ENGLISH PRACTICE 43

PART I PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following question
1. A. exchange B. technology C. mischievious D. challenge
2. A. finished B. declared C. linked D. developed
3. A. accept B. succeed C. account D. accident
4. A. compulsory B. curriculum C. substantial D. supportive
5. A. committed B. daunted C. confided D. installed
6. A. much B. autumn C. sunny D. summer
7. A. dedicated B. hatched C. stopped D. influenced
8. A. spectrum B. special C. species D. specify
9. A. wrong B. two C. windy D. wrist
10. A. picked B. naked C. booked D. worked
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D).
1. He's really shy _______ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
2. The teacher _______ her to improve her drawing.
A. insisted B. encouraged C. made D. persisted
3. I couldn't quite ______ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
4. The meal Mary cooked tastes_______.
A. well B. nice C. good D. worse
5. ______ at the party, we saw Ruth standing alone.
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
6. The people who______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
7. The judge found him ______ of stealing and sent him to prison.
A. evil B. innocent C. guilty D. wicked
8. The house we have rented is______. So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc.
A. unrestored B. unrepaired C. unfurnished D. undecorated
9. He was turned down for the job because he is ________.
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification
10. The trouble started only______ the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
11. _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
12. _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who C. Only who were those D. Only were those who
13. Traveling alone to a jungle is adventurous, ________.
A. if not impossible B. if it not impossible
C. when not impossible D. when it not impossible
14. I ______ the hot weather in the south.
A. use to B. used to C. am use to D. am used to
15. The meat looked very _______ to the dog.
A. invited B. invite C. inviting D. invitingly
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces.
The mysteries of the skies
Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the
amazingly beautiful surface of the moon from close quarters, Galileo’s newly built
telescope (1) _________ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. 1. ABLE
He saw that the apparently (2) _________ surface was not divinely smooth and 2. LIVE
round, but bumpy and imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear
(3) _______, resembling a still life painted by the hand of a cosmic (4) 3. ACT
____________, it was a real world, perhaps not very different from our own. This 4. ART
amounted to a great (5) _________ hardly to be expected in his day and age, 5. ACHIEVE
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 although nowadays his (6) _________ may appear to some to be trivial and (7) 6. CONCLUDE
_____________. 7. SIGNIFY
Not long after Galileo lunar’s observations, the skies which had previously been so
(8) _____________ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around 8. ELUDE
for further wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9) _____________ planet of 9. STRIKE
Jupiter. Nestling next to it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant planet.
Our moon it appeared, perhaps (10) ____________ in the eyes of those fearful of 10. FORTUNE
what the discovery might mean, was not alone!
III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn’t be there. Tick (√) the sentences
that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space.
KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to keep between 0 ___√___
ourselves and other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close that 00 someone
we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If such a business colleague comes closer than 1________
1.2 meters, the most common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have 2 ________
been done in libraries. If strangers will come too close, many people get up and leave 3 __√____
the building, others use to different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. 4 ________
Living in cities has made people to develop new skills for dealing with situations where 5 ________
they are very close to strangers. Most people on so crowded trains try not to look at 6 ________
strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by a mistake. People 7 ___√___
use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not 8 ________
have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s 9 ________
eyes. 10 __√___
PART III. READING
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers have come up a number
of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in other words, happiness
(1)_______ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly with the main dimensions of personalities:
extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In particular, friends are a
great (2) ______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way friends
use positive non-verbal (3) ______ such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage and similar
(4) ______ relationships can also form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5) ______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is why some
people are happy in boring jobs: it (6) ______ both ways. Job satisfaction is caused not only by the essential nature
of the work, but (7)_____ by social interactions with co-workers. Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a serious
cause of unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8) ______ than most other causes of
happiness. Activities (9) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various
kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (10) ______themselves, but also because of the social support
of other group members – it is very strong in the case of religious groups.
1. A. runs B. arrives C. goes D. descends
2. A. source B. origin C. base D. meaning
3. A. movements B. signals C. slogans D. motions
4. A. near B. tight C. close D. heavy
5. A. consists of B. applies to C. counts on D. contributes to
6. A. works B. effects C. makes D. turns
7. A. too B. as well C. also D. plus
8. A. check B. power C. choice D. control
9. A. so B. such C. like D. thus
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option.
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause disease in animals. In addition,
man can catch the disease from animals. In fact, a greater numbers of wild birds seem to carry the virus without
showing any evidences of illness. Some scientists conclude that a large family of influenza virus may have evolved

2
in the bird kingdom, a group that has been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the virus without contracting
the disease. There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from place to place and from
continent to continent by migrating birds.
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal at the same time.
The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing different H and N spikes. This raises the
possibility that a human influenza virus can recombine with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an
entirely new spike. Research is underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into being. Another
possibility is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to produce a new strain which
is transmitted to man.
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses ______.
A. cause ill health in wild animals B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
C. are rarely present in wild birds D. change when transmitted from animals to man
2. What is known about the influenza virus?
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds. B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago. D. It can survive in many different places.
3. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______.
A. H and N spikes are produced B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine D. two viruses of the same type are contracted
4. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______.
A. a type of wild pig B. diseased lower animals
C. a group of migrating birds D. a variety of means
5. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains of influenza
EXCEPT_______.
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining
B. animal viruses recombining with human viruses
C. two animal viruses recombining
D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D.
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches of the land. Some
were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight as pillars. Others were the size of
bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along
the edges of swampy lagoons where giant amphibians swam.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or seeds. Others had
only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction and produced seeds. Although their
“flowers” did not have corollas, these false ferns (today completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants.
Traces of these floras of the earliest times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly
found in shale and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species that grow there
are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast numbers, and the great size of some,
remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life
2. The word “Others” refers to _________.
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
B. They varied greatly in size.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
4. The word “true” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. accurate B. genuine C. straight D. dependable
5. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between deposits of _______.
A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
IV. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word.
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s, several (1) ______ sports
developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2) ______ them were water football (or soccer), water rugby, water
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handball, and water polo, in which players rode on floating barrels, painted to look (3) ______ horses, and struck
the ball with a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name became attached to it,
and it's been attached (4) ______ since.
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both (5) ______, at the
goal end of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on any opponent who was about to score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) ______ underwater fights away from the ball, and
it wasn't unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also replaced (7) ______
original small, hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8) ______ that prohibited taking the ball under the
surface or, "tackling" a player unless he had the ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) ______ work, spread to England
during the early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894, to France in 1895, and (10) ______
Belgium in 1900.
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900.
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)
3. I really want to see her again. (DYING)
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)
5. We are looking forward to watching the program. (WAIT)
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
1. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
→ Were you____________
2. I'd rather not go out this afternoon.
→ I do not feel__________
3. Adeles tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
→ However____________
4. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
→ The boss____________
5. His disabilities did not prevent him from sailing around the world.
→ Despite the fact______
6. I didn't arrive in time to see her.
→ I wasn't____________
7. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
→ I'd rather___________
8. The mother smiled happily. She took the baby in her arms.
→ Smiling____________
9. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
→ It was not __________
10. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
→ Should ____________

-------------------------------THE END---------------------------------

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 44
PART A PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following question
1. A. plays B. works C. lives D. buys
2. A. frogs B. villagers C. fields D. insects
3. A. page B. village C. damage D. luggage
4. A. safety B. ready C. entry D. occupy
5. A. league B. equal C. creature D. menace
6. A. food B. school C. root D. wood
7. A. facility B. society C. necessity D. economy
8. A. stamped B. indulged C. accomplished D. practised
9. A. friends B. clubs C. tunes D. stamps
10. A. nowadays B. ruins C. pesticides D. dykes

PART B: LEXICO - GRAMMAR

I. Choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C, or D) to complete each sentence
below. Identify your answers by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet.

1. The park __________ hundreds of species of endangered animals.

A. contains B. consists C. composes D. holds
2. It’s 4 miles further if you don’t take the __________ cut.
A. narrow B. by C. short D. half
3. There are fast-growing __________ of fir tree here in this park.
A. varieties B. variances C. variants D. variations
4. “What are you doing?”
A. No B. Neither C. None D. Nothing
5. I like listen to sweet __________ in my free time.
A. guitar B. ballads C. pops D. jazz
6. These pills will __________ your pain.
A. prevent B. ease C. simplify D. avoid
7. He was a(n) __________ man who was determined to be rich by any means.
A. ambitious B. mature C. brilliant D. romantic
8. She study hard and got a degree with __________ colors.
A. scarlet B. red C. soaring D. flying
9. The old manager has just retired, so Jack takes __________ his position.
A. on B. out C. in D. up
10. It is __________ for you to stay in New York with just a few dollars in your pocket.
A. incapable B. unable C. impossible D. irresponsible

II. Put the words in capitals in the right forms.

SCHOOL REPORT
Margaret started English Literature this term, and I am afraid that her
(1)__________ to the subject has not been entirely (2)__________. She has 1. INTRODUCE
not shown much enthusiasm, and does not always pay (3)__________ in 2. SUCCESS
class. Her assignments are often (4)__________, because she is so untidy, 3. ATTEND
and because of her (5)__________ to check her work thoroughly. She failed 4. READ
to do any (6)__________ before the end of term test, and had poor results. 5. FAIL
She seems to have the (7)__________ idea that she can succeed without 6. REVISE
studying. She has also had many (8)__________ and has frequently arrived 7. MISTAKE
late for class. This has resulted in several (9)__________. Although 8. ABSENT
Margaret is a (10)__________ student in some respects, she has not had a 9. PUNISH
satisfactory term. 10. GIFT

III. Look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there.
Tick each correct line. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in the space.
Supermarkets

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 The every time I go to a supermarket I ask myself why 0 ………the……………
I go shopping there so often. Last time I ended up 00 …………√ ….……..
buying all the kinds of things when the all I really 1 ……………………….
wanted was a packet of rice and a small loaf, but 2 ……………………….
could find neither of them. I looked in every one 3 ……………………….
corner of the shop but there was simply no a sign of 4 ……………………….
these products. I looked carefully on either side of the 5 ……………………….
aisles but it was no any good. I ought to confess here 6 ……………………….
that I had forgotten my glasses! All of I could see was 7 ……………………….
rows of colorful shapes of all sizes. I decided to ask 8 ……………………….
an assistant. They were all a busy of course and none 9 ……………………….
of them was anywhere nearby in any case. Meanwhile 10 ………………………
I had been filling my basket with all the kinds of 11 ………………………
things I thought I wanted. After I had paid, I had no 12 ………………………
money left for the weekend, but I hadn’t bought either 13 ………………………
of the things I wanted! 14 ………………………
15 ………………………
PART C: READING
I. Complete the following passage by filling in each blank with the correct answer. Identify your
choice by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
SPORT IN PRISON
For all the arguments about prison, there is no getting (1)__________ from the fact that it exists. Once the judge and
(2)__________ have done their job, we have to (3)__________ thousands of men and women occupied until they
are (4)__________.
Sport is ideal (5)__________ prisoners for many reasons. Being (6)__________ punishes people by taking away
their freedom; just because someone gets in (7)__________ with the law, we have no (8)__________ to take away
their health as well. Secondly, the (9)__________ that you feel when you are (10)__________ up for a long prison
(11)__________ can make you very anti-social and aggressive. The (12)__________ thing we want is for people to
come out (13)__________ ten years, or even ten months, and (14)__________up the first person they see. Sport
provides a way of controlling that (15) __________.
1. A. away B. out C. back D. far
2. A. panel B. team C. jury D. board
3. A. hold B. store C. preserve D. keep
4. A. abandoned B. remanded C. released D. charged
5. A. to B. for C. in D. with
6. A. inwards B. indoors C. internal D. inside
7. A. mess B. trouble C. worry D. trial
8. A. right B. fairness C. justice D. demand
9. A. uniqueness B. remoteness C. isolation D. individuality
10. A. keyed B. broken C. closed D. locked
11. A. contract B. experience C. sentence D. course
12. A. best B. last C. final D. terminal
13. A. after B. before C. during D. over
14. A. hit B. beat C. mug D. fight
15. A. crime B. guilt C. assault D. violence

II. Read the passages below and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet.
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches of the land. Some
were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight as pillars. Others were the size of
bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along
the edges of swampy lagoons where giant amphibians swan.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or seeds. Others had
only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction and produced seeds. Although their
“flowers” did not have corollas, these false ferns (today completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants.
Traces of these flora of the earliest times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly
found in shale and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
7
 Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species that grow there
are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast numbers, and the great size of some,
remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life
2. The word “others” in bold refers to
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
B. They varied greatly in size.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
4. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between
deposits of
A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
5. The word “bear” in bold could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. call for B. provide C. tolerate D. suffer

III. Read the passages below and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D.
Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet.
Most of us tend to think of production when we think of mass media industries. After all, it is the output of
this production – the papers we read, the cable TV shows we watch – that grab our attention, make us happy or
angry, interested or bored. Moreover, most public discussion about mass communication tends to be about
production. The latest gossip about that actor will be in what film, the angry comments a mayor makes about the
violence on local TV news, the newest CDs by an up-and-coming group – these are the kinds of topics that focus
our attention on the making of content, not its distribution or exhibition.
Media executives know, however, that production is only one step in the arduous and risky process of getting
a mass media idea to an audience. Distribution is the delivery of the produced material to the point where it will be
shown to its intended audience. The activity takes place out of public view. We have already mentioned the NBC
acts as a distributor when it disseminates television programming via satellite to TV stations. When Philadelphia
Newspapers Inc. delivers its Philadelphia Inquirer to city newsstands, when Twentieth – Century – Fox moves its
Musicland stores, they are involved in distribution to exhibitions.
1. In this passage, “arduous” means________.
A. difficult B. lucrative C. lengthy D. free
2. The passage states that people tend to focus on production because _______.
A. it takes place out of public view
B. mass media companies do not own production divisions
C. the output of mass media is intended to grab our attention
D. companies can function as both producers and distributors
3. In this passage, to “disseminate” means to _______.
A. create B. send out C. take in D. fertilize
4. This passage states that distribution is_______.
A. the first step in mass media production
B. the most talked-about step in mass media production
C. at least as important as production
D. not as important as exhibition
5. The author’s purpose in writing this passage is to ________.
A. tell an interesting story B. define a concept clearly
C. describe a scene vividly D. argue with the reader

IV. WRITING

I. Rewrite the following sentences using the given words so that they have the same meaning as the
given sentences. Do not change the words given in any way.

1. Be careful of thieves if you go to that part of town. (Watch)

8
 _____________________________________________________________________________
2. Please behave in my house as you would in your own house. (make)
_____________________________________________________________________________
3. Nobody helped me to build this. (own)
_____________________________________________________________________________
4. I don’t really like this kind of music. (keen)
_____________________________________________________________________________
5. Most university students need the financial support of their parents. (depend)
_____________________________________________________________________________
II. Wring a topic

“There are some advantages and disadvantages of the cinema. ”

Do you agree with this statement? Write an essay about 250 – 300 words to an educated non – specialist audience
on this topic. You should give reasons for your answers and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge and experience.

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 Keys – practice 44
PART A PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following question
1. A. plays B. works C. lives D. buys
2. A. frogs B. villagers C. fields D. insects
3. A. page B. village C. damage D. luggage
4. A. safety B. ready C. entry D. occupy
5. A. league B. equal C. creature D. menace
6. A. food B. school C. root D. wood
7. A. facility B. society C. necessity D. economy
8. A. stamped B. indulged C. accomplished D. practised
9. A. friends B. clubs C. tunes D. stamps
10. A. nowadays B. ruins C. pesticides D. dykes
PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 2.5 point
I. 10 pts: 1 pt/item
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. C
II. 10pts: 1pt/ item
1. introduction 3. attention 5. failure 7. mistaken 9. punishments
2. successful 4. unreadable 6. revision 8. absences 10. gifted
III. 15 pts: 1pt/item
1. the 4. one 7. any 10. a 13. the
2. the 5. a 8. of 11. √ 14. √
3. √ 6. √ 9. √ 12. √ 15. the
PART C. READING
I. 15 point: 1 pt/item
1.A 4. C 7. B 10. D 13. A
2. B 5.B 8. A 11. C 14. B
3. D 6. D 9. C 12. B 15. D
II. 5 points: 1 pt/ item
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B
III. 5 points: 1 pt /item
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. B
PART D.
I. 5 points: 1pt/ item
1. Watch thieves if you go to that part of town.
2. Please make yourself at home.
3. I built this on my own.
4. I’m not really keen on this kind of music.
5 Most university students depend on the financial support of their parents.
II. 20 points
The candidate’s essay should include the following points:
- The writing passage should be well-organized: introduction, body and ending of the passage: 2.5 pts
- The ideas should be clarified with relevant and specific examples: 12.5 pts
- The writing passage is supposed to be free of grammatical and spelling errors: 5.0 pts

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 45
SECTIONI–PHONETICS
I.Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.( 5p)
1.A.several B. suppose C. decisive D. sister
2.A. muddle B. struggle C. bush D. interrupt
3.A. ready B. measure C. steak D. stealth
4.A. wind B. behind C. mind D. find
5.A.chalice B. challenge C. choice D. chemist
II. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently from that of the other words.(5p)
1.A. application B. certificate C. biology D. security
2. A. university B. punctuality C. agricultural D.mathematician
3. A. identify B. secondary C. luxuriously D. majority
4. A. academic B. engineering C. availabe D.sympathetic
5.A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
SECTION II- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option ( A, B, C or D) to complete sentence below and write your answers in the answer
sheet.( 10p)
1. She refused to eat meat under any ………………… .
A. circumstances B. occasion C. opportunity D. reason
2. It was difficult to guess what he ……………. to the news would be.
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
3. Though badly damaged by fire, the palace was eventually …… to its original splendour.
A. repaired B. renewed C. restored D. renovated
4. He didn’t know anyone at the wedding ………….. than the bride and the groom.
A. except B. other C. apart D. rather
5. When you are an old age pensioner, you have to learn to ………… a very small income.
A. live on B. live up to C. live out D. live down
6. I felt so much better, my doctor ………….. me to take a holiday by the sea.
A. suggested B. considered C. accepted D. advised
7. He said that the plane had already left and that I …………….. arrived an hour earlier.
A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to
8. Alice didn’t expect ……………. to Bill’s party.
A. to ask B. being asked C. to be asked D. asking
9.The restaurants on the island are expensive, so it’s worth ……………… a packed lunch.
A. take B. to take C. taking D. taken
10. When the alarm went off, Mick just turned ………..…. and went back to sleep.
A. down B. over C. up D. out
II.Put the verb in brackets into the correct tense.( 10p)
1.When he ( not arrive) ……….. by 6.00, I ( know) ………. He ( miss) ………… the bus.
2. Something ( tell) ………….. me that you ( not listen) …………… to a single word I (say) ……….. in the past
tense minutes.
3. Same ( not receive) ……………..…… the parcel the last time I ( speak) …………….. to him.
4. When you ( feel) ……….… hungry, room service ( bring) ………….. you whatever you want.
III. Give the correct forms of the words in brackets to complete the blank space. ( 10p)
1.The judges describe Jones as a ….. criminal who was a danger to members of the public. HARD
2. Rescue team held out little hope of finding other …………. SURVIVE
3. He works for UNESCO in a purely ………….. role. ADVICE
4. …………… of the new system will take several days. INSTALL
5. This type of behaviour is no longer …………. acceptable. SOCIETY
6. Watching television can be very …………….. EDUCATION
7. Teachers must keep a record of students’ ……………….. ATTEND
8. Our school set up a project to ……………. the library system. COMPUTER
9.The breakdown of the negotiations was not ……………….. EXPECT
10. Those countries are ……. on other countries for most of their food. DEPEND
IV. Fill in each gap with a suitable preposition. (10 points)
1.……………… behalf of the department I would like to thank you all.
11
2. Many people expressed a strong preference …………. the original plan.
3. They were refused entrance ………… the exhibition .
4. He graduated …………….. York with a degree in Psychology.
5. We had an argument ………….. the waiter about the bill.
6. She complimented him ………….. his exellent German.
7. She sacrificed everything ……………. her children.
8. Sit down and make yourself ……………. home.
9. He works away …………… home during the week.
10. The searchers spread ………….. to over the area faster.
SECTION III – READING
I.Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions below.(10p)
Traditionally the United States has been described as a melting pot, a place where the previous identities of
each immigrant group are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform society. Since the 1960s, many
Americans have rejected the melting pot metaphor in favour of the image of the mosaic, a picture created by
assembling many small stones or tiles. In a mosaic, each peace retains its own distinctive identity, while
contributing to a larger design. Advocates of the mosaic metaphor assert that it better represents the diverse
multicultural society of the United States. Today, may Americans value their immigrant heritage as an important
part of their identity. More recent immigrant groups from Asia, such as Vietnamese Americans and Korean
Americans, have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of European immigrants,
such as French Americans, German Americans, Irish Americans and Italian Americans.
1.Why has the United States often been described as a melting pot?
2. Why have people been in favour of the image of the “ mosaic”?
3. What does the word “mosaic” mean?
4. What have immigrant groups from Asia done to maintain their identity?
5. Name some recent immigrant groups from Asia in the United States?
II.Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space. (10 p)
CAR CATCHES FIRE
Three people jumped ……………( 1) a car on a busy Oxford road after a fire started under the bonnet this morning.
They were just able to rescue their possessions before the car burst into …………..(2). Mr. Peter Collins, 25, of Wey
Road, Berinsfield …………….(3) his Avenger astate car home ………….(4) work with two friends when he noticed
smoke coming into the car. He stopped, …………(5) was unable to open the bonnet. He poured a bottle of water
over the radiator where the smoke was coming from, but could not put out the flames. He then ………… (6) to get
fire extinguishers from a nearby…………(7) , but ………….(8) also failed to have any effect. ……….(9) he
telephoned for a ……..(10) , but by the time it arrived, the car was totally burned out.
1. A. into B. on C. out of D. over
2. A. flames B. petrol C. smoke D. sparks
3. A.drove B. has driven C. was driving D. was driven
4. A. to B. from C. at D. in
5.A. but B. because C. although D. so
6. A. wandered B. jumped C. walked D. ran
7.A. hospital B. garage C.library D. swimming pool
8. A. this B. those C. that D. these
9. A. At length B.Finally C. At the end D. Terminally
10. A. police car B. ambulance C. taxi D. fire engine
III.Read the passage below carefully. Then choose the correct answer: A, B, C or D that best answers the
question about the passage. (5p)
When we were in England last year, I went fishing with my friend, Peter. Early in the morning we were
sitting quietly by the side of the lake when we had an unpleasant surprise. We saw a duck come along with three
ducklings padding cheerfully behind her. As we watched them, there was a sudden swirl in the water. We caught a
glimpse of the vicious jaws of a pike- a fish which is rather like a freshwater shark- and one of the ducklings was
dragged below the surface.
This incident made Peter furious. He vowed to catch the pike. On three successive mornings we returned to
the vicinity and used several different kinds of bait. On the third day Peter was lucky. Using an artificial frog as bait,
he managed to hook the monster. There was a desperate fight but Peter was determined to capture the pike and
succeeded. When he had got it ashore and killed it, he wieghed the fish and found that it scaled nearly thirty pounds-
a record for that district.
1.Why do you think Peter was sitting quietly by the lake ?
12
A. He was watching the ducks. C. He was waiting for the pike to appear.
B. He wasn’t very talkative. D. He was fishing
2. To what does surprise in line 3 probably refer?
A. to the duck. B. to the ducklings. C. to the action of the pike. D. to the time of the day.
3. What were Peter’s feelings about the incident two days later?
A. He caught and killed the pike. C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining ducklings
B. He remained determined to catch the pike.D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike.
4. How much was the pike worth?
A. about thirty pounds. B. about two hundred and forty dollars.
C. the passage contains no information on this point. D. the passage says that the fish scaled nearly thirty
pound.
5. Which of the following titles best sums up the whole passage?
A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings. C. Record pike caught by an angry fisherman.
B. Revenge on a duck. D. Huge pike caught by fisherman after desperate struggle at sea.
Section IV – writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it (5 points).
1. But for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, he would have been stranded there for hours.
- If …………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Let’s invite the Browns to the party on Sunday.
- He suggested ……………………………………………………………………………..
3. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Prime Minister.
- Had it not ..………………………….……………………………………………………….
4. I’ve forgotten that commentator’s name but he’s very well-known.
- That commentator, …………………………………………………………………………..
5. I only recognised him when he came into the light.
- Not until ……………………………….……………………………………………………..
II. Using the word given and other words, complete the sencond sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the
first sentence. (5points)
1.There’s no point in asking George to help. (WORTH)
- It ………………………………………………………….Gerge to help.
2. The last time I saw him was when I lived in London. ( SINCE)
- I …………………………………….. I lived in London.
3. I don’t normally go into town by car. ( USED)
- I ……………………………………………into town by car.
4. Nobody plays this piece as beautifully as he does. (MORE)
- He plays this piece………………………………………………….else.
5. I couldn’t go to work because of the transport strike. ( PREVENTED)
- I ……………………………………………to work by the transport strike.
III. Using the cues below to complete each sentence of the following passage. (5p)
1.Teacher/ Day/ Vietnam/ fall/ twenty/ November/ each year.
........................................................................................................................................................................
2. General/ it / be/ mean/ schoolchildren/ show/ appreciation/ teacher/ who/ guide/ in/ study.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. In / a/ time/ forget/ bad/ experience/ student/ have/ teacher/ scold/ punish.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Students/ give/ teacher/ flower/ small/ gift.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Small/ party/ hold/ and/ there/ be/ atmosphere/ fun/ amusement/ school.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
IV. Writing an essay (10p)
Living in a tranditional family of three or four generations has both advantages and disadvantages. What do you
think of that matter? Write an essay of about 180- 200 words to support your points.

-----------THE END-------------

13
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 46
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. candy B. sandy C. many D. handy
2. A. earning B. learning C. searching D. clearing
3. A. pays B. stays C. says D. plays
4. A. given B. risen C. ridden D. whiten
5. A. cough B. tough C. rough D. enough

II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
6. A. eleven B. elephant C. energy D. envelope
7. A. preparation B. decoration C. television D. exhibition
8. A. leather B. paper C. iron D. ceramics
9. A. mirror B. invent C. wallet D. engine
10. A. discovery B. calculator C. aero-plane D. difficulty

III. Fill each blank with a suitable word or phrase.

11. The car can't have broken down. I_________ serviced last week.
12. If I_________ in that situation, I certainly wouldn't have had the courage to do what you did.
13. Although he had a difficult time during the war, it_________ harm.
14. It's no_________ the cold and wet, you'll just have to put up with it.
15. I won't have_________ their cars in the street outside the entrance to my house!
16. In times of hardship we have to learn to do_________ some basic necessities.
17. I'm_________ death of spiders!
18. I heard the thunder_________ in the distance.
19. He's been_________ weather for ages and still isn't back at work.
20. We made the uniforms ourselves as we couldn't_________ made.

IV. Find one underlined part marked A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.

21. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from America’s present or
past. A B C D
22. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed by long periods
covering by water. A B C D
23. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in flavor.
A B C D
24. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the monarch butterfly,
whom birds do not like to eat. A B C D
25. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way healthier.
A B C D

V. Give the right form of the word in each blanket in the following passage.
From what we had read in the (26. ADVERTISE)________, it promise to be the holiday of a lifetime – not
only a quality hotel in a top (27. SEA)_________ resort, but also (28. SURPRISE)_________ cheap with it! We
should have known it was too good to be true! We arrived at the airport to discover we only had (29.
STAND)_________ tickets and there was no guarantee we would be flying. Luckily, two places became free at the
last minute and we took off. The flight lasted at least (30. TWO)_________ as long as it should have and by the
time we arrived, we were both feeling rather (31. POOR)_________ , probably because of the dubious in-flight meal
we had had. We were met by our guide, who seemed (32. LANGUAGE)_________ incompetent and understood
very little of what we said to him. Instead of the hotel we had seen in the photograph back home, he took us to a
squalid little guesthouse much (33. FAR)_________ away from the resort than we were expecting. We wanted to
explain that there had been a (34. DREAD)_________ mistake but it was (35. USE)_________ trying to complain
– nobody could understand us.

VI. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
36. The child was told to__________ for being rude to his uncle.
A. forgive B. apologize C. excuse D. confess
37. This is the__________ of the bicycle which was stolen.
A. information B. detail C. example D. description
14
38. Some drives, after__________ annoy their fellow-motorists by slowing down again immediately.
A. passing along B. passing by C. overtaking D. taking over
39. It is__________ unlikely that the Queen agree to open the new Town Hall.
A. greatly B. highly C. mainly D. largely
40. I don't think he'll ever__________ the shock of his wife's death.
A. get by B. get over C. get off D. get through
41. Some school have very__________ rules of behavior which must be obeyed.
A. strict B. strong C. straight D. solid
42. It was difficult to__________ a date which was convenient for everyone.
A. organize B. arrange C. elect D. provide
43. It's difficult to pay one's bills when prices keep__________.
A. growing B. raising C. rising D. gaining
44. You may not have to stay the night but take a toothbrush just in__________.
A. preparation B. case C. time D. order
45. She remembered the correct address only__________ she had posted the letter.
A. since B. following C. after D. afterwards

VII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage.
The Internet bus
In the desert areas that surround Tucson city, USA, students spend hundreds of hours on yellow buses each
year getting to and from their schools. But when mobile internet equipment was (46)____________ on a yellow
school bus, the bored, often noisy, teens were transformed into quiet, studious individuals.
District officials got the idea during (47)____________ drives on school business to Phoenix, two hours
each way, when they (48)____________ that, when they went in pairs, one person could drive and the other could
work using a laptop and a wireless card. They (49)____________ if internet access on a school bus could
(50)____________ students’ academic productivity, too.
But the idea for what students call ‘the internet bus’ really took shape when the district’s chief information
officer (51)____________ across an article about having internet across in cars. He thought, “What if you could
put that in a bus?”
The officials have been delighted to see the (52)____________ of homework getting done, morning and
evening, as the internet bus (53)____________ up and drops off students along the 70-minute drive.
(54)____________ some students spend their time playing games or visiting social networking sites, most students
do make (55)____________ their travel time to study.
46. A. installed B. set C. included D. structured
47. A. extraordinary B. occasional C. exceptional D. few
48. A. believed B. acknowledged C. estimated D. realised
49. A. thought B. imagined C. suspected D. wondered
50. A. increase B. enlarge C. rise D. heighten
51. A. got B. looked C. came D. put
52. A. total B. amount C. number D. measure
53. A. brings B. picks C. rides D. catches
54. A. Since B. Despite C. Although D. However
55. A. progress B. work C. use D. part
VIII. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.
TRAVEL INSURANCE
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case something
goes (56)________ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill and need
expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (57)________ will
help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (58)________, travel insurance is a way of earning
money (59)________ making false claims against insurance companies. For (60)________ some people pretend that
they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (61)________ never even existed, and then claim large sums in
compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total (62)________ £ 50 million per year. But the cheats’ luck
is about to run (63)________. (64)________ to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance
(65)________ someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay
through the nose for other people’s dishonesty.

IX. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
15
 A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot
must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of
approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is
exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person
determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves
travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of radio
waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining the time it takes
for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar set and
other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is the
term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots,
radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.
66. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The nature of radar. B. History of radar.
C. Alternatives to radar. D. Types of ranging.
67. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. Shape B. Size C. Speed D. Weight
68. The word “exemplified” in the passage can be replaced by_________.
A. “specified” B. “resembled” C. “illustrated” D. “justified”
69. The word “shouts” in the passage most closely means_________.
A. “exclaims” B. “yells” C. “shoots” D. “whispers”
70. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. explanatory C. humorous D. imaginative
71. According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined by_________.
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce off the object
B. the term “ranging” used for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object
D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set
72. Which type of waves does radar use?
A. tidal B. sound C. heat D. radio
73. The word “tracking” in the passage most closely means_________.
A. sending B. searching for C. ranging D. repairing
74. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. A history of flying. B. Other uses of radar.
C. The technology used by pilots. D. Uses of some technology.
75. What might be inferred about radar?
A. It takes the place of a radio. B. It has improved navigational safety.
C. It was developed from a study of sound waves.
D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.

X. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one, using the word in capital letters which
must not be altered in any way.
76. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)
→ You should ______________________________________.
77. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)
→ There isn’t ______________________________________.
78. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now. (halved)
→ The coal produced _____________________________.
79. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
→ The likelihood __________________________________.
80. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident. (prompt)
→ The policeman’s ________________________________.

XI. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given.
81. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.
→ If it hadn’t _______________________________________________.
82. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
→ There has _______________________________________________.
16
83. The only thing they didn’t steal was the television.
→ They stole _______________________________________________.
84. He didn’t succeeded in searching for the stolen car.
→ He tried in vain _________________________________________.
85. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
→ No sooner _______________________________________________.

XII. Writing an essay.

“Soft-skills are more and more needed for future jobs”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your points.
____________THE END____________

17
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 47
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry
2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D. basin
3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing
4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique
5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur

II. Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line.
6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear
7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate
8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal
9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence
10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally

III. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence.
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _______ of identical products.
A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification
12. Only the _______ of the building is going to be remodeled.
A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _______ to me.
A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _______ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment
15. The assistant suggested _______ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we came back
16. I never get a _______ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce
17. As it was Christmas, the _______ at church was much larger than usual.
A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping
18. The sheep were huddled into a _______ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen
19. The jury _______ the defendant “not guilty”.
A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found
20. Many _______ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _______ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _______ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _______ any solutions.
A. thought over B. come up with C. looked into D. got round to
24. You _______ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
A. must B. would C. should D. might
25. _______ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of the next century.
A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _______ for China.
A. will have left B. have left C. would have left D. will leave
27. Prizes are awarded _______ the number of points scored.
A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according to
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _______ neglected.
A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. pathetically
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _______ over 20 minutes a day.
A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses
30. It had been a trying afternoon, _______ at about six o’clock in the television breaking down.
A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalizing

18
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed (0) has been done as an example.

V. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. (0) has been done as an example.

VI. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested that
human tears are (51)_______ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment we
enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or
uncomfortable. As they (52)_______, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when
they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (53)_______ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since recent
research into tears has shown that they (54)_______ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and
pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (55)_______.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (56)_______ activity. Because some people
still regard it as a (57)_______ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This kind of
repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (58)_______ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them
than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable –
(59)_______ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (60)_______ “weepies”. It seems that
people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.
51. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display
52. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
53. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
54. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
55. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce
56. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
57. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
58. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
59. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard
60. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called
19
VII. Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying
oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned.
The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to
find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the
“Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States, the
preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would
cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint
grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could imagine a
fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the
surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to
the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they
immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy
like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried
right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing
through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped
plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the
melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a
barn cured the cultivated grasses.
61. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States
62. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?
A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story.
D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
63. The word “they” in line 4 refers to________.
A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans
64. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?
A. Many had settled there by the 1860’s.
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
D. It was not discovered until the late 1800’s.
65. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to________.
A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
66. The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to________.
A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required
67. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
B. It had to be imported into the United States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
68. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
69. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather
70. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by________.
A. eating only small quantities of grass.
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil.
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.

VIII. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it
20
71. Customs officials are stopping more travelers than usual this week.
→ An increased_________________________________________________.
72. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
→ Rather _______________________________________________________.
73. My decision to get up and dance coincided with the band’s decision to stop playing.
→ The moment_________________________________________________.
74. He never suspected that the bicycle had been stolen.
→ At no time ___________________________________________________.
75. How could I help, except to offer to lend her some money?
→ Other ________________________________________________________?

IX. Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in such
a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given
word(s).
76. To this day no one has equaled his achievements in the field of technology. (unsurpassed)
→ To this day_________________ in the field of technology.
77. Peter grimaced as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine. (pulled)
→ Peter_________________ the foul-tasting medicine.
78. It’s unfortunately that the construction of the building will not be finished as originally planned.
→ The construction of the building_________________ unfortunate. (longer)
79. What he told me made me very curious to hear the rest of the history. (appetite)
→ What he told me_________________ the story.
80. They chose not to drive because they thought there would be too much snow. (fear)
→ They chose_________________ too much snow.

