RADIOLOGICAL SCIENCE 13.

This instrument is used to detect

frequency shift.
1. Part of the CT gantry to reduce -Doppler
patient dose and enhance image 14. In computed tomography imager,
contrast what component of collimator controls
-Collimator assembly the patient dose profile.
2. What is the gray matter appearance - Prepatient
in CT 15. In computed tomography, what is
-Hyperdense the most common matrix size.
3. What is the routine head of CT - 512x512
protocol for acquisition of a scout to 16.) Major component of MRI unit
set up the scan — Magnet
-Lateral 17.) Most common cause of
4. What is the process in which the cystitis/UTI
planned arranged treatment field is — Ascending infection from
verified using an x-ray machine and urethra
mimics the geometry of therapy 18.) Non-malignant tumor
machines to produce diagnostic — Adenoma
quality radiograph? 19. What is the penumbra of a linear
- simulation accelerator beam?
5. What is isocenter Smaller than that of a cobalt 60
- point at which the source of machine
beam rotates. 20. What will provide a visual
6. What is the primary reason why representation of the dose at a various
using betatron in radiation therapy position across the radiation field
became unpopular? Isodose curve
-low dose rate and limited field 21. What is the likely condition will
size indicate a nonshadowing, nonmobile,
7. What radioactive isotope is used in echogenic foci seen in the gallbladder
tandems and ovoids? Polyps
-Iridium 192 22. Why immobilization is particularly
8. The reason why Tc99m important in treatment of the head
pertechnetate is taken up by thyroid and neck cancer?
gland? -proximity of several
-Same ion size with Iodine radiosensitive organs and often
9. The mechanism of small tumor margins.
radiopharmaceutical localization in 23. The coil directly placed on the
lung scanning patient in order to image superficial.
-Capillary blockade -Surface
10. The term used as the role of the 24. Most sensitive and specific
sound attenuation in tissue . noninvasive in diagnosing mitral
-HALF VALUE LAYER stenosis
11. the characteristic pf a 1st -Echocardiography
generation Ct scan ? 25. The radiopharmaceuticals used to
- 5minutes “hot-spot” myocardial imaging
12. the Percentage of depth Dose is Tc-99m PYP (pyrophosphate)
dependent to ? 26. Most common long-term adverse
• Distance effect observed following
• energy administration os an I-131NaI therapy
• Field size dose for treatment of Grave’s disease
Hypothyroidism 38.) What is the primary purpose of
27. What is the concern of cardiac testicular shield?
toxicity from breast irradiation - Shield the testes from primary
Is sometimes a serious problem beam
28. In the ultrasonif field, What will be 39.) What is the main goal of radiation
the ratioof pressure to particle velocity therapy in patient with bone
at a given point metastases
Impedance -To prevent fracture and reduce
29. What is the unit used to pain
expressing the ratio of the quantities 40. Scan parameter is a chosen field
of electrical signal or sound energy echo sequence to satisfy unique
Decibel contrast appearance on resultant
30. What increases scanning time image.
Increases its number of -FLIP ANGLE
excitations
28.Main pathologic problem brought 41. It is the necrotic area of the
by embolisms pulmonary parenchyma with dense
- Obstruction. center and hazy, poorly defined
29. Pitch in multi slice ct defined as periphery and with air filled fluid level
patient couch movement per rotation within the structure
devided by -CAVITARY LUNG ABSCESS
- Beam width. 42. Time difference between 180dgree
30. Sonographic technique that use to Radiofrequency Pulse to 90dgree
detect blood irregularities Excitation Pulse
-Doppler -INVERSION TIME
31. Confused for Pancreas -Tail of 43. A gastic emptying study in nuclear
Pancreas seen when Patient is in medicine
Prone position. To determine the time taken for
-Splenic Flexure of Colon food to be digested by the
32. Decrease Motion Artifact. stomach
-Decrease Repitition time 44. What is a well-define structure
33. Esophagus characterized as with increased echogenicity
esophageal blind pouch. Solid tumor
-Esophageal Atresia/ Diverticula 45. The treatment of patients
34. What connects between undergoing nuclear medicine therapy
esophagus and tracheobronchial tree by polycythernia
that can be radiographically P-32 sodium phosphate
demonstrated? 46. In lateral radiograph of the neck
- fistula the radiographic appearance will show
35. What determines the amount of rounded thickening shadow with a
reflection in the interface of two configuration of adults thumb
dissimilar materials? - epiglotitis
- specific acoustic impedance 47. Medically, considered as a
36. What is equal to the ratio of symptoms
operating frequency to the frequency - vertigo
bandwidth? 48. SSD technique and photon beam,
- transducer quality factor what degree defines the field size
37.) In dose calibrator quality control, - at the rotational axis machine
when is the linearity checked? 49. What is the manisfestation of
- Quarterly intrabronchial with Foreign Body that
affect lungs? Hatmann’s pouch
— right side with atelectasis 63. What will define the brightness of
50. What is observed in Breast the image in magnetic resonance
Ultrasonography? imaging
— lactiferous duct MRI signal strength
51. What is seen in splenomegaly 64. What radiographic position clearly
display? demonstrates the epiglottitis?
— increased echogenicity - Neck Lateral
52. The best modality to demonstrate 65. What is the hallmark manifestation
the rupture of the spleen as a result of involving pleaura with pleural
blunt abdominal trauma. thickening appears as linear plaques
- Computed Tomography of opacification along with tje lower
53. The effect of insertion of chest wall due to deposition and
aluminum, copper, tin filters into xray calcification of industries substance?
beam -asbestosis
- low energy xrays will be 66. What sonographic demonstration
absorbed will aid to diagnosing obstructive
54. The device placed between jaundice?
klystron and the waveguide system in - Mass on head of pancreas w/
the linear accelerator dilated CBD
-circulator 67) What technology made spiral ct
55. What geometric factor effects possible?
spatial awareness in ct? - Slip Ring
- Detector aperture width 68. What is Leforts method for
56. The presence of filling defect in classification of fx involving the
pulmonary artery indicates complete craniofacial bone
obstruction of a pulmonary vessel? Type 3
-Pulmonary embolism 69. What is the reason a Lucite tray is
57. What is the term for hospital inserted in the path of the beam?
based disease and inflammation of Beam spoiler
alveoli? 70. What low-z material used in
-Nosocomial pneumonia patient support couch in a CT unit?
58. What is the main pathologic - Carbon fiber
condition brought about by embolism. 71. What condition manifest Aspiration
