DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO Question Booklet No. 840045 (PAPER - 1) ion Booklet Series LAW A Roll No. TIA No. of Questions : 200 Time Allowed : 3 Hours CANDIDATES SHOULD READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE ANSWERING THE QUESTIONS : 4, The Question Booklet has seals pasted on it. Candidates should break open the seals only when they are asked to do so by the invigilators. 2. Immediately after breaking open the seals, you should check that it does not have any tornimissing pages etc. If so, get it replaced by a new Question Booklet. 3. You may enter your Roll No. in the Question Booklet in the Box Provided alongside. Do not write anything else on the Question Booklet. 4. This Question Booklet contains 200 questions. This is an objective type test in which was question has four responses. Select the response which you consider correct and mark itin the appropriate place in the OMR answer sheet. 5. Choose only one response for each question. 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After the final bell, candidates are to stop writing whatsoever and stand at their respective places. and surrender their OMR Answer Sheets to the invigilator. 13. Mobile phones and electronics devices are strictly prohibited. Any candidate found in possession of the same in the examination hall will be immediately disqualified and expelled from the examination, followed by further disciplinary action. 414, Any misconduct or indiscipline in the examination hall/resorting to any form of unfair means/ failure to follow the examination rules will result in disciplinary action as deemed fir by the Commission DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO 2302/40In theConstit the idea of “A mn of States in the Constitution of India hhas been derived from the (1) Constitution of Belgium 2) Australian Constitution (3) Constitution of Colombia (@) Constitution of Bhutan “The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made ‘ontravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, e void” is mentioned in which Article of the 2) Article 13) (G) Article 32 (@) Article 35 Montesquieu propounded for the first time the theory of "separation of power" in his book, which was published in the year 1748. The name of the boo! (2) Trial (2) Republic (3) Rule of Law 4) Esprit des Lois Separation of power is strictly applied in h country? () UK (2) Germany G) USA (8) India Chief Justice Beg called the constitution of India as “amphibian.” In which case; () State of Rajasthan v Union of India, 1977 @) SR. Bommai v Union of India, 1994 G) Haryana v State of Punjab, 1992 (4) State of West Bengal v Union of India, 1963 Which country's constitution is the source of inspiration for fundamental rights? () USA @) UK @) USSR (4) Germany Which committee from the list below proposed for adding fundamental duties to the Constitution of India? (1) Raghavan Committee (2) Malhotra Committee (3) Narasimhan Committee (4) Swaran Singh Committee 2302/40 (2) 10. 2 13. 14. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India guarantees "Equality Refore the Law and Equal Protection of Laws within the Territory of In (D) Article 14 Q) Anicle 15, @) Anicle 17 (4) Anicte 18, Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State? (2) Anicle 50 Q) Anicle 52 G) Anicle 54 (4) Anticle 56 ‘Who is the Constitutional head of the state governments? (2) President 2) Governor GB) Chief Minister () Prime Minister ‘Who among the given has the right to summon the Parliament? (1) Prime Minister (Q) President G) Lok Sabha Speaker (4) Rajya Sabha Speaker Federalism is taken in the Constitution of ich of the following India from w! ‘countries? () Canada (@) USA ) Canada (@) UK Which Ai states the directive principles of state policy on the Promotion of international peace anc security? (1) Article 50 Q) Article 51 G) Article 52 (4) Anticle 53 1e doctrine of “Basic Structure” evolved in which of the given case? (1) Madhav Jiwaji Rao Scindia case (2) Kesavananda Bharti case (3) Champakam Dorairajan case (4) Golaknath case16. 17. 19. 20. 2. 2. Which Article of the Constitution of India describes the Taxes that are levied and collected by the center but distributed between the Centre and the states? (1) Anticle 170 2) Article 250 3) Article 270 (8) Article 350 ‘The law-making procedure in the Constitution of India has been inconsiderably influenced by the Constitution of —? a ‘Canada rf USA’ 3) Japan (4) Germany ‘h of the following Constitutional ndments reduced the voting age from ‘years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and state leisttive assembly elections? a (2) 618 3) 715 4) 81" ‘The provision of the office of the Vice President in the Constitution of India is taken from which country? 1) USA 2) UK ) Germany (4) Germany Which of the given article of the Constitution of India mentions the provision of the Council of Ministers for aid and advice of the President of India? 1) Article 54 2) Article 64 Article 74 (4) Article 84 ‘The number of Lok Sabha seats were raised from 525 to $45 by which of the given ‘The DPSP (Directive Principle of State Policy) im the Constitution of India has been borrowed from which country? (1) USA (2) Germany (3) Canada (4) Treland In., the President of India can keep a bill for an indefinite period. (1) Pocket Veto (2) Regular Veto (3) Absolute Veto (A) Special Veto 2302/40 23. 24, (3) In (1) Anicle 14 (2) Anticle 15 (3) Anticle 16 (4) Amticle 17 Freedom “to form associations or unions” mentioned under .... ey Anes (4) Article 19 (1d) ‘The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) has observed that the sexual harassment of working women in workplaces violates the fundamental right under ... (1) Article a (2) Amicte 19 i Article 19(1 Ate 1908) 6 a Article 18 of the Constitution of India is constitutionally and legal it (1) Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India 1996 (2) Sayan Singh Case (3) Meneka Gandhi Case (4) Adhar Case “The case involving Article 17 rights — ntouchabilty was viewed y the Supreme Court sam indirect form of slavery sad Sontineaion ofthe caste system, The tae stood ited and fel gether asa ease system and tutouchubility, according fo the cour is discussed in (1) Ingsle Appa Balu (AIR-1993) (2) Blah apavan Union of fala 1956 (3) Sajjan Singh Case (4) Meneka Gandit Case ‘The constitutional validity of the “earry forward rule” which was framed by the government t0 ‘regulate the appointment of people from the backward classes where state services were involved, was at isu (1) Meneka Gandhi Case (2) Devadasan v. Union of India, 1964 () Ingale Appa Balu, AIR-1993, (@) Balaji Raghavan ¥. Union of India 1996 Which one of the following sets of Bills is Presented to the Parliament along with the Budget? (1) Direct taxes bill and Indirect taxes bill (2) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill G) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill () Finance Bill and Contingency Bill30, sit 32. 