______________THE END_______________

21
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 48
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words.
1. A. latter B. label C. ladder D. latitude
2. A. pour B. roar C. flour D. soar
3. A. chase B. purchase C. bookcase D. suitcase
4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead
5. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words.
6. A. amphibian B. champagne C. cathedral D. creature
7. A. accommodation B. antibiotic C. counterclockwise D. deforestation
8. A. consciousness B. ecotourism C. biosphere D. confirm
9. A. architectural B. cosmopolitan C. appreciative D. archeologist
10. A. consolidate B. context C. conference D. confidence

III. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.
11. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O’keeffe made New Mexico_________.
A. her permanent residence was B. where her permanent residence
C. permanent residence for her D. her permanent residence
12. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, _________ employed to investigate
the deep sea.
A. can be robots B. robots can be C. can robots D. can robots that are
13. _________ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct. B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct
14. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established _______ 1956.
A. while B. until C. on D. when
15. Drinking water ___________ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel
of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing C. contains D. that contain
16. In the 1820’s physical education became___________ of the curriculum of Harvard and Yale Universities.
A. to be part B. which was part C. was part D part
17. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much
C. so much the better D. so the much better
18. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ____________.
A. otherwise B. therefore C. immediately D. nevertheless
19. Which __________ agency do you work for?
A. ads B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisement
20. Van Gogh suffered from depression ____________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. put through

IV. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT FORMS.
21. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they would have realized that the second
was superior than the first:
22. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the cultivation of rice have been impeded by
recurrent drought.
23. Because the residents had worked so diligent to renovate the old building, the manager had a party.
24. John’s wisdom teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to see about having them pull.
25. Time spends very slowly when you are waiting for a bus to arrive
26. Judy decided to wait until after she had taken her exams before having her wisdom teeth pull.
27. Hardly the plane had landed when Adam realized that he had left the file that he needed at his office.
28. When she was asked for her opinion on the course, she said it had been a waist of time.
29. I try to remember your name but I am afraid I cannot remember it.
30. I’d prefer to do it on myself because other people make me nervous.

V. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE.

22
31. I know ________ experience that I do my best work early in the morning.
32. I am astonished ________ the way my students can spend all night at the disco and still remember their
prepositions next morning.
33. Is it possible to insure yourself ________ nuclear attack?
34. At school today, we had a long discussion _______ the best way to learn a foreign language.
35. “How can I discourage my boyfriend _______ trying to kiss me all the time?” “Eat plenty of garlic.”
36. Raise the gun to your shoulder, aim _______ the target, and try not to kill anyone.
37. Small children should be watched ____________ carefully.
38. Would you give up your country cottage __________ a town flat?
39. He’ll inherit the money when he comes ______________ age.
40. The performance on the first night came ______________ pretty.

VI. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word.

41. (ADAPT)__________ to a new environment is a difficult thing for old people.
42. Police asked (PASS) ______________ if they had seen the accident happen.
43. What a (WORRY) ______________pair of children. They have to be watched every minute of the day.
44. Children are taught from young to be (RESPECT) _____________ to their elders.
45. They frequently (MOBILE) _________________ the traffic as they march through the streets.
46. He shook his head in _____________ (APPROVE)
47. He fought the illness with courage and ________________ (DETERMINE)
48. She seems (REASON) __________happy in her new job.
49. Can we (ARRANGE) _____________the meeting for next Monday at 7?
50. If you weren’t so (ACT)_______________, you wouldn’t be so fat!

VII. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D.
Action scenes in films
Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes, which are
(51)_________ as stunts, are usually performed by stuntmen who are specially trained to do dangerous things safely.
(52) ________ can crash a car, but if you are shooting a film, you have to be extremely (53)_________ sometimes
stopping right in front of the camera and film crew. At an early (54)_________ in the production, an expert stuntman
is (55)_________ in to work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can go
(56)__________ the wishes of the director, although he will usually only do this in the (57)_________ of safety.
Many famous actors like to do the dangerous parts themselves, which produces better shots, since stuntmen don’t
have to (58)________ in for the actors. Actors like to become (59)________ in all the important aspects of the
character they are playing, but without the recent progress in safety equipment, insurance companies would never
let them take the risk. To do their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also be sensible and
know their (60)_________.If they were to be hurt, the film would come to a sudden halt.
51. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named
52. A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No one
53. A. detailed B. plain C. straight D. precise
54. A. period B. minute C. part D. stage
55. A. led B. taken C. drawn D. called
56. A. over B. against C. through D. across
57. A. interests B. needs C. purposes D. regards
58. A. work B. get C. put D. stand
59. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected
60. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders

VIII. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.

THE BIRTH OF THE T-SHIRT
The T-shirt, or at least the T-shirt as we know it, was born in the theatre. When Tennessee William's play A
Streetcar Named Oesire opened in New York in December 1947, a young actor (61)________ Marlon Brando went
(62)________ stage wearing a (63)________ of blue jeans and a bright, white, capped-sleeve T-shirt. It was the first
time the T-shirt had been seen publicly as anything (64)________ an item of underwear and it set a fashion trend
that was to last through (65)________ the end of the century. The idea for the T-shirt came (66)________ Brando
himself. He had worn one at rehearsals for the play. The director was so impressed by the look that was created that
he asked Brando to wear the shirt in the play itself. Brando may have seen the shirt being advertised by the American
23
company Sears Roebuck. They had decided to market the shirt (67)________ a fashionable garment in its
(68)________ right, rather than just something to be worn (69)________ warmth beneath a denim work shirt
(70)________ an army uniform. It was Brando, however, who popularized it, especially with the release of the film
version of Streetcar in 1951. A short leather jacket completed the look that was to be adopted by teenage rebels in
many countries for decades afterwards.

IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have
neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now
number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct. What is alarming about
the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according
to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the
callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals, such as Bengal tiger, as well as other
endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must
be enacted to ensure their survival and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an
effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge
admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world
organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals.
Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered
species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
71. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
72. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first paragraph?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
73. The word “poachers” as used in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. illegal hunters B. enterprising researchers
C. concerned scientists D. trained hunters
74. The word “callousness” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. indirectnessB. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity
75. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast.
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
76. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
77. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
78. The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. lower B. raise C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
79. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
80. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised

X. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.
81. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard.
→ Hard ____________________________________________________.
82. Do all the washing, please!
→ Let ______________________________________________________.
83. I regret not going to the airport to say good bye to him.
→ I wish ___________________________________________________.
84. Mick thought that we were married.
24
 → Mick was under ________________________________________.
85. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect.
→ But for his command __________________________________.

XI. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes. Others blame for
man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three relevant evidences.
_____________THE END____________

25
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 49
A. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer in each of the following questions. (15 pts)
01: They had meals together in the school______.
A. café B. restaurant C. canteen D. bar
02: You should______ your pounds for dollars before going to New York.
A. change B. convert C. turn D. exchange
03: Who is the______ of this company?
A. top B. head C. leader D. minister
04: His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man______.
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know
05: Instead of ______ about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent.
A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited
06: She nearly lost her own life______ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for
07: If I could speak German, I______ next year studying in Berlin.
A. will spend B. had spent C. would spend D. would have spent
08: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is______.
A. another B. other C. the another D. the other
09: The police are______ an incident which took place this afternoon.
A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D. investigating
10: Someone wanted to______ Belle Vue Hotel to us.
A. introduce B. direct C. recommend D. tell
11: Tony never comes to class on time and______.
A. neither does Pedro B. so does Pedro C. so doesn’t Pedro D. neither doesn’t Pedro
12: Tom: “Thank you for your help.” ~ Mary: “____________.”
A. With all my heart B. It’s my pleasure C. Never mind me D. No problem
13: We______ won the game if we’d had a few more minutes.
A. have B. will C. had D. could have
14: Mr. Ba is intelligent but he______ common sense.
A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants
15: We’ll play tennis and______ we’ll have lunch.
A. after B. then C. so D. immediately

II: Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space. (5 pts)
1. How much does______ of this club cost? (MEMBER) MEMBERSHIP
2. She is extremely______ about the history of art. (KNOW) KNOWLEDGEABLE
3. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more______ every day. (TROUBLE) TROUBLESOME
4. He is completely______! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too. (EMPLOY) UNEMPLOYABLE
5. His boss told him off because he had behaved______. (RESPONSIIBLE) IRRESPONSIBLY

III: Complete each sentence with one of the idiomatic phrases given. Use each phrase once only. (6 pts)
made her blood boil jumped out of her skin had a lump in her throat
lost her head gave me the cold shoulder took her breath away
1. Pauline completely ignored me this morning. She______.
2. It really______ to see her friend copy a poem she had written and then present it to her boyfriend as one that she
had written for him.
3. Saying goodbye to her son was a very emotional occasion for her and she______ as she watched him get on the
train.
4. The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely fantastic. It really______.
5. Susan panicked when the fire broke out. She______.
6. When I dropped that tray behind her, she got a shock. She almost______.

IV: Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. (14 pts)

26
1. Mr. Pike, who is supposed______ (witness) the accident, has left the town.
2. At this time next week they______ (sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
3. He said that he watered the plants every day. He______ (water) them. If he had, they wouldn’t have died.
4. No sooner the announcement______ (make) than everyone started complaining.
5. They said they never______ (make) to do anything they didn’t want to before.
6. We______ (watch) the play for nearly thirty minutes when he came.
7. The pop star who______ (take) part in over 25 films always avoids______ (recognize) by wearing dark glasses.
8. There’s no point in______ (try) to get Tim______ (lend) you his car.
9. Not until John______ (receive) the offer of promotion in writing he______ (celebrate)
10. He______ (have) trouble with the second-hand car since he bought it. He wishes he______ (not / buy) it.

V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need correction in each
of the following questions. (5 pts)
01: She asked why did I look so embarrassed when I saw her.
A B C D
02: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Mexico.
A B C D
03: Could you mind telling me the way to the nearest post office?
A B C D
04: The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard.
A B C D
05: I’d prefer to do it on myself, because other people make me nervous.
A B C D

B. READING
I: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C or D
next to the answer you choose. (10 pts)
If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol
of our wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1)______ it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that
plastic has brought enormous (2)______ even environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics themselves that are
the environmental (3)______ – it’s the way society choose to use and abuse them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal – non-renewable
natural (4)______. We import well over three million tons of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most
of it is thrown away. A high proportion of our annual consumption is in the (5)______ of packaging, and this
(6)______ about seven per cent by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little
of it is, though the plastic recycling (7)______ is growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich – they have a higher calorific (8)______ than coal and
one (9)______ of ‘recovery’ strongly favored by the plastic manufacturers is the (10)______ of waste plastic into a
fuel.
1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood
2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits
3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil
4. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels
5. A. way B. kind C form D. type
6. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes
7. A. manufacture B. plant C. factory D. industry
8. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect
9. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
10. A. conversion B. melting C. change D. replacement

II: Read the following text and then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 pts)
I was reading an article last week in (1)______ the writer described how her children has changed as they
grow up. When they were small she had to (2)______ up with noisy games in the house, or join in interminable
games of football in the garden which wore her out. If the house went quiet, she wondered what the monsters were
getting up to, or what crisis she would have to (3)______ with next. She dreaded the fact that they might take after
her husband, who admitted having (4)_____ an uncontrollable child who (5)______ most of the time showing off
to his friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was worse was that (6)______ else thought he was a
27
sweet child, and he got away with the most terrible things! However, she had experienced an even greater shocked
with her children. They had (7)______ out of all their naughty behavior, and (12)______ up serious hobbies
(8)______ as chess and playing the piano. They never did anything without (9)______ it over first, and coming to a
serious decision. She had to face up to the fact that they made her feel rather childish as they got (10)______, and
that in some ways she preferred them when they were young and noisy.

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer
to each of the questions. (10 pts)
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the future will
be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have already been
developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam,
hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable source
of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-
range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on
infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be
as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped
with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the
use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centres might be reserved for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit centres that
would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their
needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which
will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be
carried by freeway today.
01: The author’s purpose in the passage is to______.
A. criticize conventional vehicles C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
B. support the invention of electric cars D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
02: The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT______.
A. planes B. trolleys C. vans D. trains
03: The passage would most likely be followed by details about______.
A. the neighborhood of the fixture C. electric shuttle buses
B. automated freeways D. pollution restrictions in the future
04: The word ‘compact’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. squared B. long-range C. inexpensive D. concentrated
05: In the second paragraph, the author implies that______.
A. everyday life will stay much the same in our fixture.
B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
06: According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be______.
A. much larger than they are today C. common as today’s gas stations
B. more convenient than they are today D. equipped with charging devices
07: The word ‘charging’ in this passage refers to______.
A. aggression B. lightning C. electricity D. credit cards
08: The word ‘foresee’ in this passage could best be replaced with______.
A. imagine B. count on C. rely on D. invent
09: The word ‘commuters’ in paragraph 4 refers to______.
A. visitors B. cab drivers C. shoppers D. daily travelers
10: The word ‘hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D. combination

C. WRITING
I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it. (5 pts)
1. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
Scarcely .........................................................................................................................................
28
2. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather ............................................................................................................................................
3. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has .......................................................................................................................................
4. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not ......................................................................................................................................
5. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was .............................................................................................................................................

II: Topic: Media are said to affect us different ways. Discuss the matter in a composition. (20 pts)

-------------Hết-----------

Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………….………..…….…….….….; Số báo danh……………………

29
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 50
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
11. A. geology B. psychology C. classify D. photography
12. A. idiom B. ideal C. item D. identical
13. A. children B. child C. mild D. wild
14. A. both B. myth C. with D. sixth
15. A. helped B. booked C. hoped D. waited

II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
16. A. difference B. suburban C. internet D. character
17. A. beautiful B. effective C. favorite D. popular
18. A. attraction B. government C. borrowing D. visit
19. A. difficulty B. individual C. population D. unemployment
20. A. biology B. redundancy C. interviewer D. comparative

III. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, find and correct it.

IV. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
21. You shouldn't have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely__________ of you.
A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. unconscious D. insensible
22. The job was more difficult than I__________ expected it to be.
A. might B. would C. have D. had
23. We had so many problems with the car that__________ we sold it and bought a new one.
A. to the end B. by the end C. at the end D. in the end
24. His parents think it's time he__________ married.
A. gets B. would get C. will get D. got
25. He__________ me to buy my air ticket immediately or it would be too late.
A. suggested B. convinced C. insisted D. advised
26. You will become ill__________ you stop working so hard.
A. until B. if C. unless D. when
27.__________ I ask him for the money he owes me, he says he will bring it in a few days, but I don't think he has
got it at all.
A. However B. Wherever C. Whatever D. Whenever
28. It was impossible for her to tell the truth so she had to__________ a story.
A. combine B. invent C. lie D. manager
29. He is very stubborn, so it will be difficult to__________ him to go.
A. make B. suggest C. persuade D. prevent
30. I hope he's__________ to buy some bread; there's hardly any left.
A. reminded B. proposed C. remembered D. suggested

V. Circle the option A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.

30
31. Antarctica, which is largely covered by ice, receive hardly any rainfall.
A. largely B. rainfall C. receive D. hardly any
32. Jessica is only an amateur, but she sings sweeter than most professionals.
A. than B. sweeter C. is only D. an
33. Mrs. Adams was surprising that her son and his friend had gone to the mountains to ski.
A. her B. to ski C. surprising D. had gone
34. A cure for the common cold, causing by a virus, has not been found.
A. causing B. for C. a virus D. has not been found
35. Amelia Earhart, that was one of the pioneers in aviation, attempted to fly the world in 1937, but she and her
plane mysteriously disappeared over the Pacific Ocean.
A. over B. that C. in aviation D. attempted to fly

VI. Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space.
One (36. CHARACTER)________ of the modern world is that people increasingly find themselves living
side by side with people from other cultures. While in the past people with different cultures were able to live quite
(37. SEPARATE)________ , high mobility and freedom of movement mean that we are more likely today to be
confronted with people whose way the life is (38. FAMILIAR)________ to us. In such circumstances, (39.
RACE)________ is a real danger.
People feel a tremendous (40. LOYAL)________ to their own culture, and are often unwilling to develop an (41.
APPRECIATE)________ of the positive aspects of other cultures. They may feel that another culture presents a
threat to their own (42. INHERIT)________, one that could even lead to the (43. APPEAR)________ of certain
aspects of their way of life. Often, however, this threat is more a matter of (44. PERCEIVE)________ than reality
and different groups live in (45. RELATE)________ harmony in many parts of the world.

VII. Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C or
D next to the answer you choose.
Dolphins communicate mainly by (46)________ of sounds. These sounds not only (47)________ whistles,
but also so-called pulsed sounds, which are often described as squawks, barks, rasps, etc. However, they also use
breaching (jumping and falling back into the (48)________ with a loud splash) and pectoral fin (or flipper) and tail
(or fluke) slaps (hitting the flipper or fluke on the water surface). Body posturing and jaw popping also have a role
in (49)________. As for language, we do not know (50)________ they have one. Several studies have demonstrated
that dolphins can understand a structured language like (51)________. This has been demonstrated for a number of
other animal species as well (gorilla, California sea lion, and parrot). Some studies also indicate that dolphin
vocalizations are complex (52)________ to support some form of language. (53)________, it has not been
demonstrated (54)________ that they can undoubtedly communicate (55)________ themselves.
46. A. way B. mean C. using D. means
47. A. have B. include C. contain D. combine
48. A. water B. sea C. ocean D. river
49. A. reaction B. chewing C. speaking D. communication
50. A. why B. if C. when D. how
51. A. your B. ours C. our D. yours
52. A. too B. as C. enough D. so
53. A. Whenever B. Wherever C. However D. Whoever
54. A. yet B. still C. though D. neither
55. A. together B. each other C. between D. among

VIII. Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word.
Enjoyment is what drinking wine is all about. However, the more you know, (56)________ easier it becomes to select
the right wines for you or your guests. Wine is basically grape juice to (57)________ yeast has been added causing it to
ferment and produce alcohol. Alcohol is flavourless, so there must be something more (58)________ wine than this. Many
of the secrets of wine lie within the grape. Its pulp is a sugar solution which contains the things that give a wine its fruity
flavour. In a dry wine, most of a grape’s sugar has been converted (59)________ alcohol. In a sweet one, more sugar is left.
This can be felt on the (60)________ of the tongue. The pulp also contains acidity which gives the wine "crispness” that
makes the mouth water.
Too much (61)________ it can make you wince, too little and the wine could taste dull. The skin contains flavour
and tannin. Tannin produces a tingling sensation in the gums and gives a wine firmness. White grapes (62)________ their
skins removed before fermentation so tannin is only really found in red wines. The pulp of black and white grapes is
31
(63)________ same pale colour. The fact that the skins of black grapes are left on (64)________ the wine is fermented gives
red wine its colour.
The wines which are often considered to be the best are (65)________ where all the elements balance one another.
There are many grape varieties grown in many climates which influence the emphasis given to these features and this is why
wines can be so wonderfully different.

IX. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No
other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface
movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the
upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In
theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality,
however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent,
the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high
tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the
tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are
the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the
Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water
high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice
each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular
configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur.
Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
66. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
67. The words "In reality" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly
68. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect
one object in space has on the tides is_________.
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
69. The word "configuration" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. unit B. center C. surface D. arrangement
70. Neap tides occur when_________.
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction

X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it.
71. John didn’t celebrate until he received the offer of promotion in writing.
→ Not until ______________________________________________________.
72. I don’t really like her, even though I admire her achievements.
→ Much __________________________________________________________.
73. It’s thought that the accident was caused by human error.
→ The accident _________________________________________________.
74. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
→ There has ____________________________________________________.
75. This affair does not concern you.
→ This affair is no ______________________________________________.
76. You must submit articles for the magazine by June 18th.
→ The final date _________________________________________________.
77. Although Jimmy was the stronger of the two, his attacker soon overpowered him.
→ Despite his ____________________________________________________.
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78. What a surprise to see you here!
→ Fancy __________________________________________________________.
79. I don’t intend to apologize to either of them.
→ I have _________________________________________________________.
80. It was only when I left home that I realized how much my father meant to me.
→ Not until _______________________________________________________.

XI. Writing an essay.

“Stable development (development without harming the environment) is essential for the present time as well as
the future”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your points.
____________THE END____________

33
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 51
PART I: PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. forged B. appalled C.composed D. noticed
2. A. resort B. aisle C. hesitate D. desert
3. A. rough B. tough C. cough D. though
4: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
5. A. theatre B. bathing C. breathe D. southern
6. A. break B. meant C. breakfast D. head
7. A. admission B. decision C. revision D. provision
8. A. change B. hungry C. stronger D. Single
9.A. intention B. material C. mature D. Intensity
10. A. birthday B. mouth C. athletics D. gather
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1. A. reasonable B. cigarette C. comfortable D. implement
2. A. validity B. tremendous C. flexible D. commercial
3. A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
4. A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
5: A. Success B. conflict C. author D. figure
6: A. surpass B. moment C. exchange D. Persuade
7. A. argumentative B. Psychological C. Contributory D. hypersensitive
8. A. sandals B. dental C. canal D. rental
9. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
10. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively

PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR.

I. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points)
1. The strike was______ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
2. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to______ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
3. ______ the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
4. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the______ wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
5. The train service has been a______ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
6. Is an inexperienced civil servant______ to the task of running the company.
A. capable B. skilled C. eligible D. suited
7. We______ have been happier in those days.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. might not D. must not
8. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so______ you’re used to the noise.
A. apparently B. presumably C. allegedly D. predictably
9. The storm ripped our tent to______.
A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks
10. He______ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.
A. indicted B. inferred C. induced D. inflicted
11. Hotel rooms must be______ by 10 a. m, but luggage may be left with porters.
A. vacated B. evacuated C. abandoned D. left
12. I do not think there is so much as a______ of truth in that rumor.
A. crumb B. speck C. grain D. pebble
13. He’s not exactly rich but he certainly earns enough money to______.
A. get through B. get by C. get on D. get up
14. I have very______ feelings about the plan – it might possibly work or it could be a disaster.
A. certain B. mixed C. doubtful D. troubled
15. The noise of the typewriter really______ me off. I just couldn’t concentrate.
A. put B. pulled C. set D. took
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16. The sixth time he called me at night was the______.
A. last cause B. last straw C. touch and go D. hot air
17. All three TV channels provide extensive______ of sporting events.
A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision
18. They seemed to be______ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent
19. “Shall we go out tonight?” - “____________”
A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are C. Yes, we go D. Yes, let’s
20. It's no use______ over______ milk.
A. crying/ spilt B. to cry/ spilling C. crying/ spilling D. crying/ to spill
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the numbered gap. (1,0
point)
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
The black widow spider’s notoriety is not without foundation. However, an element of exaggeration has led
to certain______ (1. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most______ (2.
VENOM) species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects
such as amount of venom by______ (3. COMPARE) that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, ______ (4. FATAL)
are rare.
Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only the adult female is
poisonous. Those most at risk from the female are the spider’s natural pray-insects-and male black widow spiders.
The latter are vulnerable as the female is______ (5. SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known to kill and eat the
male after mating. Such______ (6. OCCUR) are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name – and its
reputation.
Nevertheless, the______ (7. PLEASE) effects of this spider’s bite should not be______ (8. ESTIMATE),
and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to take______ (9.
CAUTION). Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when handling firewood.
Furthermore, since black widow spiders are______ (10. RESIST) to many insecticides, you should regularly clean
out likely hiding places.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (1,0 point)
bring out do up slow down save up hang over
mix up grow up go with dress up run for
1. Silence______ the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and excitement.
2. Having seen a sharp bend ahead, Tim pressed hard on the brake pedal to______.
3. Charles Dickens was born near Portsmouth, Hampshire on 7 February 1812, but relocated to and ______ in
Camden Town in London.
4. Barrack Obama has decided to______ the American presidency in the election that will take place next year.
5. Because I hate______ my shoes, I have bought a pair of shoes without any laces.
6. Sarah wanted to buy some curtains that would______ his furniture, so she had brought a photo of her sofa with
her to the store.
7. Kate had been______ in order to buy a new laptop, but then she decided to use the money on the guitar lessons
instead.
8. Even though two of the bands are dead, a new ‘The Beatle’ album called Love was recently______.
9. Brendan was worried about having to______ for the boss’ retirement dinner as he didn’t own any formal clothes.
10. He______ his grandmother’s phone number with his girlfriend’s, which led to some embarrassment for him.
Your answers:
35
 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline them and write the correct forms in the numbered
boxes. (1,0 point)
Large animals inhabit the desert have evolved adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme hot. One
adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal
mammalian practice of maintaining a constantly body temperature. Instead of try to keep down the body temperature
inside the body, what would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures
rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degree Celsius have been measured in
Grant's gazelles. The overheated body cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall
unusual low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is a advantage since the heat of the first few
hours of daylight absorb in warming up the body.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART III: READING COMPREHENSION.

I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (1,0 point)
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a welcome
drink. Nor is it about drifting (1)______ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these responses to tension and over-
tiredness (2)______ be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in (3)______ of quality and
effect. (4)______ of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive awareness,
in which our bodies are (5)______ rest while our minds are awake.
Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. (6)______ relaxed in
action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by
the end of the day, (7)______ than one of exhaustion. Unfortunately, as a result of living in today’s competitive
world, we are under constant strain and have difficulty in coping, (8)______ alone nurturing our body’s abilities.
What needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With (9)______ in mind we must apply ourselves to
understanding stress and the nature of its causes (10)______ deep-seated.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. Write your answer
in the numbered box. (1,0 point)
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago and
the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very
obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A
burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving
signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or television,
and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any
burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the doormat
or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer
to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be
a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside
of your house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to
target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy
access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed
you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is
surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit window locks
to the inside of the window.
36
 What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have top
quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you
can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of
breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if you
are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never
let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an intruder,
then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for help.
1. A well-protected house______.
A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals.
C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.
2. According to the writer, we should______.
A. avoid leaving our house empty.
B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed.
D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.
3. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot______.
A. is predictable. B. is useful.
C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.
4. What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4?
A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing
5. The phrase “aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that______.
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not.
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe.
C. will stop a potential burglar.
D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.
6. Gaining entry to a house through a small window______.
A. is surprisingly difficult.
B. is not as difficult as people think.
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door.
D. is tried only by very determined burglars.
7. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms______.
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.
C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.
8. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole______.
A. will prevent your home being burgled.
B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.
C. is only necessary for elderly people.
D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.
9. What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7?
A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine
10. The best title for the text is______.
A. Increasing household crime.
B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. Burglary statistics.
D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART IV. WRITING.

I. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the words given (0,5
point)
1. It is extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
→ We find....................................................................................................................................

37
2. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.
→ Only when................................................................................................................................
3. While mending the road, they accidentally blocked our water pipes.
→ They accidentally cut off ........................................................................................................
4. He brought the umbrella along but it didn't rain.
→ He needn't ..............................................................................................................................
5. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
→ Despite ..................................................................................................................................

II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that
it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given
word(s).(0,5 point)
1. When I was driving, I realized that the car wasn’t working properly. (WRONG)
→........................................................................................................................................................
2. Sandra said that she was willing to work late. (MIND)
→........................................................................................................................................................
3. They pretended to be enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really. (AS)
→........................................................................................................................................................
4. I can't lift this table on my own. (UNLESS)
→........................................................................................................................................................
5. The coins are believed to have been buried for safe-keeping. (IT)
→........................................................................................................................................................

III. Writing a topic. (1,0 point)

The mass media, including television, radio and newspapers, have great influence in shaping people’s
ideas. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer. You should
write about 250 words.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………THE END

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39
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 52
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2
pts)
1. A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancester
2. A. looked B. learned C. stopped D. laughed
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question.
(3 pts)
3. A. appropriate B. expectation C. accomplished D. invaluable
4. A. prohibit B. separate C. president D. elephant
5. A. assimilate B. committee C. tomorrow D. relative
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
6. Never ______ till tomorrow what you can do today .
A. put out B. put off C. put away D. put down
7. John’s score on the test is the highest in the class;______ .
A. he should study last night B. he should have studied last night
C. he must have studied last night D. he must have to study last night
8. The company received______complaints about the quality of its products.
A. continual B. continued C. continuous D. continuing
9. Mai is______of the two sisters.
A. as beautiful as B. more beautiful
C. the more beautiful D. the most beautiful
10. Many lists of “Wonders of the World” ______during the Middle Ages.
A. said to be existed B. are said to exist
C. said to exist D. are said to have existed
11. The weather is going to change soon; I feel it in my ______.
A. body B. legs C. skin D. bones
12.The workers have gone on strike. ______, all production has ceased.
A. So that B. Therefore C. Because D. Now that
13.Do you expect there will be a lot of _______ to the project from the local community?
A. rejections B. disapproval C. disagreement D. objections
14. _________ handball is fast becoming ________ popular sport worldwide.
A. The/ the B. Φ/ a C. A/ Φ D. Φ/ the
15. The size and shape of a nail depend primarily on the function ______ intended.
A. which it is B. for which it C. which it is for D. for which is
16. But for the fog, we_________ our destination ages ago.
A. would have reached B. would reach
C. reached D. had reached
17. Nam: “ I'm having some friends over for lunch this Saturday. Would you like to join us?”
Huong: “______________________”.
A. Can I take a rain check? B. Come on. It's your turn.
C. Thanks, but I musn't D. As a matter of fact, I do.
18. Tom: “Wasn't it Mozart who composed Swan Lake?” Jane: “__________.”
A. Yes, he wasn't B. It's out of question
C. I haven't a clue D. It's not my favourite
19. Water polo is played in a pool. It is played ____a ball and people play it ___a team.
A. by/ in B. in/with C. within/ by D. with/in
20. I wonder if they have that dress in my size. I ______ a size 10.
A. make B. have C. take D. get
Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts) (Questions 21-30)

40
 line
1 Once when I was a teenager, I had gone to my Aunt Leah’s house. Aunt Leah collected pottery,
and when I got there, she told me that she wants to show me her new bowl. She told she has
just bought it. It was beautiful. When Aunt Leah went to answer the door; I picked up the
bowl. It slipped from my hands and smashed to pieces on the floor.When Aunt came back, I
5 screamed and said what the cat had just broken your new bowl. Aunt Leah got this funny look
on her face and told me that it isn’t important. I didn’t sleep at all that night, and the next
morning, I called my aunt and confessed that I have broken her bowl. She said I had known
10 that all along. I promised that I am going to buy her a new one someday. We still laugh at the
story today.
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. It is crucial that English (teach) ______ in a more practical way.
32. Without my parents’ financial support, I (not,be) _____ so successful now.
33. My children enjoy (allow) ______ to stay up late when there is something special on television.
34. I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare) _______ it very carefully at home.
35. The cowboy (wound) ______ by an arrow fell of the horse.
36. Nam: "The maintenance people didn't remove the chairs from the ballroom."
Huong: "Don't worry. They (move) ______ them before the dance begins."
37-38. It’s high time the local government (do) _______something about the sewage system which (not upgrade)
________ for years.
39- 40. Come on, Hoa. I want to show you something. - Oh how nice of you! I (never think) ______ you (bring)
______ me a gift.
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
41. All those foreign visitors can speak Vietnamese very well.
There will be a big ______to have a translator here. USEFUL
42. Katherine Curtis's water ballet club attracted both national and
international ________ . PUBLIC
43. The _____ of books were the hand-written books since centuries
BC, including clay tablets, wood or bamboo tablets tied with cord. RUN
44. The doctor gave him an injection to _______ the pain. DIE
45. According to Dr. Davis, the ______ population is mushrooming
as our general health improves. CENTENARY
46. A century ago average life ______ in Europe was 45, today it is 70. EXPECT
47. Because of the nuclear leakage, a large area of land needs _____ . CONTAMINATE
48. If your luggage is very ______ , you’ll have to pay an excess charge. WEIGH
49. If your terms are _______, we may consider placing regular orders. SATISFY
50. He talked ______ of the past and his youth. ROMANTIC

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10
pts)
Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather to be consulted to answer the
questions and provide both general and specific pieces of information.
One of the most (51. _____ ) -used reference books is a dictionary, which provides information about words. It
lists meanings and spellings, (52. ____ ) how a word is pronounced, gives (53. ____ ) of how it is used, may reveal
its origins and also lists synonyms and (54. ____ ). To help you find the words faster, there are guide words at the
top of each page showing the first and last words on that page - and of course it (55. ____ ) to know the alphabet!
There may be numerous special sections at the back with (56. ____ ) about famous people and places, lists of dates
and scientific names, etc. There is usually a section at the front (57. ____ ) how to use the dictionary, which
includes the special abbreviations or signs.
An atlas is also a reference book and (58. ____ ) charts, tables and geographical facts, as well as maps. Political
maps locate countries and cities, physical maps show the formation of the land with its mountains and valleys, and
economic maps show industries and agriculture. To find a specific place, you need to look in the (59. ____ ) at the
back of the atlas and the exact position on the map. There are numerous map (60. ____ ) that you need to know in
order to be able to read a m ap-almost like a special language-and these are explained at the front of the atlas.
51. A. greatly B. widely C. mainly D. largely

41
 52. A. speaks B. tells C. says D. gives
53. A. evidence B. roof C. examples D. cases
54. A. antonyms B. closest C. oposite D. controversies
55. A. assists B. pays C. helps D. works
56. A. events B. stories C. facts D. materials
57. A. explaining B. interpreting C. suggesting D. presenting
58. A. includes B. contains C. consists D. composes
59. A. index B. preface C. complement D. foreword
60. A. marks B. signs C. signals D. symbols
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
I was reading an article last week in which the writer described ___61___ her children has changed as they grow
up. When they were small she had to ___62____ up with noisy games in the house or join in interminable games
of football in the garden which wore her out. If the house went quiet, she wondered what the monsters were getting
up to, or what crisis she would have to ____63_____ with next. She dreaded the fact that they might ____64____
after her husband, who admitted having ___65____ an uncontrollable child who ____66_____ most of time
showing off to his friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was worse was that everyone else thought
he was ___ 67____sweet child, and he got away with the most terrible things. However, she had experienced an
even greater shocked with her children. They had ___68____ out as chess and playing the piano. They never did
anything ___69____ talking it over first, and coming to a serious decision. She had to face up to the fact that they
made her feel rather childish as they got ___70____, and that in some ways she preferred them when they were
young and noisy
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
There is a common expression in English language referring to a blue moon. When people say that
something happens “only once in a blue moon”, they mean that it happens only very rarely, once
in a great while. This expression has been around for at least a century and a half. There are
references to this expressions that date from the second half of the nineteenth century.
Line 5 The expression “a blue moon” has come to refer to the second full moon occurring in any given
calendar month. A second full moon is not called a blue moon because it is particularly blue or is
any different in the hue from the first full moon of the month. In stead, it is called a blue moon
because it is so rare. The moon needs a little more than 29 days to complete the cycle from full moon
Line 10 to full moon. Because every month except February has more than 29 days, every month will have
at least one full moon (except February, which will have a full moon unless there is a full moon at
the very end of January and another full moon at the very beginning of March). It is on the occasion
when a given calendar month has a second full moon that a blue moon occurs. This does not happen
Line 15 very often, only three or four times a decade.
The blue moons of today are called blue moons because of their rarity and not because of their color;
however, the expression “blue moon” may have come into existence in reference to unusual
circumstances in which the moon actually appeared blue. Certain natural phenomena of gigantic
proportions can actually change the appearance of the moon from the Earth. The eruption of the
Line 20 Krakatao volcano in 1883 left dust particles in the atmosphere, which clouded the sun and gave the
moon a bluish tint. This particular occurrence of the blue moon may have given rise to the expression
that we use today. Another example occurred more than a century later. When Mount Pinatubo
Line 25 erupted in the Philippines in 1991, the moon again took on a blue tint.
71. This passage is about_________________ .
A. an idiomatic expression B. an unusual color
C. a month on the calendar D. a phase of the moon
72. How long the expression “once in a blue moon” been around?
A. For around 50 years B. For less than 100 years
C. For more than 100 years D. For 200 years.
73. A blue moon could best be described as _________________ .
A. a full moon that is not blue in color B. a new moon that is blue in color
C. a full moon that is blue in color D. a new moon that is not blue in color
74. The word “hue” in line 8 is closest in meaning to _____________________ .
A. shape B. date C. color D. size
75. Which of the following might be the date of a blue moon?
A. January 1st B. February 28th C. April 15th D. December 31st
76. How many blue moons would there most likely be in a century?
42
 A. 4 B. 35 C. 70 D. 100
77. According to the passage, the moon actually looked blue ______________ .
A. after large volcanic eruptions B. when it occurred late in the month
C. several times a year D. during the month of February
78. The expression “given rise to” in line 24 could be best replaced by ___________ .
A. created a need for B. elevated the level of
C. spurred the creation of D. brighten the color of
79. Where in the passage does the author describe the duration of a lunar cycle?
A. line 1- 3 B. line 6-7 C. line 9-10 D. line 13 – 15
80. In which paragraph does the author mention the two blue moons which were blue in color?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 1 and 3.
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to
the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. If I were you, I wouldn’t tell anybody about the discovery.
 You had ___________________________________________.
82. It is thought that the Prime Minister is considering raising taxes.
 The Prime Minister __________________________________.
83. I was very annoyed by his refusal to listen to reason.
 What _____________________________________________.
84. The company have been reviewing their recruitment policy for the last three months.
 The company’s recruitment policy has ___________________.
85. I realy like her voice but not her choice of songs.
 Much _____________________________________________.
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to
the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts)
86. I am telling you this for you not to make a mistake. FEAR
 __________________________________________.
87. I'd rather you didn't stay long at the party. BETTER
 _________________________________________.
88. I now think differently about this matter. MIND
 __________________________________________.
89. I am going to write and complain to the council. COMPLAINT
 __________________________________________.
90. She was just as good as they had thought. CAME
 __________________________________________.

