JEEMainPartTest 2 Q
JEEMainPartTest 2 Q
Part Test-02
Class - 11 and Repeater
INSTRUCTIONS
Do Not open the Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read all the instructions carefully before start of the test.
1. Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. Please write your name on the top of this test booklet.
2. The Answer Sheet is give at the end of the booklet. Please fill all the particulars on the answer
sheet before attempting the questions.
3. There are three parts in the question paper of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Each subject contains 20 multiple choice questions with Only One Correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer and 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Each subject contains 10 Integer Type Questions.
Attempt any five Integer Type Questions.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer and 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on the OMR
sheet. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
5. Space for rough work is provided at the end.
6. Use of any unfair means during the exam will result in disqualification from attending the tests
further.
AITS 3
PHYSICS Q.5 A perfectly straight portion of a uniform rope has mass
SECTION -A M and length L. At end A of the segment, the tension
Q.1 A uniform thick string of length 5 m is resting on a in the rope is TA; at end B it is TB (> TA). The tension in
horizontal frictionless surface . It is pulled by a the rope at a distance L/5 from end A is
horizontal force of 5 N from one end . The tension in (1) TB – TA (2) (TA + TB)/5
the string at 1m from the force applied is : (3) (4TA + TB)/5 (4) (TB – TA)/5
(1) zero (2) 5 N Q.6 A spring has length and spring constant k. It is cut
(3) 4 N (4) 1 N into two pieces of length 1 and 2 such that 1 = n2.
The force constant of spring of length 1 is :
Q.2 A 100 Newton weight is suspended in a corner of a (1) k(1 + n) (2) k(1 + n)/n
room by two cords A and B as shown in the figure (3) k (4) k/(1 + n)
below. The tension in the horizontal cord A is
Q.7 In the given figure the blocks are at rest. After that a
Ceiling force of 10N acts on the block of 4 kg mass. The co-
efficient of static friction and the co-efficient of kinetic
30°
B friction are µs = 0.2 and µk = 0.15 for both the surfaces
A in contact. The magnitude of friction force acting
100N
Wall between the surface of contact between the
2 kg and 4 kg block in this situation is
2 kg
(1) 50 N (2) 100 N
(3) 200 N (4) 173.2 N 4 kg F = 10 N
Q.3 Two forces, one with a magnitude of 3N and the other (1) 3 N (2) 4 N
with a magnitude of 5N, are applied to an object. For (3) 3.33 N (4) Zero
which orientations of the forces shown in the diagrams
is the magnitude of the acceleration of the object the Q.8 Statement-1: A horse can pull a cart on a horizontal
least? surface only if it exerts force greater than limiting static
3N friction.
3N 5N Statement-2 : An external force exceeding limiting
(1) (2) 5N
friction is required to make a block slide on rough
horizontal surface
3N (1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
3N
statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(3) 5N (4) 5N
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
statement-1.
Q.4 In the Atwood machine (data as in figure), P is a (3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
massless pulley, and springs S 1 and S 2 are also (4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
massless. The blocks are slowly released such that
they accelerate thereafter with constant acceleration. Q.9 In the figure shown , the friction coefficient between
The tension in the two springs are ___ and ____ the block of mass 1 kg and the plank of mass 2 kg is 0.4
respectively. while that between the plank and floor is 0.1. A constant
force ‘F’ starts acting horizontally on the upper 1 kg
block. The acceleration of plank if F = 10 N is
JEE/XI/PT-002
4 AITS
Q.10 A slab S of mass 1 kg is released from a height of 1cm Q.14 The potential energy of a body is given by
from the top of a spring S' of force constant 780 N/m.
The maximum compression x of the spring will be : 9 2
U= – . The position at which it’s speed can be
x2 x
S
h0 maximum is.
