MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Directions: Answer the corresponding questions 8. The degrees of obliquity for he LAO position in
in the answer sheet provided. cardiac esophagram is at:
a. 60 degrees
1. Condition caused by severe reaction to b. 45 degrees
contrast media: c. 30 degrees
a) hemorrhagic shock d. 75 degrees
b) anaphylactic shock
c) hypovolemic shock 9. Ring of the involuntary muscle encircling a
d) pain shock hollow organ that serve to guard the stomach
against backflow of intestinal
2. Which of the following describes the ability of content.
contrast media to mix with blood as it is injected a. Pylorus
into the blood stream? b. Cardiac incisura
a. Miscibility c. Gastric sphincter
b. Toxicity d. Lesser Curvature
c. Viscosity
d. Radiopacity 10. A junction between the esophagus and
stomach at the medial border close to the upper
3. For patient with acute abdomen, the contrast end of the stomach:
medium of choice in upper G.I. series a. Pylorus
examination is the: b. Cardiac Incisura
a. Barium meal c. Duodenal bulb
b. Gastrografin d. Lesser Curvature
c. Thin barium
d. Urivison 11. Habitus of the stomach where the incisura
angularis and the pylorus are at the same level.
4. Contrast medium that can be absorbed by the a. Hypothonic
body that can cause anaphylactic shock and b. Hypertonic
death in allergic patient. c. Euthonic
a. non-ionic d. Hyphostenic
b. Barium
c. Cholecystopaque 12. The Gugliantini projection is use to convert
d. Iodinated CM infantile stomach into a normal stomach, and the
CR is angulated at how many degrees caudally.
5. Which of the following is considered to be the a. 20-25 degrees
best method of sensitivity test for iodine. b. 30-35 degrees
a. IV test c. 45 degrees
b. Oral test d. 10 degrees
c. Scleral test
d. Skin test 13. What projection can convert cascade
stomach into a normal stomach:
6. Clinical indication for esophagography wherein a. Guguliantini
the cervical portion of the esophagus is being b. Billings
taken. c. Robins
a. a. Thyroid enlargement d. Gordons
b. Chalasia
c. Achalasia
d. Pancreatic Ca
14. Which of the positions brings the stomach in
7. Which of the following conditions affects the its highest position in the stomach.
cardiac portion of the stomach: a. Upright
a. Achalasia b. Prone
b. Thyroid enlargement c. Supine
c. Gastric Ca d. Right Lateral
d. Chalasia
15. Which of the following clinical indications is an 22. In the examination of the gallbladder or bile
extrinsic pathology. ducts, the contrast medium used contains which
a. Gastric ulcer substance?
b. Pancreatic cancer a. Barium
c. Duodenal ulcer b. Bismuth
d. Pyloric ulcer c. Iodine
d. Heparin
16. Procedure designed to study external
pathology of the GI tract 23. The radiographic procedure which requires
a. Filling phase duodenal intubation and temporary drug-induced
b. Mucosal phase duodenal paralysis is:
c. Double contrast a. PTC
d. Evacuation phase b. Hypotonic Duodenography
c. Operative cholangiography
17. Which of the following is involve for pancreatic d. Operative pancreatography
cancer:
a. Greater curvature 24. The radiographic examination of the CNS
b. Lesser curvature structures situated within the spinal canal.
c. Fundus a. Cisternography
d. Pylorus b. Discography
c. Ventriculography
d. Myelography
18. Which part of the stomach will be filled with
barium in RAO position 25. The usual time allowed between the ingestion
a. Fundus of cholecystopaques and the examination in oral
b. Body cholecystography is
c. Jejunum _____ hours.
d. Duodenum a. 2-4 hrs
b. 6-8 hrs
19. The LPO position in UGIS will render double c. 10-12 hrs
contrast study to the: d. 12- 24 hrs
a. Pylorus
b. Fundus 26. Term which describe radiography of the
c. Body pancreas by cannulation of the Ampulla of Vater
d. Duodenum through a fiberoptic duodenoscope include:
1. Endoscopic Pancreato-cholangiography
20. Most iodine-based contrast media give 2. Peroral Pancreatico-billiary Ductography
optimum opacification at KV level: 3. Hypotonic Duodenography
a. 40-50
b. 50-60 a) 1 and 2
c. 60-70 b) 1 and 3
d. 70-80 c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Methods of filling the small intestines for
radiographic examination includes: 27. Which of the following cannot be determined
1. by month by radiography of the biliary duct:
2. Reflux filling a. Collecting ability of the GB
3. Enteroclysis b. Emptying time of the GB
c. Liver function
a. 1 only d. Pancreatic function
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3 28. Maximum opacification in I.V.
d. 1, 2 and 3 Cholangiography requires how many minutes:
a. 5- 10
b. 10-12
c. 20-40
 d. 30-40 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
29. What is the average normal transit time for d) 1, 2 and 3
food to travel from the mouth through the rectum.
a. 2-3 hrs 37. What projection in GBS demonstrate the
b. 10-12 hrs degree of function and the layering and
c. 24 hrs stratification of small stones in the fundus of the
d. 48 hrs GB:
a. PA
30. Which position best demonstrates the b. LPO
rectum? c. Right lateral Decubitus
a. PA d. RAO
b. Lateral
c. RAO 38. What are Rugae:
d. LAO a. Regions of the duodenum prone to ulcers
because of their thin walls
31. At what level is the duodenum bulb located? b. Out-pouching of the wall of the colon
a. T10 c. Stones that may be form in the GB
b. L2 d. Gastric Mucosal folds
c. L4
d. L5 39. Position of the patient in UGIS for double
contrast study of the fundus when the pylorus is
32. Which of the following best demonstrate the filled with barium:
splenic flexure of the colon: a. RAO
a. RPO & LAO b. LAO
b. LPO & RAO c. RPO
c. RPO & LPO d. Lateral
d. RAO & LAO
40. Retrogastric mass can be best demonstrated
33. Which two portion of bowel meet at the Angle in which of the following in UGIS?
of Treitz: a. RAO
a. Duodenum and Jejunum b. LPO
b. Jejunum and Ileum c. AP
c. Ileum and Ascending Colon d. Right Lateral
d. Descending Colon and Sigmoid
41. The Wolf Method in UGIS is primary intended
34. Where is the liver located? to demonstration:
a. upper right quadrant a. Pyloric ulcer
b. upper left quadrant b. Hiatal Hernia
c. lower right quadrant c. Duodenal Ulcer
d. lower left quadrant d. Pancreatic Ca

