(MBA – 120 Questions)

Section A: Verbal Reasoning.

1. Which of the following words correctly defines the phrase, “to displace, replace or
substitute”?
A. Supine
B. Surcharge
C. Supersede
D. Subterfuge

2. The given sentence has been divided into 4 parts out of which a part may contain
grammatical error. Select the part having grammatical error as answer else mark option
'e' i.e. (No correction required)' as the answer.
I found that dress (1) / more better than (2) / any other dress (3) / in the case (4).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. No correction required.

3. Fill in the blanks with appropriate preposition:

He comes ______ a family which has a passion _______ playing cricket.
A. from, in
B. off, for
C. of, in
D. of, for

4. Choose the correct alternative which can be substituted for the given word in the
bracket to make the sentence meaningful.
The seniors _______ (apology) for their rude behavior with juniors.
A. apologetic
B. apologizing
C. apologized
D. were apologetic
5. Rearrange the following parts (1, 2, 3 and 4) in proper sequence to obtain a correct
sentence.
1. pending because it wasn’t
2. Too many cases still lie
3. is the convict
4. confirmed that the accused really

A. 2, 1, 4, 3.
B. 2, 4, 1, 3.
C. 1, 4, 2, 3.
D. 1, 3, 2, 4.

6. Select the most effective word from the options given below to fill in the blank and
complete the sentence meaningfully.
A ___________ of advisers.
A. Army
B. Board
C. Crowd
D. Council

7. Pick out the word closest in opposite meaning to the given word: Admonish.
A. Permit
B. Advise
C. Praise
D. Compliment

8. Choose the correct alternative which can be substituted for the below given word/
sentence.
Cultivation, management, and study of individual trees is called as __________ .
A. Arboriculture
B. Horticulture
C. Sericulture
D. Viticulture
9. Choose the pair of words which have a similar relationship to that between the given
pair of words - MERGE : DISCONNECT.
A. Gratify : Delight
B. Worship : Devotion
C. Robust : Incapable
D. Intense : Acute

10. Choose the correct alternative which can be substituted for the below given phrase.
To hold one's tongue.
A. To support someone
B. To interfere in someone’s work
C. To insult someone
D. To keep/make someone keep quiet

11. In the sentence given below a part is underlined and for that part options are given.
Choose the most suitable option that can replace the underlined part.
A sharp fall in prices of jute have led the poor jute farmers to the brink of starvation.
A. has led the poor jute farmers
B. have led the poor jute farmers
C. had led the pure jute farmers
D. have led the poor farmers of jute

12. The given sentence has been divided into parts out of which a part may contain
grammatical error. Choose the part which has grammatical error. or else choose ‘No
error’ as your answer.
Unlawful universities for professional courses (1)/ are today a boom industry (2)/ fueled
by the ambition of parents (3)/ who wish to see their children become a doctor or an
engineer at any cost (4).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
13. Choose the correct alternative which can be substituted for the below given phrase.
A person who talks in sleep is called as:
A. Philatelist
B. Somnambulist
C. Somniloquist
D. Oneirocritic

14. Complete the following sentences with the most appropriate words/phrases with
reference to grammar, idioms, proverbs and syntax.
Do not expect me to ……… you ……. this horrendous crime.
A. abet, by
B. abet, with
C. abet, in
D. abet, to

15. In the question below, there is a sentence with jumbled up parts. Rearrange these
parts, which are labelled A, B, C and D to produce the correct sentence. Choose the
proper sequence:
It is possible that he thinks his …..
m) job is to be a clerk
n) and to read the results out loud as he stands at the cash register
o) to keep people from stealing things
p) to type letters into a computer

A. mnop
B. pomn
C. nomp
D. mopn

16. The given sentence is in active/ passive voice. Change the voice of the sentence. Select
the correct option from the sentence below.
She has preserved all the old letters of her dead lover.
A. All the old letters of her dead lover have been preserved by her.
 B. All the old letters of her dead lover has been preserved by her.
C. All the old letters have been preserved.
D. The letters of her old lover have been preserved.