(1) x = + 3 m (2) x = – 3 m
S' (3) x = 9 m (4) x = – 9 m
R
m u
a = 2m/s2
(1) 2/9 (2) 5/12 (3) 1/5 (4) 2/5 (1) g 10 (2) g (3) g 2 (4) 3g
A force F = (3t î 5ˆj) N acts on a body due to which
Q.17 A stone of mass 250 g is tied to the end of a string
Q.12
of length 1.0 m. It is whirled in a horizontal circle on
its displacement varies as s ( 2 t 2 î 5ˆj) . Work a smooth plane with a frequency of 30 rev./min. What
is the tension in the string ?
done by this force in t = 0 to 2 sec is:
(1) 23 J (2) 32 J (3) zero (4) 45 J
2 2
(1) N (2) N (3) 2 N (4) 22 N
4 2
(1) (2)
Q.18 In a circular motion of a particle, the tangential
acceleration of the particle is given by at = 9 m/s2. The
radius of the circle is 4 m. The particle was initially at
rest. Time after which total acceleration of the particle
makes an angle of 45° with the radial acceleration is :
(3) (4) 1 2 4
(1) sec. (2) sec. (3) 1 sec. (4) sec.
3 3 3
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AITS 5
Q.19 An unbanked circular highway curve on level ground Q.6 In the arrangement shown in the figure, the pulleys
makes a turn of 90°. The highway carries traffic at 108 are all massless. The load has a mass of 21 kg. The
km-hr–1, and the centripetal force on a vehicle is not to point P is moved by a distance of 2.5 cm. Find the
exceed 1/10 of its weight. What is the approximate minimum work (in J) required to be done by the force.
minimum length of the curve, in km ?
(1) 1.4 km (2) 1 km
(3) 0.6 km (4) None of these P
F
Q.20 What minimum speed does a 100 g particle need at
point B to reach point A ? The graph shows potential
energy versus positon.
U (J)
21 kg
5
4
3
2
Q.7 A smooth wedge is pulled to the right with an
1 acceleration of 10 m/s2. It is seen that the block of
0 x
A B mass 1kg reaches the top starting from bottom at rest
(1) in 1 sec. The length of the inclined surface is........ m.
40 m/s (2) 60 m/s
(3) 10 m/s (4) 5 m/s
1kg 2
a = 10 m/s
SECTION - B 37°
Q.1 A Circular platform rotates around a vertical axis with
angular velocity = 10 rad/sec. On the platform is a Q.8 A 2 kg object is placed on a frictionless surface (in x-y
ball of mass 1 kg, attached to the long axis of the
platform by a thin rod of length 10 cm = 30°). Find plane). If force acting on the object is F = 20 î + 10 ˆj
normal force exerted by the ball on the platform (in N.The displacement along x-axis in first 10 sec is....m.
Newton). Friction is absent.
Q.9 A block of weight 5 N is pushed against a vertical wall by
a force 12 N. The coefficient of friction between the wall
and block is 0.6. The magnitude of the force exerted by
l
the wall on the block is.....N.
Q.4 A cricket ball is hit at 30° with the horizontal with kinetic CHEMISTRY
energy 100J. What is the gravitational potential energy SECTION-A
(in J) at the highest point,if we assume the gravitational Q.1 An equimolar mixture of PCl3 and Cl2 is taken. Calcu-
potential energy at the point of projection to be zero ? late the equilibrium pressure , if 75% of PCl3 is con-
verted into PCl5?
Q.5 A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible string PCl (g) + Cl (g)
PCl5 (g) 3 2
of length 10/11 m is whirling in a circular path of radius
Kp = 5 atm
10/11 m in a vertical plane. If the ratio of the maximum
(1) 60 atm (2) 75 atm
tension in the string to the minimum tension is 2, then
(3) 45 atm (4) 120 atm
the speed of the stone at the lowest point of the circle
is ____ (m/s)
JEE/XI/PT-002
6 AITS
Q.2 A closed rigid empty vessel is maintained at 87°C. By Q.8 Calculate the pH of a solution containing 0.2 M HCO3–
any mechanism, COCl2(g) is introduced in the vessel and 0.1 M CO32–
at 4 bar. If after a long time, the total pressure of gases [K1(H2CO3) = 4 × 10–7 ; K2 (HCO3–) = 4 × 10–11]
in the vessel become 7 bar, then KP for the reaction : (1) 10.4 (2) 10.1 (3) 6.1 (4) 10.7
CO(g) + Cl2(g) COCl2(g)
Q.9 At 400 K, which of the following solution can have
1 1 –1 pH = 7
(1) 9 bar (2) bar (3) bar (4) 9 bar–1
9 9 (1) NaCl (2) NH4Cl (3) ZnCl2 (4) NaCN
Q.3 At a equilibrium pressure of 3.3 atm N2O4 undergoes Q.10 What is the pH of a 0.4 M NaCN (aq) solution? Since
10% decomposition to NO2. At same temperature what pKb of CN– = 4.70
will be equilibrium pressure required for 20% (1) 9.15 (2) 11.45 (3) 11.85 (4) None
dissociation.