Question III. Essay writing (10 pts):

Do you agree or disagree with the following statement: “All children should learn at least one foreign
language at school”?
Write an essay ( about 150 to 200 words) to express your personal point of view.

---------- THE END ---------

43
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 53
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. purpose B. consumer C. comprise D. collapse
2. A. battle B. magic C. nag D. dismayed
3. A. sound B. doubt C. Count D. Would
4. A. honest B. home C. vehicles D. heiress
5. A. apple B. absent C. applicant D. Any
6: A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
7. A. four B. journey C. pour D. Your
8 A. fool B. bamboo C. food D. flood
9. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
10: A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1. A. Commit B. index C. preview D. open
2. A. enrichment B. advantage C. sovereignty. D. edition
3: A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
4. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
5: A. inaccurate B. pupivorous C. profitable D. reiterate
6: A. bibliophile B. inheritance C. illustrate D. judicature
7. A. dangerous B. conspicuous C. marvelous D. numerous
8. A. pioneer B. engineer C. reindeer D. referee
9: A. sociable B. vacancy C. opponent D. habitat
10: A. discourage B. document C. general D. politics
PART II - LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing
the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. Nathalie seems very tough at work. She’s a different person at home, _________.
A. though B. although C. as though D. even though
2. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.
A. wasn’t concerned B. wasn’t concerning C. didn’t concern D. didn’t concern to
3. The entire city was _________ electricity last night- it was chaotic.
A. no B. almost no C. hardly any D. without
4. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
5. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.
A. searched B. pursued C. wanted D. hunted
6. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for _________ materials.
A. live B. raw C. crude D. rude
7. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered
C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered
8. One way to let off _________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
A. cloud B. tension C. steam D. sweat
9. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field and possibly
lead to a cure.
A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land
10. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.
A. games B. jokes C. tricks D. fun
11. The match will be screened on ITV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
12. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’ sooner you _________ me the whole truth yesterday.
A. could have told B. told C. have told D. had told
13. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
14. The dawn redwood appears ____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around the world.
A. was flourished B. having to flourish
44
 C. to have flourished D. have flourished
15. His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess
16. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
17. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.
A. was posted B. posted C. be posted D. be post
18. John: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
Mary: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
A. I couldn’t agree more B. I understand what you’re saying
C. You’re wrong D. I don’t see in that way
19. It is only recently that ballets have been based on the themes _____ American life.
A. reflecting B. reflects C. is reflecting D. reflected
20. I wish you’d do the accounts. I don’t have ________ for numbers.
A. a head B. a mind C. the heart D. the nerve
II. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO
To ski or snowboard in Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The state of Colorado is
known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) ____ views, which inspire today's travelers as much as they
spurred on the (2. SETTLE) ____ who first arrived in this part of the US over a century ago. And whether you're
seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE) ____ exciting nightlife or a great family getaway, Colorado has
everything you need.
November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) ____ and reliable, featuring Colorado's (5.
LEGEND) ____ “champagne powder” snow. Extensive snow making and grooming operations always keep trails
in top shape.
The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams into thrilling (6.
REAL) ______.There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding on (7. PICTURE) ____ slopes, as well as the
finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8. PARALLEL) ____ winter paradise. And the best part is
that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE) ____ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT) ____ to delivering the highest
quality amenities.
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank.
1. The government’s plans to reduce crime came ________for a lot of criticism from freedom groups.
2. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.
3. This is one of the exceptions ________the rule.
4. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured in the explosion.
5. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were ________the dole.
6. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.
7. I can’t cancel my arrangements ________such short notice.
8. All the police’s efforts to find him were ________vain.
9. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.
10. She’s gone and this time it’s ________good.

PART III: READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the
corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
THE ATMOSPHERE OF VENUS
Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the sun and the brightest
object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and twenty four Earth-days and is sometimes
referred to as Earth’s sister planet because the two share both a similar size and bulk. What is not similar, however,
is Venus’s atmosphere in comparison to Earth’s atmosphere.
The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth. Venus’s atmosphere
also expands significantly higher than Earth’s atmosphere although a thick cloud cover makes the surface of Venus
nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar mapping.
While the pressure and temperature of Venus’s upper atmosphere are comparable to those of Earth, the heat
and pressure of the lower atmosphere are not unlike a furnace. Venus’s atmosphere is very thick due to a composition
consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of
Venus’s surface (400 degrees Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure that is more
45
than 90 times that of Earth. Venus’s extremely high temperature is thanks to the greenhouse effect caused by such
a large amount of carbon dioxide. The greenhouse effect is a process by which the sun’s infrared radiation is more
readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used to grow plants years round, the proliferation
of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms Venus’s atmosphere. Due to this phenomenon, Venus boasts a higher
atmospheric temperature than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.
However, scientists postulate that Venus’s atmosphere was not always so hot. [A] Studies show that large
bodies of water were once on Venus’s surface but that eventually evaporation of all the water caused the runaway
greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today. [B] Thus Venus has become a critical study for today’s scientists,
as human being are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. [C] Our problems do
not stem from evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases due
to industrial and automobile emissions. [D]
Another interesting characteristic to note regarding Venus’s atmosphere is that its daytime temperatures and
nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a
substance to store heat despite changing temperatures and the transfer of heat by Venus’s strong winds. Although
winds on the surface of Venus move slowly in comparison with Earth’s winds, Venus’s air is so dense that a slow-
moving there can move large obstructions and even skip stones along the planet’s surface.
In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at sending a recording instrument into Venus’s atmosphere. The
Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact caused its communication system to fail,
and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967, Venera 4 successfully enter Venus’s atmosphere and was able to
take many readings, one of which recorded that Venus’s atmosphere was between ninety and ninety-five percent
carbon dioxide. Subsequent Venera probes were sent into Venus’s atmosphere, but most of them succumbed to the
crushing air pressure.

Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the passage.
1. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because_________.
A. it is very bright B. it is close to the sun
C. it can be seen from evening till morning D. it is used to find the direction by sailors
2. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density
3. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3? Incorrect
answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
B. If a man could survive its surface pressure.
C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
D. Venus’s surface temperature and pressure make it uninhabitable by humans.
4. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.
A. the small amounts of nitrogen
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
C. growing plants
D. the high atmospheric temperatures
5. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
B. once had an atmosphere similar to Venus’s
C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
6. Look at the four blanks […] in paragraph 4 that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.
Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit?
7. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. desecration
Questions 8 to 10: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE answer choices that
express important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the summary is provided bellowed.

Scientists look at Venus to predict Earth’s future.

8. …………………………………………………
9. …………………………………………………
46
 10. …………………………………………………

Answer Choices

A. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and cause a rapid increase in carbon dioxide.
B. Earth’s wind has a greater velocity than Venus’s because the air movement on Venus is denser and can even
more large obstructions.
C. Spaceships landing on Venus, though often crushed by Venus’s atmosphere, have revealed much about its
carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
D. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with the great surface
pressure.
E. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
F. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of carbon dioxide will
produce greenhouse effects similar to Venus’s.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space.
Write your answers on your answer sheet.
SPLENDID SPAS OF ASIA
Lying on a bed almost on the (1) ________ of a cliff, with a stupendous ocean view and the (2) ________
of waves, aches and pains are soothed away (3) ________ expert hands. Only two steps are needed to reach the
private pool, which seems to merge (4) ________ the ocean.
Such a scenario is no longer a fantasy (5) ________ an increasingly popular reality in Asia for many stressed
out businessmen and visitors from all over the world in search of that peaceful time and space for their body and
mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to (7) ________ this
need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an ideal spa setting. Picturesque
environments (8) ________ with a series of rejuvenating treatments bring the desired result. The Asian spa resorts
have acquired a formidable reputation for their professional services as (9) ________ as for the decor of their large
treatment rooms. Visitors relax with Thai music and soak in the warm tones of the room. As all these take (10)
________ in individual rooms, precious privacy is guaranteed, a rare privilege often absent from other spas where
guests share rooms or changing areas.

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the
corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
WIND - The untamable weather machine
On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds they had
experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the region and £1.5- billion-worth
of damage was (1)__________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2)__________ of the power of the wind. It’s one part of the
weather we generally don't give a second thought to in Britain but it plays a vital role in people’s lives across the
world. Without the formation and circulation of winds there would quite (3)__________ be no climate.
Some parts of the world seem to suffer more than others from the effects of ‘ill winds’, and links between
particular winds and psychological problems (4)__________ back centuries. The Föhn, the hot dry wind that slides
off the slopes of the Alps, is capable of boosting temperatures quite suddenly by 10°C or more. It affects as many
as one in three people in its (5)__________, making them feel anxious, irritable and generally ill. In California,
many people (6)__________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high Mojave desert. Lyall
Watson, in his book Heaven’s Breath, claims that when the Santa Ana blows, murder rates soar.
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and hurricanes, but for the
(7)__________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air around the planet. Plants take (8)__________
of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and wide. Trees (99)__________ on it to remove old leaves and make
way for new growth. Spiders have been caught (10)__________ a lift at altitudes of almost 4.5 kilometers.
1. A. made B. caused C. destroyed D. completed
2. A. reminders B. recollections C. mementos D. memorial
3. A. easily B. rightly C. surely D. simply
4. A. last B. originate C. pass D. date
5. A. line B. road C. path D. bypass
6. A. despair B. respect C. dread D. warn
47
 7. A. most B. maximum C. majority D. general
8. A. benefit B. chance C. occasion D. advantage
9. A. need B. trust C. hope D. realize
10. A. traveling B. hitching C. borrowing D. making

PART IV: WRITING

I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words must not be
changed in any way.
1. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
I wish ________________________________________________________ speak French.
2. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)
The rain was ______________________________________________________________
3. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)
You ____________________________________________before you borrowed my book.
4. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE)
This record used ______________________________________ mine when I was younger.
5. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)
It’s difficult for my sister ___________________________________________ every day.
6. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
The North Sea is ____________________________________________ the Mediterranean.
7. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. ON
Christ ______________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
8. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. TALKED
My father _______________________________________________ another foreign language.
9. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. BRING
Hard _________________________________________________________________________
10. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. GIVEN
On___________________________________________________________________________
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have knowledge of
history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words.
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------------------THE END -----------------

48
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 54

PART I: PHONETICS. (1,0 POINT)

Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group. Write your
answer in the numbered box.
1. A. hospital B. mischievous C. supportive D. special
2. A. family B. whenever C. obedient D. solution
3. A. biologist B. generally C. responsible D. security
4. A. confident B. important C. together D. exciting
5. A. possible B. university C. secondary D. suitable
6. A. medieval B. humanity C. psychology D. familiar
7. A. masterpiece B. predator C. technical D. flamingo
8. A. overpopulated B. responsibility C. originality D. incomprehensible
9. A. arithmetic B. mausoleum C. economy D. receptionist
10. A. simplify B. national C. illiteracy D. secretary
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (7,5 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1,0 point)
1. The criminal was sentenced to death because of …….of his crime.
A. the severity B. the complexity C. a punishment D. the importance
2. “Would you like me to get a taxi?” - “…….”
A. That would be delightful. Thanks B. Well, let’s see.
C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother D. Yes, I see.
3. If it…….their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. hadn’t been B. had been C. hadn’t been for D. had been for
4. By the end of this month I…….for this company for two years.
A. have been working B. will have been working
C. will be working D. will work
5. Laura is very thin,…….her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. dissimilar to B. unlikely C. unlike D. dislike
6. Please…….and see us some time. You’re always welcome.
A. come to B. come about C. come around D. come away
7. They're having a party in…….of his 84th birthday.
A. ceremony B. honor C. memory D. celebration
8. The proposal has not met with…….agreement.
A. voluntary B. universal C. informal D. effective
9. A child's vocabulary…….through reading.
A. expands B. expends C. expels D. exposes
10. We…….friends even after we grew up and left home.
A. became B. made C. struck up D. remained
II. Supply the correct form(s) of the verb in brackets to complete each sentence. Write your answer in the
numbered box. (0,5 point)
1. He was the only student …….(award) the special prize in reciting poetry competition.
2. …….(convince) that they were trying to poison him, he refused to eat anything.
3. You look hot. What …….you ……. (do)?
4. I regret …….(invite) him to my party yesterday.
5. Had you studied harder, you …….(get) a prize.
III. Supply the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. Write your answer in the
numbered box. (2,0 points)
1. Don't press the 'submit' button till you’ve…….finished with these 5 sentences. (completion)
2. The criminal has a very …….scar in his face. (notice)
3. His …….arrival surprised all his friends and family. (expect)
4. I have known…….for all my life. (hard)
5. It was a…….thing to say. (hurt)
6. Don’t try to do things too quickly. Set yourself a…….target. (really)
7. In…….with the rules of the competition, the team was disqualified. (accord)
8. Snow in August! How…….! (ordinary)
9. The film is entertaining but full of historical ……. (accurate)
49
10. Since I am an …….driver, I think you should drive. (experience)
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
Example: The oil price is believing to be rising again.
A B C D
Your answer: B  is believed
1. Caroline refused to take the job given her because the salary was not good.
A B C D
2. I finished college last year, and I am working here for only eight months now.
A B C D
3. Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
A B C D

4. While the Browns were away on holiday, their house was broken in.
A B C D
5. Why don’t you congratulate our son about passing his final exam?
A B C D
6. Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and he is now looking after a new one.
A B C D
7. Now I’ve become old, I can’t read as quickly as I used to.
A B C D
8. Although research has been ongoing since 1930, the existence of ESP - perception and without the
A B
use of the sight, hear, taste, touch or smell - is still disputed.
C D
9. As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures produced in the United States comes from
A B C
marketing the films abroad.
D
10. Sleep is controlled by the brain and associated by characteristic breathing rhythms
A B C D
V. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. Write your answer in the
numbered box. (2,0 points)
lay off make up get on care for go out
fall through come down put off draw up bring up
1. The teacher…….well with everyone in the school.
2. She…….with a bad cold just before Christmas and she could not come to the party.
3. After his mother died, he…….by his grandmother.
4. Once the fire ……., we had to sit in the cold.
5. The neighbor always …….stories about others. Don’t trust him.
6. I’ve just spent 2 weeks …….an old aunt of mine who’s been ill.
7. The two sides were close to an agreement, but it…….
8. The meeting had to be ……. until a later day.
9. The company has…….two hundred workers because of a lack of new orders.
10. Our lawyers will…….a new contract.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in
the numbered box. (2,0 points)
The accumulation of book (1) ……. is one part of school education but this kind of learning can be and often
is carried to (2) ……. in many countries so that no time for other interests is (3) ……. to young people. Not only
must they attend school (4) ……. five-hour periods on six days of the week, studying possibly as many as thirteen
different subjects, but in addition they may even go to afternoon institutes for (5) ……. instruction. They have almost
no chance of taking (6) ……. any of their own hobbies or becoming familiar with the plants and (7) ……. life of the
countryside except during their summer holidays. Early youth should be a time of exploration and adventure, of
reading books for (8) ……. as well as study, of freedom to enjoy life before the responsibilities of working for a
living and (9) ……. a family (10) ……. an end to study, to freedom and only too often to carefree enjoyment.
1. A. treasure B. value C. richness D. knowledge

50
2. A. extremity B. excess C. limit D. boundary
3. A. available B. provided C. devoted D. reserved
4. A. during B. for C. throughout D. in
5. A. farther B. additional C. extra D. further
6. A. on B. up C. back D. over
7. A. untamed B. original C. wild D. natural
8. A. pleasure B. amusement C. joy D. entertainment
9. A. creating B. bringing C. building D. raising
10. A. hold B. put C. indicate D. mark
II. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points)
The principles of use and disuse states that those parts of organism’s bodies that are used grow larger. Those
parts are not tending to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise particular muscles, they grow.
Those that are never used diminish. By examining a man’s body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he
does not. We may even be able to guess his profession or recreation. Enthusiasts of body building cult make use of
the principles of use and disuse to build their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural shape
is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of the body that respond to
use in this way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller
by looking at their hands alone. The farmer’s hands are horny hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller’s
hands are often soft. The principles of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in
their world, progressively better during their lifetime as the result of living in that world. Humans, through direct
exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to survive in particular local
conditions. Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are susceptible to skin
cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin D deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment melanin
which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the
harmful effects of further sunlight. If a suntanned person moves to a less sunlight climate, the melanin disappears,
and the body benefits from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principles of use
and disuse: skin goes brown when it is used, and fades to white when it is not.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How the principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The way people change themselves to conform to fashion.
C. The changes that occur according to the principles of use and disuse.
D. The effects of the sun on the principles of use and disuse.
2. The word “wither way” could be best replaced by …….
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
3. The word “those” refers to …….
A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
4. Men who body build …….
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
5. It can be inferred that the author views body building …….
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic form
C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefits
6. The word “horny” could be best replaced by …….
A. firm B. strong C. tough D. dense
7. It can be inferred that the principles of use and disuse enables organisms to …….
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit
C. survive in any condition D. improve their lifetime
8. The author suggest that melanin …….
A. is necessary to produce vitamin D B. is beneficial in sunless climate
C. helps protects fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product
9. In the 2nd paragraph, the author mentioned sun tanning as an example of …….
A. humans improving their local conditions
B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principles of use and disuse
D. humans running the risk of cancer
10. The word “susceptible” could be best replaced by …….
A. condemned B. vulnerable C. allergic D. suggestible
51
III. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered
box. (2,0 points)
BICYCLE SAFETY
Having to obey rules and regulations when riding a bike is one of the first experiences children have of the
idea of (1) ……. the law. However, a large number of children are left to learn the rules by trial and error, instead
of being guided by experienced (2) …….. Every year, hundreds of children visit the doctor or the hospital casualty
department (3) ……. crashing on their bikes. This could be easily prevented by (4) ……. them the basics of bicycle
safety. Ideally, children should be allowed to (5) ……. only in safe places, such as parks and cycle tracks. When
this is not possible, and they are permitted to go on the (6) ……., it is important to teach them some basic safety
principles.
First, they ought to learn and obey the rules of the road, which (7) ……. traffic signs, signals and road
markings. Second, they should (8) ……. wear a helmet. Studies have shown that wearing bicycle helmets can (9)
……. head injuries by up to 85 percent. In many places, (10) ……. are required by law, particularly for children.
Finally, children should be made to understand the importance of riding in areas that are brightly lit and of wearing
clothes that make them clearly visible on the road.
PART IV: WRITING. (5,5 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (2,0 points)
1. Remember to check for spelling mistakes before you hand in your composition.
Don't ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Jack has become confident as a result of his success.
Jack’s success ……………………………………….…………………………………………………...
3. Green Peace will organize a meeting at the Town Hall next Tuesday.
There ………………………………………………………………………………………………….….
4. I can't describe people as well as you can.
You are …………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. I didn't arrive in time too see her.
I wasn't …………………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.
All dogs are ……………………………………………………………………………………………...
7. I was surprised at how easy he was to talk to
I hadn’t expected ………………………………………………………………………………………..
8. Adrian was the only person who didn’t enjoy the party.
Everyone enjoyed ……………………………………………………………………………………….
9. They were never aware at any moment that something was wrong.
At no time ………………………………………………………………………………………..……....
10. Do shops usually stay open so late in this country?
Is it……………………………………………………………………………….……..……………….?
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1,0 point)
1. I don’t know how you can stand getting up so early to go to the pool. put
………………………………………………………………………………………
2. These two makes of computer are practically the same. hardly
………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Do you think climate affects people’s personalities? influence
………………………………………………………………………………………
4. He doesn’t find it difficult to earn money. trouble
………………………………………………………………………………………
5. I’ve finally started sorting out my postcard collection. round
………………………………………………………………………………………
III. Write a report of about 150 words to describe the chart. (2,5 points)
The chart below shows the amount of time an average student spends on various subjects in certain years
from 1995 to 2007. Study the chart carefully and comment on the proportion of time they spend on these subjects
every two weeks.

Hour

52
50
45
40
35 Natural
30 sciences
25 English
20
15
10 Social
5
sciences
0
1995 2000 2005 2007

THE END OF THE TEST

53
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 55

I. Câu 01-05: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có phần gạch dưới được phát âm khác với những từ còn lại
trong mỗi câu.

01. A. eliminate B. equal C. elaborate D. ejection

02. A. carriage B. dosage C. massage D. voyage
03. A. suit B. bruise C. suite D. fruit
04. A. calculate B. populate C. contemplate D. fortunate
05. A. apprehension B. division C. precision D. measure

II. Câu 06-10: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với những
từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.

06. A. ignorant B. decisive C. horizon D. museum

07. A. suffice B. product C nuclear D. province
08. A. neurosis B. nocturnal C nominate D. nostalgia
09. A. psychological B. contributory C argumentative D. hypersensitive
10. A. crescendo B. attorney C. compromise D. endeavor

III. Câu 11-20: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phướng án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi câu hỏi.

(1) On the night of September 2, 1666, a fire broke out in a baker's shop near Fish Street Hill in London. Before the
flames were finally extinguished, nearty the entreaty had been reduced to ashes. Over thirteen thousand homes, fifty
churches and numerous public buildings and hospitals were lost in the blaze. For all practical purposes, London was
destroyed.
(5) The Great Fire was not seen as a total tragedy, however. The deplorable conditions of the city had been attacked
by physicians and humanitarians for years before the fire; thus, with the opportunity dearly presented to create a
shining new dty, artists and craftsmen from all over England hurried to submit their designs for the rebuilding of
London.
Among those who submitted plans was Sir Christopher Wren, one of England's leading architects and the
(10) Surveyor of London. The task of rebuilding the city was given to him. Wren realized that the Great Fire would
not have been so damaging if the city had been better laid out: broader streets were needed to replace the crooked,
narrow alleys overhung with dilapidated wooden houses and shops. He also felt that redesigning the main
thoroughfares of London would result in increased and more effective transportation within the city.
Shortly after Wren began working on his first drafts for the rebuilding. King Charles I issued a proclamation (15)
prohibiting the construction of any house or shop within the city limits until after the plans were completed. When
the plans were unveiled to the citizens of London, however, they were overwhelmingly rejected. The most vocal
leaders of the opposition were the landlords, who feared that such a drastic widening of the streets would reduce the
amount of land available for development.
(20) Winter was approaching; consequently, it was necessary for the rebuilding to proceed at once. Permission was,
therefore, granted for the townspeople and landlords to commence reconstruction of their houses and shops at the
sites where they had been before the fire. Had the need for immediate action not been so pressing, some kind of
compromise could likely have been reached. This was not to be, however, and the ideas that could (25) have made
London one of the world's most beautiful cities never came to pass.

11 The probable meaning of “reduced to ashes” (line 2) is ..........

A. made unbearably hot B. discolored by the fire and smote
C. covered with ashes D. destroyed by fire
12. Which of the followings was probably among the deplorable conditions of the city?
A. lack of adequate lightning
B. the rough streets and alleys
C. the run-down condition of many houses and shops
D. all of the above
13. What did Sir Christopher Wren describe as the reason for the damage of the city?
A. the configuration B. the construction C. the landscape D. the pathway
14. The word thoroughfares (line 13) refers to..........
54
A. public buildings B. streets C. alleys D. houses and shops
15. The word proclamation (line 14) refers to..........
A. promulgation B. speech C. request D. law
16. The word unveiled (line 16) refers to..........
A. concealed B. disclosed C. obscured D. edipsed
17. What became of the plans for the rebuilding of London?
A. Nothing - they were never finished.
B. They were adopted in modified form.
C. They were followed and London was rebuilt at once.
D. Nothing - London was rebuilt as it had been before the fire.
18. To whom or what does they (line 23) refer to..........?
A. the original building sites B. the townspeople
C. the burned-down houses and shops D. the landlords
19. Which of the following describes the author's probable attitude toward Sir Christopher Wren's plans?
A. He feels it would have been a mistake to rebuild London according to Wren's designs.
B. He feels it was a mistake for London not to have been rebuilt according to Wren's designs.
C. He feels that someone rather than Wren should have been chosen to plan the rebuilding.
D. He feels that Wren's ideas had much more influence than commonly acknowledged.
20. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for the passage?
A. "The Life and Times of Sir Christopher Wren"
B. "The Rebuilding of London"
C. "The Holocaust of Fish Street Hill"
D. "The London That Might Have Been"

IV. Câu 21-30: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi chỗ trống.
Smart Shoes

Smart shoes that adjust their size throughout the day could soon be available. A prototype has already been
produced and a commercial (21).....may be in production within a few years. The shoe contains sensors that
constantly check the amount of room left in it. If the foot has become too large, a tiny valve opens and the shoe
(22).....slightly. The entire control system is about 5mm square and is located inside the shoe. This radical shoe
(23).....a need because the volume of the (24)...... foot can change by as much as 8% during the course of the day.
The system is able to learn about the wearer's feet and (25)......up a picture of the size of his or her feet throughout
the day. It will allow the shoes to change in size by up to 8% so that they always fit (26)....... They are obviously
more comfortable and less likely to cause blisters. From an athlete's point of view, they can help improve (27)......a
little, and that is why the first (28).....for the system is likely to be in a sports shoe. Eventually, this system will find
a (29)......In many other household items, from beds that automatically change to fit the person sleeping in them, to
power tools that (30)......themselves to the user's hand for better grip.

21. A. assortment B. version C. style D. variety

22. A. amplifies B. develops C. expands D. increases
23. A. detects B. finds C. meets D. faces
24. A. average B. general C. usual D. medium
25. A. build B. pick C. grow D. set
26. A. exactly B. absolutely C. completely D. totally
27. A. achievement B. performance C. success D. winning
28. A. purpose B. exercise C. use D. operation
29. A. function B. part C. way D. place
30. A. shape B. change C. respond D. convert

V. Câu 31-40: Chọn từ/ cụm từ thích hợp nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.

31. Save your money. Don't.......it too quickly.

A. go through B. die down C. hold on D. touch on
32. They all have to follow the rules, and none of them is.......the law.
A. over B. beyond C. above D. onto
33. They.......the aid of the United States but did not receive it.
55
A. asked B. found C. sought D. obtained
34. The police spokesman said he was.......to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer they had been looking
for.
A. inclined B. seemed C. suspected D. supposed
35. I'm.......my brother is.
A. nowhere near as ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nowhere like so ambitious as D. nothing as ambitious as
36. He says he might come, but I........
A. doubt B. doubt it C. doubt so D. doubt about it
37. I'm sure your bank manager will lend you a.......ear when you explain the situation to him.
A. merciful B. sympathetic C. pitiful D. compassionate
38. Have you seen the girl.......?
A. that I told B. I told you of C. whom I told you D. I told you of her
39. Children usually.......a flu much more quickly than adults.
A. pick up B. pick at C. pick on D. pick out
40. The accident.......was the mistake of the driver.
A. causing many people to die B. caused great human loss
C. to cause many people die D. which causes many people to die

VI. Câu 41-50: Sử dụng từ trong ngoặc ở dạng thích hợp nhất để điền vào các chỗ trống.

Shadow puppetry is a traditional art form that often goes (41. appreciate).......in modem times. A large part of the
(42. appealable).......of puppet shows is the (43. craft).......behind the creation of the actual puppets. In shadow
puppetry, on the other hand, the puppets remain (44. see)......., so the real artistry is in the presentation. The
combination of the puppets’ shape, the background screen, and the light itself creates the overall effect of the shadow
puppet show. The task of the director is to ensure these elements are working together (45. harmony).......in order
to produce the optimal experience for the audience. The screen is the medium through which the audience
experiences the performance, so selecting the best screen is among great (46. essential)........ One unique challenge
for the director is that the presentation is two-dimensional. The screen is flat, so puppets can only move forwards
and backwards. Having chosen a screen and designed the set, the next step is to determine the light that will be used.
There are several factors to be considered: (47. intense)......., spread, and angle. Therefore, finding the optimal (48.
combine).......of light, shadow involves careful (49. plan)......and scrupulous design. Every detail must be controlled
in relation to others, making shadow puppetry an art of (50. precise).......

VII. Câu 51-60: Tìm từ thích hợp nhất để điền vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn. Mỗi chỗ trống chỉ điền MỘT
từ.

Son Doong Cave is in the heart of Phong Nha Ke Bang National Park in Quang Binh province of Central Vietnam.
Only recently (51).........in 2009-2010 by the British Cave Research Association, the cave has only been open to the
(52).........since 2013.
Fewer people have seen the inside of Son Doong Cave than have stood on the summit of Mount Everest. Join us
on this otherworldly expedition and become one of the lucky few (53)......... have had the life changing experience
of exploring the world's largest cave.
Imagine trekking straight into the (54).........of the world's largest cave on an expedition unlike any other. A cave
is (55).........massive that a Boeing 747 could fly through its largest cavern. Foreign landscapes found (56) .........
else, enormous stalagmites rising from the ground and statuesque stalactites hanging from the celling like an alien
species. Jungles emerge (57).........the cave itself, which is so surreal that it's worth seeing once. Misty clouds envelop
the whole scene, a result of the cave's own localised weather system. Passages adorned (58).........ancient fossils offer
evidence of the millions of years that have passed on this Earth.
As you approach the Jungle just outside the entrance, the (59) .......... of cool wind that cascades out brings to life
everything inside of you. Hazy, cold and exhilarating, it is apparent that there's (60)..........magical waiting just
beyond the opening to the cave.

VIII Câu 61-70: Sử dụng từ cho sẵn trong ngoặc và các từ khác để hoàn thành câu thứ hai sao cho ý nghĩa
của nó tương tự như câu thứ nhất. Chỉ được viết từ 2 đến 5 từ vào Phiếu Trả Lời và không được thay đổi
dạng thức của từ cho sẵn.

56
61. Mary cried her eyes out just after she was told she'd been rejected for the Job. (broke)
Mary...............................as soon as she heard she'd been rejected for the job.
62. I never thought that I would win the lottery. (occurred)
It never.................................................that I would win the lottery.
63. I failed to make him understand that I didnt want to see him anymore. (across)
I failed........................................that I didnt want to see him anymore.
64. Would you give us your answer as soon as possible? (convenience)
Please reply...................................................................
65. I'm so sorry, I didn't realise it was so late. (track)
Sorry, I..................................................................time.
66. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under)
Everyone who spoke to the victim...................................................
67. She will probably be chosen for the beauty contest. (stands)
She.........................................................chosen for the beauty contest.
68. "Can you tell me what happened yesterday, John?" She asked (account)
She asked John.....................................what had happened the day before.
69. Those two makes of car are practically the same. (hardly)
There are...................................................those two makes of car.
70. There is no way that I can meet you tomorrow. (question)
Meeting you tomorrow...........................................................

IX. Câu 71-80: Viết lại các câu theo gợi ý (kể cả những từ bắt đầu câu cho sẵn) vào Phiếu Trả Lời sao cho ý
nghĩa ban đầu của câu không thay đổi.

71. It's sad, but the crime rate is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad as .....................................................................................
72. You must concentrate on your study more.
You must apply ......................................................................
73. It has been nearly one year since they stopped subscribing to that magazine.
They cancelled ........................................................................
74. I don't feel like going to the party.
I am not in ..............................................................................
75. "Please don't run so fast!" Suzy begged her friend.
Suzy pleaded ..........................................................................
76. You should not only balance your diet but also do sports.
In addition ............................................................................
77. Immediately after their arrival, the meeting was delayed.
Barely ...................................................................................
78. If you don’t pay on time, your booking will be cancelled.
Failure ..................................................................................
79. David is proud of the fact that he is never late.
David prides .........................................................................
80. It’s nobody's fault that the meeting was cancelled.
Nobody is to .........................................................................

X. Câu 81: Viết một ĐOẠN VĂN khoảng 120 - 150 từ, sử dụng lập luận và dẫn chứng cụ thể để bình luận về
chủ đề sau.

To be admitted to university, using the result of study during high school years is better than that of the university
entrance examination. Do you agree or disagree?

HẾT

57
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 56
I. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
1. A. evaporate B. temperature C. impossible D. experiment
2. A. gravity B. professor C. pyramid D. remedy
3. A. abandon B. discover C. imagine D. satisfy
4. A. activity B. epidemic C. philosopher D. significance
5. A. picture B. business C. stranger D. return

II. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C and D) one best answer to complete each sentence.
6. He soon received promotion, for his superior realized that he was a man of considerable__________.
A. opportunity B. ability C. possibility D. future
7. Take the number 7 bus and get__________ at Forest Road.
A. off B. up C. down D. outside
8. Some people think it is__________ to use long and little-known words.
A. sensitive B. clever C. intentional D. skilled
9. Don't touch the cat, he may__________ you.
A. scratch B. kick C. tear D. scream
10. These old houses are going to be__________ soon.
A. run down B. knocked out C. pulled down D. laid out
11. The house is__________ at the corner of a busy street.
A. put B. stood C. placed D. situated
12. You must be careful when you wash this__________ silk blouse.
A. delicate B. weak C. feeble D. sensitive
13. The stolen jewels were__________ a lot of money.
A. worth B. priced C. valued D. cost
14. Would you be__________ to hold the door open?
A. too kind B. as kind C. kind enough D. so kind
15. He couldn't make the radio__________.
A. work B. to work C. working D. worked
16. I__________ do that if I were you.
A. won't B. don't C. shan't D. wouldn't
17. While studying he was financially dependent__________ his wife.
A. of B. to C. from D. on
18. He often__________ about his expensive car.
A. boasts B. shows C. prides D. praised
19. She isn't__________ well with the new manager.
A. going on B. getting on C. keeping on D. taking on
20. What do you mean, he's watching television? He's__________ to be washing the car.
A. hoped B. thought C. supposed D. expected

III. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets.

Forests from an integral component of the (21. SPHERE)_______ are essential to the (22.
STABILITY)_______ of global climate and the management of water and land. They are home for (23.
COUNT)_______ plants and animals that are vital elements of our life-supporting systems, as well as for millions
of forest (24. DWELL)_______ . They provide goods for direct (25. CONSUME)_______ (including recreational
activities) and land for food production. They also represent capital when converted to shelter and (26.
FRASTRUCTURE)_______ .
The two main types of forests are tropical, which are rich in (27. DIVERSITY)_______ and valuable tropical
(28. WOOD)_______ and temperate, which serve as the world’s primary source of industrial wood. The temperate
forests (1.5 billion hectares) can be found mainly in developed countries, whereas the tropical forests (both moist
and dry, (29. TOTAL)_______ about 1.5 billion ha each) stretch across the developing world. Two thirds of the
tropical moist forests are in Latin America, with the (30. REMAIN)_______ split between Africa and Asia; three
quarters of the tropical dry forests are in Africa.