17. In the following question, four pairs of words follow the first pair. Select the pair whose
relation most closely matches the first pair.
Serpentine: River.
A. Problematic: Solution
B. Circuitous: Track
C. Rib-tickling: Wit
D. Exhaustive: List

18. Four alternatives are given for the idioms/ phrases underlined in the sentence. Choose
the one that best expresses the meaning of the idiom
The demolition of the Babri Masjid had been a political hot potato for years.
A. a hotly debated delicate issue
B. a helping agent
C. forbidden issue
D. something that has been for long in the newspapers

19. The Question below consist of four sentences marked A, B, C and D. Arrange the
sentences in a proper sequence to form a coherent paragraph.
a. My grandmother, like everybody’s grandmother, was an old woman.
b. People said that she had once been young and pretty and even had a husband.
c. She had been old and wrinkled for twenty years that I had known her.
d. But that was hard to believe.

A. dcab
B. acbd
C. abcd
D. dcba
 Directions for Questions 20 through to 23. Some parts of the sentences in the passages
below are left blank. Fill them with the best alternative.

We ….. reached the top of the pass. It was lined by a large ……. of rocks …… with white
silk scarves and ragged prayer flags. We all took a turn round the rocks in the clockwise
direction, as was the …... and Tsetan checked the tyres on his vehicle.

20. The first blank should have:

A. immediately
B. hesitantly
C. finally
D. currently

21. The second blank should have:

A. cairn
B. monument
C. assembly
D. shaft

22. The third blank should have:

A. garnished
B. festered
C. festooned
D. enriched

23. The fourth blank should have:

A. habit
B. fashion
C. etiquette
D. tradition

24. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error,
if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is
no error, the answer is 'D'.
 A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.

25. Pick the word/phrase which is most nearly opposite in meaning: ASPIRATION.
A. dislike
B. eagerness
C. passion
D. objective

26. The given sentence has been divided into parts out of which a part may contain
grammatical error.
Either the manager(a)/ or his subordinates (b)/ had failed in his (c)/ duties, because the
project fell apart (d).

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

27. There are two sentences. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five options are given below
the sentence pair. Choose the option that fits both the blanks.
1. Anisha decided to resign after she was passed ___ for promotion again.
2. I will go __ to the shop if you will come with me.

A. Under
B. In
C. Over
D. About

28. Complete the following sentences with the most appropriate words/phrases with
reference to grammar, idioms, proverbs and syntax.
 She wanted him to ___________ the lines but he lacked sufficient understanding of the
situation.

A. Read up all
B. Read between
C. Read for
D. None of the above

29. STUTTER : SPEECH :: ? : ?

A. blare : hearing
B. aroma: smell
C. astigmatism : sight
D. Novocain : touch

30. If the county continues to collect residential trash at current levels, landfills will soon be
overflowing and parkland will need to be used in order to create more space. Charging
each household, a fee for each pound of trash it puts out for collection will induce
residents to reduce the amount of trash they create; this charge will therefore protect
the remaining county parkland.

Which of the following is an assumption made in drawing the conclusion above?

A. The collection fee will not significantly affect the purchasing power of most
residents, even if their households do not reduce the amount of trash t
B. The collection fee will not induce residents to dump their trash in the parklands
illegally.
C. The beauty of county parkland is an important issue for most of the county's
residents.
D. Landfills outside the county's borders could be used as dumping sites for the
county's trash.

31. Last year the rate of inflation was 1.2 percent, but for the current year it has been 4
percent. We can conclude that inflation is on an upward trend and the rate will be still
higher next year.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?
 A. The inflation figures were computed on the basis of a representative sample of
economic data rather than all of the available data.
B. Last year a dip in oil prices brought inflation temporarily below its recent stable
annual level of 4 percent.
C. lncreases in the pay of some workers are tied to the level of inflation, and at an
inflation rate of 4 percent or above, these pay raises constitute a
D. Government intervention cannot affect the rate of inflation to any significant
degree.

32. In an attempt to abate the destructive decline in Micro Chip's revenue brought about
by shrinking demand that is accompanying an economic recession, Micro Chip is
offering customers a 50% discount for the next three months on all purchases fully paid
for within 15 days.