35. Which position produces the best image of 42. The duodenal mucosa can be demonstrated
the duodenum bulb and pyloric canal during a in which of the following?
barium stomach examination: a. Filling phase
a. PA Erect b. LPO
b. PA Supine c. Compression Technique
c. PA Prone d. AP Upright
d. RAO Semi-supine
43. Billing position is used in bowel examination
36. Which of the following useful in demonstrating to uncoil the:
air-fluids levels in the abdomen: a. Hepatic flexure
1. Dorsal decubitus b. Splenic flexure
2. Lateral Decubitus c. Ileo-Cecal
3. AP Supine d. Recto-sigmoid
a) 1 and 2
44. To induce urine stasis in IVP, the patient is d. gall bladder
examine in which of the following:
a. compression method 52. According to American College of Radiology
b. Gravitational Method (ACR), the key to preventing contrast media-
c. Erect position induced acute renal failure
d. Infusion Method is:
a. adequate hydration
45. Which of the following is the correct amount b. pre-medication
of CM used in IVP: c. choice of contrast
a. 10cc d. distribution of all medications
b. 20 cc
c. 20-30 cc 53. If a patient is taking metformin, it should be
d. 40 cc withheld for _________ hours following a contrast
media study.
46. The lumbar tap in myelography is between a. 24
the: b. 36
a. L3-4 c. 48
b. L5 d. none of the above
c. T12
d. L-1 54. Adverse reactions associated with contrast
media include all of the following, EXCEPT:
47. The amount of CSF aspirated in myelography a. nausea
used for laboratory analysis b. rash
a. 10cc c. diarrhea
b. 3-5cc d. local injection site reactions
c. 15cc
d. 1-2cc 55. What procedure is the basic functional study
of the urinary system:
48. A post-operative cholangiography is a. Instrumental Urography
performed in the x-ray department: b. Retrograde Pyelography
a. To flush and clean the biliary system c. Intravenous Pyelography
b. To rule out the liver laceration at the time of d. Retrograde Urography
surgery
c. To make sure the entire GB was removed 56. The ridge that marks the bifurcation of the
d. To demonstrate the patency of the ducts trachea into the right and left primary bronchus is
the:
49. Which of the following cannot be used as a a. root
myelographic contrast agent? b. hilus
a. Gas c. carina
b. Water soluble agent d. epiglottis
c. Barium
d. Oil 57. Which of the following describes correct
centering for the lateral position of a barium filled
50. A thick paste barium sulfate mixture is often stomach:
used in the radiographic study of the: a. midway between the vertebrae and left
a. Esophagus lateral margin of the stomach
b. Small Intestine b. midway between the mid-coronal plane
c. Stomach and the anterior surface of the abdomen
d. Large Intestine c. midway between the mid-sagittal plane
and right lateral margin of the abdomen
51. During intravenous Cholecystography, a d. midway between the mid-coronal plane
contrast media is injected into the circulatory and posterior surface of the abdomen
system to demonstrate the:
a. liver 58. During myelography, contrast medium is
b. pancreas introduced into the:
c. spleen a. subdural space
 b. subarachnoid space c. ASIS
c. epidural space d. coccygeal tip
d. epidermal space
65. Type of pelvis that has the best chances for
59. Which of the following is the correct giving normal delivery at birth:
examination schedule sequence: a. anthropoid
a. UGIS,BE,IVP b. android
b. BE,UGIS,IVP c. gynecoid
c. IVP, BE, UGIS d. platypoid
d. IVP,UGIS, BE
66. Double contrast study of the stomach or large
60. Which of the following is the correct sequence bowel are performed to better visualize the:
of events when performing a double-contrast a. position of the organ
upper GI Series: b. size and shape of the organ
a. patient given a gas producing substance, c. diverticula
then small amount of high density barium, d. gastric and bowel mucosa
then place recumbent
b. patient recumbent, give a small amount of 67. Which of the following examination require(s)
high density barium, then a gas producing special identification markers in addition to the
substance usual patient name
c. patient given a gas producing substance, and number, date and side marker:
placed recumbent, then give a small 1. IVP
amount of high density barium 2. Tomography
d. patient given a small amount of high density 3. Abdominal Survey
barium, placed recumbent, then given a gas a. 1 only
producing substance b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
61. An intrathecal injection is associated with d. 1,2 and 3
which of the following examinations:
a. IVP 68. During Intravenous (IV) Urography, the prone
b. Retrograde Pyelography position is generally recommended to
c. Myelography demonstrate:
d. Arthrography 1. filling of obstructed ureters
2. the renal pelves
62. All of the following statements regarding large 3. the superior calyces
bowel radiography are true, EXCEPT: a. 1 only
a. the large bowel must be completely empty b. 1 and 2 only
prior to examination c. 1 and 3 only
b. retained fecal material can simulate d. 1,2 and 3
pathology
c. single contrast studies help demonstrate
polyps
d. double contrast studies help demonstrate 69. Myelography is the diagnostic examination
intraluminal lesions used to demonstrate:
1. extrinsic spinal cord compression