IV. Each sentence below has four underlined words or phrases marked A, B, C, D. Circle one underlined word
or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
31. My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem.
58
 A. a problem B. whenever C. some good D. giving
32. The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
A. is parked B. of whom the C. a famous pop star D. front of
33. The better you are at English, more chance you have to get a job with international organizations.
A. a job B. better C. are at D. more chance
34. There are differences and similarities between Vietnamese and American culture.
A. Vietnamese B. and similarities C. There are D. culture
35. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A. with B. Society C. available D. will be having

V. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, find and correct it.

VI. Read the following passage then choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C and D) to
complete the numbered blanks in the passage.
Several years ago while I was visiting Athens for a few weeks, I decided to spend a whole day on a nearby
island. The weather (46)________ had predicted that it would be a scorching hot day so (47)________ off early in
the morning.
Even though I arrived at the port in plenty of time, I was forced to sit on the top (48)________because other
passengers who had got to the boat earlier filled the lower ones. Soon after the boat had departed, somebody came
round with raffle tickets. There were, as far as I could make (49)________two prizes: a bag of fresh fish and several
(50)________ of chocolate. I bought a ticket, not expecting to win as I had never won anything in a raffle
(51)________.
Some time later the person who had sold the tickets announced the winning numbers. To my great surprise,
I had won the chocolate. I was naturally delighted, but (52)________how I could prevent it from (853)________in
the intense heat. Realizing that I could not possible eat it all myself, I (54)________it with the passengers sitting
near me. In return, they offered me sandwiches and (55)________drinks.
All in all, it was a pleasant start to a memorable day with my new acquaintances.
46. A. prediction B. prophecy C. forecast D. foresight
47. A. went B. left C. departed D. set
48. A. deck B. layer C. floor D. storey
49. A. up B. out C. for D. over
50. A. bars B. slices C. cartons D. packets
51. A. again B. before C. since D. already
52. A. thought B. questioned C. wondered D. regarded
53. A. dissolving B. liquefying C. melting D. spreading
54. A. separated B. divided C. distributed D. shared
55. A. soft B. light C. bubbly D. sparkling

VII. Read the following passage and then choose one word to fill in each blank.
MTV stands for Music Television. It's a television (56)________ dedicated to pop music. It was
(57)________ on 1st August 1981 in the United States. Because of MTV's instant success in the US, the company
expanded into other (58)________. MTV Europe (59)________ operating on 1st August 1987. MTV Europe
(60)________ 24 hours a day from its London studios. It can be seen in 33 countries and reaches an estimated
(61)________ of 110 million viewers.

59
 People of 19 different nationalities work at London headquarters, and they try to offer a (62) of music from
all over Europe. The channel broadcasts in (63)________ but Germany provides the biggest number of viewers.
Currently, one fifth of the (64)________ is by German artists.
Most of TV output is video and concerts, but there is also a programme (65)________ Unplugged, where
major artists play live and acoustic in front of a small studio audience.

VIII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
The Stone Age was a period of history which began in approximately two million B.C and lasted until 3000
B.C. Its name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that modern scientists found. This period was divided
into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic Ages.
During the first period (2 million to 8000 B.C), the first hatchet and use of fire for heating and cooking were
developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about one million years into the Paleolithic Age, people were
forced to seek shelter in caves, wear clothing, and developed new tools.
During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C), people made crude pottery and the first fish hooks, took
dogs hunting, and developed the bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century A.D.
The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 B.C) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs, and cattle, being
less nomadic than in previous eras, establishing permanent settlements, and creating governments.
66. Into how many periods was the Stone Age divided?
A. two B. three C. four D. five
67. The word “derived” is closest meaning to___________.
A. originated B. destroyed C. inferred D. discussed
68. Which of the following was developed earliest?
A. fish hook B. bow and arrow C. hatchet D. pottery
69. Which of the following developments is NOT related to the conditions of the Ice Age?
A. farming B. clothing C. living indoors D. using fire
70. The word “crude” is closest meaning to___________.
A. extravagant B. complex C. vulgar D. primitive
71. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because____________.
A. it was very durable like stone B. there was little vegetation
C. the stools and weapons was made of stone D. the people lived in stone caves
72. The word “nomadic” is closest meaning to___________.
A. sedentary B. wandering C. primitive D. inquisitive
73. The word “eras” is closest meaning to___________.
A. families B. periods C. herds D. tools
74. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age?
A. people were inventive B. people were warriors
C. People stayed indoors all the time D. people were crude
75. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The Neolithic Age B. The Stone Age C. The Ice Age D. The Paleolithic Age

IX. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it.
76. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
→ Rather__________________________________________________.
77. There aren’t many other books which explain this problem so well.
→ In few other books____________________________________.
78. I dislike it when people criticize me unfairly.
→ I object_________________________________________________.
79. Robert is sorry now that he didn’t accept the job.
→ Robert now wishes___________________________________.
80. I am having a lot of trouble now because I host my passport last week.
→ If I______________________________________________________.
81. When the police caught him, he was climbing over the garden wall.
→ The police caught_____________________________________.
82. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
→ Sad______________________________________________________.
83. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
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 → The man is_____________________________________________.
84. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
→ Having_________________________________________________.
85. “Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said.
→ She flatly_______________________________________________.

X. Writing an essay.
“Economic start-up projects among the young nowadays make us believe in a prosperous future for the
nation”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your points.
____________THE END____________

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 57
Part A: phonetics
I: Pick out the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest(5pts)
1. A. confide B. hobbies C. convince D. principle
2. A. kites B. sketches C. oranges D. buzzes
3. A. mountain B. pronounce C. country D. pounce
4. A. common B. conceited C. won D. terror
5. A. solution B. resolution C. success D. prosperity
II. Pick out the word that has the tress syllable different from that of the other words (5pts)
6. A. agency B. memory C. influence D. encounter
7. A. detective B. completely C. regional D. campaign
8. A. preservation B. dictation C. reservation D. liberation
9. A. preserve B. tropical C. climate D. temperature
10. A. advantage B. authority C. government D. intention
Part B : vocabulary and grammar

I. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence(15pts)
1. The school was closed for a month because of serious . . . . . . . . . . . . of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
2. Don’t be late for the interview, . . . . . . . . . . . . people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
3. Women……………. wear long dresses.
A. are used to B. used to C. used for D. all are correct
4. He went…………… a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. down with B. in for C. over D. through
5. We have had the roof of our house……………..
A. to replace B. replace C. been replaced D. replaced
6. There was no……………..in waiting longer than half an hour, so we left.
A. good B. use C. worth D. point
7. The soldier was punished for………. to obey his commanding officer’sorders.
A. refusing B. regretting C. objecting D. resisting
8. She is………….. to leave as soon as possible.
A. cautious B. anxious C. worried D. nervous
9. There was nothing special about his clothes………… from his flowery tie.
A. but B. except C. other D. apart
10. She……….. her husband’s job for his ill health.
A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed
11…………..you have no key, you’ll have to get back before I go out.
A. although B. provided C. as D. unless
12. Radar…………….. pilots to land safely in difficult weather conditions.
A. forces B. gets C. enables D. warns
13. I’m sorry, I haven’t got any money. I have ……..my wallet at home
A. missed B. left C. let D. forgotten
14. The man …………of the killing said that he was at the cinema at that time
A. accused B. was accused C. accusing D. be accused
15. It isn’t quite ……….that he will turn up at the meeting
A. certain B. exact C. sure D. right

II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)

1. I don’t believe it! It’s three in the morning and that party still…………(not finish).
2. Two miles ...(be) ... enough for her to go jogging every morning
3. Don’t call him at 2.30 p.m. He ( interview)................ job applicants at that time
4.I didn’t do the test well. I .................(prepare) it very carefully at home
5. Our car broke down. But for that, we………………. (to be) in time
6. It is imperative that the letter ……………(send) at once
7. I don’t mind her ………………(appoint) above me
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8. When I see my brother again, he ……………(finish) all his exams
9. My father would rather that we ………………..(not leave) yesterday
10. Jane’s train ……………….(arrive) tomorrow morning at 7.00 so we will meet him at the station
III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)

1. Tom spoke…………………………because he was so excited. (BREATHE)

2. Do you ever suffer from…………………. (BORE)
3. Are there any………………………rivers left in the world? (POLLUTE)
4. This new film is…………………………….good. (EXCEPT)
5. Freedom of………………is one of the fundamental rights. (SPEAK)
6. After the explosion, only two people were left…………….. (LIVE)
7. The evening was…………………..spent playing and talking. (ENJOY)
8. Everyone has a number of………..but none has many true friends. (ACQUAINT)
9. There is a shortage of pure water in the city nowadays. We have to use it…… (ECONOMY)
10. ……………children will not be allowed to cross busy roads. (ACCOMPANY)
IV. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.(10pts)
1. The King was too happy that he decided to build a pagoda of lotus shape over water.
2. If I knew you were coming , I would have met you at the airport.
3. Found in 1933, The New York Sun was the first successful penny newspaper.
4. For such an experience and able teacher , discipline was not a problem
5. Never before have so many people in the United States interested in soccer.
6. Keeping calmly is the secret of passing your driving test
7. They didn’t seem to take any notice of that the teacher said.
8. Marie asked Sandra whether she knew the post office had been at strike for the past week
9. Nobody watched, so the little boy took the packet of sweets from the shelf and putting it in his pocket.
10. More and more women are now joining the pay labor force worldly
Part C : Reading

I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space(10pts)
Around the age of sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. Do I stay on at school
and hopefully go on to university (1)_____? Do I leave and start work or beginning a training (2)_____ ?
The decision is yours, but it may be (3)_____ remembering two things: there is more unemployment
(4)_____ who haven’t been to university, and people who have the right (5)_____ will have a big advantage in the
competition for jobs. If you decide to go (6)_____ into a job, there are many opportunities for training. Getting
qualifications will (7)_____ you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn
(8)_____ you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (9)_____ possibility . This way,
you can save up money for your student days, as well as (10)_____ practical work experience.
1. A. after B. later C. then D. past
2. A. school B. class C. course D. term
3. A. worth B. necessary C. important D. useful
4. A. between B. among C. with D. through
5. A. notes B. papers C. arts D. skills
6. A. straight B. just C. direct D. rather
7. A. make B. help C. let D. give
8. A. where B. while C. when D. what
9. A. also B. again C. another D. always
10. A. getting B. making C. taking D. doing
II. Fill in the gap with one suitable word to complete the paragraph(10pts)

Most of the addicts are men. They come home (1)………….work, eat their meal quickly, and then spend the
evening (2)………..their computers. Some of them (3)………….programs, but most of them (4)…………play
games. Some wises say (5)……….computer is killing their marriage. Their husbands play until three
(6)……..four o’clock in the morning and all weekend. people (7)………..these lonely wives “computer widows”.
When television became popular in the 1950s, doctors said it caused “ television neck”, TV eyes and
(8)………….new illnesses, and makes their eyes tired. But worst (9)………..all, it is addictive. That means it is
(10)……….drinking, smoking or taking drugs. Some people can’t stop doing it.
III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10pts)
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If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius , they will cause a disaster. According
to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make.
Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations
can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a sensible
way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their child. Michael
Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging
private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons.
Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he
never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling. Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not
so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their
son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy
when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet
and unhappy.
1: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to ______.
A. push their child into trying too much B. help their child to become a genius
C. make their child become a musician D. neglect their child’s education
2: Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they ______.
A. force their children into achieving success B. themselves have been very successful
C. understand and help their children sensibly D. arrange private lessons for their children
3: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists.
4: Michael Collins is fortunate in that ______.
A. his father is a musician B. his parents are quite rich
C. his mother knows little about music D. his parents help him in a sensible way
5: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "surprised at" B. "extremely interested in"
C. "completely unaware of" D. "confused about"
6: Winston’s parents push their son so much and he ______.
A. has won a lot of piano competitions B. cannot learn much music from them
C. has become a good musician D. is afraid to disappoint them
7: The word "They" in the passage refers to ______.
A. concerts B. violin lessons
C. parents in general D. Michael’s parents
8: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT _____.
A. Winston’s father B. Winston’s mother
C. Michael’s father D. Michael’s mother
9: The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "getting ready to do something" B. "eager to do something"
C. "not objecting to doing anything" D. "not wanting to do something"
10: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that ______.
A. successful parents always have intelligent children
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education

Part D: writing

I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same meaning as the sentence printed before
it. (10pts)
1. He not only failed in his exam but also had a road accident
- Not only ……………………………………………………..
2. The book was so interesting that people couldn’t put it down.
- It was ..........................................................................................................
3. They had hardly left home when it started to rain.
64
- No sooner .....................................................................................................
4. Your hair needs cutting.
- It’s about time you .......................................................................................
5. I only recognized him when he came into light.
- Not until ……………………………………..……………………
6. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
- Had it not ……………………………………………
7. Everyone heard about the accident before I did.
- I was ...........................................................
8. Would you mind leaving your shoes outside?
- I’d rather…… ………………………………
9. The rail workers don’t intend to call off their strike.
- The rail workers have no..................................................... .....
10. We found that somebody had broken one of our windows
- One of our windows …………………………………………………………

II. Write a second sentence as similar in meaning as the first one. Use the word given.(5pts)

1.I find his handwriting very hard to read (DIFFICULTY)

……………………………………………………………………………
2. . I couldn't go to work because of the flood. (PREVENTED)
…………………………………………………………………………
3. I don’t believe in anything that he says.(whatever)
…………………………………………………………………………
4. He prefers tea to coffee.(Rather)
…………………………………………………………..
5. I’ve never read such a sarcastic essay before. (ever)
……………………………………………………..
…………The end……………

ENGLISH PRACTICE 58
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
21. A. candy B. sandy C. many D. handy
22. A. earning B. learning C. searching D. clearing
23. A. pays B. stays C. says D. plays
24. A. given B. risen C. ridden D. whiten
25. A. cough B. tough C. rough D. enough

65
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
26. A. eleven B. elephant C. energy D. envelope
27. A. preparation B. decoration C. television D. exhibition
28. A. leather B. paper C. iron D. ceramics
29. A. mirror B. invent C. wallet D. engine
30. A. discovery B. calculator C. aero-plane D. difficulty

III. Fill each blank with a suitable word or phrase.

11. The car can't have broken down. I_________ serviced last week.
12. If I_________ in that situation, I certainly wouldn't have had the courage to do what you did.
13. Although he had a difficult time during the war, it_________ harm.
14. It's no_________ the cold and wet, you'll just have to put up with it.
15. I won't have_________ their cars in the street outside the entrance to my house!
16. In times of hardship we have to learn to do_________ some basic necessities.
17. I'm_________ death of spiders!
18. I heard the thunder_________ in the distance.
19. He's been_________ weather for ages and still isn't back at work.
20. We made the uniforms ourselves as we couldn't_________ made.

IV. Find one underlined part marked A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.

21. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from America’s present or
past. A B C D
22. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed by long periods
covering by water. A B C D
23. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in flavor.
A B C D
24. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the monarch butterfly,
whom birds do not like to eat. A B C D
25. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way healthier.
A B C D

V. Give the right form of the word in each blanket in the following passage.
From what we had read in the (26. ADVERTISE)________, it promise to be the holiday of a lifetime – not
only a quality hotel in a top (27. SEA)_________ resort, but also (28. SURPRISE)_________ cheap with it! We
should have known it was too good to be true! We arrived at the airport to discover we only had (29.
STAND)_________ tickets and there was no guarantee we would be flying. Luckily, two places became free at the
last minute and we took off. The flight lasted at least (30. TWO)_________ as long as it should have and by the
time we arrived, we were both feeling rather (31. POOR)_________ , probably because of the dubious in-flight meal
we had had. We were met by our guide, who seemed (32. LANGUAGE)_________ incompetent and understood
very little of what we said to him. Instead of the hotel we had seen in the photograph back home, he took us to a
squalid little guesthouse much (33. FAR)_________ away from the resort than we were expecting. We wanted to
explain that there had been a (34. DREAD)_________ mistake but it was (35. USE)_________ trying to complain
– nobody could understand us.

VI. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
36. The child was told to__________ for being rude to his uncle.
A. forgive B. apologize C. excuse D. confess
37. This is the__________ of the bicycle which was stolen.
A. information B. detail C. example D. description
38. Some drives, after__________ annoy their fellow-motorists by slowing down again immediately.
A. passing along B. passing by C. overtaking D. taking over
39. It is__________ unlikely that the Queen agree to open the new Town Hall.
A. greatly B. highly C. mainly D. largely
40. I don't think he'll ever__________ the shock of his wife's death.
A. get by B. get over C. get off D. get through
41. Some school have very__________ rules of behavior which must be obeyed.
A. strict B. strong C. straight D. solid
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42. It was difficult to__________ a date which was convenient for everyone.
A. organize B. arrange C. elect D. provide
43. It's difficult to pay one's bills when prices keep__________.
A. growing B. raising C. rising D. gaining
44. You may not have to stay the night but take a toothbrush just in__________.
A. preparation B. case C. time D. order
45. She remembered the correct address only__________ she had posted the letter.
A. since B. following C. after D. afterwards

VII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage.
The Internet bus
In the desert areas that surround Tucson city, USA, students spend hundreds of hours on yellow buses each
year getting to and from their schools. But when mobile internet equipment was (46)____________ on a yellow
school bus, the bored, often noisy, teens were transformed into quiet, studious individuals.
District officials got the idea during (47)____________ drives on school business to Phoenix, two hours
each way, when they (48)____________ that, when they went in pairs, one person could drive and the other could
work using a laptop and a wireless card. They (49)____________ if internet access on a school bus could
(50)____________ students’ academic productivity, too.
But the idea for what students call ‘the internet bus’ really took shape when the district’s chief information
officer (51)____________ across an article about having internet across in cars. He thought, “What if you could
put that in a bus?”
The officials have been delighted to see the (52)____________ of homework getting done, morning and
evening, as the internet bus (53)____________ up and drops off students along the 70-minute drive.
(54)____________ some students spend their time playing games or visiting social networking sites, most students
do make (55)____________ their travel time to study.
46. A. installed B. set C. included D. structured
47. A. extraordinary B. occasional C. exceptional D. few
48. A. believed B. acknowledged C. estimated D. realised
49. A. thought B. imagined C. suspected D. wondered
50. A. increase B. enlarge C. rise D. heighten
51. A. got B. looked C. came D. put
52. A. total B. amount C. number D. measure
53. A. brings B. picks C. rides D. catches
54. A. Since B. Despite C. Although D. However
55. A. progress B. work C. use D. part
VIII. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.
TRAVEL INSURANCE
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case something
goes (56)________ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill and need
expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (57)________ will
help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (58)________, travel insurance is a way of earning
money (59)________ making false claims against insurance companies. For (60)________ some people pretend that
they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (61)________ never even existed, and then claim large sums in
compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total (62)________ £ 50 million per year. But the cheats’ luck
is about to run (63)________. (64)________ to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance
(65)________ someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay
through the nose for other people’s dishonesty.

IX. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot
must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of
approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is
exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person
determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves
travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of radio
waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining the time it takes
for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar set and
67
other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is the
term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots,
radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.
66. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The nature of radar. B. History of radar.
C. Alternatives to radar. D. Types of ranging.
67. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. Shape B. Size C. Speed D. Weight
68. The word “exemplified” in the passage can be replaced by_________.
A. “specified” B. “resembled” C. “illustrated” D. “justified”
69. The word “shouts” in the passage most closely means_________.
A. “exclaims” B. “yells” C. “shoots” D. “whispers”
70. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. explanatory C. humorous D. imaginative
71. According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined by_________.
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce off the object
B. the term “ranging” used for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object
D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set
72. Which type of waves does radar use?
A. tidal B. sound C. heat D. radio
73. The word “tracking” in the passage most closely means_________.
A. sending B. searching for C. ranging D. repairing
74. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. A history of flying. B. Other uses of radar.
C. The technology used by pilots. D. Uses of some technology.
75. What might be inferred about radar?
A. It takes the place of a radio. B. It has improved navigational safety.
C. It was developed from a study of sound waves.
D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.

X. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one, using the word in capital letters which
must not be altered in any way.
76. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)
→ You should ______________________________________.
77. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)
→ There isn’t ______________________________________.
78. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now. (halved)
→ The coal produced _____________________________.
79. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
→ The likelihood __________________________________.
80. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident. (prompt)
→ The policeman’s ________________________________.

XI. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given.
81. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.
→ If it hadn’t _______________________________________________.
82. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
→ There has _______________________________________________.
83. The only thing they didn’t steal was the television.
→ They stole _______________________________________________.
84. He didn’t succeeded in searching for the stolen car.
→ He tried in vain _________________________________________.
85. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
→ No sooner _______________________________________________.

XII. Writing an essay.

68
 “Soft-skills are more and more needed for future jobs”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your points.
____________THE END____________

69
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 59
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
31. A. geology B. psychology C. classify D. photography
32. A. idiom B. ideal C. item D. identical
33. A. children B. child C. mild D. wild
34. A. both B. myth C. with D. sixth
35. A. helped B. booked C. hoped D. waited

II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
36. A. difference B. suburban C. internet D. character
37. A. beautiful B. effective C. favorite D. popular
38. A. attraction B. government C. borrowing D. visit
39. A. difficulty B. individual C. population D. unemployment
40. A. biology B. redundancy C. interviewer D. comparative

III. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, find and correct it.

IV. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
21. You shouldn't have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely__________ of you.
A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. unconscious D. insensible
22. The job was more difficult than I__________ expected it to be.
A. might B. would C. have D. had
23. We had so many problems with the car that__________ we sold it and bought a new one.
A. to the end B. by the end C. at the end D. in the end
24. His parents think it's time he__________ married.
A. gets B. would get C. will get D. got
25. He__________ me to buy my air ticket immediately or it would be too late.
A. suggested B. convinced C. insisted D. advised
26. You will become ill__________ you stop working so hard.
A. until B. if C. unless D. when
27.__________ I ask him for the money he owes me, he says he will bring it in a few days, but I don't think he has
got it at all.
A. However B. Wherever C. Whatever D. Whenever
28. It was impossible for her to tell the truth so she had to__________ a story.
A. combine B. invent C. lie D. manager
29. He is very stubborn, so it will be difficult to__________ him to go.
A. make B. suggest C. persuade D. prevent
30. I hope he's__________ to buy some bread; there's hardly any left.
A. reminded B. proposed C. remembered D. suggested

V. Circle the option A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.

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31. Antarctica, which is largely covered by ice, receive hardly any rainfall.
A. largely B. rainfall C. receive D. hardly any
32. Jessica is only an amateur, but she sings sweeter than most professionals.
A. than B. sweeter C. is only D. an
33. Mrs. Adams was surprising that her son and his friend had gone to the mountains to ski.
A. her B. to ski C. surprising D. had gone
34. A cure for the common cold, causing by a virus, has not been found.
A. causing B. for C. a virus D. has not been found
35. Amelia Earhart, that was one of the pioneers in aviation, attempted to fly the world in 1937, but she and her
plane mysteriously disappeared over the Pacific Ocean.
A. over B. that C. in aviation D. attempted to fly

VI. Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space.
One (36. CHARACTER)________ of the modern world is that people increasingly find themselves living
side by side with people from other cultures. While in the past people with different cultures were able to live quite
(37. SEPARATE)________ , high mobility and freedom of movement mean that we are more likely today to be
confronted with people whose way the life is (38. FAMILIAR)________ to us. In such circumstances, (39.
RACE)________ is a real danger.
People feel a tremendous (40. LOYAL)________ to their own culture, and are often unwilling to develop an (41.
APPRECIATE)________ of the positive aspects of other cultures. They may feel that another culture presents a
threat to their own (42. INHERIT)________, one that could even lead to the (43. APPEAR)________ of certain
aspects of their way of life. Often, however, this threat is more a matter of (44. PERCEIVE)________ than reality
and different groups live in (45. RELATE)________ harmony in many parts of the world.

VII. Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C or
D next to the answer you choose.
Dolphins communicate mainly by (46)________ of sounds. These sounds not only (47)________ whistles,
but also so-called pulsed sounds, which are often described as squawks, barks, rasps, etc. However, they also use
breaching (jumping and falling back into the (48)________ with a loud splash) and pectoral fin (or flipper) and tail
(or fluke) slaps (hitting the flipper or fluke on the water surface). Body posturing and jaw popping also have a role
in (49)________. As for language, we do not know (50)________ they have one. Several studies have demonstrated
that dolphins can understand a structured language like (51)________. This has been demonstrated for a number of
other animal species as well (gorilla, California sea lion, and parrot). Some studies also indicate that dolphin
vocalizations are complex (52)________ to support some form of language. (53)________, it has not been
demonstrated (54)________ that they can undoubtedly communicate (55)________ themselves.
46. A. way B. mean C. using D. means
47. A. have B. include C. contain D. combine
48. A. water B. sea C. ocean D. river
49. A. reaction B. chewing C. speaking D. communication
50. A. why B. if C. when D. how
51. A. your B. ours C. our D. yours
52. A. too B. as C. enough D. so
53. A. Whenever B. Wherever C. However D. Whoever
54. A. yet B. still C. though D. neither
55. A. together B. each other C. between D. among

VIII. Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word.
Enjoyment is what drinking wine is all about. However, the more you know, (56)________ easier it becomes to select
the right wines for you or your guests. Wine is basically grape juice to (57)________ yeast has been added causing it to
ferment and produce alcohol. Alcohol is flavourless, so there must be something more (58)________ wine than this. Many
of the secrets of wine lie within the grape. Its pulp is a sugar solution which contains the things that give a wine its fruity
flavour. In a dry wine, most of a grape’s sugar has been converted (59)________ alcohol. In a sweet one, more sugar is left.
This can be felt on the (60)________ of the tongue. The pulp also contains acidity which gives the wine "crispness” that
makes the mouth water.
Too much (61)________ it can make you wince, too little and the wine could taste dull. The skin contains flavour
and tannin. Tannin produces a tingling sensation in the gums and gives a wine firmness. White grapes (62)________ their
skins removed before fermentation so tannin is only really found in red wines. The pulp of black and white grapes is
71
(63)________ same pale colour. The fact that the skins of black grapes are left on (64)________ the wine is fermented gives
red wine its colour.
The wines which are often considered to be the best are (65)________ where all the elements balance one another.
There are many grape varieties grown in many climates which influence the emphasis given to these features and this is why
wines can be so wonderfully different.

IX. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No
other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface
movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the
upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In
theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality,
however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent,
the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high
tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the
tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are
the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the
Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water
high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice
each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular
configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur.
Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
66. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
67. The words "In reality" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly
68. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect
one object in space has on the tides is_________.
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
69. The word "configuration" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. unit B. center C. surface D. arrangement
70. Neap tides occur when_________.
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction

X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it.
71. John didn’t celebrate until he received the offer of promotion in writing.
→ Not until ______________________________________________________.
72. I don’t really like her, even though I admire her achievements.
→ Much __________________________________________________________.
73. It’s thought that the accident was caused by human error.
→ The accident _________________________________________________.
74. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
→ There has ____________________________________________________.
75. This affair does not concern you.
→ This affair is no ______________________________________________.
76. You must submit articles for the magazine by June 18th.
→ The final date _________________________________________________.
77. Although Jimmy was the stronger of the two, his attacker soon overpowered him.
→ Despite his ____________________________________________________.
72
78. What a surprise to see you here!
→ Fancy __________________________________________________________.
79. I don’t intend to apologize to either of them.
→ I have _________________________________________________________.
80. It was only when I left home that I realized how much my father meant to me.
→ Not until _______________________________________________________.

XI. Writing an essay.

“Stable development (development without harming the environment) is essential for the present time as well as
the future”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your points.
____________THE END____________

73
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 60
I. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
6. A. evaporate B. temperature C. impossible D. experiment
7. A. gravity B. professor C. pyramid D. remedy
8. A. abandon B. discover C. imagine D. satisfy
9. A. activity B. epidemic C. philosopher D. significance
10. A. picture B. business C. stranger D. return

II. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C and D) one best answer to complete each sentence.
6. He soon received promotion, for his superior realized that he was a man of considerable__________.
A. opportunity B. ability C. possibility D. future
7. Take the number 7 bus and get__________ at Forest Road.
A. off B. up C. down D. outside
8. Some people think it is__________ to use long and little-known words.
A. sensitive B. clever C. intentional D. skilled
9. Don't touch the cat, he may__________ you.
A. scratch B. kick C. tear D. scream
10. These old houses are going to be__________ soon.
A. run down B. knocked out C. pulled down D. laid out
11. The house is__________ at the corner of a busy street.
A. put B. stood C. placed D. situated
12. You must be careful when you wash this__________ silk blouse.
A. delicate B. weak C. feeble D. sensitive
13. The stolen jewels were__________ a lot of money.
A. worth B. priced C. valued D. cost
14. Would you be__________ to hold the door open?
A. too kind B. as kind C. kind enough D. so kind
15. He couldn't make the radio__________.
A. work B. to work C. working D. worked
16. I__________ do that if I were you.
A. won't B. don't C. shan't D. wouldn't
17. While studying he was financially dependent__________ his wife.
A. of B. to C. from D. on
18. He often__________ about his expensive car.
A. boasts B. shows C. prides D. praised
19. She isn't__________ well with the new manager.
A. going on B. getting on C. keeping on D. taking on
20. What do you mean, he's watching television? He's__________ to be washing the car.
A. hoped B. thought C. supposed D. expected

III. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets.

Forests from an integral component of the (21. SPHERE)_______ are essential to the (22.
STABILITY)_______ of global climate and the management of water and land. They are home for (23.
COUNT)_______ plants and animals that are vital elements of our life-supporting systems, as well as for millions
of forest (24. DWELL)_______ . They provide goods for direct (25. CONSUME)_______ (including recreational
activities) and land for food production. They also represent capital when converted to shelter and (26.
FRASTRUCTURE)_______ .
The two main types of forests are tropical, which are rich in (27. DIVERSITY)_______ and valuable tropical
(28. WOOD)_______ and temperate, which serve as the world’s primary source of industrial wood. The temperate
forests (1.5 billion hectares) can be found mainly in developed countries, whereas the tropical forests (both moist
and dry, (29. TOTAL)_______ about 1.5 billion ha each) stretch across the developing world. Two thirds of the
tropical moist forests are in Latin America, with the (30. REMAIN)_______ split between Africa and Asia; three
quarters of the tropical dry forests are in Africa.

IV. Each sentence below has four underlined words or phrases marked A, B, C, D. Circle one underlined word
or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
31. My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem.
74
 A. a problem B. whenever C. some good D. giving
32. The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
A. is parked B. of whom the C. a famous pop star D. front of
33. The better you are at English, more chance you have to get a job with international organizations.
A. a job B. better C. are at D. more chance
34. There are differences and similarities between Vietnamese and American culture.
A. Vietnamese B. and similarities C. There are D. culture
35. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A. with B. Society C. available D. will be having

V. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, find and correct it.

VI. Read the following passage then choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C and D) to
complete the numbered blanks in the passage.
Several years ago while I was visiting Athens for a few weeks, I decided to spend a whole day on a nearby
island. The weather (46)________ had predicted that it would be a scorching hot day so (47)________ off early in
the morning.
Even though I arrived at the port in plenty of time, I was forced to sit on the top (48)________because other
passengers who had got to the boat earlier filled the lower ones. Soon after the boat had departed, somebody came
round with raffle tickets. There were, as far as I could make (49)________two prizes: a bag of fresh fish and several
(50)________ of chocolate. I bought a ticket, not expecting to win as I had never won anything in a raffle
(51)________.
Some time later the person who had sold the tickets announced the winning numbers. To my great surprise,
I had won the chocolate. I was naturally delighted, but (52)________how I could prevent it from (853)________in
the intense heat. Realizing that I could not possible eat it all myself, I (54)________it with the passengers sitting
near me. In return, they offered me sandwiches and (55)________drinks.
All in all, it was a pleasant start to a memorable day with my new acquaintances.
46. A. prediction B. prophecy C. forecast D. foresight
47. A. went B. left C. departed D. set
48. A. deck B. layer C. floor D. storey
49. A. up B. out C. for D. over
50. A. bars B. slices C. cartons D. packets
51. A. again B. before C. since D. already
52. A. thought B. questioned C. wondered D. regarded
53. A. dissolving B. liquefying C. melting D. spreading
54. A. separated B. divided C. distributed D. shared
55. A. soft B. light C. bubbly D. sparkling

VII. Read the following passage and then choose one word to fill in each blank.
MTV stands for Music Television. It's a television (56)________ dedicated to pop music. It was
(57)________ on 1st August 1981 in the United States. Because of MTV's instant success in the US, the company
expanded into other (58)________. MTV Europe (59)________ operating on 1st August 1987. MTV Europe
(60)________ 24 hours a day from its London studios. It can be seen in 33 countries and reaches an estimated
(61)________ of 110 million viewers.

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 People of 19 different nationalities work at London headquarters, and they try to offer a (62) of music from
all over Europe. The channel broadcasts in (63)________ but Germany provides the biggest number of viewers.
Currently, one fifth of the (64)________ is by German artists.
Most of TV output is video and concerts, but there is also a programme (65)________ Unplugged, where
major artists play live and acoustic in front of a small studio audience.

VIII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
The Stone Age was a period of history which began in approximately two million B.C and lasted until 3000
B.C. Its name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that modern scientists found. This period was divided
into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic Ages.
During the first period (2 million to 8000 B.C), the first hatchet and use of fire for heating and cooking were
developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about one million years into the Paleolithic Age, people were
forced to seek shelter in caves, wear clothing, and developed new tools.
During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C), people made crude pottery and the first fish hooks, took
dogs hunting, and developed the bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century A.D.
The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 B.C) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs, and cattle, being
less nomadic than in previous eras, establishing permanent settlements, and creating governments.
66. Into how many periods was the Stone Age divided?
A. two B. three C. four D. five
67. The word “derived” is closest meaning to___________.
A. originated B. destroyed C. inferred D. discussed
68. Which of the following was developed earliest?
A. fish hook B. bow and arrow C. hatchet D. pottery
69. Which of the following developments is NOT related to the conditions of the Ice Age?
A. farming B. clothing C. living indoors D. using fire
70. The word “crude” is closest meaning to___________.
A. extravagant B. complex C. vulgar D. primitive
71. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because____________.
A. it was very durable like stone B. there was little vegetation
C. the stools and weapons was made of stone D. the people lived in stone caves
72. The word “nomadic” is closest meaning to___________.
A. sedentary B. wandering C. primitive D. inquisitive
73. The word “eras” is closest meaning to___________.
A. families B. periods C. herds D. tools
74. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age?
A. people were inventive B. people were warriors
C. People stayed indoors all the time D. people were crude
75. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The Neolithic Age B. The Stone Age C. The Ice Age D. The Paleolithic Age

IX. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it.
76. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
→ Rather__________________________________________________.
77. There aren’t many other books which explain this problem so well.
→ In few other books____________________________________.
78. I dislike it when people criticize me unfairly.
→ I object_________________________________________________.
79. Robert is sorry now that he didn’t accept the job.
→ Robert now wishes___________________________________.
80. I am having a lot of trouble now because I host my passport last week.
→ If I______________________________________________________.
81. When the police caught him, he was climbing over the garden wall.
→ The police caught_____________________________________.
82. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
→ Sad______________________________________________________.
83. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
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 → The man is_____________________________________________.
84. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
→ Having_________________________________________________.
85. “Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said.
→ She flatly_______________________________________________.

