St.

George’s college
FORM 4: PHYSICS
MID YEAR EXAM JULY 2023
Time: 45 minutes Total marks:40
Instructions:
1. This paper consists of 14 pages.

2. This paper consists of 40 multiple choice questions, with a sub-total of 40

marks.

3. Answer these questions on the attached answer grid.

4. Select only one option per question.

5. Calculators may be used.

6. The attached BLANK PAGE may be used for working out, if needed, although
calculations need not be shown.

7. g = 9.8 N/kg OR 9.8 m/s2

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
(Each question is worth ONE mark)
1. An object is travelling in a straight line. The diagram is the speed-time graph
for the object. At which labelled point is the object accelerating at a changing
rate?

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2. A skydiver jumps from a stationary helicopter and reaches a steady vertical
speed. She then opens her parachute. Which statement about the falling
skydiver is correct?

A. As her parachute opens, her acceleration is upwards.

B. As she falls at a steady speed with her parachute open, her weight is zero.
C. When she accelerates, the resultant force on her is zero.
D. When she falls at a steady speed, air resistance is zero.

3. A car moves in a circular path as it turns a corner on a horizontal road. The

car moves at constant speed.

Which description of the forces

acting on the car is correct?

A. All the forces are balanced as

the car is moving at constant speed.
B. The forces are unbalanced and
the resultant force acts away from
the centre of the circle.
C. The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force acts towards the centre
of the circle.
D. The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force is in the direction of
travel of the car.

4. A moving body undergoes a change of momentum. What is a unit for change

of momentum?

A. Nm B. N/m C. Ns D. N/s

5. A metal has a specific heat capacity of 360J /(kg°C). An object made of this
metal has a mass of 2.0kg. What is the thermal capacity (heat capacity) of the
object?

A. 180J /°C B. 180J / kg C. 720J /°C D. 720J / kg

6. In which type of substance are free electrons involved in the transfer of

thermal energy?

A. all liquids B. all solids C. metals only D. plastics only

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7. Four objects, made of the same material and having the same mass, are at
the same temperature. The objects have different surfaces and different
surface areas. Which object emits infra-red radiation at the greatest rate?

8. A person uses a surfboard to ride every 30th wave crest towards the beach.
The wave crest travels at a speed of 1.6m/ s and the distance between each
wave crest is 24m. How many wave crests does the person surf in one hour?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 8 D. 450

9. Light passes along an optical fibre. What happens to the light within the fibre?

A. diffraction B. dispersion C. refraction D. total internal reflection

10. The points labelled F are the principal foci of a lens. A beam of parallel light is
incident on the lens. Which diagram shows the path of the light after it passes
through the lens?

11. Which statement about sound waves is correct?

A. They are able to travel through a vacuum.

B. They are able to travel through solids.
C. They are transverse waves.
D. They travel at the same speed in all substances.

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12. Which statement about ultrasound is correct?

A. It is produced by a rapidly vibrating source.

B. It is uncomfortable to human ears.
C. Its frequency must be greater than 300kHz.
D. It travels the fastest in a vacuum.

13. The diagrams represent four copper wires. Which wire has the greatest
resistance?

14. An air-conditioning unit, a lamp and an electric fire all receive electrical energy
from the mains supply. From which of these devices is all this energy
eventually transferred to the surroundings?

15. Four circuits are set up. In which circuit does the ammeter show the greatest
reading?

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16. The diagram shows a simple transformer with an input of 240V and an output
of 40V. There are 600 turns on the primary coil.

How many turns are there on the secondary coil?

A. 100 B. 320 C. 400 D. 3 600

17. The diagram shows a current-carrying wire. The wire is at 90° to a magnetic
field. The direction of the magnetic field is into the page.

A force acts on the wire due to the current and the magnetic field. In which
direction does the force act?

A. into the page C. towards the bottom of the diagram

B. out of the page D. towards the top of the diagram

18. A student determines the average speed of a bubble

rising through a liquid at constant speed.
When the student starts the stopwatch the bubble
is at position P.
After 2.0 s the bubble is at position Q.
What is the speed of the bubble between P and Q?

A. 3.2 cm/s
B. 3.7 cm/s
C. 6.4 cm/s
D. 7.4 cm/s

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19. The diagram shows the speed-time graph for a toy car travelling in a straight
line.
What is the acceleration of the car during the first two seconds and what is the
total distance that it travels?

20. A spring that obeys Hooke’s Law has an un-stretched length of 10 cm. A load
of 20N is hung from the spring. The new length of the spring is 36 cm. What is
the spring constant k of the spring?

A. 0.56N/cm B. 0.77N/cm C. 1.3N/cm D. 1.8N/cm

21. The diagram shows a wooden beam of weight 20N. The centre of mass of the
beam is labelled M. There is a pivot at one end of the beam. The beam is kept
horizontal by an upward force, F

What is the magnitude of F?

