AWS D1.

1:2015 Exam #1

Full Length Exam

AWS D1.1 : 2015
Structural Welding Code - Steel
January 2017
AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1
INSTRUCTIONS

1) Determine a time and location to take this exam. It is vitally important to simulate
exam conditions, so you will need an area that is quiet and where you will not be
disturbed for a minimum of two hours. It is sometimes difficult to accomplish this at
home, so Madskills suggests using your local library.
2) This is an open-book exam. You must have your own copy of AWS D1.1: 2015. You
may high-light, underline, tab, or clip your book anyway you choose, but you are NOT
allowed to make notes during the exam.
3) Before starting the exam, think about and write down your pacing strategy. For
example, after 15 minutes, you should have completed 7 questions, after 30 minutes
you should have completed 14 questions, etc. You will have two hours to complete 50
questions. At the pace in the example above, you will finish your exam with 13 minutes
left. This will give you time to go back to complete those that you may have skipped.
Note: NO extra sheets of paper are allowed during the CWI Exam.
4) Remove the Answer Sheet (the last page of this exam) and place it beside the exam
booklet where it is comfortable for you.
5) Write down your start time on the top of the Answer Sheet.
6) Begin the exam. If you come across any questions that you absolutely do NOT know,
or if you have specific questions about any questions, mark the questions with a star or
circle or however you would like. Also, if you run out of time, mark on the Answer Sheet
which question you were on at the 2 hour time limit. Keep going until you finish all 50
questions and write your end time at the top of the Answer sheet.
7) Send your completed Answer Sheet to: [email protected].
Madskills will grade your practice exam and send you the results. NOTE: Madskills will
only grade one answer sheet per practice test.
8) When Madskills sends you the itemized results to the exam, you will also receive
instructions on the next phase of homework.

GOOD LUCK!

1. For the radiographic testing of a 1-1/2 inch thick material, what designation of hole-type I.Q.I. is required
(source side)?
A. 20
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1
B. 25
C. 30
D. 35
E. 40

2. Which of the following SMAW electrodes is not included in the F2 group?

A. E6012
B. E6010
C. E6013
D. E6014
E. None of the above

3. The maximum weld reinforcement permitted for a welding procedure qualification on pipe or tubing
having a wall thickness of 0.208 inch is:
A. 0
B. 1/16 inch
C. 3/16 inch
D. 3/32 inch
E. 1/8 inch

4. When a complete joint penetration groove weld procedure is qualified on a pipe in the horizontal fixed
test position (5G), for what other positions is it also qualified?
A. H, V grooves on pipe
B. F, H, V, OH fillets on plate
C. F, V, OH fillets and grooves on plate
D. F, H, V, OH fillets and grooves on plate
E. None of the above

5. Which groove weld position has an inclination of axis of 100 and a rotation of face of 900?
A. Flat
B. Horizontal
C. Vertical
D. Overhead
E. Flat and horizontal

6. What is the maximum convexity permitted on a 3/8 inch fillet weld having an actual face width of 9/16
inch?
A. 1/6 inch
B. 3/32 inch
C. 1/8 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. None of the above

7. Persons performing nondestructive testing shall be qualified in accordance with:

A. AWS D1.1
B. API 1104
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1
C. ASME Section IX
D. ASME Section V
E. ASNT SNT-TC-1A

8. What is the minimum preheat and interpass temperature for welding 1/2 inch thick ASTM A500 Grade A
when the base metal temperature is less than 320F?
A. None
B. 1500F
C. 700F
D. 2250F
E. 3000F

9. For GMAW, which is not considered to be an essential variable for procedure qualification?
A. A change in the number of electrodes used
B. A change from a single shielding gas to a mixture
C. A change of 5% above the mean amperage for each diameter used
D. A change in the position of welding
E. A change in the type of groove

