MAJOR TEST -25

FULLSYLLABUS

FULLSYLLABUS

FULLSYLLABUS

FULLSYLLABUS
1. An electromagnetic radiation has an energy 14.4 eV. 6. A free neutron decays to a proton but a free proton
To which region of electromagnetic spectrum does it does not decay to a neutron. This is because
belong?
(1) Ultraviolet region (1) neutron is a composite particle made of a
proton and an electron whereas proton is
(2) Visible region fundamental particle
(3) X-ray region (2) neutron is an uncharged particle whereas
proton is a charged particle
(4) γ -ray region
(3) neutron has larger rest mass than the proton
2. An electron beam is moving near to a conducting
loop then the induced current in the loop :- (4) weak forces can operate in a neutron but
not in a proton.
7. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are
connected in parallel . If ρ 1 and ρ 2 are the
(1) Clockwise
resistivity of the metal wires respectively, the
(2) Anti clockwise effective resistivity of the combination is :-
(3) Both 2ρ1 ρ2
(1) (2) ρ 1+ ρ 2
(4) No current ρ1 + ρ2
ρ1 ρ2 ρ1 + ρ2
3. A particle executes S.H.M. with a period of 6 second (3) (4)
ρ1 + ρ2 2ρ1 ρ2
and amplitude of 3 cm. Its maximum speed in cm/sec
8. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of electron
is :
र्ध्य of kinetic energy 200 eV (mass = 1 × 10 –30 kg,
(1) π /2 (2) π charge = 1.6 × 10 –19 C, planks constant
(3) 2 π (4) 3 π h = 6.6 × 10 –34 Js) :-
4. Two non-reactive monoatomic ideal gases have (1) 9.60 × 10 –11 m
their atomic masses in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of (2) 8.25 × 10 –11 m
their partial pressures, when enclosed in a vessel
kept at a constant temperature, is 4 : 3. The ratio (3) 6.25 × 10 –11 m
of their densities is: (4) 5.00 × 10 –11 m
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
9. In a pure capacitive circuit, if the frequency is
(3) 6 : 9 (4) 8 : 9 doubled, what happens to the capacitive reactance
5. In single slit diffraction, the phase difference and the current ?
between the Huygen's wavelet from the edge of (1) Capacitive reactance is halved, the current
the slit and the wavelet from the mid point of the is doubled
slit for first maxima.
(2) Capacitive reactance is doubled, the current
(1) 2 π radian (2) π radian is halved
5π 3π (3) Capacitive reactance and the current both
(3) radian (4) radian
2 2 are halved
(4) Capacitive reactance and the current both
are doubled
10. Two charges proton and α -particle are projected 14. A vector which is perpendicular to
in uniform transverse magnetic field of strength ^ ^
(a cos θ i + b sin θ j ) is :-
'B' and '2B' respectively in such a way that their
(1) b sin θ i^ − a cos θ j^
radii of circular tracks are equal. Find ratio of
their kinetic energy :- (2) 1 ^ 1 ^
sin θ i − cos θ j
a b
(1) 1 : 4 (3) ^
5k
(2) 2 : 4 (4) All of these
(3) 1 : 5 15. A string is wrapped around the rim of a wheel
(4) 1 : 6
of moment of inertia 0.20 kg-m2 and radius
11. A telescope consisting of objective of focal
length 50 cm and a single lens eye piece of focal 20 cm. The wheel is free to rotate about its
length 5 cm is focused at a distant object in such axis and initially the wheel is at rest. The
a way that parallel rays emerge from the eye
piece. If the object subtends an angle of 2° at the string is now pulled by a force of 20 N. The
objective, then angular width of image will be. angular velocity of the wheel after 5 seconds
(1) 20°
will be:-
(2) 24°
(3) 50°
(4) 1/6°
12. For intensity I of a light of wavelength 5000Å
the photo saturation current is 0.40 µA and
stopping potential is 1.36 V, the work function
of metal is :- (1) 90 rad/s
(1) 2.47 eV
(2) 70 rad/s
(2) 1.36 eV
(3) 95 rad/s
(3) 1.10 eV
(4) 100 rad/s
(4) 0.43 eV
16. A satellite orbits around the earth in a circular
13. The Young's modulus of brass and steel are
respectively 1×1010 N/m2 and 2 × 1010 N/m2. A orbit with a speed v and orbital radius r. If it
brass wire and a steel wire of the same length are
extended by 1 mm under the same force; the loses some energy, then v and r changes as :-
radii of brass and steel wires are RB and RS (1) v decreases and r increases
respectively. Then :-
(2) both v and r decreases
RB
(1) RS = √ 2RB (2) RS =
√2 (3) v increases and r decreases
(3) RS = 4RB (4) RB (4) both v and r increases
RS =
4
17. The position vector R→ of a particle as a function of time is 21. A block slides down on an inclined surface of
given by :- inclination 30° with the horizontal. Starting from
→ = 4 sin(2 π t)i^ + 4 cos(2 π t)j^
R rest it covers 8 meter in the first two seconds.
Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and ^i and ^j denote The coefficient of friction is (g = 10 ms –2) :-
unit vectors along x and y-directions respectively. Which 1 1
(1) (2)
one of the following statements is wrong for the motion 5 √3 2 √3
of this particle ? 1 √ 3
(3) (4)
√ 3 5
(1) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter
22. A car is moving on a circular road of
(2) Acceleration vector is along −R→ diameter 50 m with a speed 5 ms –1. It is
v2 suddenly accelerated at a rate 1 ms –2. If its mass
(3) Magnitude of acceleration vector is
R is 500 kg, net force acting on the car is :-
where v is the velocity of particle.
(1) 500 N
(4) Magnitude of the velocity of particle
is 8 meter/second (2) 1000 N

18. A string vibrates in 5 segments to a frequency of (3) 500√2N

480 Hz. The frequency that will cause it vibrate (4) 500/√2N

in 2 segments will be :- 23. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of