A.12N B. 20N C. 30N D. 33N

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22. A ball of mass 2.0 kg is travelling at a speed of 12m / s. It moves towards an
object of mass 3.0kg which is at rest.

The ball hits the object and sticks to it. Which row gives the total momentum,
and the speed of both objects immediately after the collision?

23. An object falls from a height of 5.0 m. Air resistance can be ignored. As it hits
the ground the object has 750 J of kinetic energy.
What is its mass?

A. 15 kg B. 50 kg C. 75 kg D. 150 kg

24. An electric generator produces an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 200V and

produces a current of 3.0A in a circuit. The generator is driven by an engine
with a power of 2.4 kW.
What is the efficiency of the generator?

A. 2.8% B. 25% C. 28% D. 36%

25. A student blows air through a liquid using a straw. This causes the liquid to
evaporate quickly and therefore to cool.
Which statement explains why the remaining liquid cools?

A. Slower-moving molecules are carried away by the air bubbles.

B. The air molecules conduct heat from the liquid.
C. The air sets up convection currents in the liquid.
D. The molecules with most energy leave the liquid.

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26. A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly
around the join. The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and
the paper goes brown on one side only.
Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?

27. Different waves hit barriers with different sized gaps. The waves will diffract.
In which diagram does the greatest spreading occur?

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28. Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through
a prism?

29. A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts
the alarm so that it produces a louder note of a higher pitch. What effect does
this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?

30. A student demagnetises a magnetised steel bar. He places the bar in a

solenoid connected to a power supply. He then removes the bar from the
solenoid. Which row indicates the most effective way of demagnetising the
bar?

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31. Four circuits each contain a 6V battery, a diode, an ammeter and a lamp.
None of the components is faulty.
Which circuit shows a possible ammeter reading?

32. A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is

moved from R to S?

A. It decreases from 12V to 0V.

B. It increases from 0V to 12V.
C. It remains at 0V.
D. It remains at 12V

33. The diagram shows an electric circuit.

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the LDR?

A. 4.0V B. 8.0V C. 25V D. 50V

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34. What is the purpose of a relay?

A. to change a large voltage into a small voltage

B. to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C. to use a large current to switch on a small current
D. to use a small current to switch on a large current

35. Which device uses a split-ring commutator?

A. a d.c. motor C. a transformer

B. a relay D. an a.c. generator

36. The diagram shows an incomplete scale drawing to find the resultant of two
10 N forces acting at a point in the directions shown.

What is the magnitude of the resultant force?

A. 7.5N B. 8.6N C. 18N D. 20N

37. A car, starting from rest at position X, accelerates up a hill. The car reaches a
speed of 10 m/s at position Y. The kinetic energy of the car at position Y is
equal to its gain in gravitational potential energy from X to Y.

Take the gravitational field strength g to be 9.8 N/ kg.

What is the gain in height of the car between X and Y?

A. 0.51 m B. 5.1 m C. 9.8 m D. 51 m

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38. Water at a depth of 10 m exerts a pressure equal to atmospheric pressure
(1 atm). An air bubble rises to the surface of a lake which is 20 m deep. When
the bubble reaches the surface its volume is 6 cm3. What was its volume at
the bottom of the lake?

A. 2 cm3 B. 3 cm3 C. 12 cm3 D. 18 cm3

39. Objects of different weights are placed on a rigid, horizontal surface. Which
row shows the correct pressure acting on the surface?

Weight /N Area in contact Pressure / Pa

m2

A. 10 0.1 1

B. 20 0.2 0.01

C. 30 0.1 300

D. 40 0.2 8

40. Light travels in a vacuum and then enters a glass block. The speed of the light
in the glass block is 2.0 × 108 m/s. Which statement about the speed of light is
correct?

A. The speed in a vacuum is 1.5 times the speed in the glass.

B. The speed in the glass is the same as the speed in a vacuum.
C. The speed in the glass is 1.5 times the speed in a vacuum.
D. The speed in the glass is 1.0 × 108 times the speed in a vacuum

Total: 40 marks

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BLANK PAGE

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWER GRID for SECTION A

(This sheet may be detached, but MUST be handed in with the rest of the question
paper.)

NAME………………………………………………………………… FORM 4 SET………

Instructions: Place an ‘X’ in the box corresponding to the correct answer.

Select only one answer per question.

1 A B C D 21 A B C D
2 A B C D 22 A B C D
3 A B C D 23 A B C D
4 A B C D 24 A B C D
5 A B C D 25 A B C D
6 A B C D 26 A B C D
7 A B C D 27 A B C D
8 A B C D 28 A B C D
9 A B C D 29 A B C D
10 A B C D 30 A B C D
11 A B C D 31 A B C D
12 A B C D 32 A B C D
13 A B C D 33 A B C D
14 A B C D 34 A B C D
15 A B C D 35 A B C D
16 A B C D 36 A B C D
17 A B C D 37 A B C D
18 A B C D 38 A B C D
19 A B C D 39 A B C D
20 A B C D 40 A B C D

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