Ethiopian General Secondary Education Certificate Biology Examination for grade 10

from 1995 – 2011 and EUEE of 2014

Grade 9 Biology

Unit 1

Biology and technology

1. Professor Tilahun Yilma is an internationally renowned scientist. What is his contribution to

the world? He

A. developed sorghum resistant to drought

B. developed vaccine using genetic engineering

C. conducted research on mollusccide effect of endod

D. preserved many different traditional crop varieties

2. Which of the following research institutes works on leprosy?

A. Armaur Hansen Research institute (AHR)

B. Ethiopian Health and Nutrition Research Institute (EHNRI)

C. Ethiopian Institute of Agriculture Research (ElAR)

D. Aklilu Lemma Institute of Pathology (ALIPB)

3. A renowned Ethiopian biomedical scientist and a long serving professor at Addis Ababa
University is

A. Professor Beyene petros.

B. Professor Gebissa Ejeta

C. Professor yalemtsehay Mekonnen

D. Professor Sebsebe Demissew.

4. Which one of the following research institutes works on crop and livestock improvement?

A. Ethiopian Health and Nutrition Research institute

B. The institute of Biodiversity conservation

C. Armauer Hansen Research Institute.

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D. Ethiopian Institute of Agricultural Research

5. A biologist, who saved the genetic diversity of Ethiopian's domestic plants and is
internationally acclaimed as a plant genetic researcher is

A. Prof Legesse Negash B. Prof Sebsebe Demissew

C. Dr Melaku Worede D. Dr Gebissa Ejeta

6. An institution that carries out research into leprosy and tuberculosis is

A. Institute of Biodiversity Conservation

B. Armauer Hansen Research Institute

C. Ethiopian Institute of Agricultural Research

D. Ethiopian health and Nutrition

7. Among the most renowned Ethiopian biologist, who has been honored by developing high
yielding strains of sorghum?

A. Dr Aklilu lemma B. Prof Beyene Petros

C. Dr. Gebissa Ejeta D. Prof. Tilahun Yilma

8. Which of the following is NOT among the research areas of IAR?

A. Development of crop technology B. Managing livestock

C. Mechanized farming D. Vectors of diseases

9. All of the following are the research areas of ALIPB except:

A. Human parasític diseases

B. Vectors of disease and how to control

C. Nutritional state of mothers and babies

D. Animal healdh and disease

10. Ethiopian Evolutionist who discovered old human skulls which have a

big impact on human evolution:

A. Professor Legesse Negash B. Professor Mogessie Ashenafi

C. Professor Ensermui Kelbessa D. Dr. Berhane Asfaw

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11. Professor Yalemtsehay Mekonnen is a renowned biologist known for her contribution on

A. the discovery of endod as a control for schistosomiasis

B. the development of hybrid sorghum which is resistant to drought

C. assessment of the impact of chemical pesticide hazards on humans

D. preservation of different traditional crop varieties

12. The Ethiopian biological research institute which is conducting research on leprosy and other
diseases is

A. Armauer Hansen Research Institute

B. Aklilu Lemma Institute of Pathobiology

C. The Institute of Biodiversity Conservation

D. Ethiopian Institute of Agricultural Research

13. Which of the following institutes is involved in the conservation of genes of plants and
animals?

A. Ethiopian Health and Nutrition Institute

B. Armauer Hansen Research Institute

C. Aklilu Lemma Institute of pathobiology

D. Institute of Biodiversity

14. The institute of biodiversity conservation is one of the biological research institutes of
Ethiopia attempting to conserve the genetic resources of the country. As such, the institute‘s
major research efforts focus on all of the following EXCEPT

A. microorganism conservation C. soil conservation

B. animal conservation D. plant conservation

Unit 2

Cell biology

1. If you scrap the inside of your cheek, mount and examine it under a microscope, which of the
following structures may not be seen?

A. Mitochondrion B. Cell wall C. Cell membrane D. Nucleus

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2. Which of the slices would gain more water? The slice in the beaker containing:

A. 3% salt solution B. 0.5% salt solution C. 0.9% salt solution D. Pure water

3. What is the resolution of a microscope? It is the:

A. Brightening of the parts of the object to show more details

B. Scattering of the parts of the object to show more details

C. Magnifying of small objects to make them visible

D. Coloring of small objects to make them visible

4. Which of the following structures is common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A. Genetic material B. Vacuole C. Mitochondrion D. Nucleus

5. Which of the following parts of the cell is made of lipoprotein?

A Cell wall B. DNA C. Ribosome D. Plasma membrane

6. Which of the following cell structures are involved in the synthesis and transport of proteins?

A. Ribosomes and lysosomes B. Ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum

C. Lysosomes and mitochondria D. Ribosomes and centrioles

7. Which of the following is not true of the cell theory?

A. Cells arose spontaneously from organic compounds

B. All organisms are composed of cells

C. Cells are the basic units of living things

D. Cells are the structural and functional units of life

8. Plasmolysis and turgor pressure are caused by differences in the:

A. temperature of the cell environment

B. amount of oxygen taken by the cell

C. concentration of the cell environment

D. amount of carbon dioxide lost by the cell

9. Which of the following organelles is common to both plant and animal cells?

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A. Cell wall B. Nucleus C. Large Vacuole D. Chloroplast

10. If the solute concentration of solution A is greater than solution B then solute A is said to be

A. hypertonic to solution B B. hypotonic to solution B

C. osmotic to solution B D. isotonic to solution B

11. Which of the following is a similarity between a bacterial and plant cells?

A. The presence of cytoplasm surrounded by a membrane and cell wall

B. The enclosed genetic material in nuclear membrane

C. The material out of which the cell wall is made

D. Their possession of flagella and capsule

12. Which of the following is an active transport process?

A. Water uptake by plant roots from the soil

B. Oxygen absorption by the cells from the blood

C. Mineral ions uptake by plant roots from the soil

D. Oxygen inhalation from the atmosphere

13. Which of the following organelles is found in large number in cells that carry out active
transport process frequently?

A. Ribosome B. Nucleus C. Mitochondrion D. Cytoplasm

14. Which of the following structures occupies the central position in plant cells?

A. Chloroplast B. Cytoplasm C. Nucleus D. Vacuole

15. The main purpose of cell specialization in multicellular organization is to

A. perform a particular function B. pass genetic information.

C. produce more protein D. facilitate reproduction.

16. Which of the following practices is correct when a specimen is observed using a light
microscope?

A. Use fine focusing knob to move the stage up and down

B. Switch off the light of the microscope's built lamb

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C. Set up the lowest power lens in place at the beginning

D. Adjust the iris diaphragm to avoid the entrance of light

17. Cell theory states that:

A. all cells have some features in common

B. cells are the basic unit of life

C. cells are smaller units to perform unspecialized job

D. all living things are made from a single cell

18. This item is based on the following lists of structures of cells

1. Chloroplast 2. Ribosome 3. endoplasmic reticulum

4. cell wall 5. Mitochondria 6. vacuole

Which of the following structures listed above are found in both plant and animal cells?

A. 2, 3. 5 B. 1, 3, 6 C. 3, 4, 5 D. 2, 4, 6

19. When plant cell gets plasmolysed, the

A. cell becomes hard and rigid

B. surrounding fluid of the cell is less concentrated than the inside

C. vacuole shrinks and the cell becomes less rigid

D. inside pressure increases until no water can enter into the cell

20. A biology student demonstrated osmosis using onion epidermal cells. She focused the
epidermal cells on the microscope with a drop of concentrated sucrose solution. After waiting for
30 minutes she observed the cells and they became

A. plasmolysed C. no change

B. turgid D. swollen

21. Which of the following cellular structure is correctly matched to its function?

A. Nucleus → support plant cells

B. Cell wall → carry genetic information

C. Mitochondria → carry out cellular respiration

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D. Ribosome → involved in lipid synthesis

22. The net movement of water from high concentration of water to low concentration of water
through partially permeable membrane is

A. facilitated diffusion B. osmosis

C. diffusion D. active transport

23. In which of the following parts of a plant does photosynthesis takes place?

A. Mitochondria B. Phloem

C. Chromosomes D. Chloroplasts

24. Which part of the cell is responsible for releasing energy for the cell?

A. Mitochondria B. Cell membrane

C. Nucleus D. Chloroplast

25. Microscope with two lens systems are called

A. compound microscopes B. simple microscopes

C. Ocular microscopes D. High power microscopes

26. Which part of a cell contains enzymes used in intracellular digestion?

A. Ribosome C. Chromosome

B. Lysosome D. Centesome

27. The net movement of molecules into cells is mostly dependent on the

A. selectivity of plasma membrane B. selectivity of the cell wall

C. number of Golgi bodies D. number of mitochondria

28. The Golgi apparatus is involved in:

A. altering or modifying proteins B. packaging proteins into vesicles

C. producing lysosomes D. all of the above

29. If you observe a cell with its nucleus and other organelles lacking membranes, the cell could
be

A. an egg C. a bacterium

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B an amoeba D. a neuron

30. The colours of flowers are due to the presence of pigments known as

A. chloroplasts B. chromoplasts

C. leucoplasts D. lysosomes

31. Which of the following structures is common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A. Mitochondrial membrane B. Nuclear membrane

C. Chloroplast D. DNA

32. The organelles in a cell concerned with protein manufacture are called

A. Ribosomes C. lysosomes

B. mitochondria D. vacuoles

33. The part of a plant cell that provides protection and support is

A. Golgi body B. Cell wall

C. Plastid D. Nucleus

35. How many lens systems do compound microscopes have?

A. Three B. Four

C. One D. Two

36. What is the cellular structure that forms a very thin 'skin' like barrier outside of the cell?

A. Cytoplasm B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Nucleus D. Cell membrane

37. Why do we stain cells? To make them

A. bigger in size B. decay faster

C. move around D. easier to see

38. Which one of the following statements is correct about the function of the electron
microscope? It is used to see

A. details of objects invisible under light microscope

B. the movement of very small organisms

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C. how mosquitoes transmit disease

D. living materials suspended in vacuum

39. What is the function of ribosomes?

A. Link the nucleus C. Carry respiration

B. Protein synthesis D. Food production

40. Turgor pressure and plasmolysis happen in plants when

A. the cell and the environment are isotonic, and environment is hypotonic respectively.

B. excess water enters into the cells, and excess water is loss and shrinks the cells,
respectively.

C. excess water is lost from the cells and excess water enters into the cells, respectively.

D. the cell is hypotonic, and the environment is hypertonic, respectively.

41. lf a plant cell is plasmolysed, the

A. cell membrane will be firmly attached on the cell wall

B. cytoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall

C. vacuole pushes the cytoplasm towards the cell wall

D. pressure inside its vacuole increases.

42. If an animal cell is put in concentrated salt solution, which of the following event will
happen?

A. The cell becomes shrinking

B. Salt moves into the cell

D. Water moves into the cell

C. The cell becomes plasmolysed

43. Which of the following is true about the rate of diffusion?

A. Diffusion decreases when there is very high concentration difference between two areas

B. Diffusion increase when there is very low concentration difference between two areas

C. Diffusion increases when the temperature increases

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D. Diffusion increases when the temperature decreases

44. An organelle that is important for protein synthesis is known as

A. ribosome B. chloroplast

C. nucleus D. mitochondrion

45. What is the resolution power of a microscope? It is the ability to

A. makes objects look brighter C. makes objects look smaller

B. increase the size of objects D. show objects clearly

46. A grade 9 student wants to study onion epidermal cells using light microscope

Which of the following activities is correct during his observation? He

A stain the cells using iodine that reacts with the starch of the cells and turns blue black

B. start to set up the microscope with the highest power lens in place

C. stain the cells using Methylene blue that reacts and tums the nucleus blue

D. focus the lenses to see ribosomes and mitochondria within the cell

47. Cell membrane allows some substances to pass into the cell this is because the cell
membrane is

A. strong B. selectively permeable

C. flaccid D. permeable

48. Which of the following movements of water is correct when an animal cell placed in
different solutions? When a cell is placed into

