YABERUS WOLKITE GENERAL AND SECONDARY SCHOOL

GEOGRAPHY REVISION QUESTIONS

UNIT ONE
DIRECTION: Each of the following questions is consists of four possible alternative
answers. Read each question carefully and blanked the letter of your best choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.
1. In which of the following places does sea floor spreading occurs
A. Eurasian plate C. Mid-Atlantic Ridge
B. Marian Trench D. North American Plate
2. All the following are formed at convergent plate margin EXCEPT
A. Mid-oceanic ridge C. Deep Sea trench
B. Fold mountain D. Island arc
3. Which of the following will result from two continental plates colliding?
A. Mid-oceanic ridge C. Deep Sea trench
B. Island arc D. Fold Mountains
4. Plates slide past each other at
A. A hotspot C. a convergent plate margin
B. A transform plate margin D. a divergent plate margin
5. This layer of the earth is liquid in nature
A. crust C. outer core
B. mantle D. inner core
6. What is the name of the Mesozoic supercontinent that consisted of all of the present
continents?
A. Eurasia C. Pangaea
B. Laurasia D. Gondwanaland
7. At a divergent plate margin the crustal plates
A. move towards each other C. move apart from each other
B. slide alongside each other D. sink one beneath the other
8. Fold mountains form when plates of the earth's crust move
A. Away from each other C. towards each other
B. Parallel to each other D. up and down
9. Plates move due to
A. Conventional currents C. Constructive currents
B. Compression currents D. Convection currents
10.Which plate is being subducted beneath western South America?
A. the Pacific plate C. the Nazca plate
B. the South American plate. D. the South Atlantic plate
11.Plate subduction occurs at
A. Convergent plate boundaries C. Mid-oceanic ridges
B. Divergent plate boundaries D. Transforming plate boundaries
12.New oceanic lithosphere forms at
A. divergent plate boundaries C. transform plate boundaries
B. convergent plate boundaries D. all of these are possible

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 1

 13.At convergent plate boundaries where oceanic and continental crust meet
A. no associated volcanism occurs C. continental crust is subducted
B. oceanic crust is subducted D. oceanic crust is created
14.Which is formed where the Eurasian and Indo -Australian plates meet
A. Alps fold mountain C. Himalayas fold mountain
B. Andes fold mountain D. none of the above
15.At convergent plate boundaries where oceanic and continental crust meet
A. no associated volcanism occurs C. continental crust is subducted
B. oceanic crust is subducted D. oceanic crust is created
16.Which is formed where the Eurasian and Indo -Australian plates meet
A. Alps fold mountain C. Himalayas fold mountain
B. Andes fold mountain D. Rockies fold mountain
17.Which is formed where the Eurasian and African plates meet
A. Alps fold mountain C. Himalayas fold mountain
B. Andes fold mountain D. Rockies fold mountain
18.All are a part of southern Pangea (Gondwanaland) except
A. Africa B. Australia C. Europe D. South America
19.As dense basalt to oceanic crust, ------- to continental crust
A. Granite B. Silicate C. Marble D. Slate
20.Who was the German scientist that formulated continental drift theory?
A. Robert Hartshorne C. Waldmir Karl
B. Thomas Malthus D. Alfred Wegener
21.Which one of the following is NOT the evidence suggested by Alfred Wegener to
make his theory acceptable?
A. Fit of the continents C. Match of the continents belt, rock type
B. the spreading of oceanic floor D. Distribution of fossil
22.Weathering refers to
A. The lowering of the land by wearing away the surface of the earth
B. The process by which rocks are breaking in to smaller pieces
C. The process of magma forced out on the surface
D. The final result of erosion
23.A limestone column that hangs down from the ceiling of a cave is called
A. Stalactite B. Stalagmite C. Pillar D. Scree
24.Landforms associated with the upper course of the river
A. Tributaries and confluence C. Delta and flood plain
B. Meanders and U- shaped valley D. Rapid and waterfalls
25.Spit, beach and lagoon are associated with
A. Wind B. seas C. rivers D. glaciers
26. Sofomer cave in Bale formed as a result of
A. Chemical weathering C. Mechanical weathering
B. Physical weathering D. Onion peels off weathering

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 2

 27. Which one of the following physical weathering is common in higher latitude areas
of the world?
A. Exfoliation C. Onion skin weathering
B. Frost action D. Carbonation
28. A volcano that has not erupted during historic time but, will probably erupt again.
A. Active volcanoes C. Dormant volcanoes
B. Extinct volcanoes D. Dead volcanoes
29.A large crater basin shaped depression that forms due to the collapse of the ground
following a major eruption.
A. Vent B. Caldera C. Fissure D. Lava plateau
30. Which one of the volcanoes are formed from viscous, sticky lava that does not flow
easily?
A. Shield volcanoes C. Strata volcanoes
B. Cinder cone volcanoes D. Caldera
31.Which one of the following is NOT true about strata volcanoes?
A. They are the most common volcanic form.
B. They are more cone shaped volcanoes
C. They are known for their large size and low angle slope
D. They are C/zed by a steep profile and periodic, explosive eruption
32. Which one of the following features associated with a subduction zone?
A. Volcanic arc C. Island arc
B. Oceanic trench D. All of the above
33.It is a portion of the earth’s mantle that flows like molten plastic despite being solid.
A. Lithosphere C. Asthenosphere
B. Oceanic crust D. Continental crust
34.A circular funnel shaped depression produced by volcanic eruption?
A. Crater B. Fissure C. Volcano D. Plateaus
35.A bout 90% of the earth’s earthquake occur along
A. The pacific ring of fire
B. A belt between Europe and North Africa
C. Along the Great Rift valley of East Africa
D. Along the mid oceanic ridge
36.The type of erosion which results in a uniform removal of surface soil over a large
area is called
A. Sheet erosion B. Gully erosion C. Rill erosion D. Valley erosion
37.When stalactite and stalagmite converge at a point, resulting land feature is referred
to as
A. Margin B. Pillar C. Edge D. Ridge
38.When the land between parallel faults sinks down, the remaining part of the earth in
either side of the crack is called
A. Block mountain C. Fold mountain
B. Plateau D. Rift valley

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 3

 39.Which one is differ from the others?
A. Meanders B. Gorge C. Waterfall D. Spring
40.Which one of the following Richter's scales of earthquake magnitude shows total
destruction?
A. 6 B. 7 C. 5 D. 9
41.What are the causes of the formation of screes?
A. Chemical weathering C. Denudation
B. Physical weathering D. Convection current
42.Which one of the following pairs of landforms shows similar activities of due to
erosion by river and sea?
A. Gorge and sand dunes C. Delta and beach
B. Flood plains and loess deposit D. Ox-bow Lake and brakhan
43.Which one of the following agents of physical weathering related to frost action?
A. Exfoliation C. Scree
B. Stalagmite D. Stalactite
44.Which one of the following is the major characteristic of the upper course of a river?
A. Slow movement of water C. Formation of V- Shaped valley and water falls
B. Formation of confluence D. formation of Delta and flood plains
45.Volcanism is the process by which
A. Vibration from the crust of the earth spread out in the form of wave in all
direction
B. Molten rock(magma) is forced out onto the surface of the earth
C. Young and old fold mountains are formed
D. Rift valley system is occurred
46.Which one of the following pairs belongs to old fold mountains?
A. Andes, Rocky & Alps C. Cape range & Urals
B. Himalaya, Atlas & Rocky D. Atlas & Cape range
47.Block(horst) mountain is formed when
A. The land between two parallel faults pushed upward due to pressure comes
from inside the earth’s crust.
B. The land between two faults sinks down
C. Pressure is very great and fractures occur in the fold
D. Sudden vibration occurs in the earth.
48.All are intrusive volcanic landforms except
A. Batholith B. Dike C. Crater D. Laccolith
49.Which one of the following is NOT related to endogenic forces?
A. Volcanism C. Denudation
B. Folding D, Earthquake
50.Which of the following internal forces is responsible for the formation of the
Ethiopian rift valley?
A. Earthquake B. Folding C. Volcanism D. Faulting

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 4

 51.Which one of the following IS NOT the effect of earthquake?
A. Land slide and tsunamis C. Devastation of cities and fire
B. Surplus production D. Loss of human and animals’ life
52.Regarding of geographical distribution of Fold Mountains, which one of the
following is correctly matched?
A. Alps __ Asia C. Andes___ north America
B. Atlas ___ north Africa D. Rockies __ Europe
53.The point from which an earthquake waves originate is known as _______
A. Focus B. Epicenter C. Magma D. Core
54.A strip of land along the sea coast covered by varied types of sediments.
A. Beach B. Lagoon C. Spit D. Delta
55.Mass wasting refers to
A. The lowering of the land by wearing away the surface of the earth
B. The process by which rocks are breaking in to smaller pieces
C. The process of magma forced out on the surface
D. The down slope movements of rock, regolith, and soil under the influence of
gravity.
56.The process of breaking of rock layers caused by change of temperature is called
A. Exfoliation B. Scree C. Gorge D. Decomposition
57.A transform faults is conservative boundaries, because;
A. Crust is neither destroyed nor created.
B. New crust is generated by magma pushing up from the mantle
C. Converging plates will move beneath the other
D. The discovery of the seafloor expansion
58.A seismic wave that travels along the earth’s surface and are responsible for much of
the damage and destruction associated with earthquake.
A. Surface wave B. Body wave C. P- wave D. S- wave
59.Which one of the following features is NOT associated with subduction zones?
A. Volcanic arc B. Trench C. Island arc D. Flood plain
60.Which one of the following is NOT the effect of earthquake?
A. Land slide and tsunamis C. High yield of agricultural productivity
B. Devastation of cities and fire D. Loss of human and animals’ life

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 5

 UNIT ONE
ANSWERS

1 C 21 B 41 B
2 A 22 B 42 C
3 D 23 A 43 C
4 B 24 D 44 C
5 C 25 B 45 B
6 C 26 A 46 C
7 C 27 B 47 A
8 C 28 C 48 C
9 D 29 B 49 C
10 C 30 C 50 D
11 A 31 C 51 B
12 A 32 D 52 B
13 B 33 C 53 A
14 C 34 A 54 A
15 B 35 A 55 D
16 C 36 A 56 A
17 A 37 B 57 A
18 C 38 B 58 A
19 A 39 D 59 D
20 D 40 D 60 C

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 6

 YABERUS WOLKITE GENERAL AND SECONDARY SCHOOL
GEOGRAPHY REVISION QUESTIONS
UNIT TWO
DIRECTION: Each of the following questions is consists of four possible alternative
answers. Read each question carefully and blanked the letter of your best choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.
1. When was the First World Climate Conference held?
A. 1988 B. 1990 C. 1979 D. 2001
2. Which organization was responsible for directing the World Climate Programme?
A. United Nations General Assembly
B. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
C. World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
D. International Council of Scientific Unions (ICSU)
3. What was the main outcome of the Toronto Conference on the Changing
Atmosphere?
A. Adoption of the Paris Agreement
B. Establishment of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee
C. Recommendation for a comprehensive global framework convention
D. Recognition of climate change as a common concern
4. When did the Kyoto Protocol come into force?
A. 1988 B. 1990 C. 2005 D. 1997
5. Which assessment report by the IPCC had a significant impact on policy makers and
public opinion?
A. First Assessment Report C. Second Assessment Report
B. Third Assessment Report D. Fourth Assessment Report
6. Which COP meeting reached the Bonn Agreements?
A. COP 6 B. COP 7 C. COP 8 D. COP 9
7. Which country initially announced its intention to withdraw from the Paris
Agreement?
A. China B. United States C. Costa Rica D. Norway
8. What is the objective of the Paris Agreement?
A. Mandatory greenhouse gas emissions reduction targets
B. Voluntary greenhouse gas emissions reduction targets
C. Implementation of the Kyoto Protocol
D. Creation of a global climate change convention
9. Which one of the following countries did not ratify the Kyoto protocol?
A. Japan B. France C. USA D. Germany
10.What does it mean for a country to become carbon neutral?
A. No greenhouse gas emissions reduction targets
B. Offsetting all emissions with tree planting
C. Completely eliminating all greenhouse gas emissions
D. No commitment to reducing emissions
Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 7
 11.What is one essential step in combating climate change?
A. Increasing the use of fossil fuels
B. Reducing reliance on renewable energy sources
C. Transitioning to renewable energy sources
D. Ignoring sustainable development practices
12.What is climate change?
A. A change in weather patterns over a short period of time.
B. A change in the state of the climate that persists for a long duration, typically
decades or longer.
C. A change in the average temperature of the Earth's surface.
D. A change in the regional climate due to human activities.
13.Which of the following is an example of the global climate?
A. The climate in Gondar during the winter.
B. The climate in Gambella, which is warm and humid all year long.
C. The average climate patterns observed worldwide.
D. The climate in the Horn of Africa, which is referred to as a regional climate.
14.Which one of the ff. is the consequence of rising global temperatures?
A. Decreased hurricanes C. Expansion of glaciers
B. Loss of wildlife habitats D. Reduction in sea levels
15.What is global warming?
A. The increase in the average temperature of the Earth over many years.
B. The increase in the strength of hurricanes and tropical storms.
C. The melting of glaciers and polar ice caps.
D. The loss of wildlife habitats due to changes in climate.
16.How are the Earth's air, water, and land interdependent?
A. They have separate and isolated effects on climate change.
B. Changes in one can led to changes in the others.
C. They are not influenced by climate change.
D. Only the air and water are affected by global warming.
17. According to the IPCC, climate change can be caused by:
A. Only natural variability such as volcanic activity or solar radiation.
B. Human activities and their impact on the environment.
C. Changes in the variability of weather patterns over a short period of time.
D. The average temperature of the Earth remaining constant over centuries.
18.Which of the following is NOT a consequence of rising global temperatures?
A. Melting glaciers C. Decrease in sea level
B. Stronger hurricanes D. Loss of wildlife habitats
19.What is the name of the theory that explains how variation in the earth’s orbit affect
climate change?
A. Milinkovic theory C. Newton’s theory
B. Kepler’s theory D. Einstein's theory
Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 8
 20.What are the three "external" causes of climate change?
A. Changes in solar radiation, ocean currents, and volcanic eruptions
B. Changes in the composition of the atmosphere, land use patterns, and solar
output
C. Changes in solar radiation, the composition of the atmosphere, and the Earth's
surface
D. Changes in greenhouse gas emissions, deforestation, and land use changes
21.According to the IPCC, what is the primary cause of climate changes over the last
few decades?
A. Variations in the Earth's orbit
B. Changes in solar output
C. Human (anthropogenic) activity, mainly the burning of fossil fuels
D. Natural phenomena such as volcanic eruptions
22.Which one of the ff. is the main greenhouse gas responsible for the warming of the
lower atmosphere?
A. Nitrous oxide (N2O) C. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
B. Methane (CH4) D. Aerosols
23.Which of the following is NOT an indicator of global warming?
A. Decrease in sea ice C. Decrease in temperature over land
B. Increase in humidity D. Increase in sea level
24.According to the IPCC's Third Assessment Report, which decade was the warmest
worldwide?
A. 1980s B. 2000s C. 1990s D. 2010s
25.Which of the following is the main effects of volcanic eruptions on climate change?
A. They increase the GHG effect by releasing carbon dioxide and methane.
B. They decrease GHG effect by releasing oxygen and nitrogen
C. They cool the surface of the earth by blocking sunlight with ash and dust.
D. They warm the surface of the earth by reflecting sunlight with ash and dust.
26.Which one of the ff. is the primary source of the increased atmospheric
concentration of carbon dioxide?
A. Deforestation and burning of fossil fuel.
B. Natural processes and Volcanic activity
C. Ocean current and variation of solar output.
D. Volcanic eruption and continental drift.
27.By how much has the average global surface temperature warmed in the past
century?
A. 0.8°C B. 1.4°C C. 0.6°C D. 5.8°C
28.Which factor contributes to the rising sea levels?
A. Expansion of oceans as they warm C. Melting of glaciers and ice sheets
B. Decrease in the amount of rainfall D. Increase in average global temperature