3. 38. ition of India does 36. (1) Class legislation Q) Special treatment for an individual G) Treatment of unequal at an equal footing (A) Reasonable classiication In which one of the follow: Supreme Court observed that judicial 37, review is a basie structure of the Constitution? (1) S.R. Bommai y, Union of India 2) SP. Mittal v. Union of India ) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (4) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India Which case is related to the implementation of the law against female foeticide? 38, (2) Parents Association v. UOT (2) Madhu Kishwar v, State of Bihar G) CEHAT v. UO! (@) Nishi Maghu v, State of 1&K Which of the following statementistatements isfare correct? 39. (a) An ordinary Bill can only originate in the Council of States (b) A Bill pending in the House of People ‘hall not lapse because of the prorogation of the House (©) A Bill pending in the Council of State which has not been passed by the House of People shall not lapse on @ House of the People (@) A Bill pending in the House of People ‘shall not lapse because of the dissolution of 40. the House (1) (@) and 0) are correct Q) (b)and (©) are correct 3) G@) and (4) are correct (4) (b) and (@) are correct Which of the following cases is not related 41. to Parliamentary privil (1) MSM. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha (2) State of Kamataka v. Union of India G) Jatish Chandra Ghose v. Harisadhan Mukherjee (4) State of Tamil Nadu v. K. Shyam Sunder 42. The 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978: (2) Amended Article 32 (2) Deleted Anticle 31 a 300A, (3) Deleted Article 32 from Part III of the Constitution (4) Introduced a new Article 300 in the Constitution woduced Article 2302/40 (4) In which case, the Supreme Court declared that a Constituent Assembly should be convened to amend the fundamental rights? (1) AK. Gopalan’s case (2) Golaknath's case (3) Maneka Gandhi's ease (A) Kesavananda Bharatis ease ‘The power of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution as a Constituent power was inserted icle 368 of the (1) Ist Amendment, 1951 (2) 24th Amendment, 1971 G) 26th Amendment, 1971 4) 42nd Amendment, 1976 Which of the following Amendments banned the floor crossing in Parliament? (a) 42m (2) 4a" G) 52" (4) 62" ‘The quorum for the Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is: (1) One-twelfth of the total number of ‘members of the House (2) One-sixth of the total number of members of the House (3) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House (4) Two-thirds of the total number of ‘members of the House Article 16(1) of the Constitution incorporates the concept of: (2) Distributive justice 2) Numerical equality 3) Equality by results (4) Equality of opportunity ‘The right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of: () Morality (2) Public order G) Health (4) Security of state Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in India by the: (2) Government of India Act, 1935 2) Minto Morley Reforms G) Independence Act, 1947 (4) Constitution of India43, 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. Who among the following considered the Right to Constitutional Remedies to be the heart and soul of the Constitution? (2) Rajendra Prasad Q) BR Ambedkar ) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Sardar Patel ‘The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution provides fo () Panchayat Raj (2) Anti Defection 3) Validation of certain Act (4) Official Languages and Regulations Which of the following is the first ease which the Supreme Court has exercised its advisory jurisdiction? (1) In re Berubari (2) In re Sea Customs Act 3) In re Delhi Laws Act (4) In re Kerala Education Bill ‘The concept of Passive Euthanasia has been carved from which Article? (1) Article 20 (2) Anicle21 G) Article 22 (4) Article 23, In which of the following cases the amendment in Article 31C, which gave primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights, was declared ultra vires and void? (2) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (2) Minerva Mills v. UOL G) MK Rai v. UOI (A) None of the above Under the Constitution of India which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty? () To vote in General Election (2) To develop the scientific temper 3) To safeguard public property (4) jto abide by the Constitution and respect its ideas. ‘The Supreme Court of India has evolved a ‘curative petition in the case of: (Q) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2) Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Sec. Bihar (G) MK. Rai v. UOL (@) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra 2302/40 (8) si. 53. 55. The power of the Supreme Court to review its own judgment is provided under (1) Article 137 (2) Article 138 (3) Amticle 139 (4) Article 140 The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India ‘must come from: (1) The President of India (2) The Parliament of India (3) The Prime Minister of India (4) The Union Finance Minister Which Article says, 'No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or any hazardous employment? (Q) Article 24 (2) Article 25 G) Article 26 (A) Article 27 A Pakistani citizen staying in India cannot claim the right to: (1) Freedom of trade and profession (2) Equality before law G) Protection of life and personal liberty (4) Freedom of Forcible conversions infringe which of the following rights guaranteed under Article 25? (1) Freedom of conscience Q) Right to Profess G) Right to Practise ) Right to Propagate By which Constitutional amendment, Article S1A(K), which provides for the eleventh duty of a citizen was added? (1) The Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act (2) The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act (3) The Constitution (85th Amendment) Act (4) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ‘strike’ by lawyers is illegal and unethical and infringes the Fundamental Rights of litigants for speedy trial (1) Dr. BLL. Wadhera v. NCT of Delhi (2) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India G) Lily Thomas v. Union of India ) Indira Sawhney61. 