires the assimilation and consolidation of information in neural tissue. The more
experiences we have with something, the stronger the memory/learning trace for that experience
becomes. Although people differ in how long it takes them to consolidate information neurally, it
remains true that increased practice leads to a greater number of neural traces, which create
stronger memory representation.

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The classic rebuttal to this theory goes something like this: What about Mozart? I hear that he
composed his first symphony at the age of four!' First, there is a factual error here: Mozart didn't
write it until he was eight. Still, this is unusual, to say the least. However, this early work received
little acclaim and was not performed very often. In fact the only reason we know about it is because
the child who wrote it grew up to become Mozart. And Mozart had an expert teacher in his father,
who was renowned as a teacher of musicians all over Europe. We don't know how much Mozart
practiced, but if he started at age two and worked thirty- two hours a week (quite possible, given
that his father was a stern taskmaster) he would have made his ten thousand hours by the time he
composed his first symphony. This does not mean that there are no genetic factors involved in
Mozart's greatness, but that inborn traits may not be the only cause.

19
Questions 27 - 30
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27 In the first paragraph, the writer suggests that a musician who is 'talented' is someone
A. who is aware of being set apart from other people.
B. whose brain structure is unlike that of other people.
C. who can perform extremely well in early childhood.
D. whose essential skills are more varied than those of ordinary people.

28 According to the writer, what is unclear about the findings of Gottfried Schlaug?
A. which part of the brain is linked to a particular musical skill
B. which type of musical skill leads to the greatest change in the brain
C. whether a feature of the brain is a cause or an effect of a musical skill
D. whether the acquisition of a musical skill is easier for some people than others

29 According to the writer, what has been established by studies of violin players?
A. Changes may occur in the brain following violin practice.
B. Left-handed violinists have a different brain structure from other people.
C. A violinist's hand size is not due to practice but to genetic factors.
D. Violinists are born with brains that have a particular structure.

30 According to the writer, findings on the amount of practice done by expert musicians
suggest that
A. talent may have little to do with expertise.
B. practice may actually prevent the development of talent.
C. talent may not be recognised by teachers.
D. expertise may be related to quality of instruction.

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Questions 31 - 36
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 31-36 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

31 Anders Ericsson's work with cognitive psychology has influenced other researchers.
32 Different areas of expertise seem to have one specific thing in common.
33 In order to be useful, practice must be carried out regularly every day.
34 Anyone who practises for long enough can reach the level of a world-class expert.
35 Occasionally, someone can become an expert at global level with fewer than 10,000hours'
practice.
36 Existing knowledge of learning and cognitive skills supports the importance of practice.

Questions 37 - 40
Complete the summary using the list of words, A-J, below. S
Write the correct letter, A-J, in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

Mozart
The case of Mozart could be quoted as evidence against the 10,000-hour-practice theory.
However, the writer points out that the young Mozart received a lot of 37 ............. from his
father, and that the symphony he wrote at the age of 38 ............ was not 39………….....
and may be of only academic interest. The case therefore supports the view that expertise
is not solely the result of 40 ............ characteristics.

A popular B artistic C completed

D eight E tuition F encouragement
G inherited H four I practice
J two

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22
 TEST 1
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The table below shows the results of a survey in one European country in 2012 in which
people from different age groups were asked about their favourite type of TV
programme.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

TV viewing preferences

Favourite programme type % of age group

11-15 16-20 21-25

cartoons 29% 25% 4%

feature films 21% 23% 20%

news 6% 18% 21%

soap operas 17% 20% 20%

TV dramas 8% 10% 13%

sports 19% 14% 22%

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WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

It has been suggested that all primary school children should learn how to grow
vegetables and keep animals.

To what extent do the advantages of this suggestion outweigh the disadvantages?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience.

Write at least 250 words.

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 KEY LISTENING TEST 1

1. theather 21. A
2. 4.30 22. B
3. station 23. B
4. cooking 24. A
5. plate 25. B
6. river 26. C
7. 11.15 27. C
8. parking 28. A
9. events 29. C
10. feedback 30. B
11. C 31. extinct
12. B 32. education
13. A 33. broken
14. B 34. plantation
15. socks 35. city
16. total blocks 36. developed
17. plastic 37. meanings
18. A 38. french
19. F 39. culture
20. G 40. preposition

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 KEY READING TEST 1

1. white 21. D
2. paper 22. A
3. taxes 23. E
4. gold 24. vegetation
5. foreign 25. human hunting
6. mummy 26. north america
7. caves 27. C
8. TRUE 28. C
9. NOT GIVEN 29. A
10. FALSE 30. A
11. FALSE 31. NOT GIVEN
12. TRUE 32. YES
13. FALSE 33. NOT GIVEN
14. D 34. NO
15. B 35. NO
16. E 36. YES
17. A 37. E
18. C 38. D
19. C 39. A
20. E 40. G

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 LISTENING TEST 2
SECTION 1 Questions 1-10
Complete the form below
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Rental Property Application Form

Example
Name: Susan ………. Smith………...

Phone number: 1……………………………...(mobile)

Email address: susansmith@ 2……………………………

Current address: 234 Becketts Road

Brisbane. 4054

New Zealand Employer: Auckland Hospital

Occupation: a 3…………………………………

Rental start date: 8th February

Preferred property type: first preference: a house with a 4

second preference, an apartment with a big

5...........................

Bedrooms: two

Furnishings: a 6 ……………………………… is required

Maximum rent: 7$ …………………………………… per week

Preferred location: must have 9 …………………………….. nearby

Other requirements: would like 10……........ included in the rent

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SECTION 2 Questions 11-20
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
The Pre-school Family Centre
Features of the Pre-school Family Centre

for children from 11 ……………………......... to 5 years old

run as a 12 ……………………………….. by parents, who attend with their children

parents receive special 13 ………………………… from the centre

children's activities organised in 14 …………………………….. age groups

Facts about the Centre

● sessions from 9.30-12.30 each morning

● one afternoon session to help prepare older children for 15 …………………….. at school

● parents must make several 16 ……………………. before they enrol their child

● each centre is officially recognised and receives 17 …………………....... funding

Parents' Commitments

● take on responsibility for a special 18 …………………………..

● attend one 19 …………………………….

Practical Advice

● attend regularly to help your child gain 20 …………………………….

● younger children may need to leave early

● provide a snack for your child

28
SECTION 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Presentation on foot injuries among sports players

21 John and Cath's presentation plans are different in
A. the examples used.
B. the order of information.
C. the main points made.
22 What do the students agree about the anatomy section of their presentation?
A. It would be better if Cath spoke about it.
B. It should be kept quite short.
C. It should be based on information from the internet.
23 What do the students agree to include in the last section?
A. visuals of injuries
B. demonstrations of treatment
C. interviews with patients
24 What is said about the different types of heel injury?
A. Diagnosis is straightforward.
B. They are expensive to treat.
C. Some are more serious than others.
25 On the subject of causes of heel injuries, the students agree to
A. focus on a single reason.
B. reject certain approaches.
C. use a source written by their professor.
26 What does Cath say about stretching as a treatment?
A. It is potentially risky.
B. It is commonly confused with strengthening.
C. It is the least effective part of treatment.

29
Questions 27 and 28
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO treatment techniques did the female runner find useful for her swollen heel?
A. massage
B. ultrasound
C. rest
D. balancing exercises
E. ice

Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO sports did the male sprinter find most effective during his rehabilitation
programme?
A. swimming
B. weight-training
C. running on grass
D. cycling
E. jumping

30
 SECTION 4 Questions 31-40
Questions 31-36

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Different Types of Supermarket Layout

Layout Description Advantages Disadvantages

Grid parallel aisles ● efficient use of ● Uninteresting layout

floor space ● shoppers can
● Controls 32.....................
31…………………… Through their shopping

Free-form 33 …………………………... ● customers need ● poor use of space,

organisation ● more 34………… to so less
find products 35…………………..

Boutique Displays arranged around ● separates space ● poor use of space

into 36 …………….
a food speciality
● creates attractive
image

31
 READING TEST 2
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1 on pages 2 and 3.
The Clipper Races: an era of competition between cargo ships
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, the British East India Company had the
monopoly on trade with China and India. This meant that because no rival could legally
import tea or other goods from these countries at this time, the company was rarely in a
hurry to transport its merchandise. Instead, its priority was to minimise costs by carrying
as much as possible on each ship. This meant that its ships - known as East Indian Men -
were enormous, strong and very slow.

By 1800, the average East Indiaman could carry 1,200 tons of merchandise. The trading
pattern for China tea usually meant the East Indiamen set sail from Britain in January,
sailed round the Cape of Good Hope at the southernmost tip of Africa, and arrived in China
in September. There they would load up that year's tea harvest, set off again and,
depending on the wind and weather, aim to arrive back by the following September. So
even with favourable sailing conditions, the round trip lasted almost two years, and if
anything went wrong it could take a lot longer.

However, by 1834 the company had lost its trading monopolies, and tea had become a
freely traded item. Having no more use for its great ships the company sold them off and
many were bought by merchants or their captains, who continued to plough the seas
between Britain and China. But now that lea could be faded freely a few shaft sailors
began to realise that whoever brought each new harvest of tea to Britain first, stood to
make the most money.