Which of the following assumptions most underlies the chip maker's offer of a
discount?
A. Micro Chip expects this discount to help the company retain existing customers and
gain new ones, enabling the firm to survive in the long-term.
B. The government will provide massive technology tax credits to businesses, spurring
them to purchase chips and other related products.
C. The government will not pursue Micro Chip if in fact its behavior in offering a deep
discount amounts to a violation of predatory pricing laws.
D. The decrease in revenue brought about by the reduction in price will be smaller than
the anticipated increase in revenue brought about by the increase.

33. There is a certain relation between two given words on one side of : : and one word is
given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given
alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the given pair has.
Select the best alternative. Seismography: Earthquake : : Taseometer : ?
A. Landslides
B. Strains
C. Resistances
D. Volcanoes

34. Pick the word/phrase closest in meaning to the given word: Rubicund.
 A. Hated
B. Colourless
C. Open
D. None of the above.

35. Rye sown in the fall and plowed into the soil in early spring leaves a residue that is
highly effective at controlling broad-leaved weeds, but unfortunately for only about
forty-five days. No major agricultural crop matures from seed in as little as forty-five
days. Synthetic herbicides, on the other hand, although not any longer-lasting, can be
reapplied as the crop grows. Clearly, therefore, for major agricultural crops, plowing rye
into the soil can play no part in effective weed control.

The argument is most vulnerable to the objection that it fails to

A. consider that there might be minor, quick-growing crops that do mature in forty-five
days or less
B. identify any alternative method of weed control that could be used instead of the
method it rejects
C. distinguish among the various kinds of synthetic herbicides
D. allow for the possibility of combining the two weed-control methods it mentions

36. Pick the word/phrase most nearly opposite in meaning to the given word: Mercurial.
A. Stable
B. Chemical
C. Emotional
D. Psychological

37. The given sentence has been divided into 4 parts out of which a part may contain
grammatical error.
The Bill was (1) / pushed through Lok Sabha (2) / in spite of opposition (3) / but for little
modification. (4).

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
38. Fill in the blank space with an appropriate choice from the options given thereafter.
Far from being mere replicas of seventeenth-century African culture, Maroon societies
have continually developed as their members have________________the artistic
heritage bequeathed by their ancestors, adapting it creatively to their changing lives.

A. confused
B. repressed
C. denied
D. modified

39. A drug that is highly effective in treating many types of infection can, at present be
obtained only from the bark of the ibora, a tree that is quite rare in the wild. It takes the
bark of 5,000 trees to make one kilogram of the drug. It follows, therefore, that
continued production of the drug must inevitably lead to the ibora's extinction.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

A. The drug made from ibora bark is dispensed to doctors from a central authority.
B. The leaves of the ibora are used in a number of medical products.
C. The ibora can he propagated from cuttings and grown under cultivation.
D. The ibora generally grows in largely inaccessible places.

40. Fill in the blank space: Although the substance is normally quite______________,
scientists found that when tempered with other elements it could be stored safely in
metal containers.
A. voluminous
B. caustic
C. insoluble
D. vapid
Section B: Analytical Reasoning.

41.What will be the number of zeroes at the end of the product of 1, 3, 5, 7, ….., 99?
A. 10
B. 2
C. 5
D. 0

42. The ratio of milk and water in 55 liters of mixture is 7: 4. How much water must be
added to make the mixture’s ratio 7: 6 (in liters)?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 25

43. A mixture of glycerin and water contains 35% glycerin by weight. 25 grams of water
is added to such 100 grams of mixture. What % of glycerin by weight is there in the
new mixture?
A. 25
B. 23
C. 29
D. 28

44. A businessman sells a lot of shirts at a profit of 12.5% and then invests the proceeds
in purchasing a lot of trousers, which he sells at a profit of 20%. If he makes a net
profit of Rs. 700, the cost of the shirts was?
A. 2400
B. 2000
C. 2500
D. 1600
45. A can do a piece of work in 40 days. He worked at it for 5 days then B finished it in
21 days. In how many days can A and B together finish the work?
A. 12 days
B. 15 days
C. 18 days
D. 24 days