2. 63. Right, to Vote is a: 64. (1) Statutory Right (2) Fundamental Right G) Constitutional Right (4) None of the above Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President? () Governor 65. (2) Prime Minister @) Election Commissioner (4) Speaker of Lok Sabha Which Article of the Const the President to appoint a investigate the condition of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures? 6. () an340 @) An34i G) Ant342 @) An343 Which Article of the Constitutuon of India safeguards the right to change one’s name of surname? () Article 25 (@) Article 29 (3) Article 22 () Article 21 Power of the Governor to grant pardons, or. etc. and to suspend, remit, or commute sentences in certain cases. (1) Article 161 (2) Antile 162 (3) Article 163 (4) Article 171 ‘The only instance when the President of India exereised his power of veto related to the 68. (1) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill) 2) Dowry Prohibition Bill G) Hindu Code Bill (4) PEPSU Appropriation Bill Which of the following Amendment Acts ‘empowers the Court to adjudge the reasonableness of a restriction im-posed even on the right guaranteed by Article 19(1) A of the Constitution of India? (2) First Amendment Act (2) Second Amendment Act 3) Third Amendment Act (4) Fourth Amendment Act 2302/40 (6) By which of the following clauses, the right to Freedom of movement is granted to Indian citizens? () Article 19(1) A (2) Article 19(1) B (3) Amicle 19(1) C (4) Anticle 19(1) D_ Article 20(3) of the Constitution of In about the “accused’s immunity from bein; compelled to be a witness against himself”. This clause gives protection: (1) Toa person accused of an offence (2) Against compulsion to be a witness G) Against himself 4) Allofthem it by of law, was held fo be violative of Article 21 of the Constitution of India assuming that a right of privacy was a fundamental right derived from the freedom of movement guaranteed by Article 19 (1) D of the Constitution of Indiaal as well as personal liberty guar-anteed by Article 21? () Dr. Sudesh Jale v. State of Haryana (Q) Kharak Singh v. State of UP G) Govind v. State of MP @) Necra Mathur v. LLC Which of the following is mentioned in clause (2) of Article 22 of the Constitution of India? (1) The right to consult a legal practitioner (2) Right to be defended by a legal practitioner G) Right to be produced before the nearest magistrate (4) Both (1) and (2) Articles 29-30 of the Constitution of India confers which of the following distinct rights? (1) Right of any section of citizens to conserve its ‘own language, script, or culture 2) Right to all religious or linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational institutions oftheir choice (3) The right of an educational institution not to be discriminated against in the matter of state aid (nthe ground that itis under the management ‘ofa minority (4) All ofabove6. 70. a. n B. m4 ing Articles of the Indian Constitu-ti ‘compulsory acqui mentioned before () Article 30(1) Q) Article 31 G) Article 32 () Article 302) Which of the following rights is considered as the ‘soul of fundamental rights”? (1) Right to Equality (2) Right to Freedom G) Preamble (4) Right to constitutional remedies ‘The Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not part of the Constitution, in which case () AK. Gopalan case (2) Berubari case @) Minerva Mills case (@) AK Antony case ‘The Preamble to our Constitution proclaims that ‘We, the People of India have established: (1) aSovercien, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic (2) aSovercign, Democratic Republic (3) aSovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialist, Republic. (A) aSecular, Socialist, Democratic, Sovereign, Republic. In the ease of Golnk Nath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our ‘Preamble contains, in a nutshell, its ideals and aspirations’. Who was the Judge: () Mathew, J (2) Krishna lyer, 5 (3) Subba Rao, J @) HR Khanna, J Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Constitution of India which was inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a Constitution Amendment Act passed according to Arti India amendment was declared void in which of the following eases? CQ) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (2) Edward Mills Co. Lid. v. State of Ajmer G) Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India (@) Minerva Mills v. Union of India 2302/40 (7) 16. 7. 19. 80. 81. Where there is conflict between law and equity, it is the which has to prevail. (1) Law 2) Equity (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None ‘The right to privacy is derived from which Article of the Constitution of Indi () Article 14 (2) Article 21 (3) Article 24 () Article 27 Non-granting minority institutions are excluded from the purview of the RTI Act due to the following fundamental rights granted by the Constitution of Indi () Article 16 2) Article 19.) (©) @) Article 29 (4) Article 30.1) Under which Article "Protection of Interests of Minorities” is enshrined ? () Article 26 (2) Amticie 27 @G) Article 29 (4) Article 30 Appointments of the chairman and other members of UPSC come under which article of Constitution of India? (1) Article 316 (2) Article 317 G) Article 318 (4) Anicle 319 ‘The process of amendment in the Constitution of India is influenced by the constitution of which country? ) USA (@) UK (3) South Africa (4) Ireland Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in the exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation, or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article () Article 256 (2) Article 368 G) Article 366 G) Article 26682, 83. 85. 