This was partly because if you were home first, you could sell your shipment of tea before
your competitors even arrived, and partly because consumers in Britain in the nineteenth

32
century believed that the fresher and earlier-picked the tea, the better the resulting drink.
Tea traders now needed faster, sleeker ships to bring their precious cargo back.
Nevertheless, in Britain this idea only caught on slowly, and while the 1840s saw a few
faster ships launched, for the time being many merchants remained satisfied with the slow
but reliable East Indiamen.

In fact it was the Americans who pioneered the first clipper ships. These vessels were fast
and slender, with a narrow hull that was deeper at the back than at the front, and masses
of sails on tall masts. They earned their name from the way that they 'clipped off journey
times. British merchants resolved to build their own clippers to rival the Americans, and
the first British tea clipper, Stomaway, was built in Aberdeen in 1850. More tea clippers
were designed and built in Britain throughout the 1850s and 1860s, they had a narrower
beam than their American equivalents, making them less powerful during storms, but
faster in calmer weather.

There was a great spirit of competition between the British and American ships plying the
tea trade, but to begin with the Americans had the edge. Then in 1851 a British ship owner,
Richard Green, built the aptly named clipper Challenger, with the stated intention of beating
the American ships. Loaded with tea, Challenger left China for London in 1852 at the same
time as the American clipper Challenge, a much larger, older ship, already greatly admired
for its speed. Large sums were bet on which would complete the journey first. In the event,
the British ship beat its rival to London by two days, amid much jubilation. From then on,
such international races grew in popularity.

After 1855, American participation in the British tea trade gradually stopped. But even
without the Anglo-American rivalry, the competitive spirit continued. It was really ignited
when new ports were opened up for trade in China. These included Fouchow, which was
much closer to the tea-producing areas than Canton, the port used previously. As a result,
tea could be loaded onboard earlier and fresher, and the clippers could set off in late May

33
or early June - sometimes not even taking time to fill out the official paperwork - racing
back to Britain whatever the difficulties.

They sped down through the South China Sea and into the Indian Ocean, then raced to get
round the southernmost tip of Africa at the Cape of Good Hope. Then it was north across
the vast Atlantic, past the Azores, through the English Channel and into the estuary of the
River Thames. Once there, they would be towed by tugs, up the river and into the docks.

The cargo of the winning ship could earn a premium of up to sixpence per pound - and so
the captain and crew were rewarded by the owners of the cargo. But the races were about
more than just money: the crews, about 40 men on each clipper, were expert sailors, proud
of their ships, and they delighted in competing against each other. Without their
enthusiasm, the races would never have happened, since getting the ship home as fast as
possible required the crew to be totally dedicated and to sacrifice much of their rest for the
duration of the race.

34
Questions 1-6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, the British East India Company faced a

lot of competition

2. Before 1800, cargo size was the most important consideration for the East India

Company

3. At best, voyages of the East Indiamen to China and back took nearly two years to

complete.

4. Before 1834, voyages to and from China were considered to be highly dangerous.

5. After 1834, the ships which had served the East India Company stopped being used

for commercial purposes.

6. In the nineteenth century, British drinkers preferred tea made from mature leaves to

that made from younger leaves.

35
Questions 7-13 Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet.

Clipper races

The ships

● Clipper ships were first used for trading by American merchants.

● The ships were remarkable for the number of 7……………...... they had.

● The performance of British tea clippers was particularly affected when there were

8……………………... at sea

The races

● It was in a ship called 9……………………….. that British first competed successfully

against the American.

● Richard Green’s ship arrived two days ahead of its competitor.

● Competition increased when additional Chinese trading 10………………………… were

established.

● Merchants were occasionally in such a hurry that they failed to complete the

11……................, before leaving China.

● At the end of their journey, the ships needed the help of 12…………………………….

The rewards

● The crews were motivated by both 13…………………….and their enthusiasm for the

competition

36
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading

Passage 2 on pages 6 and 7.

Orientation of birds

A For many of us, the way birds are able to orientate is both astounding and difficult to

appreciate fully. For instance, the annual migration of the golden plover of the Pacific takes

it from Alaska to Hawaii on a flight of well over 3000 kilometres, and if it were to deviate by

only one degree, it would miss the island on which it nests.

B The first systematic studies on orientation in birds were made possible by the

‘homing instinct' exhibited by so many species. Birds are caught at a time when they show

an attachment to their territory, especially during the nesting season. They are taken to

some spot, released, and the percentage of returns is recorded. The distance can be

varied, and the direction, as well as the method of transporting them, and then the

influence of climatic and other factors on their ability to find their way home can be

studied. These experiments have shown a wide variation in ability to home, and three types

of homing behaviour.

C In the first type, birds methodically explore the area in which they are released until

they pick up some familiar feature, and then they quickly find their way back to the nest.

Such birds possess a highly developed visual memory, as experiments with pigeons have

shown. Domestic pigeons have been trained to peck at a certain point on an aerial

photograph, with a system of rewards, and four years later the birds were still able to

respond to this training when placed on the aerial photograph. Birds' eyes have a power of

37
resolution two to three times greater than ours, enabling them to pick up very fine details.

If a bird uses only this type of homing behaviour, however, it can only succeed if the point

of release is not too far away. If the birds are transported 800 kilometres from their nest, it

is only by good fortune that they find their way back as a result of long exploratory flights.

Usually, the area known to a bird is its feeding territory. Released within this area, the birds

soon make their return; release them outside it and far fewer return. However, if a bird is

released for a second time in the same place, its visual memory comes into play, and the

bird, no longer requiring tedious exploratory flights, will return much more quickly.

D The second type of homing behaviour is shown by birds that are capable of

choosing their flight direction and holding to it for the rest of their journey. How do they

decide what direction to take? They appear to choose their normal migration direction

even if they are released in a different place from their usual starting point. If, for example,

birds which normally fly to the north-east to reach latitude 45 degrees north are released at

that latitude, they will immediately start flying north-east anyway. So if they're released

further to the west, they'll maintain the correct direction, but fly west of their destination

and so fail to arrive.

E The third type of homing behaviour shows the highest degree of orientation.

Released at one point, the birds immediately take stock of it, compare its position with that

of the nest, decide on the direction and fly off. This happens even if the birds are in a

country right off their migration routes, where they have never been before. In one

example, a laysan albatross returned to its nesting area on Midway Island in the middle of

38
the Pacific, having flown over 5000 kilometres from the west coast of the USA in just over

ten days. This is a perfect example of the third type of homing, for the albatross clearly

couldn't rely on any landmarks over the vast expanse of the Pacific Ocean.

F The percentage of successful birds varies greatly, being highest in those species

with a strong migratory behaviour. Thus the lesser black-backed gull is more migratory

than the herring gull and more often reaches 'home'. Great migrants such as the swift have

the highest percentage of returns. In one case, seven out of nine alpine swifts were

recaptured at their nests after being displaced some 1400 kilometres; one made the

journey in three days.

G What part does heredity play in all this? Two research studies suggest that

instinctive, i.e. genetically inherited, behaviour patterns play a part in navigation. The first

was carried out by Ernst Schủz and it is highly significant. Schüz caught first year

European storks and released them later, after the departure of the adult storks at a time

when they normally make their south-west autumn migration to Africa. The recaptures

showed that, in spite of the fact that there were no adults to guide them, the birds

unanimously headed south-west. This was a most striking finding, for it showed that the

birds had an innate and unlearned attraction for the African wintering area that they have

occupied for thousands of years.

H The case of starlings is a little different. These birds have a great aptitude for

homing, but this behaviour differs in the different age groups. Birds that were shifted to the

39
south-east of their normal migration route split into two lots. The adults, in full possession

of their gift for orientation, found their wintering area by modifying their direction by 90

degrees, whereas the juveniles sought their winter quarters to the south-east of their real

position.

40
Questions 14 - 18

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet

Types of homing behaviour

First type:
Birds rely on their sophisticated 14 ………….............. However, they are generally most
successful if they are released within their feeding territory.

Second type:
Birds select their accustomed 15 ………............, no matter where they are released. As a
result, they may miss their 16 …………………………..

Third type:
Birds orientate correctly, even when they are released in an unfamiliar place and have
no 17 ……………............. to make use of. One bird with this type of skill is the 18……………..

Questions 19 - 22

Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet

NB You may use any letter more than once.

19 the effects of distance on some birds' ability to find their nests

20 a methodology for testing the general ability of birds to find their nests
21 one aspect of physical ability in humans and birds

41
22 how some birds' migration was delayed for experimental purposes
Questions 23 - 26
Look at the following types of birds (Questions 23-26) and the list of points which the author
wishes to illustrate below.
Match each bird with the point which it illustrates, A-G.
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

23 domestic pigeon

24 alpine swift

25 European stork

26 starling

List of points which the author wishes to illustrate

A. an ability to orientate without previous training

B. the speed at which birds can fly

C. the ability to remember things seen previously

D. the effect of age on homing ability

E. the strength required to fly a great distance

F. a high success rate in finding nests

G. the importance of seasonal cues for migrating birds

42
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 on pages 10 and 11.
The role of accidents in business
In 1894 Dr John Kellogg and his brother, Will, were supervising a hospital and health spa in
Michigan. The patients were on a restricted diet. One day, the brothers left cooked wheat
untended for more than 24 hours. When they returned, they saw what they had done. It
was no good to eat, but they decided to run the stale wheat through rollers, just to see how
it would turn out. Normally, the process produced long sheets, but they were surprised to
discover that this time the rollers created flat flakes. They baked them, and then tried the
same thing with corn. From this accidental discovery came the cornflakes that generations
have now been eating for breakfast.
Accidents happen; there is nothing predictable and orderly about innovation. Nobel
laureate Sir Alan Hodgkin, who discovered how nerve cells transmit electrical impulses
between the skin and the brain, commented: 'I believe that the record of my published
papers conveys an impression of directedness and planning which does not at all coincide
with the actual sequence of events.

