1

PHYSICS 4. A small insect is at 60 cm from a concave

SECTION A mirror of focal length 20 cm. What is the image
distance from the mirror?
1. Light travelling in air strikes an air-glass (1) 30 cm
refracting interface at angle 'θ'. If the refractive (2) 15 cm
index of glass is 1.5 then it will (3) 20 cm
(1) Undergo total internal reflection for θ = (4) 18 cm
30°
(2) Undergo total internal reflection for θ = 5. Find the angle of emergence from the prism.
45° The refractive index of the glass is √3
(3) Undergo total internal reflection for θ =
60°
(4) Not undergo total internal reflection for
any value of θ

2. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of the

tank containing water to a depth of 100 cm. The (1) 900
area of the surface of water through which light (2) 600
from the bulb can emerge out is approximately (3) 300
[Refractive index of water is 1.33 (Consider the (4) 450
bulb to be a point source)]
(1) 12 m² 6. Two identical thin equiconvex lenses each of
(2) 8 m² focal length 20 cm, made of material of
(3) 6.5 m² refractive index 1.5 are placed coaxially in
(4) 4 m² contact as shown. Now, the space between
them is filled with a liquid of refractive index 1.5.
3. Rays from a lens are converging towards a The equivalent power of the arrangement will
point P, as shown in figure. The thickness of be
glass plate of refractive index 2 kept between
the lens and point P, so that image will be
formed at P', will be

(1) +5D
(2) Zero
(1) 1 cm
(3) +2.5D
(2) 3.2 cm
(4) +0.5D
(3) 5 cm
(4) 2.4 cm
7. If θ1, θ2 and θ3 are the critical angles of
2
glass-air interface for red, violet and yellow 11. The angle of deviation (δ) vs angle of
colour, then incidence (i) is plotted for a prism. Pick up the
(1) θ1< θ3 < θ2 incorrect statement.
(2) θ1 > θ3> θ2
(3) θ1 >θ2 > θ3
(4) θ1 < θ2 < θ3

8. Assertion: When a convex lens of glass

(μ=3/2) is dipped in water, its focal length
increases. (1) The angle of prism is 600
Reason: Refractive index of water is more than (2) The refractive index of the prism is n =
glass. √3
(1) Both Assertion and reason are true and (3) For deviation to be 65 deg the angle of
reason is the correct explanation of incidence i1 = 550
assertion. (4) The curve of 'δ' vs 'i' is parabolic
(2) Both Assertion and reason are true and
reason is not the correct explanation of 12. Distance of Real object & its real image from
assertion. the focus of concave mirror are 16 cm & 9 cm
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false respectively, then find focal length of mirror
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (1) 20 cm
(2) 15 cm
− (3) 12 cm
9. The equation 2 1 2 1
holds true
μ
μ
μ
μ
𝑉
− 𝑢
= 𝑅
(4) 8 cm
for (symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) Only concave refracting surface
13. When seen in green light, the saffron and
(2) Only convex refracting surface
green portions of our national flag will appear to
(3) Both concave and convex refracting
be
surface
(1) Black
(4) Only planar refracting surface
(2) Black and green respectively
(3) Green
10. Two thin lenses of power +15D and –5D are
(4) Green and yellow respectively
placed coaxially in contact with each other.
Then position of images of an object placed at
14. A thin linear object of size 1 mm is kept
20 cm from the combination will be :
along the principal axis of a convex lens of focal
(1) +10 cm
length 10 cm. The object is 15 cm from the lens.
(2) –10 cm
The length of the image is:
(3) +20 cm
(1) 1 mm
(4) –20 cm
(2) 4 mm
(3) 2 mm
3
 (4) 8 mm (3) θ = 60°
(4) all three
15. A convex lens and a concave lens, each
having the same focal length of 25 cm, are put in 19. Which of the following is the combination
contact to form a combination of lenses. The that is used in the formation of achromatic
power in diopters of the combination is: lenses?
(1) 25 (1) 1 convex and 1 planer mirror
(2) 50 (2) 2 convex lenses
(3) Infinite (3) 1 convex and 1 concave lens
(4) zero (4) 2 concave lenses

16. Calculate the focal length of the equiconvex 20. A ray of light is incident on an equilateral
lens of μ = 1.5 when placed in a liquid of glass prism placed on a horizontal table. For
refractive index 2. Radius of curvature of the minimum deviation which of the following is
lens is 20 cm. true?
(1) 40 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) -40 cm
(4) -20 cm

17. A bubble in glass slab (μ = 1.5) when viewed (1) PQ is horizontal

from one side appears at 8 cm and 4 cm from (2) QR is horizontal
the other side, then the thickness of the slab is. (3) RS is horizontal
(1) 10 cm (4) Either PQ or RS is horizontal
(2) 12 cm
(3) 18 cm 21.If the angle of incidence is half of the angle of
(4) 25 cm refraction in a medium of refractive index μ
relative to first medium, then the angle of
18. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle & as incidence is
shown in the figure. Light ray is incident parallel A. cos-1(2/μ)
to one of the mirrors. The ray will start B. cos-1(1/μ)
retracing its path after third reflection if: C. sin-1(1/2μ)
D. cos-1(1/2μ)