46. When 8% of a number is added to the number itself the result is 810. What is the
number?
A. 700
B. 750
C. 722
D. 745.2

47. Ravi got 35% hike in his salary and 20% incentive on sales. If he sold goods worth Rs.
850 last year and the salary was Rs 70, then how much more does he earn this year
with sales of Rs.900?
A. 304
B. 204
C. 104
D. 404

48. Two cyclists make the same journey by travelling at 9 km/hr and 10 km/hr
respectively. Find the distance traveled by them when one takes 32 minutes longer
than the other.
A. 42
B. 46
C. 48
D. 52
49. A sum of Rs. 3200 invested at 10% per annum compounded quarterly amounts to
Rs. 3362. Then the time period is:
A. 6 months
B. 7 months
C. 8 months
D. 9 months

50. The population of a city increases by 10% annually. If it is 31200 now, then its
approximate population two years ago was?
A. 25785
B. 28500
C. 25781
D. 25680

51. If the price of wheat rises by 9%, by what percent should Ramesh reduce the
consumption so as not to exceed the budget on Wheat?
A. 1%
B. 8.25%
C. 10%
D. 10.5%

52. The number of students in 3 classes is in the ratio 2:3:4. If 12 students are increased
in each class this ratio changes to 8:11:14. The total number of students in the three
classes in the beginning was:
A. 162
B. 175
C. 180
D. 212

Directions for Questions 13 to 16: Study the chart and answer the questions: The pie
chart given here represents the domestic expenditure of a family in percent. Study
the chart and answer the following questions if the total monthly income of the
family is Rs. 33,650.
53. The house rent per month is:
A. Rs.6000
B. Rs.6152
C. Rs.6057
D. Rs.6048

54. The annual savings in the form of provident fund would be:
A. Rs.48456
B. Rs.49612
C. Rs.50122
D. Rs.52316

55. After providential fund deductions and payment of house rent, the total monthly
income of the family remains:
A. Rs.23545
B. Rs.22345
C. Rs.23555
D. Rs.24555
56. The total amount per month, the family spends on food and entertainment
combined together, is:
A. Rs.11432
B. Rs.11441
C. Rs.12441
D. Rs.11241

57. How many terms are there in 20, 25, 30......... 140?
A. 22
B. 25
C. 27
D. 32

58. In a triangle, ABC, the internal bisector of the angle A meets BC at D. If AB = 4, AC = 3

and ∠ A = 60°, then length of AD is:
A. 2 √3
B. (12√3) / 7
C. (15√3) / 8
D. (6√3) / 7

59. The average temperature for Wednesday, Thursday and Friday was 40°C. The
average for Thursday, Friday and Saturday was 41°C. If temperature on Saturday was
42°C, what was the temperature on Wednesday?
A. 39°C
B. 44°C
C. 38°C
D. 41°C
60. The speed of the train going from Nagpur to Allahabad is 100 km/hr while when
coming back from Allahabad to Nagpur, its speed is 150 km/hr. find the average
speed during whole journey.
A. 125 km/hr
B. 75 km/hr
C. 135 km/hr
D. 120 km/hr

61. Find the average of first 97 natural numbers.

A. 47
B. 37
C. 48
D. 49

62. In an examination 80% candidates passed in English and 85% candidates passed in
Mathematics. If 73% candidates passed in both these subjects, then what per cent
of candidates failed in both the subjects?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 27
D. 35

63. If the price of the commodity is increased by 50% by what fraction must its
consumption be reduced so as to keep the same expenditure on its consumption?
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 2/3

64. In how many ways can 8 Indians and, 4 American and 4 Englishmen can be seated in
a row so that all person of the same nationality sit together?
A. 3! 4! 8! 4!
B. 4! 3!
C. 2! 8! 4!
 D. 3! 4!