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 29.Which activity is NOT categorized as a human cause of climate change?
A. Deforestation C. Transportation emissions
B. Industrial emissions D. Volcanic eruptions
30.How do climate-driven changes in species distributions affect human well-being?
A. They lead to the extinction of certain species
B. They have no direct impact on humans
C. They improve human food supply
D. They can cause emerging diseases and degrade ecosystem health
31. The Milankovitch cycles refer to variations in:
A. Incoming solar radiation C) The Earth's surface
B. Atmospheric composition D) The Earth's orbit
32.What did the IPCC project regard mean global temperatures by the end of the 21st
century?
A. No significant change in temperatures C. An increase of 0.5°C
B. A decrease of 2°C D. An increase of 1.4°C to 5.8°C
33.Which one of the ff. conferences of the parties (COP) emphasised afforestation and
reforestation activities?
A. COP 7 B. COP 6 C. COP 9 D. COP 10
34.One of the following is describe the role of greenhouse gases (GHGs)?
A. Gases that cool the Earth's atmosphere
B. Gases that absorb heat and raise air temperatures near the ground
C. Gases that reduce air pollution
D. Gases that deplete the ozone layer
35.The type of adaptation that takes place after the initial impacts of climate change has
occurred is:
A. Anticipatory C. Reactive
B. Planned D. Autonomous
36.What is a feasible method to reduce the release of the greenhouse gases without
decreasing the production of these gases?
A. Mitigation C. Adaptation
B. Resilience D. Exposure
37.Which renewable energy sources does Ethiopia plan to leverage for electricity
generation?
A. Hydro, geothermal, solar, and wind power C. Oil and nuclear power
B. Coal and natural gas D. Biomass and bioenergy
38.Which one of the ff. is the major consequence of climate change in the northern high
latitude during winter?
A. Increased heat related death C. Coastal ecosystem damage
B. Expansion of boreal forest into Tundra region D. Increased precipitation

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 39.One of the ff. is NOT the impact of the rise of sea level?
A. Coastal ecosystem damage
B. Contamination of ground water supplies with salt water
C. Enhance ground water supplies
D. Exposed storm surges and increased baseline water level
40.Which of the following accurately describes sunspot?
A. Dark areas caused by intense magnetic activity on the surface of the earth.
B. Bright areas caused by intense nuclear reactions on the sun’s surface.
C. Dark area caused by variation in earth’s orbit
D. Bright areas caused by variation in solar radiation on the earth’s surface
41.Which of the following is an example of a mitigation measure to combat climate
change?
A. Research and development on possible catastrophes.
B. Landscape restoration and reforestation.
C. Carbon tax and emission market
D. More secure locations and infrastructure
42.Which sector does the first pillar of the Climate Resilient Green Economy of
Ethiopia focus on?
A. Agriculture C. Forestry
B. Electricity generation D. Transport and industrial sectors
43.Which is the focus of adaptation measure relation to climate change?
A. Reducing vulnerability to climate change impact.
B. Reducing greenhouse gas emission.
C. Increasing energy efficiency
D. Implementing renewable energy sources.
44.What is the purpose of a carbon tax and emission market as mitigation measure?
A. Reducing vulnerability to climate change impact.
B. To promote landscape restoration and reforestation
C. To encourage the use of efficient means of transportation.
D. To reduced greenhouse gas emission.
45.What is the main source of carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions contributing to climate
change?
A. Deforestation C. Volcanic activity
B. Natural gas combustion D. Oceanic processes
46.Which of the following is NOT one of the pillars of Ethiopia's Climate Resilient
Green Economy (CRGE) strategy?
A. Improving crop and livestock production practices
B. Protecting and re-establishing forests
C. Expanding electricity generation from fossil fuels
D. Leapfrogging to modern and energy-efficient technologies in various sectors

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 11

 47.Which renewable energy sources does the third pillar of the Climate Resilient Green
Economy of Ethiopia prioritize?
A. Hydro, geothermal, and solar power
B. Geothermal, wind, and nuclear power
C. Solar, wind, and bioenergy
D. Hydro, solar, and wind power
48.Among the greenhouse gases, which gas has the longest lifespan in the atmosphere?
A. Carbon dioxide (CO2) C. Nitrous oxide (N2O)
B. Methane (CH4) D. Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
49.The fourth pillar of the Climate Resilient Green Economy of Ethiopia aims to
promote energy efficiency and the use of alternative fuels in which sectors? Q50
A. Agriculture and forestry C. Electricity generation and buildings
B. Transport and industrial sectors D. Health and education sectors
50.Which of the following is NOT a human-induced source of aerosols in the lower
atmosphere?
A. Emissions from factories C. Volcanic eruptions
B. Power plants D. Autos and trucks
51.What is the overall trend observed in global temperatures since the 1980s?
A. Each decade has been cooler than the preceding one
B. Each decade has been warmer than the preceding one
C. Temperature has remained constant since the 1980s
D. There is no consistent trend in global temperatures since the 1980s
52.Which type of measures focuses on reducing greenhouse gas emissions?
A. Adaptation measures C. Mitigation measures
B. Both adaptation and mitigation measures D. None of the above

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 12

 UNIT TWO
ANSWERS

1 C 12 B 23 C 34 B 45 A
2 C 13 C 24 C 35 C 46 C
3 C 14 B 25 C 36 A 47 A/D
4 C 15 A 26 A 37 A 48 A
5 A 16 B 27 A 38 B 49 B
6 A 17 B 28 C 39 C 50 C
7 B 18 C 29 D 40 A 51 B
8 B 19 A 30 D 41 C 52 C
9 C 20 C 31 D 42 A
10 B 21 C 32 D 43 A
11 C 22 C 33 C 44 D

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 YABERUS WOLKITE GENERAL AND SECONDARY SCHOOL
GEOGRAPHY REVISION QUESTIONS
UNIT THREE
DIRECTION: Each of the following questions is consists of four possible alternative
answers. Read each question carefully and blanked the letter of your best choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.
1. Which conference introduced the idea of “sustainable development”?
A. Stockholm conference C. Rio de Janeiro conference
B. Nairobi conference D. Johannesburg conference
2. How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are there in the 2030 agenda?
A. 10 B. 17 C. 20 D. 25
3. When and where was the first United Nations Conference on Environment and
Development (UNCED) held?
A. 1972, Rio de Janeiro, Brazil C. 1972, Stockholm, Sweden
B. 1987, Nairobi, Kenya D. 1972, Nairobi, Kenya
4. What is the main point of Agenda 21?
A. To encourage partnership in caring for the environment
B. To define the term "sustainable development “
C. To highlight the link between poverty, underdevelopment, and environmental
protection
D. To place emphasis on the economic aspects of sustainable development
5. Which UNCED conference emphasized the social and economic aspects of
sustainable development?
A. 1972 Stockholm Conference C. 1992 Rio Summit
B. 1987 Nairobi Conference D. 2002 Johannesburg Summit
6. According to one definition, a development path is sustainable if:
A. Total consumption continues to increase
B. Total welfare does not decline over time
C. All environmental regulations are strictly enforced
D. The government invests heavily in renewable energy
7. Which three pillars are considered to be interdependent and mutually reinforcing in
sustainable development?
A. Economic, environmental, and political
B. Economic, social, and environmental
C. Economic, technological, and cultural
D. Environmental, social, and technological
8. Which Ethiopian development plan integrates the SDGs?
A. GTP I B. GTP II C. GTP III D. GTP IV

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 9. The nested rings approach to sustainable development suggests that:
A. The environment is independent of both society and the economy
B. The economy is dependent on both society and the environment.
C. Society is independent of both the environment and the economy
D. All three dimensions of sustainability are equally important
10.An economically sustainable system is one that:
A. Maximizes short-term profits for businesses
B. Produces goods and services sustainably over time
C. Relies heavily on government subsidies
D. Focuses on rapid economic growth at any cost
11.A key challenge for sustainable development is:
A. Accurately measuring the success of different initiatives
B. Obtaining funding from international organizations
C. Integrating the different dimensions of sustainability.
D. Convincing every one of the importance of environmental protection
12.What is the Brundtland Commission's definition of sustainable development?
A. Development that meets the needs of the present and future generations
B. Development that promotes economic growth without harming the
environment
C. Development that ensures equal distribution of wealth and resources
D. Development that prioritizes the preservation of biodiversity
13.Imagine you are a leader creating a development plan for your community. Which
SDG is most relevant to address the issue of food insecurity?
A. SDG 1: No Poverty C. SDG 2: Zero Hunger,
B. SDG 5: Quality education D. SDG 4: Gender equality
14.Why might promoting gender equality (SDG 5) be beneficial for achieving other
SDGs?
A. It can lead to increased economic participation
B. It can improve access to education and healthcare,
C. It can empower women to make decisions about their families' well-being
D. All of the above
15.The economic dimension of sustainable development emphasized on
A. Produce goods and services on a continuous basis
B. Government adequate provision of social services
C. Avoiding overexploitation of non-renewable resources
D. Maintenance of biodiversity and ecosystem

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 16.Which one of the following is NOT the 2030 Sustainable Development Goals of
agenda?
A. Quality education C. Zero hunger
B. Life below water D. Injustice and inequalities
17.What was the main reason for integrating the SDGs into Ethiopia's Growth and
Transportation Plan II (GTP II)?
A. To fulfill Ethiopia's aspirations for poverty eradication and prosperity.
B. To obtain financial aid from international organizations.
C. To comply with international environmental regulations.
D. To improve the country's ranking in global development indices.
18.Which SDG has seen significant progress in Ethiopia through initiatives like
ensuring universal access to education and reducing infant mortality?
A. SDG 1: No Poverty C. SDG 3: Good Health and Well-Being
B. SDG 4: Quality Education D. SDG 6: Clean Water and Sanitation
19.Which one of the following national policies implemented by Ethiopia to align with
the SDGs and address climate change?
A. National Policy on Gender Equality and Women's Empowerment
B. Climate-Change-Resilient Green-Economy strategy (CRGE)
C. National Youth Employment Program
D. Rural Development and Food Security Initiative
20.Which one of the following is the main aim of the concept of sustainable
development?
A. Environmentalization of all major human activities
B. Poverty reduction and economic growth while, considering environmental
sustainability
C. Implementation of green technologies
D. creation of a balanced and just world design
21.Sustainable Development Goals are developed to be achieved by
A. 2015-2025 AD C. 2000-2015 AD
B. 2015-2030 AD D. 2010-2025 AD
22.Which one of the following is the major outcomes of the 1972 Stockholm
conference?
A. The establishment of United Nation Environment Programme(UNEP)
B. The establishment of United Nation Education, Social and Cultural
Organization(UNESCO)
C. The establishment of Millennium Development Goals(MDGs)
D. The introduction of Sustainable Development Goals(SDGs)