- Obstruction pneumonia?
59. The pitch in helical computed - vomiting
tomography is defined as the patient 72. The medical diagnosis of patient
couch movement per roration divided who is experiencing signs and
by symptoms of bronchiectasis due to
- Beam width mucous plug.
60. This sonographic imaging is used - Cystic fibrosis
in determining irregularities of blood 73. What is the best sonographic
flow. window to the left hemidiaphragm
- Doppler Spleen
61. What would most likely cause 74. The portal vein a sagittal scan
acoustic enhancement which is seen as a circular anechoic
Fluid filled mass structure
62. What gallbladder segment is Anterior to the inferior vena cava
ultrasonogphically observable at tis 75. What is the proper sequence for
neck closest to the cystic duct producing a CT image?
Data acquisition, image -Cystic fibrosis
reconstruction, image 89.)Body landmark of
postprocessing laryngotracheobronchitis.
76. What hyperparathyriodism can be -Hour glass sign
detected in parathyroid imaging 90.)All statements are true in
- Primary hyperparathyroidism Emphysema.
77. Which CT generation produces ring •Appearance of retrosternal space
artifact? is radiolucent with dirty chest
-3rd generation appearance.
78. What position best demonstrate •Barrel chest
transplanted kidney in nuclear 91. If the frontal radiograph in the
medicine? lower neck shows a characteristic
–Laterally smooth, fusiform, tapered narrowing
79. What is the basis for the formula of subglottal airway caused by edema,
computing the value of CT number? this must be a hallmark of
- Linear attenuation coefficient for - Spasmodic Croup
water 92. According to the classification of
80. What condition is characterized by fracture by lefortes method, fracture
the dilation of renal calyces and involving craniofacial is classified as
pelvis? - type 3
- Hydronephrosis 93. Because of this condition, it is
81. With what will be confused by the considered as a medical emergency
kidney horshoe sonographically - Epiglottitis
- Lymphadenopath 94. Pathophysiologically, the effect of
82. What will be determined by a emphysema in the lungs are the ff.
chromatography procedure in nuclear -Dyspnea and decreased in
medicine: respiratory rate
- RADIOCHEMICAL PURITY 95. Epiglotitis can be seen clearly in:
83. What is the major factor that - Neck lateral
determined the acoustic output power 96. The hall mark manifestation of this
in the transducer: pathologic condition is the
-MAGNITUDE OF THE VOLTAGE involvement of the Pleura with Pleural
STRIKE thickening appearing as Linear
84. What is the least tramission to plaques of opacification along the
ultrasound: chest wall and diaphragm due to
-BLOOD deposition and calcification of
industrial substances.
85. The radiopharmaceuticals used in - Asbestosis
dual tracer gastric emptying study. 100.) Aspiration pneumonia is
-Tc99m DTP in water and Tc99m otherwise known
sulfur colloid labeled eggs. -chemical pneumonitis
86. Hall mark of Emphysema 101.) The pressence of filling defect
- Pulmonary overinflation and within the pulmonary artery or abrupt
flattening of the domes of the cutoff indication complete obstruction
diaphragm. of pulmonary vessels is manifestation
87. Aspirating pneumonia is due to condition of
-Vomiting - pulmonary embolism
88.)The patient experienced this sign 102.) Medically, which of the following
and symptoms, bronchiectasis mucus is considered a "sign"
plug.
- abdominal tenderness by - Hyperlucent lung
palpation - Increase retrosternal space
103. An infection and inflammation of 115. first stage normal and atypical
alveolie acquired ih the hospital type of pneumonia
-pneumonia, nosocomial - SARS
104. Radiographic appearance of 116. This is a necrotic area of a
tuberculoma pulmonary parenchyma that has a
-presence of single or multiple dense center with hazy, poorly defined
nodule 1-3 cm diameter periphery with a typical air-fluid level
pheriphery or upper lobe of the within the structure?
lungs - LUNG CAVITARY ABCESS
105. Main pathologic problem brought 117. Permanent enlargement of the
about by embolism distal terminal bronchioles
-obstruction - emphysema
106.The radiographic appearance of 118. Radiographic appearance of
this condition shows a rounded Atelectasis
thickening shadow with configuration - AIRLESS LUNGS, MAY VARY
of an adults thumb in a lateral neck FROM PLATE LIKE STREAKS TO
radiograph LOBAR COLLAPSE
-epiglotitis 119. Best position in taking an x-ray of
an adult patient with pleural effusion
107.Medically, which if the ff is termed - POSTERO ANTERIOR VIEW AND
as symptom? LATERAL DECUBITUS ON
-vertigo AFFECTED SIDE
108.If the radiographic diagnosis is a 120. Radiographic appearance of
septic embolism, radtech knows that Emphysema
the management is: - PULMONARY HYPERINFLATION,
-high dose of antibiotic REDUCTION IN THE NUMBER AND
109. Intrabronchial foreign body SIZE OF PERIPHERAL VESSELS,
-Right lung with Atelectasis CHEST BARREL CHEST, VASCULAR
110. Single most effective non- MARKINGS APPEAR MORE
invasive technique to evaluate lung PROMINENT THAN USUAL BUT
cancer, its location, metastasis and IRREGULAR AND INDISTINCT
extent of masses. 121. A septic embolism brought about
-CT scan by:
111. Most effective procedure for -Microorganisms
localized lung cancer but its common 122. The presence of fibropurulent
side effects are skin irritation, skin fluid in the pleural space indicates this
peeling, fatigue and taste changes. condition:
-radiation therapy -Empyema
112. When patient with PTB is brought 123. The most common causes of
to X-ray room for radiographic pleural edema:
evaluation, RT on duty knows that he •Severe Bronchopneumonia
must follow this type of precaution. • Right sided heart failure
- Standard Airborne Precaution •Left sided heart failure
113. Which of the following disease 124.According to the classification of
caused by a virus? fracture by Leforte Method, a fracture
- SARS involving naso-frontal suture?
114. These are radiographic - TYPE 2
appearance of Asthma: 125. The main function of the
esophagus 137.) The client scheduled for IVP, the
- FOR PASSAGE OF BOLUS radtech should:
- CHECK FOR ALLERGIES TO
126. The characteric of the condition SHELLFISH
is an esophagus and tracheobrinchial 138.) The common cause of cystitis/
tree UTI:
-FISTULA - ASCENDING INFECTION FROM
127. Demonstrate the connection of THE URETHRA
esophagus 139. What causative agent that would
-Fistula likely to cause UTI?
128. Physiological, choking, cyanosis -ESCHERICHIA COLI
and coughing are all present in 140. A 54 year old client comes to the
-Tracheoesophageal fistula ambulatory clinic in moderate stress
129. The Radiographic appearance of with diagnosis of probable bladder CA
this condition are the following: which of the following symptoms
Deeper ulceration with strictures the would a medical personnel is most
esophagus likely a client to report during