10. In transverse corner and T-joints subject to tension or tension due to bending, a single pass contouring
fillet weld:
A. Not less than 1/4 inch in size shall be added at reentrant corners
B. Not less than 3/8 inch in size shall be added at reentrant corners
C. Not less than twice the thickness of the plate shall be added at reentrant corners
D. Are prohibited
E. May be used for steels having a yield stress greater than 90 ksi

11. If a welder is qualified on a fillet weld test coupon in the vertical welding test position (3F), in what
welding positions is he or she qualified?
A. Flat and overhead fillets
B. Flat grooves and fillets
C. Flat and horizontal grooves
D. Flat, horizontal and vertical
E. All of the above

12. What plate repair is required when a 3/4 inch long laminar discontinuity is discovered in an oxygen-cut
edge?
A. Remove and reweld
B. Grind to determine depth and reweld if deeper than 1/8 inch
C. Grind to determine depth and reweld
D. Inspect with ultrasonic testing, remove and reweld if deeper than 1/8 inch
E. None, need not be explored

13. Welding shall not be done when the ambient temperature is:
A. Less than -180F
B. Less than 320F
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1
C. Less than 00C
D. Less than 00F
E. Less than -320F

14. For prequalified joint TC-U8a-GF, what is the permissible range for the root opening, as fit-up?
A. 0 - 1/8 inch
B. 0 - 3/16 inch
C. 0 - 1/4 inch
D. 1/16 to 1/8 inch
E. 1/16 to 3/16 inch

15. When qualifying a multipass fillet weld on pipe in the 5F position, the number of test specimens
required are:
A. 3 face macroetches
B. 3 face macroetches and one side bend
C. 2 face macroetches, one tension, and one side bend
D. 4 face macroetxhes
E. 4 face macroetches and one side bend

16. What is the specification of a suitable FCAW filler material for joining ASTM A516 grade 55?
A. AWS A5.17
B. AWS A5.23
C. AWS A5.18
D. AWS A5.20
E. AWS B1-10

17. What is the maximum diameter E7018 electrode that can be used for a weld in the vertical welding
position when using a prequalified procedure?
A. 3/32 inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 5/32 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. 7/32 inch

18. Which of the following processes is not considered prequalified?

A. SMAW
B. FCAW
C. GMAW (short circuiting transfer)
D. SAW
E. GMAW (non-short circuiting transfer)

19. What is the minimum fillet weld size for joining 1/4 inch thick plates using prequalified joints for a
cyclically loaded structure?
A. 1/4 inch
B. 3/16 inch
C. 1/8 inch
D. 1/16 inch
E. None of the above

20. For GMAW and FCAW, the shielding gasses shall conform to the requirements of:
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1
A. AWS A5.29
B. AWS A5.28
C. AWS A5.32
D. AWS A5.1
E. Both A and B above

21. For a CJP groove weld procedure qualification on a 1/4 inch thick test plate, what is the maximum
thickness for which that procedure is qualified?
A. 1/2 inch
B. 3/4 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 1-1/2 inch
E. 2 inches

22. For prequalified WPS requirements, other than root passes, what is the maximum thickness of layers in
a horizontal SMAW groove weld?
A. 5/16 inch
B. 3/32 inch
C. 1/8 inch
D. 5/32 inch
E. 3/16 inch

23. For flexible connections on framing angles, top angles of seated beam connections and simple end plate
connections the end return shall not exceed:
A. The nominal weld size
B. Two times the nominal weld size
C. Four times the nominal weld size
D. Two times the size of the electrode
E. Three times the size of the electrode

24. For a 40 foot long horizontally curved welded girder, what is the permissible variation in specified
sweep?
A. (+) or (-) 1/4 inch
B. (+) or (-) 3/8 inch
C. (+) or (-) 1/2 inch
D. (+) or (-) 5/8 inch
E. (+) or (-) 3/4 inch

25. The separation between faying surfaces of butt joints on backing, shall not exceed:
A. 1/32 inch
B. 1/16 inch
C. 3/32 inch
D. 1/16 inch ± 1/32 inch
E. No separation is acceptable