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 23.What is the name of the document that was developed at the earth Summit in 1992,
which emphasized the link poverty, environmental protection and natural resource
management?
A. Kyoto Protocol B. Agenda 21 C. MDGs D. Paris Agreement
24.Which Sustainable Development Goals focuses on achieving food security and
promoting sustainable agriculture?
A. Responsible consumption and production C. Zero Hunger
B. Gender equality D. Affordable & clean energy
25.Which one of the following is the criticism of the notion of sustainable
development?
A. The absence of a single concept and implementation difficulties.
B. Benefit only a certain part of humanity
C. controversial methods and internal contradiction
D. All of the above
26.Which one of the ff. is NOT a fund resource?
A. Metallic minerals C. Coal and petroleum
B. Biotic resources D. Ferrous minerals
27.According to Agenda 21, what is the center of concern for sustainable development?
A. Environmental protection
B. Poverty and underdevelopment
C. Social and economic aspect
D. Human being
28.Which one of the following is the mission of the United Nation Environment
programme (UNEP)?
A. To provide leadership in sustainable development
B. To improve the quality of life for the future generations
C. To inspire and enable nations to care for the environment
D. All of the above
29.Which of the following is NOT a main focus area of the Ethiopian Government’s
Growth and Transportation Plan II (GTP II)?
A. Creating conditions for macroeconomic stability
B. Promoting fast and sustained economic development
C. Investing in infrastructure
D. Fostering environmental degradation.
30.In which fiscal year did the implementation of the SDGs in Ethiopia begin?
A. 2012/13 C. 2014/15
B. 2013/14 D. 2015/16

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 31.Which of the following is NOT a noteworthy achievement in the implementation of
the SDGs in Ethiopia?
A. Universal access to quality education
B. Sustainable management of water and sanitation
C. Access to affordable and reliable energy for all
D. Improving health and well-being
32.One of the ff. is the impact of implementing the SDGs on economic development in
Ethiopia?
A. Slowed down economic growth C. No significant impact
B. Accelerated economic development D. Increased inflation rates
33.Which of the following has NOT been achieved in terms of improving health and
well-being in Ethiopia?
A. Reduction in infant and maternal mortality rates
B. Increase in life expectancy
C. Reduction in HIV and malaria deaths
D. Universal healthcare coverage
34.Which of the following is the goal number 8 of sustainable development goal?
A. Clean water & sanitation C. No poverty
B. Decent work & economic growth D. No hunger
35.Which of the following best represents the social pillar of sustainable development?
A. Promoting gender equality and social justice
B. Maximizing profits for businesses
C. Exploiting natural resources without regard for the environment
D. Increasing economic growth at all costs
36.Agenda 21 was the outcome of which conference?
A. Earth summit 1992 C. Stockholm conference 1972
B. World summit 2002 D. Brundtland Report 1987
37.Sustainable development seeks to achieve a balance between:
A. Social, economic, and cultural aspects
B. Economic growth, social justice, and environmental protection
C. Environmental degradation and economic prosperity
D. Poverty eradication and profit maximization for businesses
38.Where was the sustainable development explained for the first time?
A. World development report C. First earth summit report
B. Brundtland commission report D. Human development report
39.The SDGs are set in 2015 by United Nation are intended to achieved by?
A. 2025 B. 2020 C. 2030 D. 2040

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 40. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of renewable resources?
A. They can regenerate through reproduction or recycling
B. They have a high rate of regeneration
C. They are limited in supply and do not naturally replenish
D. They are primarily composed of living organisms
41.What is another term for non-renewable resources?
A. Flow resources C. Biotic resources
B. Renewable resources D. Fixed or fund resources
42.Which one of the following is examples of biotic renewable resources?
A. Coal and petroleum C. Solar energy and water
B. Animals and plants D. Ferrous and nonferrous metals
43. Resource disputes often involve uneven geographic distribution, which can be
problematic when:
A. Resources are concentrated in urban areas.
B. Different regions depend on different resources.
C. Resource distribution overlaps with ethnic or religious boundaries.
D. There are complex land ownership rights.
44.In complex situations, resource governance may involve:
A. Only formal, state-based institutions.
B. Only customary practices and traditions.
C. A mix of formal and customary systems.
D. Informal agreements between private companies.
45.Which of the following is NOT a typical driver of resource conflicts?
A. Conflict over resource ownership
B. Conflict over control of the media
C. Conflict over access to resources
D. Conflict over distribution of revenue and benefits
46.Which type of scarcity occurs when population growth outstrips resource
availability?
A. Demand-induced scarcity C. Structurally induced scarcity
B. Supply-induced scarcity D. Environmental scarcity
47.Who strongly opposed the "Nile River Basin Cooperative Framework"?
A. Egypt and Sudan C. International law commission
B. Middle stream countries D. Upstream countries
48.Resource conflicts are typically categorized based on the primary resource involved.
Which of the following is a typical resource category?
A. Technology B. Labor C. Water D. Education

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 49. Which one of the following unique characteristics can shape the dynamic of natural
resource conflicts?
A. Resource scarcity and abundance of a particular resource
B. The involvement of various actors and stakeholders
C. Geographical patterns of resource distribution
D. All of the above
50.Which one of the following is a type of scarcity that occur when different groups in
a society face unequal resource access?
A. Demand-induced scarcity
B. Supply-induced scarcity
C. Structural scarcity
D. Both structural and supply- induced scarcity
51.All are the causes of structural scarcity. BUT ONE
A. Poor NRM C. Cultural practices
B. Equal access of resource D. Poverty
52. Which one of the following is a type of scarcity that occur when the demand for a
specific resource exceeds the available supply?
A. Demand-induced scarcity
B. Supply-induced scarcity
C. Structural scarcity
D. Both structural and supply- induced scarcity
53.Which one of the following factors contribute to structural scarcity?
A. Discriminatory policies
B. Supply scarcity
C. Demand scarcity
D. Equal access of resources
54.Which one of the following is NOT a factor that can contribute to conflict over the
use and management of renewable natural resource?
A. Unclear or overlapping resource rights and laws
B. Discriminatory policies that marginalized certain groups
C. Lack of public participation and transparency in decision making
D. Equal distribution of benefit and burdens from developmental project
55.Which one of the following a potential grievance that can arise from poor
governance of renewable natural resources?
A. Clear and transparent decision making processes
B. Adequate compensation for damage to resources
C. Lack of public participation and transparency in decision making
D. Equal distribution of benefit and burdens from developmental project

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 56.How does poor governance of renewable natural resources and the environment
affect peace and stability?
A. It enhances peace and stability by reducing competition and conflict over
resources.
B. It reduces peace and stability by increasing competition and conflict over
resources.
C. It has no effect on peace and stability as resources are abundant and accessible
to all.
D. It depends on the type and location of the resources and the level of
governance.
57.Which one of the following is a type of poor governance that leads to poor resource
and environmental management?
A. Unclear resource rights and laws
B. Public Participatory in decision-making
C. Transparent and accountable institutions
D. Equitable and inclusive access from development projects.
58.Which one of the following is the key factor in poor natural resource management
in rural areas?
A. The lack of state capacity to enforce laws and resolve disputes
B. The abundance of state capacity to enforce laws and resolve disputes
C. The presence of state capacity to enforce laws and resolve disputes
D. The relevance of state capacity to enforce laws and resolve disputes
59.Which one of the following is correct about cooperative interactions to conflictive
interactions over shared water resources in the past 50 years?
A. Cooperative interactions are rare.
B. Conflictive interactions are more common.
C. Cooperative interactions have been more than twice of conflictive
interactions.
D. Equal occurrence of both types of interactions.
60.According to the UN Charter and international law principles, what are the two
major requirements for countries utilizing their resources?
A. Unlimited exploitation and development
B. No harm to others and sharing and cooperation
C. Isolationism and independence
D. Strict conservation without sharing
61.How many incidents of acute conflicts over water have been documented since
1948?
A. 37 B. 158 C. 295 D. 106

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 62.Which one of the following is the main aim of cooperative interactions over shared
water resources?
A. Exploitation of water resources
B. Avoidance of any interaction
C. Resolving conflicts through negotiation and cooperation
D. Ignoring international agreements
63.Which countries have signed the “Nile Rive Basin Cooperative Framework” in
2010?
A. Egypt and Sudan C. Upstream countries
B. Downstream countries D. Egypt and Ethiopia
64.A type of transboundary dynamics and pressures that can cause conflicts over
renewable natural resources?
A. Unequal consumption of shared resources
B. Collaborative soil and water conservation
C. Transparent and accountable use of resource
D. Equitable water shared agreement
65.Which one of the following countries are made successful cooperation in resolving
tension over Mesopotamia marshlands?
A. Ethiopia and Egypt C. Palestine and Israel
B. Iran and Iraq D. Turkey and Spain
66.Which of the following is example of demand-induced scarcity?
A. Environmental degradation reducing the supply of specific resource
B. Population growth increasing the demand for a specific resource
C. Different groups facing unequal resource access
D. Poor enforcement of resource right and laws
67.Which one of the following is NOT the main purpose of the Nile Basin Initiative
(NBI)?
A. To coordinate the management of the Nile Basin
B. To promote peace and security among its member states
C. To promote balanced and fair utilization of the river between upstream and
downstream countries
D. To facilitate the construction of hydroelectric power solely to downstream
states
68.According to International Law Commission (ILCs), how should water course states
utilized an international water course?
A. Equitable and reasonable manner
B. To deplete the ecosystem of the international water course
C. With causing significant harm to other state
D. To ignore the exchange of data and information between countries.

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 69.Which of the following is NOT an approach to increase livelihood opportunities
and reduce vulnerability to resource scarcity?
A. Livelihood diversification
B. Improving the efficiency of resource dependent livelihoods
C. Enhancing conflict intensity
D. Livelihood adaptation programs
70.What interventions can be provided as part of emergency livelihood support?
A. Market support and production support
B. Improving efficiency of resource-dependent livelihoods
C. Adding value to raw goods in the value-chain
D. Life-saving interventions such as food distribution and health care.
71.What is the main purpose of conflict prevention strategies?
A. To avoid, minimize, resolve and contain conflict
B. To escalate conflict to violence
C. To exploit natural resources for economic gain
D. To prioritize political and institutional responses
72.Which indigenous conflict resolution system is used by the Somali people?
A. Gadaa B. Mada’a C. Shimagle D. T’eer
73.Which one of the following challenges that can hinder good natural resource
governance?
A. Clear resource rights and laws.
B. Equitable distribution of benefits and burdens.
C. Public participation and transparency in decision-making.
D. Discriminatory resource policies and lack of environmental assessments.
74.Which one of the following approach to increase livelihood opportunities and
reduce vulnerability to resource scarcity?
A. Expanding reliance on a single scarce resource
B. Increasing the value added to existing resources
C. Reducing agricultural extension and inputs
D. Focusing on protection of natural capital only
75.Which one of the following is NOT correct about indigenous conflict resolution
practices?
A. Widely used in rural Ethiopia due to limited access to formal systems.
B. Rooted in cultures and customs, uniform among ethnic groups.
C. Involve elders and clan leaders guided by unwritten laws.
D. Aim for reconciliation, win-win solutions, and coexistence.

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 76.Which international convention highlights the importance of indigenous rights in
natural resource management?
A. Convention on Cultural Diversity (CCD)
B. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
C. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
D. United Nations Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples (UNDRIP)
77.Which one of the following is the main benefit of using indigenous conflict
resolution practices in Ethiopia?
A. They are faster and more efficient than the formal system.
B. They are based on traditional knowledge and respect for nature.
C. They are better equipped to handle complex inter-ethnic conflicts.
D. They promote lasting peace and reconciliation between communities.
78.Which one of the following is the most general definition of a resource?
A. Any element or substance used in manufacturing.
B. Any factor contributing to economic growth.
C. Any element or substance useful for human needs.
D. Any non-living component of the environment.
79.What characteristic distinguishes renewable resources from non-renewable
resources?
A. Their geographic distribution
B. Their economic value
C. Their rate of regeneration
D. Their origin as biotic or abiotic
80.Why are most mineral resources classified as non-renewable resources?
A. They are too expensive to extract.
B. They are harmful to the environment.
C. They are not found evenly distributed worldwide.
D. They take millions of years to naturally replenish.
81.Which term is used to describe resources that are limited in quantity and cannot be
replaced?
A. Reoccurring resources C. Flow resources
B. Sustainable resources D. Fixed resources
82.One of the ff. is the main consequence of supply-induced scarcity for livelihood
strategies?
A. Increased investment in resource conservation and protection
B. Reduced options for pursuing productive livelihood activities
C. Increased cooperation and collaboration between user groups
D. Development of new technologies for resource extraction

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 83.How can structural scarcity contribute to resource conflicts even in well-functioning
governance systems?
A. Through limitations in resource delivery infrastructure
B. Due to environmental degradation and natural resource depletion
C. As a result of unequal access to resources based on social factors
D. Through competition for economic benefits from resource exploitation
84.Which statement best describes the role of poverty in resource conflicts?
A. Poor countries are inherently more prone to resource-related conflicts.
B. Poverty can limit access to resources and act as a barrier to conflict
resolution.
C. Wealthy individuals are always at a disadvantage in resource conflict
situations.
D. Poverty has no significant impact on the potential for resource conflicts.