A. hypotonic solution, water moves into the cell

B. isotonic solution, water moves into the cell

C. isotonic solution, water moves out from the cell

D. hypertonic solution, water moves into the cell

49. In which of the following does osmosis happen? When

A. oxygen moves from blood into the body cells

B. glucose passes across a permeable membrane

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C. water moves from roots into stems and leaves

D. salt moves across a permeable membrane

50. A grade 9 student conducted an experiment using onion epidermal cells. First, he looks the
epidermal layer of the onion. Then, he placed it on a slide and added one drop of 1ml sucrose
solution on the specimen. After 30 minutes, when he focused and observed the cells using a
microscope, they became

A. swollen B. plasmolysed

C. unchanged D. turgid

51. Which of the following statements refers to the advantage of the light microscope?

Light microscope

A. can be used without electricity C. is very heavy to move around.

B. has highest magnifying power D. has highest resolving power.

52. During the microscopic observation of a plant cell, the function of staining the cell with
iodine solution is to make

A water to draw into the cell

B. water to draw out from the cell

C easier to see the activities of the cell

D. easier to see particular structure of a cell

53. Which of the following cell structures are found both in animal and plant cells

A. Ribosome, cytoplasm and mitochondrion

B. Cell membrane, cell wall, and endoplasmic reticulum

C. Mitochondrion, chloroplast, and cell membrane

D. Cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum and cell wall

54. The cell theory states that cells

A. need food to produce energy

B. are the basic units of life

C. removes poisonous waste products.

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D. are sensitive to changes in their surroundings

55. Which of the following structures of a cell is correctly matched with its function?

A. Nucleus - a place where most chemical reactions take place

B. Endoplasmic reticulum - vital for protein synthesis

C. Cell membrane - forms a barrier on the outer side of the cell

D. Mitochondria - control all activities of a cell

56. The cell that have potential to form all other specialized cell is called

A Undifferentiated cell B. Differentiated cell

C. Embryonic stem cell D. Zygote

57. A layer of epithelium consisting very thin flattened cells is called

A. ciliated B. squamos

C. columnar D. cuboidal

58. Specialized cells are best described as

A. Cells that have a potential to differentiate in to different cells

B. Cells that are found at the embryo

C. Cells which are adapted to carry out specific function

D. Cells which divide mitotically

59. Cells that are adapted to carry out a particular body function are

A. undifferentiated cells B. Unspecialized cells

C. specialized cells D. embryonic stem cells

60. The ability of the microscope to separate two objects close to each other is called

A. magnification C. reflection

B. condensation D. resolution

61. Which of the following stains may be used to study only plant cells?

A. Iodine C. Haematoxylin

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B. Acetocarmine D. Methylene blue

62. The cell theory states that cells

A. originate spontaneously C. have central nucleus

B. are the basic units of life D. reproduce sexually

63. A cellular structure where protein synthesis takes place is

A. nucleus C. ribosome

B. mitochondrion D. Lysosome

64. A plant cell has 10% sucrose concentration in its cytoplasm. If the cell is immersed in 1%
sucrose solution, it will

A. become plasmolysed B. become turgid

C. become small D. burst

65. How do roots take up water from the soil? By

A. simple diffusion C. osmosis

B. transpiration D. active transport

66. Which of the following is a correct pair between an organelle and its function?

A. Vacuole - protein synthesis

B. Mitochondrion - cell movement

C. Ribosome - photosynthesis

D. Nucleus - controls cellular activities

67. Plasmolysis in plant cells takes place when

A. water moves into the cell and presses against the cell wall

B. the vacuole of a plant swells and presses against the cell wall

C. water leaves the cell and cytoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall

D. the cytoplasm of a plant swells and presses against the cell wall

68. Suppose a student conducted an experiment using onion epidermal cells. He placed it on a
slide and added a drop of salt solution more concentrated than the cell sap. After an hour, he

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observed the specimen under a microscope. What would happen to the onion cells? They would
become

A. swollen C. flaccid

B. unchanged D. turgid

69. Diffusion and osmosis are similar in that both

A. of them refers to movement of particles of the solute against its concentration gradient.

B. of them refers to movement of substances by using cellular energy.

C. refers to net movement of the particles along their concentration gradient.

D. takes place from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration of the diffusing
substance.

70. A biology student wants to observe his cheek cells using light microscope.

Which of the following activities is correct during focusing the specimen?

A. Adjust the iris diaphragm until the light is bright.

B. Use course focusing knob to move the specimen left to right.

C. Use the fine focusing knob to move the stage up and down.

D. Set up the microscope with the high power in place.

71. Which of the following statements is true about the magnification of a microscope? It

A. affects how much detail it can show

B. increases the size of an image

C. is dependent on the permeability of cell membrane

D. is the ability to distinguish two separate points

72. Which of the following statements is true about the cell theory?

A. Living organisms need food to get energy.

B. The cell is the basic unit of life.

C. All living organisms are composed of many cells.

D. Living organisms have similar characteristics.

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73. The importance of stains in microscopic investigations is explained by their effect in

A. increasing resolution C. increasing magnification

B. creating contrast D. decreasing air bubbles

74. The cell theory states that cells

A. contain different organelles with no specialization

B. have basically different composition

C. come from pre-existing cells by division

D. come from non-living objects

Unit 3

Human biology and health

1. Which of the following digestive processes is affected if the gall bladder is surgically
removed?

A. Digestion of proteins C. Digestion of carbohydrates

B. Digestion of vitamins D. Digestion of lipids

2. Which of the following deficiency diseases is caused by the lack of vitamin B in our diet?

A. Scurvy B. Pellagra

C. rickets D. Marasmus

3. In human respiratory system, which of the following parts is nearest of the mouth?

A. Windpipe B. Larynx

C. Epiglottis D. Bronchial tubes

4. People living in higher altitude breathe faster and deeper is because compared to lower
altitude, a given volume of air in higher altitudes contains:

A. Less oxygen B. More oxygen C. Less carbon dioxide D. More carbon dioxide

5 Which of the following eye problems is caused by poor diet?

A. Trachoma B. Astigmatism C. Night blindness D. Long sight

6. Which of the following structures of the breathing lacks cartilage rings?

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A Trachea B. Bronchiole C. Bronchus D. Alveolus

7. Why is breathing important to life? Because breathing:

A. Produces movement in the chest B. Produces energy in cells

C. Provides carbon dioxide to cells D. Provides oxygen to cells

8. Which of the following groups of nutrients can be tested by applying emulsion test?

A. Fats B. Vitamins C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates

9. Which of the following is the result of malnutrition?

A. Obesity B. Diabetes C. Malaria D. Typhoid fever

10. What is the importance of ATP in the human body? It helps to

A. gets the right color of the body skin

B. carries out passive transport processes

C. carries out metabolism

D. carries out diffusion processes

11. Which of the following structures is not related to the circulatory system?

A. Septum B. Ventricle C. Pericardium D. Pleural membrane

12. Which of the following enzymes changes peptides into amino acids in the small intestine?

A. Pepsin B. Trypsin C. Rennin D. Erepsin

13. Which of the following food items has the highest energy content per gram?

A. Carrots B. Peanut C. Mango D. Orange

14. Which of the following human blood types lacks antigens?

A. Blood type B B. Blood type O C. Blood type AB D. Blood type A

15. Substances required to produce ATP during aerobic respiration are

A. water and carbon dioxide

B. glucose and oxygen

C. water and glucose

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D. glucose and carbon dioxide

IItem number 16 is based on the following structures involved in pulmonary circulation.

1. Right atrium 5. Lungs

2. Pulmonary vein 6. Left atrium

3. Left ventricle 7. Right ventricle

4. Pulmonary artery

16. The order of blood flow is:

A. 1,6,4,5,7,3.2 C.1,7,2.5,4,6,3

B.6, 3.4.5, 2, 1, 7 D.1.7.4, 5.2.6, 3

17. Which of the following end products of digestion pass into lacteals during absorption of
food?

A. Amino acids B. Glucose C. Fatty acids D. Vitamins

18. In the experiment for detecting the presence of water vapor in exhaled air, the color of cobalt
chloride paper changes from:

A. Yellow to red B. Pink to yellow C. Blue to pink D. Red to blue

19. In human breathing system, when the diaphragm relaxes:

A. Air rushes out of the lungs C. The volume of chest cavity increases

B. Air rushes into the lungs D. The pressure in chest cavity decreases

20. Which of the following statements is correct about fats and oils?

A. Fats are solid and oils are liquid at room temperature

B. Fats dissolve in alcohol while oils dissolve in water

C. Oils are made of amino acids while oils are from glycerol

D. Oils are solid and fats are liquid at room temperature

21. Blood transfusion between blood type A and blood type B caused agglutination. This is
because:

A. Both types of blood have antibody •

B. Type A has antigen A while type B has antibody A

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C. Type A has antigen B while type B has antigen A

D. Both types of blood have antigen B

22. Which of the following valve structures prevents the back flow of blood into the right auricle
when the right ventricle contracts?

A. Semi-lunar B. Tricuspid C Mitral D. Bicuspid

23. Which of the following actions increases the volume of chest cavity?

A. Lowering of the rib cage B. Contraction of the diaphragm

C. Relaxation of the diaphragm D. Relaxation of the intercostal muscles

24. Which of the following breathing structures is located more nearer to the lungs?

A Larynx B. Pharynx C. Glottis D. Bronchus

25. Which of the following are the products of anaerobic respiration?

A. Oxygen and water C. Ethanol and water

B. Water and carbon dioxide D. Lactic acid and ethanol

26. Suppose the blood pressure of a person is found to be 140/95, which of the following is true?

A. The person has a problem of high blood pressure

B. The person needs lo increase his/her weight

C The denominator is the pressure resulting from contraction of left ventricle

D. The numerator indicates diastolic pressure

27. Suppose you are asked to determine Biuret test for a certain food, which of the following is
correct about your test? If the food has

A. sugar, orange red color will develop B. protein, purple color will develop

C. protein, orange red color will develop D. sugar, purple color will develop

28, Which of the following is a function of bile?

A. it facilitates protein digestion B. It facilitates carbohydrate digestion

C. It kills bacteria D. It emulsifies fat.

29. What do we call the way that breaks down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into their
monomer units during digestion?
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A. Hydrolysis B. Condensation C. Dehydration D. Respiration

30. What is the importance of mechanical digestion?

A. Initiate the release of digestive enzymes from their glands

B. Minimize the effect of microbes on the food we eat

C. Change large and insoluble food molecules to smaller and soluble ones

D. Increase the surface area of the food for enzymatic action

31. Which of the following sections of the gut secretes enzymes that digest all the three food
types?

A. Mouth B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Esophagus

32. Tidal volume of air is the air which:

A. is inhaled after forced exhalation B. remains in the lungs after forced exhalation,

C. is forcibly exhaled after normal inhalation D. is exchanged during a normal breath

33. Which of the following happens during breathing air into the lungs?

A. The volume of the chest cavity increases B. The external intercostal muscles relax

C. The ribs move down and upwards D. The diaphragm becomes dome shaped

34. All of the following processes utilize ATP except

A. anabolic processes of the cell

B. muscular contractions that affect movement,

C. catabolic processes of the cell

D. the diffusion of oxygen from alveoli to blood capillary

35. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood vessels?

A Pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood

B. Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood

C. Veins carry blood away from the heart.

D. Arteries carry blood towards the heart.

36. Which of the following is correct about the effect of altitude on breathing rate?
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At higher altitude breathing rate

A. decreases because of the atmospheric pressure

B. increases because of the low level of oxygen in the air

C. decrease because of the high level of oxygen in the air

D. increases because of the high level of carbon dioxide in the air

37. Which of the following statement is correct about simple, double, and complex sugars?

A. Sucrose is simple sugar, fructose is double sugar, and starch is complex sugar

B. Complex sugars are non-sweet and do not dissolve in water while simple and double
sugars are sweet and dissolve in water

C. Simple sugars are sweet and dissolve in water while double and complex sugars are non-sweet
and do not dissolve in water

D. Simple and double sugars are used as storage molecules while complex sugars are structural
molecules

38. Which of the following options represents the building blocks and the product?

A. Sugar molecules ATP

B. DNA molecules Part of starch

C. Starch molecules Glucose

D. Amino acid molecules part of protein

39. Which of following is the role of hydrochloric acid secreted by the wall of the stomach?

A. Facilitates the digestion of lipids in the stomach

B. Breaks down carbohydrates smaller sugar molecules

C. Controls the action of sphincter muscle at entrance of stomach

D. Creates conducive environment for the action of pepsin

40. Which of the following events is true during inhalation?

A. The pressure inside the chest is lower than outside

B. The ribs move down and in

C. The diaphragm muscles relax

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D. External intercostal muscles relax

40. Which of the following practices helps to keep the hygiene of human breathing structures?

B. Sneezing and coughing into air

D. Lowering salt level in the diet

A. Doing exercise before meal

C. Cleaning teeth and tongue

41. Even though anaerobic respirations results much less ATP, Cells are forced to use it when
there is shortage of:

A. N2 B. CO2 C. H3O- D. O2

42. The arteries that carry blood to the walls of the heart are known as

A. coronary B. carotid C. heptatic D. renal

43. Why the muscle walls on the left side of the heart are thicker than the muscle walls on the
right side? Because they

A. pump blood to relatively shorter distance B. protect the heart form external damage.

C. pump blood to relatively longer distance D. receive much of the digested food to build
them.

44. Which of the following statements is correct about the human blood vessels?

A. Veins always carry deoxygenated blood

B. Arteries always carry oxygenated blood

C. Capillaries are thicker than veins

D. Capillaries link arteries with veins

45. What is the importance of balanced diet? It is important to

A. end up with obese body condition

D. exposes the body to malnutrition

C. makes the body over nutrition

D. maintain healthy body development

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46. A student conducted an experiment on an unknown food item, He put a drop of specimen
from the unknown food item on a clean sheet of filter paper using dropper. Then, he left the
paper for few minutes; He found a spot where sample was placed while holding the paper against
light coming in through window. What was the unknown food item?

A. Lipid B. Vitamin

C. Protein D. Carbohydrate

47. Which of the following statements is correct about absorption of the smaller food molecules
from the digestive system?

A. Fatty acid and glycerol move directly into the blood.

B. Glucose and amino acids move initially in to lacteals.

C. The smaller food molecules leave the digestive system by diffusion.

D. The smaller food molecules are directly absorbed by the body cells.

48. A biology student wants to consume food that is preserved for a long-time which of the
following precautions should be taken to avoid health problems after consumption? Check

A. whether the food has sweet taste

B. that the food is well cooked

C. the presence of tiny hole on the can for the air to get in

D. that the "best before date stamped on the can is ok.

49. Which of the following breathing structures separates human thorax and abdomen?

A. Diaphragm B. Bronchus

C. Ribs D. Trachea

50. The first step during artificial respiration is

A. checking for breathing

C. checking the casualty is conscious

B. opening of the airway

D. calling for help loudly

51. Why is keeping oral hygiene important? To

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A. produce an attractive sound B. remove the outer cover of teeth

C. Prevent the build-up of acidic waste D. avoid intestinal diseases

52. Which of the following statements is true about aerobic respiration?

A. In aerobic respiration glucose is oxidized into ethanol and carbon dioxide

B. Aerobic respiration takes place in a chloroplast

C. Lactic acid is the end product of aerobic respiration

D. In aerobic respiration carbon dioxide and water are produced as waste products.

53. Which of the following statements is true about blood vessels?

A. Hepatic arteries supply oxygenated blood to kidneys

B. Coronary artery supplies oxygenated blood to the heart

C. Renal artery supplies oxygenated blood to the liver

D. Pulmonary artery supplies oxygenated blood to the stomach

54. During cellular respiration, ATP is made from

A. ADP and nitrogen B. ADP and phosphate

C. ADP and Phosphorus D. ADP and nitrate

55. Which of the following structures of the human heart is correctly matched with its function?

A. Right ventricle → pumps oxygenated blood to the body.

B. Left atrium → receives oxygenated blood from the lung

C. Left ventricle →Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lung

D. Right atrium → receives oxygenated blood from the body

56. Which of the following statements is true about hypertension? It

A. is due to the presence of few RBC to carry haemoglobin

B. can be reduced during higher age and overweight of the body

C. is a deficiency disease caused by the lack of iron

D. can be managed by reducing salt in the diet

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57. What is balanced diet? It is a diet which contains enough of

A. all major food groups C. vitamins and minerals

B. amino acids and vitamins D. proteins and carbohydrates

58. What is nutrition? lt is

A. obtaining food to carry out life process

B. obtaining food only from micronutrients

C. getting food simply to prevent from hunger

D. getting food only from macronutrients

59. In human digestive system, where does absorption of food take place? In the

A. large intestine B. stomach

C. small intestine D. mouth

60. Which of the following statements is true about enzymes? They are

A. free from the effect of different PH levels

B. found only in the small intestine

C. proteins that speed up specific reactions

D. important to absorb digested food

61. How does body exercise affect the breathing rate?

A. begins exercise, the breathing rate increases

B. gets rest, breathing is totally lost.

C. begins exercise, the breathing rate decreases.

D. gets rest, breathing rate increases

62. What molecule is the "energy currency of the cell?

A. Carbon dioxide B. Water

C. ATP D. ADP

63. Which of the following will happen if the tricuspid valve of the heart fails to work properly?

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A. The heart will stop beating

B. Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood will be mixed

C. Blood will flow back to the right auricle

D The rate of heartbeat will decrease

64. Which of the following compounds makes Cigarette addictive?

A. Arsenic B. Nicotine C. Tar D. Benzeprine

65. Which of the following substances are products of anaerobic respiration?

A. Ethanol and lactic acid C. Lactic acid and water

B. Water and ethanol D. Ethanol and glucose

66. which of the following happens when you breathe out forcefully?

A. The volume of the thoracic cavity increases

B. Air rushes into the lungs from the atmosphere

C. The diaphragm becomes flat

D. The chest is lowered

67. Which of the following structures separates the thoracic cavity from the abdomen

A. Sternum C. Rib cage

B. Pleura B. Diaphragm

68. Which of the following nutrients do not dissolve in water

A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids

C. Proteins D. Salts

69. Which of the following would most directly result in the production of lactic acid by muscle
cells in the human body?

A. Excess amount of nitrogen in the cells

B. Insufficient amount of CO2 in the cells

C. Insufficient amount of nitrogen reaching cells

D. Insufficient amount of oxygen reaching cells

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70. Which of the following is the characteristic of an enzyme?

A. It is an inorganic catalyst

B. It is destroyed after each chemical digestion

C. It provides energy for any chemical reaction

D. It regulates the rate of a specific chemical reaction

71. Which of the following organic compounds undergo partial chemical digestion in human
mouth

A. Carbohydrates B. Fats

C. Protons D. Minerals

72. The usefulness of fermentation as a means of deriving energy is limited because:

A. it cannot generate enough ATP

B. it produces too much CO2

C. the end products are toxic to the producer

D. it uses more energy than it produces

73. Which of the following happens during inhalation?

A. rib muscles relax B. Size of the chest cavity decreases

C. Diaphragm contracts D. The air pressure inside the lung increases

74. What happens to the concentration of gases in the air with increasing altitude?

A. The percentage of gases will vary

B. The amount of CO2 will remain the same

C. The amount of oxygen will reduce

D. The composition of air will change

75. Oxygenated blood leaves the human heart through the

A. pulmonary vein B. pulmonary artery

C. vena cava D. aorta

76. Which of the following is a fat digesting enzyme?

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A. Pepsin B. Lipase

C. Trypsin D. Ptyalin

77. If someone has bleeding gum, it is probably due to the lack of

A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin B

78. Which of the following is the hardest part of the teeth?

A. Cement B. Enamel

C. Pulp cavity D. Dentine

79 Which of the following structures are involved in the absorption of fatty acids and glycerol in
the small intestines?

A, Veins B. Capillary

C. Lacteals D. Arteries

80 Which blood vessel drains nutrient-rich blood from the intestines, and carries it to the liver?

A. Hepatic vein B. Renal portal vein

C. Hepatic portal vein D. Hepatic portal artery

81. Which of the following is correct about coronary circulation?

A. It supplies blood to the lungs B. It comes more waste products

C. It carries more nutrients D. It supplies blood to the heart muscles

82. Which of the following substances shows a red precipitate in Benedict's solution?

A. Protein B. Fat

C. Starch D. Glucose

83. Which of the following types of diseases is characterized by discolored hair and bloated
belly?

A. Anemia B. kwashiorkor

C. Goiter D. Rickets

84. A strict vegetarian may suffer from deficiency of

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A. proteins B sugar

C. starch D. Vit C

85. A biology student did an observation using a microscope and a piece of specimen from the
structure of human breathing system. He put the specimen on the microscope stage and looked at
the cilia on the epithelium tissue and the cartilage rings on the specimen. Therefore, the
specimen he observed was

A. larynx B. trachea C. diaphragm D. oesophagus

86. How high altitudes affect our breathing system? At high altitude

A. the number of red blood cells decreases, as available oxygen decreases

B. the number of red blood cells increases, as available oxygen increases.

C. the level of oxygen is high, as our breathing rate decreases.

D. the level of oxygen is low; as a result our breathing rate increases

87. Assume Mr. Y has a monthly salary of 700 birr and he has three children. He smokes
cigarettes and chews khat, frequently. What will be the fate of his family?

A. The family will suffer from shortage of income

B. Mr. Y and his family will be healthier

C. Mr. Y and his family will live cheerfully

D. Nothing will happen to his family

88. The tubes that split from the trachea and lead into left and right lungs are known as

A. bronchioles C. alveoli

B. bronchi D. trachioles

89. Which of the following food classes is correctly matched with its source of food?

A. Vitamin - Salt, green vegetable, bread

B. Protein - Injera, fetira, honey

C. Mineral - Carrot, cereal, yeast

D. Lipid - Milk, butter, oil

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90. A person with blood group B loses blood due to accident. He may receive blood donation
from group:

A. AB only B. A and B C. B and O D. B only

91. Which of the following is true about balanced diet?

A. Eating only fruits are sufficient in order to get a balanced diet

B. Eating înjera every day is enough in order to get a balanced diet

C. Taking only very few foods is enough in order to get a balanced diet

D. Getting enough food from major food classes is required in order to get balanced diet

92. Which of the following digestion activities takes place in the mouth?

A. Production of hydrochloric acid by salivary glands

B. Absorption of carbohydrates as glucose

C. Breaking down of food into smaller pieces

D. Digestion of proteins to amino acids

93. The two human teeth types that are used for biting are

A. canines and premolar C. molars and premolars

B. incisors and premolars D. incisors and canines

94. Which of the following enzymes is used to digest carbohydrates in the mouth?

A. Lipase C. Trypsin

B. Amylase D. Maltase

95. Red blood cells carry oxygen to all over your body and supply it to your body cells

This is because red blood cells have

A. nucleus B. antigens C. hemoglobin D. antibodies

96. Which of the following methods is used to prevent hypertension?

A. Doing regular exercise B. Eating canned foods

C. Eating foods that have iron source D. Using vitamins

97. Which of the following functions of blood vessels is true?

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A. Umbilical vein carries deoxygenated blood from placenta to the uterus

B. Pulmonary vein carries deoxygenated blood from lungs to the heart

C. Arteries always carry oxygenated blood

D. Veins always carry blood towards the heart

98. The chamber of the heart which pumps blood to all parts the body is

A. right auricle B. right ventricle

C .left auricle D. Left ventricle

99. Suppose a person lost a lot of blood due to a car accident if his blood group is O, for a
successful blood transfusion the donor's blood should be

A. A D. AB B. 0 C.B

100. Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of

A. arteries C. ventricles

B. auricles D. veins

101. People living in higher altitude have more red blood cells than people living in lower
altitudes. This is because air at higher altitudes contains

A. more carbon dioxide in a given volume of air

B . More oxygen to a given volume of air

C. less CO2 in a given volume of air

D. less O2 in a given volume of air

102. Thin legs, bloated belly, and discolored hair in children are signs of the deficiency of

A. protein B. vitamin A

C. carbohydrate D. vitamin B

103. which of the following is part of the small intestine?