(1) 96 Hz (2) 192 Hz – 13°C. The coefficient of performance of the
refrigerator is 5. The temperature of the air (to which
(3) 1200 Hz (4) 2400 Hz heat is rejected) will be :-
19. Assertion : Torque on a body may be non-zero (1) 325°C
even if net force acting on it is zero.
Reason : Force does not depend on point of (2) 325 K
application, but torque depends on point of (3) 39°C
application.
(4) 320°C
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the 24. A gas speciman in one vessel is expanded
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. isothermally to double its volume and a similar
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason specimen in the second vessel is expanded
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. adiabatically to the same extent, then :
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (1) In the second vessel, both final pressure
and work done are more
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) In the second vessel, final pressure is more,
20. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 8 × 104 Nm–2.
but the work done is less.
The density of the gas is 4 kg m–3. What is the energy of
the gas due to its thermal motion ? (3) In the first vessel, both final pressure &
work done are more.
(1) 6 × 104 J (2) 7 × 104 J
(4) In the first vessel, final pressure is more,
(3) 3 × 104 J (4) 5 × 104 J
but work done is less
25. A ball is dropped from a height of 80 m on a 30. The apparent depth of a needle lying at the bottom
ground. Find the height attained by the ball of the tank, which is filled with water of refractive
after 2nd collision, if cofficient of restitution, e index 1.33 to a height of 12.5 cm is measured by a
is 0.5 :- microscope to be 9.4 cm. If water is replaced by a
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m liquid of refractive index 1.5 upto the same height.
What distance would the microscope have to be
(3) 40 m (4) 80 m moved to focus on the needle again ?
26. A sphere P of mass m and velocity vi undergoes an (1) 1.1 cm (2) 2.13 cm
oblique and perfectly elastic collision with an identical
(3) 3.1 cm (4) 4.15 cm
sphere Q initially at rest. The angle θ between the
velocities of the spheres after the collision shall be :- 31.
(1) 0° (2) 45°
(3) 90° (4) 180° Find out true value in above vernier callipers
27. Water rises to height of 2cm in a vertical observation.
capillary tube. If the tube is tilted 30° from 1 main scale division = 1mm
horizontal then water will rise in the tube to a Least count = 0.1 mm
length :
Zero error = 0.2 mm
(1) 4 cm (2) 2 cm
(1) 6.5 mm (2) 6.7 mm
4
(3) cm (4) 1 cm
√ 3 (3) 6.3 mm (4) 7.5 mm
28. The coefficient of volume expansion of a liquid is 32. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a
49 × 10 –5/K. Calculate the fractional change in its positive charge q distributed uniformly over it.
density when the temperature is raised by 30°C. The net field E→ at the centre O is:-
(1) 7.5 × 10 –3
(2) 3.0 × 10 –3
(3) 1.47 × 10 –2
(4) 1.1 × 10 –3 q ^ q ^
(1) j (2) − j
29. A zener diode having breakdown voltage equal 4π 2 ε 0 r2 4π 2 ε 0 r2
to 10V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit q ^ q ^
(3) − j (4) j
shown in figure. The current flowing through the 2 π 2 ε 0r 2 2 π 2 ε 0 r2
diode is : 33. Two long straight parallel wires, 10 cm apart,
carry currents of 5 A each in opposite directions.
Then the magnetic field at a point midway
between them is :-
(1) 10 mA (2) 5 mA (1) Zero (2) 2 × 10 –4 T
(3) 15 mA (4) 20 mA (3) 4 × 10 –5 T (4) 5 × 10 –4 T
34. Two polaroids are kept crossed to each other. 38. A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of
Now one of them is rotated through an angle of 105 V/m between the plates. If the charge on the
45°. Now, the percentage of incident unpolarised capacitor plate is 1 μ C, then the force on each
light transmitted through the system is : capacitor plate is :-
(1) 15% (2) 25% (1) 0.1 N (2) 0.05 N
(3) 50% (4) 60% (3) 0.02 N (4) 0.01 N
35. In which of the following case, we will obtain an 39. In the given figure, two diodes D1 and D2 are
output of '1' :- connected to an external resistance R = 400 Ω
and emf of 5.5V. If the barrier potential of both
the diodes is 0.5 V, then the current in the circuit
will be :
(1) X = 1 ; Y = 1 ; Z = 1
(2) X = 1 ; Y = 1 ; Z = 0
(3) X = 0 ; Y = 1 ; Z = 1
(4) X = 0 ; Y = 0 ; Z = 1
SECTION - B (PHYSICS) (1) 2.5 mA (2) 10 mA

36. The following diagram indicates the energy (3) 12.5 mA (4) 20 mA
levels of a certain atom, when the transition 40. 3x2 y2
Electric potential in a region is V= − ,
occure from 4E level to E, a photon of 2 4
wavelength λ 1 is emitted. The wavelength of where x and y are in metre and V is in volt electric
7 field intensity (in v/m) at a point (1m, 2m) is :-
photon produced during its transition from E
3 (1) 3i^ − j^ (2) −3i^ + j^
level to E is λ 2. The ratio λ 1 will be :- ^ ^ ^ ^
λ2 (3) 6i − 2j (4) −6i + 2j