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 UNIT THREE
ANSWERS

1 B 22 A 43 C 64 A
2 B 23 B 44 C 65 B
3 C 24 C 45 B 66 B
4 C 25 D 46 A 67 D
5 D 26 B 47 A 68 A
6 B 27 D 48 C 69 C
7 B 28 D 49 D 70 D
8 B 29 D 50 C 71 A
9 B 30 D 51 B 72 D
10 B 31 A 52 A 73 D
11 C 32 B 53 A 74 B
12 A 33 D 54 D 75 B
13 C 34 B 55 C 76 D
14 D 35 A 56 B 77 D
15 A 36 A 57 A 78 C
16 D 37 B 58 A 79 C
17 A 38 B 59 C 80 C
18 C 39 C 60 B 81 D
19 B 40 C 61 A 82 B
20 B 41 D 62 C 83 C
21 B 42 B 63 C 84 B

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 YABERUS WOLKITE GENERAL AND SECONDARY SCHOOL
GEOGRAPHY REVISION QUESTIONS
UNIT FOUR
DIRECTION: Each of the following questions is consists of four possible alternative
answers. Read each question carefully and blanked the letter of your best choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.
1. What was the central argument of Malthusian Population Theory?
A. Positive checks reduce birth rates
B. Food production increases geometrically
C. Recommendation of Manmade birth controls
D. Rapid population growth leads to underdevelopment
2. Which feature best explains the socioeconomic condition of developed countries?
A. Labor-intensive investments C. High level of urbanization
B. Dominant primary industries D. High proportion of children
3. According to Boserup, population growth is determined by:
A. Technological innovation and agricultural development
B. Using positive and preventive checks
C. Using new social and economic orders
D. Using moral restraints and birth control
4. Which of the following country is most well-known for its anti- natalist policy?
A. Germany B. China C. France D. Italy
5. According to Thomas Malthus, what is the relationship between population growth
and food supply?
A. Population growth will exceed food supply
B. Population growth always outstrip food supply
C. Population and food supply unrelated
D. Population growth may outstrip food supply, leading to poverty and hunger.
6. The population policy of Ethiopia can be rightly categorized as
A. Anti-Malthusian B. Anti- natalist C. Anti- migration D. Pro- natalist
7. Which one of the following is NOT Thomas Malthus recommendation regarding
the population growth challenge?
A. Moral restraint C. late marriage
B. Use of contraception D. preventive checks
8. “Necessity is the mother of innovation “and “population growth leads to
catastrophe” best fit to which population theories, respectively.
A. Malthusian and Boserupian population theory
B. Marxist and Malthusian population theory
C. Boserupian and Marxist population theory
D. Boserupian and Malthusian population theory

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 9. According to Karl Marx, food security among population should be understood in
relation to
A. Unequal distribution of resource
B. The adoption of preventive checks
C. The potential of technological innovation
D. Natural resource degradation
10.Which of the population theories below considers the loss of human life through
drought as a positive check to control fast population growth?
A. Boserupian C. Neo- Malthusian
B. Marxian D. Anti- Malthusian
11.Which one of the following statements shows Esther Boserp’s argument about the
relationship between population growth and food security?
A. Food production is limited and population cannot increase beyond the
means of subsistence
B. If population growth outstrips the means of subsistence, positive check
will apply
C. Technological advancement could ensure that food supply will keep with
population growth
D. The poor are to be blamed for their own poverty
12.What is the focus of Thomas Malthus’s population theory?
A. The power of the earth to produce enough food to meet growing demands
B. The influence of capitalist mode of production
C. The importance of positive checks to regulate population growth
D. The positive effects of population on food production
13.Imagine a given country is highly affected by famine and requests international
communities for aid. However, these communities are unwilling to help the
country. The fact that they believe famine could serve as a means to control
population pressure. Which population theory is related to the issues given above?
A. Boserupian C. Malthusian
B. Anti-Malthusian D. Marxian
14.Which one of the following is the preventive checks suggested by Malthus to
control population growth?
A. Disease and war C. Famine and hunger
B. Moral restraint D. Education and birth control
15.One of the following is NOT a result of rapid population growth
A. Environmental pollution C. fallowing
B. Land degradation D. land scarcity

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 16.The average lifespan of a newly born infant under current mortality levels refers
to
A. Infant Mortality Rate C. Doubling period
B. Dependency ratio D. Life expectancy
17.According to Julian Simon, the ultimate resource is
A. Natural minerals C. People
B. Fossil fuels D. Technology
18.In Ethiopian context, which impact of rapid population growth is critical,
compared to others?
A. Massive air pollution C. High rate of deforestation
B. Shortage of pasture land D. Occurrence of water pollution
19.According to Malthus, why did he believe that human suffering and misery were
inevitable?
A. Because of fast breading of the lower classes
B. Because of inadequate food production techniques
C. Because of government policy
D. Because of overpopulation in urban areas
20.What are the major characteristics of a pro- natalist policy?
A. Seek to increase fertility rate
B. Seek to decrease fertility rate
C. Promote civil liberties
D. Provides access to reproductive health service
21.According to Julian Simon, what is the main causes of food shortage and famine?
A. Overpopulation C. Politics
B. Natural disaster D. Climate change
22.According to Julian Simon, the most significant benefit of population size and
growth is
A. Increase competition for resource
B. Increase in the stock of useful knowledge
C. Strain on existing infrastructure
D. Promote political stability in developing countries
23.According to Julian Simon believe, which one is a key solution to food scarcity in
developing countries?
A. Increase government incentives
B. Subsides to farmer
C. Free market principle and secure property right
D. Decrease agriculture productivity

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 24.Neo- Malthusians differ from Malthus’s theories mainly in their
A. Population growth causes food scarcities
B. Support for the use of contraception
C. holds pessimistic view on population growth
D. Scarcity of food and other resource is the result of capitalism.
25. Which one of the ff. population theory seems to be more related to the current
population characteristics of Ethiopia?
A. Malthusian C. Boserup
B. Marx D. Julian Simon
26.What is Julian Simon’s perspective on population growth?
A. Population growth is always a negative thing
B. Population growth is essential for innovation and economic development
C. Population growth should be controlled through strict regulations
D. Population growth lead to scarcity of resource
27. Which method of population control involves higher taxation for parents with
more children?
A. Family planning C. Child tax
B. Contraception D. One-child policy
28.Which one of the ff. is Julian Simon's criticisms of Malthusian theory?
A. It fails to take into account the role politics in food production
B. It overestimated the world’s capacity for food production
C. It underestimates the role of innovation in sustaining population growth
D. It does not address the issues of property right in agriculture
29.How does capitalism create surplus population, according to Karl Marx?
A. By encouraging population growth
B. By providing ample job opportunities
C. By separating producers from their means of production
D. Distributing resources equally among all classes
30.Which conference in 1974 highlighted the need to introduce family planning
programs and reduce population growth rates?
A. World Economic Forum C. World Population Conference
B. United Nations General Assembly D. G7 Summit
31.What was the main objective of the International Conference on Population and
Development held in Cairo in 1994?
A. To promote economic development in developing countries
B. To link population growth to core development agendas
C. To implement a one-child policy worldwide
D. To encourage migration to control population growth

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 32.Which country has operated a one-child policy for a number of years to control
population growth?
A. India C. China
B. Nigeria D. Ethiopia
33.What is the main focus of India's approach to population issues?
A. Providing free contraception to women
B. Advancing women economically, academically, and socially
C. Enforcing a one-child policy
D. Implementing mass bereavements to control population growth
34.Which continent has the highest birth rates and is expected to have a significant
population growth by 2050?
A. Europe C. Asia
B. Africa D. North America
35.Which one of the ff. is NOT the challenges connected to the execution of
population control policies?
A. Availability of facilities and equipment C. Overuse of contraceptives
B. Accessibility of family planning service D. Religious acceptance
36.The process of increasing personal and institutional capacities for sustainable
improvements in quality of life refers to
A. Growth C. Development
B. Urbanization D. Industrialization
37. Which one of the following is the best measure of economic development of a
given society?
A. GDP C. GNP
B. Per capital income D. Standard of living
38.Which one of the following are the demographic characteristics of developing
countries?
A. Very high life expectancy C. Very low birth and death rate
B. Low life expectancy D. Low population growth rate
39.Which one of the following is NOT an indicator of development?
A. GDP C. Per capital income
B. Standard of living D. Food insecurity
40.Which one of the following is NOT objectives of development in any society?
A. Broaden the distribution of basic life sustaining goods
B. To raise living standards of the society
C. To improve the living standard of gov.t officials
D. To expand the range of economic and social choices

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 41.Which one of the following is a measure of the market value of commodities
produced within a country’s border?
A. GDP C. Per capital income
B. Standard of living D. Life expectancy
42.An indicator of development which describes the total value of goods and services
produced by a country in a year, including incomes secured from abroad, through
varied activities.
A. Gross National Product C. Per capital Income
B. Gross National Income D. Gross Domestic Product
43.By current developmental standards, all are a least developed country. But one
A. Japan C) Ethiopia
B. Afghanistan D) Burundi
44.What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP)? It is
A. a total agricultural output in a country
B. a measure of value of small scale industries
C. the total annual output of goods and service in the country
D. the ratio of total goods and services to total population
45.Which indicator measures the average income earned per person in a given area in
a specified year?
A. GDP C. Per capital income
B. GNP D. Standard of living
46.Gross domestic product (GDP), per capita income and standard of living are to
measure economic development of a country. Accordingly, which one of the
following conclusions is correct?
A. Developing countries have high per capita income.
B. Developing countries have low level of GDP and per capita income.
C. Developed countries have low GDP and per-capita income.
D. Developed countries have high GDP and low living standards.
47.Which indicator measures the percentage of the population living below the
poverty line?
A. Indicator of economic development C. Health and demographic indicator
B. Indicator of social development D. Indicator of political development
48.Standard of living is directly related to
A. GDP C. Per capital income
B. GNP D. Both GDP and per capital income
49.Which health and demographic indicator measures the number of deaths of infants
under the age of one year per 1000 live births?
A. Life expectancy at birth C. Child mortality rate
B. Infant mortality rate D. Maternal mortality rate

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 50.Which category of indicators includes GDP per capital and growth rate of GDP?
A. Indicator of economic development C. Health and demographic indicator
B. Indicator of social development D. Indicator of political development
51.Which one of the ff. is NOT correct about indicators of social dimension?
A. It is the soft dimension of development
B. It reflects social progress and equity
C. Literacy rate and poverty rates are the key indicators
D. It reflects the size and growth of an economy
52.Which one of the ff. is a non-economic factors of economic development?
A. Availability of natural resource C. Capital expenditure
B. Human capital D. Technology
53.Which one of the ff. is NOT the social implication of rapid population growth in
less developed countries?
A. Increased poverty
B. Improve quality of health care
C. Higher unemployment rate
D. Inadequate social service and infrastructure
54.Which one of the ff. is the challenges faced by rapidly growing urban areas?
A. Insufficient housing and sanitation
B. Inadequate water supply and transportation
C. Increased burden on inadequate supplies and services
D. All of the above
55.How does rapid population growth affect food production in less developed
countries?
A. It can put pressure on agricultural system, leading to decrease productivity.
B. It reduces or eliminates food production gain from modernization of farming
C. It encourages practice such as over irrigation and overuse of crop lands
D. All of the above
56.How does the growing population contribute to environmental strain?
A. By reducing waste generation
B. By conserving resource
C. By sharing limited resource among more people
D. By having no impact on the environment
57.Which model of environmental health intervention focuses on treating disease that
has already occurred in the population?
A. Clinical model C. Public health model
B. Environmental stewardship model D. Biological model

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 58.Which option describes the relationship between population growth and
environmental degradation?
A. Population growth leads to increased environmental degradation
B. Population growth has no impact on the environment
C. Population growth lead to decrease environmental degradation
D. There is no relationship between population growth and the environment
59.Which one of the following is NOT one of the key target areas related to
environmental health in Agenda 21?
A. Meeting primary health care needs, particularly in rural areas
B. Controlling communicable diseases
C. Promoting sustainable agriculture
D. Protecting vulnerable groups
60.What percentage of cases of diarrheal diseases in low and middle-income countries
is caused by lack of access to clean water and sanitation?
A. 58% B. 38% C. 78% D. 90%
61.Which of the following is NOT a driver for the emergence of new zoonotic
diseases?
A. Exponential population growth C. Biodiversity loss
B. Intensive livestock breeding D. Reduced air pollution
62.Which of the following is NOT a priority problem area for urgent policy attention
in relation to poor environmental quality and health?
A. Unsafe water, inadequate sanitation, or insufficient hygiene
B. Poor diet composition and quality
C. Degraded ecosystems and stresses to the Earth's natural systems
D. Overpopulation and urbanization

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 UNIT FOUR
ANSWERS

1 D 22 B 43 A
2 C 23 C 44 C
3 A 24 B 45 C
4 B 25 A 46 B
5 D 26 B 47 B
6 B 27 C 48 D
7 B 28 A 49 B
8 D 29 C 50 A
9 A 30 C 51 D
10 C 31 B 52 B
11 C 32 C 53 B
12 C 33 B 54 D
13 B 34 B 55 D
14 B 35 C 56 C
15 C 36 C 57 A
16 D 37 D 58 A
17 C 38 B 59 C
18 C 39 D 60 A
19 B 40 C 61 D
20 A 41 A 62 D
21 C 42 A

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 YABERUS WOLKITE GENERAL AND SECONDARY SCHOOL
GEOGRAPHY REVISION QUESTIONS
UNIT FIVE
DIRECTION: Each of the following questions is consists of four possible alternative
answers. Read each question carefully and blanked the letter of your best choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.
1. A kind of poverty which is characterized by a condition of having fewer resources
or less income than others within a given society is called?
A. Absolute Poverty C. Extreme Poverty
B. Relative Poverty D. Intermediate Poverty
2. Which type of poverty refers to households receiving 50% less income than the
average household income?
A. Absolute poverty C. Relative poverty
B. Persistent poverty D. Extreme poverty
3. Essentially, poverty is a global phenomenon. Hence, all parts of the world
experience it at varying scales. In which of the ff. pairs of region contrasting degree
of poverty is seen?
A. Western Asia and Central Asia
B. Western Europe and Sub-Saharan Africa
C. Northeast USA and Central America
D. East Asia and the Caribbean
4. According to UN those countries are considered relative poor where per capita
income is less than:
A. 4 dollars B. 3 dollars C. 1 dollar D. 2 dollars
5. What percentage of the world’s population lived in extreme poverty in 2015?
A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40%
6. Which type of poverty can change depending on the economic growth of the
country?
A. Absolute poverty C. Relative poverty
B. Extreme poverty D. Ultimate poverty
7. A type of poverty which people’s lacks to fulfill their basic necessities.
A. Absolute Poverty C. Persistent Poverty
B. Relative Poverty D. Ultimate Poverty
8. Relative poverty is described as "relative deficiency" because:
A. People in this category lack access to basic needs like food and shelter.
B. They have some money but cannot afford anything beyond basic
necessities.
C. They enjoy the same standard of living as everyone else in the country.
D. They are trapped in a low relative income box.