86, 81. A Proclamation of Emergency declaring 88, that the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened by war or by external aggression or by armed rebellion may be made before the actual occurrence of war or any such aggression or rebellion, if the President is satisfied that there is, imminent danger thereof, () Article 352 Q) Article 356 G) Article 368 (4) None of the above The executive power of the Union and each State shall extend ¢o the carrying on of any trade or business and to the acquisition, ing, and disposal of property and the making of contracts for any purpo: 89. (1) Article 19(1)(@) Q) Article 259 @) Article 298 (4) Anticle 398 Freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse is mentioned under (1) Article 300 Q) Article 301 G) Article 200 (4) Article 201 90. Partiament may by law impose such restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce, or intercourse between one State and another or within any part of the territory of India as may be req thes. (1) Public interest (2) Morality G) Bthies (4) Both (2) & (3) are correct Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for an endeavor of every State to arrange adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue an. at the primary stage of education? () Article 3 (2) Article 350 (3) Article 350-A ) Article 351 ‘A Finance Commission is appointed by the President to recommend the revenue between the Centre and States in every: (1) 2 Years Q) S years (3) 7 Years (A) 10 Years 2302/40 (8) Assertion (A): The Union Publie Service ‘Commission must he consulted as regards the reservation of posts for Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes. Reason (R): The functions of the Union Public Service Commission are only advisory and the-Government need not act upon the advice of the Commission in any (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) @) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false G) (A) is false but (R) is true In which one of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that the reasons have to be communicated to the legislature by the Government if the advice of a Public Service Commission has not been accepted? (1) Jai Shankar Prasad v, State of Bihar (2) Asha Kaul v. State of Jamul and Kashmir (3) Jagtar Singh v. The Director-General Bureau of Investigation (4) H. Mukherjee v. Union of India Assertion (A): Laws covered under Ai 39 (b) and (¢) have been given a protective shield against some of the fundament rights. Reason (R): The Directive Principles are also regarded as relevant for considering what reasonable restrictions under Article Ware. (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a ‘correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false ) (A) is false but (R) is true A spate of killing abductions and dacoities severely threatens the Iaw and order in a state. The Governor recommends to the President of India that a breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the state i imminent. The President proclaims Article 356. The action of the president 2 (1) cannot be reviewed as the President is the sole judge of his emergency power () cannot be reviewed as the Constitution ‘bars the courts from reviewing political actions (3) can be reviewed as it goes against fundamental rights (4) can be reviewed as itis malafide92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. ‘The nature of ‘consultation’ with the Chief 98, Justice of India in matters of appointment ‘ofa judge to a High Court is correctly described as 2 (1) inspection oF he file By the Chet Justice @) concurrence of the Chief Justice G) conformity withthe opinion of the Chief Justice 4) formal reference to the Chief Justice within dineout any obligation to carry out his wishes Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (1) Colourable legistation ~ What cannot be done directly can be done indirectly 99. ©) Pith and substance — Incidental encroachment on the field of another legislature is permissible @) Territorial nexus ~The subject of legislation ust have a territorial connection with the state (8) Repugnancy—A situation in which a law made by the Union conflicts with the law made by a state The constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constituti (1) Includes power to amend by way of addition variation or repeal of the provision of the Constitution. (Q) Is unrestricted by any inherent and implied limitations, 3) Is not procedurally limited and restricted (4) Is an extra constituent 100. 101. In agreements of a purely domestic nature, the intention of the parties to create a legal relationship (1) to be proved to the satisfaction of the court Q) presumed to exist G) required to the extent of consideration (4) not relevant at all A makes a contract with B to beat his business competitor. This is an example of (1) valid contract @) illegal agreement ) voidable contract ) unenforceable contract “A” promises to pay “B,” a sum of Rs. 10000/- if it rains, and in return “B” promises to pay Rs, 10000/- to “A,” if it does not rain. It is a/an (1) Valid agreement (2) Wagering agreement G) Contingent contract @) Uncertain agreement 2302/40 (9) Find out the void agreement among the following (1) A for natural love and affe promises to give his son, B,Rs.10,00,000. A puts his promise to pay B in writing and register it (2) A owes B Rs 1,00,000, but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. Asigns a written promise to pay B Rs.50,000 on account of debt (3) A promises, for no consideration, to give to B Rs.1,000 (4) none of the above Find out the unenforceable contract among the following, (1) Ahousing society agreed to sel the land before it became a legalperson by registration (2) Asupplies B, a lunatic, with necessaries suitable to his life and wants tobe reimbursed from B’s property (3) money advanced to save a minor's estate from execution (4) none of the above PWD refused to release the payment to a contractor unless he gave up his claim for an extra rate, which amounted to (1) Fraud (2) Undue Influence (3) Coercion (4) None of the above “A” contracts to pay a sum of money to B on a day specified. A does not pay the money on that day. B, asa consequence of not receiving the money on that day, is unable to pay his debts and is totally ruined. (2) Ais liable to make good to B anything, except the principal sum he contracted to pay, together with interest upon the day of payment (2) Ais liable to partially make good to B anything except the principal sum he contracted to pay, together with interest upon the day of payment (3) Ais not liable to make good to B anything except the principal sum he contracted to pay, together with interest upon the day of payment (4) None of these102, 103, 104. 