22. The focal length of the eyepiece and the

objective of an astronomical telescope are 4 cm
and 50 cm respectively. The length of the
(1) θ = 45° telescope for the adjustment in which eye is
(2) θ = 30°
4
most strained will be about [least distance of silvered face. Image of object behind the silvered
distinct vision is 25 cm] face is at
(1) 63 cm (1) 18 cm
(2) 45 cm (2) 9 cm
(3) 53 cm (3) 10 cm
(4) 40 cm (4) 8 cm

23. A spherical convex surface of radius of 27. In the diagram shown, an object O is at a
curvature 2/9m separates two media of distance 10 cm above the water level. Water
refractive index 4/3 and 3/2 If an object is kept column in the beaker is 12 cm which is kept on
in first medium at infinity then the position of a plane mirror. If refractive index of water is
image from spherical surface is μw=4/3 then the distance D behind the mirror
(1) 1 m where the image I is formed is
(2) 2 m
(3) 1.5 m
(4) 0.5 m

24. A double convex lens of refractive index 3/2

has radii of 30 cm. Incident rays of light parallel
to principal axis will come to converge at a
distance from the lens is (1) 16 cm
(1) 20 cm (2) 22 cm
(2) 10 cm (3) 19 cm
(3) 15 cm (4) 20 cm
(4) 30 cm
28. A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a
25. A beam of monochromatic light of refractive index µ and is surrounded by air. A
wavelength 3900 Å in air travels into glass of light ray is incident at the point of one end of
refractive index 3/2 Its wavelength in glass will the rod as shown. If θ is angle of incident then
be for grazing a light along the walls is (sinθ=1/√3)
(1) 1800 Å
(2) 2600 Å
(3) 3600 Å
(4) 13000 Å (1) 2/√3
(2) 1
26. One face of a glass cube of refractive index (3) 2/√3
1.5 and side 6 cm is silvered. An object is placed (4) √3
at a distance 7 cm from the face opposite to the

5
29. The refractive indices of a glass prism for (2) (180° + 2A)
violet, yellow and red colours are 1.790, 1.795 (3) (90° – A)
and 1.805 respectively. The dispersive power of (4) (180° – 2A)
the prism is
(1) 0.02334 34. Focal length and nature of combined system,
(2) 0.01887 if a convex lens of focal length 20 cm is in
(3) 0.03294 contact with concave lens of focal length 30 cm,
(4) 0.04124 will be
(1) 60 cm converging
30. Height of water that would be filled in a (2) 60 cm diverging
container of height 21 cm, so that it appears half (3) 12 cm converging
filled to the observer, when viewed from the top (4) 12 cm diverging
of container, is (µw=4/3)
(1) 8 cm 35. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive
(2) 10.5 cm index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep
(3) 12 cm when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep
(4) 14 cm when viewed from the opposite face. The
thickness (in cm) of the slab is
31. If an object is moved with constant speed (1) 8
towards a convex lens from infinity then its (2) 10
image moves (3) 12
(1) Faster in beginning then slower (4) 16
(2) Slower then faster
(3) With constant speed SECTION B
(4) With uniform acceleration
36. A beam of light consisting of red, green and
32. An object is placed at a distance of 75 cm blue colours is incident on a right angled prism.
from a screen. Two positions of a convex lens of The refractive index of the material of the prism
focal length 12 cm placed so as to obtain a real for the above red, green and blue wavelengths
image are are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47, respectively
(1) 60 cm, 15 cm
(2) 50 cm, 25 cm
(3) 45 cm, 35 cm
(4) 70 cm, 5 cm

33. The refracting angle of prism is A and the

The prism will
refractive index of the material of the prism is
(1) Separate the red colour part from the
cot A/2. Then angle of minimum deviation is
green and blue colours
(1) (180° – 3A)
6
 (2) Separate the blue colour part from the 40. Light travels through a glass plate of
red and green colours thickness t and having a refractive index µ . If c
(3) Separate all the three colours from one is the velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken
another by light to travel this thickness of glass is
(4) Not separate the three colours at all (1) t/μc
(2) μt/c
37. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. (3) tμc
When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance (4) tc/μ
between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm.
The focal length of lenses are 41. For the given incident ray as shown in figure,
(1) 18 cm, 2 cm the condition of total internal reflection of this
(2) 11 cm, 9 cm ray the required refractive index of prism will be
(3) 10 cm, 10 cm
(4) 15 cm, 5 cm

38. When a biconvex lens of glass having a

refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts
as a plane sheet of glass. This implies that the
liquid must have refractive index (1)
(1) Greater than that of glass
(2) Less than that of glass (2)
(3) Equal to that of glass
(4) Less than one (3)

39. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a (4)

beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light from the
coin travels up to the surface of the liquid and 42. A beam of light composed of red and green
moves along its surface. How fast is the light rays is incident obliquely at a point on the face
travelling in the liquid? of a rectangular glass slab. When coming out on
the opposite parallel face, the red and green ray
emerge from
(1) Two points propagating in two different
non parallel directions
(2) Two points propagating in two parallel
directions
(1) 1.2 × 108 m/s
(3) One point propagating in two different
(2) 1.8 × 108 m/s
directions
(3) 1.3 × 108 m/s
(4) One point propagating in the same
(4) 3.0 × 108 m/s
directions
7
43. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose
refractive index is equal to the refractive index
of the lens. Then its focal length will
(1) Become zero (3)
(2) Become infinite
(3) Become small, but non-zero
(4) Remain unchanged