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 9. What is the concept of persistent poverty?
A. Persistent poverty is when a person or family receive 50% or 60% less
income for consecutive years.
B. Persistent poverty is when a person or family has no income for
consecutive years.
C. Persistent poverty is when a person or family cannot afford basic needs of
life for consecutive years.
D. Persistent Poverty is the state of lacking basic needs to meet a standard of
living.
10.What are the two main categories into which the causes of poverty can be divided?
A. Economic and social reasons
B. Structural and behavioral/cultural explanations
C. Political and environmental factors
D. Individual choices and systemic issues
11.Which approach attributes poverty to systemic issues such as discrimination and
lack of investment?
A. Structural approach C. Cultural approach
B. Behavioral approach D. Individual approach
12.Which one of the ff. is NOT measure and indicators used to study dimension of
poverty?
A. Income C. Globalization
B. Access to social service D. Healthcare
13.The behavioral or cultural approach emphasizes the role of ______ in perpetuating
poverty.
A. Government policies C. Individual responsibility and cultural factors
B. Economic instability D. Lack of social support
14.According to the structural approach, what are some of the fundamental causes of
poverty?
A. Lack of education and healthcare C. Poverty culture and attitudes
B. Racial and gender discrimination D. Personal differences and behaviors
15.When examining the causes of poverty, it is important to consider factors such as:
A. Lack of income and assets C. Sense of powerlessness in society
B. Vulnerability to adverse shocks D. All of the above
16.To understand poverty comprehensively, it is helpful to analyze:
A. People's income levels
B. People's cultural backgrounds
C. People's assets and their productivity
D. Government policies and interventions

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 17.Which perspective on poverty is commonly associated with those on the political
left?
A. Structural approach C. Cultural approach
B. Behavioral approach D. Individual approach
18.The poverty culture refers to attitudes and behaviors that:
A. Promote economic mobility C. Are inherited genetically
B. Hinder economic mobility D. Are influenced by government policies
19.Which of the following is considered a fundamental cause of poverty in Western
economies according to the structural view?
A. Fatalism C. White privilege
B. Self-defeating decisions D. Lack of education
20.According to the behavioral perspective, what hinders labor market attractiveness
and parenting capabilities?
A. Free will C. Structural factors
B. Profit motive D. Attitudes like fatalism
21.Which of the following is NOT a hypothesis regarding the relationship between
conflict and poverty?
A. Conflict causes poverty
B. Poverty causes conflict
C. Resource wealth causes conflict
D. Poverty reduces the likelihood of conflict
22.What is one of the direct impacts of conflict on poverty?
A. Increase in government revenue C. Rise in food production
B. Decrease in GDP per capita D. Expansion of exports
23.Conflict-affected countries generally experience a rise in gross investment during
and after the conflict.
A. True B. False
24.Is poverty considered a deterministic cause of conflict?
A. Yes, poverty always leads to conflict.
B. No, poverty may interact with other factors to produce conflict.
C. Poverty has no impact on conflict.
D. Poverty is the sole cause of conflict.
25. What is globalization?
A. The process through which countries become isolated.
B. The process through which the world becomes more linked through
commerce and cultural interaction.
C. The reduction of global trade and communication.
D. The expansion of local businesses to an international level.

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 26.Which of the following best describes the impact of globalization on companies?
A. Companies have become more national, focusing on domestic markets.
B. Small companies have replaced multinational corporations.
C. Multinational corporations with subsidiaries in many countries have
become more common.
D. Globalization has decreased the production of goods and services.
27.How has globalization affected local traditions and cultures in developing
countries?
A. It has had no significant impact.
B. It has led to the preservation of local traditions and cultures.
C. It may lead to changes in local traditions and cultures as global influences
become more prevalent.
D. It has completely eradicated local traditions and cultures.
28.Which statement reflects a negative connotation of globalization in developing
countries?
A. Globalization has increased educational opportunities worldwide.
B. Local businesses in developing nations can go bankrupt due to competition
from large corporations.
C. Globalization has been happening for only a few decades.
D. Countries view themselves as part of the world as a whole.
29.Who has benefited more from globalization?
A. Developing countries, as they can sell more goods and products globally.
B. Developed countries, as they can sell more goods and products to the
global South.
C. Both developed and developing countries equally.
D. Neither, as globalization has only negative impacts.
30.What has globalization increased between countries?
A. Cultural barriers C. Free trade
B. War likelihood D. Economic isolation
31.Which of the following best describes the current trend of globalization?
A. Countries focusing on their national identities
B. Countries joining together economically and politically
C. Countries isolating themselves from global interactions
D. Countries emphasizing local traditions and cultures
32.What are some negative consequences of globalization in developing countries?
A. Increased economic opportunities for local businesses
B. Preservation of local traditions and cultures
C. Dominance of multinational corporations in the economy
D. Limited access to global markets for developing nations

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 33.How does globalization contribute to economic growth in developing countries?
A. By imposing trade barriers to protect domestic industries
B. By discouraging market reforms and radical changes
C. By encouraging foreign investment and job creation
D. By limiting access to global markets and opportunities
34.Globalization has primarily helped developing countries by:
A. Isolating them from the world economy.
B. Increasing trade barriers.
C. Encouraging economic growth and solving poverty problems.
D. Decreasing job opportunities for the people
35.What is the relationship between globalization and education in developing
countries?
A. Globalization has no impact on education systems in developing countries
B. Globalization leads to a decrease in the rates of illiteracy in developing
countries
C. Globalization hinders the development of higher education in developing
countries
D. Globalization causes a brain drain as skilled workers migrate to developed
countries
36.What role have the World Bank and International Management played in
globalization for developing countries?
A. Discouraged market reforms and changes.
B. Encouraged developing countries to go through market reforms and radical
changes through large loans.
C. Increased tariffs and restricted economies.
D. Promoted self-sufficiency without global trade.
37.Which of the following is a negative consequence of globalization in terms of
employment?
A. Creation of job opportunities in developing nations.
B. Decrease in poverty rates worldwide.
C. Skilled workers migrating to developed countries for better prospects.
D. Improved living standards and life expectancy in developing nations.
38.Globalization's impact on culture in developing countries can be seen as:
A. Having no real effect on cultural traits.
B. Enhancing the preservation of local culture, tradition, and identity.
C. Leading to the disappearance of many cultural words and expressions.
D. Decreasing the influence of Western cultures like America and European
countries.

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 39.How has globalization impacted global mass media?
A. It has decreased the flow of communication between individuals and
corporations
B. It has limited the sharing of vital information between countries
C. It has tied the world together through increased communication
D. It has restricted the transportation of goods and people
40.Which of the following is a disadvantage of globalization?
A. Increased environmental protection efforts
B. Decreased environmental integrity due to weak regulatory rules in
developing nations
C. Eradication of cultural barriers
D. Greater ease and speed of transportation of goods and people
41.What is the convergence hypothesis in the context of global economic inequality?
A. It suggests that more developed countries will continue to grow faster than
less developed ones.
B. It states that less developed countries and regions should grow faster than
more developed ones.
C. It implies that all countries will eventually reach the same level of economic
development.
D. It indicates that economic inequality will increase over time.
42.Which of the following is a reason why less developed economies might grow
faster according to the convergence hypothesis?
A. They have higher labor wages and input costs.
B. They can adopt and exploit existing technologies.
C. They have a larger amount of labor shifting from industry to farm.
D. They face increasing returns to input factors.
43.What does the divergence hypothesis suggest about global economic inequality?
A. It will remain constant over time.
B. It is decreasing due to technological advancements.
C. It is increasing, especially due to factors like technological development.
D. It is irrelevant in the modern economic growth model.
44.What is a trade imbalance?
A. When a country's exports exceed its imports.
B. When the cost of a country's imports exceeds the cost of its exports.
C. When a country's imports and exports are equal.
D. When a country stops trading with other countries.
45.What is the most commonly used metric for evaluating global economic disparity?
A. Per capita GDP C. Literacy rate
B. Poverty rate D. Human Development Index

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 46.Which of the following is a cause of a trade imbalance?
A. A country's ability to produce everything it needs.
B. A country borrowing from others to pay for imports.
C. A decrease in company stock prices due to overseas production.
D. An increase in the country's GDP due to imports.
47.In which areas are asset-based and capability-based inequalities higher?
A. Urban areas C. Rural areas
B. Both urban and rural areas D. Large town areas
48.What does economic inequality measure?
A. The disparity between population and resources
B. The distribution of natural ability
C. The relative valuation of leisure and work effort
D. The impact of public policy on resource distribution
49.Which of the following is a feature considered in assessing economic disparity?
A. Distribution of natural ability C. Pressure to work or not to work
B. Relative valuation of leisure and work effort D. All of the above
50.According to the data from the World Bank, what happens to a country's index
value when levels of economic disparity decline?
A. It decreases C. It remains the same
B. It increases D. It remains unchanged
51.What does a Gini coefficient of 0 reflect?
A. Perfect equality C. Maximal inequality
B. Average inequality D. No inequality data available
52.Since 1990 in most developed countries, measures of inequality based on GINI
coefficients of gross and net incomes shows that:
A. They have decreased substantially C. They have increased substantially
B. They have remained stable D. They have remained constant
53.Which of the following factors contribute to economic inequality?
A. Physical attributes C. Social processes
B. Personal preferences D. All of the above
54.In which region is income inequality among the highest in the world?
A. Sub-Saharan Africa C. Europe
B. North America D. Asia
55.Corruption is often defined as:
A. The legal transfer of public assets at market prices.
B. The abuse of entrusted power for private gain.
C. A positive personal attribute.
D. An act that is always explicit and committed by groups.

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 56.What is the relationship between corruption and economic growth?
A. Corruption has no effect on economic growth.
B. Corruption promotes economic growth.
C. Corruption has harmful effects on economic growth.
D. Corruption is necessary for economic growth.
57.Bribery involves:
A. Voluntary donations to public officials.
B. Payments to public officials to influence decisions.
C. Legal transactions within government regulations.
D. The fair distribution of government contracts.
58.‘Kleptocracy' is a term used to describe:
A. Systematic theft at a grand scale by high public officials.
B. Petty corruption involving low-value transactions.
C. The legal use of public funds for intended purposes.
D. The absence of corruption in a political system.
59.What does the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) measure?
A. The economic growth of countries
B. The level of democratic governance in countries.
C. The perceived levels of public sector corruption in countries.
D. The actual incidence of corruption in countries.
60.Which group of countries has the highest CPI scores according to Transparency
International?
A. Countries with moderately corrupt governments.
B. Countries with very corrupt governments.
C. Countries with slightly corrupt governments.
D. Countries with relatively uncorrupt governments.
61.How is the CPI score normalized?
A. From 100 (most corrupt) to 0 (least corrupt).
B. From 0 (most corrupt) to 100 (least corrupt).
C. From 50 (moderately corrupt) to 100 (least corrupt).
D. From 0 (no corruption) to 50 (high corruption).
62.Which region has the largest number of countries with very corrupt governments?
A. Scandinavia. C. Africa and the Middle East.
B. North America. D. East Asia
63.Which group of countries has the least corrupt governments?
A. European countries
B. Middle Eastern countries
C. African countries
D. Canada, Singapore, Australia, and New Zealand

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 64.Which one of the ff. is Africa’s least corrupt country?
A. RSA B. Ethiopia C. Botswana D. Nigeria
65.Which regions have the highest levels of corruption according to the Corruption
Perceptions Index?
A. Europe and North America C. East and Southeast Asia
B. Africa and the Middle East D. Latin America and the Caribbean
66.Common attributes of the most corrupt countries include all of the following
except:
A. High-income economies C. Visible influence of religion
B. Closed economies D. Low media freedom
67.Which of the following is NOT a suggested remedial measure for corruption?
A. Leadership setting a poor example
B. Involving people in anti-corruption campaigns
C. Having a responsible press
D. Establishing effective oversight bodies
68.What role does leadership play in combating corruption?
A. It has no significant impact on corruption levels
B. It is only important if the leaders are politically strong
C. Leaders must set a good example and show commitment to reforms
D. Leaders should avoid making difficult decisions
69.Approximately how many individuals globally lack access to basic health
services?
A. 200 million C. 500 million
B. 1 billion D. 2 billion
70.Which disease has the greatest impact in Africa, leading to high child mortality
rates and significant economic costs?
A. Malaria B. Influenza C. Tuberculosis D. Smallpox
71.What is the definition of a pandemic?
A. A disease that spreads beyond a country's borders
B. An epidemic that affects a large population within a country
C. A disease that affects primarily rural areas
D. An outbreak of a non-communicable disease
72.The most famous pandemic in history and resulted in 50 million deaths worldwide.
A. Spanish flu C. Typhoid fever
B. HIV/AIDS D. COVID-19
73.Which disease weakens a person's immune system and has resulted in the deaths
of 35 million people worldwide since its discovery?
A. HIV/AIDS C. Ebola
B. COVID-19 D. Influenza