X. Writing an essay.
“Economic start-up projects among the young nowadays make us believe in a prosperous future for the
nation”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your points.
____________THE END____________

77
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 61
A. PHONETICS (1point)
Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by
circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)
1. A. breathe B. with C. southern D. thorough
2. A. naked B. coughed C. hatred D. sacred
3. A. cease B. chase C. increase D. raise
4. A. pleasure B. desert C. resort D. position
5. A. negotiation B. think C. invent D. enlarge
Question II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D.
(0.5 p)
1. A. assassinated B. international C. preferential D. differentiate
2. A. repudiate B. habitual C. entrench D. hormone
3. A. discipline B. commodity C. affectionate D. behave
4. A. certificate B. appreciate C. apologize D. classify
5. A. strategies B. positively C. anonymity D. neighborhood

B. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES

Question I: Choose the best word from A, B, C, and D that fits each blank. (2pts)
1. You look tired. Are you …………the weather?
A. on B. in C. under D. off
2. I showed the painting to an expert who …… it at about £500.
A. cost B. estimated C. assigned D. valued
3. He is very ill, and the doctors are not sure whether he will …… it through the night.
A. last B. survive C. endure D. make
4. She .......... modern art. She visits all the local exhibitions.
A. looks down on B. goes in for C. fixes up with D. comes up against
5. He did not share his secrets with many people, but he …………………..in her.
A. confessed B. concealed C. consented D. confided
6. Of course I’ll play the piano at the party but I’m a little …………………...
A. out of use B. out of reach C. out of turn D. out of practice
7 This museum has more visitors than ……………….. any other in the world.
A. really B. practically C. actually D. utterly
8. Her married name is Dawson, but Graham is her............. name.
A. maiden B. childish C. girlish D. virgin
9. The case for an increase in spending on education has been proved beyond the ………………..of doubt.
A. shadow B. hesitation C. suspicion D. shade
10. Her article on diet ………………….. many people into changing their eating habits.
A. surprised B. amazed C. startled D. shocked
11. This cloth ……………… very thin.
A. feels B. touches C. holds D. handles
12. The upper levels of the Sun’s atmosphere are of very low ..................heats the gases there to be very high
temperatures.
A. dense and solar B. density, solar activity
C. density, but solar activity D. density and activity of the Sun is
13. I don’t want to burden my daughter with my problems; she’s got too much ………………..
A. up her sleeve B. in her mind C. in effect D. on her plate
14. My English is progressing …………………………
A. leaps and bounds B. bounds and leaps C. odds and ends D. ends and odds
15. When John was arrested for drunken driving, he expected to lose his driving license, but he was …………with
a fine.
A. let through B. let off C. let out D. let down
16. She relies ……………………on her parents for financial support.
A. profusely B. amply C. heavily D. severely
17. It goes ………………saying that you’ll be paid for all this extra time you’re spending on the project.
A. for B. like C. with C. without
18. Unfortunately, I might have to leave for Boston …………….
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 A. for short notice B. under short notice C. at short notice D. to short notice
19. In spite of the fact that there is much written about Charlemagne, ……………………..
A. his character and personality are hard to visualize
B. is difficult to discover his character and personality
C. picturing his personality and character are hard things
D. you can’t figure out his personality and character
20. it’s all the same …………..me whether we go to Nha Trang or Vung Tau.
A. for B. on C. to D. as
Question II: Give the correct tense and form of the verb to fit each gap. (1p)
1. Everyone’s future depends on the whole world …………………….. (concern) about the ozone layer.
2. The sunlight ………( come ) through the window …………( wake ) me up early every morning.
3. His personal problems seem …………….( distract ) him from his work lately.
4. He suggested that a final decision ……………..( make )
5. It is necessary that the train ……………( be ) on time.
6. The eaten breakfast was still on the table. She ……………………….( call) away in a hurry.
7. His …………………….(take) ill was quite unexpected.
8. She was breathing fast and deep, s if she …………………………….(RUN).
9. According to yesterday’s newspapers, astronomers in Australia ……………..(discover) a planet in a galaxy
close to our own.

Your answers:
1……………… 2…………….. 3…………… 4……………..5……………..

6……………… 7……………… 8…………… 9………….. 10……………

Question III: Use the correct form of the word in capitals to fit each gap. (2 pts)
1. It was thanks to the …………………..of the medical staff that she recovered from her injuries.(DEDICATE)
2. …………………the hole in the ozone layer has doubled in size this year. ( ALARM )
3. It’s …………………..to see the friendship and enthusiasm these kids display on the sports field.(HEART )
4. The fans’ bad behavior has resulted in the …………of their football teem from the championship.( QUALITY )
5 John works completely independently – he is ……………..to nobody but himself. ( ANSWER )
6. She runs so ……………as if it’s the easiest things in the world. ( EFFORT )
7. Thanks to the operation my ……………..has improved considerably. I hope that after the next one I won’t have
to wear glasses at all. ( SEE )
8. The English term café, borrowed from French, is ultimately a ………………….of the Turkish kahve, meaning
coffee. ( DERIVE )
9. Cats are not considered to be social animals in the sense that they have never ………………..travelled in packs
or adopted leaders. ( HABIT )
10. I was overcome with great ………………….when my invitation was rejected by most of my friends.
(BITTER)

Your answers:
1……………… 2…………….. 3…………… 4……………..5…………….

6……………… 7……………… 8…………… 9………….. 10…………..

Question IV: There are ten errors in the passage. Find and correct them. (1 pt)

The big majority of students who make well in the 1. ………………………

Cambridge Proficiency Examination have learnt to use a 2. ………………………
Good monolingual dictionary effectively. Such 3. ………………………
Dictionaries provide informations, not just about the 4. ……………………..
Missings for the words but about their pronunciation and 5. ………………………
grammar as well. A student who studies how to use a 6. ………………………
dictionary effectively will be able to work independently 7. ……………………..
for much of the time, and will gain considerable insight 8. ………………………

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 to the workings of the English language. He or she will 9. ……………………..
be able to confirm to the meanings for the words in a text 10. ……………………..,,
where contextual clues are insufficient, pronounce words
accurately by studying the phonological transcriptions,
And use words accurately both when speaking and
Writing. Make sure you make the room for at least one
Good monolingual dictionary on your bookshelf- and
then make sure you use it at a regular basis!

B. READING
Question I: Read the following passage and circle the letter preceding the correct answer (A, B, C, or D)
which best fits each gap. (1pt)
In this age of ( 1) ................telephone networks and electronic mail, it seems that fewer and even fewer people
are taking time to sit down and write letters (2) .................friends and relatives. For hundreds of years, letters were
the only way to keep (3) ..................people who were any distance away and letter-writing was seen as an
important skill for all learned people (4) .................
Gradually, (5) ................., the importance of writing letters is decreasing to a point that majority of us have to
(6).....................a special effort to turn out something worthwhile when we apply for a job or make a complaint. In
business circles the tendency is for routine communications to become shorter. (7) ....................clients may
appreciate a detailed letter, an employee who sends out long letters is often regarded as (8) ................... Many
people prefer the telephone in all circumstances and its speed is essential in many situations but
(9) ......................have you put the telephone down, dissatisfied with what you have managed to say? I don’t think
I’ll throw my (10) ...................away yet.
1. A. progressive B. advanced C. highly-developed D. all are correct
2. A. to B. from C. for D. with
3. A. in step with B. in contact with C. in good terms with D. in favour of
4. A. to be mastered B. mastering C. to master D. mastered
5. A. therefore B. however C. in short D. for example
6. A. make B. do C. cause D. create
7. A. even though B. as though C. despite D. however
8. A. unimportant B. inefficient C. unusual D. impossible
9. A. how often B. how long C. how much D. how about
10. A. letter B. telephone C. pen D. effort

Question II: Read the text below and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). (1 pt)
The adage that “a woman’s place is in the home” no longer applies to the dauntless ladies in space. The first woman
in space was a Soviet who orbited the earth with a male companion in 1963 and landed unscathed after a three-day
sojourn aboard a spacecraft. Seemingly, it was inevitable that another Soviet woman would repeat her feat. The
second woman in space was Svetlana Savitskaya, a parachutist and test pilot, who served as researcher aboard Soviet
Soyuz T-7, which had a rendezvous with Salyut 7, the space station in which the longest manned orbital flight was
completed.
Ms. Savitskaya’s aptitude for space travel was patent in her past experience in aviation. Holder of several women’s
records in aviation, she had flown sundry types of aircraft and made over 500 parachute jumps. Her father was a
Soviet Air Force Marshal, and her husband a pilot. Without a qualm she boarded the spacecraft with her commander,
Lieutenant Colonel Leonid Popov, and another rookie astronaut who was the flight engineer.
Soviet authorities announced that they were looking forward to gaining further information about “weaker sex” ,
so-called in the Soviet newspaper Tass, under the stressful conditions of space travel. Sex, however, is not considered
n impediment but rather a benefit in space, for the Soviet have lauded women for their precision and accuracy in
carrying out experiments.
As planned, the American put their first woman in space in mid-1983. Sally Ride was their choice. Ms. Ride joined
the NASA program with five other women and thirty men to train as astronauts in the space shuttle program. She
faces an epoch when space travel will no longer be a glamorous adventure but rather a commonplace day’s work.
1. The word “rookie” is closest in meaning to
A. well-known B. novice C. experienced D. practicing
2. You can infer that women have been included in the space program as a result of
A. public outcry B. their husbands

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 C. their qualifications D. their ability of working under stress
3. Soviet authorities apparently think that men and women are
A. equal B. different C. weaker D. inevitable
4. The Soviet Salyut 7 was
A. joined by Solyut T-7 B. manned by a woman
C. an experiment D. a training craft
5. Ms. Savitskaya was chosen to travel into space because
A. her father was in the Soviet Air Force and her husband was a pilot
B. She was dauntless
C. her ability to endure stress and her precision in doing experiments
D. She was experienced in aviation
6. How did you know whether the statement “Ms. Savitskaya showed no fear of space travel” is true or false?
A. It was stated B. It was implied
C. No information was given D. It was invented
7. From the use of the term “weaker sex”, you can infer that the Soviets
A. think that Soviet women are not strong B. entertain a bias against women
C. think that Soviet men are better than women D. question the women’s movement
8. The word “lauded” is closest in meaning to
A. recruited B. promoted C. evaluated D. praised
9. An American woman has traveled
A. to the moon B. to NASA
C. in the space shuttle D. with the Soviets
10. Space travel will soon be
A. glamorous B. adventuresome C. an everyday experience D. a lot of work

Queston III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D in the
following questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
(1 pt)

Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally are not
always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm
at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters
shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity – horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into
snow banks – but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens,
swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anise do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air,
so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat losses by a
quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as "information centers." During the day,
parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening some will
have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when the birds set
out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did.
The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with
different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground,
whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel roosts and hunts
alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can learn from others where to find
insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at any
given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that mass
roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be
attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small
birds perching at the margins of the roost.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How birds find and store food B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together
2. The word "conserve" in line 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
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 3. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by ________.
A. huddling together on the ground with other birds B. building nests in trees
C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation D. digging tunnels into the snow
4. The word "magnified" in line 6 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. caused B. modified C. intensified D. combined
5. The author mentions kinglets in line 9 as an example of birds that
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes B. nest with other species of birds
C. nest together for warmth D. usually feed and nest in pairs
6. The word "forage" in line 12 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fly B. assemble C. feed D. rest
7. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?
A. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.
B. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
C. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.
D. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.
8. The word "counteracted" in line 23 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. suggested B. negated C. measured D. shielded
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle
together while sleeping?
A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.
10. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted.
D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
C. WRITING
Question I: Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the sentence preceded. (3pts)
1. There is nobody in this office that will offer a different opinion to the one I gave you.
 Whoever ……………………………………………………………………
2. Further progress was impossible because of the floods.
 The floods ………………………………………………………..…………
3. Helen won’t be happy till she gets a full refund.
 Nothing …………………………………………………………………………….
4. We were elated by the bird of our first grandchild.
 We ………………………………………………………………….…………..
5. Being her only niece, Ann is very precious to her. (APPLE)
 Being her only niece , ………………………………………………
6. Mary got the wrong end of the stick.
 Mary ……………………………………………………..……………….
7. It was assumed that Roy would marry that old rich lady.
 People took ………………………………………………………….……….
8. The sole survivor of the plane crash was Mary Peters.
 Mary Peters was ………………………………………………………..………….
9. The number of people who understand his ideas exceeds his expectations.
 More ………………………………………...................................……
10. The truth only came out on the publication of the general’s personal diaries.
 Only when ………………………………………………………………………
Question II: Do not change the given word, use it to write each of the following sentences so that each has a
similar meaning as the original one. (3 pts)
1. The young actress was very nervous before the audition. (BUTTERFLIES)
 ……………………………………………………………………..………
2. She has become a famous novelist. ( NAME )
 ……………………………………………………………………………………
3. Not a word came out of her mouth. ( LOST )
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 …………………………………............………………………………
4. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed. ( LEAF )
 ……………………………………………………………………………………
5. Could you come on Saturday? SUIT
 How ……………………………………………………………………………..?
6. We really loved to have a chance to visit the Colosseum but we couldn’t. (FOOT)
 We would sooner ……………………………………………………………… ………..
7. The committee had a long discussion but they could not make up their mind. (REACH)
 Lengthy ……………………………………………………………….………………….
8. The best solution was thought of by Peter. ( CAME )
 ……………………………………………………………..………………………
9. I think you misunderstood, Kevin. ( STICK )
 I think you must ……………………………………………………………..………
10. I hardly think she will agree to giving you a pay rise. ( LIKELIHOOD )
 ……………………………………………………………………………………….………..
Question III: Composition writing (4 pts)
In the future, students may have the choice of studying at home by using technology such as computers or television
or of studying at traditional schools. Which would you prefer? In about 200 words, write a composition expressing
your point of view. Give reasons and specific details to explain your choice.

Your answer:
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
THE END

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 62
I. PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. malaria B. eradicate C. character D. Spectacular
2: A. particular B. superstar C. part D. harvest
3: A. thread B. breath C. break D. Tread
4: A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown
5. A. complexion B. examination C. exaggerate D. exhibit
6. A. bushes B. wishes C. researches D. headaches
7. A. debt B. climbing C. timber D. lamb
8. A. break B. steak C. great D. bread
9 . A. confusion B. tension C. seizure D. measure
10. A. Foot B. school C. book D. good
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1: A. Innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
2. A. consignation B. abnormality C. supplementary D. confidence
3: A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
4. A. consignation B. abnormality C. supplementary D. confidence
5: A. institution B. university C. preferential D. indicative
6: A. colloquial B. however C. collision D. fellowship
7. A. salamander B. sanatorium C. sanitarium D. saturation
8. A. refugee B. decisive C. catastrophe D. committee
9. A. Magazine B. returnee C. misfortune D. monomania
10. A. purview B. promptitude C. property D. profound
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer
by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. Millie’s father accused her of _________.
A. trying not hard enough B. trying not hard enough
C. not trying hard enough D. trying not enough hard
2. The public library _________ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing research.
A. is opening B. is open C. is opened D. is being opened
3. I bought some new shoes. They felt a bit strange _________ because I wasn’t used to them.
A. first B. at first C. firstly D. first of all
4. I quickly packed my new belongings and spent _________ money I had on a one-way ticket home.
A. little B. a little C. the little D. a little of
5. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
6. Keep your ticket _________ you have to show it to an inspector.
A. if B. in case C. unless D. supposing
7. He always _________ aside some time every day to read to his children.
A. sets B. leaves C. spares D. lets
8. For the past few months she’s been as a street _________ selling fruit and vegetable.
A. dealer B. trader C. pusher D. vendor
9. I use weed-killer to _________ the weeds in the garden.
A. get rid of B. get out of C. get away with D. get in the way with
10. If there is new evidence that proves his innocence, it is likely that the authorities will _________ him from jail.
A. release B. relieve C. remove D. rehabilitate
11. The defendant’s lawyer wasn’t very good and he was found _________ by the jury.
A. faulty B. mistaken C. guilty D. sinful
12. The dish was so tasty that I asked for a second _________.
A. helping B. portion C. ration D. share
13. I’m amazed that this game has ever _________- it is so silly!
A. took in B. caught on C. took up D. caught by
14. - “I’m sure the Whitleys were involved.”
- “They _________ have since they know nothing about the business.”
A. can’t B. wouldn’t C. shouldn’t D. mustn’t
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 15. “Candy’s an excellent pianist, isn’t she?” – “She _________ to win the prize if she plays this well during the
competition.”
A. is due B. is bound C. is about D. is set
16. His friends offered to _________ the next time he was in town so that he wouldn’t have to pay for a hotel.
A. place him in B. put him up C. back him up D. turn him out
17. The doctor _______the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined B. investigated C. researched D. looked into
18. My mind went _________ when the official asked me my phone number – I couldn’t remember it at all.
A. empty B. clear C. blank D. vacant
19. During their first date, Jane had nervously peppered the conversation with _____talk.
A. unimportant B. tiny C. small D. trivial
20. You need a passport to cross the _________between Mexico and the United States.
A. edge B. line C. border D. rim

Exercise 2. There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them like the example provided.
Example: success (Line 1) → succeed

It is very difficult to success in the music business; nine out of ten bands Line 1
that release a first record fail to produce the second. Surviving in the music Line 2
industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires and intricate Line 3
knowledge of how a record company is functioned. The process begins when a Line 4
presenter of a company’s Artist and Repertoire (A&R) department visits bars Line 5
and night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands. After the representative Line 6
identifies a promised band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that Line 7
band. The signature of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will Line 8
spend a long time to investigate the band itself as well as current trends for Line 9
popular music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocates with Line 10
an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record Line 11
company and making personnel connections within the different departments Line 12
that will handle their recordings. Line 13
Line 14

Exercise 3. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letters. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Before going to an interview, it is advisable to go through a mock interview. This will give you the opportunity to
try out your technique and answers live. It is also a chance to receive feedback that is (1. BENEFIT) __________ in
guiding you towards improving your interview style and general (2. PRESENT) __________. Just one mock
interview will result in a (3. NOTICE) ______ improvement in your interview skill. Why? For the same reason that
a (4. SPEAK) _______ doesn’t exist while it is still on paper or floating in your head. It only exists when you give
it (5. ORAL)_______. The first time you give it in front of an audience, it will come out nothing like the one
you prepared.
It is the same with being interviewed. It is not enough to look at a question and say, ‘Yeah, I know the answer
to that one.’ You need to practise your answer live; this is not the time to talk to yourself in front of a mirror. Seek
out a (6. PROFESSION) _______ and have the session videotaped. Then you will have two opinions – the
interview’s and your own. You will find you get a completely different (7. IMPRESS)________ when listening to
yourself than when you are watching yourself saying something. Just as your voice always sounds different on tape,
so do your (8. RESPOND) _______. You will be glad the image is captured on tape and not in a potential employer’s
mind. For maximum effect, you should (9. VISIT)________ your answers and go through a second mock interview.
This should help with any (10. EASE)________ and give you more confidence for the real interview.

III. READING
Exercise 1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested that
human tears are (1) _____ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment we enter
this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or
uncomfortable. As they (2) _____, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they
get it.
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 The idea that having a good cry do you (3) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since
recent research into tears has shown that they (4) _____ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow
and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (5) _____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (6) _____ activity. Because some
people still regard it as a (7) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This kind
of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (8) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them
than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable – (9)
_____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (10) _____ “weepies”. It seems that people
enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.
1. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display
2. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
3. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
4. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
5. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce
6. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
7. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
8. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
9. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard
10. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called

Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Travel Insurance
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case something
goes (1) _____ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill and need
expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (2)_______ will
help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (3)_____, travel insurance is a way of earning money
(4) ______ making false claims against insurance companies. For (5) ______ some people pretend that they have
had expensive equipment stolen which in (6) ______ never even existed, and then claim large sums in compensation.
Such claims cost insurance company a total (7)_____ £50 million per year. But the cheats’ luck is about to run
(8)____ . (9) ______ to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance (10) _____ someone has
made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose for other
people’s dishonesty.

Exercise 3. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
The symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested nose. People suffering
from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated bouts of sneezing and may even lose their sense
of smell. Some victims of hay fever may also have stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who suffer from hay
fever may develop the symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The allergen-antibody theory
does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and glands in eyes and ears are controlled by the
independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the independent nervous system itself is part
of the emotional- response center and may cause the feelings of anger, fear, resentment, and lack of self-confidence
in reaction to allergy-causing substances.
The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms during the summer and
autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well as mold, come into contact with the victim’s membranes, they can
cause allergic reactions that release histamine and result in virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever or
to decrease the severity of its symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be reduced. Although some
communities have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause the reactions, elimination programs have not been
successful because airborne pollen can travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can help with short but severe
attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are prescribed a series of injections of the substance to
which they are sensitive in order to increase immunity and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy.
(Resource: Toefl test strategies by Eli Hinkel, Ph.D)
1. It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to________.
A. fodder for cattle B. a seasonal discomfort
C. viral bacteria D. a lung disease
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 2. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly________.
A. abdominal B. intestinal C. respiratory D. chronic
3. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined.
C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions.
4. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience________.
A. hunger pains B. mood swings
C. nervous blockages D. sensory perceptions
5. The word “resentment” is closest in meaning to________.
A. reprieve B. reprisal C. irritation D. grief
6. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by________.
A. wind B. food C. travelers D. air passages
7. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to________.
A. obstruction B. bleeding C. enlargement D. dryness
8. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to________.
A. avoid interactions with other patients B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. increase their self-confidence D. take doses of prescribed medicine.
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
A. pollen B. mold C. flowers D. injections
10. A paragraph following this passage would most probably discuss________.
A. how the nervous system alerts patients.
B. how the immune system reacts to allergens.
C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines.
D. what flowers are harmless to hay fever patients.
IV. WRITING
Exercise 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given.
1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaint about it.
Should ____________________________________________________
2. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.
I cancelled _________________________________________________
3. Her success went beyond her expectation.
Never _____________________________________________________
4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.
The more __________________________________________________
5. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation.
The operation left ____________________________________________
6. I am sure he recognized us at the airport.
He must ____________________________________________________
7. The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at the avenue.
Not until ___________________________________________________
8. “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” Helen’s boss said to her.
Helen’s boss criticized ________________________________________
9. Someone has suggested raising the parking fees in the city.
It _________________________________________________________
10. That dress is a third of the cost of the blue one.
The blue dress is three_________________________________________

Exercise 2. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some
solutions to this problem.

-------------Hết-----------

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 63
PART I. PHONETICS
Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words.
1. A. traditional B. composer C. musician D. powerful
2. A. lyrical B. emotion C. favorite D. classical
3. A. entertain B. atmosphere C. serious D. joyfulness
4. A. understand B. appearance C. remember D. employer
5. A. nation B. nature C. nationality D. national

PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.
1. Those interested in the post of Assistant Manager are requested to apply _______.
A. as a person B. in person C. as persons D. by person
2. I don’t care _______ you go or not.
A. where B. when C. why D. whether
3. If it wasn’t you who took my pen, it must have been _______.
A. somebody B. somebody else C. another one D. anybody
4. Did the man _______ by the committee accept the job?
A. appointing B. appointed C. was appointed D. to appoint
5. Don’t leave your clothes _______ about on the bedroom floor.
A. lie B. lay C. lying D. laying
6. She raced by in a car, with her hair _______ behind.
A. streamed B. stream C. streams D. streaming
7. I had my younger brother _______ the newspaper to me while I was abroad.
A. to send B. sent C. send D. sending
8. Joe, I am inclined _______ Appiah’s complicity in the big fraud.
A. about believing B. in believing C. for believing D. to believe
9. Now listen to me John. As far as your examination results are concerned, you needn’t worry so much,
________?
A. isn’t it B. need you C. do you D. aren’t they
10. His arrogance makes him _______ whenever he goes.
A. hated B. hate C. to hate D. hating

II. The passage below contains 5 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (0) has been done as an example.
After an absence in thirty years, I decided visiting my old school again. I had expected to find changes,
but no a completely different building. As I walked up the school drive, I wondered for a moment if I
had come to the right address. The grimy, red brick fortress with their tall windows that had looked
down grimly on the playground and playing fields had swept away. In its place stood a bright, modern
block raised from the ground on great concrete stilts. A huge expanse of glass extended across the face
of the building, and in front, there was a well-kept lawn where previous there had been an untidy gravel
yard.
Answers: 0. in  of

III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE.

1. Without a fridge, fresh food will go _________ very quickly.
2. I haven’t heard_________ Mandy since she wrote in July.
3. This service is free ___________ charge.
4. They went ahead contrary ____________ my advice.
5. The monk told me that the old woman had not really died. He said that she simply passed _______ her next life.

IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word.

1. The situation is so ___________ (CHAOS) in some countries now that it is difficult to see any solution.
2. Computers are now considered ________________ (DISPENSE) in the business world.
3. I will resign if you continue (REGARD) ________________ what I say.
4. She was late as she (ESTIMATE)_______________ how much time she’d need .
5. Politeness is one thing. Real kindness is another. You must learn to (DIFFERENT)_______________ the two.

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PART III. READING
I. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.
A Success Story
At 19, Ben Way is already a millionaire and one of a growing number of teenagers _______ (1) have made
their fortune through the Internet. _______ (2) makes Ben's story all the more remarkable is that he is dyslexic, and
was told by teachers ________ (3) his junior school that he would never be able to read or write properly. "I wanted
to prove them wrong", says Ben, creator and director of Way search, a net search engine which can be used to find
goods _______ (4) online shopping malls.
When he was eight, his local authorities provided him ________ (5) a PC to help with schoolwork. Although
he was unable to read the manuals, he had a natural ________ (6) with the computer, and encouraged by his father,
he soon began charging people E10 an hour for his knowledge and skills. At the age of 15 he set up his own computer
consultancy, Quad Computer, which he ran from his bedroom, two years later he left school _______ (7) devote all
his time to business.
"By this time the company had grown and I needed to take ________ (8) a couple of employees to help me,"
says Ben. “That enabled me to start doing business with bigger companies.” It was his ability to consistently _______
(9) difficult challenges that led him to win the You Entrepreneur of the Year award in the same year that he formed
Way search, and he has recently signed a deal worth £25 million with a private investment company, which will
finance _______ (10) search engine.

II. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space.
Stress-related hair loss
When stress levels become so high that they affect the immune system it can have a profound effect on the
body and the hair. Hair loss itself causes immense stress and then it can become a vicious (1)_______.
Bonnie Kinnear, 50s, housewife: “Last year my life was quite stressful due to my husband’s high-profile
career being constantly in the (2) ________. At this time I began to develop an intense scalp which was wrongly
diagnosed as psoriasis, for which I was prescribed steroids. Over the next two months my scalp become worse, and
hair began to fall out, leaving hairy patches, which was devastating.
Having to look good and be a support to my famous husband was stressful because wherever we went people
would look at us. I had lost at (3) ________ one third of my hair and, in hope, visited a high-profile Mayfair
trichologist. Without any diagnosis I was ordered to buy £300 worth of products and my head was massaged by a
girl who proceeded to turn my hair into what is seen as ‘bird’s-nest syndrome’. It took four hours to (4) ________.
My GP convinced me to seek help from Andrew Bernie. I was diagnosed with a stress-triggered condition
where the skin cells multiply fast, grow down the hair shaft and bind with sebaceous matter to strangle the hair. I
visit Andrew regularly for treatments. I am also trying to (5) ________ my stress levels, which is easier now my
hair is returning.
1. A. effect B. cycle C. closure D. circle
2. A. daylight B. searchlight C. spotlight D. starlight
3. A. once B. all C. least D. first
4. A. replace B. untangle C. return D. reset
5. A. destroy B. assess C. manage D. measure

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.
As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The
legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the
early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a tall, dignified,
religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually
accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually developed
into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian
character of Black Peter.
Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from Saint
Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Americans
to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa
Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19th century.
Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children.
By the late 19th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia
O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes,
Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”.
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1. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage?
A. Sinter Klaas B. Saint Nicholas C. A German D. Dutch settlers
2. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a __________.
A. tall man who could walk through the air B. fat, jolly, old man
C. religious figure D. fat man riding a white horse
3. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as ___________.
A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter
B. a good old man with less religious character
C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas
D. a jolly man on horseback
4. Who was Black Peter?
A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas C. one of the disobedient children
B. an elf who rode a white horse D. a popular traditional figure
5. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”?
A. symbols of a person B. natural qualities C. effects D. outer appearance
6. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from?
A. the North Pole B. Europe C. North America D. the City of New York
7. 1823 was mentioned as a year when ____________.
A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem
B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular
C. Saint Nicholas visited New York
D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed
8. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem,
A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one.
B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly.
C. Santa Claus liked poetry.
D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh.
9. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that________.
A. the New York Sun was popular with children
B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time
C. newspapers are unreliable
D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun
10. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures.
B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas.
C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America.
D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter.
PART IV. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before
it.
1. Someone stole the old lady’s handbag.
The old lady was ___________________________.
2. A true story forms the basis of Mary’s new novel.
Mary’s new novel _______________________________.
3. If you have completed your test, you can go home.
Get ___________________________.
4. The employee insisted on being given a full bonus.
Nothing but __________________________________.
5. ‘I didn’t harm anybody!’ cried the accused.
The accused _____________________________.
II. There is a fact that a number of parents now increasingly desire to send their children to study overseas.
What are the reasons for this trend? You should write a paragraph of about 120 words on this topic.
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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 64
Question 1:
a. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.
( 3points)
1. A. thereafter B. therapy C. thesis D. theft
2. A. accuse B. because C. surprised D. nurse
3. A. chorus B. cherish C. chaos D. scholarship

b. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently fromthat of the other words.(2points)
4. A. extensive B. decorate C. distinguish D. acquaintance
5. A. significant B. ability C. political D. sympathetic

Question 2: Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence ( 15points)
1. Are there enough apples for us to have one .............. ?
A. every B. each C. self D. individually
2. We must .............. our pounds for dollars before going to New York.
A. change B. convert C. turn D. exchange
3. Who is the .................... of this company?
A. top B. head C. leader D. minister
4. That book is by a famous anthropologist. It’s about the people in Samoa .............. for two years.
A. that she lived B. that she lived among them
C. among whom she lived D. where she lived among them
5. The old man serves the ball so skilfully. He ..................... a good tennis player when young.
A. can be B. must be C. could be D. must have been
6. Instead of thingking carefully, he tends to .................... conclusions.
A. run at B. jump to C. fly into D. hit on
7. Can you really insure yourself .............. unemployment?
A. for B. from C. to D. against
8. I love this painting of an old man. He has such a beautiful, .............. smile.
A. childhood B. childish C. childless D. childlike
9. ............... more help, I could call my neighbour.
A. Should I need B. Needed C. I have needed D. I should need
10. ............... alone in ................. dark, deserted street is risky.
A. Walk/so B. Walking/so C. Walking such a D. Walked/such
11. I shall do the job to the best of my .................. .
A. capacity B. ability C. knowledge D. talent
12. Phone me before ten, .............. I’ll be too busy to talk to you.
A. unless B. whether C. otherwise D. if
13. To get a passport, you must send in your birth ................ and two photos.
A. certificate B. licence C. paper D. card
14. Dinosaurs are thought to ............... out millions of years ago.
A. die B. have died C. having died D. dying
15. A: Do you think you’ll get the job? – B: ………….
A. I know so B. Well, I hope so C. . I think so D. Yes, that’s right

Question 3: Use the correct forms of the verbs in brackets (10points)

1. Where have you been, Tom? Look at your face! You are a sight!
- Mummy, you .....................( always grumble).
2. With this promotion, I feel that I................... (reach) a turning point in my career.
3. ...............(convince) that they.................(try) to poison him, he refused to eat anything.
4. Why didn't you tell me you could lend me the money? I....................( not borrow) it from the bank.
5. I don't mind you................ (borrow) my laptop, but I'd sooner you..................(ask) me first.
6. Unfortunately tomorrow's match ...................(call off).
7. Do you realize that if the workmen are still there on Monday, they ........................(dig) up the road for a whole
month?
8. She can't bear................(leave) alone.

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Question 4: Fill each blank with the correct form of the words given. (10points)
1. There is a………living-room, with French windows. SPACE
2. I thought the test was ………. easy, actually. COMPARE
3. The driver who gave us a lift refused to accept…… PAY
4. This statue………. the soldiers who died in the war. MEMORY
5. We had to take out a…. . from the bank to buy the car. LEND
6. I find computers rather cold and….. PERSON
7. I think there is too much…… on T.V ADVERTISE
8. Jim is one of the most…..members of the committee. SPEAK
9. The car in front braked…….. and I ran into it. EXPECT
10. He wanted to escape from the............. of the small town where he had PROVINCE
been brought up

Question 5: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space.
(10 points)
Technology
When faced with some new and possibly bewildering technological change, most people react in one of two
……….(1). They either recoil from anything new, claiming that it is unnecessary, or too complicated or that it
somehow makes life less than ……….(2). Or they learn to …………(3) to the new invention, and
eventually………..(4) how they could possibly have existed without it. Take computers as an example. For many of
us, they still represent a ……….(5) to our freedom, and give us a frightening sense of a future in which all ……….(6)
will be taken by machines. This may be because they seem mysterious, and diffcult to understand. Ask most people
what you can use a home computer for, and you usually get ……….(7) answers about how ‘they give you
information’. In fact, even those of us who are familiar with computers, and use them in our daily work, have very
little idea of how they work. But it does not take long to learn how to operate a business programme, even if things
occasionally go wrong for no apparent reason. Presumably much the same happened when the telephone and the
television became ……….(8). What seems to alarm most people is the speed of technological change, rather than
change itself. And the ……….(9) that are made to new technology may well have a point to them, since change is
not always an improvement. As discover during power cuts, there is a lot to be said for the oil lamp, the coal fire,
and forms of entertainment, such as books or board games, that don’t have to be ………..(10) in to work.
1. A. moments B. kinds C. ways D. types
2. A. formerly B. lively C. personal D. human
3. A. adapt B. react C. conform D. use
4. A. decide B. wonder C. suppose D. admit
5. A. hazard B. risk C. control D. threat
6. A. measures B. decisions C. chances D. instructions
7. A. vague B. such C. up with D. hundreds
8. A. in existence B widespread C. through D. extensive
9. A. objections B appliances C. criticisms D. fears
10. A. wired B batteries C. plugged D. connected

Question 6: Supply the most suitable word for each blank (10 points)
People who are deprived (1) …… sleep lose energy and become quick-tempered. (2).......... two days without
sleep, a person finds that lengthy concentration ............. (3) difficult. He can force himself to
(4) …… tasks well for short periods, but he is (5)…….... distracted. He makes many mistakes especially at routine
tasks, and his attention slips (6) …… times. Even a "sleepless" person experiences periods in which he dozes off
for a few seconds or more. He falls completely asleep ............(7)he is kept active continuously.
Persons who go without sleep for more than three days have great (8)_____ thinking, seeing, and hearing
clearly. They have periods of hallucinations during (9)…….they see things that do not really exist. They also
confuse day dreams with real life and (10) …….track of their thoughts in the middle of a sentence.