65. A heap of pebbles when made up into group of 32, 40, 72, leaves the remainder 10,
18 and 50 respectively. Find least number of pebbles in the heaps.
A. 1440
B. 1442
C. 1418
D. 1244

66. Subhash can copy 50 pages in 10 hours; Subhash and Prakash together can copy 300
pages in 40 hours. In how much time can Prakash copy 30 pages?
A. 13 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 10 hours
D. 15 hours

67. In a business, A and C invested amounts in the ratio 2 : 1 , whereas the ratio
between amounts invested by A and B was 3 : 2 . If Rs 157300 was their profit, how
much amount did B receive?
A. Rs. 48,000
B. Rs. 42,000
C. Rs. 48,400
D. Rs. 49,000

68. Consider the following statements:

I. Every equilateral triangle is necessarily an isosceles triangle.

II. Every right-angled triangle is necessarily an isosceles triangle.

III. A triangle in which one of the median is perpendicular to the side it meets, is
necessarily an isosceles triangle.

The correct statements are:

 A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III

69. The selling price of an article after giving two successive discounts of 10% and 5% on
the marked price is Rs. 171. What is the marked price?
A. Rs.200
B. Rs.300
C. Rs.400
D. Rs.250

70. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4
years. The sum is:
A. Rs.702
B. Rs.700
C. Rs.698
D. Rs.690

71. In one hour, a boat goes 14 km/hr along the stream and 8 km/hr against the stream.
The speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is:
A. 10 km/hr
B. 11 km/hr
C. 12 km/hr
D. 14 km/hr

72. A rectangular plot measuring 90 metres by 50 metres needs to be enclosed by wire

fencing such that poles of the fence will be kept 55 metres apart. How many poles
will be needed?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 56
D. 60
73. The distance between two cities A and B is 330 km. A train starts from A at 8 a.m.
and travels towards B at 60 km/hr. Another train starts from B at 9 a.m. and travels
towards A at 75 km/hr. At what time, will they meet?
A. 11 am
B. 12 pm
C. 11:30 am
D. 12:30 pm

74. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60° and the foot of the
ladder is 12.4 metres away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:
A. 14.8 metres
B. 6.2 metres
C. 12.4 metres
D. 24.8 metres

75. P is able to do a piece of work in 15 days and Q can do the same work in 20 days. If
they can work together for 4 days, what is the fraction of work left?
A. 8/15
B. 7/15
C. 11/15
D. 2/11

76. The average weight of three boys A, B and C is 163/3 kg, while the average weight of
three boys B, D and E is 53 kg. What is the average weight of A, B, C, D and E?
A. 52.4 kg
B. 53.2 kg
C. 55.6 kg
D. Data Inadequate
77. If the fifth term of a Geometric Progression is 81 and first term is 16, what will be
the 4th term of the GP?
A. 36
B. 18
C. 54
D. 24

78. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the
hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
A. 150°
B. 180°
C. 160°
D. 120°

79. The ratio of speeds of A:B is 1:4. If B covers a distance in 20 min, A will cover it in:
A. 40 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 80 minutes

80. How many times will a wheel of diameter 98 cm rotate in covering a distance of 308
metres?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 130
D. 140
Section C: General Knowledge

81.Who is the new Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) of the Indian Army?
A. Vikram Singh Rathore
B. Bipin Rawat
C. Velu Nair
D. Birender Singh

82.“BHIM” mobile app has been launched by Union Government to make digital
payments easier. What does “BHIM” stands for?
A. Build Interface for Money
B. Built-up Interface for Money
C. Bi-aural Interface for Money
D. Bharat Interface for Money

83.“Swachh Swasth Sarvatra” initiative has been launched by the Union Health
Ministry in collaboration with which union ministry?
A. Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
D. Ministry of AYUSH

84.Who has been appointed as the new deputy governor of Reserve Bank of India
(RBI)?
A. Abhay Kumar
B. Viral Acharya
C. Suresh Jaiswal
D. Anirudh Jain

85.Which Bollywood personality has been conferred honorary doctorate by the

Maulana Azad National Urdu University?
 A. Aamir Khan
B. Nawazuddin Siddiqui
C. Shahrukh Khan
D. Salman Khan

86.Which of the following is an OPEC country?