10s. 106. 2302/40 A contracts to repair B’s house in a certain 107. manner, and receives payment in advance. Repairs the house, but not according to x from A the cast ‘of making the repair conform to the contract (2) B isemttled to partly recover from A the cost of making the repair conform to the contract (3) Bis entitled to recover from A the cost of making the repair conform to the contract, (4) None of these 108. A stipulation in a bond for payment of compound interest on failure to pay simple interest at the same rate as was payable upon the principal is not a penalty within the meaning of: (J) Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (2) Section 75 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (3) Section 76 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (4) None of the above 109. In which ease it was held that a contract through the telephone is concluded at the place where acceptance is heard? (2) Lalman shukla v. Gauri dutt, (1913) (2) Carlill v. Carbolic smoke ball co. (1981) (3) Bhagwandas goverdhandas kedia v. M/s irdhari lal parshottamdas & co, Air 1966 (4) Satyabrata ghose v. Mugneeram bangur & €0,,air 1954 ‘The subject-matter of Section 8 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is divided into: (A) Performance of the conditions of a proposal and (2) Acceptance of any consideration for a reciprocal promise which may be offered ‘with a proposal, (3) Both (A) and (B) (4) None of these ‘The term law in the expression “forbidden by law” would include any enactment or rrule of law for the time being in force in India which would fall under which of the following subheads? (() The provisions of any legislative enactment (2) ‘The ules of Hindu or Mahomedan law G) Other rules forthe time being in force in India (4) Allo them (10) ‘The terms ‘benefit’ and ‘detriment’ have been used by courts in which of the following senses in Seetion 2 of the In Contract Act, 1872: (1) Act whieh value (2) Such acts, the performance of which is not already legal due from promise (3) Both (A) and (B) (4) None of these The theories or juristic bases for the doctrine of frustration were evolved for Justifying the departure from the doctrine of absolute contracts. The main theories are: 1. Implied term theory IL Basis or foundation ofthe contracts IML. Just and reasonable solution IV. A radical change inthe obligation under the contracts Q) HU Qwv @)1 (4) Allofthem Time and place for the performance of a promise, where time is specified and no application to be made in which of the following in the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (1) Section 47 (2) Section 37 (3) Section 57 (4) Section 27 Under Section 18 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, misrepresentation falls und (1) A statement of fact, which is false, would be misrepresentation if the maker believes itto be true, but which is not justified by the information he possesses (2) Any breach of duty which gains an advantage to the person committing it by misleading another to his prejudice, there being no intention to deceive (3) Causing a party to an agreement to make a mistake as to the substance of the thing Which is the subject of the agreement, even though done innocently (A) Allof them Under which of the following any provi of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 would be I, if inconsistent with the fundamental nm rights? (1) Article 11 of the Constitution of India 2) Article 12 of the Constitution of India G) Article 13 of the Constitution of India (4) Article 14 of the Constitution of India112, 113, 114, us. 116. 7 4, pieseteaeae 2302/40 . Wagering agreements are defined under 118, section ...... of the Indian Contraet Act, 1872, (1) Section 23 (2) Section 30 G) Section 43 (4) Section 40 . Gherulal Parakh v. Mahadeodas Maiya case is related to () Milegal Contract (@) Wagering Contract G) Frustration of Contract, (4) None of the above 119. ‘What are the elements of a wagering contract... L._Itmust be dependent on an uncertain event II. There is a mutual chance of gain or loss Neither of the parties must have control over the event IV. Must have no other interest other than the stake (1) Only Q) L&T both G) Oaly I & IV A) Allofabove 120, K. R. Lakshmanan y. State of Tamil Nadu (1996) case is related to () Horse racing Q) Bullfighting, G) Astrology (A) None of the above 11. Andhra Pradesh v. Satyanarayana, AIR 1968 case is related to (1) Horse Racing, Q) Casino Gambling G) Rummy (@) Hockey is defined under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (1) Capacity to contract (2) Wagering Contract (3) Contingent Contract (A) The frustration of a contract 122, 123, (11) According to Section .......of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when the event for which conduct ofa person, then the event is considered impossible if that person does anything which makes it impossible that he should act in that in any definite time. (1) 34 @) 24 (3) 30 31 When did the Indian Contract Act, 1872 ‘come into force? (1) September 1 (2) October 1 G3) October 24 (4) July 1 Which of the following Amendment Acts inserted Section 194 into the Indian Contract Act? (2) Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (6 of 1899) (2) Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (7 of 1899) (3) Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (8 of 1899) (4) Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1899 (of 1899) Which of the following are the conditions for the application of Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872? (1). The goods are to be delivered lawfully oF something has to be done for another person lavefully (2) The thing done or the goods delivered must be ‘done or delivered without the intention to do so gratuitously 3) The person to whom goods are to be delivered () Allofthem Performance of Contract is defined under which section of Indian Contract Act, 1872, ay 2 2) 37 @) 51 67 ‘mentioned under section ....... Of | Contract Act, 1872. a) 41 2) 38 @71 @) 13124, 125, 126. 