26. Using a standard guided bend test jig to bend specimens of a material having a minimum yield strength
of 75,000 psi, what is the diameter of the plunger about which it is bent?
A. 1 inch
B. 2 inches
C. 1-1/2 inches
D. 2-1/2 inches
E. 1-1/4 inches
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1

27. When stress relieving a weldment at a temperature of 1500F below the minimum specified
temperature, what is the minimum holding time per inch of thickness?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
E. 10 hours

28. The drawing specifies a 3/8 inch fillet weld for a particular weld joint. What size of fillet weld is
necessary if a 1/8 inch root opening exists between the two pieces prior to welding?
A. 3/4 inch
B. 3/8 inch
C. 1/2 inch
D. 1/4 inch
E. none of the above

29. A welder is qualified to weld with the FCAW process and is also qualified to weld using:
A. SMAW
B. GMAW
C. SAW
D. ESW
E. None of the above

30. What is the required minimum preheat for welding 2-1/2 inches thick A572 grade 42 using the GMAW
process?
A. 500F
B. 1500F
C. 2250F
D. 3000F
E. None of the above

31. Which of the following is an approved electrode for welding ASTM A514 steel 1½ inches thick using
SMAW.
A. E8015-X
B. E100018M
C. E11018M
D. E7018
E. ASTM A 514 steel is not a code approved material

32. Who is responsible for the qualification of procedures?

A. Welder
B. Independent test lab
C. Quality control manager
D. Manufacturer or contractor
E. Owner

33. For procedure qualification using a 3/8 inch thick plate test coupon, what test specimens are required
for a complete joint penetration groove weld?
A. 1 tensile, 2 face bends, 2 root bends
B. 2 tensiles, 1 face bend, 1 root bend
C. 2 tensiles, 4 side bends
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1
D. 2 tensiles, 2 face bends, 2 root bends
E. Both C & D above

34. When two 3/8 inch thick plates are joined in a lap joint configuration, what is the maximum size fillet
weld that can be specified on the plate edges?
A. 3/8 inch
B. 1/4 inch
C. 3/16 inch
D. 5/16 inch
E. none of the above

35. When testing in conformance with ASTM E165, the acceptance criteria shall be in conformance with:
A. Table 6.1
B. Table 6.3
C. Table 6.5
D. Table 6.7
E. ASTM E 165

36. Oxygen gouging for removal of weld metal or portions of the base metal:
A. Shall not be used
B. Shall not be used on as-rolled steels only
C. Shall be used on as-rolled steels only
D. Shall only be used in conjunction with grinding
E. Is permitted only on steel forgings

37. Using a single electrode for SAW, what is the maximum size single pass fillet weld that can be deposited
in the horizontal welding position when using a prequalified procedure?
A. 5/32 inch
B. 3/8 inch
C. 5/16 inch
D. 1/4 inch
E. 1/2 inch

38. How must a crack be corrected?

A. Remove and reweld
B. Grind and reweld
C. Remove crack and sound metal 2 inches beyond each end of the crack and reweld
D. Reweld with deep penetrating process to assure complete fusion of crack
E. Drill a hole at each end, remove and reweld

39. What is the minimum thickness groove weld a welder may weld in production if the welder is qualified
using a 1 inch thick groove weld test coupon?
A. unlimited
B. 1 inch
C. 1/2 inch
D. 1/8 inch
E. 3T
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1

40. When strengthening and repairing an existing building, the portions of such surfaces that are to receive
welds shall be:
A. Cleaned of dirt and rust except adherent paint need not be removed
B. Cleaned thoroughly of all foreign matter including paint for a distance of 1 inch from each side
of the welds
C. Cleaned thoroughly of all foreign matter including paint for a distance of
2 inches from the root of the weld
D. Inspect by dye penetrant prior to welding
E. Visually inspected for a distance of 1 inch from each side