63. Special radiographic examination of the tear resulting from disk herniation
ducts after introduction of positive contrast media: 2. post-traumatic swelling of the spinal
a. galactography cord
b. dacryocystography 3. internal disk lesion
c. nasopharyngography a. 1 only
d. sialography b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
64. To take Hysterosalphingography, the film is d. 1,2 and 3
centered at:
a. symphisis pubis
b. symphisis menti
70. Which of the following positions will most
effectively move the gallbladder away from the 77. In myelography, the contrast medium is
vertebrae in the asthenic patient: generally injected into the:
a. LAO a. cisterna magna
b. RAO b. individual intervertebral discs
c. LPO c. subarachnoid space between the first
d. ERECT and second lumbar vertebra
d. subarachnoid space between the third
71. A contraindication for the use of Barium and fourth lumbar vertebra
Sulfate in GI radiography is:
a. cirrhosis 78. Which of the following conditions is often the
b. perforation of the intestinal tract result of ureteral obstruction or stricture:
c. polyps a. pyelonephritis
d. cancer of the colon b. nephroptosis
c. hydronephrosis
72. When an erect position is requested as part d. cystourethritis
of an IVP, it is used to demonstrate:
a. adrenal glands 79. Following the ingestion of fatty meal, what
b. renal surfaces hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to
c. kidney motility stimulate contraction of the gallbladder:
d. the bladder neck a. insulin
b. cholecystokinin
73. Which of the following examinations involves c. adrenocorticotropic hormone
the introduction of radiopaque contrast medium d. gastrin
through the uterine cannula:
a. retrograde pyelography 80. Which of the following is a major cause of
b. voiding cystourethrogram bowel obstruction in children:
c. hysterosaphingography a. appendicitis
d. myelography b. intussusception
c. regional enteritis
74. Which of the following examinations involves d. ulcerative colitis
the introduction of radiopaque contrast media be
injected into the renal pelvis via catheter laced in 81. Which of the following statement is/are true
the ureter: regarding lower extremity venography:
a. a.nephrotomography 1. the patient is often examined in the semi-
b. retrograde urography erect position
c. cystourethrograhy 2. contrast medium is injected through a
d. IV Urography vein in the foot
3. filming begins at the hip and proceeds
75. Which of the following radiologic inferiorly
examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux: a. 1 only
a. Intravenous Urogram b. 1 and 2 only
b. Retrograde Pyelography c. 1 and 3 only
c. Voiding Cystourethrography d. 1,2 and 3
d. Nephrotomography 82. Which of the following require/s ureteral
catheterization:
76. Prior to start of an Intravenous Urogram, 1. Retrograde Pyelogram
which of the following procedures should be 2. Cystourethrography
carried out: 3. Cystoscopy
1. have patient empty the bladder a. 1 only
2. review the patient’s allergy history b. 1 and 2 only
3. check the patient creatinine level c. 1 and 3 only
a. 1 only d. 1,2 and 3
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 only 83. Which of the following may be determined by
d. 1,2 and 3 ORAL cholecystography:
 a. liver function 90. Which of the following procedures will BEST
b. concentrating ability of the gallbladder to demonstrate the cephalic, basilic and subclavian
concentrate bile veins:
c. emptying power of the gallbladder a. aortofemoral arteriogram
d. pancreatic function b. upper limb venography
c. lower limb venography
84. All of the following are mediastinal structures, d. renal venogram
EXCEPT:
a. esophagus 91. Which of the following Barium filled anatomic
b. thymus structures is best demonstrates in the LAO
c. heart position:
d. terminal bronchiole a. splenic flexures
b. hepatic flexures
85. The structure found at the junction between c. sigmoid colon
the small and large intestine is the: e. ileocecal valve
a. appendix
b. ascending colon 92. A bowel obstruction that occurs when the
c. sigmoid colon bowel telescopes into itself is called:
d illeocecal valve a. volvulus
b. Crohns’s disease
86. Shoulder arthrography may be performed to c. intussusception
evaluate: d. fibrous adhesions
a. humeral dislocation
b. complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears 93. A radiographic method of demonstrating
c. osteoarthritis certain anatomical features which lack contrast
d. acromio-clavicular joints separations with surrounding structures by instillation of
substance to produce structural contrast, those
87. Peripheral lymphatic vessels are located vascular and nervous system:
using: a. special procedures
b. interventional radiology
a. ethiodized salt c. digital subtraction radiography
b. blue dye d. tomography
c. tiny scalpel
d. water-soluble CM 94. Any selective catheter or needle technique
used for diagnosis and treatment of disease,
88. Indications for a myelographic cervical intervenes or interferes with course of disease
puncture includes: process or other medical condition:
1. demonstrate of the upper level of a a. special procedures
spinal block b. interventional radiology
2. suspected mass lesion in the upper c. digital subtraction radiography
cervical canal d. tomography
3. failure of the lumbar puncture