127. 128. 2302/40 Section 1872) first lays down the simple pr that an agreement to do an act impossible self is void. For example, an agreement to discover a treasure by magic, being impossible to perform, (54 2) 56 3) 63 (4) 66 129. 130, “Taylor v/s Caldwell ease is related to (1) Minor Contract (2) Frustration of Contract G) Wagering Conact (4) None of the above where a contract to exhibit a film ina cinema hall was held to have become possible to perform when on account of heavy rains the rear wall of the hall collapsed killing three persons a 131. reconstructed to the satisfaction of the chief engineer. The owner was under no liability to reconstruct and it took him some time, by that time the film would have lost its appeal. ‘Above facts are related to which case. (1) VL. Narasu v. PS.V.lyer Q) Bum & Co. v. MeDonald 3) Moult y. Halliday (4) Produce Brokers Co. Ltd. v. Olympia Oil and Cake Co. Ltd. ‘What are the clements of a quasi-contract? 132. 1. An individual or as the law recognizes, one claimant. There must also be a defendant who will be responsible and asked to pay the restitution. IL, The defendant must be willing to recognize or even acknowledge the value Of the produey/ service in question but has ‘not made any efforts to return iv pay for it ‘or even made an effort to do something about it LL “The complainant needs to prove that the defendant camed wrongful enrichment. Q) Only 1 2) Only Il & G) Only 1& TT (A) All of above 133. 134. ‘Moore v. Elphick(1945) case is related to (1) Wagering Contract (2) Nota Wager ) Capacity to contract (4) None of the above (12) A agrees to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship does not return. The ship is sunk. The contract can be enforced when the ship sinks. Itis an example of (1) Capacity to contract (2) Wagering Contract (3) Contingent Contract (4) The frustration of a contract If the event does not happen within the fixed time and aceordingly the allotted time lapses or if the happening of the event ecomes impossible before the fixed time, then in such eases a contract is void as specified in Section ....... of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Q) 23 Q) 31 @) 33 4) 35 Section .....and .... of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, grants for unliquidated and Kiquidated damages respectivel Unliquidated Damages are the damages awarded through the courts on the basis and evaluation of authentic loss or damage induced to the party suffering breach of, contract. () Section 63 and 64 (2) Section 73 and 74 G) Section 53 and 54 (A) Section 33 and 34 Bhim Singh V. State Of Jammu And Kashmir case is related to (2) Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium (2) Consensus ad idem G) Vis-Major (4) Quad Pro Quo Specific performance may be ordered by the Court when (1) The contract is voidable Q) Damages are an adequate remedy G) Damages are not an adequate remedy (4) The contract is uncertain can file A partyentitled to claim compens: proportion to the work done by a suit for (1) Damages (2) Injunction G) Quantum Merait 4) None of these135. 136. 137. 138, 139. 140, M1. 2302/40 ‘The damages under See.73 of the Indian 12. Contract Act are () nominal (2) compensatory G) penal (8) None of the above Jurisdiction is determined mainly on the grounds of: 1. Fiscal Value Il. Geographical boundaries of a court IL ‘The subject matter of court (1) Only 1 & I @) Only & 11 G) Only 1&1 @ Lei 143. grounds of the location of the immovable property. (14 @) 15 G) 16 @) 17 ‘The term "Decree" is defined in the se () 2) @) 26) (3) 214) (4) 268) 14. Which of the following deals with the time for inspection when notice is given in the Code of Civil Procedure? (1) Order 16, Rule 12 2) Order 4, Rule 13, G) Order 6, Rule 10 (8) Order 11, Rule 17 145, Which of the following deals with the statement and production of evidenc Code of Civil Procedure? (1) Order 12, Rule S 2) Order 14, Rule 20 G) Order 18) Rule 2 (@) Order 11; Rule 7 in the Which of the following deals with the right to challenge non-appealable orders in an appeal against decrees in the Code of Civil Procedure? (1) Order 43, Rule 14 (2) Order 31, Rule 9 G) Order 22, Rule 18 (4) Order 9, Rule 10 (13) In order for a decision in a former suit may operate as res judicata, the court which may decide that suit must have been? I. Acivil court of competent jurisdiction IL Accourt of exclusive juri IIL Acourt of concurrent jurisdiction competent to try the subsequent suit” ‘A court of limited jurisdiction competent to try the issue raised in the subsequent suit (1) Either 1 or It (2) Bither Ilo IIL (3) Either If or IV (4) Allof these Vv. A transaction for transfer or delivery of the property attached, where the contract is executed and registered before attachment, the mischief of sub-s (1) shall not apply. However in which of the following situation it applies? (1) Where the property is transferred and registered afler the attachment (2) Where the property is transferred before attachment but registration takes place after the attachment (3) Both (1) and @) (4) None of these Which of the following sections of the Code is intended to prevent two parallel igs in respect of the same cause of (1) Section 12 @) Section 9 G) Section 10 (A) Section 13 Under the CPC, the provision of notice before instituting a suit against the Government is given in: (A) Section 13 (2) Section 34 (3) Section 80 () Section 93146. 147. 148, 149, 150. 