The same rule applies in business. The mistake that gave us cornflakes keeps repeating
itself in the history of disruptive innovation, the kind that transforms markets. Louis
Daguerre, for instance, discovered the technique that gave us photography in the 1830s,
when drops of mercury from a shattered thermometer produced a photographic image.
The microwave was decouertevhen Perovi Spender, a scientist with Raytheon, was testing
a new vacuum tube and discovered that the sweet in his pocket had melted. The artificial
sweetener, saccharin, was the unintentional result of a medical scientist's work on a
chemical treatment for gastric ulcers. While working for the firm 3M, researcher Art Fry
had no idea he was taking the first steps towards Post-It Notes when he used bits of
adhesive office paper that could be easily lifted off the page to replace the scrap paper
bookmarks that kept falling out of his hymn book.

43
Breakthrough and disruptive innovation are rarely driven by orderly process. Usually they
come out of a chaotic, haphazard mess, which is why big companies, full of managers
schooled in business programmes designed to eliminate random variation and mistakes,
struggle with them. In these sorts of environments, accidents are called failures and are
discouraged.

It is no surprise then that research from the late British economist Paul Geroski and
London Business School's Constantinos Markides found that companies that were skilled
at innovation were usually not that skilled when it came to commercialisation, and vice
versa. Their book, Fast Second, divides businesses into colonists' and 'consolidators'.
Small and nimble, colonists are adept at creating market niches but are terrible institution
builders. Consolidators, with their strong cultures of discipline and cost control, know how
to take clever ideas from other firms and turn them into mass- market items, Microsoft is a
prime instance of this.

With companies spending hundreds of billions of dollars on research and development, US

academics Robert Austin and Lee Devin examined how managers can encourage
productive slip-ups. In their article Accident, Intention and Expectation in the Innovation
Process, they argue that business processes actually prevent helpful mis- steps from
occurring. According to their catalogue of accidents, not all false steps and mishaps are
equal. Accidents, they say, come from unlikely mental associations such as memories and
vague connections, looking for something and finding it in an unexpected way, looking for
one thing and finding something else, and not looking for anything but finding something
valuable.

Accident-prone innovation, they say, requires companies to get outside the 'cone of
expectation'. It means throwing together groups from diverse backgrounds, and combining
ideas in unpredictable ways. Other strategies also include having systems that watch out
for accidents and examine them for value, generating them when they don't happen often

44
enough, seizing on the useful ones, capturing their valuable features, and building on them
to add value and give potential for useful accidents.

All this, however, requires thinking that is often counter-intuitive to the way businesses
operate. In other words, it is the kind of thinking that goes against the beliefs of most
business managers. It runs counter to the notion frequently pushed by consultants that
you can 'harness' creativity and direct it to line up with intention. The cost of accidents that
do not prove valuable are often of concern to people in business, they write. 'In business,
people tend to call such efforts failure.'

There are tentative signs that more companies are starting to realise that failure can lead
to commercial gain, and that this is part of the risk-taking that underpins innovation.
Australia's largest brewing company, for example, made a bad error when it launched a
new beer called Empire Lager, pitched at younger consumers. Having spent a fortune
creating a beer with a sweeter taste, designing a great-looking bottle and a television
campaign, Foster's was left with a drink that no-one wanted to buy. The target market was
more interested in brands built up by word of mouth.

Instead of wiping the unsuccessful product launch, Foster's used this lesson learned to go
on and develop other brands instead. One of them, Pure Blonde, is now ranked as
Australia's fifth-largest beer brand. Unlike Empire Lager, there has been almost no
promotion and its sales are generated more by word of mouth.

Other companies are taking similar steps to study their own slip-ups. Intuit, the company
behind financial tools such as Quicken, holds regular 'When Learning Hurts sessions. But
this sort of transformation is never easy. In a market that focuses on the short-term,
convincing employees and shareholders to tolerate failure and not play it safe is a big thing
to ask.

45
Questions 27 - 31
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
27 The delay in the process used by the Kellogg brothers affected the final product.
28 Sir Alan Hodgkin is an example of someone whose work proceeded in a logical and
systematic way.
29 Daguerre is an exception to the general rule of innovation.
30 The discovery of saccharin occurred by accident during drug research.
31 The company 3M should have supported Art Fry by funding his idea of Post-It Notes.

Questions 32 - 35
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-H, below.
Write the correct letter, Aron bokes 32-35 on pour answer sheet
32 The usual business environment
33 Geroski and Markides's book
34 Microsoft is an example of a company which
35 The origin of useful accidents

A. can be found in unusual thoughts and chance events.

B. can be taught in business schools.
C. has made a success from someone else's invention.
D. is designed to nurture differences.
E. is unlikely to lead to creative innovation.
F. says that all mistakes are the same.
G. shows that businesses are good at either inventing or selling.

46
 H. suggests ways of increasing the number of mistakes.

Questions 36 - 40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.
36 How do Austin and Devin advise companies to get out of the 'cone of expectation'?
A. by decreasing the number of company systems.
B. by forming teams of different types of people.
C. by hiring new and creative people.
D. by holding regular brainstorming meetings.
37 In recommending 'counter-intuitive thinking, what do Austin and Devin imply?
A. that failing at business is bad for staff morale.
B. that innovation cannot be planned for.
C. that most businesses should be devoted to avoiding mistakes.
D. that the cost of mistakes is an important consideration.
38 The writer describes the Empire Lager disaster in order to show that
A. success can come out of a business failure.
B. the majority of companies now value risk-taking.
C. TV advertising works better on older people.
D. young beer drinkers do not like a sweet taste
39 Pure Blonde has been more successful than Empire Lager because
A. digital media other than TV were used.
B. it was advertised under a different brand name.
C. it was launched with very little advertising.
D. the advertising budget was larger.
40 The writer concludes that creating a culture that learns from mistakes
A. brings short-term financial gains.
B. can be very difficult for some companies.
C. holds no risk for workers.
D. is a popular move with shareholders.

47
48
TEST 2
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The diagrams below show two cutting tools made from stone. They are from an early
period and a later period of human history. The tools were dame by breaking off small
pieces of stone.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

49
WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

Some people say public health would be greatly improved if governments made laws
concerning people’s nutrition and food choices. Others argue that this is a matter of
personal choice and personal responsibility.

Discuss both these views and give your own opinion.

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience.
Write at least 250 words.

50
 KEY LISTENING TEST 2

1. 614381997 21. A
2. post.com 22. B
3. chemist 23. B
4. garden 24. C
5. balcony 25. A
6. fridge 26. A
7. 400 27. A
8. beach 28. C
9. parking 29. B
10. electricity 30. D
11. 3 months 31. traffic flow
12. cooperative 32. rush
13. training 33. random
14. mixed 34. time
15. reading 35. cost-effective
16. visits 36. smaller areas
17. government 37. E
18. job 38. F
19. meeting 39. A
20. confidence 40. B

51
 KEY READING TEST 2

1. FALSE 21. C
2. TRUE 22. G
3. TRUE 23. C
4. NOT GIVEN 24. F
5. FALSE 25. A
6. FALSE 26. D
7. sails 27. YES
8. storms 28. NO
9. Challenger 29. NO
10. ports 30. YES
11. paperwork 31. NOT GIVEN
12. tugs 32. F
13. money 33. G
14. visual memory 34. C
15. migration direction 35. A
16. destination 36. B
17. landmarks 37. D
18. (laysan) albatross 38. A
19. C 39. C
20. B 40. B

52
 LISTENING TEST 3
SECTION 1 Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Riverdale Pre-school
Example
Children: ……20……… in a class

Classes: First group - Mrs. Oliver

Second group - Mrs. 1………………………………

Hours & Days: Suzie will attend 3 days a week for a total of 2…………… hours

Activities: Outside time

- running, playing, or something quieter
- just got a new piece of equipment
- intend to make a 3……………………..

Indoors
- this year, 4…………………. activities are popular
- they hear a 5…………………. every day

Fees: Now costs 6 $ ……………………… per term

Fees include:
- a trip to a 7………………... this year
- chance to take home a 8……………….. every week

Don’t forget: ● Put a 9…………………….., in Suzie’s bag

● Arrange a visit; phone number: 10……………………..

53
SECTION 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11-15
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

11 Special conditions may apply to …………………………. students looking for a job.

12 The university Job Centre is located on the ……………….. Campus.
13 The Job Centre remains open until ……………….. every evening.
14 The only day the employment lawyer is available is ………………………. .
15 The university ………….. regularly advertises new jobs.