A. Colon B. Rectum

C. ileum D. Anus

104. Which of the following types of blood do not have antigens in its red blood cells?

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A. O B. A C. B D. AB

105. Each kind of enzyme catalyzes one kind of reaction

This implies that enzymes are

A. Proteins B. sensitive to temperature

C. specific D. sensitive of pH

106. Which of the following changes occurs during inhalation of air into the lungs?

A. The rib cage is lowered

B. The pressure in the lungs is increased

C. The intercostal muscles relax

D. The diaphragm muscles contract

107. If a person laughs while swallowing food, he may be chocked.

This is because:

A. the food is not properly chewed

B. some of his relatives may be talking about him

C. the epiglottis is not properly closed

D. feeding soup may slip to the trachea

108. Which of the following types of vitamins is needed to improve vision in dim light?

A. Vit D B. vit A

C. Vit E C. Vit C

109. Which of the following conditions increases the rate of breathing?

A. When the concentration of oxygen in blood increases

B. when the concentration of carbon dioxide in blood increases

C. When the concentration of nitrogen in blood increases

D. when one goes from a higher to a lower altitude

110. A child who gets sufficient sunlight at intervals would not develop rickets. This is because
sunlight makes the skin synthesize:
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A. Vit. B B. Vit C C. Vit A D. Vit D

111. Which of the following food particles cannot be absorbed by the small intestine?

A. Glycerol B. Fatty acid

C. Protein D. Glucose

112. Which one of the following is advisable to do, if your skin is scraped or cut?

A. Treat it with hot cotton

B. Clean it with soap

C. Seal it with plastic material

D. Add soil on the wound

113. A person with blood group O, can receive blood from a person with blood group:

A. AB B. A C. O D. B

114. The protein substances made by the body in response to parasites and foreign substances are
known as

A. phagocytes B. enzymes

C. antibodies D. antigens

115. Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the liver?

A Hepatic B. Pulmonary

C. Renal D. Carotid

116. The path followed by air as it enters the human body is:

A. nose, trachea, bronchioles, bronchus, alveolus

B. nose, bronchus, trachea, bronchioles, alveolus

C. nose, bronchus, bronchioles, trachea, alveolus

D. nose, trachea, bronchus, bronchioles, alveolus

117. Blood leaving the lungs differs from blood entering the lungs by having

A. less oxygen but equal amount of carbon dioxide

B. more oxygen and less carbon dioxide

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C. less oxygen and more carbon dioxide

D. less oxygen and less carbon dioxide

118. The most important process in the lungs takes place in the:

A. Pleural cavity B. Bronchioles

C. Alveoli D. Bronchi

119. The addictive substance in cigarette smoke is:

A. Carbon monoxide B. Tar

C. Nicotine D. arsenic

120. Which of the following blood cells are involved in the blood clotting?

A. Red blood cells B. Platelets

C. White blood cells D. Lymph

121. During training for the Olympic games an athlete would find his /her rate of the heart beat:

A. decreased C. increased

B. unaffected D. stopped

122. A disease condition caused by uncontrolled production of white blood cells is:

A. elephantiasis B. haemophilia

C. leukemia D. anaemia

123. Which of the following pathways for the circulation of blood in humans is correct?

A. Left ventricle, body, right auricle B. Right auricle, lungs, right ventricle

C. Right auricle, body. Left ventricle D. Left ventricle, lungs. Left auricle

124. A shortage of vitamin D in human diet is likely to result in:

A. Scurvy B. Rickets

C. Beri-beri D. Night blindness

125. The number of teeth in a human being on each side of the upper and lower jaw is:

A. 8 B. 16 C. 10 D. 32
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126. Enzymes are made up of:

A. fats B. carbohydrates

C. proteins D. mineral salts

127. Which of the following substances would give positive test with Benedict's solution?

A. Glucose C. Fat

C. Protein D. Starch

128. In mammals, which of the following starts being digested in the stomach and has its
digestion finished in the small intestine?

A. Starch C. Sugar

B. Protein D. Fat

129. Bile salts are used to break up fats into small, easily digested droplets. This process is
called:

A. absorption B. emulsification

C. digestion D. excretion

130. What causes goiter?

A. Excessive protein intake B. Excessive salt intake

C. Vitamin deficiency D. lodine deficiency

131. What is the importance of ATP to the body? It is used to transport

A. some materials against concentration gradient

B. ions from high concentration to low concentration

C. carbon dioxide through the cell membrane

D. water molecules through cell membrane

132. Which of the following methods helps to keep the hygiene of breathing structures?

A. Breathing deeply B. Cleaning teeth

C. Drinking alcohol D. Smoking cigarette

133. On a clean glass slide, a nurse mixed donor's "AB blood group with recipient's B blood
group. What result could she observe after mixing the two blood groups?
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A. The color of the mixture changed to blue

B. The mixture becomes agglutinated

C. There was no change in appearance

D. The red blood cells increased in size

134. Which of the following blood components transports waste products to the kidneys?

A.WBCs B. Plasma C. RBCs D. Platelets

135. Food travels from mouth to stomach through

A. epiglottis B. trachea C. wind pipe D. esophagus

136. Which of the following blood groups has no antigen on the red blood cells?

A. AB B. O C.B D. A

137. The valves of the heart play a significant role to

A. allows the transport of blood in the right direction

B. supply blood to the cardiac muscle and atrium

C. transport deoxygenated blood into the lung

D. transport oxygenated blood to the rest of the body

138. During delivery, a pregnant woman whose blood type "O" has lost a lot of blood. The
doctor ordered her family to get a blood donor, what should be of blood type of the donor? The
blood

A. B B. A C. AB D. O

139. Which one of the following molecules is made up of amino acids?

A. Vitamins B. Sucrose

C. Minerals D. Proteins

140. Why do we need a balanced diet? To

A. support health growth C. become very tall

B. prevent infection by HIV D. gain excessive weight

141. Which one of the following structures produces hydrochloric acid that kills most of the
bacteria taken with food?
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A. Gall bladder B. Small intestine

C. Stomach D. Liver

142. What makes the lining of the small intestine adapted to rapid absorption of digested foods?

A. Bladder B. Pancreas

C. Villi D. Sphincter

143. Which one of the following statements is correct about anaerobic respiration? lt

A. is the main source of energy form warm blooded animals

B. breaks down food to release energy without oxygen

C. produces carbon dioxide and water as a byproduct

D. produces more ATP than aerobic respiration

144. Which of the following substances is used as the source of nutrients and energy for the
body?

A. Mineral B. Vitamin C. Water D. Food

145. The main components of human blood are

A. red blood cells, platelets, heart and lymph vessels

B. red blood cells, plasma, heart and lymph vessels

C. plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets

D. plasma, white blood cells, heart and red blood cells

146. The transportation of oxygen and nutrients within the human body is facilitated by the

A. respiratory system

B. circulatory system

C. excretory system

D. nervous system

147. Which of the following structures of the heart is correctly matched with its function?

A. Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

B. Right atrium contracts and forces blood out to the body

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C. Left ventricle contracts and forces the blood out to the lungs

D. Right ventricle receives deoxygenated blood from the body

148. Someone, who has blood group "A" has got a car accident and lost a lot of blood.

Therefore, he needs blood transfusion. Which of the following blood groups is used during the
transfusion?

A. AB

B. O

C. OB

D. B

149. Which of the following is correct about human blood cells?

A. White blood cells contain hemoglobin.

B. Red blood cells are fewer than white blood cells

C. Red blood cells defend the body against disease causing organism

D. White blood cells defend the body against disease causing organism

150. Which of the following list is different from the rest in relation to the six classes of food?

A. Carbohydrate, mineral, water C. Fat, vitamin, water

B. Carbohydrate, protein, fat D. Protein, fat, alcohol

151. Which of the following groups of food items is a good source of fats and oil?

A. Butter, ground nut, coconut

B. Injera, rice, potato

C. Meat, cheese, chick peas

D. Carrots, green vegetables, fruits

152. The blue color of dichlorophenol indophenol (DCPIP) reagent turn colorless upon addition
to unknown food sample. This confirms thy the unknown food sample is

A. starch C. vitamin C

B. protein D. fat

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153. Which of the following is part of the digestive system?

A. Bladder C. Lung

B. Duodenum D. Scrotum

154. The black substance found in tobacco smoke which causes chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease is

A. nicotine C. carbon monoxide

B. tar D. caffeine

155. Which of the following occurs during inhalation of air?

A. Relaxation of the diaphragm

B. Relaxation of the external inter coastal muscles

C. Movement of the ribs up and out

D. The diaphragm becomes dome shaped

156. The digestion of proteins takes place in the

A. small intestine only B. Mouth and stomach

C. stomach only D. stomach and small intestine

157. Which of the following enzymes digests starch in the mouth?

A. Lactase C. Lipase

B. Pepsin D. Amylase

158. Part of the respiratory system where gaseous exchange takes place is?

A. trachea C. Bronchus

B. alveolus D. bronchiole

159. Blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood and return it to the heart are

A. veins B. capillaries C. arteries D. lymph vessels

160. Which of the following methods helps to maintain oral hygiene?

A. Regular tooth brushing B. Taking sweet food

C. Regular body exercise D. Taking lots of acidic food

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161. Which of the following structures connects the larynx with the lungs?

A. Bronchus C. Cartilage

B. Trachea D. Oesophagus

162. Which of the following vitamins is correctly matched?

A. Vitamin A - cereals C. Vitamin B – fresh meat

B. Vitamin D – fish liver oil D. Vitamin C -yeast extract

163. A woman lost a lot of blood during delivery and the doctor found that she required blood
from another person to save her life. Then, he checked her blood type and found that she has a
blood type O. Agglutination will not happen if she receives a blood from a person having blood
group

A. O C. B

B. AB D. A

164. Which one of the following statements is correct about absorption of digested food?

A. Water is absorbed in the small intestine through lacteals, which are part of the lymphatic
system

B. Once the digested food diffuses to the blood; it is taken to the liver through hepatic portal vein

C. Fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed through blood capillaries in the small intestine

D. Absorption of glucose and protein begins and completed in the large intestine

165. Which of the following enzymes is correctly matched with its function?

A. Maltase - digests carbohydrates

B. Lipase - digests vitamins

C. Pepsin - digests minerals

D. Amylase - digests lipids

166. What is nutrition? It is the process of

A. obtaining food in order to carry out life processes

B. breaking down food in the digestive system

C taking too little food to carry out life processes

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D. taking too much food to carry out life processes

167. Which of the following statements is correct about the structure and function of the heart?

A. The left atrium pumps blood to the lungs

B. The left ventricle forces blood into the pulmonary trunk

C. The tricuspid valves prevent flow of blood from the atria into ventricles

D. The right atrium collects blood from all parts of the body except the lungs

168. Which one of the following gas exchange mechanisms in the human body is correct?
During gas exchange

A. carbon dioxide diffuses from the bronchi into the blood.

B. oxygen diffuses from the trachea into the blood.

C. oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the blood.

D. carbon dioxide diffuses from alveoli into the blood.

169. Which of the following is true about cellular respiration?

A. Glucose reacts with O2 to release energy usable by cells.

B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are waste products of cellular respiration.