2302/40 No Court shall try any suit or issue i the matter directly and substantiall sue has been directly and substantially in 1¢ ina former suit between the sam parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them elaim, litigating under the same title, in a Court competent to try such subsequent suit or the suit in which such issue has been subsequently raised” and has been heard and finally decided by related to which section of which ISI. G) Section 18 (4) Section 21 A suit in which the right to property or an office is contested is a suit of a civil nature, notwithstanding that such right may depend entirely on the decision of questions as to religious rituals or ceremonies. Is related to which section of CPC 1908. (1) Section 9 Q) Section 13 G) Section 16 (4) Section 18 153. Pecuniary jurisdiction is defined under section ... of CPC 1908 (1) Section 4 Q) Section 5 3) Section 6 (4) Section 7 'Judge" means the pres Civil Cour (A) Section 2(7) (2) Section 2(8) (3) Section 2(9) (4) Section 2(10) 154. ‘"judgment” means the statement given by the Judge on the grounds of a decree or order: (1) Section 2(7) (2) Section 2(8) {G) Section 2(9) (4) Section 2(10) 155. (14) . of property means those profits Which the person in wrongful possession of such property received or might with nce have received therefrom, th interest on such profits, but shall not include profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possessi (1) mesne profits (2) micro profits (3) macro profits (4) miso profits “legal representative" means a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, and includes any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and where a party sues or is sued in a representative character the person on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued: is mentioned under which section of CPC 1908. (A) Section 2(6) (2) Section 2(8) ) Section 2(9) (@) Section 2(11) ‘The Court shall presume, upon the production of any document purporting to be a certified copy of a foreign judgment that such judgment was pronounced by a Court of competent jurisdiction, unless the contrary appears on the record; but such presumption may be displaced by proving want of jurisdiction. Is related to which section of CPC 1908. (1) Section 2(10) (2) Section 14 (3) Section 18(2) (4) Section 21 “When foreign judgment not conclusive” mentioned under which section of CPC 1908. a) 13 Q) 16 G) 18 (4) 20 “Place of the institution of the suit where local limits of the jurisdiction of Courts are uncertain” is mentioned under which section of CPC 1908 13 @) 16 @) 18 (4) 20187. 159, 160. 161. 2302/40 “Where a suit may be instituted in any one 162. of two or more Courts and is instituted in one of such Courts, any defendant, after notice (o the other parties, may, at the earliest possible opportunity and in all cases. where issues are settled at or before such ply to have the suit transferred to another Court, and the Court to which such application is made, after considering the objections of the other parties (if any), shall determine in which of the several Courts having juris suit shall proceed. which section of CPC 1908. OB @)21 G) 2 4) 31 ‘The word ‘resides" is used in s, 19 of the Code of Civil Procedure means: (2) Natural persons (2) Companies (3) Tort 164. ) None of the above Which of the following d transfer of decree in the Code of Civil Procedure? (2) Section 31 (2) Section 39 (3) Section 41 168. (4) Section 52 Inherent powers of the Court can be exercised under the Code (1) To help the plaintit (2) Tohelp the defendant (3) For the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court 166, (4) To grant imerim relief A person may sue a foreign State, (1) Only with the consent of the Central Government (2) With the consent of the President of India (3) With the consent of the State Government @) Both (1) and (3) above 167. ‘The obje 1s shall be allowed in the Court of the first instance is the essence of ... CPC 1908 (1) Section 21 (2) Section 22 G) Section 23 (4) Section 24 (18) The second appeal shall not ls decree, us provided under sect CPC when the subject matter of the original for recovery of money not exceet (1) Rs.10,000 (2) Rs.25,000 G) Rs.50,000 (4) Rs.100,000 Under section 100A of the CPC, where any appeal from an origi judge of a High Court: (1) no further appeal shall lie from the Jjudement and decree of such a single judge (2) a further appeal shall Tie under the Letters Patent for the High Court @) a further appeal shall lie with the leave of the Supreme Court (4) a further appeal shall lie before the Division Bench of the High Cour. The court under section 89(1) of CPC can refer the dispute for: (1) arbitration or conciliation (2) conciliation or mediation (3) mediation or Lok Adalat (4) arbitration or conciliation or Lok ‘Adalat or mediation Order ..... of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with appeals from original decrees known as ) 40 @ 41 G) a2 @ 43 Which of the following deals with the second appeal in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 qa 91 (2) 100 @) 119 (4) 110 Conversion of an appeal into revision was discussed in which case (1) Bahori v. Vidya Ram AIR 1978 (2) Dayawati v. Inder AIR 1990 (3) Adam v Adam 1901 (A) None of the above168. 169. 170. im. 172, 173. A regular first appeal may be preferred by ‘one of the following... Any party to the suit adversely affected by a decree, or if such party is dead, by his, legal representatives under Section 146 TI. A transferee of the imterest of such party, ‘who so far as such interest is concerned, is bound by the decree, provided his name is ‘entered on the record of the suit Il. An auction purchaser may appeal against an order in execution setting aside the sale ‘on the ground of fraud TY. No other person, unless he is @ party to the suit, is entitled to appeal under Section 96 (Q) Only 1&1 Q) Only iI & IV G) Only il, 1M & 1V @) LWW & IV Section of the | Procedure Code deals with the provision of reference qd) 13 (2) 109 @) us 4) 98 ‘The court of civil judicature can refer the case to the High Court either on an application made by a party or suo moto. As held in the case of. reference ean be made by a tribunal (1) Ramakant Bindal v. State of U.P AIR 1973 (2) Durga v. Rajnaran AIR 1999 (3) Adam v Adam 1901 (4) None of the above review, the party who is not happy or aggrieved with the order of the court can file an ap the same court which has passed the decree. (10 Q) 114 @) 119 (4) 120 ‘The limitation period for Review is (1) 15 Days (2) 30 Days @) 45 Days (4) 60 Days ‘The limitation period for Revision is ... (1) 30 Days 2) 60 Days G) 90 Days (4) 120 days 2302/40 i748. 175, 176. 17. 178. 179. 