-Ingested with corrosive agents assessment?
130: The definite test for esophageal - PAINLESS HEMATURIA
tumor 141. A Radtech is with a client who
-Esophagogastoduodenoscopy has been diagnosed as having a
131: The radiographic appearance of a kidney mass, the client asks him the
condition that can be seen on GI reason for renal biopsy, when other
studies have numerous thick folds test such as CT and USD are available.
stomach above diaphragm Informulating the response, He
-Hiatal hernia incorporates that the knowledge of
132: The ingestion of this solution is renal biopsy
more severe than the other type of - GIVES SPECIFIC CYTOLOGICAL
solution INFORMATION ABOUT THE LESION
-Alkaline Ingestion 142. The radtech on duty expected
133. The pathophysiology of Achalasia that after the IVP of the client. A post
is: procedural care is.
- Functional Obstruction -encourage the patient to increase
134. Presence of currant jelly stools oral intake of fluid.
with palpable sausage shaped mass 143. The local dilation of the vessel
and radiographic string and staircase wall.
appearance are classic signs of this -anerysm
condition? 144. The single elongated cytoplasmic
-Intussusception extension that carrying nerve impulse
135. The modern way in crushing away from th cell body.
stone within the urinary bladder and -Axon
urethra? 145. Synonym of tapping or puncture
-Lithotripsy is
136.) the client with chronic renal - Centhesis
failure complains of feeling nauseated
atleast part of everyday. The radtech 146. The Subarachnoid space of the
on duty know that such condition is skull is locates between the
brought by: - Pia matter and arachnoid
-ACCUMULATION OF WASTE 147.The genos nonmotile acid test
PRODUCTS IN THE BLOOD that include the causative of the lungs
si cervical, lumbar and sacral injuries
- Myobacterium fracture is
148. The subarachnoid space in the -immobilization
skull is located between 163. In the diagnosis and
- Pia Mater and Arachnoid management of multiple sclerosis,
149. The branches that supply blood certain terminologies must be
to the brain understood. The following are the
- Circle of Willis correct combination except
150. What is vertigo? -INTENTION TREMOR (decreased
- dizziness motor coordination)
151.which of the ff. Tumor is 164. A 23-yr-old pt was admitted due
nonmalignant? to an ascending paralysis. In the ICU,
- Adenoma an emergency tracheostomy was done
152.this condition is cause of increase due to the development of decreased
cerebrospinal fluid in ventricle. respiratory rate. As RT on duty, he
- Hydrocephalus prepares MRI equipments and
153.which of the ff. Is very serious procedures, he understand that the
infection of the brain? pathology in this disease is
- Encephalitis -IMMUNE SYSTEM STARTS TO
154. Which of the following is an injury DESTROY THE MYELIN SHEATH
in the brain caused by severe impact? THAT SURROUNDS THE AXONS
-Contusion RESULTING IN SEGMENTAL
155. Which of the following combined DEMYELINATION (NODES OF
word which means numb/analgesic? RANVIER)
-Narc/o 164. End result of Guillain Barre
156. Anatomically, most common Syndrome
cause of back pain in 55 year old male -RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION
clients.
-Lumbosacral 165. Radiography assessment of the
157. In the practice of fundamentals in brain that shows occlusion in the
the transfer of patient in radiology cerebral blood vessels
room, in order to avoid back pain, this -COMPUTED ANGIOGRAPHY
principle is used.
- Proper body mechanics 166. The following are the signs and
158. Tetraplegia means symptoms of Parkinsons Disease
- Paralysis from the neck down EXCEPT
159. If the person falls from 3rd floor -Headache
of the building and lands on the feet,
the mechanism is 167. Client with myasthenia gravis,
- Axial loading Guillain-Barre syndrome or
160. A Pt suffered in severe vehicle amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
accident, needs to have an initial -increased risk of respiratory
assessment before any radiological complications
examination. All is included in initial
assessment EXCEPT 168. A client with myasthenia gravis
- assessment of Gag Reflex undergoing radiographic procedure
161. Autonomic dysreflexia associated -decrease number of functioning
with in acetylpholine receptor sites
- neurogenic bladder
162. Main INITIAL management for
169. Spinal cord injury paraplegic. hemorrhagic stroke is referred to as
Patient ask the radtech what is the - aneurysm
meaning?
—Lower extremities paralyzed 180. All statements are TRUE
regarding DEMENTIA except:
170. Spinal cord injury paraplegia. The - debilitating disease affecting
radtech must know what is the main motor ability and is characterized
side problem? by a tremor and akinesia
-Bladder Control
181. While waiting for the transfer of
171. What is the main parts in Central patient who has sustained head injury
nervous system? the radtech on duty expected at this
— brain and spinal cord area should assessed
- altered level of consciousness
172. Which of the ff. is not included in
Autonomic Nervous System - Skeletal 182. Which of the ff whould healthcare
System personnel expect to assess most
173. the ff. increase the rate of commonly in a school aged child with
transmission of impulses in the possible intracranial pressure
nervous system- Nodes of Ravinier - headache and vomoting
& Myelin sheath
174. The ff. are the function of 183.hydrocephalus can be most
cerebellum- Coordination of accurately define
balance, maintains stability & - progressive enlargement of the
equilibrium of the trunk head due to excessive
accumulation of cerebrospinal
175. The cranial nerve III, IV, VI are fluid
tested together. Test for
- Constriction, convergence, 184. What defines Hydrocephalus?
accommodation -An overproduction and
accumulation of CSF
176. Test for cerebellar function
EXCEPT: 185. A 51 year old man suffers a
-proptioception sense, light touch constant pain in the hip and decreased
and finger nose test hip motion . A radiograph shows a
10x45 cm tumor on the right ischium.
177. Patient who is a victim of mauling A jelly like bluish fluid was obtained.
& stoning incident is admitted in the - Chondrosarcoma
ER with the following neurologic
nanifestation. He has inappropriate 186. A 61 years old suffers 4 months
words, abnormal flexion, eyes open back pain. A normal physical
only in response to pain. What glass examination and a normal chest
glow coma scale? radiograph but with vertebral
-7 luncenies. A biopsy was obtained.
What time of cell?
178. Which among the types of stroke -Giant cell carcinoma
does not belong to the group
- hemorrhagic stroke 187. 11 year old boy has a pain in his
left leg persisted for 3 weeks, On
179. The common cause of physical exam his temp. 37.9°C,
Radiograph reveals a mass in 193. A 23 yrs. old man notes some
diaphyseal region on his left femur minor discomfort over the lateral of his