(1) 3.3 atm (2) 6.6 atm (3) 4 atm (4) 0.8 atm Q.11 The pK of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pK of a weak
a b
base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of
Q.4 For the dissociation of MgCO3 as the corresponding salt, BA, will be:
MgCO3(s) MgO(s) + CO2(g) (1) 8.58 (2) 4.79 (3) 7.01 (4) 9.22
identify the correct option regarding extent of
dissociation of MgCO3 Q.12 Species acting as both Bronsted acid and base is
(1) As temperature is increased, extent of dissociation (1) (HSO4)– (2) Na2CO3 (3) NH3 (4) OH–
decreases.
(2) Extent of dissociation at equilibrium will increase if Q.13 Which of the following is conjugate base of Zn(H2O)62+?
equilibrium is attained at the same temperature in a (1) Zn(H2O)52+ (2) Zn(H2O)5OH+
(3) Zn(H2O)5(H3O) 3+ (4) Both (1) and (2)
container of lesser volume.
(3) Extent of dissociation of MgCO3 will increase if
taken in a larger container. Q.14 Benzene burns according to the following equation
(4) Extent of dissociation will remain unchanged on 2C6H6(l ) + 15 O2 (g) 12 CO2 (g) + 6H2O(l )
changing volume of the container. H° = –6542 kJ
What is the E° for the combustion of 1.5 mol of
Q.5 Which one of the following statements is incorrect benzene
about chemical equilibrium- (1) –3271 kJ (2) –9813 kJ
(1) Chemical equilibrium can be attained, whether we (3) – 4906.5 kJ (4) None of these
start with reactants or products.
(2) Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature. Q.15 Combustion of sucrose is used by aerobic organisms
(3) Chemical equilibrium CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + for providing energy for the life sustaining processes.
If all the "capturing" of energy from the reaction is
CO2(g) is attained when CaCO3(s) is heated in an
done through electrical process (non P–V work) then
open vessel.
calculate maximum available energy which can be
(4) At equilibrium concentration of each of the
captured by combustion of 3.42 gm of sucrose
reactants and products become constant.
Given:
Hcombustion (sucrose) = – 6000 kJ mol–1
Q.6 If degree of dissociation of HI is 0.1 then KP for reaction
Scombustion = 180 J/Kmol & Body temperature is 300 K.
is :
(1) 60 kJ (2) 59.46 kJ (3) 0.54 kJ (4) 60.54 kJ
H (g) + I (g)
2HI (g) 2 2
Q.16 For the hypothetical reaction
1 1 A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g)
(1)
9
(2)
324 rG° and r S° are 20 kJ/mol & –20 JK –1 mol –1
respectively at 200 K.
10 If rCp is 20 JK–1 mol–1 then rH° at 400 K is
(3) (4) can't be determined (1) 20 kJ / mol (2) 7.98 kJ/mol
36
(3) 28 kJ / mol (4) None
Q.7 Which of the following is most soluble in water? Q.17 S for freezing of 5 g of H2O (l) (Enthalpy of fusion is
(1) MnS (Ksp= 8×10–37) (2) ZnS (Ksp= 7×10–16) 80 cal/g) at 0°C and 1 atm is
(3) Bi2S3 (Ksp= 1×10–72) (4)Ag3(PO4) (Ksp= 1.8×10–18) (1) 6.12 J/K (2) – 0.244 J/K
(3) 1.465 J/K (4) – 6.12 J/K
JEE/XI/PT-002
AITS 7
Q.18 What is the change in internal energy when a gas Q.4 At 310 K, the solubility of CaF2 in water is 2.34
contracts from 377 ml to 177 ml under a constant g/100 mL. The solubility product of CaF 2
pressure of 1520 torr, while at the same time being is____________10–12 (mol/L)3.