A. Russia
B. Kazakhstan
C. Brazil
D. Nigeria

87.The world’s largest single rooftop solar power plant has been opened in which
state of India?
A. Punjab
B. Rajasthan
C. Gujarat
D. Odisha

88.Kempegowda International Airport is located in which city of India?

A. Bangalore
B. Kochi
C. Chennai
D. Hyderabad

89.The Valmiki National Park is located in which state of India?

A. Rajasthan
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. Gujarat
90. The 2016 Indian Premier League (IPL) has been won by which of the following
cricket teams?
A. Rising Pune Supergiants
B. Sunrisers Hyderabad
C. Royal Challengers Bangalore
D. Mumbai Indians
Section D: Reading Comprehension

Read the passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Passage I:

My next pet was a pigeon, the most revolting bird to look at, with his feathers
pushing through the wrinkled scarlet skin, mixed with the horrible yellow down
that covers baby pigeons and makes them look as though they have been
peroxiding their hair. Because of his repulsive and obese appearance, we called
him Quasimodo.
Since he had an unorthodox upbringing, without parents to teach him,
Quasimodo became convinced that he was not a bird at all, and refused to fly. He
walked everywhere. He was always eager to join us in anything we did. He
would even try to come for walks with us. So, you had to either carry him on
your shoulder, which was risking an accident to your clothes, or else you let him
walk behind. If you let him walk, then you had to slow down your own pace to
suit his, for should you get too far ahead you would hear the most frantic and
imploring coos and turn around to find Quasimodo running desperately after
you.

91.The narrator describes the pigeon as a ‘revolting bird’ because

A. he could not fly
B. he had to be carried everywhere
C. he had wrinkled skin covered with yellow feathers
D. he was fat

92.Quasimodo got his name because

A. he was a fat and ugly
B. he was attractive
C. he could not fly
D. he loved behaving like human beings
93.We know that Quasimodo was always eager to go on walks because
A. he walked everywhere
B. he did not know how to fly
C. he complained loudly if he was not taken along
D. he always copied whatever humans did

94.Quasimodo protested when he was

A. left at home
B. lifted on human shoulders
C. taken for a walk
D. left behind during walks

95.The phrase ‘risking an accident to your clothes’ means

A. the bird pecked at their clothes
B. there was a chance of the bird soiling their clothes
C. the bird risked a fall
D. the bird did not like their clothes

Passage II

With the Land Acquisition Bill in the limelight, nobody is talking about the real reforms
that farmers need. The unseasonal rains over the last few years have resulted in
enormous loss of crop output across many States of North India. This has shifted
attention from the issue of land acquisition to other important problems faced by
farmers in India. While it is important to debate the various clauses of the Land
Acquisition Bill — what might benefit the farmers and what goes against their
interests — it is also important for the government to pay attention to the bigger
problems that Indian farmers face. The findings from a survey conducted by the
Centre for the Study of Developing Societies in late 2013 among 5,480 farmers across
18 States in the country present a rather dismal picture of agriculture today. Most
conversations with farmers reveal how income returns are very low, irrigation
facilities are inadequate and supporting infrastructure is largely absent or are of poor
quality. Besides, crops also get destroyed either by drought or by floods. It is no
wonder that the survey indicates that more than one-fifth (22 per cent) of the farmers
have begun to dislike farming. The scarcity of financial resources for farming is
another major issue. Unsurprisingly, the study indicated that one-third of the farmers
had taken a loan in the last five years for meeting personal or farming needs. For non-
farming purposes, most of them had to depend on either friends or moneylenders.

96.Which of the following statements is best supported by the passage?

A. Income returns are adequate in farming business.
B. Government is providing enough irrigation facilities to the farmers.
C. Land Acquisition bill is not the only reason of concern for farmers.
D. Loans are making the farmers financially independent

97.Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

A. Farmers are only concerned about the Land Acquisition Bill.
B. Farming has become a very less lucrative work for farmers.
C. Land Acquisition Bill will make the farmers financially strong.
D. Most of the farmers are in favor of the Land Acquisition Bill.