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 74.Which three countries were most affected by the Ebola epidemic?
A. Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone C. United States, Canada, and Mexico
B. China, India, and Brazil D. Australia, New Zealand, and Fiji
75.When the COVID-19 virus was declared a pandemic by the World Health
Organization?
A. March 11, 2020 C. December 17, 2019
B. November 17, 2019 D. April 1, 2020
76.Which one of the ff. is the socioeconomic issues related to sustainable
development?
A. Poverty C. Globalization
B. Imbalance of regions and countries D . All of the above
77.Which one of the following is challenges of economic development in less
developed countries?
A. Poverty C. Income inequality
B. Corruption D. All of the above

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 UNIT FIVE
ANSWERS

1 B 22 B 43 C 64 C
2 C 23 B 44 B 65 B
3 B 24 B 45 D 66 A
4 D 25 B 46 B 67 A
5 A 26 C 47 C 68 C
6 C 27 C 48 A 69 D
7 A 28 B 49 D 70 A
8 B 29 B 50 B 71 A
9 A 30 C 51 A 72 A
10 B 31 B 52 C 73 A
11 A 32 C 53 D 74 A
12 C 33 C 54 A 75 A
13 C 34 C 55 B 76 D
14 B 35 D 56 C 77 D
15 D 36 B 57 B
16 C 37 C 58 A
17 A 38 C 59 C
18 B 39 C 60 D
19 C 40 B 61 B
20 D 41 B 62 C
21 D 42 B 63 D

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 YABERUS WOLKITE GENERAL AND SECONDARY SCHOOL
GEOGRAPHY REVISION QUESTIONS
UNIT SIX
DIRECTION: Each of the following questions is consists of four possible alternative
answers. Read each question carefully and blanked the letter of your best choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.
1. Why has interest in global environmental concerns grown in recent years?
A. Wealthy nations are demanding action from poorer nations.
B. National environmental policies haven't been effective alone.
C. The ecological footprints of poorer nations are increasing rapidly.
D. The UN has mandated stricter environmental regulations.
2. Which global environmental problem is currently the most discussed?
A. Ozone depletion C. Biodiversity loss
B. Climate change D. Land degradation
3. Which substances are responsible for ozone layer depletion?
A. Carbon dioxide (CO2) C. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
B. Nitrous oxide (N2O) D. Methane (CH4)
4. What are the consequences of ozone layer depletion?
A. Skin cancer C. Acid rain
B. Heart disease D. Lung cancer
5. What is the main cause of land degradation?
A. Natural factors such as climate variability
B. Unsustainable agriculture practices
C. Industrial processes
D. Soil contamination
6. Which global initiative is focused on addressing land degradation and
deforestation?
A. United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity
B. Global Environmental Facility (GEF)
C. Montreal Protocol
D. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
7. What is the primary function of the ozone (O3) layer in the stratosphere?
A. To absorb harmful ultraviolet (UV) rays from the Sun.
B. To regulate Earth's temperature.
C. To provide oxygen for breathing.
D. To shield against cosmic radiation.
8. What health hazards can occur when the ozone layer is depleted?
A. Increased risk of skin cancer and cataracts. C. Allergic reactions.
B. Respiratory diseases. D. Digestive disorders.

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 9. Where is the ozone layer being depleted globally?
A. Over tropical areas. C. In the mesosphere.
B. In the stratosphere. D. In the highest latitude regions.
10. Which gases are used as replacements for ozone-depleting substances (ODS)
under the Montreal Protocol?
A. Carbon monoxide (CO) C. Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
B. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) D. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
11. What is formed from the reaction of NOx and VOCs and is a key constituent of
the troposphere and certain regions of the stratosphere?
A. Ground level ozone C. Sulphur dioxides
B. Carbon monoxide D. Particulate matter
12. What is the primary cause of modern smog?
A. Large amounts of coal burning
B. Vehicular and industrial emissions
C. Photochemical reactions
D. Ultraviolet light from the sun
13. Which type of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) are important outdoor air
pollutants?
A. Methane C. Carbon monoxide
B. Perchloroethylene D. Nitrogen dioxide
14. What is a major source of carbon monoxide?
A. Vehicular exhaust B. Forest fires C. Volcanoes D. Electric discharge
15. Which chemical compound is produced by volcanoes and in various industrial
processes, and can cause acid rain?
A. Sulphur dioxides C. Nitrogen dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide D. Volatile organic compounds
16. Which of the following is NOT a challenge to sustainable development?
A. Population growth C. Urbanization
B. Energy use & global warming D. Technological advancement
17. What are some impacts of population growth coupled with urbanization?
A. Increased air quality and natural beauty
B. Increased farmland and food supply
C. Altered weather patterns and deforestation
D. Decreased water run-off and loss of natural beauty
18. What factors are considered in the “environment formula”
A. Population, Consumption and technology
B. Climate change, ozone depletion and biodiversity loss
C. Water and air pollution and land degradation
D. Soil degradation, oceans and biodiversity

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 19. Which activity contributes to over one-third of human-induced greenhouse
gases?
A. Burning fossil fuels for electricity generation
B. Industrial manufacturing processes
C. Deforestation and land use changes
D. Agricultural activities
20. The concept of biological diversity or biodiversity embraces
A. All animal and plant species, including microorganisms.
B. All plants solely found on the land surface
C. All animals merely found in the ocean
D. All microorganism that only found in the soil
21. What is land degradation?
A. A positive trend in land condition
B. A negative trend in land condition caused by human-induced processes
C. The introduction of agriculture during the Neolithic period
D. The loss of soil carbon and nitrous oxide into the atmosphere
22. What is one of the most important contributors to climate change?
A. Land degradation C. Sustainable agriculture practices
B. Soil contamination D. Climate variability and extreme weather events
23. Who is most affected by land degradation?
A. Urban communities C. Rural communities and smallholder poor farmers
B. Industrial workers D. Government officials
24. Which type of pollution originates from a single identifiable source?
A. Point source pollution C. Nonpoint source pollution
B. Diffused pollution D. Industrial pollution
25. What are "dead zones" in the ocean characterized by?
A. High oxygen levels C. Severe or complete oxygen depletion
B. Abundant marine life D. Clear water
26. What is the main factor driving the alarming shift in ocean chemistry?
A. Plastic pollution C. Rising global temperatures
B. Nutrient pollution D. Natural processes
27. Which of the following is an example of a primary air pollutant?
A. Ground-level ozone (O3) C. Photochemical smog
B. Carbon monoxide (CO) D. Classic smog
28. What is the main source of sulfur dioxide (SO2) in the atmosphere?
A. Combustion processes C. Industrial emissions
B. Volcanic activity D. Chemical reactions in the lower atmosphere

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 29. Which of the following pollutants is formed through chemical reactions in the
lower atmosphere?
A. Carbon monoxide (CO) C. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
B. Particulate matter (PM) D. Ground-level ozone (O3)
30. Water pollution can occur due to contamination from:
A. Volcanic activity C. Fertilizers
B. Industrial processes D. All of the above
31. Point source pollution refers to contamination that originates from:
A. Diffused sources C. Chemical reactions
B. Specific sources D. Industrial processes
32. What is the main consequence of oxygen depletion in the ocean?
A. Increased marine biodiversity
B. Formation of dead zones
C. Reduction in water pollution
D. Promotion of aquatic life
33. How does land degradation contribute to climate change?
A. By releasing soil carbon and nitrous oxide into the atmosphere
B. By increasing rainfall patterns
C. By reducing greenhouse gas emissions
D. By promoting reforestation efforts
34. What is soil contamination?
A. The presence of harmful substances in water bodies
B. The decline in soil quality due to natural causes
C. The process of enriching soil with nutrients
D. The presence of harmful substances in soil at levels that threaten human
health and ecosystems
35. How can soil contamination occur?
A. Only through direct contamination, such as leaks
B. Only through indirect contamination, such as water or air pollution
C. Both through direct contamination, such as leaks, and indirect
contamination, such as water or air pollution
D. Soil contamination does not occur naturally
36. What are the focus areas of the Global Environmental Facility (GEF)?
A. Addressing water pollution and marine ecosystem degradation
B. Promoting renewable energy and reducing greenhouse gas emissions
C. Implementing sustainable land management practices and integrating land
degradation neutrality into urban planning
D. Ensuring access to clean drinking water and sanitation for all

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 37. What are the long-term effects of contaminated soil?
A. Improved plant growth and biodiversity
B. Enhanced soil fertility
C. Negative impacts on plants, animals, and humans, especially children
D. Increased resistance to pests and diseases
38. What is the average amount of productive land per person based on the current
population and available land?
A. Approximately 1.8 hectares C. Approximately 2.2 hectares
B. Approximately 3.0 hectares D. Approximately 4.0 hectares
39. Which of the following elements are identified as the most serious challenges to
sustainable development?
A. Population expansion C. Energy usage and global warming
B. Urbanization and water shortage D. All of the above
40. What are the impacts of population growth and urbanization on the environment?
A. Increased ambient temperature
B. Increase air quality
C. Decrease water run-off
D. Reduction in farmlands and subsequent food shortage
41. Which source of energy consumption has contributed significantly to global
warming?
A. Solar energy C. Wind energy
B. Hydroelectric power D. Burning of fossil fuels
42. What is the term used for the collection, transport, processing, recycling, or
disposal of waste materials?
A. Waste management C. Sustainability
B. Environmental preservation D. Resource recovery
43. What percentage of the Earth's water is considered fresh water?
A. 0.3% B. 2.5% C. 5.0% D. 10.0%
44. Which countries is projected to contribute the most to the increase in residential
energy use in non-OECD countries by 2030?
A. USA and Germany C. Japan and South Korea
B. China and India D. England and France
45. What is the primary cause of water scarcity?
A. Glacial melting C. Lack of rainfall
B. Excessive consumption D. Pollution
46. Which organization brings together 38 member countries and collaborates on
key global issues related to energy consumption?
A. US Department of Energy C. OECD
B. UNICEF D. Greenpeace

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 47. When is a country considered water-scarce?
A. When its annual supply of renewable freshwater is less than 100m3 cube
per capita
B. When its annual supply of renewable freshwater is less than 500m3 cube
per capita
C. When its annual supply of renewable freshwater is less than 1,000 m3 cube
per capita
D. When its annual supply of renewable freshwater is less than 10,000 m3
cube per capita
48. Which of the following is an example of a sustainable solution for combating
climate change?
A. Increased use of fossil fuels
B. Preservation of ecologically significant regions
C. Expansion of industrial activities
D. Dependence on non-renewable energy sources
49. How do oceans contribute to combating climate change?
A. By emitting greenhouse gases
B. By reducing carbon dioxide emissions
C. By consuming carbon dioxide through photosynthesis
D. By increasing global temperatures
50. What role do soil microorganisms play in sustainable agriculture?
A. They reduce crop productivity
B. They deplete nutrients in the soil
C. They maintain soil fertility and ecological balance
D. They increase the use of chemical fertilizers
51. Which renewable energy source is mentioned as the most appealing for meeting
growing energy demands?
A. Solar energy C. Nuclear energy
B. Fossil fuels D. Coal energy
52. What is a characteristic of green/sustainable buildings?
A. High resource consumption C. Minimization of emissions
B. Negative impact on site ecosystem D. Discharge of solid waste and liquid
53. What is the goal of minimizing natural resource consumption in green buildings?
A. To increase energy consumption
B. To reduce waste management costs
C. To promote sustainability and efficiency
D. To maximize environmental impact

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 54. What are the primary goals of environmental education?
A. To develop an ecologically educated population
B. To raise awareness about climate change only
C. To promote economic and social integrity only
D. To provide opportunities for action in urban areas
55. What does environmental education aim to provide every person with?
A. Opportunities for economic development
B. Knowledge and skills to protect and improve the environment
C. Political power to influence environmental policies
D. Career opportunities in environmental organizations
56. Which of the following is an example of informal environmental education?
A. Education delivered in a traditional school setting
B. Education in museums and community centers
C. Education through formal communication activities
D. Education activities that promote knowledge and understanding
57. What does tacit knowledge refer to in the context of environmental education?
A. Knowledge obtained implicitly through living together
B. Knowledge acquired through formal education
C. Knowledge gained through information activities
D. Knowledge shared through communication activities
58. How does environmental education address complex environmental issues?
A. By focusing on a single subject, such as geography or biology
B. By promoting interdisciplinary learning and critical thinking
C. By relying solely on regulation and market incentives
D. By advocating for specific positions on environmental issues
59. Why environmental education is considered a proven strategy?
A. It provides market incentives to address environmental issues
B. It leads to immediate behavior change in individuals
C. It increases knowledge, critical thinking skills, and motivation to take
action
D. It relies on legislation and policies to solve environmental problems
60. What is the role of environmental education in promoting citizen participation?
A. Advocating for specific positions on environmental issues
B. Teaching people what to think about the environment
C. Developing citizen-action skills and providing opportunities for action
D. Maintaining the integrity of the field through professional training