41. The interference pattern is obtained with two

coherent light sources of intensity ratio 4. In the
9 4 3 7 Imax − Imin
(1) (2) (3) (4) interference pattern, the ratio will be
4 9 2 3 Imax + Imin
37. A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns (1) 1 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 5
and carries a current of 12 A. The coil is 5 5 4

suspended vertically and the normal to the plane 42. A galvanometer, having a resistance of 50 Ω gives
of the coil makes an angle of 30° with the a full scale deflection for a current of 0.05A. The
direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field length of a resistance wire of area of cross-section
of magnitude 0.80 T. What is the magnitude of 2.97 × 10 –2 cm2 that can be used to convert the
torque experienced by the coil? galvanometer into an ammeter which can read a
maximum of 5A current is :-
(1) 1.96 Nm (2) 0.96 Nm (Specific resistance of the wire = 5 × 10 –7 Ω × m)
(3) 2.0 Nm (4) 4 Nm (1) 9m (2) 6m (3) 3m (4) 1.5m
43. Water emerges down from a tap of cross section 47. An electric pump is used to fill an overhead tank
0.9 cm2 with speed 2 m/s find cross section of of capacity 9 m3, kept at a height of 10 m above
water stream 0.25 m below the tap (g = 10 m/s2) : the ground. If the pump takes 5 minutes to fill
the tank by consuming 10 KW power, the
(1) 0.4 cm2 (2) 0.1 cm2 efficiency of the pump should be :
(Take g = 10 m s –2)
(3) 0.9 cm2 (4) 0.6 cm2
(1) 60% (2) 40%
44. Match the column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II (3) 20% (4) 30%
A Kepler's first law p T2 ∝ a3 48. If dimension of critical velocity vc of liquid flowing
B Kepler's, second law q Inverse square law through a tube is expressed as ( η x ρ y rz), where η ,
ρ and r are the coefficient of viscosity of liquid,
Orbit of planet
C Kepler's third law r density of liquid and radius of the tube respectively,
is elliptical
then the values of x, y and z are given by :
Newton's law Law of conservation of
D s
of gravitation angular momentum (1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 1, – 1, – 1
(3) – 1, – 1, 1 (4) – 1, – 1, – 1
(1) A – s, B – p, C – q, D – r
49. In a Resonance – Coulmn lab experiment to
(2) A – p, B – q, C – r, D – s measure the velocity of sound, the first
(3) A – r, B – s, C – p, D – q resonance is obtained at a length ℓ 1 and the
second resonance at a length ℓ 2. Then –
(4) A – s, B – p, C – q, D – s (1) ℓ 2 > 3 ℓ 1
45. A ring of mass m is thrown in horizontal (2) ℓ 2 = 3 ℓ 1
direction on a rough horizontal surface with a
speed v0. The speed of the ring when it starts (3) ℓ 2 < 3 ℓ 1
pure rolling is:- (4) may be any of the above, depending on the
frequency of the tuning fork used.
50. Shown in the figure given below is a meter-bridge
set up with null deflection in the galvanometer.
Length of unknown resistance (R) wire is 0.5 m
(1) v0
(2) v0
(3) 2v0
(4) 3v0 and area of cross-section is 0.1 mm2. Find
2 3 3 3
resistivity of unknown resistance wire :-
46. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 in projectile
motion have velocities →v1 and →v2 respectively at time
t = 0. They collide at time t0. Their velocities become
→v1 ′ and →v2 ′ at time 2t0 while still moving in air. The

value of |(m1→v1′ + m2→v2′ ) − (m1→v1 + m2→v2 )| is :-

(1) Zero (2) (m1 + m2)gt0
(1) 7 × 10 –6 Ω m (2) 4 × 10 –6 Ω m
(3) 2(m1 + m2)gt0 (4) 1
(m + m2)gt0 (3) 1.1 × 10 –5 Ω m (4) 5.5 × 10 –5 Ω m
2 1
51. AlCl3 Br
2 55.
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 −H−C−l→ X −−→ Y (Major)
hν
Y is :
Product B is :-
(1) CH3 – CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
(2) (CH3)3C – Br
(1) (2)
(3) CH3 – CH2 – Br
(4)

52. In the Lassaigne test for nitrogen in an organic

compound the prussian blue colour is obtained due (3) (4)
to the formation of :
(1) Na4[Fe(CN)6] (2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(3) [Fe(CN5)NOS] –4 (4) [Fe(SCN)]+2 56. Correct order of acidic strength in the following compounds ?

53. 1. O3
−−−−−−→ Product
2. H2 O/Zn

(1) only
(1) A > C > D > B (2) D > A > C > B
(2) only (3) D > C > A > B (4) D > C > B > A
57. Which of the following is Aromatic ?
(3) and both

(1) (2)
(4) and Both
54. Which of the following can not show
geometrical isomerism ? (3) (4)