98.Which one of the following weakens the conclusion drawn in the above passage?
A. Both financial and infrastructural factors affect the business of farming.
B. For arranging financial resources, both for farming and personal purpose,
farmers have to depend upon outsider’s money.
C. Farmers are able to earn sufficient income from farming to meet their basic
requirements.
D. Irrigation facilities along with other infrastructural facilities are inadequately
provided to the farmers.

99.What does the term ‘dismal picture of agriculture’ means in the passage?
A. Agriculture sector is prospering day by day.
B. Favorable factors are helping agriculture sector to grow.
C. There is a sudden boom in the agriculture sector.
D. Agriculture sector is going through a very bad phase these days.
100. According to the passage, which of the following resource is scarce in farming
sector?
A. Natural Resource
B. Financial Resource
C. Technological Resource
D. Human Resource

Passage III

With the passage of a tough new law to deal with black money kept abroad—the
Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Bill,
2015—and introduction of the Benami Transaction (Prohibition) Bill in the Lok Sabha
on the last day of the budget session, the government has demonstrated that it has
the political will to address the menace of black money. The Black Money Bill, which
seeks to unearth unaccounted funds and assets stashed by Indians abroad and
provides for 120 per cent tax and penalty in addition to a 10-year jail term, will
become law after getting assent of the president, having already been passed by both
Houses of Parliament. The government has also armed itself to attach domestic
property of equivalent value of such offenders. Crucially, the Lok Sabha Speaker had
notified the Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets (Imposition of Tax) Bill as a
Money Bill. This meant that after the Lok Sabha had approved the bill, the Rajya Sabha
where the government is in a minority had to act on it within 14 days of receiving it, or
it would have been deemed to have been passed by that House. If the Rajya Sabha
makes changes or rejects a Money Bill, the Lok Sabha has the power to accept or not
accept the recommendations and it will be considered passed. It is now for the
government to ensure that the new laws are implemented transparently and not
applied selectively through misuse of the implementation machinery. For the first
time in decades, the assault on black money is well on course. This apparent
stranglehold on the black money menace must not be allowed to be sabotaged.
Indeed, after this assault on black money held abroad begins to bear fruit, due
attention needs to be given to tax evasion within the country which is an equally big
menace.
101. According to the passage, the Black Money Bill has been passed to:
A. Distribute the Black money amongst the citizens of the country.
B. Use the black money for the development of the country.
C. Dig the unaccounted funds and assets stored by Indians abroad.
D. Bring equality of income all over India.

102. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

I. After a Bill gets approved in Lok Sabha, it is deemed to have been passed by Rajya
Sabha.
II. If Rajya Sabha makes any changes in the bill previously passed by the Lok Sabha;
then the Lok Sabha has the power to accept or not accept the recommendations
and it will be considered passed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only (I)
B. Both (I) and (II)
C. Only (II)
D. Neither (I) Nor (II)

103. What does the term ‘Assault on Black Money’ means in the passage?
A. Utilising the black money for economic growth.
B. Keeping an eye on the black money stored by the Indians abroad.
C. A raid on the black money stored by the Indians abroad.
D. Transferring the black money from to India abroad.

104. What punishment will be given to the people caught with black money stored
abroad?
A. 120% tax & penalty
B. 10-year jail term
C. 120% tax & penalty or 10-year jail term
 D. 120% tax & penalty and 10-year jail term

105. According to the passage, other than penalty and jail term, what can be further
demanded from the people who will get caught with black money stored abroad?
A. Attach domestic property of equivalent value to the black money stored.
B. Detach domestic property of equivalent value to the black money stored.
C. Attach domestic income of equivalent value to the black money stored.
D. Attach domestic liability of equivalent value to the black money stored.