Question 7: Read the article about endangered species. For questions 1-10, choose the correct answer A, B, C
or D. (10 points)
The word laser was coined as an acronym for Light Amplification by the Stimulated Emission of Radiation.
Ordinary light, from the Sun or a light bulb, is emitted spontaneously, when atoms or molecules get rid of excess
energy by themselves, with out any outside intervention. Stimulated emission is different because it occurs when
an atom or molecule holding onto excess energy has been stimulates to emit it as light
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 Albert Einstein was the first to suggest the existence of stimulated emission in a paper published in 1917.
However, for many years physicists thought that atoms and molecules always were much more likely to emit light
spontaneously and that stimulates emission thus always would be much weaker. It was not until after the Second
World War that physicists began trying to make stimulated emission dominate. They sought ways by which one
stomp or molecule could stimulate many others to emit light, amplifying it to much higher powers.
The first to succeed was Charles H. Townes, then at Columbia University in New York. Instead of working
with light, however, he worked with microwaves, which have a much longer wavelength, and built a device ha called
a “maser,” for Microwave Amplification by the Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Although he thought of the key
idea in 1951, the first maser was not complete until a couple of years later. Before long, many other physicists were
building masers and trying to discover how to produce stimulated emission at even shorted wavelengths.
The key concepts emerged about 1957. Townes and Arthur Schawlow, then at Bell Telephone Laboratories,
wrote a long paper outlining the conditions needed to amplify stimulated emission of visible light waves. At about
the same time, similar ideas crystallized in the mind if Gordon Gould, then a 37-years-old graduate student at
Columbia, who wrote them down in a series of notebook. Townes and Schawlow published their ideas in a scientific
journal, Physical Review Letters, but Gould files a patent application. Three decades later, people still argue about
who deserved the credit for the concept of the laser.
1. The word “coined” in line I could best be replaced by _________
A. created B. mentioned C. understood D. discovered
2. The word “intervention” in the first paragraph can best be replaced by _________
A. need B. device C. influence D. source
3. The word “it” in the last line of the first paragraph refers to _________
A. light bulb B. energy C. molecule D. atom
4. Which of the following statements best describes a laser?
A. A device for stimulating atoms and molecules to emit light.
B. An atom in a high-energy state
C. A technique for destroying atoms or molecules
D. An instrument for measuring light waves
5. Why was Townes’ early work with stimulated emission done with microwaves?
A. He was not conversed with light amplification
B. It was easier to work with longer wavelengths
C. His parents Schawlow had already begun work on the laser
D. The laser had already been developed
6. In his research at Columbia University, Charles Townes worked with all of the following EXCEPT A.
stimulated emission B. microwaves
C. light amplification D. a maser
7. In approximate what year was first maser built?
A. 1917 B. 1951 C. 1953 D. 1957
8. The word “emerged” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _________
A. increased B. concluded C. succeeded D. appeared
9. The word “outlining” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. assigning B. studying C. checking D. summarizing
10. Why do people still argue about who deserves the credit for the concept of the laser ?
A. The researchers notebooks were lost
B. Several people were developing the idea at the same time
C. No one claimed credit for the development until recently
D. The work is still incomplete

Question 8: There is ten mistakes in following sentences. Find and correct them.(10points)
My cousin and her husband lived in one of the suburbs of London.One morning they woke up to find at their
dismay that their car had been stolen from outside their house. They immediately phoned the police to report the
thief before left for work by bus.
When they returned home later the same day, they found that their car brought back and was parked in its
common place outside their house. Under one of the windscreen wiper was a small envelope.
They quickly opened it and found a note to apologize profusely for "borrowing" their car. The man who
wrote it explained that he didn't have the car itself, and his wife had gone into labour in the middle of the night with
their first baby. So he hoped they wouldn't mind too much that he had taken their cars without their permission in
order to run her to the hospital as it was anything of an emergency.
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Question 9:
a.Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. ( 5 points )
1. These young men became engineers after five years training.
-> After these young men...........................................
2. Under no circumstances should you phone the police.
-> The last................................................................
3. It was the goalkeeper that saved the match for us.
-> Had........................................................................
4. This is the quickest way to get into the city.
-> There is.................................................................
5. The instructions say you just add boiling water to the soup powder.
-> The soup powder...........................................................

b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given.
Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given. (5
points)
1. It has always been her ambition to write a successful novel. dreamt
-> She.............................................................a successful novel.
2. I met her while I was staying in Paris last summer. stay
-> I met her......................................................................in Paris last summer.
3. You got lost because you didn't do what I told you. instructions
-> If...................................................................you wouldn't have got lost.
4. I'll only leave the waiter some money if he's quick. tip
-> I won't..........................................................................he's quick.
5. Our neighbour says he definitely won't return the ball. keeping
-> Our neighbour says he......................................................................the ball.

Questions 10: Writing an essay about 200 words ( 10 points)

Nowadays, computers are an important part of most people’s everyday lives. This change has improved the
way people live.To what extent do you agree or disagree?

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 65

I. PHONETICS
Part 1: Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each
group. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry
2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D. basin
3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing
4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique
5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur
Part 2: Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line. Circle
A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear
7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate
8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal
9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence
10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your
answer. (20 pts)
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _____ of identical products.
A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification
12. Only the _____ of the building is going to be remodeled.
A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _____ to me.
A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment
15. The assistant suggested _____ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we came back
16. I never get a _____ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce
17. As it was Christmas, the _____ at church was much larger than usual.
A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping
18. The sheep were huddled into a _____ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen
19. The jury _____ the defendant “not guilty”.
A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found
20. Many _____ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _____ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _____ any solutions.
A. thought over B. come up with C. looked into D. got round to
24. You _____ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
A. must B. would C. should D. might
25. _____ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of the next century.
A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _____ for China.
A. will have left B. have left C. would have left D. will leave
27. Prizes are awarded _____ the number of points scored.
A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according to
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _____ neglected.
A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. pathetically
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _____ over 20 minutes a day.
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 A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses
30. It had been a trying afternoon, _____ at about six o’clock in the television breaking down.
A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalizing
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column
on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
According to some (0) _____ (SCIENCE), high-risk sports can be particularly (31) scientists
_____ (VALUE) for certain types of people. Such activities help them to learn that 31. ________________
being (32) _____ (FRIGHT) doesn’t mean that they have to lose control. The 32. ________________
recent fashion for jumping from bridges attached to a (33) _____ (LONG) of elastic 33. ________________
rope, known as “bungee jumping”, has now been tried by over one million people 34. ________________
(34) _____ (WORLD) and interest in it is continuing to grow. 35. ________________
Before the special elastic rope (35) _____ (TIGHT) around them, jumpers reach 36. ________________
speeds of nearly 160kph. First-timers are usually too (36) _____ (TERROR) to 37. ________________
open their mouths, and when they are finally (37) _____ (LOW) safely to the 38. ________________
ground, they walk around with broad smiles on their faces, saying (38) _____ 39. ________________
(REPEAT) how amazing it was. However, for some people, it is only the (39)
_____ (EMBARRASS) of refusing to jump at the last minute that finally persuades 40. ________________
them to conquer their fear of (40) _____ (HIGH) and push themselves off into
space.
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in
the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. 0. traditional → traditionally
Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and 41. _____________________
knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The 42. _____________________
proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation 43. _____________________
are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a 44. _____________________
person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, 45. _____________________
vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do 46. _____________________
better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests are in 47. _____________________
some sense achievement tests because they assumption some sort of 48. _____________________
past learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or 49. _____________________
situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude tests is 50. _____________________
the degree and intention use.
Part 4: Fill in each of the gaps with the correct preposition or particle. Write your answers in the
numbered spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
The show was fully booked (51) _____ for weeks, and when it opened last night, the public poured (52)
_____ and very soon the London Arts Center was packed (53) _____. But why? What did they come to see? They
came to see human beings take (54) _____ circus animals, men in cat suits who stood (55) _____ for real lions and
tigers. The show was put (56) _____ by its creators to protest (57) _____ traditional circuses and to send a
message about cruelty to animals. The show was timed to tie (58) _____ with the National Protection of Animals
Week. It was a good idea, but the standard of the performances was third-rate and an embarrassing number of
people simply walked (59) _____ before it ended. There were some amusing moments when the performers sent
(60) _____ typical circus folks, but overall it was a dismal show. Despite the large turnout for the show’s first
night, I doubt it will attract many people during the rest of its seven-day run.
Part 5: Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the phrasal verbs below. Write your
answers in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. Each verb is used only once. (10 pts)
try out slip up carry on get by put out
take after get down look up go through turn down
61. If you’re finding it difficult to _____ on your salary, why don’t you ask for a raise?
62. I know what you’re _____ and I feel really sorry for you.
63. In many ways you _____ your father.
64. If you _____ you’ll get into trouble.
65. I proposed to her but she _____ me _____.
66. You’d better _____ your cigarette because smoking isn’t allowed in here.
67. If you _____ working so hard, you’ll make yourself ill.
68. Stop worrying about it. Don’t let this failure ____ you _____.

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69. The car’s in quite good condition but you can _____ it _____ before you make any decision to buy,
70. When I was in New York, I was able to _____ several old friends I hadn’t seen for years.
Part 6: Insert A, AN, THE or Ø (zero article) where necessary. Write your answers in the numbered
spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
Suddenly (71) _____ blackbird flew to (72) _____ top of (73) _____ beach. She perched way up on (74) _____
topmost twig that stuck up thin against (75) _____. Then she commenced to sing.
Her little black body seemed only (76) _____ tiny dark speck at that distance. She looked like (77) _____ old dead
leaf. But she poured out her song in (78) _____ great flood of rejoicing through (79) _____ whole forest. And (80)
_____ things began to stir.
III. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Circle A,
B, C or D to indicate your answer. (10 pts)
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested that
human tears are (81) _____ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment we
enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or
uncomfortable. As they (82) _____, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when
they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (83) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since recent
research into tears has shown that they (84) _____ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and
pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (85) _____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (86) _____ activity. Because some people
still regard it as a (87) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This kind of
repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (88) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them
than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable – (89)
_____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (90) _____ “weepies”. It seems that people
enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.
81. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display
82. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
83. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
84. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
85. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce
86. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
87. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
88. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
89. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard
90. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called
Part 2: Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the
space provided below the passage. (10 pts)
New technologies, like all technologies, are morally neutral. (91) _____ their advent makes the world a
better place or not depends on the uses to which they are (92) _____. And that, (93) _____ turn, depends upon the
decisions of many people, especially of politicians, managers, trade (94) _____ leaders, engineers and scientists.
The new technologies, cheap, flexible, dependent on knowledge and information as their main input, can (95)
_____ human being from many of their current constraints for example constraints of resources and geography.
(96) _____ the new technologies could also (97) _____ those with power to control their fellow citizens even
more effectively than in the (98) _____ efficient dictatorships of the past. The new technological society will (99)
_____ colossal demands on our imagination and ingenuity and on the capacity (100) _____ our institutions to
respond to new challenges.
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 101 to 110. (10 pts)
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying oxen
traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The
driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find,
he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the “Great
American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States, the preferred
grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and
become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was
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often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass
that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising
western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the
cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they
immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy
like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried
right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing
through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped
plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the
melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a
barn cured the cultivated grasses.
101. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States
102. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?
A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story. D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
103. The word “they” in line 4 refers to _____.
A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans
104. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?
A. Many had settled there by the 1860’s. B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War. D. It was not discovered until the late 1800’s.
105. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to _____.
A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
106. The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to _____.
A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required
107. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it. B. It had to be imported into the United
States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States. D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
108. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
109. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather
110. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by_____.
A. eating only small quantities of grass. B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil. D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
IV. WRITING (6/20 points)
Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it
111. Customs officials are stopping more travelers than usual this week. → An increased
________________
112. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting. → Rather ________________
113. My decision to get up and dance coincided with the band’s decision to stop playing. → The moment
________
114. He never suspected that the bicycle had been stolen. → At no time ________________
115. How could I help, except to offer to lend her some money? → Other ________________
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the
form of the given word(s).
116. To this day no one has equaled his achievements in the field of technology. (unsurpassed)
→ To this day ………………………………………………………… in the field of technology.
117. Peter grimaced as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine. (pulled)
→ Peter ……………………………………………………………….the foul-tasting medicine.
118. It’s unfortunately that the construction of the building will not be finished as originally planned. (longer)
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→ The construction of the building ………………………………………………………… unfortunate.
119. What he told me made me very curious to hear the rest of the history. (appetite)
→ What he told me ………………………………………………………………………….. the story.
120. They chose not to drive because they thought there would be too much snow. (fear)
→ They chose …………………………………………………………………….…. too much snow.
_____THE END_____

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 66
Question 1:
a- Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: (5 pts)
1. A. health B. bread C. appear D. heavy
2. A. sugar B. since C. storm D. symptom
3. A. arrived B. experienced C. failed D. discovered
4. A. pronounce B. round C. sound D. pour
5. A. walls B. rewards C. sticks D. spectators
b- Choose the words with the different stress pattern from the others: (5 pts)
1. A. basketball B. wonderful C. education D. trustworthy
2. A. surround B. restrict C. remove D. manual
3. A. planet B. affect C. annoy D. excuse
4. A. famous B. climate C. language D. attend
5. A. extensive B. decorate C. distinguish D. acquaintance
Question 2: Put the verbs given in brackets into their appropriate tense or form; (10 pts)
1. It is imperative that the letter (send)_____ at once.
2. By this time tomorrow, we (travel)_____ to Nha Trang.
3. Up to now , we (complete)_____ four tests.
4. The students (punish)_____ yesterday is my brother .
5. I think the play (perform)_____ now.
6. I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare)____ it very carefully at home.
7. It has been suggested that the government (assist) ____the poor in improving their
living condition.
8. By the time he____ (become) heavy weight boxing champion, he …(win) over thirty fights.
9. He looked frightened as if he _____ (see) a ghost.
Question 3: Supply the correct forms of the words in the capital letters (10 pts)
1. Their ____has lasted a life time. FRIEND
2. Everyone has a number of ____but none has many true friends. ACCQUAINT
3. Cats are supposed to have nice ____. LIVE
4. The evening was ____spent playing and talking . ENJOY
5. The cost of ____must be paid by the buyer . CARRY
6. After his illness , he started worrying that he was ____. WEIGH
7. He lives in an attractive____ part of Sydney RESIDE
8. We must learn about keeping the environment ____. POLLUTE
9. He finds it difficult to accept ……from others. CRITICISE
10. The film is entertaining but full of historical____. ACCURATE
Question 4: fill in the blank with a suitable preposition (10 pts)
1. He has been ill _____ flu for a week .
2. I’m _____ any having more meetings.
3. She will remain here _____ the rest of the day.
4. A good friend always stand for you when you are _____ trouble.
5. Jim managed to climb into the house _____ means ____ a ladder he found.
6. I’d like to thank you, __________ behalf _____ everyone who was rescued .
7. Julia has nothing ____ common _____ Bill, they are quite different.
Question 5 :Fill in each numbered blank one missing word. (10 pts)
Speech is one of the most important __1__ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises.
To talk and also to be __2__ by other people, we have to speak a language, that is , we have to use combinations of
__3__ that everyone agrees stand for particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone
made up their own language.
Learning a language properly is very __4__ The basic __5__ of English is not very large, and only about 2000
words are needed to speak it quite __6__ But the more words you know, the more idea you can__7__ and the more
precise you can be about their exact meaning.
Words are the __8__ thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we __9__ the words is also
very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions
and __10__ whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
Question 6: Choose the most suitable word given for each space in the text. (15 pts)

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 Have you ever asked yourself what you are working for? If you have ever had the time to (1)____ this taboo
question, or put it to others in moment of weakness or confidentiality, you (2)____ well have heard some or all of
the (3)____ It’s the money of course, some say with a smile, as if explaining something to a small child. Or it’s the
satisfaction of (4)____ well done, the sense of achievement behind the clinching of an important (5)____. I worked
as a bus conductor once, and I can’t say I (6)____ the same as I staggered along the swaying gangway trying to
(7)____ out tickets without falling over into someone’s lap. It’s the company of other people perhaps, but if that is
the (8)____ , what about farmers? it is the conservation in the farmyard that keeps them captivated by the job? Work
is power and a sense of status say those (9)____ have either attained these elusive goals, or feel aggrieved that
nobody has yet recognized their leadership (10)____ Or we can blame it all on someone else, the family or the
taxman. I suspect, and say this under my (11)_____., that most of us work rather as Mr. Micawber lived, hoping for
something to (12)___ up. We’ll win the pools, and tell the boss what we really think. We’ll scrape together the
(13)____ and open that little shop we always dreamed of, or go (14)____ the world, or spend more time in the
garden. Once day we’ll get that (15)____ we deserve, but until then at least we have something to do. And we are
so busy doing it that we won’t have time to wonder why.
1. A. propose B. meditate C. consider D. launch
2. A. might B. can C. will D. should
3. A. below B. rest C. following D. latter
4. A. a work B. a job C. a task D. an effort
5. A. deal B. position C. job D. engagement
6. A. enjoyed B. wished C. hoped D. felt
7. A. make B. turn C. issue D. give
8. A. one B. case C. question D. former
9. A. people B. must C. who D. to
10. A. qualities B. status C. property D. requirements
11. A. oath B. suspicion C. breath D. pressure
12. A. move B. turn C. ease D. end
13. A. resources B. opportunities C. rest D. money
14. A. round B. over C. into D. to
15. A. ambition B. station C. vocation D. promotion
Question 7: Fill each space with a suitable phrase from the list (a-k) below. (10 pts) (The first is done for you: 1-
b)
Linda: I want to go to a sports club. Black’s is good __1__ come too? __2__ sports?
Julia: Oh yes, __3__ squash, for example. But really, __4__ sports which you can do
outdoors. What about you, __5__ outdoor sports?
Linda: I__6__ most sports, but __7__ tennis.
Julia: What sports can we do at Black’s ?
Linda: They offer a good range. And there is a swimming pool .But it’s rather far away.
Julia: What about Forest’s? That’s nearer. And they have lots of tennis courts.
Linda: __8__ go to a club with a swimming pool.
Julia : But we’d have to catch a bus to Black’s.
Kida: Well, __9__?
Julia: (10)_____.You decide.
Linda: O K, __10__ to go to Black’s . But _11_ to pay your bus fare!
a. do you like b. would you like to c. what do you want to do d. Do you like e. I prefer
f. I like g. my favorite is h. I’d rather i. I’m not sure j. enjoy k. I’d prefer
Question 8: Read the passage carefully then choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). (5 pts)
During the last 400 years, most scientists have relied on mathematics for the development of their inventions
or discoveries. However, one great British scientist, Michael Faraday, did not make use of mathematics. Faraday,
the son of a poor blacksmith, was born in London in 1791 and had no education beyond reading and writing.
In 1812, Faraday was hired as a bottle washer by the great chemist Humphrey Davy. Later, Faraday became
a greater scientist than Davy, making the last years of Davy’s life embittered with jealousy.
Faraday made the first electric motor in 1821, a device that used electricity to produce movement. Then
Faraday became interested in the relationship between electricity and magnetism. In 1831, he discovered that when
a magnet is moved near a wire, electricity flows in the wire. With this discovery, he produced a machine for making
electricity called dynamo. Faraday then went on to show how electricity affects chemical substances. Because
Faraday believed that money should be given to the poor, when he grew old, he was very poor. However, Queen
Victoria rewarded him for his discoveries by giving him a stipend and a house. He died in 1867.
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1. Which of the following statements is not true about Faraday?
A. He didn’t make use of mathematics to develop his inventions B. he just knew how to read and write.
C. He was born in a rich family. D. His father was a blacksmith.
2. Humphrey Davy hired Faraday to work as a _________.
A. chemist B. bottle washer C. scientist D. professor
3. All of the following are mentioned as Faraday’s achievements except _____.
A. his invention of dynamo B. his discovery of the effects of electricity on chemical substances
C. his invention of electric motor in 1821. D. his discovery of magnetism
4. Faraday got a stipend and a house as a reward from_____.
A. Humphrey Davy B. his father C. Queen Victoria D. his friend
5. Faraday died in _________.
A. 1867 B. 1831 C. 1812 D. 1821
Question 9: Sentence transformation
a. Finish each of the following sentences in such away that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it. (5 pts)
1. I assumed that she would learn how to take shorthand after this course.
 I took it _____..
2. When the Minister was asked about the strike, he decline to comment.
 On .....
3. Someone rang the alarm as soon as the burglars left the building.
 No sooner _____.
4. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful.
 Much to _____
5. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
 Rather _____.
b. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence,
using the words given in block letters. The words must not be changed in any way. (5 pts)
1. Jenny didn’t feel like going to the party. MOOD
2. Did Pamela say why she was so late? REASON
3. The firm is going to raise everybody’s salary. GIVEN
4. This contract is not binding until we both sign it BOUND
5. As far as I know he is still working in Bristol. KNOWLEDGE
Question 10:
a. Change the direct speech in these sentences into reported speech. (5 pts)
1. “Why don’t you go and push a baby-carriage?” the taxi-driver said to the other driver angrily. “You’re not fit to
drive a car.”
2. Harry said to his wife, “ I’m gong to see my mother this evening if I can get away from the office a little earlier.
Have you any massages for her?”
3. “Let me help you with that suitcase,” Timothy said to the pretty girl at the station. “It looks a lot too heavy for
you”.
4. “If you really think I said that about you,” said Charles, “I’m not surprised that you’re angry with me. But I assure
you I did not.”
5. “We’d better bring some warmer clothes with us next time we come here,” said my father. “It gets a lot colder in
winter than I realized.”
b. Rearrange the order of words in these sentences in such a way that each of them becomes a correctly expressed
question. (5 pts)
1. lottery/buy /if /what /you /would /a /you /won/?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………
2. light /please /off /won’t /turn /the /you /the hall /in/?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………
3. this /holiday /our /summer /for /we /go /shall /where/?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………
4. one /that /I /shall /dress /or /buy /this/?

102
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………
5. milk /should /buy /how /tins /of /think /you /many /do /we/?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………
THE END

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 67
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (15 pts)
1. The traffic problem has improved _____, out of the blue, really.
A. gradually B. factually C. unexpectedly D. respectably
2. This picture book, the few pages _____ are missing, is my favorite.
A. for which B. of that C. to which D. of which
3. It was felt that he lacked the _______ to pursue a difficult task to very end.
A. persuasion B. commitment C. engagement D. obligation
4. Your decision will ______ a great strain on our relationship.
A. impose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
5. We shouldn’t give the children everything they ask for; they will become completely _____.
A. spoilt B. wounded C. damaged D. destroyed
6. The completion of the tunnel has been _______ owing to a strike.
A. held up B. held off C. held on D. held over
7. It is with ________ regret that we have to inform you that your scholarship has been withdrawn.
A. heavy B. deep C. somber D. high
8. _______ of all modern domestic poultry is the red jungle fowl is widely believed.
A. The ancestor B. The ancestor is C. How the ancestor D. That the
ancestor
9. Art critics do not all agree on what _______ a painting great.
A. qualities to make B. are the qualities for making C. qualities make D. do the
qualities that make
10. Farmers supply crops with phosphorus in areas ________ have removed it from the soil.
A. because of long years of cultivation B. where long years of cultivation
C. with long years of cultivation D. by long years of cultivation
11. Sarah congratulated _____ passing my driving test.
A. me B. for C. me on D. on me
12. Had it not been for the intolerable heat in the hall, they _____ much longer.
A. will stay B. would stay C. would be staying D. would have stayed
13. I can’t quite _____ out what the sign says.
A. read B. get C. carry D. make
14. One _____ of the scheme is the very high cost.
A. advantage B. shortage C. drawback D. shortcoming
15. In a new culture, many embarrassing situations occur _____ a misunderstanding.
A. because of B. of C. for D. because
II. Choose a word or phrase in each of the following sentences that needs correcting. (10 pts)
1. Paris has been well-known about its famous monuments, beautiful music, and wonderful restaurants for over 100
years.
A B C D
2. In France people drive on the left, so making sure you go on the right side.
A B C D
3. Up to now he wrote five novels and over sixteen short stories.
A B C D
4. The new bridge makes it possibly to cross the river easily and quickly.
A B C D
5. If you are working with young children in a primary school, you will find that teaching lively songs and rhymes
are very popular.
A B C D
III. Use the correct form of the word in bracket to complete each of the following sentences. (10 pts)
1. He is unhappy because of his ________. (deaf)
2. The ________ of the swamps will destroy the mosquitoes’ breeding places. (drain)
3. He has made a great _________to the development of the country. (contribute)
4. We will hire new staff when the _____________arises. (necessary)
5. His repeated __________ from school is unacceptable. (absent)
6. The teacher’s words are a great ___________ to him. (encourage)
7. They are very __________ of one another. (support)
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8. Her interests are very __________. (diversity)
9. I can’t stand his __________. (rude)
10. The holiday was beyond all _________. (expect)
PART C: READING
I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15
pts)
Around the age of eighteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. "Do I stay on at school
and hopefully go on to university (1)_____? Do I leave and start work or begin (2) ____ training course?".
The decision is yours, but it may be (3)_____ remembering two things: there is more unemployment among people
(4)_____ haven't been to university, and people who have the right (5)_____ will have a big advantage in the
competition for jobs. If you decide to go straight into a job, there are many opportunities (6)_____ training. Getting
qualifications will (7)_____ you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn
(8)_____ you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (9)_____ possibility. This way,
you can save up money for your student days, as well as (10)____ practical work experience.
II. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each numbered gap in the
passage below. (10 pts)
If you (1)_____ to be walking in your local park tomorrow and you find an abandoned book with a label
inside (2)_____ 'Read and Release me', don't just treat it as a joke. You've probably come (3)_____ an example of
'book-crossing', a book-sharing movement started in 2001 by American software developer Ron Hornbaker, whose
stated aim is to 'make the (4)_____ world a library'. Book-crossers 'release' books (5)_____ by passing them on to
friends, or else by leaving them in public places for others to pick up, or 'catch', and then read, before they (6)_____
turn release them back 'into the wild'. (7)_____ a book has been 'caught', the person finding it is encouraged to record
the event by logging on to the book-crossing website and entering the book's ID number written on the label. That
(8)_____ , both the original owner and subsequent readers of the book can keep track of its progress. Over half a
million people worldwide participate in book-crossing, 'releasing' books in a (9)_____ range of locations including
cafés, airports, bus stations, telephone boxes and even underwater in public fountains. Often a book is left in a place
(10)_____ is relevant to its title or content: Agatha Christie's Murder on the Orient Express on a train, for example,
or an archeology book in a museum.
1. A. occur B. happen C. pass D. arise
2. A. telling B. saying C. talking D. answering
3. A. away B. along C. across D. aside
4. A. full B. absolute C. quite D. whole
5. A. either B. but C. or D. neither
6. A. at B. to C. in D. for
7. A. Soon B. Since C. Once D. While
8. A. way B. time C. place D. manner
9. A. deep B. long C. high D. wide
10. A. what B. which C. who D. where
III. Read the text then answer the questions by choosing A, B, C or D. (20 pts)
To date, Canada has produced only one classic children’s tale to rank with Alice’s Adventures in wonderland
and the works of Mark Twain; this was Lucy Maud Montgomery’s Anne of Green Gables. Lucy Maud Montgomery
was born in Clinton, Prince Edward Island. Her mother died soon after her birth, and when her father went to
Saskatchewan to assume a business position, she moved in with her grandparents in Cavendish, Prince Edward
Island. There she went to school and later qualified to be a teacher.
Montgomery wrote the Anne books while living in Cavendish and helping her grandmother at the post office.
The first of the books, Anne of Green Gabbles, was published in 1908, and in the next three years she wrote two
sequels. Like Montgomery, the heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who lives in the fictional town
of Avonlea, and Montgomery incorporated many events from her life in Cavendish into the Anne books.
In 1911, Montgomery married Evan Macdonald and the couple soon moved to Ontario, where she wrote many
other books. However, it was her first efforts that secured her prominence, and the Anne books are still read all
around the world. Her novels have helped create a warm picture of Prince Edward Island’s special character. Several
movies, a television series, and a musical play have been based on her tales, and today visitors scour the Island for
locations described in the book.
1. The main purpose of this passage is to ____. A. show the similarities between Montgomery’s life and that of
her fictional character Anne.
B. contrast Canadian children’s literature with that of other countries.
C. provide a brief introduction to Prince Edward Island. D. introduce Montgomery and her Anne books.
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2. According to the passage, Montgomery was raised primarily____.
A. by her grandparents B. in an orphanage C. by her mother D. by her father
3. Approximately when did Lucy Maud Montgomery write the two sequels to her book Anne of Green Gables?
A. From 1874 to 1908 B. From 1911 to 1913 C. From 1908 to 1911 D. From 1913 to
1918
4. The word “elderly” in line 8 is closest in meaning to____.
A. kindly B. old C. friendly D. sly
5. In the Anne books, the main character lives in____.
A. the town of Cavendish B. the town of Avonlea C. Saskatchewan D. Ontario
6. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage about Anne books?
A. They were not as successful as Montgomery’s later works. B. They were influenced by the works of Mark
Twain.
C. They were at least partially autobiographical. D. They were not popular until after
Montgomery had died.
7. Ontario was the place where ____. A. Montgomery wrote other books B. Montgomery got married
C. Montgomery wrote two sequels D. Montgomery became famous
8. The word “prominence” in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.
A. excellence B. reputation C. effort D. permanence
9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “character” in line 12?
A. a person in a novel B. nature C. a written symbol D. location
10. All of the following have been based on the Anne books EXCEPT____.
A. a television series B. movies C. a play D. a ballet
PART D: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your answer on
your answer sheet. (10 pts)
1. “You’d better not lend her any more money, Paul,” said Tom.
 Tom advised Paul
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
2. Although the traffic was bad, Peter arrived on time.
 In spite of
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
3. The last time I saw Mary was in 2009.
 I haven’t
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
4. The plumber repaired the leak this morning.
 They had
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………..
5. They had a bad crop because the storm swept through the region.

If………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
II: Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Use the word given. Do
not change the word. Write your answer on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
1. It's possible that someone stole your purse when we were in the restaurant. (might)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. ‘Me? No, I didn’t take Sue’s calculator,’ said Bob. (denied)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. They said that an electrical failure was the cause of the fire. (blamed)
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
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. She apologized to the host for having to go so early, and left. (apologies)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. Peter was the first person I asked for advice. (whose)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..

 THE END 

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 68
PART I: PHONETICS. (1, 0 POINT)
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group. Write
your answer in the numbered box.
1. A. exposure B. terminal C. utterance D. discipline
2. A. economy B. elaborate C. assassinate D. fascinate
3. A. mountain B. sustain C. contain D. retain
4. A. fulltime B. farmhand C. bookshop D. tradesman
5. A. metropolitan B. entrepreneurial C. hippopotamus D. curiosity
6. A. company B. comfortable C. together D. business
7. A. associate B. formal C. movement D. militant
8. A. Important B. cigarette C. protection D. informal
9. A. introduce B. conversation C. independent D. welcome
10. A. expect B. alone C. liquor D. invite
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (8, 0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1, 5 point)
1. In the ___of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement B. interests C. demands D. assistance
2. ___ how angry he was he would never resort to violence.
A. No matter B. No problem C. Although D. Because
3. We played the game ___ the rules.
A. on account of B. ahead of C. according to D. apart from
4. ___ to get through to Jackie for days now. Either she’s away or her phone’s out of order.
A. I’ve been trying B. I had tried C. I’m trying D. I tried
5. This is ___ the most difficult job I have ever tackled.
A. by rights B. by all means C. by far D. by the way
6. She ___till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up B. kept me up C. caught me up D. held me up
7. Please don’t ___yourself out. A sandwich will do.
A. let B. put C. leave D. take
8. The chairman requested that ___
A. the members studied more carefully the problem. B. the problem was more carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied. D. the members study the problem more
carefully.
9. Smoking is ___ in many companies in our country.
A. permitted B. taught C. banned D. stopped
10. After the battle, the ___ soldiers were helped by those who could walk.
A. injured B. wounded C. broken D. killed
11. I don’t think this strange new fashion will …………
A. turn up B. care for C. show off D. catch on
12. Their house is ___ near the Cathedral.
A. whereabouts B. anywhere C. somewhere D. any place
13. This young tree could not have been damaged by accident. I believe it was done ___
A. in fact B. on purpose C. by appointment D. by plan
14. There was hardly ___ money left in my bank account.
A. more B. no C. some D. any
15. It is wrongly believed that natural resources will never be used ___.
A. off B. out C. away D. up
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
II. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (1, 5 point)

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1. If he ____ (1. not drink) too much last night, he ____ (2. not - be) tired now.
2. I’m sure he must ____ (3. be) at home last night because the door was open when I ____ (4. come).
3. At this time next week, they ____ (5. sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
4. It’s raining. I would rather you ____ (6. close) the window.
5. I don’t know what the matter with him is. He ____ (7. act) funny since you ____ (8. be) away.
6. On the first of next month, he ____ (9. be) in prison for five years.
7. His personal problems seem ____ (10. distract) him from his work lately.
8. He suggested that a final decision ____ (11. make).
9. I don’t know why you ____ (12. always - make) noise in class, Tom.
10. ____ (13. you/visit) many museums when you were in Paris?
11. The car looks very clean. ____ (14. you/wash) it?
12. My best friend, James, was no longer there. He ____ (15. go) away.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
III. Put the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (2, 0 points)
AUTUMN COLORS
A new term is rapidly gaining recognition in the American language - a 'leaf peeper' is someone who, in
autumn, is on the ____ (1. LOOK) for areas where the leaves of deciduous trees have changed colour. In New
England, in the USA, 'leaf peeping' is big business, generating millions of dollars annually. The first report that
leaves are changing colour sets off an ____ (2. INVADE) of 'peepers' thus causing serious obstruction on some
roads. Thousands of people log on to websites in their ____ (3. EAGER) to find the location of the trees that have
foliage in the most ____ (4. GLORY) colours. The popularity of 'leaf tourism' is well established in New England,
and the changing colours of autumn provide an annual ____ (5. TALK) point. The colours vary from year to
year since the ____ (6. INTENSE) of the colour is ____ (7. DEPEND) on the chemical composition of the dying
leaves. After a long dry summer, leaves often turn bright red, while cloudy autumn days will produce less spectacular
yellows. If climate change leads to ____ (8. INCREASE) hot, dry summers in the northern hemisphere, then
countries in Europe can expect summers not ____ (9. LIKE) those across the Atlantic. They will then enjoy a
kaleidoscope of ____ (10. SEASON) colour to rival the deep reds and blazing oranges seen in New England.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the box. (2, 0 points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule. Answer: C  is
A B C D
1. A persimmon tastes best when it is such ripe that it looks wrinkled and almost spoiled.
A B C D
2. American pioneers did water systems from logs with holes bored through their centers.
A B C D
3. The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain that releases many hormones and
regulates another endocrine glands. A B
C D
4. In America, the Indians used crude oil for fuel and medicine hundreds of years before the first white settlers
arrive.
A B C
D
5. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people stopped attending movies.
A B C D
6. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from America’s present or
past.
A B C D
7. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed by long periods
covering by water. A B C D
8. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in flavor.
A B C D

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9. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the monarch butterfly,
whom birds do not like to eat. A B C D
10. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way healthier.
A B C D
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
V. Complete these sentences with proper prepositions or adverbs. Write your answers in the numbered box.
(1, 0 point)
1. Don't use pencils. Please write the letter ___ ink.
2. My father made ____ his mind to settle in the South.
3. Minh couldn’t start his motor engine. I think it ran ____ fuel.
4. Time is off now. Please hand ____ your papers.
5. We invited 40 people to the party but only 23 turned ____
6. That fish of yours has been in the fridge for weeks. It must have gone ____ by now.
7. He needed a model, someone to look ____
8. Uncle Tom is an idiot, but I only have to put ____ him once a year.
9. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always runs ____ his old friends.
10. These two men’s farms are adjacent ____ each other.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in
the numbered box. (2, 0 points)
It is now extremely popular to take a gap year between school and university or university and work and to
spend it traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it - travel broadens the mind, you’re (1) ___ young
once, life isn’t a rehearsal and so on. And if you don’t do it, you may always regret that you didn’t take the (2) ___.
In the end, there’s only one response: well, why not?
The idea may have its roots in the 18th century Grand tour once (3) ___ by the young, rich and noble, but it
is the middle classes who have turned it (4) ___ something that 200,000 British youngsters do every year. (5) ___
has never been so easy and cheap, with more places open to tourists than ever. Also, the gap year is now (6) ___ by
many employers and universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (7) ___ and although these remain in the top
five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-flung corners of the world are (8) ___ in popularity
year by year. About $700 will buy a student ticket (9) ___ for six months that will take you from London to Calcutta,
Singapore, Bangkok, Perth, Sydney, Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti, Los Angeles and (10) ___ again.
1. A. merely B. only C. slightly D. simply
2. A. occasion B. moment C. chance D. luck
3. A. undertaken B. gone C. done D. given
4. A. up B. out C. over D. into
5. A. Voyage B. Travel C. Excursion D. Tour
6. A. received B. stood C. accepted D. admitted
7. A. destinations B. endings C. landings D. terminals
8. A. spreading B. expanding C. enlarging D. growing
9. A. genuine B. valid C. effective D. legal
10. A. now B. here C. back D. then
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box.
(2, 0 points) THE LEGEND OF THE ROOT
Ginseng is one of the great mysteries of the east. Often referred to as the “elixir of life”, its widespread use
in oriental medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around this remarkable plant. Ginseng has
featured (1) ____ an active ingredient in oriental medical literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects were,
at one time, (2) ____ widely recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
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 (3) ____ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of the ____ (4) is the
root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng – the word Panax, (5) ____ the word panacea, coming from the Greek for “all
healing”. There is growing interest by western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that this
remarkable plant may (6) ____ beneficial effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to treat with
synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) ____ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is becoming widely recognized
that this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and ailments of modern living. It is widely used for
the treatment of various ailments (8) ____ as arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia. However, the truth
behind (9) ____ ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows that the remarkable
properties are (10) ____ than just a legend.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2, 0 points)
One of the 7 wonders of the ancient world, the great pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and
prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheop in 1720 BC. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of this construction
makes it truly one of the truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen – acre structure near the Nile river is a solid
mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber
for the pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The 4 sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly
on true north, south, east and west – an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshipers and
great astronomers, so computations for the great pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further
scientific study indicates that these represent type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events
have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future
generations and currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this one
is no exception. Some researchers even associate with its extraterrestrial being of the ancient past.
Was it superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today.
1. What has research of the base reveal?
A. There are racks in the foundation. B. Tomb robbers have stolen pharaoh’s body.
C. The lines represent important events. D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are ____. A. very strong workers. B. astronomers in the ancient times.
C. researchers in Egyptology. D. living beings from other planets.
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly. B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To enable the pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
4. The word “intersecting” in line 9 is nearest in meaning to ____
A. crossing B. coming C. observing D. cutting
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architect’s plans for the hidden passage. B. Pathways of the great solar body.
C. Astrological computation. D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
6. The word “prophesied” in line 12 is closest in meaning to ____
A. said B. armed C. terminated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid. B. Problems with the construction of great pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza. D. Exploration of the burial chamber of Cheop.
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians based their calculation?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies. B. Advanced technology.
C. Advanced tools of measurements. D. Knowledge of the earth’s surface.
9. Why was the Great pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
10. Why is the Great pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the 4 cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop. C. It was built a super race. D. It is very old.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

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 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART IV: WRITING. (5, 0 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (1, 0 point)
1. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.
 If it hadn’t ..............................................................................................................
2. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
 There has ...............................................................................................................
3. The only thing they didn’t steal was the television.
 They stole ...............................................................................................................
4. He didn’t succeeded in searching for the stolen car.
 He tried in vain ......................................................................................................
5. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
 No sooner ...............................................................................................................
6. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother.
→ The boy was on .......................................................................................................
7. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.
→ Paper........................................................................................................................
8. As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.
→ The more .................................................................................................................
9. It takes six hours to drive from here to London.
→ It is ..........................................................................................................................
10. He got so angry that no one dared to say anything.
→ So ............................................................................................................................