cooled by removing 124 J heat? (Given molar mass : CaF2 = 78 g mol–1)
[Take : (1 L atm) = 100 J ]
(1) –24 J (2) – 84 J (3) – 164 J (4) –248 J Q.5 What percentage of acetic acid molecules are unionised
in 5 × 10–8M-CH3COOH solution at 25°C? Ka of
Q.19 Statement-1: Due to adiabatic free expansion,
temperature of a real gas always increases. CH3COOH = 1.6 × 10–5.(Take 4.25 2.06 )
Statement-2: If a real gas is at inversion temperature [Fill your answer by multiplying it with 1000, if the
then no change in temperature is observed in adiabatic answer is 0.235% then fill the same in OMR sheet
free expansion. as 0235]
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-
2 is correct explanation for statement-1. Q.6 Count the number of pairs which may act as a buffer
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement- solution when present in a given solution
2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(i) CH3COOH + NaOH
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true. COOH NH2
(ii) +
Q.20 If at 298 K the bond energies of C – H, C– C, C= C and
H – H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ
mol–1, the value of enthalpy change for the reaction, (iii) NH4Cl + HNO3
H2C = CH2(g)+H2(g) C – CH3(g) at 298 K will be (iv) HClO4 + KClO4
(1) + 250 kJ (2) – 250 kJ (3) + 125 kJ (4) – 125 kJ (v) H3PO4 + NaOH
(vi) H3PO3 + NaOH
SECTION- B
Q.1 Equimolar mixture of two gases A2 and B2 is taken in a (vii) NaHCO3 + Na2CO3
container of volume 'V' at temperature 300 K. At (viii) H2SO4 + Na2SO4
constant temperature the gases reacts according to (ix) CH3COONa + HCl
given equations: SO3H
COOH
2A (g)
A (g) k =?
2 p
2B (g)
B2 (g) kp = ?
(x) +
OH
2AB (g)
A2 (g) + B2 (g) kp = 2
If the initial pressure in the container was 2 atm and Q.7 Calculate the pH at which the following conversion
final pressure developed at equilibrium is 2.75 atm in will be at equilibrium in basic medium.
which equilibrium partial pressure of gas AB was 0.5 I2(s) I–(aq) + IO3–(aq)
atm, find equilibrium constant kp for the reaction. When the equilibrium concentrations at 300K are [I–]
A (g) + B (g)
AB (g) = 0.1M and [IO3–] = 0.1M
Given that : Gf° (I–, aq) = – 50 kJmol–1
(Temperature & Volume of container remain constant Gf° (IO3–, aq) = – 123.5 kJmol–1
throughout the experiment).
Gf° (H2O, l) = – 233 kJmol–1
Q.2 For the reaction : A(g) 2B(g), the equilibrium Gf° (OH–, aq) = – 150 kJmol–1
partial pressures of gases A and B is 4 bar and 2 bar,
25
respectively. If the equilibrium mixture is slowly & R= JK–1 mol–1 and ln10 = 2.3
isothermally compressed to 12 bar, maintaining 3
equilibrium, then the new equilibrium pressure (in bar)
of B(g) becomes Q.8 Two mole of an ideal gas is expanded irreversibly &
Q.3 AT 600K, 2 mol of NO are mixed with 1 mol of O2. isothermally at 27°C untill its volume is doubled and
3.3 kJ heat is absorbed from surrounding. Determine
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)
Ssurrounding.
The reaction occurring as above comes to equilibrium
under a total pressure of 1 atm. Analysis of the system
Q.9 One mole of ideal gas undergoes following cyclic
shows that 0.6 mol of oxygen are present at equilibrium.
process:
The equilibrium constant for reaction is ______,
(Nearest integer) (I) Isochoric heating from (P 1 V 1 T 1) to double
temperature.
JEE/XI/PT-002
8 AITS
(II) Isobaric expansion from to double volume.
If z C and satisfies the equation (z z) = 4 | z |2 –
2
Q.7
(III) Linear expansion (on PV curve) to (P1, 8V1).