54
Questions 16-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C
16 At present, the university is offering part-time work in
A. its offices.
B. the IT centre.
C. the car parks.

17 Local employers visit the university

A. only in the first term.
B. twice a term.
C. throughout the year.

18 According to the speaker, a part-time job can

A. lead to a full-time job after graduation.
B. provide a useful work record for the future.
C. give the chance to develop team-work skills.

19 Students who work part-time

A. will be taxed.
B. will be paid every week.
C. will need private insurance.

20 Part-time student workers are advised to

A. give notice in writing.
B. communicate by email.
C. have a mobile phone.

55
SECTION 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C
Research Project
21 How did John choose the topic of his research project?
A. He thought the information would be useful for town planning.
B. He has a special interest in the use of public services.
C. He read about a similar study which had been done earlier.
22 During his research, John is expecting to find that
A. the use of public services has altered very little.
B. a group of people has changed its habits.
C. the most frequently used facility is the library.
23 What is the problem with using official records?
A. They may be lacking in detail.
B. They may not be readily available.
C. They may be difficult to analyse.
24 What does the tutor think about John using a questionnaire to get information?
A. He needs to do a course in questionnaire design first.
B. He should use this method instead of looking at public records.
C. He will find the practice he gets useful the following year.
25 Which new variable does John agree to add to his investigation?
A. occupation
B. income group
C. qualifications
26 How many questionnaires will John distribute?
A. the same number as in the previous study
B. a greater number than he needs for analysis
C. the number recommended in the project guidelines

56
Questions 27-28
Choose TWO letters, A-E
Which TWO strategies will John use to encourage people to fill out his questionnaire?
A. using simple language.
B. delivering the questionnaires in person.
C. making the questionnaires anonymous.
D. providing return envelopes.
E. trialling the questionnaire on friends.

Questions 29-30
Choose TWO letters, A-E
Which TWO pieces of advice does the tutor give John about his questionnaire?
A. There should be a mixture of question types.
B. Some questions should elicit personal information.
C. There should be an introduction to explain the survey’s purpose.
D. A telephone number should be provided for queries.
E. The questions should only take a few minutes to answer.

57
SECTION 4 Questions 31-40
Questions 31-33
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Driverless vehicle competition
31 Undergraduates from both the engineering school and the …………………. department
can definitely take part in the project.
32 The automated vehicles will have to avoid obstacles such as ……………
33 The tutor mentions one vehicle which used technology such as ………, lasers, and
laptops to measure its surroundings.

Questions 34-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C
34 The purpose of holding the race is to
A. interest students in careers in industry.
B. help provide finance for universities.
C. find useful new design features.
35 The tutor says success will depend on
A. the software design.
B. good, solid construction.
C. sophisticated mechanisms
36 This year’s competitors were surprised that the vehicles
A. were so easy to design.
B. were as successful as the were
C. took such a short time to construct.

58
Questions 37-40
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Schedule

Early May Introductory 37 ……………………… about the project

Late May Essay giving information about relevant 38 ………….

and experience.

June Visit to a factory

September Workshop
- discuss 39 ………………….
- learn to use design package

December Submission of initial designs

January Selection of the 40 ………………….

59
 READING TEST 3
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1 on pages 2 and 3.

An important language development

Cuneiform, the world's first known system of handwriting, originated some 6,000 years ago
in Sumer in what is now southern Iraq. It was most often inscribed on palm-sized,
rectangular clay tablets measuring several centimetres across, although occasionally,
larger tablets or cylinders were used. Clay was an excellent medium for writing. Other
surfaces which have been employed – for example, parchment, papyrus and paper - are
not long-lasting and are easily destroyed by fire and water. But clay has proved to be
resistant to those particular kinds of damage.

The word 'cuneiform' actually refers to the marks or signs inscribed in the clay. The original
cuneiform signs consisted of a series of lines - triangular, vertical, diagonal and horizontal,
Sumerian writers would impress these lines into the wet clay with a stylus - a long, thin,
pointed instrument which looked somewhat like a pen. Oddly, the signs were often almost
too small to see with the naked eye. Cuneiform signs were used for the writing of at least a
dozen languages. This is similar to how the Latin alphabet is used today for writing
English, French, Spanish and German for example.

Before the development of cuneiform, tokens were used by the Sumerians to record
certain information. For cumple they might take small stones and use them as tokens or
representations of something else, like a goat. A number of tokens, then, might mean a
herd of goats. These tokens might then be placed in a cloth container and provided to a
buyer as a receipt for a transaction, perhaps five tokens for five animals. It was not that
different from what we do today when we buy some bread and the clerk gives us back a
piece of paper with numbers on it to confirm the exchange.

60
By the 4th century BCE, the Sumerians had adapted this system to a form of writing. They
began putting tokens in a container resembling an envelope, and now made of clay instead
of cloth. They then stamped the outside to indicate the number and type of tokens inside.
A person could then "read what was stamped on the container and know what was inside.

Gradually, Sumerians developed symbols for words. When first developed, each symbol
looked like the concrete thing it represented. For example, an image which resembled the
drawing of a sheep meant just that. Then another level of abstraction was introduced
when symbols were developed for intangible ideas such as ‘female' or 'hot' or 'God".
Cuneiform, in rather words, evolved from a way used primarily to track and store
information into a way to represent the world symbolically. Over the centuries, the marks
became ever more abstract, finally evolving into signs that looked nothing like what they
referred to, just as the letters ‘h-o-u-s-e' have no visual connection to the place we live in. At
this last stage in the evolution of cuneiform, the signs took the form of triangles, which
became common cuneiform signs.

As the marks became more abstract, the system became more efficient because there
were fewer marks a ‘reader’ needed to learn. But cuneiform also became more complex
because society becoming more complex, so there were more ideas and concepts that
needed to be expressed. However, most linguists and historians agree cuneiform
developed primarily as a tool for accounting. Of the cuneiform tablets that have been
discovered, excavated and translated about 75 percent contain this type of practical
information, rather than artistic or imaginative work.

Cuneiform writing was used for thousands of years, but it eventually ceased to be used in
everyday life. In fact, it died out and remained unintelligible for almost 2,000 years. In the
late 19th century, a British army officer, Henry Rawlinson, discovered cuneiform
inscriptions which had been carved in the surface of rocks in the Behistun mountains in

61
what is present- day Iran. Rawlinson made impressions of the marks on large pieces of
paper, as he balanced dangerously on the surrounding rocks.

Rawlinson took his copies home to Britain and studied them for years to determine what
each line stood for. and what each group of symbols meant. He found that in the writing on
those particular rocks every word was repeated three times in three languages: Old
Persian, Elamite and Babylonian. Since the meanings in these languages were already
known to linguists, he could thus translate the cuneiform. Eventually, he fully decoded the
cuneiform marks and he discovered that they described the life of Darius, a king of the
Persian Empire in the 5th century BCE.

62
Questions 1 - 5
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1.
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 Cuneiform tablets were produced in different shapes and sizes.

2 When Sumerian writers marked on the clay tablets, the tablets were dry.
3 Cuneiform was often difficult to read because of its size.
4 A number of languages adopted cuneiform
5 Cuneiform signs can be found in some modern alphabets

63
Questions 6 - 13
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer
Write your answers in boxes 6-13 on your answer sheet.
The development and translation of cuneiform
Before cuneiform

● tokens, for example, 6 ................, were often used

● the first tokens were kept in containers made of 7 ................

● tokens were used as a 8 ............. to give when selling something

By 4th century BCE

● tokens were put in a container that looked like a clay 9 ……………………...

Complex, abstract symbols developed

● at first, signs looked like what they indicated, eg. a 10 ……………………..

● then signs Became more abstract

● eventually, cuneiform signs shaped like 11 ....................... were developed

● according to experts, cuneiform was mainly used for 12 ………………………...

19th-century translation of cuneiform inscriptions by Henry Rawlinson

● Rawlinson found cuneiform inscriptions in the Behistun mountains

● Rawlinson copied inscriptions onto 13 ……………………...

● Rawlinson realised that each word of the inscriptions appeared in different

languages

● when translated, Rawlinson found the writings were about a 5th-century BCE king

64
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading

Passage 2 on pages 6 and 7.

Children’s comprehension of television advertising

A In 1874, long before the advent of television, the English Parliament passed a law to

protect children from their own lack of experience and from the wiles of pushing

tradesmen and moneylenders' (James, 1965). The act is one of the earliest governmental

policies to address children's vulnerability to commercial exploitation and was produced

before major corporations earned huge profits by marketing products directly to children.

Yet the issues underlying this 19th-century policy remain much the same in the 21st

century.

B Television has long been the predominant medium that advertisers have chosen for

marketing products to children. It is estimated that the average child sees more than

40,000 television commercials a year, most of which are 15 to 30 seconds in length

(Runkel, 2001). According to another estimate, children aged 14 years and under make $24

billion in direct purchases and influence $190 billion in family purchases, underscoring the

high stakes involved (McNeal, 1998). In addition, companies now recognize that brand

loyalty built at an early age may reap economic rewards over a child's lifetime (McNeal,

1987).