(1) (2) 58. Assertion :- Ionisation energy of nitrogen is

greater than oxygen.
Reason :- Size of nitrogen is less than oxygen.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(3) (4) is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
59. Correct decreasing order of bond Length 64. Match List-I with List-II -
List-I List-II
(1) C – C > C = C > C – H > H – H
0.25 g atom
(2) C = C > C – C > C – H > H – H (A) (i) 4g
of oxygen
(3) C – C > C – H > H – H > C = C 1 L of
(B) (ii) NA molecules
(4) C – C > C – H > C = C > H – H water
60. Which one is diamagnetic ? (C) 2g eq. of H2 (iii) NA/22.4 molecules
(1) S2 1 dm3 of N2
(D) (iv) 55.55 NA molecules
at STP
(2) F2
Given T = 298 K;
(3) NO Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.4 L;
(4) B2 (1) A → iv, B → i, C → iii, D → ii
61. Which of following are correct ? (2) A → i, B → iv, C → ii, D → iii
I - Li2 is diamagnetic and exists in vapour phase (3) A → i, B → iii, C → ii, D → iv
II - SF4 has a folded square shape (4) A → i, B → ii, C → iii, D → iv
III - BF3 and NH3 are polar 65. For an isolated system
IV - Electron gain enthalpy is always Exothermic (1) w = 0 (2) q = 0
(1) I, II, IV (3) Δ E = 0 (4) All of these
(2) I, IV 66. In which case pH will not change on dilution ?
(3) I, II (1) 0.01 M CH3COONa + 0.01 M CH3COOH
(4) II, IV (2) 0.1 M CH3COONH4
6 62. How many molecules do not have complete octet (3) 0.01 M NH4OH + 0.01 M NH4Cl
in their central atom ? (4) In all cases
CO2, SF2, AlCl3, BeH2, H2S, BeCl2
67. In which of the following oxidation number of
(1) 3
Hydrogen is – 1 ?
(2) 1
(1) NaH2PO4 (2) NaHSO4
(3) 2
(3) NaBH4 (4) H2
(4) 4
68. The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid & a
Which one has maximum ionic character ? strong Alkali is – 57.2 kJ/equivalent. The heat
(1) BeH2 released when 0.5 mol of HNO3 solution is
mixed with 0.4 mol of KOH is
(2) MgH2
(1) 11.4 kJ (2) 57 kJ
(3) CaH2
(3) 22.88 kJ (4) 28.5 kJ
(4) BaH2
 CH3–CHBr–CH2–Br + Zn −Δ 72. System is unable to do useful work when
69. 3 O
→ A −−−−−→ B & C
H2 O/Zn
In above reaction B & C are ? (1) (( Δ G)system)T,P = 0
(1) CH3 – CHO & HCHO (2) Δ Ssystem + Δ Ssurrounding < 0
(2) CH3 – CHO & HCOOH (3) ( Δ Gsystem)T,P > 0
(3) CH3 – COOH & CO2 (4) All of these
(4) CH3 – COOH & HCHO र्ध्य 73. De-Broglie wavelength of 20 g ball moving with
a velocity of 50 m/s is :
70. Incorrect statement about Hydrogen bond -
(1) Magnitude of hydrogen bond depends on (1) 6.626 × 10 –37 m
physical state of molecule. (2) 6.626 × 10 –34 m
(2) Strength of one hydrogen bond in HF is (3) 1.5 × 10 –36 m
less than H2O.
(4) 2.26 × 10 –34 m
(3) In NH3, intermolecular Hydrogen bond is present.
74. Pick out the combination which show positive
(4) Hydrogen bond is weaker than covalent bond. deviations from Raoult's law :-
71. The probability density curve for 2s electron appears like (1) C2H5OH + CCl4
(2) H2O + CH3CH2CH2OH
(3) C2H5OH + CHCl3
(1)
(4) All are correct
75. The value of molar conductance of HCl is
greater than that of NaCl at a particular
temperature and dilution because :-
(2) (1) mol. wt. of HCl < mol. wt. of NaCl
(2) uH+ > uNa+ (u is speed of ion)
(3) HCl is acid
(4) Ionisation of HCl is more than NaCl

76. t1/4 can be taken as the time taken for

(3)
concentration of reactant to drop to 3/4 of its
initial value. If the rate constant for a first order
reaction is k, then t1/4 can be written as -
(1) 0.10/k
(2) 0.29/k
(4)
(3) 0.69/k
(4) 0.75/k
77. Column - I Column - II 81. In which of the following reaction benzaldehyde
is not formed.
Coloured gas evolve
(A) (p) SO2−
4 salt
with dil. H2SO4
White precipitate with (1)
(B) (q) Cl – salt
Pb(NO3)2
CuSO4 solution reduced
(C) (r) NO−2 salt
to Cu+ salt (2)
deep red vapours evolve
(D) with K2Cr2O7 and conc. (s) I – salt
H2SO4 mixture. (3)
Select the correct code :
(1) A – p, B – r, C – q, D – s
(2) A – r, B – p, C – s, D – q (4)
(3) A – q, B – s, C – r, D – p
(4) A – s, B – q, C – p, D – r
82. Which of the following coordination entities
show's optical activity -
78. Diamond is covalent, yet it has high M.P. because : (i) Cis-[CrCl2(OX)2] –3
(1) Each C is sp3 hybridised in diamond. (ii) trans-[CrCl2(OX)2]
(2) It has a three-dimensional network (iii) [Co(en)3]+3
involving weak C – C bonds. (iv) Mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(3) It has a three-dimensional network correct code is
involving strong C – C bonds. (1) i, iii, iv (2) iii, iv
(4) Each C is linked to three other carbon atoms. (3) i, iii (4) i, ii, iii, iv
79. Vitamin B2 is known as - 83. What is the potential of the cell containing two
(1) Thiamine (2) Riboflavin hydrogen electrodes as represented below ?
Pt|H2(g)|H+(10 –8M)||H+(0.001 M)|H2(g)|Pt
(3) Pyriodoxine (4) Cyanocobalamine
(1) – 0.295 V
80. H – CHO and H – COOH are distinguished by (2) – 0.0591 V
treating with -
(3) 0.295 V
(1) Tollens reagent
(4) 0.0591 V
(2) Sodium bi-carbonate
84. Cu(II) halides are known, except
(3) Fehling's solution
(1) Iodides (2) Bromides
(4) Benedict solution
(3) Chlorides (4) Flourides
85. Statement 1 : Ter. butyl alcohol is more soluble 89. Concentration of HCl is 10N. 100 mL of 1 N HCl
than n-butyl alcohol in water. can be obtained by diluting :-
Statement 2 : Ter. butyl alcohol have more (1) 10 mL of concentrated HCl to 100 mL
boiling point than n-butyl alcohol. (2) 20 mL of concentrated HCl to 100 mL
(1) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct. (3) 100 mL of concentrated HCl to 200 mL
(2) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect. (4) 100 mL of concentrated HCl to 400 mL
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. 90. A certain quantity of electricity is passed through
aqueous solution of AgNO3 and CuSO4
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect. connected in series. If Ag (at. wt. 108) deposited
at the cathode is 1.08 g then Cu deposited at the
SECTION-B (CHEMISTRY)
cathode is (at. mass of Cu is 63.53) :-
86. Which one does not exist ? (1) 6.354 g (2) 0.317 g
(1) SiF6−2 (2) GeCl−2
6 (3) 0.6354 g (4) 3.177 g
(3) ClF7 (4) XeF6 91. In the sequence of reaction
k1 k2 k3
87. Which one of the following conditions will A −→ B −→ C −→ D ;
favour maximum formation of the product in the k2 > k1 > k3, then the rate determining step of the
reaction ? reaction is :
2X(g) + 3Y(s) ⇌ 3Z(g) + 110 kcal (1) A → B (2) C → D
(1) 1000 atm & 500°C (3) B → C (4) A → D
(2) 500 atm & 500°C 92. Which of the following is not obtained by the
hydrolysis of XeF2 ?
(3) 1000 atm & 100°C
(1) Xe (2) HF (3) XeO3 (4) O2
(4) 500 atm & 100°C
93.
88. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(A)
(1)