(IV) Isobaric compression to initial state. 12 then the maximum value of | z | is
Calculate the magnitude of work done in calories if 3
initial temperature of the gas is 300 K? (1) 6 (2) 2 3 (3) 3 (4)
2
Cal
Given : R = 2
mol K 3 3 x
Q.8 If tan x = where < x < , then value of cos
4 2 2
Q.10 PCl5 dissociates according to the reaction,
PCl5 (g) l PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) is
The density of equilibrium mixture at 1 atm & 5 °C is 1 3 1 3
6.25 gm/l, then calculate the value of K P for the (1) (2) (3) (4)
dissociation at this temperature. 10 10 10 10
Given : R = 0.08
[Fill your answer by multiplying it with 300] Q.9 If z = x + iy satisfies |z| – 2 = 0 and |z – i| – |z + 5i|= 0, then
(1) x + 2y – 4 = 0 (2) x2 + y – 4 = 0
MATHEMATICS (3) x + 2y + 4 = 0 (4) x2 – y + 3 = 0
SECTION-A
Q.10 Consider the equation x = (1 + cos )(1 + cos 3)(1 +
Number of solution of the equation z i z 1 0 is
2
Q.1
equal to cos 5)(1 + cos 7). At = which one of the
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) more than 2 9
following is true for the value of x?
(1) An irrational number
Q.2 The sum of all values of 0, satisfying (2) composite number
2
1
3 (3) belongs to an interval 0,
sin22 + cos42 = is 2
4
1
3 5 (4) belongs to an interval , 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2
2 8 4
Q.15 If and are acute angles and cos , sin (cos > sin (2) circle with centre (–1,0) and radius 2.
) are the roots of 15x2 – 8x + 1 = 0, then the value of
tan ( + ) sec ( – ) is 1 2
(3) circle with centre , 0 and radius .
2 2
15 16
(1) (8 3 1) (2) (8 3 1) (4) hyperbola with foci (± 1, 0) and eccentricity
16 15 2.
15 16
(3) (8 3 1) (4) (8 3 1) SECTION-B
16 15
3 1
sin 2 x sin x
2 2
4 2 Q.1 Let | cos x | = 1. If sum of all values of x
4cos ·cos ·cos
15 15 5 = sin , where [0, 2] is k. Then the value of k , is
Q.16 If
2
4cos 1
10 Q.2 The complex number z satisfies z + | z | = 2 + 8i. The
value of | z | is
2 4 8 16
, , then equals Q.3 If A = cos cos cos cos and B =
2 15 15 15 15
sin36ºsin72ºsin108ºsin144º then the value of 8(A + B)
4 9 13 11 is equal to
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 10 15 15
Q.4 If the maximum value of the expression
1 p
Q.17 The locus of P(z) where z = x + iy and satisfying is equal to
5sec tan 4cosec
2 2 2 q
z 2 = 0 is (where p and q are coprime), then the value of (p + q)
Re
z 1 is
(1) {(x, y) R2 | x2 + y2 – 3y – 2 = 0}
(2) {(x, y) R2 | x2 + y2 – 3x + 2 = 0} Q.5 Number of ordered pairs(s) (a, b) of real numbers such
(3) {(x, y) R2 | x2 + y2 + 3x + 2 = 0} that (a + ib)2011 = a – ib holds good, is
(4) none
Q.6 Minimum value of (3 sin x – 4 cos x – 10) (3 sin x + 4 cos
Q.18 If the equation tan4x
–2 sec2x
+ [a]2
= 0 has atleast x – 10) will be
one solution, then the complete range of a is 2
(1) [–1, 1] (2) [–2, 1] (3) [–1, 2) (4) [–2, 2) Q.7 If cos x · cos 2x · cos 4x · cos 8x for x =
is a rational
3
[Note : [k] denotes greatest integer function less than number p/q where p , q N,then the least value of (p
or equal to k.] + q) is
Q.19 Statement 1: If f() = (sin + cosec )2 + (cos +sec Q.8 Let Z1 = (8 + i)sin + (7 + 4i)cos and Z2 = (1 +
)2 then the minimum value of f() is 9. 8i)sin + (4 + 7i)cos are two complex numbers. If Z1
Statement 2 : Maximum value of sin 2 is 1. · Z2 = a + ib where a, b R then the largest value of
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and (a + b) R, is
statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and Q.9 Number of ordered triplets (x, y, z), where x, y, z [0,
statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for 2] which satisfies the equation
statement-1. (sin2 x + 2 cos2 y) · 2z = 22z + 2z + 1 is
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true. Q.10 Number of values of x in [0, ] satisfying 2 cos 2x cos
x x
x – 8 sin x cos x sin cos + 1 = 0, is
2 2
JEE/XI/PT-002