II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1, 0 point)
1. If you want to see me, come here by six a.m. (PROVIDED)
→ ..................................................................................................................................
2. He won’t let anyone touch his records. (OBJECTS)
→ ..................................................................................................................................
3. He didn’t think much of the musical show yesterday. (OPINION)
→ ..................................................................................................................................
4. The concert was not as good as he had hoped. (EXPECTATIONS)
→ ..................................................................................................................................
5. We missed the beginning of the concert because we had overslept. (CONSEQUENCE)
→ ..................................................................................................................................
III. Write an essay (3, 0 points).
Facebook dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can have negative effect
on their study and the physical development.
Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion.

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 69
B. PHONETICS: (5 points)
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group:
16. A. responsibility B. originality C. accommodation D. mischievousness
17. A. appliance B. conscientious C. independent D. confidential
18. A. psychology B. environmental C. impossible D. photography
19. A. stimulate B. maximize C. interrupt D. register
20. A. appointment B. punishment C. publicity D. efficient
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS:
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence: (15 points)
21. Tom: “I thought your performance last Sunday was wonderful.” Laura: “………………………..”
A. Don’t tell a lie. I thought it was terrible. B. You must be kidding. It was not as good as I had expected.
C. I completely agree with you. It was terrific. D. No doubt!
22. Boy: “What is your greatest phobia?” Girl: “………………………..”
A. I'm afraid not. B. Worms, definitely!
C. Probably people who smoke. D. I haven't made up my mind.
23. Jenny: “Thank you very much for your donation, Mr. Robinson.” Mr. Robinson:
“………………………..”
A. You can say that again. B. I see.
C. You are right. D. Delighted I was able to help.
24. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ………………………..
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood
25. Susan was sad because she wasn’t invited to any social events. She felt ………………………..
A. left out B. turned out C. omitted out D. gone out
26. Most psychologists believe that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is………………………..
A. well established extremely by the age of five B. by the age of five it is extremely well
established
C. by the age of five and well established extremely D. extremely well established by the age of five
27. In most ………. developed countries, up to 50% of ……..population enters higher education at some time in
their lives.
A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the / a
28. I wish you ………………….. me a new one instead of having it………………………..as you did.
A. would give / to repair B. gave / to repair
C. had given / to be repaired D. had given / repaired
29. Henry was really a silly boy when we were at high school. I still remember………………………..very stupid questions.
A. him asking B. him to ask C. asking him D. his being asked
30. ………………………..the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.
A. With reference B. Akin C. Prior to D. In addition to
31. No sooner ………………………..to marry Jack ………………………..to have serious doubts.
A. had Carol agreed / than she began B. Carol has agreed / than she began
C. had Carol agreed / than she begins D. had Carol agreed / than she had begun
32. Having been served dinner, ……………………...
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.
B. the committee members discussed the problem. C. it was discussed by the committee members the
problem.
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
33. The marathon runner ……………………...for nearly one hour and a half when she ……………………...to the
pavement.
A. has been running / collapses B. were running / collapsed
C. had been running / collapsed D. ran / had been collapsing
34. Son: “What is the process of ……………………..., Dad?”
Father: “Well, it involves the heating of liquid such as milk in order to kill harmful bacteria.”
A. industrialization B. pasteurization C. commercialization D. globalization
35. An artist ……………………...will do his best to express innocence and inexperience in the child’s face.
A. portraying a child B. who portray a child C. he portrays a child D. portrayed a child
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets: (10 points)
36. Deforestation and excessive farming have ……………………... the soil. (POOR)
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 37. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was……………………... by (ESTIMATE)
the government. The real figures go up every minute.
38. Barack Obama is the first President of the United States with ……………….…... (RACE)
background. (BREATH)
39. From the hotel there is a……………………...view across the canyon. (SUSPECT)
40. The policeman examined the parcel ……………………... as he had no idea what it (OBSERVE)
could be. (FURIOUS)
41. It was very ……………………...of you to notice that. (VALID)
42. In his …………………….., Mike smashed all the breakable items in the kitchen.
43. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been (ATTEND)
……………………... by an officially recognized body. (PRONOUNCE)
44. Mr. John, who teaches us Latin, usually stresses the need for regular
……………………...
45. The government has yet to make an official ……………………...on the issue.
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5 points):
46. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and indication its correct use.
A B C D
47. The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from the Earth without a telescope.
A B C D
48. Children subjected to violence, exploitation , abuse and neglect are in risk of death, poor physical and mental
health, HIV/AIDS infection, and educational problems. A B C D
49. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure.
A B C D
50. A ten-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped prisoner.
A B C D
D. READING:
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space: (10 points)
Everyone has got two personalities - the one that is shown to the world and the other that is (51)…………...
and real. You don’t show your secret personality when you are (52)…………..., because you can control yourself.
But when you are asleep, your feeling position (53)…………...the real you. In a normal (54)…………..., of course,
people often change their position. The important position is the one you go to sleep in.
If you go to sleep on your back, you are a very (55)…………...person. You usually believe people and you
accept new things or new ideas easily. You don’t like to make people sad, so you never express your (56) …………...
feeling. You are quite shy.
If you sleep on your stomach, you are a rather secretive person. You (57)…………...a lot and you always easily
become sad. You usually live for today not tomorrow. This means that you (58)…………...having a good time.
If you sleep curled up, you are probably a very (59)…………...person. You have a low opinion of yourself.
You are shy and don’t like meeting people. You (60)………….....to be on your own. You are easily hurt.
51. A. important B. serious C secret D. particular
.
52. A. awake B. active C happy D. honest
.
53. A. makes B. understand C changes D. shows
.
54. A. room B. bed C night D. body
.
55. A. independent B. open C talkative D. generous
.
56. A. real B. lonely C cheerful D. gentle
.
57. A. talk B. sleep C relax D. worry
.
58. A. regret B. enjoy C mind D. deny
.
59. A. strong B. healthy C nervous D. careful
.

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 60. A. pretend B. oppose C refuse D. prefer
.
II. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the most suitable for
each blank. There are THREE extra words that you do not need to use: (5 points)
A. legal C. responsibility E. serve G. organizations
B. community D. give back F. long-term H. rare
Volunteering has many intangible benefits. It can help you (61) ……………………...to society, break down
barriers of misunderstanding or fear, explore personal issues and even have fun. It also has a meaningful, positive
impact on your (62)…………………….... But did you know that it can have many benefits for you, too? You may
have heard that volunteering helps you get into college, but keep in mind they are not just looking for a list of
(63)……………………... and dates. Colleges want to see a complete picture of you and real examples of your
commitment, dedication and interests.
Volunteering brings together a variety of people. Both the recipients of your volunteer efforts and your co-
workers can be rich sources of insight. For example, maybe you’ll learn about the
(64)……………………...profession from a former lawyer you visit at a convalescent center. Colleges pay attention
to your life inside and outside the classroom. Your extracurricular activities reveal a great deal about you, such as
what your interests are, whether you can manage your priorities and maintain a (65)……………………... promise
and how you’ve made an important contribution to something.
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer: (10 points)
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for
people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often
overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans
need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical
car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the
Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s
heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so
much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green
spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for
buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from
many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens.
While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on
rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but
others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few
hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking
up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing
oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop
gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the
winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on
heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money
and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart
environmental investment.
66. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
67. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ..................................
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the
city
68. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that ..................................
a. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas b. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic
surfaces
c. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces

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 A. a. only B. a. and b. only C. b. and c. only D. a., b., and c.
69. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between
parks and rooftop gardens? A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do
not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
70. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except ..................................
A. increased space for private relaxation B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers D. improved air quality
71. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they ..................................
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
72. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as..................................
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
73. Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim that rooftop gardens
are good for the environment? A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can remove from the air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a rooftop garden.
74. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed. B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended. D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
75. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that ..................................
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer
E. WRITING:
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it: (5 points)
76. Its lack of irregular verbs makes Esperanto a unique language.

Unlike………………………………….........................................……………………………………………………
……..
77. Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn’t invest into any computer companies.
 Had….........................................................................................................................................................................
78. The Board of Directors discussed the business in length, but came to no decision.
 The Board of Directors had ......................................................................................................................................
79. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
 On..............................................................................................................................................................................
80. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
 Not only......................................................................................................................................................................
81. It is my opinion that you should spend more time practicing English.
 If.................................................................................................................................................................................
82. Everyone was surprised that the famous actor had very little money when he died.
 The famous actor.......................................................................................................................................................
83. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications.
 The more....................................................................................................................................................................
84. “Get out of my house or I will shoot you”, the woman shouted at the strange man.
 The woman threatened.............................................................................................................................................
85. What mainly distinguishes man from other animals is the power of speech.

Man…………..............................................................................................................................................................
II. After having attended a course on computing at ABC Information Technology Center for two weeks, you
notice that many things are worse than what were advertised by the Center. Write a letter of complaint of
about 150 words to the Director of the Center: (10 points)
Your letter should include:
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 - the reason for writing
- the problems you have encountered
- your suggestions and the actions you wish to be taken to resolve the problems

III. Violence among school students seems to be increasing. Write a passage of about 150 – 170 words to
suggest what should be done to help solve this problem: (10 points)

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 70
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 POINTS)
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. opponent B. compose C. podium D. advocate
2. A. reserve B. domestic C. optimistic D. nursery
3. A. both B. cloth C. ghost D. sold
4. A. examine B. determine C. famine D. dine
5. A. sacred B. decided C. contaminated D. watered
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. counterpart B. precede C. nursery D. compliment
2. A. bewilder B. audience C. benefit D. dedicate
3. A. pessimistic B. university C. epidemic D. particular
4. A. tsunami B. terrorist C. involvement D. disaster
5. A. processor B. windsurfing C. semester D. challenger
SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1. According to the boss, John is the most ______ for the position of executive secretary.
A. supportive B. caring C. suitable D. comfortable
2. The children went _______ with excitement.
A. wild B. wildly C. wilderness D. wildlife
3. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very _______ position.
A. weak B. unsteady C. vulnerable D. collapsed
4. David: Would you like fish or meat? Mary: I _______ fish, please.
A. would rather B. would prefer C. suppose D. believe
5. Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and _______ when being asked about their future.
A. depress B. depression C. depressed D. depressing
6. There was a huge decline _______ the number of tigers.
A. in B. for C. of D. out
7. I’d rather you _______ anything about the garden until the weather improves.
A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make
8. A part – time job gives me the freedom to _______ my own interests.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
9. The new road currently under _______ will solve the traffic problems in the town.
A. design B. progress C. construction D. work
10. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “______.”
A. Lovely, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No problem
II. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military
Symphony Orchestra and 17 traditional musicians, (come) to Vietnam since  ………………………..
yesterday.
2. Up to now, nothing (do) to solve their problem.  ………………………..
3. He suggested that his son (be) on time for the interview.  ………………………..
4. Tom will come home as soon as he (finish) his test.  ………………………..
5. ASEAN (found) in 1967 in Bangkok, Thai land.  ………………………..
6. In times of war, the Red Cross (dedicate) to reducing the sufferings of  ………………………..
wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war.
7. Hardly our teacher (enter) the classroom when it started to rain.  ………………………..
8. In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I (wait) for you here.  ………………………..
9-10. Living in a fast-paced and mobile society (create) family stresses that (not  ………………………..
imagine) by our great grandparents.  ………………………..
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10pts)
1. The main goals of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations are to promote peace and
……………………….. in the region. (STABLE)
2. On my salary, we have to live as ……………………….. as possible. (ECONOMY)
3. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save ……………………….. species. (DANGER)
4. The security of the earth can be threatened by ……………………….. groups. (TERROR)
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5. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species' declines and habitat (DESTROY)
………………………..
6. He resigned for a ……………………….. of reasons. (VARIOUS)
7. I don’t care if you had had too much to drink. Your behaviour last night was ……………………….. (DEFEND)
8. Her son is always mischievous and ……………………….., which annoys her very much. (OBEY)
9. The Americans are much more concerned than the Indians and the Chinese with physical
……………………….. when choosing a wife or a husband. (ATTRACT)
10. You can never be sure what my sister is going to do. She is so ……………………….. (PREDICT)
IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
1. Although to some people reading is a favourite way to spend time, but others just do not like reading.
A B C D
2. If a species does not have the natural genetic protection against particular diseases, an introduced disease can
A B C
have severely effects on that species.
D
3. I believe that only very self-confident, knowledge and attentive students will prefer 100% of eye contact time.
A B C D
4. It is likely that all people in Hanoi live in skyscrapers by 2050.
A B C D
5. In 1961, America’s first manned spacecraft launched.
A B C D
6. Do you really think that candidate is qualify to be President?
A B C D
7. Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.
A B C D
8. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure.
A B C D
9. It took us quite a long time to get here. It was a three-hours journey.
A B C D
10. Married women are twice so likely as married men to be depressed.
A B C D
SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts)
Kim Jong-il (16th February 1941 – 17th December 2011) was the supreme leader of North Korea (1)
……………………….. 1994 to 2011.
Kim Jong-il died (2) ……………………….. a suspected heart (3) ……………………….. on 17th December 2011
while traveling by train to an area outside Pyongyang. He was succeeded by his youngest son Kim Jong-un, (4)
……………………….. was considered by the Korean Central News Agency (5) ……………………….. the "Great
Successor". The Korean Central News Agency reported that during his death, a fierce snowstorm paused and the sky
glowed red above the sacred Mount Paektu. The ice on a famous lake also cracked so loud, it seemed to shake the
Heavens and the Earth.
Kim Jong-il's funeral took (6) ……………………….. on December 28th in Pyongyang, with a mourning period
lasting until the (7) ……………………….. day. South Korea's military was immediately put on alert after the
announcement. Asian stock markets fell soon after the announcement, due to similar concerns.
(8) ……………………….. January 12th, 2012 North Korea called Kim Jong-il the "eternal leader" and announced that
his (9) ……………………….. will be preserved and displayed at Pyongyang's Kumsusan Memorial Palace. Officials will
also install statues, portraits, and "towers to his immortality" across the country. His (10) ……………………….. of
February 16th has been declared "the greatest auspicious holiday of the nation", and has been named the Day of the
Shining Star.
II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (15pts)
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (1) ______ to be successful? Having someone
around who always (2) ______ the worst isn’t really a lot of (3) ______ – we all know someone who sees a single
cloud on a sunny day and says, ‘It looks (4) ______ rain.’ But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s
important to do something (5) ______ it.
You can change your view of life, (6) ______ to psychologists. It only takes a little effort, and you will find life
more rewarding as a (7) ______. Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more

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positive way of looking at life and all it has to (8) ______. Optimists are more (9) ______ to start new projects and
are generally more prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) ______ to the world. Some people are brought up
to (11) ______ too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything (12) ______ wrong.
Most optimists, on the (13) ______ hand, have been brought up not to (14) ______ failure as the end of the world-
they just (15) ______ with their lives.
1. A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited
2. A. worries B. cares C. fears D. doubts
3. A. amusement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun
4. A. so B. to C. for D. like
5. A. with B. against C. about D. over
6. A. judging B. according C. concerning D. following
7. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product
8. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose
9. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome
10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position
11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope
12. A. goes B. fails C. comes D. turns
13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far
14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think
15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over
III. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (5pts)
In the second half of each year, many powerful storms are born in the tropical Atlantic and Caribbean seas. Of
these, only about half a dozen become the strong, circling winds of 74 miles per hour or more that are called
hurricanes, and several usually make their way to the coast. There they cause millions of dollars of damage, and
bring death to large numbers of people.
The great storms that hit the coast start as soft circling wind hundreds - even thousands - of miles out to sea. As
they travel aimlessly over water warmed by the summer sun, they are carried westward by the southeast winds.
When conditions are just right, warm moist air flows in at the bottom of such a wind, moves upward through it and
comes out at the top. In the process, the moisture in this warm air produces rain, and with it, the heat is changed to
energy in the form of strong winds. As the heat increases, the young hurricane begins to move counter clockwise
motion.
The life of a hurricane is only about nine days, but it contains almost more power than we can imagine. The
energy in the heat released by a hurricane’s rainfall in a single day would satisfy the entire electrical needs of the
United States for more than six months. Water, not wind, is the main source of death and destruction in a hurricane.
A typical hurricane brings 6 to 12 inches downpour, causing sudden floods. Worst of all is the powerful movement
of the sea – the mountains of water moving toward the hurricane center. The water level rises as much as 15 feet
above normal as it moves toward shore.
1. When is an ordinary tropical storm called a hurricane?
A. When it begins in the Atlantic and Caribbean seas.
B. When its winds reach 74 miles per hour.
C. When it is more than 74 miles wide. D. When it hits the Coastline.
2. What is the worst thing about hurricanes?
A. The terrible effects of water. B. The heat they give off.
C. That they last about nine days. D. Their strong winds.
3. Here the underlined word “downpour” means______
A. heavy rainfall B. dangerous waves
C. the progress of water to the hurricane center D. the increasing heat
4. Which of the following statements about a hurricane is NOT true?
A. It travels more than 75 miles per hour. B. It usually stays about nine days.
C. It usually causes 6 to 12 inches downpour. D. It sometimes brings the sea water level to the height of 15 feet.
5. Hurricanes often cause ______?
A. a lot of damage B. sudden floods
C. death to large numbers of people D. All are correct
SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts)
1. We couldn’t relax until all the guests had gone home.
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 Only ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..……………………
2. House prices have risen sharply this year.
 There ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..…………………
3. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
 Had it not ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..……………
4. Would you mind not smoking in my house?
 I’d ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………………………………
5. His second attempt on the world record was successful.
 He broke ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..……………
6. I write to him almost every day.
 Hardly ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………
7. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.
 All dogs are ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………
8. Don’t go to lunch until you have typed all these letters.
 Make sure you finish ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
9. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast.
 The annual ………………………..
10. Henry regretted buying the second-hand car.
 Henry wishes ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to
the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
1. The two theories appear to be completely different. COMMON
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
2. His rude behaviour is too much for me. PUT
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
3. I find his handwriting very hard to read. DIFFICULTY
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
4. He doesn’t have money to go on holiday. He doesn’t have time, either. NEITHER
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
5. You’d feel better if you had a quiet holiday. DO
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
III. Complete the following sentences, using the words given. (5 pts)
1. Mother/ take/ responsibility/ run/ household.
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
2. ASEAN / have/ population/ 575.5 million/ account/ 8.7 %/ the world’s population.
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
3. It/ not/ until/ Einstein/ eight/ he/ can/ speak.
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
4. Defensive players / not/ allow/ interfere/ opponent’s movements/ unless/ player/ hold/ ball.
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..
5. Never/ stop/ try/ you/ get/ right solution/ problem.
 ………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..………………………..

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 71
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 POINTS)
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. resume B. statistics C. position D. designer
2. A. criteria B. initiate C. certificate D. interactive
3. A. ginger B. gesture C. gymnasium D. ghost
4. A. teammate B. reading C. seaside D. creating
5. A. crooked B. naked C. masked D. needed
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. oceanic B. argument C. temperature D. valuable
2. A. incredible B. fortunately C. astronomy D. evaporate
3. A. committee B. expensive C. guarantee D. successful
4. A. vocabulary B. assistance C. develop D. evidence
5. A. applicant B. recognize C. yesterday D. curriculum
SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS)
I. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1- 2- 3. My father (work) …………………… in Canada for the last year, so by the time he (return) ……………………
the month after next, I (not see) …………………… ………… him for fourteen months.
4. We looked out of the window and saw it (rain) ……………………, so we stayed in.
5. TV chat shows (increase) …………………… in number all the time.
6. The camera (disappear) …………………… when we came in.
7. The woman (accuse) …………………… of the killing said that she was at the cinema at the time.
8 - 9. Not until we (arrive) …………………… at his house we (discover) that he was on holiday.
10. After (take) …………………… to the hospital, the injured victim felt much better yesterday.
II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1. There is a rumour that the National Bank is going to ______ the company I am working for.
A. take on B. take out of C. take off D. take over
2. It would be lovely if the children could see and, ______, touch the animals.
A. eventually B. if possible C. at last D. finally
3. ______ he failed in the entrance exam caused his family much sadness.
A. Which B. That C. The thing D. What
4. Unless you return money immediately, you will risk being charged ______ theft and getting into serous trouble
A. on B. with C. of D. for
5. The old woman came in, ______ by a young man.
A. accompany B. to be accompanied C. accompanying D. accompanied
6. I’ve applied for the job I saw ______ in the newspaper last month.
A. advertised B. advertising C. be advertised D. being advertised
7. No, I didn’t know his number; ______ I’d have phoned him.
A. otherwise B. so C. therefore D. unless
8. ______ the two sisters, Mary is _______.
A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest C. Of/ prettier D. Between/ the prettier
9. A: Do you think it will rain tonight? B: ______. I am attending the evening class.
A. I don’t hope so B. I hope so C. I hope not D. I am not hoping
10. Ninety ______ the maximum length of time allowed for entrance exams to this school.
A. minute is B. minutes are C. minute are D. minutes is
III. Read the text below. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10pts)
JUDO
Judo is a sport that has achieved great popularity in many parts of the world. It was (1. origin)
…………………… developed in Japan in the late 19th century based on ancient methods of self-defence. There are
two (2. fight) …………………… Although they use physical (3. violent) …………………… against each other, they
are respectful to their (4. oppose) …………………… and bow to each other before and after each contest. Judo is an
(5. expense) …………………… sport to take up because the only equipment you need is the special loose-fitting suit.
It is very suitable for (6. young) …………………… if they join a club where the (7. instruct) …………………… are
properly qualified and pay enough attention to safety. Although Judo is a physically (8. demand) ……………………
sport which requires a lot of (9. strong) …………………… practice, and skill, there are many people who find it (10.
enjoy) …………………… as a means of relaxation in their spare time.
IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
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1. Joel giving up smoking has caused him to gain weight and become irritable with his acquaintances.
A B C D
2. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A B C D
3. George won’t lend you any money as long as you promise to pay him back.
A B C D
4. Having worked hard during the summer, his result was very successful in the entrance examination
A B C D
5. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A B C D
6. It is necessary that he goes to see a doctor as soon as he returns from taking the exam.
A B C D
7. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel.
A B C D
8. The Nobel Prize winning candidate, together with his wife and children, are staying in Sweden after
the presentation. A B C D
9. My brother composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway musicals.
A B C D
10. After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong direction.
A B C D
SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts)
TSUNAMI IN JAPAN
Japan's most powerful earthquake since records began has struck the north-east coast, triggering a massive
tsunami. Cars, ships and buildings were (1) …………………… away by a wall of water after the 8.9 - magnitude
tremor, which struck about 400 kms (250 miles) north-east of Tokyo. A state of emergency has been declared at a
nuclear power plant, (2) …………………… pressure has exceeded normal levels. Officials say more than 10,000
people are dead and about 7,000 (3) …………………… but it is feared the final death toll will be (4) ……………………
higher. In one ward alone in Sendai, a port city in Miyagi prefecture, 200 to 300 bodies were found. “The quake has
been the fifth-largest in the world (5) …………………… 1900 and nearly 8,000 (6) …………………… stronger than
the one which devastated Christchurch, New Zealand, last month”, said scientists. Thousands of people (7)
…………………… near the Fukushima nuclear power plant have been ordered to evacuate. Japanese nuclear officials
said that pressure inside a boiling water reactor at the plant was running much higher than normal after the cooling
system failed. Officials said they might need to deliberately (8) …………………… some radioactive steam to relieve
pressure, but that there would be no health risk. US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton had earlier said the US Air
Force had flown emergency coolant to the site. But US officials later said (9) …………………… coolant had been
handed over because the Japanese had decided to handle the situation (10) ……………………
The UN's nuclear agency said four nuclear power plants had been shut down safely.
II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10pts)
Women nowadays have more (1) ______ than those in the past. For example, our great grandmothers were
not allowed to go to school or to work to earn their own living. (2) ______, they had to depend on their husbands
financially. Modern women, on the contrary, can get good education, have their own careers, and (3) ______ their
interests. They can even take good positions in politics if they are competent (4) ______ it. However, women living
in our modern society have their (5) ______ too. Today women work harder than their great grandmothers so that
they can gain the (6) ______ between working life and family life. Many people predict that by 2032, most (7)
______ positions at work will be taken by women. Then, it is possible that women will have more (8) ______ life
because, (9) ______ in a very modern society, the women can’t (10) ______ their role in the family.
1. A. advances B. advantages C. benefits D. conveniences
2. A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
3. A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate
4. A. to B. at C. with D. of
5. A. obstacles B. disputes C. profits D. problems
6. A. equality B. stables C. balance D. steadiness
7. A. senior B. junior C. inferior D. superior
8. A. sheltered B. healthy C. strenuous D. active
9. A. though B. even C. ever D. never
10. A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
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III. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
Walt Disney was born in 1901 in Chicago, but soon moved to a small farm near Marceline, Missouri. From
this rural and rather humble beginning, he later became one of the most famous and beloved motion-picture
producers in history. Although he died in 1966, his name and artistic legacy continue to influence the lives of millions
of people throughout the world.
After several years of barely making ends meet as a cartoon artist operating from his Los Angeles garage,
Disney had his first success in 1928, with his release of a Mickey Mouse cartoon. Throughout the next decade, he
continued to produce a number of cartoons, and develop more of his highly profitable and enduring creations, such
as Donald Duck and Pluto. In the late 1930s, he issued a full-length cartoon film. Snow White became an instant
commercial and critical success. This was only the first of many films, both animated and not, produced by Disney
and his studio.
But as renowned as Disney name is for cartoons and movies, it is probably best known for a string of
spectacular amusement and theme parks. Starting with California’s Disneyland in 1955 and culminating with the
fantastically successful Disney World and EPCOT Center in Florida, Disney became a household name. In recent
years, the theme park concept became international, with openings in Tokyo and Paris. With the continuing success
of Disney, the creation of future theme park is under discussion.
1. Which of the following is the title for the passage?
A. The history of Disney World and Disneyland. B. Walt Disney’s Boyhood Years
C. Walt Disney and his Legacy. D. Walt Disney and Animated Cartoons
2. The word “humble” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. boring B. shy C. simple D. respectful
3 What is the author’s attitude toward the accomplishments of Walt Disney?
A. critical B. respectful C. ambivalent D. approving
4. In paragraph 2 “barely making ends meet” in bold is closest in meaning to __________.
A. meeting personal failure. B. producing only a few cartoons.
C. not making much money. D. trying new businesses.
5. The word “enduring” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. lasting B. suffering C. famous D. difficult
6. The word “renowned” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. possessed B. talked about C. useful D. well-known
7. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. Snow White was Disney’s most successful film. B. Disney created cartoon movies and “non cartoon” movies.
C. the Tokyo theme park is in financial difficulty. D. the California theme park is now closed.
8. The word “concept” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. idea B. location C. birth D. demand
9. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Disney’s first achieved success after his death. B. Mickey Mouse was Disney’s only cartoons creation.
C. Snow White was the first full-length cartoon film. D. Disney’s first concern was always profitability.
10. In future years it is most likely that ___________.
A. the Disney name will stay well–known. B. Disney will produce only cartoons.
C. the Paris theme park will become successful D. the remaining theme parks will also close
SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts)
1. Peter hasn’t had his hair cut for over 3 months.
→ It is …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. I meant to post that letter before lunch.
→ What …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………
3. People will only become aware of the problem if you increase the publicity.
→ Only if …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for AIDS.
→ Enormous …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Success depends on hard work.
→ The harder …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. She thought it was too difficult for her to finish the job by lunchtime.
→ She found …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. They thought that the little girl had found out the keys accidentally.
→ The keys …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. Someone has suggested abolishing income tax.
→ It …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. It was wrong of you to allow a 4-year-old child to walk home alone.
→ You should …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. We were late for the meeting because it rained heavily.
→ But for ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
1. They decided to build a new school in this region. SHOULD
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 2.
She got a scholarship as soon as she registered for the training course. SCARCELY
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 3.
Flooding in this region was the result of heavy rain RESULTED
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 4. I
don't like him because he boasts a lot. MOUTH
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 5.
The Embassy said it would not be necessary for me to get a visa. NEED
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… III.
Complete the following sentences, using the words given. (5 pts)
1. Exercise / take regularly / improves / fitness / our body / mind.
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 2.
Economic / reform / one / most / important / measure / take / promote / development / country
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 3.
Sleep / next room / boy / wakened / sound / breaking glass.
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 4.
Never / put / tomorrow / you / do / today.
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 5.
Many people / say / most / common / way / attract / someone / attention / by / wave.
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… -
THE END –

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 72
SECTION A: PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. Write your
answer in the space provided. (5 pts)
1. A. associate B. sociable C. ancient D. ancestor
2. A. walked B. threatened C. passed D. forced
3. A. too B. food C. soon D. good
4. A. legal B. legend C. generous D. manager
5. A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
II. Pick out the word that differs from the other words in the position of the main stress. Write your answer in
the space provided. (5 pts)
6. A. comedy B. collection C. comical D. calculate
7. A. ambitious B. memorial C. memory D. mechanic
8. A. remove B. cancel C. copy D. answer
9. A. Japanese B. engineer C. practical D. questionnaire
10. A. document B. develop C. opponent D. astonish
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer in the space provided. (15
pts)
11. Secondary schools offer a wide ______ of subjects.
A. field B. scope C. list D. range
12. When he woke up, he realized that the things he had dreamt about could not ______ have happened.
A. possibly B. likely C. certainly D. potentially
13. - “Do you think the book is expensive? - “Yes, it’s not ______ what we paid for it.”
A. worthy B. worth of C. worth D. valuable
14. To ______ extent did she benefit from her uncle’s will?
A. what B. how C. which D. whom
15. The new system didn’t ______ expectations.
A. catch up with B. bring about C. come across D. come up to
16. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when ______ next.
A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet
17. ______ aren’t effective anymore because insects have become resistant to them.
A. Fertilizers B. Pesticides C. Herbicides D. Composts
18. When he heard the joke, he burst into loud ______.
A. smile B. laughter C. amusement D. enjoyment
19. The traffic lights ______ to green, and the car drove on.
A. exchanged B. turned C. removed D. shone
20. It is a good idea to be ______ dressed when you go for an interview.
A. finely B. boldly C. smartly D. clearly
21. We were so late that we ______ had time to catch the train.
A. nearly B. almost C. hardly D. simply
22. They are going to make ______ excursion next month.
A. a two-week B. two-weeks C. two weeks' D. a two-week's
23. I haven't had a very ______ week. I seem to have done nothing at all.
A. extensive B. productive C. enthusiastic D. economic
24. The purpose of the survey was to ______ the inspectors with local conditions.
A. inform B. acquaint C. instruct D. notify
25. Do you know the man ______ over there?
A. interviewed B. interviewing C. to interview D. interviews
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it. (10 pts)
26. Because the torrential rains that had devastated the area, the governor sent the National Guard to assist in the
clean-up operation.
27. One of the most important things in life is a good health.
28. The city has spent a big amount of money on crime prevention.
29. Comparing with other countries, Libya spends a high percentage of income on education.
30. People are now enjoying a higher level of living.
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31. In the United Kingdom women see their doctor on the average five times a year.
32. Although Mark has been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know to prepare French foods in the
traditional manner.
33. When we arrived at the store to purchase the dishwasher advertise in the newspaper, we learned that all the
dishwashers had been sold.
34. After rising the flag to commemorate the holiday, the mayor gave a long speech.
35. This time tomorrow I will lie on the beach, enjoying the sunshine.
III. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets in each of the following sentences. Write your answer in
the space provided. (10 pts)
36. I was annoyed at his (REFUSE) …………………… to co-operate.
37. The book doesn’t say much about prices, but it is very (INFORM) …………………… about everything else.
38. The noise (LESS) …………………… as the plane got farther away.
39. He lost in the election because he was a weak and (DECIDE)…………………… leader.
40. I couldn’t help it. The accident was (AVOID) ……………………
41. She was (EXTREME) …………………… knowledgeable about the history of China.
42. He was very (SET) …………………… when his cat was run over.
43. Jackson had another violent (AGREE) …………………… with the referee.
44. Many people were buried (LIVE) …………………… after the earthquake.
45. She studied (ECONOMY) …………………… at university.
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answer in the space provided. (10 pts)
Australia is a big country, but nearly all Australians live near the sea. On hot summer days, you can see
thousands of people at the beach. Many beaches have waves (46) …………………… are very high.
These large waves are known as surf and the people who ride them are called surfers. Surfing is a skill, and it
needs learning. Don’t (47) …………………… to be able to surf properly the (48) …………………… time you
try. However, by practising a few times you will learn (49) …………………… to do it.
Surfing is not a new sport. Perhaps its origins need explaining. It started hundreds (50) ……………………
years ago in Hawaii. Men swam (51) …………………… to sea to catch fish and found they could come back to
land very quickly by riding the waves. These first surfers did not (52) …………………… a board. They were “body
surfers”. Many people (53) …………………… do this type of surfing today.
After a while people started to use boards and rode the waves by lying, kneeling or standing (54)
…………………… them. These first surfboards were made of wood and the water made them rot after a while.
Today, surfboards are made of plastic or fibreglass (55)__ instead _.
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10 pts)
What do you do well? What do you enjoy doing? Your answers to these two questions will help you
identify your (56)_____. An employer will consider you seriously for a (57)_____ when you can show them that
you know who you are, what you can offer and which you have studied. Sometimes it is difficult to know what
your weaknesses are. Clearly not everyone is equally good (58)_____ everything. You may need to improve
yourself and so (59)_____ courses in that field could turn a weakness into strength.
You will need to (60)______ some time on your self-assessment. Your honesty and the desire for self-
improvement will lead to (61)______ in getting the right job. Explore the following seven areas to start to get to
know yourself: your aptitude, your skills, your personality, the level of responsibility you feel comfortable with,
your interests and your needs.
Ask (62)_____ if you have any special talents and if you need to consider your physical health when
choosing a job. Be as honest and realistic as you can, and ask for other people's (63)_____ if necessary. Make a list
of these things. It is usually a good idea to talk about your aptitudes with teachers, family and friends.
If you are considering a career that (64)_____ a special talent, such as art, acrobatics, mathematics or
music, discuss your aptitudes with (65)_____ expert in that area and discover how they fit the needs of the
occupation.
56. A. strong B. strength C. strengthen D. strengthened
57. A. position B. location C. spot D. room
58. A. upon B. in C. at D. for
59. A. meeting B. taking C. making D. interviewing
60. A. use B. make C. lose D. spend
61. A. success B. successful C. successfully D. succeed
62. A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself
63. A. interests B. fields C. opinions D. attendances
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64. A. requires B. asks C. tells D. urges
65. A. a B. an C. the D. this
III. Read the following text and choose the best answer for the questions below. (10 pts)
May 7th 1840 was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century: Peter
Ilyich Tchaikovsky, the son of a mining inspector. Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied
composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890,
during which time he enjoyed patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a yearly
living stipend. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance,
when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck’s patronage,
however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of
“Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty”. Tchaikovsky’s music, well-known for its rich melodic and sometimes
melancholy passages, was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention
had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died ostensibly of cholera on November 6th 1893, though
there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
66. The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “The Life and Music of Tchaikovsky”
B. “Development of Tchaikovsky’s Music for Ballets”
C. “Tchaikovsky’s Relationship with Madame von Meck”
D. “The Cause of Tchaikovsky’s Death”
67. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ______.
A. she had economic troubles B. she was generous
C. she was never introduced to Tchaikovsky D. she enjoyed Tchaikovsky’s music
68. According to the passage, Tchaikovsky’s music is most well-known for ______.
A. it’s repetitive and monotonous tones B. the ballet-like quality of music
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music D. its lively, capricious melodies
69. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky’s influence on ballet music. B. Tchaikovsky’s unhappiness leading to suicide.
C. The patronage of Madame von Meck. D. Tchaikovsky’s productivity in composing.
70. It can be inferred from the passage that _.
A. it was not the music behind the dance that made Tchaikovsky famous
B. there is suspicion on the cause of Tchaikovsky’s death
C. Madame von Meck was one of the most famous Russian composers
D. Madame von Meck was one of Tchaikovsky’s girlfriends
SECTION D: WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (15 pts)
71. It is extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
We find it difficult to make ends meet these days
72. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.
Only when Alice and Charles had their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger house
73. While mending the road, they accidentally blocked our water pipes.
They accidentally cut off our water supplying while mending the road
74. He brought the umbrella along but it didn't rain.
He needn't have brought the umbrella along (because it didn't rain anyway).
75. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time. Despite my strong disapproval of
your behaviour/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that
it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).
(10 pts)
76. When I was driving, I realized that the car wasn’t working properly. (WRONG)
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………
……………………
77. Sandra said that she was willing to work late. (MIND)
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………
……………………
78. They pretended to be enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really. (AS)
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………
……………………
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79. I can't lift this table on my own. (UNLESS)
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………
……………………
80. The coins are believed to have been buried for safe-keeping. (IT)
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………
……………………
THE END