Passage IV

Rising inflation, coupled with a new packaging legislation, will make price hikes of
packaged foods inevitable, says the Divisional Chief Executive of ITC's foods division.
On one hand the costs of inputs such as raw material, furnace oil and packaging
material and even logistics have gone up, while on the other, the new packaging law
that bans producers from reducing the quantity inside the packet, will leave them
with no choice but to raise prices. This new Legal Metrology Act is likely to come into
force shortly. At present, FMCG companies rely on reduced quantity to tackle rising
inflationary pressure on input costs rather than changing the price points owing
mainly to coinage issues. The new Act will make the price-point concept impossible,
he said. On the demand-supply side, he said the company had to make a lot of efforts
to meet the spurt in demand for its cream biscuits. Giving an example, he said the
company's premium range offerings such as Dark Fantasy and Dream Cream Bourbon
have witnessed a growth of 118% in the second quarter over the first. Even other
Sunfeast premium creams have shown a growth of 72 percent in Q2 over Ql.
Responding to a question on competition from global brands such as Oreo (from Kraft
Foods), McVitie's from (United Biscuits), and domestic brands such as Parle and
Britannia, he said international competition is a reality. It is good, as it aids
'premiumisation' of the category. He said this has actually enriched Sunfeast's
portfolio last year. On the domestic front, given the emerging trends in consumption
patterns, the biscuit market offers enormous opportunities, scope for improvement
both in terms of new products and segments and also in terms of operational
excellence. 'The field of play is large and we are encouraged and really excited about
the years ahead,' he said. At present ITC's Sunfeast is the third largest national player
after Parle and Britannia. The brand has 10% cent share of the ` 15000 crore biscuit
market. And, within this, in the creams segment (which accounts for over ` 3500
crore) Sunfeast commands 15% share.

106. The new Legal Metrology Act is in respect of:

A. the legalities involved in weather forecasting
B. anything that has to be marketed in Metro cities
C. packaging of biscuits only
D. packaged foods in general

107. How has competition from foreign brands affected the Indian biscuit market?
I. Only the three largest manufacturers survived; while the smaller ones withered
away.
II. The range of categories available to the Indian consumers has expanded.
III. The foreign brands got restricted to premium categories only; leaving the field
open to domestic brands in non-premium categories.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. Only II
D. I, II and III

108. The price-point concept discussed in the passage is referring to

A. fixing prices of packaged foods in round figures for ease of payment at the
point of purchase
B. prices to be fixed by the government
C. variations of prices from point-to-point in any city
D. None of the above
109. What are the two factors that make price hikes inevitable according to the
passage?
A. Rising inflation with new packaging legislation
B. Rising deflation with new packaging legislation
C. Legal issues and market imperfections
D. Pricing policies undertaken by market forces with unchanged packaging
legislation

110. It can be accurately inferred from the passage that

A. Parle is the largest selling brand of biscuits in India
B. Sunfeast is the third largest selling brand of cream biscuits in the country
C. competition from foreign brands has adversely affected the sales of Sun feast
D. All of the above
Section E: Computer and Business Fundamentals

111. A light sensitive device that converts drawing, printed text or other
images into digital form is
A. Keyboard
B. Plotter
C. Scanner
D. OMR

112. In order to tell Excel that we are entering a formula in cell, we must begin with
an operator such as
A. $
B. @
C. +
D. =

113. Which of the following memory is non-volatile?

A. SRAM
B. DRAM
C. ROM
D. All of the above

114. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2010 is _______.

A. *.doc
B. *.docx
C. *.pdf
D. *.txt

115. One MB is equal to?

A. 1024 Bytes
B. 1024 KB
 C. 1000 KB
D. 1024 GB
116. Which of the following does not fall within the jurisdiction of MRTP
commission?
A. Prevention of Monopolistic Trade practices
B. Prevention of Restrictive trade practices
C. Prohibition of Unfair Trade Practices
D. Regulation of Combinations

117. A situation in which the number of competing firms is relatively small is known
as
A. Monopoly
B. Perfect competition
C. Monopsony
D. Oligopoly

118. ________ is an economic system based on the principal of free enterprise.

A. Capitalism
B. Socialism
C. Mixed Economy
D. Marxism

119. In the recent ordinance of SEBI Law the president of India has empowered the
SEBI chairman to order searches and seizures on which subject?
A. Inside Trading
B. Foreign Direct Investments
C. Illegal Trade
D. Ponzi Schemes

120. The QIP in an economy stands for?

A. Quarterly Investment Programme
B. Qualified Investment Project
C. Quality Improvement Programme
D. Qualified Institutional Placement