with overlying cortical erosion and soft right knee after a day working in a
tissue extension, A Bone Biopsy cramped cubicle ( because IT put the
performed and shows numerous small ‘desktop’ workstation on the floor ).
round blue cells, Which of the ff. is he On physical examination he has a
most likely to have palpable ‘bump’ in this region. A
-EWING SARCOMA radiograph pf the knee reveals a
lateral bone from the lower femoral
188. 14 year old west african man has metaphysis. There is no adjacent soft
a history of multiple episode of sudden tissue swelling. The lesion is exposed
onset of severe abdominal pain and and is composed of a 3 cm stalk of
back pain lasting for hours, He now bony cortex capped by cartilage.
has a painful right hip that is tender to Which the ff. is most likely diagnosis?
palpation. Radiograph reveals • Osteochondroma
irregular bony destruction of the
femoral head. Which of the ff. 194. A 45 yrs. old woman has had
infectious agent is most likely worsening shortness of breath for 3
responsible for his findings yrs. She now has to sleep sitting up
-Salmonella Enterica two pilows. She has had difficulty for
‌189. 69 year old man has a increasing the past yr. She has no history of
back and leg pain, he has greater chest pain. A month ago, she had a
difficulty hearing at his left ear, On ‘stroke’ with resultant inability to
physical examination he has move her left arm. She is afebrile. A
decreased dynamic range of motion at chest radiograph reveals a near-
the hips. Radiograph reveals bony normal left ventricular size with a
sclerosis of the sacroiliac, lower prominent left atrial border. Which of
vertebral,upper tibial region. which of the ff. condition is most likely to
the ff. condition is he most likely to account for her findings?
have ? • Mitral Valve Stenosis
‌- Paget Disease of the Bone
190. An 18 yrs old woman has noted 195. A 72 yrs. old woman has had no
pain and swelling her right distal thigh mahor illness throughout her life. She
associated with expansile, has had 3 syncopal episodes during
eccenteric ,lytic lesion located in the past 2 wks. Over the past 2 days.
metapyhsis of distal femur. She has develop shortness of breath
- aneurysmal bone cyst and cough with production of frothy
white sputum. On the physical
191. A 16 yrs old. . On examination examination she is afebrile. Her blood
there is tenderness to palpatation of pressure is 135/90 mm/Hg. She has no
left knee decrease range motion peripheral edema. A chest radiograph
- osteosarcoma reveals a prominent left heart border
in the region in the left ventricle, but
192. A 15 yrs old girl. . A radiographed the other chamber do not appear to be
reveals an abnormal lateral bowing of prominent. Which of the following is
spine with an lateral curvature of mid the most likely diagnosis?
thoracic •Calcific Aortic Stenosis
-assymetric cartilage growth of 196. An 80-year old woman has had
vertebral body and plate no major medical problems but she
has never been physically have for
most of her life. One day she falls out -ALL PATIENT THAT DOES NOT
of bed and immediately notes a sharp HAVE HISTORY OF ALLERGY TO
pain in her left leg. She subsequently SULFA DRUGS
unable to ambutate without severe
pain. Radiographs show not only a 203 .which of the following patient is
fracture of the left femoral head but CT urography ( including scans before
also a compressed fracture of T10. and after IV contrast material)
Which of the condition is she most indicated?
likely to have? -70 YEAR OLD WOMAN WITH
Osteoporosis GROSS HEMATURIA
197. An otherwise healthy 44-year old
man with no prior medical history has 205. Which is true about the
had increasing back pain and right hip gadolinium enhance MR Urography in
pain for the past decade. The pain is the Upper Track transitional cell
worse at the end of the day. On carcinoma ?
physical examination he has bony
enlargement of the distal Ans. It should be performed as
interphalangeal joints. A radiograph of the FIRST LINE IMAGING TEST
the spine reveals the presence of than COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY
prominent osteophytes involving the UROGRAPHY.
vertebral bodies. There is sclerosis
with narrowing of the joint space at 206. Which is true about MR
the right acetabulum seen on a Urography?
radiograph of the pelvis. Which of the
following Ans. It requires IV GADOLINIUM
Osteoarthritis 207. All of the following are changes in
CIRRHOSES that can be seen in the
199. Which of tge ff abnormal in the
liver , except?
first trimester pregnancy
- an embryo with a heart rate of Ans. DILATION OR BEADED
70bpm BILIARY TREE
200. Which of the ff combination 208. A 1.5 cm nodule in a cirrhotic
measurements for routinely obtain to liver that demonstrates hyperintensity
determine gestational age on T1-W imaging, isointensity on T2-W
- biparietal diameter, head imaging. But without increase
circumference, abdominal enhancement in the arterial phase of
circumstance, femur length
imaging on relative to surronding liver
parenchyma likely a result of?
201. The three small structure require
in imaging of fetal brain Ans. DYSPLASTIC NODULE
- cavum septi pellucidi, magna
cisterna, ventricular atrium 209. Related to hepatic fibrosis, which
of the following is true?
202. when performing CT urography,
when is it best administrated the IV Ans. FIBROSIS IS USUALLY
furosemide in addition to contrast RELATED TO VOLUME LOSS AND
material? RETRACTION OF LIVER CAPSULE
RATHER THAN BULDING AND
MASS EFFECT
210. In pseudocirrhosis of liver 217. All of the ff. can simulate MRI of
associated with metastatic breast Ankylosing Spondylitis EXCEPT:
cancer. The liver capsule will Spleenomegaly
demonstrate pattern of lover contour
218. A new born with opacified chest
abnormality
and “ground glass” appearance, which
Ans. -ABSENT one question would help to make a
diagnosis?: What is the gestational
-LIMITED RETRACTION OF LIVER
age?
CAPSULE
219. With ground glass appearance,
-WIDESPREAD RETRACTION OF
what one is the most ancillary
LIVER CAPSULE
finding?: Pleural Effusion
- DIFFUSE NODULARITY
220.) The newborn has inspirated
211. Esophageal CA following thick meconium and has distress
neoadjuvant therapy, FTG PET/ CT syndrome. What pattern do expect in
CXR * coarse reticular
-DETECT NEW METS THAT IS NOT
INCLUDED IN LINE IMAGING 221.) All of the following are
diagnosed prenatally in usd (‘js) or mri
212. Lung CA staging following except
statement is true, PET/CT
* pulmonary interstitial
-IMPROVE DETECTION OF DISTANT emphysema
METS COMPARED TO
CONVENTIONAL IMAGING 222.) The pattern apparent
cardiomegaly and increase pulmonary
213. Cause of acetabular labral tear blood flow. All are seen but
-TRAUMA * respiratory distress syndrome
-FEMORAL ACETABULAR 227. Which of the following question
IMPINGEMEN should be asked to a patient having
-HIP DYSPLASIA chest xray?