C. Oxygen and water are waste products of cellular respiration.

D. Glucose reacts with CO2 to release energy usable by cells.

170, Assume you wanted to demonstrate compatibility of blood groups. You took four test tubes
labeled O, A, B, and AB based on the blood group that each test tube contains. Then you added
unknown blood sample into each test tube and no agglutination was observed in each test tube.
From this, you can conclude that the unknown blood sample was

A. blood group B. C. blood group A.

B. blood group 0 D. blood group AB

171. During gas exchange between the alveoli and blood capillaries, oxygen is absorbed by the
blood while carbon dioxide is removed. This opposite direction of gas exchange occurs due to

A. difference in the concentration gradient of oxygen and carbon dioxide

B. difference in the molecular size of oxygen and carbon dioxide

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C. thicker layer of the capillaries.

D. the small surface area of the alveoli

172. Identify the correct statement about the effect of exercise on breathing rate.

A. The vital capacity of the lungs decrease during heavy exercise

B. The tidal volume of air at rest is greater than the tidal volume of air during exercise.

C. Fast and deep breathing are the result of demanding less oxygen.

D. Exercise and getting fit makes the lungs efficient.

173. The following is a list of functions of the components of blood.

1. Transport of oxygen

2. Fight against diseases

3. Cause blood clotting

174. Which one of the following is a correct order ot blood components responsible for the
above functions respectively?

A. White blood cells, platelets, red blood cells

B. Platelets, white blood cells, red blood cells

C. Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets

D. Red blood cells, platelets, white blood cells

175. What is the cause of the back flow of blood into the atria from the ventricles? It could be
damage of the

A. aorta C. Pulmonary

B. pulmonary artery D. valves

176. The capillaries are blood vessels that have thin and large surface area

since their function is

A. transport of oxygenated blood

B. exchange of substances

C. to return blood to the heart

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D. transport of deoxygenated blood

177. Three students designed the following experimental settings to understand the actual taste of
a food.

Student 1: Blind folded two students, one of them tightly holding the nose while the other
without holding the nose and tasting the food.

Student 2: Blind folded one student and the other left with open eyes, both holding their nose
tightly while tasting the food.

Student 3: None of the participants blind folded and only one of them holding her nose tightly
while tasting the food.

Student 4: None of the participants blind folded and both of them taste the food without holding
the nose.

Which student designed the most appropriate experiment?

A. Student 1 C. Student 4

B. Student 2 D. Student 3

178. One of the following problems can occur if the liver does NOT properly carry out its
digestive functions.

A. Increased alkalinity of the intestine

B. Incomplete digestion of polysaccharides

B. Partial absorption of digested foods

D. Partial digestion of fats

179. Which of the following is the correct order of food substance, enzyme, and breakdown
product of the digestive process in the stomach respectively?

A. Starch, lipase, glucose B. Fat, trypsin, glycerol

C. Protein, pepsin, amino acid D. Lipid, amylase, fatty acid

180. Assume you are trying to demonstrate breathing movements using artificial lung and you
pulled down the rubber sheet, this action of pulling represents which step of the actual breathing
process?

A. Exhalation and contraction of the diaphragm

B. Inhalation and relaxation of the diaphragm

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C. Inhalation and contraction of the diaphragm

D. Exhalation and relaxation of the diaphragm

181. A grade 9 student conducted a food test. He added two drops of iodine solution to the test
tube containing a food sample solution and observed blue black color. Which of the following
food types did he test by the experiment?

A. Vitamin C. Starch

B. Lipid D. Protein

182. Which h of the following blood vessel is correctly matched to its function?

A. Vena cava - carry blood from heart to other part of the body

B. Capillaries - carry blood from other part of the body to the heart

C. Arteries - carry blood from the heart to other part of the body

D. Veins - carry blood from other part of the body to the lung

183. Lacteals are used to absorb:

A. minerals C. fatty acid

B. vitamins D. amino acids

184. A balanced diet is composed of:

A. more protein and carbohydrate and small fats and vitamins

B. more carbohydrate and fats and small protein and minerals

C. enough quantity of all of the major types of food items

C. more fat and protein and small carbohydrates and minerals

185. Which one of the following has the highest daily energy needs?

A. Pregnant woman B. Heavy manual worker

C. Newborn baby D. Man aged 75+

Unit 4

Microorganism and disease

1. Suppose you want to preserve your milk by eliminating disease Causing organisms. Which of
the following methods would you use?
247
A. Boiling the milk in water 120°C under high pressure B. Heating the milk for 2 hours at
160°C

C. Heating the milk for 30 minutes at 63°C D. Exposing the milk to UV-
radiation

2. In which of the following areas is malaria normally prevalent?

A. Rainy and high land B. High land and marshy C. Low land and marshy D. Low land and
dry

3. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by insect vector?

A. Poliomyelitis B. Diphtheria C. Trypanosomiasis D. Taeniasis

4. Which of the following is true of viruses? Viruses:

A. Are true cells B. Have chlorophyll C. Are saprophytic D. Reproduce only in living
cells

5. Which of the following methods is used to prevent the spread of amoebic dysentery?

A. Proper disposal of faeces B. Using net over bed

C. Eradication of water snails D. Eradication of anopheles mosquito

6. Which of the following symptoms of plant diseases is caused by a virus?

A. Blight on leaves C. Mosaic on leaves

B. Rotting of plant parts D. Powdery coating on leaves

7. Which of the following is the use of antiseptics?

A. Kill bacteria in the food C. Sterilize rooms

B. Kill bacteria on the skin D. Clean kitchen utensils

8. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by sharing combs and hats?

A. Amoebic dysentery B. Athlete's foot C. Hookworm D. Ringworm

9. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by protozoa?

A. Trichomoniasis B. Gonorrhea C. Syphilis D. Chancroid

10. Which of the following is true of HIV? HIV:

A. Cause pneumonia B. Destroys the immune system

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C. Causes tuberculosis D. Attacks the heart and lungs

11. Which of the following diseases is transmitted through direct contact over a long period?

A. Diphtheria B. Tetanus C. Typhoid D. Leprosy

12. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by a vector?

A. Measles B. Malaria

C. Mumps D. AIDS

13. Louis Pasteur's experiment on microorganisms using a flask with a lengthened S-shaped neck
was to:

A. Kill pathogens using heat B. Disprove the theory of spontaneous generation

C. Prove the fermentation of sugar D. Prove that germs cause diseases

14. Which of the following diseases is different from others?

A. Tuberculosis B. Measles C. Influenza D. Rabies

15. Which of the following is true of tapeworms, blood flukes, and hookworms?

A. Infection is caused from drinking contaminated water

B. Infection is limited to the intestine of humans

C. Proper disposal of faeces is one important preventive mechanism

D. Intermediate host in their life cycle

16. What is the role of vectors in relation to the health of organisms?

A. They carry disease causing organisms from one host to another

B. They are causative agents of many diseases

C. They prevent micro-organisms from infecting healthy individuals

D. They deactivate diseases causing micro-organisms

17. Suppose your friend tells you that he suspects that he is HIV positive. How would you react
to this?

A. Inform your other friends that he is HIV positive

B. Advise him to go to health center to know his status

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C. Tell him to buy and take antiretroviral drugs

D. Avoid friendship to protect yourself

18. All of the following are chemical approaches to control Microorganisms except

A. antibiotics B. disinfectant C. antiseptics D. autoclaving

19. How do antiseptics are used to destroy microorganisms?

A. By dry heat application in special ovens

B. By applying them on cut skin

C. By applying them on inanimate objects

D. By taking them into the body

20. Which of the following is true about cholera?

A. It causes severe dehydration B. Its common symptom is fever.

C. It is caused by viral infection D. It spreads by contaminated air inhalation

21. Malaria causing single celled parasitic Protozoan is called

A. paramecium B, salmonella C. mosquito D. plasmodium

22. Which of the following methods is correct about control and prevention of tuberculosis?

A. Cover the mouth and nose when coughing

B. Use mosquito repellents

C. Avoid fecal contamination of food

D. Use anti-parasitic drugs

23. What is the risk of taking self-prescribed medication? They

A. cause disease in a very long time

B. cause mild side effects

C. work best only for seriously ill persons

D. cause serious illness even death

24. How does HIV affect the human immune system? By

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A. attacking macrophages and preventing phagocytosis

B. preventing B-lymmphocyte from antibody production

C. destroying red blood cells and reducing oxygen transport

D. infecting T-cells and reducing their efficiency

25. Live vaccines are made from

A. Weakened microorganisms’ C. living macro-organisms

B. dead microorganisms‘ D. dead macro-organ isms

26. Which of the following statements is true about malaria? 1t

A. is a bacterial infection B. has an effective vaccine

C. is caused by parasitic Plasmodium D. causes acute watery diarrhea

27. When a patient takes a modern medicine, the information that he can get from the packets
and leaflets of the medicine is the

A. illness that the medicine will treat

B. place where the patient lives and works

C. health center name where the patient examined

D. name of the doctor who examined the patient

28. Which of the following statements is correct about growing microorganisms in the
laboratory?

A. If the petridish is sterilized, there is no need of sterilizing the nutrient

B. The nutrients used by the microorganisms must be sterilized

C. The inoculated petridish should be left open on the bench

D. To observe the growth, the Petridishes should be opened

29. which of the following disease controlling methods works for malaria?

A. Proper disposal of faeces B. hygienic food handling

C Prevention of flies D. Killing adult mosquitoes

30, The major method of transmission of typhoid fever

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A. air-biome by coughing B. contaminated skin wounds

C. polluted water and food D. direct contact

31. The microbiological technique that is commonly used to preserve milk is:

A. Pasteurization B. Chemical sterilization

C. Irradiation D. Sterilization

32. If someone tells you that he has peeling of skin between the toes and his feet smells badly,
what do you advise him?

A. To take antibodies orally

B. Not to use socks at all

C. Not to expose his feet to confer them daily

D. To keep his feet clean and dry by washing them daily

33. Which of these groups of properties are associated with viruses?

A. Can be saprophytic, larger than bacteria, reproduce inside cells

B. Obligate parasites, larger than bacteria, reproduce outside cells

C. Obligate parasites, smaller than bacteria, reproduce inside cells

D. Can be saprophytic, smaller than bacteria, reproduce outside cells

34. Which of the following insects may serve as an intermediate host for cholera?

A. Body lice B. Culex mosquito

C. Anopheles mosquito D. Housefly

35. Which of the following diseases is the result of lack of insulin in the body?

A. Diabetes B. Typhoid

C. Diarrhea D. Goiter

36.Which of the following viral diseases can be transmitted by the bite of animal?

A. Measles B. Rabies

C. Polio D. AlDS

37. Which of the following diseases is caused by fungi?

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A. Hookworm C. Trypanosoma

C. Ringworm D. Tapeworm

38. The protein substances made by the body in response to parasites and foreign substances are
known as

A. phagocytes B. enzymes

C. antibodies D. antigens

39. Which of the following statements is true about vaccines?

A. They help us to cure from diseases

B. They stimulate the immune system

C. They are given only in needles

D. They are produced from active pathogens

40. Living organisms that can be seen only with the aid of a microscope are called

A. bacteria

B. yeasts

C. microorganisms

D. macroorganismns

41. Which of the following statements is true about microorganisms?

A. Some microorganisms are important in nutrient decomposition

B. All microorganisms are important sources of food

C. All microorganisms are poisonous

D. Many microorganisms are disease causing

42. Tapeworm is one of human parasite. lt is

A. prevented by avoiding contact with mosquitoes

B. caused by the bacterial infection of intestine.

C. caused by parasitic plasmodium.

D. prevented by anti-inflammatory drugs

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43. Which of the following statements is true about tuberculosis?