C A number of factors have contributed to an unprecedented growth in both the

amount and type of advertising directed at children. First and foremost among these are

65
changes in the media environment. In decades past, television programming targeted at

children was limited and relegated to time slots unpopular with their parents, such as

Saturday mornings (Turow, 1981). Today, the number of channels received in the average

US home has escalated with the diffusion of cable television and satellite technologies. In

this new multi-channel era, there are numerous national program services devoted

exclusively to children. Naturally, these channels deliver significant amounts of

child-oriented marketing messages. Although parents may be pleased that their

youngsters can now watch children's programming at any hour of the day, they may not

recognize that such viewing opportunities entail much greater exposure to advertising

than any previous generation of youth has experienced.

D Approximately 80% of all advertising targeted at children falls within four product

categories: toys, cereals, candies, and fast-food restaurants (Kunkel et al, 1992).

Commercials are highly effective at employing specific features designed to attract

children's attention. For example, they use the strategy of introducing unique sound effects

and rapidly moving images (Greer et al, 1982). The other most common persuasive

strategy employed in advertising to children is to associate the product with playfulness

and happiness, rather than to provide any actual product- related information (Kunkel et al,

1992). For example, a commercial featuring Ronald McDonald dancing, singing and

smiling in McDonald's restaurants without any mention of the actual food products

available reflects a playful or happy theme. This strategy is also found frequently with

66
cereal ads, which often include cartoon characters to help children identify the product. In

contrast, most commercials fail to mention even the major grain used in each cereal.

E Another common feature of advertising to children is the use of product disclosures

such as 'batteries not included' or 'each part sold separately'. Studies make clear that

young children do not comprehend the intended meaning of these disclaimers. For

example, fewer than one in four kindergarten through second grade children could grasp

the meaning of 'some assembly required in a commercial. In contrast, the use of

child-friendly language such as' you have to put it together' more than doubled the

proportion of children who understood the qualifying message (Liebert et al, 1977). The

phrase 'part of a balanced breakfast' is also a frequent disclosure included in most cereal

ads to combat the concern that sugared cereal holds little nutritional value for children.

Research shows that most children below age 7 years have no idea what the term

'balanced breakfast' means (Palmer & McDowell, 1981). Rather than informing young

viewers about the importance of a nutritious breakfast, this common disclaimer actually

leaves many children with the misimpression that cereal alone is sufficient for a meal. This

pattern of employing creative terminology in advertising content so as to obscure certain

information that might be unhelpful to the sponsor is a long- standing practice that often

misleads the consumer (Geis, 1982).

F Very young children do not recognize that there are two fundamentally different

categories of television content programs and commercials. Most children below the age

of 4 or 5 exhibit low awareness of the concept of commercials, frequently explaining thom

as if they were a scene in the program itself. Once this confusion diminishes, children first

67
recognize the difference between programs and commercials based on either affective

('commercials are funnier than TV programs') or perceptual ('commercials are short and

programs are long') cues (Blatt et al, 1972).

G Although most children's programs indicate that a commercial break is coming (e.g.

by saying 'We'll be right back after these messages'), research reveals that these

'separators' generally do not help children to recognize advertising content (Palmer &

McDowell, 1979). This likely occurs because they are not perceptually distinct from the

adjacent programming that surrounds them; in fact, many separators feature characters

that appear in the same show that the commercial has just interrupted. When an ad

includes one of the characters featured in a program, this is known as host-selling. This

type of advertising makes the task of discriminating between program and commercial

content particularly difficult for young children (Kunkel, 1988) and is thus restricted in the

US by the Federal Communications Commission during children's programs.

H In sum, because young children lack the cognitive skills and abilities of older

children and adults, they do not comprehend commercial messages in the same way as

more mature audiences, and are therefore uniquely susceptible to advertising influence.

68
Questions 14 - 18
Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs, A-H.
Which paragraph contains the following information. Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes
14-18 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

14 a description of recent innovations in TV broadcasting
15 a mention of the main goods and services advertised to children
16 a reference to a current limitation on television advertising aimed at children
17 two techniques used to encourage children to watch TV commercials
18 a type of advertisement that may make children believe the opposite of what is true

Questions 19 - 22
Look at the following statements (Questions 19-22) and the list of researchers below.
Match each statement with the correct researcher(s), A-H
Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

19 Ads often alm to teach children that a brand is fun rather than telling them about
what is being sold
20 Originally, children's programmes were only broadcast when adults rarely watched TV
21 Children have a significant impact on what adults buy.
22 Tests showed that children can follow information if simple words are used

List of Researchers
A Kunkel
B Kunkel et al
C McNeal
D Turow
E Greer et al
F Liebert et al
G Palmer & McDowell
H Geis

69
70
Questions 23 - 26
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

How very young children perceive commercials

Children below the age of 4 or 5 do not understand the difference between television
programmes and commercials. In fact, these children often mistake an advertisement for
a 23 ......... from the programme they are watching. This is despite the fact that children's
TV programmes usually include announcements called 24 ............ to show that there is
going to be a commercial break. The problem is made more difficult because of a
technique called 25 ........... whereby a person or cartoon figure from the programme is
used to sell a product during the commercial break. From the age of 4 or 5, children begin
to realise that commercials are different from TV programmes, for example, they may
recognise that there is a difference in length or that advertisements are 26……........ than
actual TV.

71
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 on pages 10 and 11.
A New Voyage Round the World
A very old travel book that holds an unusual place in English literature.

Part travelogue, part historical record of the Caribbean pirates, part scientific treatise,
A New Voyage Round the World was William Dampier's account of his twelve-year series of
journeys around the globe from 1679 to 1691. The wealth and novelty of Dampier's
descriptions, combined with the highly comical accounts of his comrades’ escapades,
proved so popular with a public hungry for tales of discovery and adventure that A New
Voyage went into its third reprint within a year of publication. So ground-breaking was
Dampier's account that the writers Swift and Defoe were inspired to create two of the most
famous books in the English language, Gulliver's Travels and Robinson Crusoe.

Dampier's commentators have portrayed him as an unusual, not to say peculiar, man.
Notwithstanding his undoubted qualities as an observer, he has been variously
characterised as, aloof, arrogant, hot-tempered and a weak leader of men. When he arrived
on the western coast of Australia, he promptly elected to leave and head north out of
dislike for the cold of more southerly latitudes. This physical sensitivity has often been
seized on by his detractors, who point out that, as a result, Dampier missed out on
becoming the name forever associated with the European discovery of Australia, that
honour instead going to Captain James Cook some 80 years later. Yet it should be
remembered that he was able to endure a never-ending plague of discomforts and
ailments in the tropics. And once, wrecked off Ascension Island in the South Atlantic
Ocean, he managed with his crew to survive for five weeks without help, living entirely on
turtles and goats.

72
 What of his early life, then? Dampier was born in 1651 in Somerset, England, the son
of a tenant farmer, George, and his wife Ann. His birthplace, Hymerford House, stands to
this day. His parents died before he reached seniority and his guardians apprenticed the
young William to a ship's captain, the boy having shown Le very early inclinations to see
the world'. There was nothing in his childhood to set Dampier apart from the numerous
other young boys who were sent to sea at this time.

Having made brief passages toFrance and Newfoundland, he completed a more

extended voyage to Java, where he began to learn the art of navigation. Returning briefly to
Somerset, a neighbour offered Dampier a position overseeing his plantation in Jamaica,
which he took up for a time, but he soon returned to sea on a trading voyage among the
Caribbean islands. From the viewpoint of posterity, the most significant aspect of this time
was that, as plantation manager, Dampier first started to keep a journal.

Although Dampier wrote several books, A New Voyage Round the World is the most
important and it is worth considering just why this text met with such success. Certainly
the book would not have done so well purely on the merits of Dampier's findings regarding
meteorology and natural history, even though they broke new ground at the time. What
appealed more to book buyers of this era was his narrative of life among the pirates of the
Caribbean islands, whom he joined for several years after leaving Jamaica. These tales of
adventure among rogues and villains who had no regard for the law sparked widespread
interest among his countrymen back home. More important even than this, however, it is
the superb nature of Dampier's prose, and his ability to communicate so vividly that raised
the book above the common lot.

Dampier himself admits in the book's preface that he received help with the writing of
the book, and other evidence exists to suggest that he was assisted by an unknown
source. But whatever outside assistance he may have had, the book still has certain
problems. In particular his observations about nature are sometimes roughly dropped into

73
the narrative at very odd junctures and these asides can sometimes interrupt the flow of
the story. Dampier himself kept his observations about nature entirely separate from the
main body of his travels, and we should therefore hold James Knapton responsible, as he
was in charge of checking and revising Dampier's text, and his publishing company
brought the finished book to a wider audience.

Dampier's life has been chronicled in full by numerous biographers, and I refer the
reader in particular to Clennell Wilkinson's excellent (and sadly out-of-print) 1929
biography, as well as the recent portrait by Anton Gill. In short, despite wide acclaim for his
writing, Dampier was not blessed in the art of wealth accumulation. Travelling with the
pirates, while providing subsistence and adventure, never netted him the treasure chest
that a more astute financial operative might have acquired. He died in 1715, aged
sixty-three in Colemais Street, London.

We have then a man of myriad and colourful parts, and perhaps not always the
easiest of sailors to get along with because of his arrogance and hot temper. But to dwell
on these aspects today is to miss the point: it is A New Voyage Round the World that
should provide the most illuminating and entertaining of Dampier's legacies. Above all, the
text is studded with some wonderfully colourful expressions, and readers will enjoy some
of the finest descriptions of storms in the English language, and the liberal wit throughout.