214- a possible sign for acetabular- "Did you eat before coming to the
femoral impingement includes exam?"

*an osseous prominence(bump) at 228. Which radiological examination

femoral head and neck junction used to diagnose gallstone?

215- best imaging modality for - Barium Enema

acetabular labral tear 229. Which of the following outlines
*MR arthrogram the size, shape and position of urinary
organs?
216- true regarding MR arthrogram
-KUB radiograph
*MR arthrogram has a high
sensitivity and accuracy of atleast
90% in labral tears
230. Which diagnostic procedure is 239. A benign mass composed of
used for irregularities and tangled blood vessel in the liver is
compression of the spinal cord. called
-Ultrasound *HEMANGIOMA
231. What procedure is used to 240. A membranous obstruction of
diagnose upper gastrointestinal IVC, hypercoagulated state,
bleeding? compression og hepatic vein (liver
tumors or cirrhosis) or liver invasion.
-Retrograde pyelogram(?)
These are causes of what syndrome?
232. Which procedure includes non-
*BUDD-CHIARI SYNDROME
ionizing radiation and strong magnetic
field to allow physician to examine 241. What structure that may cause
internal structures and soft tissue in the IVC to be pushed anteriorly
any area of the body?
*LYMPH NODES
-Nuclear medicine imaging(?)
242. What is the common age to
233. What would you tell a patient in contract a seminoma?
preparation for a Barium enema?
*15-35
-Instruct the patient to follow all-
243.) Focal fatty infiltration, focal fatty
liquid diet beginning in the
sparing, enlarged caudate lobe,
morning of the procedure
increased echogenicity of liver
234. Using Harmonic ultrasound what
— Fatty Liver Disease (FLD)
change will you see in the
wavelength? 244.) Most common organism causing
opportunistic infection to patients with
-It is halved
HIV
235. The thyroid lab results value t3
— Pneumocystis carinii
and t4 increases therefore the TSH will
pneumonia (PCP)
be?
245.) Typical frame rate of Ultrasound
Ans. Decreased
system
236. The eccinoccocus cyst (hydatid
— Between 5 Hz and 50 Hz
disease) is a characteristic of?
246.) Term for concentration of matter
Ans. A cyst with double wall
— Density
237. The hormone that is secreted by
the adrenal medula and cortex? 247. Length of Vessels are half? -
resistance is half.
Ans. Epinephrine
248.narrowest of beam?- focus.
238. The sign used fot the appearance
of dilated CBD? 249.high area of velocity?- center of
lumen.
Ans. Shotgun
251. A width of the beam is dependent 259. When an ultrasound frequency
on what ? increases: doppler shift :
-Depth -increases
252. The diameter of disc shaped 260. advantage og doppler compound
unfocus piezoelectric crystal is 5mm. scanning is that
Estimate the minimum lateral
-Reduce speckle
resolution of the system.
261.Wavelegth of the xray beam
-2.5mm
determined by the
253. I-P area is what equation?
Voltage between the anode and
-Intensity the cathode.
254. Ultrasound is cyclic sound
pressure with a frequency greater
261. in ultrasound propagating speed
than upper limit of the human
in the tissues under the examination is
hearring. At what value does USD
higher than the assumed machine
begin?
1540 m/s the object will be displayed
-greater than 20KHz in th image__true location
255. A maximum Pulse repitition -Less deep than
frequency(PRF) that the machine can
262. In Doppler ultrasound spectral
be use when imaging is limited by
mirror articfact occurs
Ans -Depth of penetration
-Doppler angle 90 degrees
256. Mirror image artifacts are cause
263. In colour doppler, the frequency
by
aliasing occurs:
Ans- Reflection of the ultrasound
-the colour doppler PRF is too low
by highly reflective tissue
interfaces 264. Doppler frequency aliasing can
be reduced or eliminated by:
257. Slice thickness(elevation plane)of
the ultrasound beam cause by Decreasing the ultrasound
frequency
Ans- Liquid filled structures to fill
echoes from adjacent tissues at 265. The width of the ultrasound beam
the same depth. at focus will decrease
258. Potter bucky and stationary grid? Both the frequency and the
aperture are increased
Eliminate large portion of
secondary radiation 266. Imaging with tissue harmonics
258. The term Duty Factor refers to -Improves image resolution
Ans. Transmits pulse duration -Reduces slice thickness artifact
divided by the time between one
transmit pulse and the next. -Reduces sidelobe artifacts
267. Echo enhancement in images 274.) Your are performing a sonogram
indicates the presence of tissues on a slender female and notice a long,
which have this extension in the inferior aspect of
the right hepatic lobe. This most likely
* low attenuation
represents
268. Harmonic imaging is often used
Ans. Reidels Lobe
in conjunction with ultrasound contrast
because it 275. which of the following forms the
caudal border of the left lobe of the
* increases the echogenecity of
liver?
the contrast agent relative to the
tissue -LIGAMENTUM TERES
269. You are scanning a patient with a 276. what ligament separates the left
known mass in the left medial lobe of the liver to Medial and Lateral
segment of the liver. What anatomic segment?
landmark can you use to identify the
-LIGAMENTUM TERES.
left medial segment separate from the
right anterior segment of the liver? 277. you are asked to perform a
doppler study of the hepatic artery of
* middle hepatic vein
the liver, What differentiates the portal
270. You are suspecting an vein to hepatic artery?
enlargement of the caudate lobe in a
-PORTAL VEIN ACCOMPANIED BY
patient with liver disease. What
THE BRANCHES OF THE BILIARY
structure in the anterior border of the
TREE AND HEPATIC ARTERY.
caudate lobe will help you identify the
lobe? 278. You have detected mass anterior,
and in the left ligamentum venusom,
* fissure for the ligamentum
mass is located what lobe of the liver?
venosum
-CAUDATE LOBE
271.) You are asked to rule out
279. The thin capsule surrounding the
recannalized paraumbilicus. Which of
liver is known as
the anatomic structure is a useful
landmark in location to this structure -Glissons capsule
Ans. Ligamentum teres 280. Which of the following course
interlobar and intersegmental within
272.) Which vessel courses with main
the liver?
lobar fissure
Hepatic veins
Ans. Middle hepatic vein
281. You are performing an ultrasound
273.) Oxygenated blood supplies the
exam of the liver on a small patient
liver via the
with a 5 MHz curved array. Although
Ans. Portal vein and hepatic have increased the overall gain to its
artery maximum setting, the posterior lobe
of the liver and diaphragm are not
visualized, what should you do?
Rescan the liver with a lower 288. A 52 year old with liver cirrhosis
frequency transducer presents to a abdominal ultrasound.
You are carefully evaluating the liver
282. Which of the following correctly
for presence of focal mass because of
describes the probe placement and
which TRUE statement below:
imaging plane you would use to
demonstrate the 3 hepatic veins and —patient with liver cirrhosis have
IVC in one view? increased risk for hepatocellular
carcinoma
Subcostal oblique approach with
the probe angled superiorly and 289. You are scanning a patient with
to the right suspected liver cirrhosis. All of the
following are sonographically features
283. A pt is referred for a liver usd
of cirrhosis EXCEPT
with clinical history of raised serum
alpha-fetoprotein level. What should — shrunken caudate lobe
you look for? HCC (Hepatocellular
290. An ultrasound evaluation for liver
Carcinoma)
cirrhosis should include which
284. U are reviewing lab results in associate complications
prior to abdominal usd exam, elevated
— Portal Hypertension
value of GGT and ALP. Which of the ff
is true? 291. An ultrasound findings of an
abdominal study on a 51 year old
Concomitant elevation of GGT and
female include enlargement of veins
ALP is the source indication of
and IVC in an otherwise normal
elevated ALP is the liver
appearing liver. This findings is most
285. Which of the ff is not included in consistent in which of the following? -
evaluating liver function? LIPASE right sided heart failure
286. A patient is referred with right 292. Focal fatty liver is most
upper quadrant pain and tenderness. commonly found in which location
Patient has a history of oral
- anterior to portal vein at porta
contraceptive use. A solid, hypoechoic
hepatis
mass seen on the right lobe of the
liver. Color doppler reveals a 293. You performed an ultrasound of a
hypervasularity of the mass. Which of patient with enlargement of caudate
the ff scenario most likely? lobe. Shrunken right lobe and
splenomegaly. The hepatic vein could
HEPATIC ADENOMA
not be identified. No other
287. A liver ultrasound of a 49 year old abnormalities were discovered. What
obese male demonstrates diffuse should you do?
increased echogenicity with focal
- Evaluate hepatic veins and IVC
hypoechoic area in the anterior portal
with color doppler to confirm
vein. This represents:
patency
— Fatty metamorphosis of liver
with focal sparing
294. A patient is referred to the hepatic veins. Color and Spectral
hepatomegaly. All of which are useful doppler reveal high velocities within
indicators of hepatomegaly except the strictures, this findings is common
associted with which of the following?
- increase diameter in main portal
ANSWER: CIRRHOSIS
vein greater than 1 cm
302. Which of the following is
295. You have identified a single
commonly associated with invasion in
homogenic hyperechoic lesion
the portal veins?
measuring 2.4cm in the posterior
aspect of the right lobe of the liver. ANSWER: HEPATOCELLULAR
What is the most common etiology to CARCINOMA
associate this mass?
303.what is not acoustic variable?
Cavernous hemangioma.
Ans. Intensity
296. A patient was referred a
304. Which of the ff. Sound wave is
sonogram of the liver to rule out
ultrasonic and least useful in
metastatic disease. Which of the ff.are
diagnostic imaging.
appearances in the radiograph about
liver metastasis? Ans. 30 khz
All of the above appearance may 305. What fequency wave with
be accumulated with liver 1msec.period?
metastasis
Ans. 1khz
297. Which of the following features
are NOT part of hepatic cysts? 306. If a frequency wave is doubled,
Increase Attenuation. what happens to period?