44. A point object is placed in front of a thick (4)

plane mirror as shown in figure below. Find the
location of final image w.r.t. Object

47. A thin, symmetric double convex lens of

power P is cut into three parts A, B and C as
(1) 15/2 cm
shown. The power of
(2) 15 cm
(3) 40/3cm
(4) 80/3cm

45. If the tube length of an astronomical (1) A is P

telescope is 105 cm and magnifying power is 20 (2) A is 2P

for normal setting, calculate the focal length of (3) B is P/2

the object. (4) Both (1) & (3)

(1) 100 cm
(2) 10 cm 48. A plane glass is kept over a coloured word

(3) 20 cm ‘VIBGYOR’, where colour of letters as same as

(4) 25 cm the colours in white light start by letter, the

letter which appears least raised is

46. The graph between u and v for a convex (1) R

mirror for real object, is (2) Y

(1) (3) O
(4) V

49. In the displacement method we use a lens of

focal length f and distance between object and
(2) screen is 60 cm. Possible value for focal length is

8
 (1) 15 cm Statement II: At room temperature, the
(2) 30 cm stable crystalline form of sulfur is monoclinic
(3) 12 cm sulfur.
(4) 20 cm In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
50. A magnifying lens is used, as the object to be (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is
viewed can be brought closer to the eye than true.
the normal near point. This :- (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) A larger angle to be subtended by the true.
object at the eye and hence, viewed in (3) Both Statement I is true but Statement II
greater detail. is false.
(2) The formation of a real erect image. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Increase in the field of view false.
(4) Infinite magnification at the near point
54. Match List-I with List-II:
CHEMISTRY Lis Industrial Lis Application
SECTION A t-I process t-II

(a) Haber's (i) HNO3 synthesis

51. Among the following, which one is a wrong
process
statement?
(1) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist (b) Ostwald's (ii) Aluminium
(2) ρπ-dπ bonds are present in SO2 process extraction
(3) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape (c) Contact (iii) NH3 synthesis
+
(4) I has bent geometry
3 process

(d) Hall-Heroult (iv) H₂SO₄ synthesis

52. Strong reducing behavior of H3PO2 is due to:
process
(1) Presence of one-OH group and two P-H
bonds
(2) High electron gain enthalpy of Choose the correct answer from the options

phosphorus given below :

(3) High oxidation state of phosphorus (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4) Presence of two-OH groups and one (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

P-H bond (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

53. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: ɑ and β forms of sulfur can 55. A group 15 element, a metal, forms a

change reversibly between themselves with slow hydride with the strongest reducing power

heating or slow cooling. among group 15 hydrides. The element is:

(1) Sb
9
 (2) P (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) As (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Bi (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
56. Which one of the following group-15
hydride is the strongest reducing agent? 61. In polythionic acid, H2SxO6 (x = 3 to 5) the
(1) AsH3 oxidation state(s) of sulphur is/are:
(2) BiH3 (1) + 5 only
(3) PH3 (2) + 6 only
(4) SbH3 (3) +3 and + 5 only
(4) 0 and + 5 only
57. Which one of the following compounds of
Group-14 elements is not known? 62. The number of S=O bonds present in
(1) [GeCl6]²- sulphurous acid, peroxodisulphuric acid and
2-
(2) [Sn(OH)6] pyrosulphuric acid, respectively are :
2-
(3) [SiCl6] (1) 2, 3 and 4
-
(4) [SiF6]² (2) 1, 4 and 3
(3) 2, 4 and 3
58. The incorrect statement is: (4) 1, 4 and 4
(1) Cl₂ is more reactive than CIF.
(2) F₂ is more reactive than CIF. 63. The number of bonds between sulphur and
(3) On hydrolysis, CIF forms HOCI and HF. oxygen atoms in S₂O82- and the number of
(4) F2 is a stronger oxidizing agent than Cl2 bonds between sulphur and sulphur atoms in
in aqueous solution. rhombic sulphur, respectively, are:
(1) 4 and 8
59. Chalcogen group elements are: (2) 4 and 6
(1) Se, Tb and Pu. (3) 8 and 8
(2) Se, Te and Po. (4) 8 and 6
(3) S, Te and Pm.
(4) O, Ti and Po. 64. The number of possible oxidation states of
p-block elements
60. Match the following: (1) decreases towards the right of the
periodic table
(2) increases towards the right of the
periodic table
(3) first increases then decreases down the
group
Which of the following is the correct option? (4) first decreases then increases down the
(A) (B) (C) (D) group
10
 70. The relative stability of +1 oxidation state of
65. The compounds formed by the highly group 13 elements follows the order
reactive non-metals with highly reactive metals (1) Al < Ga < Tl < In
and with the non-metals are respectively (2) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(1) covalent and ionic (3) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(2) ionic and covalent (4) Ga < Al < In < Tl
(3) metallic and ionic
(4) metallic and covalent 71.In a trivalent state, the number of electrons
around the central atom in a molecule of the
66. The third-period elements of p-block with compounds of group 13 elements will be
2 n
the electronic configuration 3s 3p have the (1) four
vacant 3d orbitals lying between the (2) six
(1) 3p and 4s levels of energy (3) eight
(2) 3s and 3p levels of energy (4) five
(3) 3s and 4s levels of energy
(4) 2p and 3s levels of energy 72. The small increase in the covalent radii from
Si to Pb is due to the presence of
67. The correct order of atomic radii in group (1) half-filled d-orbitals in heavier members
13 elements is (2) completely filled d and f-orbitals in
(1) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In heavier members
(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (3) presence of completely filled d-orbitals in
(3) B < Al < In < Ga < T lighter members
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl (4) None of the above