74
Questions 27-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.
27 Which of the following best summarises the writer's point in the first
paragraph?
A. Dampier's book does not fall into a single category
B. Readers were not interested in books on the subject of travel
C. Today's readers do not appreciate the style of Dampier's writing
D. Dampier sailed round the world more quickly than anyone before
28 The writer refers to Swift and Defoe in order to
A. provide information regarding Dampier's sources
B. compare Dampier to two earlier writers
C. give an example of Dampier's influence
D. highlight two of Dampier's critics
29 Dampier left the western coast of Australia because
A. he wanted to get to the north before Cook arrived
B. he found the temperature there unpleasant
C. he had problems with his crew
D. he required medical attention
30 What point does the writer make about Damper in the second paragraph?
A. He could cope with physical hardship
B. He was a more adventurous explorer than Cook was
C. He had a under personally than he is given credit for
D. He was calm in a crisis
31 What information is given about Damper's early life?
A. He had a difficult relationship with the people looking after him
B. He was different from other youths who went to sea
C. He wanted to travel from a young age
D. He came from a family of sailor

75
Questions 32 - 35
Complete the summary using the stof words A-I below
wate the correct letter A-I in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet
The Text of A New Voyage Round the World
The success of the book cannot solely be attributed to the originality of Dampier
32……………… Readers of the time were fascinated with no stones of the time he spent with
outlaws and his colourful way of writing. It seems certain that Dampier worked on the
book with a mystery 33……………….. Some aspects of A New Voyage Round the World are
problematic descriptions of 34………………... were inserted into the account of Dampier’s
adventures in a way that distracted the reader. It seems that the responsibility for the final
version of the book lies with the 35……………….. .

A detailed illustrations B traveller C nature

D editor E writer F scientific observations
G the crew H artists I plain language

Questions 36 -40
Do the following statements agree with the care of the water in Reading Passage 3.
In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
36 Many people wrote biographies of Dampier as a result of personal contact with him
37 Dampier was skilled at making money
38 Dempier’s patience was appreciated by his crew
39 A New Voyage Round The World is longer than most modern books
40 Dampier's accounts of bad weather are impressive

76
 TEST 3
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The chart below shows the percentage of fuel from renewable energy used in the
transport sector in six European Union (EU) countries in 2009 and 2010, compared to
the average.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

77
WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic.

Some people think that it is a waste of time for an individual to plan for the future and
that it is more important to focus on the present.

Do you agree or disagree?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant example from your own knowledge
or experience.
Write at least 250 words.

78
 KEY LISTENING TEST 3

1. KEOGH 21. C
2. 15 22. B
3. garden 23. A
4. music 24. C
5. story 25. C
6. 470 26. B
7. farm 27. D
8. toy 28. E
9. pillow 29. B
10. 0914638520 30. C
11. overseas 31. computer science
12. WOODSIDE 32. rocks
13. 8 33. video cameras
14. Tuesday 34. C
15. website 35. A
16. C 36. B
17. C 37. seminar
18. B 38. skills
19. A 39. ideas
20. C 40. team

79
 KEY READING TEST 3

1. TRUE 21. C
2. FALSE 22. F
3. TRUE 23. scene
4. TRUE 24. separators
5. NOT GIVEN 25. host-selling
6. stones 26. funnier
7. cloth 27. A
8. receipt 28. C
9. envelope 29. B
10. sheep 30. A
11. triangles 31. C
12. accounting 32. F
13. paper 33. E
14. C 34. C
15. D 35. D
16. G 36. NOT GIVEN
17. D 37. NO
18. E 38. NO
19. B 39. NOT GIVEN
20. D 40. YES

80
 LISTENING TEST 4
SECTION 1 Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Music Alive Agency

Example
Contact person: Jim Granley

Members’ details are on a 1…………………………………

Type of music represented: modem music (2………………………. and jazz)
Newsletter comes out once a 3……………………………………
Cost of adult membership: 4 £ ………………………..
Current number of members: 5………………………..

Facilities include: rehearsal rooms and a 6……………………………

There is no charge for 7……………………………….. Advice
To become a member, send:
- A letter with contact details
- A recent 8………………………….
Address: 707, 9…………………………… Street, Marbury
Contact email: music 10……………………… @bsu.co.uk

81
SECTION 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Information for participants in the Albany fishing competition
11 What do participants need to take to the registration desk?
A. a form of identification
B. a competitor number
C. cash for the entrance fee
12 What does the entrance fee to the competition include?
A. equipment for fishing
B. all food for both days
C. fuel for the fishing
13 Participants without a fishing licence are recommended to apply for one
A. at the registration desk.
B. over the phone.
C. over the internet.
14 What will happen at 6pm on Sunday?
A. The time allocated for fishing will end.
B. The fish caught will be judged.
C. The prizes will be awarded to the winners.

82
Questions 11-14
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-I, next to questions 15-20.

15 Registration area ……………………….

16 Shore fishing area ………………………
17 Boat launching area ………………………
18 Judging area ………………………
19 Dining area ………………………

83
20 Prize-giving area ………………………
SECTION 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A. B or C.
Preparing for the end-of-year art exhibition
21 Max and Abby agree that in the art exhibition they are looking forward to
A. showing people their work.
B. getting feedback from their tutor.
C. talking to other students about their displays.
22 In last years exhibition, both students were impressed by
A. a set of metal sculptures.
B. a series of wooden models.
C. a collection of textile designs.
23 What has Max decided to call his display?
A. Mother Nature
B. Views of Farmland
C. Seasons
24 What does Abby think will be difficult about preparing for their displays
A. having enough time to set it up
B. choosing which pieces to show
C. filling up all the available space
25 What does Abby say about the summary they have to write?
A. She isn't sure whether people will read it.
B. It will be difficult to keep it short enough.
C. It will be hard to clarify the reasons for her work.
26 What aspect of the display will the students organise themselves?
A. arranging the lighting
B. inviting local journalists
C. providing comment forms

84
Questions 27-30
Which feature do the speakers identify as particularly interesting for each of the following
exhibitions they saw?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions
27-30

Interesting features
A. the realistic colours
B. the sense of space
C. the unusual interpretation of the theme
D. the painting technique
E. the variety of materials use
F. the use of light and shade

Exhibitions
27 On the Water
28 City Life
29 Faces
30 Moods

85
SECTION 4 Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The Mangrove Regeneration Project

Background:
Mangrove forests:
● protect coastal areas from 31 ........................... by the sea
● are an important habitat for wildlife
Problems:
● mangroves had been used by farmers as 32.....................
● mangroves were poisoned by the use of 33…………………….
● local people used the mangroves as a place to put their 34…………………………...

Actions taken to protect the mangroves:

● a barrier which was made of 35........................ was constructed - but it failed
● new mangroves had to be grown from seed
● the seeds of the 36………………………. mangrove were used
First set of seedlings:
● kept in small pots in a 37…………………………
● Watered with 38 ..................... water
● planted out on south side of a small island
● at risk from the large 39 ...................... population
Second set of seedlings:
● planted in the seabed near established mangrove roots
● the young plants were destroyed in a 40……………………...
Results:
The first set of seedlings was successful

86
 READING TEST 4
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1 on pages 2 and 3.

Why good ideas fail

As part of a marketing course, two marketing experts comment on a hypothetical case
study involving TF, a fictional retail giant specializing in home furnishing. The experts give
concrete solutions and advice to assist students.
Hypothetical case study:
TF became a retail success in the 1970s when it succeeded in spotting homeware
trends and meeting the needs of its then trendy young customers. However, by 2004,
the TF stores were failing and a rethink was clearly necessary. Tibal Fisher, TF’s
founder and CEO, decided to change its focus under the new brand name of TF's
NextStage. His aim was to recapture the now ageing customers that had given him
his early success and target consumers aged 60+ with devices and gadgets
specifically designed to assist them with the problems associated with ageing:
mobile phones with screens that were easy to read: kitchen gadgets with
comfortable grip, electronic devices that were easy to set and adjust. TF's market
research proved to be very positive, showing strong consumer support for the
products.
In 2007, the stores opere remodeled at a cost of US$40 million and the new brand
was launched. Each store was made more comfortable and featured a coffee shop to
help increase traffic-Tibal had predicted that if they could get customers into the
stores then the products would sell themselves. However, by 2009 it was clear that
the idea was a failure and the stores consistently remained empty. Customers
complained that the new stores felt like a senior center and reminded them that they
were growing old.

87
Feedback from experts:
Expert 1: Donna Sturgess, global head of innovation, GlaxoSmithKline
The TF team's customer research efforts are a classic case of missing the subconscious
associations at work in consumers' minds. Tibal and his executives looked only at surface
attitudes. Since those attitudes make up a relatively small part of the total consumer
response, the executives are clueless about the reason for the poor sales. It's critical for
companies to understand that every customer relates to a brand emotionally, and it's those
emotions that trigger - or block - purchases.
That's why we've focused on using emotional strategies behind branding for a number of
years now. A great example is Alli (pronounced 'ally), a drug to aid weight loss. The product
deals with a highly emotional issue, so in marketing it, we faced the same challenge that
the new TF stores are facing: the very thought of buying the products reminds customers
that they have problems they feel negatively about. In the case of TF’s NextStage, the
problems are age and infirmity. In the case of Alli, the problems are excessive weight and
all its consequences. There's always a risk that consumers' negative feelings will
discourage them from starting or staying on a diet. So, after extensive market research, we
took a number of steps to inject positive emotions into the whole process of using the
product.