a. 1 and 2 only 95. The medical term used to describe the

b. 1 and 3 only expectorant of blood is:
c. 2 and 3 only a. hemoptysis
d. 1,2, and 3 b. hematemesis
c. hematuria
89. The contrast media of choice for use in d. epistaxis
myelography is:
a. ionic non-water soluble 96. What is the appropriate action if a patient has
b. ionic water soluble signed consent for a procedure, but, once on the
c. non-ionic water soluble radiographic table, refuses the procedures:
d. gas a. proceed- the consent formed was singed
b. send the patient back to his or her room
 c. honor the patients request and proceed
with the next patient
d. immediately stop the procedure and
inform the radiologist and the referring
physician of the patient’s request

97. In what order should the following

examinations be performed:
1. UGIS
2. IVP
3. BE
a. 3,1 and 2
b. 1,3 and 2
c. 2,1 and 3
d. 2,3 and 1

98.In gastro-intestinal tract examination of the

infant, how should the contrast medium be
administered:
a. spoon
b. nursing bottle
c. syringe
d. eye dropper

99. A radiolucent contrast agent:

1. absorbs a high number of x-ray
photons
2. causes anatomy to appear dark on
the radiograph
3. is composed of elements of low
atomic numbers
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

100. Two types of contrast media used to opacify

the gastro-intestinal tract:
a. water soluble and meglumine
b. barium sulfate suspension and powder
c. barium sulfate suspension and water
soluble
d. water soluble and diatrozoate