68. Between which of the following elements is 73. Which of the following is the correct order
the discontinuity in the ionization enthalpy of first ionization enthalpy of group 14
values observed? elements?
(1) Al and Ga (1) Si > Ge > Sn > Pb
(2) In and Tl (2) Si > Ge > Sn < Pb
(3) B and Al (3) Si < Ge < Sn < Pb
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Si < Ge < Sn > Pb

69. The electronegativity of aluminium is similar 74. The tendency of Ge, Sn and Pb to show +2
to oxidation state increases in the sequence :
(1) Lithium (1) Ge = Sn < Pb
(2) carbon (2) Ge < Sn < Pb
(3) beryllium (3) Ge > Sn > Pb
(4) boron (4) Ge > Sn = Pb

11
75. Which of the following does not exist? (4) Melting point of gallium is very high
(1) PbI4 (3030 K).
(2) PbF4
(3) CCl4 80. Consider the following statements :
(4) CBr4 I. In thallium, +1 oxidation state is predominant.
II. In thallium, +3 oxidation state is oxidising in
76. Carbon differs from the rest of the members nature.
of its group due to III. Compounds of group 13 elements in +1
(1) its smaller size oxidation state are less ionic than those in +3
(2) non-higher electronegativity and oxidation state.
ionization enthalpy The incorrect statement(s) is/are
(3) non-availability of d-orbitals in C (1) Only I
(4) All of the above (2) Both II and III
(3) Both I and II
77. What is the hybridization of C-atom in CO2 (4) Only III
molecule?
(1) Sp2 81. In which one of the following arrangements
(2) sp the given sequence is not strictly according to
3
(3) sp the properties indicated against it?
(4) None of these (1) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing
pKa values
78.. The correct statements regarding the (2) NH3< PH3< AsH3< SbH3 : Increasing
possible reason for the trend of acidic character
electronegativity in group-13 elements are : (3) CO2 < SiO2< SnO2< PbO2 : Increasing
(1) similarities in atomic size of the elements oxidizing power
(2) discrepancies in the atomic size of the (4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic
elements strength
(3) discrepancies in the atomic number of
the elements 82. The correct melting point order for group
(4) similarities in atomic mass of the 15 elements is
elements (1) N < P < As > Sb > Bi
(2) N < P < As < Sb < Bi
79. Which of the following statements is correct (3) N > P > As > Sb > Bi
regarding group 13 elements? (4) N > P > As < Sb < Bi
(1) Density increases down the group from
B to Ga and then decreases upto Tl 83. Covalent and ionic radii of group-15
(2) Boiling point of gallium is very high (2676 elements
K) (1) increase down the group upto P and
(3) Boron is a soft non-metal then decrease
12
 (2) increase down the group strength of HF, HCl, HBr, and HI decreases and
(3) decrease upto P and then increase down so the acid strength increases.
the group In light of the above statements, choose the
(4) decrease down the group correct answer from the options below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
84. Nitrogen differs from other members of the false
family in several properties due to its (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(1) small size false
(2) high ionization enthalpy (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
(3) non-availability of d-orbitals is true
(4) All of the above (4) Both statement I and statement II are
true
85. N does not form pentahalide due to
(1) availability of d-orbitals in its valence 88. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric
shell in nature?
(2) availability of p-orbitals in its valence (1) Cl2O7
shell (2) Na2O
(3) non-availability of p-orbitals in its valence (3) N2O
shell (4) Al2O3
(4) non-availability of d-orbitals in its valence
shell 89. The decreasing oxidizing ability of the
halogens in aqueous solution down the group is
SECTION B evident from
(1) standard electrode potential
86. What are the properties of nitrogen? (2) oxidation state
I. Triple bond (3) Either (1) or (2)
II. Allotropy (4) None of the above
III. Catenation
IV. Low boiling point 90. With an increase in molecular weight the
Choose the correct option. boiling point of halogens increases, it happens
(1) I, II and III because
(2) I, III and IV (1) Van der Waals’ forces increase with an
(3) II, III and IV increase in the number of electrons per
(4) I, II and IV mole
(2) bond strength increases due to an
87. Statement-I: Acid strength increases in the increase in electronegativity
order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. (3) with the increase in size, molecules
Statement-II: As the size of the elements F, Cl, undergo association leading to higher
Br, and I increases down the group, the bond stability
13
 (4) None of the above (4) He < Ne > Ar > Kr < Xe