First we came up with a name that sounds like a helpful partner. We also aimed to make
the container both beautiful and functional - something that didn't just hold pills but could
later be used to store diet guides and recipes. Traditional market research is unlikely to
uncover ideas like this, so we use a wide variety of techniques. Even simple techniques
such as one-on-one interviews, or ethnographical observation that involves going into
people's houses to examine their behavior, can provide valuable data.

Expert 2: Alex Lee, president of OXO International, maker of OXO Good Grips household
products

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This retaller can get back on track by remembering a principle that applies to consumers in
general and those aged 60+ in particular: they're attracted by brands they associate with
the type of people they'd like to be - not the type they really are. That's why marketing
campaigns for surf gear feature surfers, not the city dwellers who will wear the products
while doing their shopping.
I was reminded of this principle a few years ago when we wanted to find out how far we
could apply our design philosophy of making things easier to use in order to move from
our core business, kitchen tools, into other products. We conducted what are known as
focus groups, where participants were asked to look at photos of people and pick those
they perceived to be users and nonusers of our products. Consistently they picked people
who looked fit as the sort who would use our products, and people who looked old and
boring as the sort who wouldn't. Yet the participants, all owners of our products, looked a
lot more like the latter than the former.

Although the needs of elderly users and those with deteriorating vision or dexterity are very
much taken into consideration when we develop new designs, we try to offer products that
appeal to 20- and 30-year-olds. We believe that referring to these products as helping tools
would serve only to harm the brand in our customers' eyes. That's why our philosophy of
universal design, which involves creating products that are comfortably useable by the
largest possible range of people, is never explicitly stated as part of our marketing
position.

We've found that market research doesn't need to be very sophisticated. For instance, we
have conducted simple surveys in the lobby of our building offering free products In
exchange for people's opinions. Some may call this unscientific but we have uncovered
great insights this way. Sometimes the most important signals come from an executive's
own instincts. In Tibal Fisher's case, this could have told him what his surveys and focus
groups didn't: 60-plus-year-olds won't support a business that expects them to act their
age.

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Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1>
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, witte
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. The TF NextStage stores planned to sell products to make life easier for older
people.
2. TF’s market research indicated that people liked the products.
3. It cost more than expected to remodel the TF stores.
4. The TF NextStage coffee shops sold their own brand of food and drink.
5. TF NextStage customers liked the atmosphere in the new stores.

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Questions 6 - 13
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 6-13 on your answer sheet.
Feedback from experts
Donna Sturgess
Problems with customer research:
● TF team limited their research to attitudes that occur at a 6............. level in
customers' minds
● TF didn't consider customers' emotions
How my company dealt with a similar problem:
● Product: Alli
● Use: help people achieve 7……………………...
● Marketing aim: help customers see the product in a positive way by
● giving the product a 8…………............. that seems helpful and supportive
● giving the product a reusable 9………………………
Market research:
● does not need to be complex
● good information can come from interviews or studying the 10………………… of
consumers in the home
Alex Lee
Problem:
● customers are attracted to the ideal not the reality, e.g, ads for surf gear
How my company dealt with a similar problem:
● we organised 11 .......................... to find out what images customers associate
with our products
● we do not call our products helping tools in our marketing campaigns
Market research:
● can be basic, e.g. by doing 12...................
● company executives should follow their 13.......................

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 on pages 6 and 7.

Keeping the water away

New approaches to flood control
A Recently, winter floods on the rivers of central Europe have been among the worst
for 600 to 700 years, and dams and dykes (protective sea walls) have failed to solve the
problem.
Traditionally, river engineers have tried to get rid of the water quickly, draining it off
the land and down to the sea in rivers re-engineered as high-performance drains. But
however high they build the artificial riverbanks, the floods keep coming back.... And when
they come they seem to be worse than ever.

B Engineers are now turning to a different plan: to sap the water’s destructive strength
by dispersing it into fields, forgotten lakes and flood plains. They are reviving river bends
and marshes to curb the flow, and even plugging city drains to encourage to use other
means to go underground. Back in the days when rivers took a winding path to the sea,
floodwaters lost force and volume while meandering across flood plains and inland deltas,
but today the water tends to have a direct passage to the sea. This means that, when it
rains in the uplands, the water comes down all at once

C Worse, when the flood plains are closed off, the river's flow downstream becomes
more violent and uncontrollable; by turning complex river systems into the simple
mechanics of a water pipe, engineers have often created danger where they promised
safety. The Rhine, Europe's most engineered river, is a good example. For a long time
engineers have erased its backwaters and cut it off from its flood plain. The aim was partly
to improve navigation, and partly to speed floodwaters out of the Alps and down to the
North Sea. Now, when it rains hard in the Alps, the peak flows from several branches of the
Rhine coincide where once they arrived separately, and with four-fifths of the Lower Rhine's

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flood plain barricaded off, the waters rise. The result is more frequent flooding and greater
damage. The same thing has happened in the US on the Mississippi river, which drains the
world's second largest river catchment into the Gulf of Mexico. Despite some $7 billion
spent over the last century on levees (embankments), the situation is growing worse.

D Specialists in water control now say that a new approach is needed- one which
takes the whole landscape into consideration. To help keep London's feet dry, the UK
Environment Agency is reflooding 10 square kilometres of the ancient flood plain of the
River Thames outside Oxford. Nearer to London, it has spent £100 million creating new
wetlands and a relief channel across 16 kilometres of flood plain. Similar ideas are being
tested in Austria, in one of Europe's largest river restorations to date. The engineers
calculate that the restored flood plain of the Drava River can now store up to 10 million
cubic metres of floodwater, and slow down storm surges coming out of the Alps by more
than an hour, protecting towns not only in Austria, but as far downstream as Slovenia and
Croatia.

E The Dutch, for whom preventing floods is a matter of survival, have gone furthest.
This nation, built largely on drained marshes and seabed, has had several severe shocks in
the last two decades, when very large numbers of people have had to be evacuated. Since
that time, the Dutch have broken one of their most enduring national stereotypes by
allowing engineers to punch holes in dykes. They plan to return up to a sixth of the country
to its former waterlogged state in order to better protect the rest.

F Water use in cities also needs to change. At the moment, cities seem designed to
create floods; they are concreted and paved so that rains flow quickly into rivers. A new
breed of 'soft engineers' wants cities to become porous. Berlin is one place where this is
being done. Tough new rules for new developments mean that drains will be prevented
from becoming overloaded after heavy rains. Architects of new urban buildings are
diverting rainwater from the roofs for use in toilets and the irrigation of roof gardens, while

93
water falling onto the ground is collected in ponds, or passes underground through porous
paving. One high-tech urban development can store a sixth of its annual rainfall, and reuse
most of the rest.

G Could this be expanded to protect a whole city? The test case could be Los Angeles.
With non-porous surfaces covering 70% of the city, drainage is a huge challenge. Billions of
dollars have been spent digging huge drains and concreting riverbeds, but many
communities still flood regularly. Meanwhile this desert city ships water from hundreds of
kilometres away to fill its taps and swimming pools. Los Angeles has recently launched a
new scheme to utilise floodwater in the Sun Valley section of the city. The plan is to catch
the rain that falls on thousands of driveways, parking lots and rooftops in the valley. Trees
will soak up water from parking lots; houses and public buildings will capture roof water to
irrigate gardens and parks, and road drains will empty into old gravel pits to recharge the
city's underground water reserves.

Result: less flooding and more water for the city. It may sound expensive, until we
realise how much is spent trying to drain cities and protect areas from flooding, and how
little this method achieves.

94
Questions 14 - 19
Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

A. how legislation has forced building designers to improve water use

B. two reasons why one river was isolated from its flood plain
C. how natural water courses in the past assisted flood control
D. an example of flood control on one river, affecting three countries
E. a country which has partly destroyed one of its most typical features in order to
control water
F. the writer's comment on the comparative cost effectiveness of traditional flood
control and newer methods
Questions 20 and 21
Choose TWO letters, A-E
Write the correct letters in boxes 20 and 21 on your answer sheet
According to the article, which TWO of these statements are true of the new approach to
flood control?

A. It aims to slow the movement of water to the sea.

B. It aims to channel water more directly into rivers.
C. It will cost more than twice as much as former measures.
D. It will involve the loss of some areas of land.
E. It has been tested only in The Netherlands.

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Questions 22 - 26
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.

22. Some of the most severe floods for many centuries have recently occurred in parts
of …................. .
23. The Rhine and the ………............ rivers have experienced similar problems with water
control.
24. An area near Oxford will be flooded to protect the city of ...................... .
25. Planners who wish to allow water to pass more freely through city surfaces are
called ……………….……. .
26. A proposal for part of the city of .................. could show whether small-scale water
projects could apply on a large scale.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 on pages 10 and 11.