A. It has a symptom of night sweat

B. It has a symptom of abdominal cramps

C. It affects the heart and lungs

D. It is caused by viruses and bacteria

44. Mr. X has felt sick and visited his doctor which of the following is the right way of using
antibiotics

A Mr. X should not be expected to finish the drug if he recovered

B. Mr. X should take more doses of drugs than prescribed

C. Mr. X should take the drug regularly as prescribed

D. Mr. X should keep the drug at high temperature areas

45. Which of the following is a symptom of chancroid?

A. Yellowish-white discharge from the penis

B. Burning sensation while urinating

C. Loss of appetite and patchy hair los

D. Sore ulcerations on the genitals filled with pus

46. HIV affects the human body by

A. infecting the circulatory system B. infecting the lymphatic system

C. attacking the T-cells of the immune system D. attacking the B-cells of the immune
system

47. Heating, salting, drying and refrigeration are methods of

A. Killing bacteria B. Preventing disease

C. extracting antibiotics D. preserving food

48. A chemical that destroys a disease -causing microorganism is known as

A. An antibiotic B. A toxin

C. An endospore D. A vaccine

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49. During the last 50 years, over- use of prescription drugs has led to emergence of resistant
strains of pathogens. Why is this problem?

A Many diseases may become untreatable

B. Resistant pathogens will cause new diseases.

C. A single prescription drug can no longer kill all strains of a pathogen.

D. Prescription drugs will cause the release of toxins by pathogens.

50. Which of the following is the best method of controlling tetanus?

A. Vaccination

B Avoid droplet infection

C. Avoid contact

D. Isolation

51. What is the impact of HIV and AIDS on the society?

A. Leads to significant social cost B. Increase the immune system through time

C. Reduces stigma and discrimination D. Makes people loyal to their partner

52. A doctor prescribed abdominal medicine to Ato Hilu. Ato Hailu bought the medicine and
wanted to check if it is the right medicine. Which of the following information should be read on
leaflet?

A. Side effects of the medicine

B. Illness which the medicine treats

C. Name of the medicine

D. Dosage of the medicine containing

53. Which of the following types of diseases is caused by virus?

A. Typhoid B. Hookworm

C. Tuberculosis D. Rabies

54. What is the importance of a vaccine? lt

A. inhibits movement of viruses B. kills disease causing agents

C, triggers the immune system D. facilitates cell division

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55. What is the risk of self-prescribed antibiotics? They

A. may lead to wrong medicine

B. have no apparent risk as long as properly used.

C. facilitates the functions of liver and kidneys.

D. effectively destroys diseases causing agents.

56. Which of the following chemicals is applied on living tissues to kill micro-organisms?

A. Antiseptic C. Hormone

B. Disinfectant D. Antibody

57. Which of the folowing disease is correctly matched with its symptom?

A. Tuberculosis → shivering C. Malaria → sweating

B. Diarrhoea → running nose D. Tapeworm → fever

58. Which of the following statements is true about the risk of self-prescribed medicines? They

A. may be taken wrongly

B. may be important to recover soon

C. can eliminate very serious diseases

D. Can prevent the patient from dying

59. The importance of lymphatic system is to

A. exchange CO2 and O2 inside the lung

B .transport O2 to body cells

C. return tissue fluid to the blood

D. produce energy through respiration

60. which of the following statements of HIV/AIDS is true about its impact on the society? It:

A. has enormous contribution for the growth of the economy

B causes death of many working population

C. enhances support for elders by youngsters

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D. increases the caring and supporting of children by families

61. The technique of controlling microorganisms which involves heating followed by rapid
cooling is called

A. pasteurization C. dry heat sterilization

B. disinfection D. autoclave sterilization

62. In order to prevent himself from tapeworm disease, what advice would you give to your
friend?

A To spray his house with insecticides

B. To be vaccinated

C. To avoid eating raw meat

D. To avoid crowded places

63. Children are immunized against the six target disease.

A child who is immunized could not be infected by

A. hookworm B. amoeba

C. typhoid D. polio

64. Which of the following disease is caused by fungus?

A. Amoebic dysentery C. Trypanosomiasis

B. Ringworm D. Malaria

65. The human parasitic worm which uses snail as its intermediate host is

A. hookworm B. ascaris

C. tapeworm D. bilharzia

66. The protozoa which moves with the help of cilia is

A. paramecium B. tyrpanosoma

C. amoeba D. plasmodium

67. Crowded places should be avoided during an influenza epidemic to prevent

A. contact with mosquitoes B. droplet infection

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C. Contact with contaminated clothes D. picking up infected fleas

68. A disease of blood which is inherited from parents is

A. leukemia B. haempophilia

C. varicose vein D. elephantiasis

69. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases can damage every organ in the body
including the brain if not treated properly?

A. Syphilis B. Trichomoniasis

C. Chancroid D. Gonorrhea

70. If you want to sterilize a room by killing micro-organisms and their spores, which of the
following methods would you use?

A. Chemical sterilization B. Irradiation

C. Autoclave sterilization D. Moist heat sterilization

71. Human diseases caused by bacteria include:

A. influenza C. rabies

C. malaria D. tetanus

72. 1f a person becomes infected with a disease, what will happen to the white blood cells? They
usually:

A. increase in number C. stays the same in number

C. get totally destroyed D. decrease in number

73. What do vaccines give us?

A. Active immunity B. Meditation

C. Inherited immunity D. Inflammation reaction

74. The science of developing new vaccines against serious infectious diseases is known as:

A. immunology B. cloning

C. biometry D. pathology

75. The first scientist who discovered disinfectants was:

A. John Needham B. Francesco Redi

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C. Joseph Lister D. Robert Hooke.

76. One of the following immunity is gained by the baby naturally from

the first secretion of mother milk:

A. Natural active immunity

B. Acquired active immunity

C. Natural passive immunity

D. Acquired passive immunity

77. lf you want to introduce a small number of microorganisms in to a

nutrient medium, which of the following would you use'?

A. Inoculation

B. sterilization

C. Irradiation

D. pasteurization

78. In petridish used to grow microorganisms, agar is added

A. to avoid contamination C. to maintain pH

B. to lower temperature D. as a source of food

79. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi?

A. Chancroid C. Gonorriea

B. Syphilis D. AIDS

80. Which of the following diseases shows the symptom of an enlarged spleen and liver?

A. Chancroid C. Tuberculosis

B. Typhoid D. Cholera

81. A young man had unprotected sex with a lady. As a result, after several days he started
feeling burning during urination and a yellowish-white discharge from his penis. What is the
disease he contracted?

A. Chancroid C. Gonorrhea

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B. Syphilis D. Typhoid fever

82. How does HIV affect the human immune system?

A. attacking red blood cells B. blood plasma

C. attacking white blood cells D. Blood vessels

83. When do you get HIV antibodies in human body in detectable amounts

A. One day after the time of infection

B. Immediately following infection

C. Three months before initial period of incubation

D. After the initial period of incubation

84. Which one of the following activities is a method of growing microorganisms? Inoculation of
microorganisms into

A. sterile nutrient agar and incubation

B. sterile disinfectants and incubation

C. non sterile nutrient agar and incubation

D. moisturized soil and incubation

85. Anemia is caused by

A. being overweight C. excessive salt intake

B. excessive alcohol intake D. lack of iron in the diet

86. Which of the following diseases is correctly paired with its preventive method?

A. Cholera - using bed nets

B. Tuberculosis - avoid overcrowding

C. Malaria - cooking meat

D. Gonorrhea - take vaccination

87. Which one of the following diseases increases the likelihood of contracting HIV?

A. Syphilis C. Tuberculosis

B. Chancroid D. Gonorrhoea
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88. Even though pasteurization is a technique used to heat milk, beer and other foods, it cannot
preserve food unspoiled for years because it

A. cannot kill pathogenic microorganisms

B. reduces the nutritional content of the food.

C. is conducted in containers that are not properly scaled.

D. uses mild temperature that kills most but not all bacteria

89. Which one of the following diseases is caused by food poisoning bacteria?

A. Candidiasis C. Pneumonia

B. Salmonellosis D. Tuberculosis

90. Unlike free living cells, viruses are completely

A. pathogenic to a living cell B. mutual to a living cell

C. parasitic to a living cell D. harmful to a living cell

91. Why are vaccines important? Because they help to

A. kill pathogens C. Heal wounds

B. triggers the immune system D. Prevent functional diseases

92. How does antiretroviral medicine help in the treatment of HIVIAIDS? It

A. controls the reproduction of the virus

B. makes T-cells more susceptible to the virus

C. fights against respiratory infection

D. kills the virus by attacking its DNA

93. Which of the following is advisable with regard to the use of medicine?

A. Children can be given medicine prescribed for adults or similar symptoms

B. Self-prescription of medicine based on previous history

C. Finishing the prescribed dose even if the symptoms are gone

D. It is bad to take overdose of a medicine but taking under dose has no problem

94. Vaccines that help to protect the body from deadly diseases are produced from:
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A. Antibiotics B. Extract of tablets C. Medicinal plants D. weakened pathogens

93. A chemical agent that is applied to a living tissue to kill microorganisms is

A. Disinfectants B. Antiseptics C. Autoclave D. Sterilizer

95. Which of the following methods of controlling microorganisms is done by raising the boiling
point of water to 121oC?

A. Disinfection B. Dry heat

C. Autoclaving D. Pasteurization

Unit 5

Classification

1. Which of the following pairs of animals and their breathing organs are correctly matched?

A, Planaria, skin B. Fish, skin C. Earthworm, gills D. Insects, spiracles

2. Ferns are advanced compared to mosses and liverworts. This is because ferns:

A. Can reproduce sexually B. Can grow in temperate regions

C. Have more economic importance D. Are seedless vascular plants

3. Suppose you are observed a protist moving with pseudopodia under the microscope. Under
which of the following phyla would you classify this protist?

A. Sarcomastigophora B. Ciliophora C. Apicomplex D. Dinoflagellata

4. Which of the following protozoa is classified in phylum ciliophora?

A. Paramecium B. Euglena C. Amoeba D. Plasmodium

5. Which of the following animals has specialised breathing system?

A. Planaria B. Earthworm C. Grasshopper D. Hydra

6. Which of the following groups of plant lacks vascular tissue?

A. Pteridophytes B. Gymnosperms C. Angiosperms D. Bryophytes

7. Suppose you are asked to classify a vertebrate whose skin is covered by hair. The animal
should be grouped in class:

A. Aves B. Mammalia C. Reptilia D. Amphibia

8. Which of the following is a segmented worm?

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A. Ascaris B. Tapeworm C. Leech D. Hookworm

9. Which of the following can represent the general characteristics of animals?

A. Unicellular, heterotrophic, eukaryotic B. Multicellular, heterotrophic. Eukaryotic

C. Unicellular, autotrophic, prokaryotic D. Multicellular, autotrophic. Prokaryotic

10. In which of the following classes do you classify an arthropod with three pairs of legs?

A. Arachnida B. Crustacea C. Chilopoda D. Insecta

11. Earthworms are examples of animals classified in phylum:

A. Annelida B. Arthropoda C. Echinodermata D. Onychophora

12. Phylas of kingdom animalia that contains all vertebrate animals is:

A. Porifera

C. Mollusca

B. Chordate

D. Arthopoda

13. Which of the following organisms is a member of Kingdom Protista?

A. Tinea pedis C. Haemophilus ducreyi

B. Plasmodium falciparum D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

14. Which of the following features correctly describe blue green algae?

A. Autotrophic, eukaryotic. sexual reproduction B. Heterotrophic, prokaryotic, binary fission

C. Autotrophic, prokaryotic, binary fission D. Heterotrophic, eukaryotic, sexual

reproduction ;

15. Which of the following protists moves by pseudopodia?

A. Plasmodium B. Paramecium C. Trypanosome D. Amoeba

16. Which of the following features refers gymnosperms?

A. Flower B. Naked seed C. Prothallus D. Fruit

17. How do we distinguish phylum chordata from the other animal phyla? Animals in phylum
chordate have

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A. segmented bodies and jointed limbs

B. ring of tentacles with stinging cells

C. flattened body with mouth but no anus

D. notochord and hollow nerve cord

18. Star fish is an example of phylum:

A. Annelida B. Arthropoda C. Mollusca D. Echinodermata

19. Organisms with prokaryotic type of cell are grouped in the kingdom:

A. Animalia B. Fungi C. Monera D. Protista

20. Which of the following phylum of the sub-kingdom algae possess both plant and animal
features?

A. Dinoflagellata B. Euglenophyta C. Phaeophyta D. Chlorophyta

21. Which of the following pairs of organisms are biologically more related?

A. Snake and hen C. Cow and lion

B. Bacteria and algae D. Fish and snake

22. which of the following taxonomic groups contains closely related organisms?