298. You are scanning the liver when Ans. Halved

you detect irregular liver surface. A 307. The time from beginning of a
nodular liver surface is associated with pulse until end
which of the following abnormalities?
Cirrhosis. Answer : pulse duration

299. Which of the following is NOT 308. The time that transducer is
TRUE regarding fatty liver? pulsing I measured at 18 sec total
elapsed time. What is the duty factor?
ANSWER: It is an irreversible
disorder Answer :0.005

300. What is the most common benign 309. If wave's amplitude double. What
tumor in the liver happen to power?

Ans. Cavernous hemangioma Answer: Quadrupled

300.incorrect depth artifact? - range 310. If the level of acoustic variable

ambiguity. ranges from 55-105. What is the
amplitude?
301. You are scanning through the
liver and notice luminal narrowing of Answer : 25
311) If the intensity of the soundb 320. If we increase the transducer
beam remains constant and beam diameter, the beam diameter in the
area is reduced in half what happens far zone is
to power?
Decreased
Ans: Halved
321. If the transducer increases, the
312) Arrange these in decreasing lateral reduction at it’s smallest
order? dimension is
Ans: SPTP,SATP,SATA Increased
313) What is the duty factor of US 322. If we increase the frequency the
beam? near zone length is
Ans: 1.0 Increased
314) Minimum Value of SP/SA? 323. if the frequency is decreased, the
numerical value of the radial
Ans: 1.0
resolution is? -increased
315. Which pair of intensities has the
324. which of the following is the best
same value for continuous wave US?
lateral resolution? -0.06cm
- Pulse average and temporal
325. what is the meaning of thermal
average
index 37? -tissue temperature rise
316. The fundamental frequency of 3 degrees celcius
the transducer is 2.5 MHz. What is the
326. which of the following has the
second harmonic frequency?
best output intensity? -Pulsed
- 4.8 MHz Doppler