91. Arrange the following acids in the correct 96. Which of the following is the correct
increasing order of their acidic strength: statement?
HCl, HBr, HI, and HF (1) F2 has higher dissociation energy than Cl2
(1) HI < HBr < HCl < HF (2) F has higher electron affinity than Cl
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (3) HF is a stronger acid than HCI
(3) HCl < HBr < HI < HF (4) The boiling point increases down the
(4) HBr < HI < HF < HCl group in halogens

92. Which among the following has the lowest 97. Which of the following has been arranged in
boiling point? order of decreasing bond dissociation energy:
(1) Argon (1) P-O>CI-O>S-O
(2) Helium (2) P-O>S-O>CI-O
(3) Neon (3) S-O>CI-O>P-O
(4) Krypton (4) CI-O>S-O>P-O

93. The noble gases exhibit very high ionization 98. Which set of oxide of nitrogen is
enthalpy which down the group paramagnetic?
(1) Increases (1) NO, N2O
(2) Decreases (2) NO2, NO, N2O
(3) first increases then decreases (3) NO, NO2
(4) first decreases then increases (4) N2O,NO2

99. The correct order of boiling points for

94. Which of the following statements is group 16 hydrides is:
incorrect? 1. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(1) All the noble gases are monoatomic 2. H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(2) Noble gases are colorless, odorless, and 3. H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O
tasteless 4. H2O < H2Te < H2Se < H2S
(3) Noble gases are less soluble in water
(4) Noble gases have very low melting and 100.Which of the following pairs of molecules
boiling points have the almost identical bond dissociation
energy?
95. What is the correct atomic radius order for (1) F2 and H2
noble gases? (2) N2 and CO
(1) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe (3) F2 and 12
(2) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe (4) HF and O2
(3) He < Ne < Ar > Kr > Xe
14
 BIOLOGY - I
SECTION A (1) Acting as substrates
(2) Provide energy for polymerisation
101. Which is considered as a first genetic (3) Both 1 and 2
material : (4) None
(1) DNA
(2) RNA 106. The Okazaki fragments formed during
(3) Either 1 or 2 replication are joined by an enzyme called as :
(4) Protein
(1) DNA polymerase l
102. What is the duration of replication of E.coli (2) DNA polymerase II
to replicate (3) DNA polymerase lll
(1) 40 mins (4) DNA ligase
(2) 20 mins
(3) 30 mins 107. A failure in cell division after DNA
(4) 80 mins replication leads to :
(1) Polyploidy
103. Consider the Meselson and Stahl (2) Does not affect in any way
experiment. If the ratio of heavy (H): (3) is a good sign of evolution
Intermediate (l): Light (L) in the first generation (4) Leads to the formation of inactive
is (0: 2 : 0). Then what will be the ratio of (H : I: enzymes
L) in the second generation :
108. From the following options, which option
(1) 0 : 2 : 4 correctly matches with the characteristics of a
(2) 0 : 2 : 2 genetic material :
(3) 0 : 2 : 1 (1) Able to generate its replica
(4) 0 : 2 : 3 (2) Chemically and structurally stable
(3) Provide scope for slow changes
104. What is the number of base pairs present (4) All
in E coli
109. Which of the following schemes was
(1) 4.56 × 10⁶ bp approved as a mode of DNA replication :
(2) 4.6 × 10⁶ bp (1) Conservative
(3) 5.56 × 10⁶ bp (2) Dispersive
(4) 4.66 × 10⁶ bp (3) Semi conservative
(4) None
105. What is the function of
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates during 110. What is the polarity of continuously
replication : synthesized new strands of DNA :
15
 (1) 5’ to 3’
(2) 3’ to 5’ 116. Which of the following statements matches
(3) Depends on coding parental strand with the salient features of genetic code :
(4) its polarity is random (1) One codon codes for only one amino
acid
111. The definite regions in DNA from where (2) Code is degenerate
the replication originates are known as : (3) Code is universal
(1) ORI sequences (4) All
(2) Replication sequences
(3) High energy sequences 117. The relationships between genes and DNA
(4) None are best understood by :
(1) Mutation studies
112. Which type of RNA pol. is responsible for (2) Punnett square
the synthesis of (tRNA) and (snRNAs) : (3) Studying about genetic code
(1) RNA Pol III (4) Studying (ORI) sequences of different
(2) RNA Pol II species
(3) RNA Pol l
(4) None 118. Regulation of gene expression in
eukaryotes occurs at :
113. During which process, nucleic acid is (1) Transcriptional level
copied from one nucleic acid to another : (2) Processing level and translational level
(1) Replication (3) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the
(2) Transcription cytoplasm
(3) Translation (4) All of these
(4) Both 1 and 2
119. The elucidation of lac operon was a result
114. Which factor serves as an initiation factor of the close association between a geneticist and
to initiate the process of transcription : a biochemist named as :
(1) Sigma factor (1) Jacob and Monad
(2) Rho (2) James and Monad
(3) TATA Box (3) Joseph and Monad
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) None of these