A Genus B. Order C. Phylum D. Class

23. the most dominant plants on earth at present are

A. Pteriophytes B. angiosperms C. bryophytes D. gymnosperms

24. In which of the following kingdom are yeasts classified?

A. Monera B. Plant C. Protista D. Fungi

25. plants which have true roots, leaves, stems and seeds inside fruits are

A. gymnosperms B. angiosperms

C. mosses D. ferns

26, Which of the following refers to a bilaterally symmetrical organisms? Its body

A. has irregular shape which changes at a time

B. can be divided into two equal parts in one symmetry

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C. can be divided into two equal parts in many planes of symmetry

D. cannot be divided into equal parts in any symmetry

27. you come across to a vertebrate with its body covered by hair and with four limbs, the animal
belongs to the class

A. mammalia B. aves C. reptilia D. Pisces

28. A grade 9 student collected some animals from a forest ecosystem and classified all of them
as vertebrates. Which of the following features were used by the student to group the organisms
as vertebrates? The

A. absence of reproductive structures

B. absence of kidneys as excretory organs

C. presence of endoskeleton

D. presence of open circulatory system

29. Which of the following alternatives contains the correct characteristics of the division of
plants called pteridophyta?

A. No true stem leaves and roots, vascular, spore producing

B. True stem, leaves, and roots, vascular, cone producing

C. True stem, leave, and roots, vascular, spore producing

D. True leaves and stems, no true roots, non-vascular, flowering

30. Which of the following taxonomic categories of organisms is in the correct sequence?

A. Phylum, Family, Class, Genus, Order, Species

B. Phylum, Order, Family, Class, Genus, Species

C. Phylum, Class, Family, Order, Genus, Species

D. Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

31. Which of the following is true about kingdom animalia?

A. They have cell wall B. They are immobile

C. They are autotrophs D. They have nervous system

32. Which of the following pairs of animals and their breathing organs are correctly matched?
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A, Planaria, skin B. Fish, skin C. Earthworm, gills D. Insects, spiracles

33. Which of the following scientific names of an organism is correctly written?

A. zea Mays B. Canis familiaris

C. Musca Domestica D. Homo sapiens

34. A common characteristic of animals and fungi is their ability to carry on

A. chemosynthetic nutrition B. heterotrophic nutrition

C. autotrophic nutation D. alcoholic fermentation

35 . which of the following mammals possesses pouch for completing the development of the
embryo?

A Agaths B. Monotreme C. Marsupials D. Placental

36. If an organism lacks a membrane separating most of its genetic material from its cytoplasm,
in which kingdom is it classified?

A. Monera B. Protista

C. Plant D. Animal

37. Which of the following features is true about the division angiosperm?

A Conifer plants B. Non-vascular plants

C. Flowering plants D. Naked seed plants

38. Which of the the following kingdoms is correctly matched with its examples?

A. Protista → Bacteria C. Protista → Plasmodium falciparum

B. Fungi → Blue-green algae D. Monera → Entamoeba histolyca

39. Which of the following options holds only the classes of vertebrates

A. Amphibian, Arthropodia, Reptile, Aves and Mammalia

B. Pisces, Amphibian, Echinodernata, Aves and Mammalia

C. Amphibia, Annelida, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia

D. Pisces, Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia

40. What is the importance of classification? To

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A. give Latin/Greek names to organisms B. make education more complex

C. assign local names to organisms D. bring an order out of chaos

41. Which of the following organisms is an example of Kingdom Monera?

A. Fern C. Fungus

B. Bacterium D. Algae

42. Which of the following animals is homoeothermic?

A. Frog B. Snake

C. Rat D. Lizard

43. Which of the following is the largest group of animals?

A. Coelontrata B. Nematoda

C. Mallusca D. Arthropoda

44. Which of the following groups of organisms have true roots Stems, and leaves?

A. Mosses B. Algae C. Ferns D. Liverworts

45. Which of the following animals is characterized by the presence of jointed legs and
exoskeleton?

A. Fish C. Snail

B. Snake D. Fly

46. Which of the following pairs of characteristics describes kingdom Monera?

A. Multicellular and eukaryotic C. Single-celled and eukaryotic

B. Multicellular and prokaryotic D. Single-celled and prokaryotic

47. Which of the following organisms is a fungus?

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Plasmodium falciparum

C. Candida albicans D. Entamoeba hystolyca

48. Living things are classified in order to

A. brings organisms into chaotic environment

B. understand how life is originated

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C. make thing sound complicated

D. group various dissimilar organisms into one

49. Which one of the following statements is correct about characteristics of monocots? They

A. have stem with a ring of vascular tissue.

B. have embryo with single seed leaf

C. are generally insect pollinated

D. have leaves with network of veins

50. which of the following statements is correct about poikilotherms? They

A. reduce their metabolic rate by shivering

B. release large amount of sweat during hot temperature

C. lose heat through panting during hot temperature

D. regulate their body temperature by behavioral means

51. The ability to interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring is the characteristics of
members of a single

A. phylum B. family C. Order D. Species

52. The snail is classified in the group:

A. Amphibians B. Echinoderms

C. Arthropods D. Molluscs

53. Nearly all single celled eukaryotes that are either heterotrophic or photosynthetic belong to
the kingdom

A. Fungi B. Animalia

C. Plantae D. Protista

54. The common characteristics of Fishes, amphibians, repitiles, birds and mammals is

A. Variable body temperature B. Egg lying

C. Constant body temperature D. Presence of back bone

D. move into water during very hot temperature

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55. According to the system of the Linnaeus nomenclature, species name is written in

A. small letter B. local language C. abbreviation D. capital letter

56. Which one of the following features best describes members of kingdom monera? They

A. are all single celled C. are multicellular

B. have nucleus D. are eukaryotic

57. Kangaroo carries its young in its pouch. This is because:

A. the young has not completed its development

B. it has many predators

C. the mother should train the young how to jumping

D. its breasts are located in its pouch

58. During the natural classification of organisms, what is the category that includes a number of
genera?

A. Class B. Family

C. Order D. Species

59. Chloroplasts are found in the cells of:

A. sponges‘ B. paramecium

C. algae D. hydra

60. The simplest of all invertebrates are

A. Sponges

C. round worms

B. Cnidaria

D. segmented worms

61. Among the following phylas of kingdom animalia, which one contains

evolutionary dead organisms?

A. Coelentrata

C. Annelida
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B. Nematoda

D. porifera

62. Tiny hair like structures that helps annelids for locomotion are:

A. Chaetae

B. Flagella

C. Cilia

D. pseudopodia

63. All microscopic single-celled organisms that do have nucleus are grouped under kingdom

A. Protista C. Monera

B. Animalia D. Plantae

64. In which of the following divisions are evergreen seed plants that have cones grouped?

A. Pteridophyta C. Gymnospermae

B. Angiospermae D. Bryophyta

65. Which of the following organisms belongs to kingdom Monera?

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Entamoeba histolyca

C. Plasmodium Jalciparum D. Candida albicans

66. Which of the following divisions of kingdom plantae is correctly matched with its example?

A. Angiospermae - mosses and liverworts

B. Pteridophyta - ferns

C. Gymnospermae - true flowering plants

D. Bryophyta – conifers

67. A biology student went to field to collect animals and grouped them into vertebrates and
invertebrates. He collected the following organisms.

1. Squid 4. Butterfly

2. Earthworm 5. Shark

3. Frog 6. Shrimp
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Which of the above organisms did he group as vertebrates?

A. 3 and 5 C. 4 and 6

B. 2 and 3 D. l and 5

68. Which of the following rules of binomial writing of scientific names is correct? The first
letter of

A. both genus and species names should be written with small letters

B. genus name should be written with small letter but with capital letter for species name

C. both genus and species names should be written with capital letters

D. Letter of genus name should be written with capital letter but with small letter for
species name

69. A group of organisms that can breed successfully with one another to produce fertile
offspring is a

A. genus C. family

B. species D. community

70. What is the major characteristic of the organisms classified in the kingdom monera?

A They are prokaryotic B. They are multicellular

C. They are parasitic D. They are eukaryotic

71. Which of the following characteristics make a plant can be classified as a moss?

A. Flower, needle shaped leaves, no true roots

B. No flower, needle shaped leaves, taproot system

C. No flower, no true leaves, no true roots

D. flower, broad leaves, fibrous root system

72. Which system of classification is most favored and widely used in modern biology?

A. Two kingdom system B. Three kingdom system

C. Four kingdom system D Five kingdom system

73. Representative groups of kingdom monera include:

A. bacteria C. lichens
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B. viruses D. protozoa

74. Which of the following animals has an exoskeleton?

A. Insect B. Fish

C. Bird D. Mammal

76. The most recent classification of living things divides life into

A. five kingdoms B. Three domain

C. Two kingdoms D Three kingdom

77. Which group of plants have the greatest diversity?

A. Angiosperms B. Gymnosperms

C. Pteridophytes D. Bryophytes

78. Dorsal nerve tube is a feature of:

A. Arthropods B. Chordates C. Echinoderms D. Mollusks

79. To which of the following groups does a fern plant belong?

A. Bryophyte B. Pteridophyta

C. Gymnosperms D. Angiosperms

80. animals having a cavity with one opening, radial symmetry, a network of nerve cells and a
sac-like body are:

A. Annelids B. Cnidarians

C. Molluscs D. Echinoderms

81. The earthworm belongs to the phylum:

A. Porifera B. Annelida

C. Platyhelminthes D. Cnidaria

82. Which of the following statement is correct for all viruses?

A. They live in other organisms

B. They are bigger than bacteria

C. They are perfect living things

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D. They can reproduce outside a living cell

83. Which one of the following statements is correct about the binomial nomenclature?

A. The genus name is written in full while the species name is abbreviated.

B. Both genus and species names are capitalized and italicized when printed

C. The first letter of genus name is capitalized while the species name ‘written in small
letters

D The genus name is written in English while the species name is written in latin

84. In kingdom animalia, which phylum poisons its prey by tentacles that contain stinging cells?

A. Nematoda C. Annelida

B. Coelenterata D. Porifera

85. Mosses grouped under division bryophyta because they

A. lack true root system and vascular tissue

B. have true leaves, stems and roots

C. have flat and broad leaves

D. are evergreen and photosynthesize all year round

86. Classification of organisms into groups is useful because it helps to

A. protect endangered animals

B. attract tourists that come to visit animals

C. understand the great diversity of living things

D. understand larger organisms better than smaller ones

87. Which of the following represents the correct use of the binomial nomenclature developed by
Linnaeus?

A. Order name followed by species name

B. Genus name followed by order name

C. Species name followed by genus name

D. Genus name followed by species name

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Unit 6

Environment

1. The pairs of processes which return carbon dioxide to atmosphere are

A. decomposition and respiration

B. photosynthesis and respiration

C. evaporation and respiration

D. decomposition and photosynthesis

2. Which of the following organisms are consumers?

A. Chemosynthetic bacteria B. Scavengers

C. Photosynthetic bacteria D. Green plants

3. Which of the following is a correct food chain in an aquatic habitat?

A. phytoplankton-fish-zooplankton-tadpole

B. Phytoplankton-zooplankton--tadpole-fish

C. Tadpole-phytoplankton- zooplankton-fish

D. Tadpole-fish-phytoplankton-zooplankton

4. Lichen is the result of symbiotic association between

A. algae and fungi B. fungi and bacteria

C. algae and bacteria D. algae and protozoa

5. Which of the following groups of organisms act upon dead organic materials and complete
nutrient cycle?

A. Producers B. Parasites

C. Consumers D. Decomposers

6. Which is an ecological model of the relationships that form a network of complex interactions
among organisms in a community from producers to decomposers?