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 61. What is the environmental movement?
A. A political party focused on environmental policies
B. A type of social movement advocating for environmental protection
C. A scientific research organization studying ecosystems
D. A religious group promoting sustainable living
62. Which type of environmental movement believes that the free market and
property rights are effective tools for preserving the environment?
A. Preservation & conservation C. Popular environmentalism
B. Dark Greens D. Free market environmentalism
63. What is the main goal of the environmental movement?
A. Promoting economic growth and industrial development
B. Preserving natural resources for future generations
C. Advocating for technological advancements in energy production
D. Supporting government deregulation of environmental policies
64. Which of the following best describes Greta Thunberg's role in the
environmental movement?
A. A young climate change activist with global influence
B. An environmental scientist studying climate patterns
C. A political leader advocating for economic growth
D. A representative of a multinational corporation promoting green initiatives
65. Which group of environmentalists emphasizes environmentalism as a personal
responsibility and a lifestyle choice?
A. Bright Greens C. Light Greens
B. Dark Greens D. Free market environmentalists
66. What is the main concern of dark greens?
A. Sustainable industrial growth and development
B. Radical political change and opposition to capitalism
C. Reforms in economic and political operations
D. Promoting the use of new technologies for sustainability
67. Which group of environmentalists believes that fundamental changes in
economic and political structures are necessary for sustainability?
A. Light Greens C. Popular environmentalists
B. Dark Greens D. Bright Greens
68. What is the focus of bright green environmentalism?
A. Criticizing consumerism and promoting sustainable consumption
B. Advocating for legislative government action to protect the environment
C. Seeking radical political change and reforming industrial capitalism
D. Emphasizing innovative designs, technologies, and social innovations for
sustainability

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 69. Which organization in Ethiopia is known for its work in promoting sustainable
development and environmental protection?
A. Lem Ethiopia
B. African Green Economy Movement
C. Ethiopian Geographic Society
D. Addis Ababa Municipal Solid Waste Control Task Force
70. Who was assigned by African countries to represent the continent in global
climate change negotiations?
A. Sileshi Demise C. Meles Zenawi
B. Dr. Abiy Ahmed D. Gash Abera Molla
71. What are the focus areas of Lem Ethiopia's work?
A. Climate change negotiations and policy advocacy
B. Urban waste management and livelihood security
C. Environmental education and awareness interventions
D. All of the above
72. What was the major accomplishment of Prime Minister Abiy Ahmed's Green
Legacy campaign?
A. Development of big ecotourism projects
B. Planting over four billion seedlings
C. Promoting sustainable development in urban areas
D. Advocating for environmental protection policies
73. Why is it important to include the voices of Ethiopian youth in environmental
and climate change debates?
A. They are the citizens of tomorrow who will inherit the environment.
B. They have the necessary expertise and knowledge on environmental
issues.
C. They have the financial resources to invest in environmental projects.
D. They are more likely to engage in global activism than other groups.
74. How can indigenous knowledge be described?
A. Universal and standardized
B. Developed by experts in academic institutions
C. Rooted in specific geographic areas and experiences
D. Based on modern scientific research
75. What is a distinguishing characteristic of indigenous knowledge?
A. It is static and unchanging over time
B. It is based on abstract classifications of knowledge
C. It is constantly reinforced through experience and trial and error
D. It is exclusive to specific individuals and not shared with others

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 76. In which areas can indigenous knowledge be applied?
A. Industrial manufacturing and technology development
B. Financial and economic planning
C. Ecosystem and landscape
D. Social media marketing and advertising strategies
77. What is one example of indigenous knowledge practiced by the Illuababora,
Maccaa Oromo in Ethiopia?
A. Dry-stone terracing
B. Traditional healing practices for humans
C. Protection of sacred forests and ritualistic trees
D. Shifting cultivation techniques
78. What is the main purpose of the dry-stone terraces in the Konso Cultural
Landscape?
A. To prevent erosion and retain soil
B. To provide shelter for wildlife
C. To serve as aesthetic value for towns
D. To create a scenic view for tourists
79. Which group in Ethiopia believes that natural resources are a sacred gift from
Yamba, the supreme deity?
A. Illuababora, Maccaa Oromo C. Konso community
B. Gedeo people D. Gumuz tribe

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 UNIT SIX
ANSWERS

1 B 21 B 41 D 61 B
2 B 22 A 42 A 62 D
3 C 23 C 43 B 63 B
4 A 24 A 44 B 64 A
5 B 25 C 45 B 65 C
6 B 26 B 46 C 66 B
7 A 27 B 47 C 67 B
8 A 28 C 48 B 68 D
9 D 29 D 49 C 69 A
10 B 30 D 50 C 70 C
11 A 31 B 51 A 71 D
12 B 32 B 52 C 72 B
13 A 33 A 53 C 73 A
14 A 34 D 54 A 74 C
15 A 35 C 55 B 75 C
16 D 36 C 56 B 76 C
17 C 37 C 57 A 77 B
18 A 38 A 58 B 78 A
19 C 39 D 59 C 79 D
20 A 40 A/D 60 C

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 YABERUS WOLKITE GENERAL AND SECONDARY SCHOOL
GEOGRAPHY REVISION QUESTIONS
UNIT SEVEN
DIRECTION: Each of the following questions is consists of four possible alternative
answers. Read each question carefully and blanked the letter of your best choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.

1. What was the primary goal of the Paris Agreement signed by 195 Parties at the end
of 2015?
A. To promote the use of fossil fuels
B. To curb emissions and manage climate risks.
C. To increase global temperatures
D. To reduce the funding for climate research
2. According to current estimates, how much could global temperatures rise if major
actions are not taken to reduce emissions?
A. 0.5°C to 1.5°C C. 1.5°C to 2.5°C
B. 2.5°C to 4.5°C. D. 5°C to 6°C
3. What is the UN definition of desertification?
A. Natural expansion of existing deserts
B. Human-induced land degradation in dry and sub-humid regions.
C. The process of land turning into desert due to excessive rain
D. A decrease in the Earth's overall land area
4. Why is climate change considered a spatial phenomenon?
A. Because it affects different species in various locations.
B. Because it is a hot topic for academic debate
C. Because it is mainly caused by human actions in space
D. Because it only impacts the Earth's poles
5. According to the IPCC special report, desertification results from:
A. Only human activities
B. Only climatic changes
C. Both human activities and climatic changes.
D. Neither human activities nor climatic changes
6. Which regions have the highest number of people affected by desertification?
A. North and South America
B. South & East Asia, the Sahara region, & the Middle East.
C. Europe and Central Asia
D. Australia and Oceania
7. As of the data provided, approximately what percentage of the global land area do
drylands cover?
A. 25% C) 55%
B. 46.2% D) 75%

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 8. What is the main difference between deserts and desertification?
A. Deserts are areas that receive very little rain, while desertification refers to
human-induced land degradation.
B. Deserts have low precipitation, while desertification is characterized by
unpredictable weather patterns.
C. Deserts are always arid regions, while desertification can occur anywhere on
Earth.
D. Deserts can support life, while desertification leads to the loss of vegetation
and biodiversity.
9. What human activities contribute to desertification?
A. Afforestation and sustainable water management practices
B. Overgrazing, over cultivation, deforestation, and unsustainable water
management practices.
C. Conservation efforts and reforestation
D. Sustainable agriculture and responsible land use practices
10.What adaptation strategies are needed to ensure food and water security in regions
affected by climate change?
A. Planting drought-resistant crops and improved irrigation systems.
B. Clearing forests for agricultural expansion
C. Increasing water usage without conservation
D. Ignoring the need for adaptation strategies
11.Which of the following is a potential impact of rising sea levels due to climate
change?
A. Increased agricultural productivity
B. Enhanced biodiversity
C. Coastal flooding and displacement.
D. Reduced carbon emissions
12.What adaptation measures are necessary to mitigate the impacts of rising sea levels?
A. Building sea walls. C. Promoting deforestation
B. Constructing underground tunnels D. Encouraging coastal development
13.What percentage of drylands used for agriculture around the world are already
degraded?
A. 30% B. 50% C. 70% D. 90%
14.Which one of the following is NOT major characteristic of dryland that affected by
desertification?
A. Low and unpredictable precipitation
B. Soil that is poor in organic matter
C. Large variations between day and night temperatures
D. Sufficient of water for consumption
15.How does population growth contribute to desertification?
A. It leads to more sustainable farming practices
B. It reduces the need for intensive agriculture
C. It increases the pressure on land for food production.
D. It promotes natural regeneration of soil nutrients

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 16.How are climate change and deforestation linked to the process of desertification?
A. Climate change has no impact on desertification
B. Deforestation is the sole cause of desertification
C. Climate changes impact rainfall patterns, leading to desertification.
D. Forests play no role in the prevention of desertification
17.Which of the following is a consequence of melting ice at the Earth's poles?
A. Decrease in sea levels C. Increase in sea levels
B. Stabilization of sea levels D. No impact on sea levels
18.When did desertification gain widespread attention?
A. 1977 B. 1980 C. 1990 D. 2000
19.What are the three types of areas that make up the drylands?
A. Arid, semi-arid, and humid C. Arid, humid, and sub-humid
B. Arid, semi-arid, and sub-humid D. Arid, semi-humid, and sub-humid
20.Which of the following is NOT a fundamental feature of the world's drylands?
A. Low precipitation that is infrequent, irregular, and unpredictable
B. Large variations between day and night temperatures
C. Rich soil with high organic matter content.
D. Lack of water for consumption
21.The transformation of arid and semi-arid areas into desert-like conditions known as
A. Overgrazing C. Desertification.
B. Over cultivation D. Deforestation
22.Which of the following is NOT a cause of desertification related to over-exploitation
of natural resources?
A. Shortening of crop cycles and reduction of fallow periods
B. Insufficient use of fertilizer after harvesting
C. Adequate crop rotation and diverse farming practices
D. Intense breeding and overgrazing by livestock
23.Which of the following regions in Africa is NOT mentioned as being vulnerable to
desertification?
A. Sahelian region C. Horn of Africa
B. Kalahari D. Congo basin
24.Which one of the ff. principal causes of deforestation and desertification?
A. Excessive rainfall in tropical arid areas
B. Use of hydraulic, wind, and solar energy sources
C. Overgrazing and over cultivation on grasslands
D. Increase in fallow periods and rest periods from grazing
25.Which of the following is NOT listed as a major cause of desertification?
A. Overgrazing C. Over cultivation
B. Poor irrigation practices D. Excessive rainfall
26.What is the recommended approach to limit the need for deforestation?
A. Encouraging the use of renewable energy sources
B. Increasing the use of firewood for cooking and lighting
C. Expanding deforestation activities in arid regions
D. Promoting the use of gas and petrol for energy consumption

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 27.Which country in East Africa is known as the "Pearl of Africa" and has experienced
significant forest loss?
A. Sudan B. Tanzania C. Kenya D. Uganda.
28.What is one of the societal consequences of desertification?
A. Population stabilization C. Increase in food security
B. Conflict over freshwater resources D. Promotion of social harmony
29.What are some of the contributing factors to desertification in East Africa?
A. Rapid population increase and deforestation
B. Heavy rainfall and sustainable agriculture
C. Political stability and foreign investment
D. Urbanization and industrialization
30.What are the key assumptions of the generally accepted definition of drought?
A. The reduction is permanent, significant, and based on the society's
expectations.
B. The reduction is temporary, significant, and based on the society's
expectations.
C. The reduction is temporary, significant, and based on a specified period.
D. The reduction is permanent, significant, and based on a specified period.
31.A temporary reduction in water or moisture availability significantly below the
normal or expected amount for a specified period known as:
A. Desertification B. Famine C. Hunger D. Drought
32.Which ecosystems are most often affected by drought in Africa?
A. Sahelian and Sudanese ecosystem C. Coastal regions
B. Tropical rainforest D. Savannah grassland
33.Which desert is located along the western foot of the Andes from south of Ecuador
to Central Chile?
A. Sahara Desert C. Atacama Desert
B. Gobi Desert D. Kalahari Desert
34.Which continent has most of its landmass classified as drylands?
A. Europe B. South America C. Australia D. Europe
35.In which type of zone can vegetation support pastoralism?
A. Arid zones B. Semi-arid zones C. Drylands D. Dry-sub humid zones
36.What is the characteristic of arid zones in terms of rainfall?
A. Rainfall below 100mm-150mm per year
B. Rainfall between 250mm-300mm per year
C. Rainfall between 600mm-1200mm per year
D. Rainfall above 2000mm per year
37.Which type of drought is based solely on precipitation statistics?
A. Meteorological drought C. Agricultural drought
B. Hydrological drought D. All of the above
38.What is the main characteristic of hydrological drought?
A. Reduction in water resources below a specified level
B. Reduction in rainfall below a specified amount
C. Reduction in agricultural water supply
D. Reduction in precipitation statistics
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 39. How can hydrological drought be caused?
A. By reductions in precipitation within the catchment area
B. By reductions in groundwater levels only
C. By reductions in surface water levels only
D. By reductions in precipitation within a specific country
40.What is the impact of an extreme agricultural drought?
A. Crops fail and animals die
B. Reduction in water resources below a specified level
C. Reduction in precipitation below a specified amount
D. Disruption of the urban economy
41.Hydrological Drought involves:
A. Soil moisture deficit over the growing season
B. Precipitation significantly below expectations
C. Reduction in water resources like stream flows and lake levels
D. Stress on plant life unconnected with human activity
42.Which type of drought is most commonly referred to by the term "drought"?
A. Hydrological Drought C. Agricultural Drought.
B. Meteorological Drought D. Ecological Drought
43.An Agricultural Drought occurs when:
A. There is a significant temperature increase during summer months
B. Precipitation is below the long-term average
C. There is a consistently high soil moisture deficit over the growing season.
D. Geological changes cut off parts of an aquifer system
44.Agricultural drought can be exacerbated by:
A. Substitution of a traditional dry area crop with a more water-demanding cash
crop.
B. Reduction in rainfall for a single day
C. Geological changes in the catchment area
D. Below normal temperatures during winter months
45.Which of the following indices provides a comprehensive assessment of drought
conditions and places them in a historical perspective?
A. Palmer Drought Severity Index (PDSI).
B. Crop Moisture Index (CMI)
C. Satellite Vegetative Health Index (VHI)
D. Percent of Normal Precipitation
46.Which drought index is most suitable for calculating short-term abnormal dryness or
wetness affecting agriculture?
A. Palmer Drought Severity Index (PDSI)
B. Crop Moisture Index (CMI).
C. Satellite Vegetative Health Index (VHI)
D. Standardized Precipitation Index (SPI)
47.The Satellite Vegetative Health Index (VHI) is useful for:
A. Long-term drought monitoring C. Assessing soil moisture content
B. Early drought detection. D. Calculating normal precipitation levels