(B)
(2)
Correct statements regarding reaction A and B as
(3) shown above.
(1) Ethoxide ion act as a base in reaction B.
(2) Ter. butoxide ion act as a Nucleophile in
reaction A.
(4) (3) Product of reaction A have a Pi bond.
(4) Product of reaction B have a Pi bond.
94. Which of the following reaction is not involved 98. Select the correct statement(s) about actinoids
in formation of N2 (Nitrogen) gas - among the following.
(1) Ph N2Cl + CH3CH2OH → (a) Neptunium shows highest number of possible
oxidation state.
(2) Ph N2Cl + Ph – OH → (b) 5f-orbitals present in these elements are much
more buried than 4f orbitals of lanthanoids.
(3) (c) Due to comparable energies of 5f, 6d and 7s
orbitals, they have smaller range of oxidation states.
C u2 C l2
(4) P hN2 Cl −−−−→ (d) +3 and +4 ions of these elements do not
HCl
hydrolyse.
95. Which of the following statement is correct.
(1) Only a (2) Only a and d
(1) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]Cl2
will have same colour (3) Only a and c (4) a, b, c and d
(2) Excess of copper and iron are removed by 99. Which of the following pair of product in given
the non chelating ligands D-penicillamine reaction can be distinguish by bicarbonate test -
and desferrioxime B via the formation of
coordination compounds
(3) correct order of increasing field strength
SCN – > Cl – > NO−2 > F –
(4) Spatial arrangement of ligands in
P CC
coordination sphere is known as CH3 − CH2 OH −−−→ D
coordination polyhedron
(1) A and B (2) B and C
96. In the formation of NH3(g) by the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g), the rate of (3) C and D (4) B and D
disappearance of H2 is 6 × 10 –2 M min –1. The 100. Column-I Column-II
rate of appearance of NH3 is – n-propyl alcohol and Tollen's
(A) (P)
isopropyl alcohol Test
(1) 2 × 10 –2 M min –1
Fehling
(2) 4 × 10 –2 M min –1 (B) formic acid and acetic acid (Q)
Test
(3) 1 × 10 –2 M min –1 Acetaldehyde and Bromine
(C) (R)
Benzaldehyde water Test
(4) 8 × 10 –2 M min –1
Carbolic acid and benzene Iodoform
97. Which of following pair of cation can be (D) (S)
carboxylic acid Test
separated by passing H2S in presence of dil. HCl.
(1) A → S ; B → P ; C → Q ; D → R
(1) Pb+2, Cu+2
(2) A → R ; B → P, Q ; C → P, Q ; D → S
(2) As+3, Cu+2
(3) A → S ; B → P, Q ; C → P, Q ; D → R
(3) Cd+2, Bi+3
(4) A → S ; B → P, Q ; C → Q, S ; D → R
(4) Cu+2, Zn+2
101. Bacterial structure and behaviour are respectively : 106. In Australian acacia :-
(1) Simple, Simple (1) Leaves convert into spines
(2) Complex, Simple (2) Stem is under ground
(3) Simple, Complex (3) Petiole is flatened and photosynthetic
(4) Complex, Complex (4) Aerial roots are found
102. Most extensive metabolic diversity is found in :- 107. Which of the following option is correct with
(1) Kingdom-Plantae respect to structure of seed ?
(2) Kingdom-Animalia (1) Embryonal axis includes seeds coat
(3) Kingdom-Monera (2) Pericarp is a part of seed
(4) Kingdom-Fungi (3) Plumule, radicle, embryonal axis are parts
of embryo
103. Which of the following pteridophytes are
heterosporous in nature ? (4) Cotyledons, embryo, endocarp and placenta
all are included in seed
(1) Selaginella, Lycopodium
108. Which of the following is an example of hypogynous ?
(2) Pteris, Equisetum
(1) Mustard (2) Rose
(3) Salvinia, Selaginella
(3) Cucumber (4) Guava
(4) Azolla, Lycopodium
109. Choose the incorrect match :-
104. Which of the following has maximum common
characters ? (1) Zygomorphic flowers — Cassia
(1) Species (2) Genus (2) Asymmetric flower — Canna
(3) Division (4) Class (3) Inferior ovary — Pea

105. Assertion : 'Diatomaceous earth' is produced by (4) Superior ovary — Hibiscus

chrysophytes. 110. Which of the following is absent in most of
Reason : The cell wall of diatoms is made up of monocots ?
cellulose. (1) Sieve tube
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (2) Companion cell
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Phloem parenchyma
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (4) Phloem fibre
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. 111. Vascular bundles of monocot stems are usually
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (1) Arranged in rings and open
(2) Scattered and open
(3) Scattered and closed
(4) Arranged in two rings
 119. Statement-I : Plant follow different pathways in
112. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium
response to environment or phases of life to form
during the secondary growth takes place from-
different kinds of structure, this ability is called
(1) Endodermis of dicot root plasticity.
(2) Endodermis of monocot root Statement-II : Heterophylly in cotton, coriander
(3) Pericycle of monocot root and larkspur is examples of plasticity.
(4) Pericycle of dicot root (1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
113. In the chromatogram prepared using paper (2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
chromatography, chlorophyll 'b' appears :-
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(1) Bright green (2) Yellow green
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Yellow (4) Yellow orange
120. Assertion: Maximum concentration of alcohol in
114. The first step of photosynthesis is :-
beverage that are naturally fermented is about 13 percent.
(1) Photolysis of water to release oxygen Reason: Yeasts poison themselves to death when the
(2) Excitation of electrons in reaction centre concentration of alcohol reaches about 13 percent.
(3) Reduction of CO2 into carbohydrates (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(4) Synthesis of NADPH Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