317. A pulse is emitted by a 327. The speed of propagation US in

transducer and is travelling in soft the AIUM test object is?
tissues, the end-return time/ time of
Ans. 1.54mm/us
flight of a sound pulse is 130
microseconds. What is the reflector 328. Enhancement, multipath and side
depth? lobes result in:
- 10 cm Ans. Artifact
318. The relative output of an US 329. If the transducer diameter
instrument can be calibrated in db. increases, the lateral resolution at it’s
The beam intensity is increased by smallest dimension is
which of the following:
Increased
- One million times
330. If we increased the frequency,
319. The more pixels per inch the near zone
The better is the spatial -increase
resolution
331. If the frequency is decreased, the 0.1
numerical value of the radial
340. Clay shovelers fractures found in
resolution is
what area of the spine?
Increased
Cervical only
332. Which of the following is the best
340. What component of the US unit
lateral resolution?
contains the memory bank?
0.06 cm
Scan converter
333. What are the units of longitudinal
341. Changing which of the following
resolution?
would not cause any change in a hard
Feet copyimage output
334. The range equation relates Display brightness and contrast
distant from the reflector to______ and
342. What are the typical clinical
_____
Doppler frequencies?
Time of flight, propagation speed
1-10 MHz
335. Most typical doppler shift
343. If 3MHZ sound has 2DB
measured clinically.
attenuation of 1cm on tissue. What is
Ans. 2 kHz the amount of attenuation if 6 MHZ
sound on 0.5 cm in the same tissue
336. Assumed that the frequency is
constant what will happen if the Ans. 2DB
diameter of unfocused circular
344. The distance to a target is
transducer increase
doubled. The time of flight for a pulse
Ans. The beam width in near field to travel abd back is
increased
Ans. 2 times
337. Set of properties of test phantom
345. How many bits are needed to
most relevant in assessing dose
represent 14 shades of gray.
calibration accuracy.
Ans. 4 bits
-reflector spacing and
propagation speed. 346. What artifact has grainy
appearance and is caused by the
338. Fill in anechoic structures such as
interference effect of scattered
cyst is known as all of the following
sound ?
EXCEPT.
Ans. Speckle
ANS. ghosting artifact
347. Multiple reflections that are
339. According to the AIUM
equally spaced are called
statements on bioeffects, there have
been no confirmed bioeffects below -Reberverations
intensities of _________ watts per
square centimeter SPTA
348. The angle between an US pulse 356.) The impredence of tissue is
and the boundary between two is 90 3x10^5 and for the PZT is 6x10^6
degrees. What is this called? what is the BEST impredence of
matching layer
-Orthogonal incidence
- 9.5x10^5
349. Refraction only occur if there is:
357.) What can the pulse droppler
- Oblique incidence and different
measure that continuous wave cannot
propagation speed
- Location
350. Sound is travelling from the
medium 1 to medium 2. Propagation 358.) What is fraction time that
speeds of M1 and M2 are 1600m/s and sounds transmitting
1500m/s respectively. The oblique
- Duty Factor
incidence
359. If the spta of the following is
- Angle of incidence = Angle of
equal which would have the lowest
reflection
sppa
351. Depth Calibration machine
- continuous wave
measures 100 mm and Space wires of
90 mm apart. With reflectors of 50 360. Db is defined as _____ of the two
mm apart. What is the measurement intensity
of distance?
-ratio
*45mm
361. A power of sound wave is
352. In an analogy scan Converter. increase by a factor of 8 how much
What component stores image data. decibel is this?
*Dielectric Mix 9 db
353. When the display shows a strong 362. An ultrasound system is set up at
reflective object and nothing else. 0dp at its full intensity. What is the
What will the songrapher do? output power transmitting at 50
percent full intensity?
*Increase Output Power
- -3 db
354. You are performing a Quality
Assurance study on a US system. You 363.an ultrasound system is set by 0%
adjust the knob on a console system and is transmitting a full intensity.
adjusting it from a very bright to a dim what is the power output when the
display. What is being tested? system istransmitting a10% of full
intensity?
*System Sensitivity
- -10dB
355.) what is the location in the sound
beam is the STPA highest 364. a doppler study performed a
5MHZ probe and PRF of15KHZ. Which
- Focal point
of the doppler ashift will cause aliasing
- 14KHZ
365. according to AIUM statement of 374. The power of ultrasound wave
bioefects. there has been no can be projected with which of the
confirmed bioefects below an intensity following units. More than one answer
_ watts per square cm may be correct. Watts
- 0.1 375. the maximum value of density of
the acoustic wave is 60 lb/in^2 while
366. which of the ff is not a
in minimum density is 20 lb/in^2.
measurement of area
what is the amplitude of the wave?
-cubic meters ans. 20 lb/in^2

367. Which of the following is true to 376. the final amplitude of the
all waves. acoustic wave is reduced to one half of
its original value, the final power is
*All carry energy from one side to _____ the original power. None of the
another. above
368. The force is applied on a surface. 377. unit of intensity = watts/ cm^2
If the force is tripled and the surface
area of which the force is applied is 378. If the power in an ultrasound
also tripled. What is the new pressure? beam is unchanged , while at the
*Unchanged same time, the beam area doubled
then the beam’s intenstity
369. Which of the following is
appropriate to describe the period in a Is halved
acoustic wave. *Minutes
Ans. NONE OF THE ABOVE
370. Two waves interact at the same
379. When the power in an acoustic
location and interfere. The resultant
beam is doubled while the cross
wave is smaller than either of the two
sectional area of the beam is halved,
original waves. This is called
the intensity of the beam is - FOUR
*destructive interference
TIMES
371. Ultrasound is defined as a sound
380. What determines the intensity of
with a frequency of.
the ultrasound beam after passing
- Greater than 0.02 MHz through the body-

372. Compare two sound waves, A & BOTH A AND B

B. The frequency of wave A is one-
381. What happens to the intensity of
third that of wave B. How does the
the ultrasound beam when the cross
period of wave A compare to the
sectional area remains the same but
period of wave B?
the amplitude of the wave is tripled-
- A is three times as long as B INCREASE NINEFOLD

373. Which of the following wave is 382. The wavelength of the ultrasound
ultrasonic and least useful in beam can be reported with which of
diagnostic ultrasound? the following units-

- 24 KHz UNITS OF DISTANCE (feet, cm)