A. Food chain C. Food web

B. A population D. An ecosystem

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7. Which of the following organisms are pioneers in the succession of communities?

A. Lichens B. Ferns

C. Conifers D. flowering plants

8. Mutualism is a relationship between two species in which:

A. One species benefits at the expense of another

B. One species benefits without affecting the other

C. neither species benefits

D. both species benefits

9. In the pyramid of biomass, which of the following trophic levels has the highest biomass?

A. Carnivores B. Producers C. Herbivores D. Secondary carnivores

10. Which of the following represents the replacement of one community by another until a
climax stage is reached?

A. Predation B. Succession

C. Adaptation D. Co-operation

11. The physical location of an ecosystem in which a given species lives is called a:

A. habitat C. trophic level

B. food zone D. community

12. A natural community interacting with its abiotic environment makes a(an)

A. Ecosystem B. population

C. organ-system D. organism

13. Covering a soil with mater such as leaves. Stem and grass cuttings to protect soil erosion is
knows as

A. Terracing B. Reforestation C. Strip cropping D. Mulching

14. In primary succession, the pioneer community does not include trees, because the place:

A. Is without soil C. Does not get enough sunlight

B. Does not get enough rain D. It is too cold for trees to grow

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15. Ecology is a biological science that deals with all the following except:

A. An organism B. Community C. Ecosystem D. Population

16. In tropical rain forest epiphytes grow on the branches of large trees this is an example of

A. Parasitism B. protocooperation C. Commensalism D. Mutualism

17. Which of the following gases results in global warming when accumulated in the
atmosphere?

A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Carbon dioxide

18. In a simple food chain secondary consumers occupy:

A. 2nd trophic level B. 3rd trophic level C. 1st trophic level D. 4th trophic level

19. Which of the following activities increases the biodiversity of our country?

A. Burning of fossil fuels B. Cutting trees C. Cultivation of a single crop D. Replanting of

trees

20. Which of the following organisms has an autotrophic nutrition? Organisms that:

A. Lives on plant bodies C. Grows on decayed matter

B. Feeds on small organism D. Uses light to prepare food

21. Which relationship best describes the interactions between lettuce and a rabbit?

A. Predator- prey B. Parasite- host

C. decomposer- scavengers D. producer - consumer

22. Which human activity will have the most direct impact on the oxygen-carbon dioxide cycle?

A. Destroying large forest areas

B. Decreasing the use of water

C. Enforcing laws to prevent the use of loaded gasoline

D. Reducing the rate of ecological succession.

23. An ecological unit which is self-sufficient in its energy and nutrient requirements is

A. community B. Individual

C. ecosystem D. population

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24. What is the role of nitrifying bacteria in the nitrogen cycle?

A. Decompose dead bodies of plants and animals

B. Release free nitrogen to atmosphere

C. Produce nitrates for the use by plants

D. Build free nitrogen in their bodies

25. Organisms that get energy form the breakdown of inorganic substance are called

A. autotrophs B. chemoautotrophs C. heterotrophs D. omnivores

26. If you are assigned as a group leader of a tree growing project in your locality, what should
be your first task to complete the project successfully?

A. Design a fund raising program for the project

B. Tell the society the importance of tree planting

C. Discuss the way how to continue the project with group members

D. Start preparation of the land where the trees are going to be planted

27. Which of the following food chains is correct?

A. Grasshopper → leopard → rodent

C. Algae → parrot fish → grouper

B. Corn → grouper → parrot fish

D. Algae → corn → parrot fish

28. Which of the following statement is correct about the nitrogen cycle?

A. bacteria in the soil are not helpful in nitrogen cycle

B. Denitrifying bacteria in the soil convert nitrogen into nitrates

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C. Green plants absorb nitrogen in the form of ammonia

D. Nitrogen fixing bacteria in the soil convert nitrogen into ammonia

29. Which of the following adaptation mechanisms is used by animals in the cold climate? They
have

A. small body size C. dark color

B. small ear D. thin fur coat

30. Which of the following is an adaptive mechanism for animals in cold climates?

A. They have thin layer of fat B. They have thin skin

C. They have small surface area to volume ratio D. They are small in size

31. If a cow eats 10kg of grass per day it does not increase its biomass. What is the most
probable reason for this?

A. The digestive system of the cow is less efficient

B. The grass has little nutrient to be converted to biomass

C. Much of the ingested grass is used as energy source

D. The cow might have many parasites in its stomach

32. Which of the following is correct about a diversified terrestrial ecosystem?

A. The second trophic level is occupied by herbivores and omnivores

B. Herbivores and carnivores occupy the third trophic level.

C. The first trophic level is occupied by herbivores and producers,

D. Carnivores and omnivorous occupy the second trophic level,

33. Which of the following biomass is used as energy gain for the organism?

A. Biomass lost in faeces and urine B. Biomass ingested as food

C. Biomass lost as heat during respiration D. Biomass used to provide energy for
movement.

34. In an aquatic ecosystem the biomass of zooplanktons exceeds that of phytoplanktons. So,
how does the food chain remain stable?

A. Under such conditions the phytoplanktons feed on zooplanktons

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B. Such food chain does not at all exist in reality

C. The number of phytoplanktons should exceed that of zooplanktons.

D. The energy contained in phytoplanktons is more than that of zooplanktons.

35. Which of the following is true about nitrogen cycle?

A. Pea and beans are legume plants and have nitrogen fixing bacteria.

B. All bacteria in the soil can fix atmospheric nitrogen

C. All green plants absorb nitrogen gas from the atmosphere

D. Decomposers breakdown plant and animal remains and produce nitrogen

36. In tropical rain forest epiphytes grow on the branches of large trees this is an example of

A. Parasitism B. protocooperation C. Commensalism D. Mutualism

37. Which of the following plants is correctly matched with its adaptation features to survive in
the extreme dry environment?

A. Cactus → store water in its spiny leaves

B. Lobelia → use their roots to collect much water

C. Coconut → Use their succulent stem to store water

D. Tumbleweeds → Scatter their seeds as far away as possible

38. Planting and growing trees is important to

A. Increase global warming B. reduce soil fertility

C. reduce global warming D. increase soil erosion

39. Which of the following processes removes carbon dioxide from the air?

A. Denitrification B. Fermentation

C. Photosynthesis D. Respiration

40. Which structure of a leaf prevents excessive loss of water from leaf surfaces?

A. Spongy layer B. Palisade layer

C. Air spaces D. Cuticle

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41. In the food chain, which of the following animals can be classified in the third-order
consumer?

A. Rabbit B. Fern C. Hawk B. Lizard

42 Which of the following group of plants live in symbiosis with a nitrogen fixing bacteria?

A. Mosses B. Grasses

C. Conifers D. Legumes

43. A measure of the total amount of dry organic matter produced in a given community is
known as:

A. Ecosystem C. Biomass

B. Population D. Food chain

44, which of the following processes occurs during carbon cycle?

A CO2 is released to the air during photosynthesis.

B, CO2 is removed from the air during burning of fossils

C, CO2 is released to the air during decomposition

D, CO2 is removed from the air during respiration

45. Which of the following characteristics is considered as an adaptive mechanism for the animal
to live in the Arctic?

A. Large body size B. Dark color

C. Thin fur D. Big cars

46. Which of the following procedure of tree planting is correct?

A. Prepare the soil →dig hole→ water it → plant tree → use stake→ press soil around

B. Prepare the soil → water it → dig hole → use stake → plant tree → press soil around

C. Prepare the soil →dig hole →water it →plant tree→ press soil around →use stake

D. Prepare the soil → water it → dig hole → plant tree → press soil around → Use stake

47. Which of the following is correct about an autotroph? It:

A. makes its own food

B. feeds on dead animal and plant material

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C. feeds on plants only

D. feeds on animals only

48. In the carbon cycle which of the following processes removes carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere?

A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis

C. Fermentation D. Combustion

49. How do the poiklotherms adapt to a cold weather? By

A. bathing in water B Licking their body parts

C. wallowing in mud D. basking in the sun

50. Which of the following shows mutualism?

A. A flowering plant and its pollinator

B. A flea sucking blood from a dog

C. Epiphytes growing on branches of larger trees

D. A crocodile and a tooth cleaning bird

51. What is the significance of planting trees? To

A. increases the amount of carbon dioxide B. reduces the number of wildlife

C. reduces the number of soil microorganisms D. reduces the rate of soil erosion

52. Which one of the following is the biotic component of an ecosystem?

A. producers’ C. Level oxygen

B. Amount of sunlight D. Soil type

53. Which of the following is an adaptation by desert animals to lose excess heat?

A Large and thin ear B. Thick layer of fat

C. Large body size D. Thick fur coat

54. Which of the following behavioral adaptations is used by a poikilothermic organism when it
gets too hot? It

A. presses its body close to a warm area

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B. erects sails to absorb heat

C. moves into the shade

D. basks in the sun

55. Which of the following statements is correct about maintaining balance of CO2 and O2 in the
atmosphere by photosynthesis?

A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are produced

B. Carbon dioxide and oxygen are used up.

C. Oxygen is used up and carbon dioxide is produced

D. Carbon dioxide is used up and oxygen is produced.

56. Which one of the following organisms converts nitrogen in the soil into ammonia?

A. Nitrifying bacteria C. Putrefying bacteria

B. Nitrogen fixing bacteria D. Denitrifying bacteria

57. How does cacti adapt to the desert environment? By

A. avoiding spines from its leaves

B. spreading its seeds as far as possible

C. reducing the surface area of its leaves

D. increasing the number of stomata

58. The group of living things that function in turning dead organic matter into inorganic
substances are

A. scavengers‘ C. primary consumers

B. decomposers D. producers

59. Which stage of the nitrogen cycle needs the role of Rhizobium?

A. Decomposition C. Nitrogen fixation

B. Denitrification D. Nitrification

60. If you are asked to draw a pyramid of biomass of an aquatic habitat contains zooplanktons,
herrings, sea lions and phytoplanktons which organisms should be placed at the top of the
pyramid?
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A. Phytoplankton C. Herrings

B. Zooplanktons D. Sea lions

61. Which one of the following is an adaptation to reduce water loss in plants?

Having

A a single layered epidermis in leaves

B. thin broad leaves

C. large and wide stomata

D. leaves covered with waxy cuticle

62. why are arctic animals such as seals, walruses and whales large in body size? To

A. reduce heat loss

B. move in the water bodies easily

C. capture their prey without challenges

D. increase their surface area

63. Which of the following is adaptation to reduce water loss in plants? Having;

A. Leaves covered with waxy cuticle

B. Large and wide stomata

C. Thin broad leaves

D. Single layered epidermis in leaves

64. An animal whose internal temperature varies along with that of environmental temperature is
known as

A. Aestivation B. Homeostasis

C. Poikilotherms D. Homentherms

65. Which of the following is true about carbon and carbon cycle?

A. Bumming of fuels reduce the amount of atmospheric CO2

B. Animals use CO2 and release O2

C. CO2 is removed from the atmosphere by green plants

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 D. Carbon is only recycled between living things and soil

66. Which of the following animal adaptations help to survive in hot and dry condition?

A. Small surface area to volume ratio

B. High concentration of fat

C. Thin fur and big ear

D. thick fur and small ear

67. sHow does photosynthesis balance CO2 and O2 concentration in the atmosphere? By

A. absorbing O2 and releasing CO2

B. absorbing CO2 and O2

C. releasing CO2 and O2

D. absorbing CO2 and releasing O2

68. Which of the following is an adaptation by' desert plants such as cacti to Conserve water?

A. Production of seeds that can be transported by water

B. Having broad leaves

C. Having leaves which are not covered by cuticle

D. Having narrow and spiny leaves

69. why are arctic animals such as seals, walruses and whales large in body size? To

A. reduce heat loss

B. move in the water bodies easily

C. capture their prey without challenges

D. increase their surface area

70. Which of the following is adaptation to reduce water loss in plants? Having;

A. Leaves covered with waxy cuticle

B. Large and wide stomata

C. Thin broad leaves

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