115. The number of ATP molecules synthesised, with (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
the help of electron transport system in is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
mitochondria, depends on the - (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) nature / type of the electron/ hydrogen donor (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) duration of respiration process 121. The phenomenon of transfer of pollen grains
(3) size of mitochondria from the anther to the stigma of another flower
of the same plant is called :-
(4) thickness of the inner mitochondrial membrane
(1) Xenogamy
116. RQ value for C51H98O6 is - (2) Cleistogamy
(1) 0.9 (2) 0.7 (3) 1 (4) 4 (3) Geitonogamy
117. Which of the following plant growth regulators (4) Autogamy
is used to increase the length of grapes stalks? 122. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf
(1) Gibberellins (2) Cytokinins primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure :-
(3) Auxins (4) Ethylene (1) Coleoptile
(2) Coleorrhiza
118. Which one(s) is/are redifferentiated cell(s) ?
(3) Root Cap
(1) Cork (2) Secondary cortex
(4) Caruncle
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Phellogen
123. Choose the correct statement from the following : 128. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
select the option which includes all the correct
(1) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit
ones only :-
autogamy naturally (a) The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous
(2) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit fashion.
geitonogamy naturally (b) UAG codon has dual function in protein
synthesis.
(3) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both (c) In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact
autogamy and geitonogamy naturally molecule which looks like inverted 'L'.
(d) 28's' rRNA in bacteria behave as ribozyme.
(4) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit
autogamy naturally (1) b, c and d (2) a, b and d
124. Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea (3) a, c and d (4) a and c
plant studied by Mendel, the number of character
129. Which of the following is wrongly matched in
related to flower, pod and seed respectively are : – the given table ?
(1) 2, 2, 2 Microbe Product Application
(2) 2, 2, 1 immunosup-
Trichoderma Cyclosporin
(1) pressive
(3) 1, 2, 2 polysporum A
drug
(4) 1, 1, 2 lowering of
Monascus
125. Female heterogamety can be seen in :- (2) Statins blood
purpureus
cholesterol
(1) Human
removal of
(2) Grasshopper (3) Streptococcus Streptokinase clot from
(3) Bird blood vessel
Clostridium removal of
(4) Honeybee (4) Lipase
butylicum oil stains
126. In Lac operon constitutive gene/genes are :
130. Which of the following characters of Drosophila is
not suitable for genetical studies ?
(1) Gene i and Gene z (a) They could be grown on simple synthetic
(2) Gene y and Gene z medium in laboratory
(3) Only Gene a (b) They complete their life cycle in about 2-weeks
(c) Single mating produces few number of progeny
(4) Only Gene i flies.
127. Replication of DNA is : (d) They have many types of hereditary variations
that can be seen with low power microscope.
(1) Semi-conservative and continuous
(e) Male & Female flies are not easily
(2) Conservative and continuous distinguishable
(3) Semi-conservative and semi-discontinuous (1) a, b and d (2) a, b, c, d and e
(4) Conservative and semi-discontinuous (3) Only d and e (4) Only c and e
 Hindi + English 135. Read the statement (A-D) and select the option
131. Which statement is not true for Grazing food chain ? having all the correct statement :-
(1) It starts from producers and successive (A) Overexploitation is the major cause of
order it goes from small organism to big extinction of animals like Passenger Pigeon and
organism Steller's Sea Cow.
(2) It has fast energy flow from one tropic (B) Dodo from Africa and Quagga from
level to another Mauritius are in the recent record of extinctions.
(3) It has high magnitude of energy rather than (C) A stable ecosystem has much variation in its
detritus food chain productivity from year to year.
(4) In aquatic ecosystem, it moves from low (D) Coral reef is an ecosystem that has highest
biomass to high biomass organism productivity in aquatic ecosystem.

132. Cattle or goats are never browsing on (1) A, B, D

Calotropis growing in abandoned field because
(2) B, C, D
of the presence of :
(3) A, D
(1) Alkaloid like quinine
(4) B, D
(2) Strychine
SECTION - B (BOTANY)
(3) Cardiac glycosides
136. Which taxon is not related to wheat :-
(4) Opium
133. The population growth is generally described (1) Sapindales
dN K−N (2) Poaceae
by the = rN ( )
dt K
What does 'r' represent in the given equation ? (3) Monocotyledonae
(1) Population density at time 't' (4) Triticum
(2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
137. Drupe fruit in mango and coconut are developed
(3) Carrying capacity from
(4) The base of natural logarithm
(1) Superior ovary
134. India has 1000 varieties of mango. This is an
example of :- (2) Inferior ovary
(1) Diversity at the level of species. (3) Superior and inferior ovary respectively
(2) Diversity at the level of gene.
(4) Inferior and superior ovary respectively
(3) Diversity at the level of ecosystem.
(4) Diversity at the level of biosphere.
 Hindi + English
143. Consider the following four statements (a – d) and
138. Find out the correct match from the following select the options which includes all correct ones
table: only :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III a. Splitting of the water molecules takes place in
stroma.
Hypogynous Ovary Chinarose, b. In chemiosmosis process, protons accumulated
(i)
flower inferior Cucumber in lumen.
Epigynous Ovary Peach, c. Only PS - I is functional in cyclic photo
(ii) phosphorylation.
flower superior Guava
d. Only ATP is synthesised by Cyclic
Perigynous Ovary photophosphorylation.
(iii) Rose, Plum
flower half inferior
(1) Statements b, c, d
(1) i only (2) i and ii
(2) Statements a, b
(3) iii only (4) ii and iii
(3) Statements a, d
139. If protoxylem is present toward centre of stem
then the type of primary xylem is ? (4) Statements a, c, d
(1) Endarch (2) Exarch 144. Assertion (A) : RNA is the best material for
transmission of genetic information in the same
(3) Mesarch (4) Secondary xylem
generation.
140. Major limiting factor for photosynthesis is :- Reason (R) : RNA can directly code for
(1) Water synthesis of proteins.
Choose the correct answer.
(2) Carbon dioxide
(1) (A) is correct while (R) is incorrect.
(3) Light
(2) (A) is incorrect while (R) is correct.
(4) Temperature
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
141. Hormone that breaks seed dormancy, initiates
the correct explanation of (A).
germination in peanut seeds :-
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
correct explanation of (A).
(3) Ethylene (4) ABA
145. Cyclosporin A, is used as an immunosuppressive
142. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle ? agent produced by:-
(1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+
(1) Trichoderma polysporum
is reduced to FADH2
(2) Monascus purpureus
(2) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic
acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised (3) Acetobacter aceti
(3) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl (4) Lactobacillus bulgaris
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to 146. How many type of gametes will be produced by a
yield citric acid diploid organism which is heterozygous for 4 loci?
(4) There are three points in the cycle where (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32
NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+
147. Statement-I : Larger animals such as lemurs, SECTION - A (ZOOLOGY)
reptiles and rodent etc. have also been reported
151. Which one of the following organisms bears
as pollinators. hollow and pneumatic long bones?
Statement-II : Many insects may consume pollen
or the nector without bringing about pollination (1) Pavo
are called Pollen/Nector robber. (2) Balaenoptera