383. The term used to describe the 394. Which of the following of
relationship between frequency and radionuclide are not used in
wavelength of a sound travelling in radiosynarthrosis?
soft tissue: •Inverse
*Yttrium 99
384. The closest to lower limit of US:
395: The following should
•15000Hz
sonographically appear as a cystic
385. ________ is the distance covered mass that sorrounds testicles
by one cycle. •Wavelength
● Hydrocele
386. If the frequency of the US is
396: The ability of imaging sytem to
increase from 0.77MHz to 1.54MHz,
detect weak reflection is
what will happen to the wavelength:
•Halved ● Sensitivity
387.)As frequency decreases, the 397: Chromatography in nuclear
numeric value for radial resolution? medicine is use to determine
INCREASES ● Radionuclide purity
388.)As frequency increase, the near 398: The following is NOT a sign or a
length zone? symptom of Parkinson's disease
INCREASES ● Headache, fever, nausea
388.)Patient has CUSHING SYNDROME 403.) rupture of the spleen as a result
the attending radiographer must be of blunt abdominal trauma can be
informed that this disease. BEST demonstrated by:
Spontaneous fracture CT SCAN
389.The reason why FDG-18 Use to 404.) most common cause of noise in
localize its malignancy CT scan:
T Undergoes metabolic trapping QUANTUM NOISE
391. The clay's shovelers fracture are 405.) the most sensitive and specific
involved in which area of spine non invasive methods in diagnosing
mitral stenosis:
*Cervical only
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
392. FOD at given depth
406.) Captopril renal scan are used to
*Increases with low beam assess: RENAL ARTERY STENOSIS
energies
407. Patients with hyperthyroidism,
393. Which of the following hospital will have the following function test
acquired infection and inflammation of
Answer: INCREASE TSH, HIGH T4
alveoli?
408. The radiographic appearance of
*Nosocomial pneumonia
this condition will show thickening
shadow with configuration of adult's
thumb in the radiography of neck Ans: chadwick's sign
lateral.
418: The quantity used for Fixed SSD
Answer: EPIGLOTITIS technique
409. In the study of head and neck Ans: PDD
cancer, Immobilization is particularly
423. When PELVIS irradiation delivered
important because
to obese patient, the advantage of
Answer: FIELDS ARE OFTEN VERY prone position is that?
LARGE THAT COULD INCLUDE
The abdomen flattened against
RADIOSENSITIVE ORGANS
the couch, causin the small bowel
410. in the study of kidney, the first to to love anteriorly
be visible after injection of contrast
424.normal average ultrasonography
medium
measuremnt of GB diameter.
Answer: CALYCES
3mm
411. What radiotherapy machine
425.survey meter,s can
operates a principle of an electron will
accelerate in a circulare orbit on Location source of radiation
changing magnetic field?
426.which of the ff. Procedure does
●Betatron not perform Tc99m sulfite colloid ?
412. What radiotherapy machine uses GI bleeding
50-156 potentila range?
427.The computation of unknown
●Superficial radiotherapy. values using known values on either
side - extrapolation
413. A flattening filter
428.The mechanism used for
● Reduces dose rate in the center
radiopharmaceutical localization in
of the unfiltered beam
lung scanning - active transport
414. A geometric properties that has
429. In sonogram suggests mass in
greatest effect on spatial resolution in
head of pancreas, the sonographer
CT scan
should –
●Focal spot size
outline hepatic arteries and
415. The ratio of pressure to particle splenic arteries to determine
velocity at point area in the usd field whether they are dilated
Ans. Impedance 430.Which of the following diagnosis
does not mimic sonographic
416. Process in which the entire data
characteristic of hydatidform mole -
set ia used to high quality images
missed abortion
Ans. Image matrix
431. The common cause of
417: The characteristics pattern in cystitis/urinary tract infection is
ultrasound of duodenal atracia is
Infection from the ureter and 440. A Lucite tray inserted in the path
kidney of the beam can be considered a
432. what standard MRI pulse Beam spoiler
sequence can provide T1, T2, or
441. Which of the following
proton density-weighted images?
procedures is also known as “short
Ans. Echo planar imaging distance” therapy
433. The axial scan can be obtained Brachytherapy
by placing the transducer on the
442. Which of the following is NOT a
parietal bone just above the.
low LET radiation?
Ans. External auditory meatus
Proton
434. Fibropurulent fluid in the pleural
443. The mechanism of uptake of
space indicates which of the ff
radiopharmaceutical in liver-spleen
conditions?
scanning
Ans. Empyema
Phagocytosis by the RE system
435. What type of coils is directly
444. CT equipment must be frequently
placed on the patient and is used in
calibrated so that water is consistently
the imaging of superfical structures
represented by CT number zero and
Ans. Surface coils other tissues with their appropriate CT
number, This refers to
436. Which of the ff combination
quality control test are to be Uniformity
performed daily on gamma camera? -
445. When the treatment are designed
field uniformity, photopeaking
by the radiation oncologist, margins
437. The process in which the planned are always added around a tumor
field arrangement is verified using an because of
xray machine that mimics the
Uncertainties in determining the
geometry of the therapy machines
tumor extent, penumbra of the
and produces diagnostic quality
beam and patient motion
radiographs. - simulation
446. This is a reduction of available
438. What is the most popular RF
space in the spinal column causing
pulse sequence because of the
compression of the neural elements
reduction in scan time, which consist
of a 90 degrees pulse that indicates a Spinal stenosis
partial saturation sequence and
followed by a 170 degrees pulse at 447. In usd examination, if prostate
50% of the echo-time (TE)? - spin found enlarged, Radtech should also
echo check —scrotum for hydrocele (?)

439. Hemorrhage on CT scans 448. What is the difference of

becomes isodence after densities in ct scan image called? —
CONTRAST RESOLUTION
24 hours
449. A guide needed for determining 460. Which of the following is an injury
electron beam energy (mEv) of the brain cause by severe impact
—divide 80% isodose line by 10 - contusion
and then maximum tumor depth
461. Sonographically the
dose by centimeter
gastroesophageal junction can be
450. What is the acceptable range of visualized
the beam? - 5%
- sonographically cannot be
451. Which of the ff. describes recognized
thyroiditis
462. The best modality to demonstrate
diffusely enlarged thyroid lobes the rupture of the spleen as a result of
and decreased in echogenicity blunt abdominal trauma.
453. The ability of the given amount of Ans. Computed Tomography
radioactivity of a radionuclide to
ionized air molecule is reffered to as
464. bnormally elevated carbon
* ionizing constant
dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood.
454. Which of the following is the least
Ans. Hypercapnia
obstacle to transmission of ultrasound
467. Which of the following refers to
-blood
the measurement of radiation dose
455. The comparison of xray that demonstrates how radiation
attenuation of voxel tissue to equal throughout the patients body
volume of water is?
Dosimetry
*linear attenuation coefficient
468. Which of the following deals the
456. A viral inflammation of the brain measurement of absorbed dose from
and meninges is referred to as ionizing radiation with matter?
- Encephalitis > radiation dosimetry
457. Tc99m DMSA scan is used to 469. What is the constant refer to the
determining presence of cavities of pons
- nephrolithiasis > pontubulbia
458. A magnetic resonance sequence 470. What is the another term for
uses 180-degree pulse followed by 90- alpha partice?
degree pulse. This is referred to as
> 2 protons
- inversion-recovery
473. Which of the ff. special case of
459. CT artifact that is most common Compton effect it the photons is
in scanning the base of skull scattered right angle to its original
direction and the angle electron
- beam hardening
emission depends on the energy.
Answer: Gazing Hit 482. What is the SSD of linear
accelerator? 100cm
474.What is the approximate velocity
of sound? 483. What is the common field
arrangement used is palliative
ANS: 5000meter/s
treatment?
474. The principal advantage of
Parallel opposed
computed over conventional
tomography is: ‌ 85. Refers to protrusion hernia of the
4
UB
Ans. Reduced patient dose
‌-Vesicocele
475. Which type of monitoring device
is measure in radiation, based on the ‌ 86. Emission of the signal from the
4
change of thermal energy per unit patient
mass on a medium. Ans. Calometry
‌- Projection Radiography
475. Which of the ff. detector yield
‌ 87. Measurement of the Radiation
4
information about energy distribution
Dose.
of incident radiation?
‌-Dosimetry
Answer: Densitometer
476. What is Xerophthalmia? Ans.
Dryness of conjunctiva
477. What does the metastasis
means?
Spread of cancer to a distant site
tumor
478. Which of the following is the
inflammation of the intestine.
CHRONS DISEASE
479 what cell is concerned with the
formation of bile and are often
contains of fragments of red blood
cells and pigment granules that are
derived from the breakdown of
hemoglobin
- kupffer cell
480. Cobalt 60 comes from what
stable element? Cobalt 59
481. What part of LINAC machine
creates electrons? Electron gun