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 48.Which of the following indices is based solely on precipitation data?
A. Palmer Drought Severity Index (PDSI)
B. Satellite Vegetative Health Index (VHI)
C. Crop Moisture Index (CMI)
D. D. Standardized Precipitation Index (SPI).
49.The Palmer Drought Severity Index (PDSI) does NOT consider:
A. Snowpack. C. Available water content of the soil
B. Temperature D. Climate state
50.Which drought index is easy to calculate, regularly generated by climate software
packages, and is generally useful and easy to understand by the media and the public?
A. Palmer Drought Severity Index (PDSI)
B. Crop Moisture Index (CMI)
C. Percent of Normal Precipitation.
D. Standardized Precipitation Index (SPI)
51.Which index is designed to respond more rapidly to changing soil conditions and is
effective for short-term agricultural applications?
A. PDSI B. CMI . C. VHI D. SPI
52.The Palmer Drought Severity Index (PDSI) is best used for:
A. Short-term agricultural changes
B. Immediate response to rainfall deficits
C. Long-term drought assessment in homogeneous areas.
D. Evaluating snowpack levels
53.The Percent of Normal Precipitation (PNP) is calculated by:
A. Dividing actual precipitation by normal precipitation and multiplying by 100.
B. Multiplying actual precipitation by normal precipitation
C. Dividing normal precipitation by actual precipitation
D. Adding actual precipitation to normal precipitation
54.Which climate phenomenon can disrupt the Horn of Africa, resulting in reduced
rainfall, drought and agricultural challenges?
A. El Nino B. La Lina.
55.Chronic food insecurity is characterized by:
A. Temporary decline in a household's access to enough food
B. A continuously inadequate diet caused by persistent lack of ability to buy or
produce enough food.
C. Instability in food prices, declining food production, or household incomes
D. Instability in food prices, declining food production, or household incomes
56.Transitory food insecurity refers to:
A. A lack of access to enough food for an active, healthy life
B. Persistent inability to buy or produce enough food
C. Temporary decline in a household's access to enough food resulting from
various factors.
D. Access by all people at all times to enough food for an active, healthy life

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 57.Which of the following is NOT a "natural" factor that can cause famine or a decline
in food availability?
A. Crop disease C. Pest invasion
B. Conflict D. Unseasonable cold spells / frosts
58.Which of the following is a human-induced factor that can cause a decline in food
availability?
A. Agricultural drought C. Floods
B. external economic shocks. D. High winds
59.Which of the following is NOT a measure to maintain food security?
A. Supplementary feeding programs
B. Price destabilization
C. Providing clean water alongside food assistance.
D. Employment creation programs

UNIT SEVEN

ANSWERS
1 B 16 C 31 D 46 B
2 B 17 C 32 A 47 B
3 B 18 A 33 C 48 D
4 A 19 B 34 C 49 A
5 C 20 C 35 C 50 C
6 B 21 C 36 A 51 B
7 B 22 C 37 A 52 C
8 A 23 D 38 A 53 A
9 B 24 C 39 A 54 B
10 A 25 D 40 A 55 B
11 C 26 A 41 C 56 C
12 A 27 D 42 B 57 B
13 C 28 B 43 C 58 B
14 D 29 A 44 A 59 B
15 C 30 C 45 A

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 YABERUS WOLKITE GENERAL AND SECONDARY SCHOOL
GEOGRAPHY REVISION QUESTIONS
UNIT ONE
DIRECTION: Each of the following questions is consists of four possible alternative
answers. Read each question carefully and blanked the letter of your best choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.

1. Which of the following is NOT a common component used to define the concept
of research?
A. A scientific approach to study a problem
B. An inquiry to obtain dependable and useful information
C. A systematic and objective search for reliable knowledge
D. A subjective and intuitive search for new knowledge.
2. Research is generally defined as:
A. A haphazard search for solutions to problems
B. A scientific method of seeking a solution for identified problems
C. A random inquiry into causes of phenomena
D. An unsystematic discovery of new facts
3. One of the main motivations for professional researchers undertake research
projects
A. Prediction C. Exploration
B. Description D. All of the above
4. What are two significant variables influencing a country's development?
A. Research budget and quality of education
B. Research capability and audience engagement.
C. Research focus and researcher experienced
D. Research funding and researcher motivation
5. What are the three components of any research project?
A. Subject matter, methodology, and philosophical bases.
B. Data collection, data analysis, and data interpretation
C. Exploration, description, explanation, and prediction
D. Ontology, epistemology, and methodology
6. What is the discovery of new facts through a systematic inquiry of the problem
identified called?
A. Research design C. Research
B. Research methods D. Research approach

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 7. Which of the reason stated below encourage scientists to conduct research?
A. To add new things to the existing body of knowledge
B. To provide job opportunity for different experts
C. To make the study area the best living place
D. To suggest solution to every problems
8. In the 18th century, geography's focus shifted to:
A. The locations of places and people
B. The physical and human characteristics of places.
C. The spatial distributions of phenomena and things
D. The forces responsible for pattern formation
9. Which of the following is NOT a key characteristic of the quantitative research
approach?
A. Produces discrete numerical or quantifiable data
B. Utilizes statistical techniques for data analysis
C. Verifies existing theories or hypotheses
D. Generates new hypotheses through inductive reasoning.
10. Which of these is an example of a qualitative research approach?
A. Correlational analysis C. Ethnographic research.
B. Experimental design D. Statistical modeling
11. Which of the following is a key consideration in using a mixed methods
research approach?
A. Maintaining harmony between quantitative and qualitative components.
B. Focusing exclusively on experimental or quasi-experimental designs
C. Strict separation between numerical and descriptive data collection
D. Prioritizing statistical significance over in-depth qualitative insights
12. Which of the following best describes the mixed methods research approach?
A. A research approach that uses only quantitative techniques
B. A research approach that uses only qualitative techniques
C. A research approach that combines quantitative and qualitative
techniques.
D. A research approach that uses only field observation
13. What is the primary purpose of using a quantitative research approach?
A. To gain insights into phenomena
B. To verify existing theories.
C. To develop new hypotheses
D. To make detail focus group discussion

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 14. What is the key benefit of the quantitative research approach?
A. The results can be easily replicated by other researchers.
B. The results provide rich descriptive data
C. The results are not influenced by the researcher's biases
D. The result enables us to explain new theory
15. Which of the following is NOT correct about the qualitative research
approach?
A. It is usually employed to verify an existing theory.
B. Qualitative data is used to explain a new theory
C. It involves extensive descriptive data in order to gain insights in to
phenomenon.
D. It uses telephone interview as one of the data collection techniques
16. The techniques and procedures used to undertake research is termed as
A. Research methods C. Research approach
B. Research methodology D. Research project
17. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between
research methods and research methodology?
A. Research methods and research methodology are completely no
difference in scope.
B. Research methods are a subset of research methodology.
C. Research methodology is a subset of research methods.
D. Research methodology refer to specific techniques, while research
method is the broader approach.
18. The study of research methodology in geography is expected to provide
knowledge and skills in which of the following areas?
A. Gathering materials and data, and organizing them.
B. Designing questionnaires and interviews.
C. Interpreting and reporting result of the study
D. All of the above
19. Research design serves as:
A. A hypothesis for the study
B. A conceptual framework for the study
C. An analytical tool for the data
D. A sampling techniques of the study
20. Which of the following is NOT one of the three main research approaches
described?
A. Experimental. C. Qualitative
B. Quantitative D. Mixed methods

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 21. Which research approach is best suited for verifying existing theories?
A. Quantitative. C. Mixed methods
B. Qualitative D. All of the above
22. Which research approach is better suited for generating new hypotheses?
A. Quantitative C. Mixed methods
B. Qualitative. D. Research methods
23. Which one of the ff. is the characteristic of quantitative research?
A. It uses statistical techniques. C. It focuses on descriptive data
B. It does not allow replication D. It's good for generating new hypotheses
24. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an attribute of a good research
question?
A. It is stated as a theory. C. It is specific
B. It includes key terms and/or variables D. It can be operationalized
25. Which of the following is a key step in identifying and formulating the research
problem?
A. Conducting a literature review C. Copying other research
B. Discussing with colleagues or experts D. Both A and B.
26. What is the purpose of formulating specific objectives in a research study?
A. To focus the study and avoid unnecessary data collection
B. To organize the study into clearly defined phases
C. To facilitate the development of the research methodology
D. All of the above
27. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the
research problem, objectives, and questions?
A. They are independent and unrelated
B. They can be developed separately with no connection
C. They are closely related and guide the entire research process.
D. Only the research problem and objectives are closely connected
28. The primary purpose of the literature review is to:
A. Provide an exhaustive summary of all previous research on the topic
B. Situate your research in the context of existing knowledge.
C. Demonstrate your ability to write a lengthy academic paper
D. Repeated the most recent studies on the research problem
29. Which of the following is NOT a key function of the literature review?
A. Ensures you are not duplicating previous work
B. Provides new theoretical insights for your research
C. Gives credit to past researchers in the field
D. Demonstrates your writing skills.

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 68

 30. When the entire population cannot be studied, researchers can:
A. Conduct a pilot study C. Use a representative sample
B. Use case study D. conduct experimental study
31. Which type of sampling ensures that each member of the population has an
equal chance of being selected?
A. Non-probability sampling C. Probability sampling
B. Convenience sampling D. Quota sampling
32. Which of the following is an example of a primary data source?
A. Government reports C. Academic journals
B. Surveys D. Diaries
33. The main advantage of using secondary data is that it:
A. Is more expensive to collect
B. Allows researchers to leverage existing data.
C. Requires more time to obtain
D. Is always unpublished
34. When analyzing quantitative data, the researcher must ensure:
A. The data is continually refined
B. Validity and reliability of measurements.
C. Emerging themes are identified
D. Producing summary forms
35. The choice of data analysis methods primarily depends on:
A. The research topic
B. Practical considerations like time and resources
C. The researcher's personal preferences
D. All of the above.
36. Which level of measurement determines how the data can be analyzed and
interpreted?
A. Nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio. C. Classification and symbolization
B. Points, lines, areas, or volumes D. Simplification and exaggeration
37. How are spatial features represented on a map based on their dimensionality?
A. Nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio C. Classification and simplification
B. Points, lines, areas, or volumes. D. Exaggeration and symbolization
38. Which is not an element of data generalization for enhancing map
communication?
A. Classification B. Interpolation C. Simplification D. Exaggeration
39. What is the main purpose of the data generalization process in GIS?
A. To distinguish important from unimportant phenomena
B. To enhance map communication
C. To effectively collect, represent, and communicate GIS data
D. All of the above

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 69

 40. Which of the following is NOT the main ways to represent data in choropleth
maps in GIS?
A. Natural breaks C. Quantile
B. Equal interval D. Interpolation
41. The natural breaks/Jenks method aims to do what when dividing data into
classes?
A. Maximize similarity within classes and differences between classes.
B. Divide the data range into equal class sizes
C. Ensure an equal number of observations in each class
D. Group data based on how much it deviates from the mean
42. Which data representation method may not fairly represent data with a skewed
distribution?
A. Natural breaks C. Equal interval.
B. Quantile D. Standard deviation
43. A process of selecting features based on location or spatial relationships is
known as
A. Attribute query C. Spatial query.
B. Network analysis D. Overlay analysis
44. Which GIS analysis technique involves using tools like buffers to delineate
zones of influence around features?
A. Proximity analysis (feature/vector-based).
B. Network analysis
C. Proximity analysis (raster-based)
D. Overlay analysis (vector overlay)
45. When conducting raster-based proximity analysis, what type of tool is used to
calculate the Euclidean distance from features?
A. Buffer C. Distance tool.
B. Overlay D. Network analysis
46. Which GIS analysis technique combines point, line, or polygon geometries and
their attributes?
A. Proximity analysis (feature/vector-based)
B. Overlay analysis (vector overlay).
C. Raster overlay
D. Network analysis

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 70

 UNIT EIGHT
ANSWERS

1 D 12 C 23 A 35 D
2 B 13 B 24 A 36 A
3 D 14 A 25 D 37 B
4 B 15 A 26 D 38 B
5 A 16 A 27 C 39 D
6 C 17 B 28 B 40 D
7 A 18 D 29 D 41 A
8 B 19 B 30 C 42 C
9 D 20 A 31 C 43 C
10 C 21 A 32 B 44 A
11 A 22 B 33 B 45 C
34 B 46 B

Geography for grade 12(2016/2024) By:- Mitiku Lejebo(YABERUS WOLKITE) Page 71