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (3) Macropus

(4) Ornithorhynchus
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
152. Malpighian tubules are excretory organ of -
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(1) Ascaris (2) Cockroach
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct (3) Taenic (4) Neries
148. Below two statements are given 153. Which one of the following is not a bony fish?
Statement-I :- An individual may have birth and (1) Dogfish (2) Sea horse
death but a population has birth rates and death
(3) Flying fish (4) Rohu
rate.
Statement-II :- The size of a population for any 154. Which option is not incorrect for
species is not a static parameter. Salamandra and Hemidactylus ?
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) Presence of scales on the body
incorrect
(2) Oviparous and indirect development
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Tympanum represents the ear
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Skin is dry and cornified
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect 155.
149. Find the odd one :-
(1) Epiphytes-Mango
(2) Barnacles - Whale
Which above diagram shows compound
(3) Cuscuta - Hedge plant
epithelial tissue?
(4) Clown fish - Sea anemone
(1) Only ‘A’ (2) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
150. Cost of ecosystem service account for nutrient
cycling is approximate : (3) Only ‘C’ (4) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C
(1) 50% 156. Pubic symphysis is made up of –
(2) 10% (1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Calcified cartilage
(3) 60% (3) Elastic cartilage (4) White fibrous cartilage
(4) 100%
 162. Which enzyme catalyzes the formation of
157. Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles
carbonic acid in red blood cells ?
because :
(1) Carbonic dehydrogenase
(1) It has chitinous teeth
(2) Carbonic oxidase
(2) It has hepatic caeca
(3) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) It has radula, which masticates the food
(4) Carbonic reductase
(4) Its lumen contains mandibles (jaws)
163. Sweat glands excrete :-
158. Which is incorrect w.r.t. frog –
(1) Small amount of sterols
(1) It can live on both land and marine water
(2) Small amount of hydrocarbons
(2) It never drinks water
(3) Small amount of urea
(3) It is poikilothermous
(4) All of the above
(4) Hind limbs have five digits
164. Select correct matching-
159. In the heart of mammals the bicuspid valve
(mitral valve) is situated between :- (1) Unipolar neuron -Usually in Retina
(1) Left auricle and left ventricle (2) Biopolar neuron - Retina of eye
(2) Post caval and right caval (3) Multipolar neuron - cerebral cortex
(3) Right auricle and left auricle (4) Both 2 & 3
(4) Right ventricle and pulmonary aorta 165. Melatonin has a role in the regulation of :
160. Which term does not apply to human heart? (1) Vision
(2) Muscle's contractibility
(1) Pacemaker (3) Blood pressure
(2) Four-chambered (4) Body temperature
(3) Mitral valve 166. Which hormone is also known as intermedin
(4) Neurogenic heart hormone ?
161. Choose the incorrect one :- (1) Prolactin (2) M.S.H.
(1) RBCs are devoid of nucleus in mammals (3) Oxytocin (4) A.D.H.
and are biconcave in shape 167. Which of the following disorder is not correctly
(2) A healthy individual has 12 – 16 gm of matched due to hyposecretion of related hormone ?
haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood (1) Thyroxine → Cretinism
(3) RBCs are formed in the bone marrow in the (2) Thymosin → Myaesthenia gravis
all bones in the adults
(3) Parathormone → Tetany
(4) Haemoglobin molecules present in RBCs
(4) Aldosterone → Hypotension
play a significant role in the transport of
168. Mostly muscles have :- 174. In which ART technique the semen is artificially
(1) Ectodermal origin introduced into female ?
(2) Endodermal origin (1) GIFT (2) ZIFT
(3) Mesodermal origin (3) IUT (4) IUI / AI
(4) Ecto-endodermal origin 175. Among non-infectious disease, ________ is
169. Thoracic cage in human beings is made up of major cause of death :
(1) Ribs, vertebral column and Scapula (1) AIDS (2) Allergy
(2) Ribs, Scapula and collar bone (3) Hepatitis B (4) Cancer
(3) Vertebral column, Scapula and sternum 176. N.K cells are a type of :
(4) Ribs, vertebral column and sternum (1) Lymphocytes (2) Monocytes
170. In humans, which
ओं of the following undergoes (3) Erythrocytes (4) Neutrophils
meiosis II ? 177. Assertion (A) : – Cancer cells just continue to
(1) Primary oocyte (2) Second polar body divide giving rise to masses of cells called tumors.
(3) Secondary oocyte (4) Both (1) and (3) Reason (R) : – Normal cells shows property of
contact inhibition by virtue of which contact with
171. During implantation, the embryo becomes
other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth.
embedded in the which layer of uterus :-
Cancer cells appears to have lost this property.
(1) Perimetrium (2) Myometrium
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(3) Endometrium (4) Serosa Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
172. Hormone responsible for ovulation and (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
development of corpus luteum is :- is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) LTH (4) ICSH (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
173. Match the Column – A with Column – B :- (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
Column-A Column-B
178. First evidence of ceremonial burial of dead body
Release of
(A) Follicular (i) secondary oocyte and used of hides to protect their bodies have
phase
(ovum) been found with which human ancestors ?
(B) Luteal (ii) Fully mature (1) Homo erectus
phase graafian follicle
(C) Menstrual (iii) Formation of
(2) Homo habilis
phase corpus luteum
(3) Neanderthal man
(D) Ovulatory (iv) Breakdown of
phase endometrium (4) Australopithecus
(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (iii) 179. Who gave "Omnis cellula-e-cellula" statement.
(2) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv) (1) Mattias Schleiden (2) Theodore Schwann
(3) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
(3) Rudolf virchow (4) Both 1 and 2
(4) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii)
 Hindi + English
185. "Human insulin" a genetically engineered insulin
180. Non membrane bound organelle found in all cell is :- contain ?
(1) Lysosome (2) Mitochondria (1) A and B chains only
(3) Ribosome (4) Vacuole (2) B and C chains only
181. Statement-I : ER divides the intracellular space (3) A and C chains only
into two distinct compartments.
(4) All A, B and C chains
Statement-II : RER involve in protein synthesis
and secretion. SECTION - B (ZOOLOGY)
(1) Statement-I and II both are correct 186. Read the following statements from A-D :-
(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect (A) Animals ectoparasites on few fishes
(B) Circular mouth without jaw
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(C) In their body scales and paired fins are absent
(4) Only Statement-II is correct (D) Circulatory system closed type
182. Proteins can act as in form of : These statements are correct for which class.
(1) transportation of nutrients across cell membrane (1) Chondricthyes (2) Osteicthyes
(2) Hormones (3) Cyclostomata (4) Amphibia
(3) Enzymes 187. Which of the following belong to class osteichthyes ?
(4) All (a) Sea urchin (b) Sea horse
(c) Flying fish (d) Saw fish
183. Which of the following is used as a best genetic (e) Dog fish
vector in plants :-
(1) b & c (2) a, b & c
(1) Pseudomonas putida
(3) b & e (4) a, b & e
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Rhizobium 188. Following diagram represent which type of
connective tissue ?
(4) Agrobacterium tumifacians
184. Observe the figure and select the correct option
out of (a-d).