115. Transcription and translation can be 120. DNA elements, which can switch their
coupled in: position are called :
(1) Unicellular eukaryotes (1) Exons
(2) Bacteria (Prokaryotes) (2) introns
(3) Multicellular eukaryotes (3) Cistrons
(4) both 1 and 2 (4) Transposons
16
 (3) 6.6 × 10⁹ bp
121. In DNA when AGCT occurs, their (4) 3.3 × 10⁹ bp
association is as per which of the following pairs:
(1) AC-GT 127. Which of the following nitrogenous bases
(2) AG-CT are common for both RNA and DNA?
(3) AT-GC (1) C, G, A
(4) All of these (2) G, A, U
(3) T, A, C
122. According to Avery, MacLeod and (4) U, A, C
McCarty, genetic material is:
(1) DNA 128. Adjacent nucleotides in a polynucleotide
(2) Protein chain are joined by
(3) mRNA (1) N-glycosidic bond
(4) Polysaccharides (2) Phosphodiester bond
(3) O-glycosidic bond
123. Hershey and Chase demonstrated that (4) Hydrogen bond
DNA and not protein is the genetic material
with the help of the radioactive Isotopes : 129. Sugars are attached to the pyrimidines by
(1) Iron - 59 and Nitrogen -15 the formation of
(2) Nitrogen -15 and Carbon -14 (1) Hydrogen bond
(3) Sulphur-16 and Nitrogen-7 (2) N-glycosidic bond
(4) Sulphur-35 and Phosphorus 32 (3) Phosphoester bond
(4) O-glycosidic bond
124. In DNA, If 10% of guanine is present, how
much thymine is present : 130. Cytidine is a
(1) 10% (1) Nucleoside
(2) 20% (2) Nitrogen base
(3) 40% (3) Nucleotide
(4) 80% (4) Common dinucleotide in DNA and
RNA
125. DNA strands are :
(1) Antiparallel 131. In bacteria, catalytic RNA is found in
(2) Parallel (1) 60S subunit of ribosome
(3) Can be of any type (2) 50S subunit of ribosome
(4) None of these (3) 30S subunit of ribosome
(4) 40S subunit of ribosome
126. Haploid content of human DNA contains 132. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the
(1) 4.6 × 10⁶ bp coding strand of a gene. What will be the
(2) 3.3 × 10⁸ bp
17
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
mRNA? 137. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU (1) Plants
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT (2) Fungi
(3) UCCAUAGCGUA (3) Animals
(4) ACCUAUGCGAU (4) Bacteria

133. Select the correct match 138. A: Operator gene is functional when it is
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid not blocked by a repressor.
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross R: Regulator gene produces active protein which
(3) G. Mendel - Transformation acts on the operon system in E.coli.
(4) T.H. Morgan - Transduction A stands for assertion and R for reason. Read
the below statements and mark the correct one:
134. Select the correct match
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
pneumoniae correct explanation for A
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase - TMV (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(3) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod - Lac correct explanation for A
operon (3) A is true and R is false
(4) Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl - Pisum (4) Both A and R are false
sativum
139. A: Peptidyl transferase site is contributed
135. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that by a larger subunit of ribosome.
codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and R : The enzyme peptidyl transferase is
the base at position 901 is deleted such that the contributed by both 23S and 16S ribosomal
length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how subunits.
many codons will be altered? A stands for assertion and R for reason. Read
(1) 1 the below statements and mark the correct one:
(2) 11 (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
(3) 33 correct explanation for A
(4) 333 (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation for A
SECTION B (3) A is true and R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
136. DNA replication in bacteria occurs
(1) During S-phase 140. A: cDNA libraries are important to
(2) Within nucleolus scientists in human genomics.
(3) Prior to fission R: cDNA is a synthetic type of DNA generated
(4) Just before transcription from mRNA.
18
A stands for assertion and R for reason. Read
the below statements and mark the correct one:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
(1) A - transcription, B - translation,
correct explanation for A
C-Protein synthesis
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(2) A - G- phase, B - transcription, C-
correct explanation for A
translation
1) A is true and R is false
(3) A - Replication, B - Transcription, C-
2) Both A and R are false
translation
(4) A - Formation of DNA from ribose
141. A : Catalytic functions were assigned to
sugar, B - transcription, C- translation
RNA molecules during evolution.
R : The rate of mutation is quite fast in RNA.
144. In the given figure identify A and B and
A stands for assertion and R for reason. Read
also identify the process :
the below statements and mark the correct one:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation for A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation for A
(3) A is true and R is false (1) A-RNA polymerase, B-Rho factor &
(4) Both A and R are false process is initiation
(2) A-RNA polymerase, B-Rho factor &
142. A : Polypeptide sequences are dictated by process is termination
DNA and represented by mRNA. (3) A-RNA polymerase, B-Sigma factor &
R : Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide can process is initiation
be predicted by the t-RNA. (4) A-RNA polymerase, B-Sigma factor &
(Class 12, Genetics and Evolution, Molecular process is termination
basis of inheritance, translation, page number
98, assertion reason type, medium, ncert 145. Label parts of nucleosome correctly :
concept based)
A stands for assertion and R for reason. Read
the below statements and mark the correct one:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation for A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation for A
(3) A is true and R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
143. . Label the following parts correctly :