41. For cyclically loaded nontubular connection, when RT is used to examine welds, what is the maximum
length of slag inclusion allowed in a 3/4 inch thick groove weld subject to tension?
A. 1/8 inch
B. 3/16 inch
C. 1/4 inch
D. 5/16 inch
E. 1/2 inch

42. When the direction of undercut runs transverse to the direction of primary stress in a cyclically loaded
structure, what is the maximum allowable depth of undercut for material under 5/8 inch thick?
A. 0.01 inch
B. 1/32 inch
C. 0.0625 inch
D. 1/8 inch
E. Not specified

43. For complete joint penetration butt splices, tack welds located outside the joint groove shall terminate
not closer than:
A. The thickness of the backing
B. 2-1/4 the thickness of the part
C. 1/2 inch from the edge of the connected part
D. 5/8 inch from the edge of the connected part
E. Not less than two times the nominal weld size

44. A 1¼ inch diameter stud head has a 5/32 inch long crack. The stud is:
A. Unacceptable - crack exceeds 1/8 inch
B. Acceptable
C. Unacceptable - no only burst are allowed in stud heads
D. Acceptable only if flux is used
E. Unacceptable do to head height

45. The attenuation factor used in ultrasonic testing is determined by subtracting:

A. 2 dB from the indication level
B. The HAZ from the sound path
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1
C. 1 inch from the sound path and multiplying the remainder by 2
D. b-a-c-d
E. Subtracting the sound path from the V path & dividing the difference by 2
46. In what circumstances is it appropriate to place wire type IQI's on the film side?
A. For 4G welds
B. For welds on plate  1/2 inch thick
C. For tubular structures
D. When an isotope is in use
E. None of the above

47. When stress relieving a welded assembly on 2 ½ inch quenched and tempered steel at 11000 F, the
holding time is:
A. 15 min
B. 2 hours
C. 2 hours and 15 min
D. 4 hours
E. 5 hours and 15 min

48. The tolerance of root opening of joints without steel backing on a tubular CJP when using FCAW is:
A. ± 1/32 inch
B. ± 1/16 inch
C. ± 1/8 inch
D. + 1/16 -1/32 inch
E. +1/32 - 1/16 inch

49. For welder qualification, fillet welds and corner macroetch test joints for T, Y and K connections on box
tubing, all of the following are true except:
A. There shall be no cracks
B. No undercut shall exceed 1/32 inch
C. The sum of the greatest dimensions of slag shall not exceed 3/8 inch
D. There shall be no porosity exceeding 1/32 inch
E. Accumulated porosity shall not exceed ¼ inch

50. When qualifying a WPS on ½ inch plate and after the weld has been visually inspected:
A. 2 tension, 2 root bends, 2 face bends shall be performed
B. 2 root bends shall be performed
C. 4 side bends shall be performed
D. NDT shall be performed
E. 2 tension, 4 sides bends shall be performed
 AWS D1.1:2015 Exam #1

Answer Sheet

1. A B C D E 35. A B C D E
2. A B C D E 36. A B C D E
3. A B C D E 37. A B C D E
4. A B C D E 38. A B C D E
5. A B C D E 39. A B C D E
6. A B C D E 40. A B C D E
7. A B C D E 41. A B C D E
8. A B C D E 42. A B C D E
9. A B C D E 43. A B C D E
10. A B C D E 44. A B C D E
11. A B C D E 45. A B C D E
12. A B C D E 46. A B C D E
13. A B C D E 47. A B C D E
14. A B C D E 48. A B C D E
15. A B C D E 49. A B C D E
16. A B C D E 50. A B C D E
17. A B C D E
18. A B C D E
19. A B C D E
20. A B C D E
21. A B C D E
22. A B C D E
23. A B C D E
24. A B C D E
25. A B C D E
26. A B C D E
27. A B C D E
28. A B C D E
29. A B C D E
30. A B C D E
31. A B C D E
32. A B C D E
33. A B C D E
34. A B C D E