Enzyme Enzyme
A
B DNA recognize joining the
DNA
palindrome sticky ends (1) Areolar connective tissue
(1) Vector Foreign DNA ligase Exonuclease (2) Adipose connective tissue
(2) Vector Foreign Exonuclease DNA ligase (3) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Vector Foreign EcoRI DNA ligase (4) Dense irregular connective tissue
(4) Vector Foreign DNA ligase EcoRI
 Hindi + English
193. Assertion: Striated muscles are smooth in
189. The maximum volume of air a person can appearance and said to be involuntary in nature.
breathe in after a forced expiration is known as : Reason: Striated muscles can not be moved
according to will.
(1) Expiratory Capacity (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(2) Vital Capacity Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Inspiratory Capacity (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Total Lung Capacity
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
190. Match the following
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
Column I Column II
Conditional 194. Read the hormones A, B, C and D from the
(A) PCT (i) reabsorption graph by observing their concentrations in blood
of water during the menstrual cycle of a female. Which
curve represents the concentration of FSH ?
70-80%
reabsorption
(B) DCT (ii)
of electrolytes
and water
Not a part
Collecting
(C) (iii) of single
Duct
nephron (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Ascending 195. Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by :-
Minimum
(D) limb of Loop (iv)
reabsorption
of Henle
(1) Killing the sperms in uterus
(1) A → (i), B → (ii), C → (iii), D → (iv) (2) Forming barriers between sperms and ova.
(2) A → (ii), B → (i), C → (iii), D → (iv) (3) Preventing ovulation
(3) A → (iv), B → (i), C → (ii), D → (iii) (4) Killing the ova
(4) A → (ii), B → (i), C → (iv), D → (iii) 196. Statement-I : The principle of vaccination is
191. Structural & functional unit of nervous system: based on the property of memory of nervous
(1) Neuron (2) Nephron system
Statement-II : Injection of antivenom provide
(3) Neuroglia (4) Ganglia passive immunity
192. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? (1) Both Statement are correct
(1) Glucagon is secreated by pancreas. (2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect
(2) Androgen are produced by ovary. (3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct
(3) Thyroxine is secreated by thyroid. (4) Both statement are incorrect
(4) Oxytocin is released by pituitary.
197. Alfred Wallace, a naturalist worked on which
island ?
(1) Shrilanka
(2) Galapagos
(3) South America
(4) Malay Archepelago
198. Which of the following is incorrect with respect
to reduction division?
(1) Diakinesis is marked by terminalization of
chiasmata
(2) Splitting of centromere occurs is anaphase-I
(3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
occurs in prophase-I
(4) Interkinesis is short lived phase which is
followed by prophase-II, a much simpler
phase than prophase-I
199. Which of the following is/are used in
recombinant DNA technology ?
(A) Agarose gel (B) Ethidium bromide
(C) Plasmid (D) Restriction endonuclease
(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) C, D
(4) A, B, C, D
200. The proteins encoded by genes cry IAC and cry
II Ab control which insects ?
(1) Corn borer
(2) Cotton bollworm
(3) Beetles
(4) Flies
 TEST DATE : 28-04-2024
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 4 2 4 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 4 2 1 4 1 3 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 2 3 3 4 3 1 3 4 2 1 2 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 2 1 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 4 2 4 4 3 3 1 2 1 4 2 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 1 2 3 4 4 1 2
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 4 2 2 1 2 1 3 1 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 1 3 4 3 4 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 4 1 3 1 3 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 1 3 3 4 1 1 1 4 3 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 3 4 4 1 1 3 3 3
Q. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 4 4 3 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 4 2 4 2