19
 (1) A - RNA, B- H2 histone, C- Histone (4) Negative and repressible because
octamer, D- Core of histone molecules repressor protein prevents transcription
(2) A - DNA, B - H2 histone, D - Base of
histone molecule, D- Core of histone 149. Which one of the following is wrongly
molecules matched?
(3) A- DNA, B- H2 histone, C- Histone (1) Transcription- Writing information from
octamer, D- Core of histone molecules DNA to tRNA
(4) A - DNA, B- H1 histone, C - Histone (2) Translation-Using information in m-RNA
octamer, D- Core of histone molecules to make protein
(3) Repressor protein-Binds to an operator
146. Which stage of the Hershey and Chase to stop enzyme synthesis
experiment is shown in this figure : (4) Operon- Structural genes, operator and
promoter

150. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous

base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the
complementary RNA strand sequence?
(1) AACTG
(1) Infection
(2) ATCGU
(2) Blending
(3) TTAGU
(3) Centrifugation
(4) UAGAC
(4) Detection

BIOLOGY II
147. If a DNA percentage of thymine is 20%
SECTION A
then what will be the percentage of guanine?
(1) 20%
151. What is incorrect for human chromosome
(2) 40%
1?
(3) 30%
(1) It is one of the largest chromosome
(4) 60%
(2) Its sequence was completed in May
2007
148. Gene regulation governing lactose operon
(3) It has maximum number of genes
of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is
(4) It was the last chromosome to be
(1) Feedback inhibition because excess of
sequenced
-galactosidase can switch off
transcription
152.The non-human model organisms
(2) Positive and inducible because it can be
sequenced in Human Genome project were
induced by lactose
(1) A nematode and fruit fly
(3) Negative and inducible because
(2) Wheat and rice
repressor protein prevents transcription
(3) Fish and birds
20
 (4) Garden pea and fruit fly related to reverse transcription?

153. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell (1) DNA dependent DNA synthesis
in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac (2) RNA dependent DNA synthesis
Y gene? (3) DNA dependent RNA synthesis
(1) Lactose permease (4) RNA dependent polypeptide synthesis
(2) Transacetylase
(3) Lactose permease and transacetylase 158. Which of the following structures are
(4) Beta-galactosidase present in the core particle of the nucleosome?
(1) Octamer of histone proteins
154. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. lac operon (2) 200 bp of DNA
(1) Is under positive as well as negative (3) Non-histone proteins
control (4) Linker DNA
(2) Controls catabolic pathway
(3) Shows feedback repression 159. Packaging of DNA helix
(4) Discovered by Jacob and Monod (1) Involves polyamines in eukaryotes
(2) Occurs with the help of NHC proteins
155. With respect to the major difference only
between replication and transcription (3) Requires acidic proteins that help in
statements are correct coiling of DNA in prokaryotes
(1) In transcription only a segment of DNA (4) Is more complex in eukaryotes than
is taken prokaryotes
(2) In replication, total DNA is duplicated
(3) In transcription, only one of the strands 160. Length of DNA in E. coli is
of DNA is copied into RNA (1) 2.2 m
(4) All are correct (2) 1.36 mm
(3) 1.36 m
156. Which of the statement /statements are (4) 3.4 m
correct with respect to splicing and maturation
of RNA’s: 161. Which of the following radioactive isotopes
(1) The process involves removal of introns were utilised for labelling protein and DNA in
(2) hnRNA undergo capping as a sign of transduction experiment respectively?
32
maturation (1) P, 35P
35
(3) A non-functional mRNA undergoes (2) S, 35P
35
addition of (200-300) adenylate residues (3) S, 32P
32
at 3’ end to become a mature mRNA (4) S, 35P
(4) All are correct
162.Dominance of RNA world is proved by
157. Which of the following processes is (1) Capping
21
 (2) Splicing (3) dUTP
(3) Polyadenylation (4) dGTP
(4) All of these
168. Out of the two strands of DNA one is
163. Which plant was used by Taylor to prove carrying genetic information for transcription
semiconservative replication at chromosomal and it is called
level? (1) Coding strand
(1) Haematoxylon (2) Non template strand
(2) Vicia faba (3) Sense strand
(3) Trillium (4) Template strand
(4) Ophioglossum
169. When a mature mRNA was hybridised to
164. Unwinding of DNA creates tension which its gene certain loops were observed. These
is released by enzyme loops represent
(1) Helicase (1) Introns in DNA
(2) Topoisomerase (2) Introns in rRNA
(3) Primase (3) Exons in tRNA
(4) Ligase (4) Exons in DNA