180, (16) Article 133 of the Constitution of India & Section ....... of the CPC provides the jons under which an appeal could be the Supreme Court: (a) 109 @Qim @) 134 (4) 146 Section ‘the Civil Procedure Code deals with the inherent powers of the court. ay 145 @) 151 (3) 159 (4) 165 An every plaint, under s facts should be proved by (1) oral evidence (2) affidavit ) document (4) oral evidence as well as document In case of a cause of action arising ata place where a corporation has a subordinate office, the corporation is deemed to carry on business: (1) its principal office in India Q) its subordinate office where the cause of action did arise @) both (@) & (o) (4) either (a) or (b) In cases of commercial contracts between parties of two different countries, the jurisdiction of the court shall be governed by: (2) lex loci contractors. (2) lex loci solutions (3) les situs (4) rule of freedom of choice ic. intention of the parties Parties by their consent/agreement (1) can confer jurisdietion on a court, where there is none in law (2) can oust the jurisdiction ofthe court where there is one in law {@) can oust the jurisdiction of one of the courts ‘when there are two courts simultaneously having jurisdiction in law G) all the above A suit to set aside a decree on the ground of lack of territorial jurisdiction is barred: (1) under section 21 of the CPC (2) under section 214 of CPC (3) under section 22 of the CPC (4) under section 23 of the CPC182, 183. 184, 185, 186. ‘The objection as to the place of suiting: (1) can only be taken before the court offi instance at the earliest possible opportunity (2) can be taken before the appellate court for the first time (3) can be taken before the court of revision for the first time () all of the above A suit relating to a partnership dissolved in ‘a foreign country can be filed at the place: (1) in foreign country (2) where the parties to the suit reside in India 3) both (a) & (b) @) all over India, Asuit relating to partnership may be instituted at a place: (1) where the partnership was constituted (2) where the partnership business was carried on (3) where partnership accounts are maintained (4) all of the above Amendment of pleadings is defined under sssseeteeree€PC 1908 (1) Order 6 Rule 17 CPC (2) Order 8 Rule 14 CPC G) Order 9 Rule 10 CPC (4) Order 11 Rule 19 CPC Section 18 of CPC provides fe (1) place of institution of the suit in respect of immoveable property where the property is situated in the jurisdiction of one court (2) place of institution of the suit in respect of immoveable property where the property is situated in the jurisdiction of a different court (3) place of institution of the suit in respect of immoveable property where the local limits of the jurisdiction of courts are uncertain (4) all the above of the Code of Civil Procedure, the parties to the suit are required to attend the court either in person or by their pleaders on the day which has been fixed in the summons. () Rule 1 of Order IX (2) Rule 2 of Order X (3) Rule 3 of Order XI (4) Rule 4 of Order XT 2302/40 187. 188, 189, 190. (17) When the plaintiff does not appear because of death, the court has no power to dismiss is passed it iy as held in the case ela 1967 (2) Amna George vs State of Ki (2) PMM. Pillayathiri Amma v. K. Lakshi Amma 1966 (3) MM, Prasad Vs Antuley shankar 1998 (4) None of the above The grounds on which an ex-parte decree can be set aside are 1. When the summons has not been duly served HL Due to any “sufficient cause”, he could not appear on the day of the hearing (Q) Only 1 Q) Only 1 G) 18M bo (4) None of the above Remedies against an ex-parte decree LHe can apply to the court under rule 13 of Order IX far setting aside the ex-parte decree passed by the court ‘U. He can appeal against that decree under section 96(2) of the Code or, prefer revision under section 115 of the CPC ‘when no appeal lies TIL He can apply for a review under Order 47 Rule 1 TV. Assuit on the ground of fraud can be filed (1) Only 1 & IL @) Only HT 1V G) Only 1,11, and 11 (4) Allof the above leals with the “Suits by or against minors and persons of unsound mind.” It specifically prescribes the procedure for Suits to be filed by or against minors or persons of unsound mind. (1) Order 32 (Rules 1 to 16) (2) Order 22 (Rules 2 to 16) (3) Order 12 (Rules 6 to 16) (A) Order 42 (Rules 7 10 16)191. 192, 193. 194, In the case of the it was held that a minor suing through one next friend cannot sue through another next friend in another ease, nor can he/she sue for the same cause after attaining a majority However, the court is empowered (0 appoint a next friend during the pendency of the suit. (1) MM. Prasad Vs Antuley shankar 1998 (2) Govind vs Rajendra Sigh (1976) G) State of Rajasthan v. R.D. Singh (1972), (4) Tea Association Assam vs Bhakta Munda (1978) (5) None of the above Death, Marriage, and Insolvency of Parties are defined under which order of CPC (1) ORDER XXIL (2) ORDER XXIII (3) ORDER XXIV (4) None of the above Rules applicable to persons of unsound mind are defined under which order of CPC (1) Rule 12 (2) Rule 10 ) Rule 15 (4) Rule 19) ‘Commercial and International Bank Ltd, 1998 case is related with (2) Indigent suit (2) summary suits 3) possession suit (A) None of above ‘The Supreme Court said in Neebha Kapoor v. Jayantilal Khandwala that the primary public interest behind (CPCs the quick disposition of economic litigation. It specifies a time range to ensure that such disposal is ‘completed as sooa as practicable. Fil in the blank (1) Order 37 Q) Order 38 (3) Order 39 (4) Order 40 2302/40 (18) 196. 198, 199, 200. Section 15 of CPC lays dawn: (1) arule of procedure (2) arule of jurisdiction G) arule of evidence () all the above ‘When the plaintiff fails to pay the courtfee or ‘postal charges for service of summons on the defendant(s) or fails to present copies of the paint, the suit is liable to be: (J) Rejected under Order VII, Rule 11 of CPC (2) dismissed for non-prosecution under Order IX, Rule 2 of CPC (3) Either (1) or (2) (4) None of above A person can be made a party in the suit either as a plaintiff or a defendant: (J) under Order I, Rule 8A of CPC (2) under Order I, Rule 10 of CPC (3) under Order X, Rule 1 of CPC (4) under Order X, Rule 8 of CPC Which of the following deals with a ‘summons to defendants in the Code of Civil Procedure? (1) Section 27 (2) Section 20 (3) Section 33 (4) Section 47 ‘The validity of a foreign judgment can be challenged under section 13 of CPC: (2) ina civil court only (2) ina criminal court only (3) in both civil and criminal court (4) neither in civil nor in criminal courtROUGH WORK 2302/40 (19)| ROUGH WORK 2302/40