The Diprotodon (a rhinoceros-sized wombat), an example of Australia's now extinct

megafauna

Australia's Megafauna Controversy

Just how long did humans live side by side with megafauna in Australia?
Barry Brook, Richard Gillespie and Paul Martin dispute previous claims of a lengthy coexistence
Over the past 50 millennia, Australia has witnessed the extinction of many species of
large animals, including a rhinoceros-sized wombat and goannas the size of crocodiles.
Debate about the possible cause of these extinctions has continued for more than 150
years and one of the crucial questions raised is how long humans and megafauna
coexisted in Australia. We need to know the overlap of time to make an informed choice
between the two main theories regarding the causes of these extinctions. If humans and
megafauna coexisted for a protracted period then climate change is the more likely cause.
However, if the megafauna became extinct shortly after the arrival of humans, then
humans are the likely culprits.

The archaeological site at Cuddie Springs in eastern Australia appears to be well

preserved. This dusty claypan holds within its sediments a rich cache of flaked stone and
seed-grinding tools, and side by side with these clear signals of human culture are the
bones of a dozen or more species of megafauna. Drs Judith Field and Stephen Wroe of the
University of Sydney, who excavated the site, claim that it provides unequivocal evidence
of a long overlap of humans and megafauna, and conclude that aridity leading up to the
last Ice Age brought about their eventual demise. In the long-standing explanation of this

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site, artefacts such as stone tools and extinct animal remains were deposited over many
thousands of years in an ephemeral lake - a body of water existing for a relatively short
time - and remained in place and undisturbed until the present day.

There is no disputing the close association of bones and stones at Cuddie Springs,
as both are found 1 to 1.7 metres below the modern surface. The dating of these layers is
accurate: ages for the sediments were obtained through radiocarbon dating of charcoal
fragments and luminescence dating of sand grains from the same levels (revealing when a
sample was last exposed to sunlight). Intriguingly, some of the stone tools show surface
features indicating their use for processing plants, and a few even have well-preserved
blood and hair residues suggesting they were used in butchering animals.

But is the case proposed by Field and Wroe clear-cut? We carried out a reanalysis of
the scientific data from Cuddie Springs that brings into question their conclusions. The
amount of anthropological evidence found at the site is remarkable: we estimate there are
more than 3 tonnes of charcoal and more than 300 tonnes of stone buried there. Field and
Wroe estimate that there are approximately 20 million artefacts. This plethora of tools is
hard to reconcile with a site that was only available for occupation when the lake was dry.
Furthermore, no cultural features such as oven pits have been discovered. If the sediment
layers have remained undisturbed since being laid down, as Field and Wroe contend, then
the ages of those sediments should increase with depth. However, our analysis revealed a
number of inconsistencies.

First, the charcoal samples are all roughly 36,000 years old. Second, sand in the two
upper levels is considerably younger than charcoal from the same levels. Third, Field and
Wroe say that the tools and seed- grinding stones used for plant and animal processing
are ancient, yet they are very similar to implements found elsewhere that were in use only a
few thousand years ago. Also of interest is the fact that a deep drill core made a mere 60
metres from the site recovered no stone artefacts or fossil bones whatsoever. These

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points suggest strongly that the sediments have been moved about and some of the old
charcoal has been re-deposited in younger layers. Indeed, one sample of cow bone found 1
metre below the surface came from sediments where charcoal dated at 6,000 and 23,000
years old is mixed with 17,000-year-old sand. The megafauna bones themselves have not
yet been dated, although new technological developments make this a possibility in the
near future.

We propose that the archaeologists have actually been sampling the debris carried
by ancient flood channels beneath the site, including charcoal transported from bushfires
that intermittently occurred within the catchment. Flood events more likely explain the
accumulation of megafauna remains, and could have mixed old bones with fresh deposits.
European graziers also disturbed the site in 1876 by constructing a well to provide water
for their cattle. Given the expense of well-digging, we speculate that the grazilers made
sure it was protected from the damage caused by cattle hooves by lining the surface with
small stones collected from further afield, including prehistoric quarries. This idea is
consistent with the thin layer of stones spread over a large area, with cattle occasionally
breaking through the gravel surface and forcing the stone and even cattle bones deeper
into the waterlogged soll.

The lack of conclusive evidence that humans and megafauna coexisted for a lengthy
period casts doubt on Field and Wroe's assertion that climate change was responsible for
the extinction of Australia's megafauna. However, we do not suggest that newly arrived,
well-armed hunters systematically slaughtered all the large beasts they encountered.
Recent studies based on the biology of modern-day large mammals, combined with
observations of people who still practise a traditional hunter-gatherer lifestyle, reveal an
unexpected paradox and suggest a further possible explanation as to what happened.
Using a mathematical model, it was found that a group of 10 people killing only one
juvenile Diprotodon each year would be sufficient to bring about the extinction of that
species within 1,000 years. This suggests that here, as in other parts of the world, the

99
arrival of humans in lands previously inhabited only by animals created a volatile
combination in which large animals fared badly.
Questions 27 - 30
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

27. Field and Wroe argue that findings at the Cuddie Springs site show that people lived in
this area at the same time as megafauna.
28. Field and Wroe believe it is likely that smaller megafauna species survived the last Ice
Age.
29. The writers believe that the dating of earth up to 1.7m below the present surface at
Cuddie Springs is unreliable.
30. Some artefacts found at Cuddie Springs were preserved well enough to reveal their
function.

Questions 31 - 35
Complete the summary using the list of words, A-I,l below.
Write the correct letter, A-I, in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

The writers' arguments against Field and Wroe's analysis of the

scientific data from Cuddie Springs
One objection to Field and Wroe's interpretation is the large quantity of charcoal,
31............ and artefacts found at Cuddie Springs. Such large numbers of artefacts would
be impossible if the area had been covered with 32 .................... for a period.
There is also a complete lack of man-made structures, for instance those used for
33................ .
Other evidence that casts doubt on Field and Wroe's claim is the fact that while some
material in the highest levels of sediment is 36,000 years old, the 34 ................ in the
same levels is much more recent. The tools used to process plants and animals may also
be newer than Field and Wroe believe. Further evidence against human occupation of the
area is the absence of tools and 35 .......................... just a short distance away.

100
 A seeds B stone C Sand
D cooking E deep drill core F water
G fossil bones H sediment I storage

Questions 36 - 40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

36. What conclusions did the writers reach about the inconsistencies in the data from
Cuddie Springs?
A. The different layers of sediment have been mixed over time.
B. The sand evidence is unhelpful and should be disregarded.
C. The area needs to be re-examined when technology improves.
D. The charcoal found in the area cannot be dated.
37. According to the writers, what impact could a natural phenomenon have had on this
site?
A. Floods could have caused the death of the megafauna.
B. Floods could have disturbed the archaeological evidence.
C. Bushfires could have prevented humans from settling in the area for any
length of time.
D. Bushfires could have destroyed much of the evidence left by megafauna and
humans.
38. What did the writers speculate about the people who lived at this site in 1876?
A. They bred cattle whose bones could have been confused with megafauna.
B. They found that the soil was too waterlogged for farming.
C. They allowed cattle to move around freely at the site.
D. They brought stones there from another area.
39. In the final paragraph, what suggestion do the writers make about Australia's
megafauna?
A. A rapid change in climate may have been responsible for the extinction of the
megafauna.
B. Megafauna could have died out as a result of small numbers being killed year
after year.
C. The population of humans at that time was probably insufficient to cause the
extinction of the megafauna.

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 D. The extinction of ancient animals should not be compared to that of
modern-day species.
40. Which of the following best represents the writers' criticism of Field and Wroe?
A. Their methods were not well thought out.
B. Their excavations did not go deep enough.
C. Their technology failed to obtain precise data,
D. Their conclusions were based on inconsistent data.

102
 TEST 4
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The graph below shows the average cost of monthly contracts for four different mobile
(cell) phones in one European country from January to September 2012.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words

103
WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic.

Some people argue that government money should not be used to support art and
cultural activities. Others say it is necessary for a government to fund these activities
for the benefit of the population and the culture.

Discuss both these views and give your own opinion.

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience.
Write at least 250 words.

104
 KEY LISTENING TEST 4

1. database 21. A
2. rock 22. B
3. month 23. A
4. 45 24. A
5. 750 25. B
6. studio 26. C
7. legal 27. D
8. recording 28. B
9. KIPPAX 29. A
10. telent 30. C
11. A 31. flooding
12. B 32. firewood
13. C 33. fertilizer
14. B 34. trash
15. G 35. sand
16. A 36. grey/ gray
17. C 37. hot house
18. H 38. rain
19. D 39. rabbit
20. B 40. storm

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 KEY READING TEST 4

1. TRUE 21. D
2. TRUE 22. Europe
3. NOT GIVEN 23. Mississippi
4. NOT GIVEN 24. London
5. FALSE 25. Soft engineers
6. Surface 26. Los Angeles
7. Weight loss 27. YES
8. Name 28. NOT GIVEN
9. Container 29. NO
10. Behavior 30. YES
11. Focus groups 31. B
12. (simple) surveys 32. F
13. Instincts 33. D
14. F 34. C
15. C 35. G
16. B 36. A
17. D 37. B
18. E 38. D
19. G 39. B
20. A 40. D

106