165. During polymerisation of 170. Poly A tail is present in

deoxyribonucleosides triphosphates in bacteria, (1) mRNA of bacteria
which of the following enzymes is mainly (2) tRNA of eukaryotes
required? (3) Promotor of bacteria
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (4) mRNA of eukaryotes
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 171. Find out the incorrect match
(4) DNA gyrase (1) UUU – Phenylalanine
(2) UAG – Sense codon
166. DNA polymerases catalysed polymerisation (3) GUG – Valine
of / in (4) UGG – Tryptophan
(1) Ribonucleotides
(2) 5 -3 direction 172. One codon codes for only one amino acid,
(3) 3 5 direction hence the code is
(4) Deoxyribonucleosides (1) Ambiguous and non-specific
(2) Unambiguous and specific
167. During DNA replication which of the (3) Ambiguous and specific
following does not act as substrates? (4) Unambiguous and non-specific
(1) dATP
(2) dCTP 173. What is incorrect for UTR?
22
 (1) Present in between the translational unit (2) Hybridisation
in mRNA (3) Denaturation
(2) Not recognised by any tRNA (4) Southern blotting
(3) Required for efficient translation
process 179. Read the following statements:
(4) Provide stability to mRNA A. Variation at genetic level arises due to
mutations.
174. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III B. Technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially
catalyses the synthesis of developed by Alec Jeffreys
(1) 5 S rRNA, tRNA & SnRNA (1) Only (B) is correct
(2) mRNA, HnRNA & SnRNA (2) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(3) 28 S rRNA, 18 S rRNA & 5 S rRNA (3) Only (A) is correct
(4) All types of rRNA & tRNA (4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

175. In lac operon, the regulator gene codes for 180. In DNA fingerprinting, detection of
hybridised DNA fragments is possible by
(1) Aporepressor (1) Electrophoresis
(2) Corepressor (2) Blotting
(3) Inactive repressor (3) Autoradiography
(4) Active repressor (4) Centrifugation

176. How many locations have been identified 181. Mark the correct match.
in the human genome where single base (1) Catalytic RNA – 16 S rRNA and 23 S in
differences occur? bacteria rRNA- as ribozymes.
(1) 1.4 million (2) Val operon – Found in eukaryotes
(2) 14 million (3) Sanger method – Determination of
(3) 1.4 billion amino acid sequences in proteins only
(4) 14 billion (4) VNTR – Intron

177.Mark the correct one (w.r.t. application of 182. All of the following are part of an operon
DNA fingerprinting) except
(1) Forensic science (1) an operator
(2) Determining the population diversity (2) structural genes
(3) Determining the genetic diversity (3) a promoter
(4) More than one option is correct (4) an enhancer

178. In the technique of DNA fingerprinting 183. The final proof for DNA as the genetic
digestion of DNA is followed by material came from the experiments of
(1) Electrophoresis (1) Griffith
23
 (2) Hershey and Chase (1) Muton
(3) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty (2) Cistron
(4) Hargobind Khorana (3) Operon
(4) Recon
184. The association of histone H1 with a
nucleosome indicates 189. Which of the following rRNAs acts as
(1) Transcription is occurring structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?
(2) DNA replication is occurring (1) 5 S rRNA
(3) The DNA is condensed into a (2) 18 S rRNA
chromatin fibre (3) 23 S rRNA
(4) The DNA double helix is exposed (4) 5.8 S rRNA

185.Which of the following RNAs should be 190. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

most abundant in animal cells? catalyses transcription on one strand of the
(1) rRNA DNA which is called the
(2) t-RNA (1) Template strand
(3) m-RNA (2) Coding strand
(4) mi-RNA (3) Alpha strand
(4) Anti-strand
SECTION B
191. Which of the following is required as an
186. During DNA replication, Okazaki inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
fragments are used to elongate (1) Lactose and Galactose
(1) The leading strand towards replication (2) Glucose
fork (3) Galactose
(2) The lagging strand towards replication (4) Lactose
fork
(3) The leading strand away from replication 192. Which of the following is not required for
fork any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting
(4) The lagging strand away from the available at present?
replication fork (1) DNA-DNA hybridization
(2) Polymerase chain reaction
187. The lac operon is an example of (3) Zinc finger analysis
(1) repressible operon (4) Restriction enzymes
(2) overlapping genes
(3) arabinose operon 193. Which one of the following is the starter
(4) inducible operon. codon?
(1) UAG
188. The equivalent of a structural gene is (2) AUG
24
 (3) UGA 198. Removal of introns and joining of exons in
(4) UAA a defined order during transcription is called
(1) Slicing
194. Identify the correct order of organisation (2) Splicing
of genetic material from largest to smallest (3) Looping
(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, (4) Inducing
gene
(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, 199. Which one of the following is not a part of
nucleotide a transcription unit in DNA?
(3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, (1) A promoter
gene (2) The structural gene
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, (3) The inducer
nucleotide (4) A terminator

195. Satellite DNA is important because it 200.Transformation was discovered by

(1) Code for enzymes needed for DNA (1) Meselson and Stahl
replication (2) Hershey and Chase
(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle (3) Griffith
(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in (4) Watson and Crick
population and also the same degree of
polymorphism in an individual, which is
heritable from parents to children.
(4) Does not code for proteins and is same
in all members of the population

196. The codons causing chain termination are

(1) AGT, TAG, UGA
(2) UAG, UGA, UAA
(3) TAG, TAA, TGA
(4) GAT, AAT, AGT.

197.Removal of RNA polymerase III from

nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of
(1) mRNA
(2) rRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) hnRNA

25