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 73
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (15 pts)
1. The traffic problem has improved _____, out of the blue, really.
A. gradually B. factually C. unexpectedly D. respectably
2. This picture book, the few pages _____ are missing, is my favorite.
A. for which B. of that C. to which D. of which
3. It was felt that he lacked the _______ to pursue a difficult task to very end.
A. persuasion B. commitment C. engagement D. obligation
4. Your decision will ______ a great strain on our relationship.
A. impose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
5. We shouldn’t give the children everything they ask for; they will become completely _____.
A. spoilt B. wounded C. damaged D. destroyed
6. The completion of the tunnel has been _______ owing to a strike.
A. held up B. held off C. held on D. held over
7. It is with ________ regret that we have to inform you that your scholarship has been withdrawn.
A. heavy B. deep C. somber D. high
8. _______ of all modern domestic poultry is the red jungle fowl is widely believed.
A. The ancestor B. The ancestor is C. How the ancestor D. That the
ancestor
9. Art critics do not all agree on what _______ a painting great.
A. qualities to make B. are the qualities for making C. qualities make D. do the
qualities that make
10. Farmers supply crops with phosphorus in areas ________ have removed it from the soil.
A. because of long years of cultivation B. where long years of cultivation
C. with long years of cultivation D. by long years of cultivation
11. Sarah congratulated _____ passing my driving test.
A. me B. for C. me on D. on me
12. Had it not been for the intolerable heat in the hall, they _____ much longer.
A. will stay B. would stay C. would be staying D. would have stayed
13. I can’t quite _____ out what the sign says.
A. read B. get C. carry D. make
14. One _____ of the scheme is the very high cost.
A. advantage B. shortage C. drawback D. shortcoming
15. In a new culture, many embarrassing situations occur _____ a misunderstanding.
A. because of B. of C. for D. because
II. Choose a word or phrase in each of the following sentences that needs correcting. (10 pts)
1. Paris has been well-known about its famous monuments, beautiful music, and wonderful restaurants for over 100
years.
A B C D
2. In France people drive on the left, so making sure you go on the right side.
A B C D
3. Up to now he wrote five novels and over sixteen short stories.
A B C D
4. The new bridge makes it possibly to cross the river easily and quickly.
A B C D
5. If you are working with young children in a primary school, you will find that teaching lively songs and rhymes
are very popular.
A B C D
III. Use the correct form of the word in bracket to complete each of the following sentences. (10 pts)
1. He is unhappy because of his ………………………….. (deaf)
2. The …………………………..of the swamps will destroy the mosquitoes’ breeding places. (drain)
3. He has made a great ………………………….. to the development of the country. (contribute)
4. We will hire new staff when the ………………………….. arises. (necessary)
5. His repeated ………………………….. from school is unacceptable. (absent)
6. The teacher’s words are a great ………………………….. to him. (encourage)
7. They are very ………………………….. of one another. (support)
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8. Her interests are very ………………………….. (diversity)
9. I can’t stand his ………………………….. (rude)
10. The holiday was beyond all ………………………….. (expect)
PART C: READING
I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15
pts)
Around the age of eighteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. "Do I stay on at school
and hopefully go on to university (1) …………………………..? Do I leave and start work or begin (2) _a_ training
course?".
The decision is yours, but it may be (3) ………………………….. remembering two things: there is more
unemployment among people (4) ………………………….. haven't been to university, and people who have the
right (5) ………………………….. will have a big advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go straight
into a job, there are many opportunities (6) …………………………..training. Getting qualifications will (7)
………………………….. you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn
(8)_while _ you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (9) …………………………..
possibility. This way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (10) …………………………..
practical work experience.
II. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each numbered gap in the
passage below. (10 pts)
If you (1)_____ to be walking in your local park tomorrow and you find an abandoned book with a label
inside (2)_____ 'Read and Release me', don't just treat it as a joke. You've probably come (3)_____ an example of
'book-crossing', a book-sharing movement started in 2001 by American software developer Ron Hornbaker, whose
stated aim is to 'make the (4)_____ world a library'. Book-crossers 'release' books (5)_____ by passing them on to
friends, or else by leaving them in public places for others to pick up, or 'catch', and then read, before they (6)_____
turn release them back 'into the wild'. (7)_____ a book has been 'caught', the person finding it is encouraged to record
the event by logging on to the book-crossing website and entering the book's ID number written on the label. That
(8)_____ , both the original owner and subsequent readers of the book can keep track of its progress. Over half a
million people worldwide participate in book-crossing, 'releasing' books in a (9)_____ range of locations including
cafés, airports, bus stations, telephone boxes and even underwater in public fountains. Often a book is left in a place
(10)_____ is relevant to its title or content: Agatha Christie's Murder on the Orient Express on a train, for example,
or an archeology book in a museum.
1. A. occur B. happen C. pass D. arise
2. A. telling B. saying C. talking D. answering
3. A. away B. along C. across D. aside
4. A. full B. absolute C. quite D. whole
5. A. either B. but C. or D. neither
6. A. at B. to C. in D. for
7. A. Soon B. Since C. Once D. While
8. A. way B. time C. place D. manner
9. A. deep B. long C. high D. wide
10. A. what B. which C. who D. where
III. Read the text then answer the questions by choosing A, B, C or D. (20 pts)
To date, Canada has produced only one classic children’s tale to rank with Alice’s Adventures in wonderland
and the works of Mark Twain; this was Lucy Maud Montgomery’s Anne of Green Gables. Lucy Maud Montgomery
was born in Clinton, Prince Edward Island. Her mother died soon after her birth, and when her father went to
Saskatchewan to assume a business position, she moved in with her grandparents in Cavendish, Prince Edward
Island. There she went to school and later qualified to be a teacher.
Montgomery wrote the Anne books while living in Cavendish and helping her grandmother at the post office.
The first of the books, Anne of Green Gabbles, was published in 1908, and in the next three years she wrote two
sequels. Like Montgomery, the heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who lives in the fictional town
of Avonlea, and Montgomery incorporated many events from her life in Cavendish into the Anne books.
In 1911, Montgomery married Evan Macdonald and the couple soon moved to Ontario, where she wrote many
other books. However, it was her first efforts that secured her prominence, and the Anne books are still read all
around the world. Her novels have helped create a warm picture of Prince Edward Island’s special character. Several
movies, a television series, and a musical play have been based on her tales, and today visitors scour the Island for
locations described in the book.
1. The main purpose of this passage is to ____.
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A. show the similarities between Montgomery’s life and that of her fictional character Anne.
B. contrast Canadian children’s literature with that of other countries.
C. provide a brief introduction to Prince Edward Island.
D. introduce Montgomery and her Anne books.
2. According to the passage, Montgomery was raised primarily____.
A. by her grandparents B. in an orphanage C. by her mother D. by her father
3. Approximately when did Lucy Maud Montgomery write the two sequels to her book Anne of Green Gables?
A. From 1874 to 1908 B. From 1911 to 1913 C. From 1908 to 1911 D. From 1913 to
1918
4. The word “elderly” in line 8 is closest in meaning to____.
A. kindly B. old C. friendly D. sly
5. In the Anne books, the main character lives in____.
A. the town of Cavendish B. the town of Avonlea C. Saskatchewan D. Ontario
6. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage about Anne books?
A. They were not as successful as Montgomery’s later works.
B. They were influenced by the works of Mark Twain.
C. They were at least partially autobiographical.
D. They were not popular until after Montgomery had died.
7. Ontario was the place where ____. A. Montgomery wrote other books B. Montgomery got married
C. Montgomery wrote two sequels D. Montgomery became famous
8. The word “prominence” in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.
A. excellence B. reputation C. effort D. permanence
9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “character” in line 12?
A. a person in a novel B. nature C. a written symbol D. location
10. All of the following have been based on the Anne books EXCEPT____.
A. a television series B. movies C. a play D. a ballet
PART D: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your answer on
your answer sheet. (10 pts)
1. “You’d better not lend her any more money, Paul,” said Tom.
 Tom
…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..
2. Although the traffic was bad, Peter arrived on time.
 In spite of
…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..
3. The last time I saw Mary was in 2009.
 I haven’t
…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..
4. The plumber repaired the leak this morning.
 They had
…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..
5. They had a bad crop because the storm swept through the region.
 If
…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..
II: Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Use the word given. Do
not change the word. Write your answer on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
1. It's possible that someone stole your purse when we were in the restaurant. (might)

…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..
2. ‘Me? No, I didn’t take Sue’s calculator,’ said Bob. (denied)
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
…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..
3. They said that an electrical failure was the cause of the fire. (blamed)

…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..
4. She apologized to the host for having to go so early, and left. (apologies)

…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..
5. Peter was the first person I asked for advice. (whose)

…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………………………..…………
………………..

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 74
B. PHONETICS - GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the groups (5.0 points)
16. A. individual B. entertainment C. introduction D. environment
17. A. knowledge B. miserable C. reaction D. accident
18. A. political B. yesterday C. ambulance D. furniture
19. A. confidence B. minimize C. complaint D. imitate
20. A. company B. atmosphere C. customer D. employment
II. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15 points)
21. Peter: “ I’ve got to go, Betty. So long." Betty: ” So long, Peter. And __________”
A. be careful B. don’t hurry C. take care D. don’t take
22. John: “How lovely your house is!” Jack: “__________”
A. I love it, too. B. Thank you, it’s nice of you to say so.
C. Can you say that again. D. Really? It is.
23. Mr. Thomson is one of the most distinguished scientists in his __________ .
A. matter B. field C. part D. place
24. There has been a great __________ in her English.
A. escalation B. rise C. increase D. improvement
25. The __________ of the general election will be known today.
A. result B. decision C. effect D. choice
26. Released in 1915, __________
A. D.W Griffith’s made an epic film about the Civil War, Birth of a Nation.
B. the Civil War was the subject of D.W. Griffith’s epic film, Birth of a Nation.
C. D.W. Griffith’s epic film Birth of a Nation was about the Civil War.
D. the subject of D.W. Griffith’s epic film Birth of a Nation was the Civil War.
27. As soon as you buy a car, it starts falling in __________.
A. cost B. worth C. value D. price
28. Boy: “Would you say that English is a global language?” Girl: "__________ "
A. Yes, it has. B. I like it.
C. I don’t understand the difference. D. Oh, absolutely.
29. The couple decided to __________ every month for their retirement.
A. put some money away B. put some money aside
C. take up some money D. take some money away
30.The taxi was so late reaching the station that my father __________ missed his train.
A. rarely B. immediately C. entirely D. almost
31.__________an emergency arise, call 911.
A. Should B. Can C. Does D. Will
32.The doctor gave the patient __________ examination to discover the cause of his collapse.
A. a thorough B. an exact C. a universal D. a whole
33.On __________ she had passed the exam, she jumped for joy.
A. having told B. he was told C. being told D. telling
34. Henry: " __________ " John: "Nothing."
A. What do you do? B. What's new? C. How are you? D. Are you a newcomer?
35. Sarah: "I am terribly sorry, Mr. Johnson. I won't be able to come to the office tomorrow."
Mr. Johnson: " __________ "
A. Oh, that's annoying. B. Sounds like fun. C. Well, never mind. D. Great, Sarah.
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. (MYSTERY), the light came on though no one was near the switch.
37. Excessive (EXPOSE) to direct sunlight should of course be avoided.
38. The complete (RELEVANT) of this answer shows that the student did not read the question carefully.
39. Most birds (MIGRATORY) in the winter.
40. When a boy, Bob was a very (ATTEND) student and seemed to spend most of the time looking out of the window.
41. Travelling gives young people opportunities to (DEPTH) their understanding of the world.
42. The living-room is littered with (DISCARD) newspapers.
43. The boys took part in the competition with great (ENTHUSIAST).
44. Most young Americans want to lead a / an (DEPEND) life at the age of twenty.
45. (NEW) energy sources such as wind and wave power are pollution-free.
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IV. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting: (5.0 points)
46. Visitors may realize that even though they can’t make their homes in Venice city, they can take away with
A B
them memories of their beauty.
C D
47. The news of the negotiations for a peace treaty between the two Presidents were received with mixed emotions by
A B C
the citizens of both countries .
D
48. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now.
A B C D
49. The Girls Scouts, found by Juliette Gordon Low in 1912, has grown to a current membership of more than
A B C
three million girls.
D
50. Americans annually import more than $ 3 billion worthy of Italian clothing, jewelry, and shoes.
A B C D
C. READING
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space: (10 points)
These days in business, people have to face many challenging questions when designing and implementing
new projects in undeveloped areas of the countryside. One issue which has to be faced is whether it is possible to
introduce new technology without destroying the local environment.
Economic (51) __________and environmental conservation are often seen as natural enemies. It is
unfortunate that in the past this has often been true, and it has been necessary to choose between (52) __________the
project or protecting the environment. However, by taking environmental considerations (53) __________at an early
stage in a project, companies can significantly reduce any impacts on local plants and animals.
For example, in southern Africa, a company called CEL was asked to put up 410 km of a power transmission
line without disturbing the rare birds which inhabit that area. The project was carried out with (54)
__________disturbance last summer. What may surprise many business people is the fact that this consideration for
local wildlife did not in any way (55) __________down the project. Indeed, the necessary advance planning (56)
__________with local knowledge and advanced technology, (57) __________that the project was actually
completed ahead of schedule. CEL was contracted to finish the job by October and (58) __________to do so two
months earlier.
CEL is one of those companies which is (59) __________ to the principle of environmental conservation.
Many other companies have yet to be (60) __________ of the importance of balancing the needs of people with
those of the environment. However, it may be the only realistic way forward.
51. A. development B. progression C. rise D. increase
52. A. running B. dealing C. controlling D. leading
53. A. deeply B. gravely C. seriously D. severely
54. A. bare B. smallest C. least D. minimal
55. A. turn B. slow C. speed D. hold
56. A. tied B. combined C. added D. related
57. A. led B. caused C. resulted D. meant
58. A. managed B. succeeded C. achieved D. fulfilled
59. A. promised B. persuaded C. convicted D. committed
60. A. argued B. convinced C. urged D. impressed
II. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words provided in the box, choose the most suitable for
each blank. There are THREE extra words that you do not need to use (5 points).
A. But C. bad E. help G. benefit
B. need D. true F. good H. Indeed

In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to the cinema
or renting videos. But is this necessarily a (61) __________ thing? For years, newspaper reports have been saying
that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, bad- tempered, even violent as
a result. But new research, carried out in both Europe and the USA, suggests that the opposite may be (62)
__________.

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 (63) __________, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve
certain skills. Researchers claim that this is because the games make the brain work harder in certain ways, like
imagining sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact that people play the games
repeatedly means that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to become highly developed.
Social skills may (64) __________, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first- person shooter games
such as “Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and co-operation, and that this
helps them to make good friendships and become strong members of their communities. So rather than giving up
computer games, perhaps young people (65) __________ to spend more time on them?
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question (10 points).
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is
big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment.
Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “ Reduce,
Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive
plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a
bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and reuse cups
and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many
customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a
customer buys high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message.
In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to
manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers empty
the bottles, they can return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and
then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning
bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic
from throwaway bottles.
The third step is to recycle. Spent motor oil cans can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are costly to
make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours.
When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources.
66. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. what is involved in the recycling movement.
B. what people often understand about the term “recycle”.
C. how to live sensitive to the environment.
D. how to reduce garbage disposal.
67. The word “sensitive” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________
A. responding B. logical C. cautious D. friendly
68. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT__________.
A. buy high-quality product
B. buy fewer hamburgers
C. buy simply-wrapped things
D. reuse cups
69. Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because they have to be repaired many times
B. Because they produce less energy.
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time.
D. Because people will soon throw them away
70. What is the best description of the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.
C. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
D. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected.
71. The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because__________
A. each returned bottle is paid. B. people are ordered to return bottles
C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic D. returned bottles are few
72. The word “practice” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to __________
A. drill B. exercise C. deed D. belief
73. The energy used to make a can is __________the energy used to run a color TV set for 3 hours.
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 A. more than B. less than
C. as much as D. not worth being compared to
74. The word “precious” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. natural B. substantial C. first D. invaluable
75. Which statement is true according to the passage?
A. It's imppossible to recycle aluminum.
B. Aluminum is one resource that needs to be saved.
C. Aluminum is a lasting resource.
D. It's cheap to make aluminum cans.
D. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it (5 points).
76. The cost of living has gone up considerably in the past few years.
- There .............................................................................................................................................................
77. Their chances of success are small.
- It is ................................................................................................................................................................
78. Someone has suggested abolishing income tax.
- It ....................................................................................................................................................................
79. Most people can understand Tom when he speaks Vietnamese.
- Tom can make ...............................................................................................................................................
80. We are thankful to General Vo Nguyen Giap for his contribution to the cause of the national liberation.
- We are thankful to General Vo Nguyen Giap for what ...................................................................................
II. Use the suggested words and phrases below to make complete sentences of a passage(10 points).
81. Come / enjoy / three hundred years / history / single day!
82. Highfield House / one / Britain's finest old buildings / attractive / well-kept gardens / good view / beautiful North
Norfolk coast.
83. Until recently / it / home / members / Highfield family.
84. Now / however / this classic 18th century hall / living museum / full /art / history.
85. There / so many attractions / from beautiful rooms / peaceful picnic places / by / lake.
86. You can even / trip / water / if / weather / suitable.
87. Enjoy / guided tour / House / start / the grandeur of the entrance / carry on through / various rooms.
88. tour / House / end / old kitchen / where valuable antique tools / display.
III. It is said that modern technology makes it easier for students to learn. Do you agree or disagree with the
statement? Write an essay of about 180 – 200 words to support your opinion (10 points)

---------THE END---------

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 75
SECTION II: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

PART 1: Choose the option (A,B,C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers
in the numbered table below.
1. Our country is rich ________ natural resources.
A. of B. with C. about D. in
2. The idea to ________ a visit to the local council residence was welcomed by all the visitors.
A. pay B. do C. go D. walk
3. In his anxiety to make himself________, he spoke too loudly and too slowly.
A. understand B. understanding C. understood D. to understand
4. ________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have helped with the
project.
A. If it hadn’t been B. If it had been C. Had it been D. Hadn’t it been
5. Some animals are on the ________ of becoming extinct.
A. edge B. verge C. side D. tip
6. The play is very long but there are three ________
A. intervals B. breaks C. rests D. naps
7. The last lecture ________ completely over my head.
A. got B. went C. was D. left
8. Could I pick your ________ on the subject before the meeting?
A. brains B. head C. intellect D. mind
9. I was prepared to lend my brother some money but he turned ________ my offer.
A. back B. up C. out D. down
10. I ________ with the performances but I got flu the day before.
A. was to have helped B. helped C. was to help D. had helped
11. The dying man’s speech was so________ that no one was able to interpret his last request.
A. incoherent B. indiscreet C. nonchalant D. impotent
12. Very soon I found some other people to ________ and we began to write songs.
A. keep up with B. team up with C. talk through with D. get along with
13. ________ chair the meeting.
A. John was decided to B. It was decided that John should
C. There was decided that John should D. John had been decided to
14. I thought about the problem but I couldn’t ________ a solution.
A. come in for B. come across C. come up with D. come out
15. ________, they slept soundly.
A. Hot though was the night air B. Hot though the night air was
C. Hot as was the night air D. Hot although the night air was

Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

PART 2: Read the text below and think of the word that best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap.
There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers in the numbered table below.

Is your school just as you wanted (0)_______ to be? Or are there things you and your classmates (1) ________
change, given the opportunity? This is your chance to express your ideas about (2) ________ the ideal school is like.
Our competition is open to (3) ________ student between the ages of twelve and eighteen. You can enter (4)
________ an individual or your whole class can work together on a team entry. Your entry can take any form – a
piece of writing, a picture, or even architectural plans. It is completely (5) ________ to you. What we are looking
for is evidence (6) ________ originality, imagination and, above (7) ________, the genuine views of young people.
By (8) ________ part in this, you will help in a study being carried out at a leading university. All work entered (9)
________ the competition will be kept at the university and used in research. Entries cannot be returned (10)

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________ of this. But it also means that, even (11) ________ you do not win, your views will still be heard and will
remain for future educationalists to study.
Entries must reach us no (12) ________ than Friday 30 April. Winners will receive valuable prizes of computer
equipment and software for their schools.

Write your answers here:

0. it 1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6. 7.
8. 9. 10. 11.
12.

PART 3: Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct and some have a word
which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√). If the line has a word that should not be there, write
the word at the end of the line. There are two examples at the beginning.

0 Congratulations on winning of the tennis championship! You must be of

00 very pleased, especially since the prize is quite a lot of money. √
1 What are you going to spend it on? You could even buy a new car
2 with all that money! You should have be in great shape after all the
3 training you have been doing. It must be so very hard work, practising
4 all those hours for every day but it is worth it in the end, isn’t it?
5 Perhaps you are thinking of going on holiday so that you can have
6 a break from tennis and relax. Can you tell me exactly what is kind of
7 tennis racket you chose for the competition? If I would get the same,
8 it might help me to improve my game. Anyway, congratulations on
9 your great victory! I’m still studying English every single day and the
10 course has three months to go. I have moved house, as if you can see
11 from my new address. Make sure you reply back to the right address!
12 Your last letter went to my old address, but it wasn’t by your fault
13 because I hadn’t told anyone who I had moved then. Did you know
14 that I have had a job for the last three weeks? I work in a restaurant
15 four evenings a week. I like it, but I don’t arrive at home until one
o’clock in the morning, which is a bit inconvenient.

PART 4: Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the passage. Write your answers
in the numbered table below. (0) has been done as an example.
18,000 years ago, much of Europe (0) ________(lie) (1)________(bury) beneath vast sheets of ice, hundreds of
metres thick. Ever since this astonishing fact (2)_______(discover) in the last century, scientists (3)
________(speculate) on the nature of the Ice Age climate, and the circumstances that brought it to an end.
More recently, people (4) ________(wonder) if climatic changes could (5)________(take) place in our own time.
During the early 1970s there (6)_______(be) disastrous droughts in Africa, and frequent failures of Indian monsoon.
In 1976, Europe sweltered in the hottest summer for over a century, and (7)_______(experience) one of the worst
droughts since records began. Could such events as these be symptoms of a worldwide climatic shift?
Even small changes in climate that (8)________(occur) from time to time can have a highly damaging effect on
agriculture. With food reserves now (9)________ (stand) at only a few per cent of annual production, the world is
extremely vulnerable (10) ________(adverse) shifts in climate. It is therefore vitally important for us to understand
how climate changes take place.

Write your answers here:

0. lay 1. 2.
3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8.
9. 10.

139
PART 5: Think of ONE WORD only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences. Write your answers
in the numbered table below. (0) has been done as an example.
0. She screamed for _______ and luckily someone heard her.
Thanks for all your _______ through such a difficult time.
Practical ________ is offered through our accommodation service to new students.
1. I get off at the next _______.
The referee was forced to _______ the game because of heavy snow.
Work has temporarily come to a _______ while the funding in reviewed.
2. Keep your _______ on your work.
Do you have anyone in _______ for this job?
Don’t _______ her. She didn’t mean what she said.
3. There is a little gift _______ around the corner.
I do a weekly _______ at the supermarket.
He didn’t expect his own mother to _______ him to the police.
4. Everyone wished her the best of _______ at university and hoped she would enjoyed it.
Jenny won the competition at her first attempt – perhaps it was beginner’s _______!
There is no such thing as _______, we are capable of creating our own good fortune.
5. Politicians can abuse their position of _______ .
The _______ supply to our house was cut because of roadwork.
I’m afraid I do not have the _______ to authorize this change.
6. Few people could have predicted the huge impact of information _______ .
No matter how advanced _______ becomes, machine will never be able to think like humans.
It’s a waste of time for humans to do tasks that modern _______ can do.
7. She was struck by the sudden _______ that he might already have left.
He dived in after her without a second _______.
It was once _______ that the sun traveled around the earth.
8. Governments should give as much foreign _______ as possible to poorer countries.
In certain circumstances, emergency _______ in the form of money should be sent immediately.
The most successful long-term _______ programmes encourage self-help.

Write your answers here:

0. help 1. 2.
3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8.

PART 6: For questions from 1-10, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the
lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. Write your answers in the numbered table below. There
is an example at the beginning (0).

Before going to an interview, it is (0)_________ to go through a mock ADVISE

interview. This will give you the opportunity to try out your technique and
answers live. It is also a chance to receive feedback that is (1)__________ in
guiding you towards improving your interview style and general (2) BENEFIT
_________ Just one mock interview will result in a (3)_________ PRESENT
improvement in your interview skill. Why? For the same reason that a (4) NOTICE
_________ doesn’t exist while it is still on paper or floating in your head. It SPEAK
only exists when you give it (5)_________ The first time you give it in front ORAL
of an audience, it will come out nothing like the one you prepared.
It is the same with being interviewed. It is not enough to look at a question and
say, ‘Yeah, I know the answer to that one.’ You need to practise your answer
live; this is not the time to talk to yourself in front of a mirror. Seek out a (6)
_________ and have the session videotaped. Then you will have two opinions
– the interview’s and your own. You will find you get a completely different PROFESSION
(7)________ when listening to yourself than when you are watching yourself
saying something. Just as your voice always sounds different on tape, so do IMPRESS
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 your (8) _______. You will be glad the image is captured on tape and not in a
potential employer’s mind. For maximum effect, you should (9)________ RESPOND
your answers and go through a second mock interview. This should help with
any (10)________ and give you more confidence for the real interview. VISIT

EASE

Write your answers here

0. advisable 1. 2.
3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8.
9. 10.

SECTION III: READING (4 points)

PART 1: Read the article below and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in
the numbered table below. There is an example at the beginning (0).

Students and jobseekers keen to get onto the course or into the workplace of their (0)________ hope that voluntary
work will help them (1)________ from the crowd. This chance to (2)________ experience – personally and
professionally – is (3)________ on the wish-list of young people.
A survey carried out last year revealed that young and old (4)________ said volunteering had improved their lives,
particularly those (5)________in conservation or heritage work.
Businesses recognise its importance and get to (6)________their profile in the community, while staff get a break
from their daily routine to develop ‘soft skill’, (7)________initiative and decision-making. One volunteering
organisation is (8)________ another survey to find out if volunteering does make a difference in the workplace, or
if it is something businesses do simply to improve their (9)________ .
Not (10)________are business-sponsored placements becoming more common, the government is also investing
money and aiming to (11) ________volunteers. The push is clearly on to make volunteering as attractive as possible
to everyone.
And the more people who participate, the more the act fulfils its (12) ________of making the world a better place.

0. A. alternative B. choice C. option D. election

1. A. stand out B. lift out C. pick out D. point out
2. A. win B. achieve C. collect D. gain
3. A. extreme B. high C. sharp D. strong
4. A. similar B. the same C. alike D. too
5. A. committed B. associate C. connected D. involved
6. A. raise B. increase C. arouse D. motivate
7. A. such B. such as C. such like D. such and such
8. A. governing B. guiding C. conducting D. directing
9. A. representation B. look C. image D. figure
10. A. only B. just C. merely D. simply
11. A. claim B. recruit C. bring D. enter
12. A. aim B. direction C. mark D. design

Write your answers here

0. B 1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6. 7.
8. 9. 10. 11.
12.

PART 2: Look at the sentences below about a hotel. Read the text to decide if each sentence is correct or
incorrect.
If it is correct, write C. If it is incorrect, write I.

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Write your answers in the numbered table below.
1. During the 1980s, few tourists used to go to the Arctic in summer.
2. People came in large numbers to Jukkasjärvi to see the Arctic Hall.
3. The artist encouraged people to sleep in the Arctic Hall.
4. Each winter, guests come and sleep in the hotel before it is finished.
5. Progress when building the hotel is influenced by the weather.
6. The temperature inside the hotel changes according to the temperature outside.
7. Some clothes are provided by the hotel.
8. Guests should buy boots which fit as tightly as possible.
9. Items ordered through the ICEHOTEL shop will be delivered to your home.
10. It is possible to take a train from the airport to the IceHotel.
THE ICEHOTEL

For many years the Arctic was a popular destination in the summer season to see the land of the midnight sun but in
winter the few inhabitants had the snow and ice to themselves. By the end of the 1980s it was decided that the dark
and cold winter should be seen as an advantage. In the winter of 1990 the French artist Jannot Derit was invited to
have the opening of an exhibition in a specially built igloo (a building made of snow) in the little town of Jukkasjärvi
on the frozen Torne River. The building, named Arctic Hall, attracted many interested visitors to the area. One night
a group of foreign guests decided it would be a good idea to sleep in the Arctic Hall. The following morning the
brave group were very pleased with their experience and the idea of an ice hotel was born. Today it is world famous.
As soon as winter begins, a team of snow builders, architects and artists from all over the world come to Jukkasjärvi
and they make the hotel for that year. As one part is completed, it opens to visitors and overnight guests, while the
other parts are still being built. The first part is completed in December and each week after that a new part opens,
until January 7th when the hotel is completed. As the ICEHOTEL is built under the open sky, using the natural
materials of the winter season, the finishing date depends on nature and therefore there are sometimes changes to
the plan. In the spring, as the weather gets warmer, the hotel melts.
Inside the hotel, the temperature is never colder than –5 °C to –8 °C, however cold it may be outside. Winter outer
clothes such as warm overalls, hats and gloves are included in the cost of guests’ stay at the hotel. In addition to this,
it is a good idea for guests to bring sweaters and a scarf as well as plenty of woolen socks and to choose footwear
that is larger than normal to allow space for thick socks.
If you are planning to come to the hotel, you can buy warm sweaters, woolen socks and much more on the ICEHOTEL
website. You can order these and the equipment you will need at the same time as you book your visit. The items will be
delivered to your room when you check in.
The hotel is in the village of Jukkasjärvi, 200 km above the Arctic Circle but only 15 km from Kiruna airport and
17 km from Kiruna train station. Transport by bus can be arranged from the airport or train station to the IceHotel.

Write your answers here

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART 3: Read the following passage and do the tasks below. Write your answers in the numbered table.
The Atmosphere of Venus
Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the sun and the brightest
object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and twenty four Earth-days and is sometimes
referred to as Earth’s sister planet because the two share both a similar size and bulk. What is not similar, however,
is Venus’s atmosphere in comparison to Earth’s atmosphere.
The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth. Venus’s atmosphere
also expands significantly higher than Earth’s atmosphere although a thick cloud cover makes the surface of Venus
nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar mapping.
While the pressure and temperature of Venus’s upper atmosphere are comparable to those of Earth, the heat
and pressure of the lower atmosphere are not unlike a furnace. Venus’s atmosphere is very thick due to a composition
consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of
Venus’s surface (400 degrees Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure that is more
than 90 times that of Earth. Venus’s extremely high temperature is thanks to the greenhouse effect caused by such
a large amount of carbon dioxide. The greenhouse effect is a process by which the sun’s infrared radiation is more

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readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used to grow plants years round, the proliferation
of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms Venus’s atmosphere. Due to this phenomenon, Venus boasts a higher
atmospheric temperature than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.
However, scientists postulate that Venus’s atmosphere was not always so hot. [A] Studies show that large
bodies of water were once on Venus’s surface but that eventually evaporation of all the water caused the runaway
greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today. [B] Thus Venus has become a critical study for today’s scientists,
as human being are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. [C] Our problems do
not stem from evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases due
to industrial and automobile emissions. [D]
Another interesting characteristic to note regarding Venus’s atmosphere is that its daytime temperatures and
nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a
substance to store heat despite changing temperatures and the transfer of heat by Venus’s strong winds. Although
winds on the surface of Venus move slowly in comparison with Earth’s winds, Venus’s air is so dense that a slow-
moving there can move large obstructions and even skip stones along the planet’s surface.
In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at sending a recording instrument into Venus’s atmosphere. The
Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact caused its communication system to fail,
and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967, Venera 4 successfully enter Venus’s atmosphere and was able to
take many readings, one of which recorded that Venus’s atmosphere was between ninety and ninety-five percent
carbon dioxide. Subsequent Venera probes were sent into Venus’s atmosphere, but most of them succumbed to the
crushing air pressure.

Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the passage.
1. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because
A. it is very bright
B. it is close to the sun
C. it can be seen from evening till morning
D. it is used to find the direction by sailors
2. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to
A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density
3. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3? Incorrect
answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
B. If a man could survive its surface pressure.
C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
D. Venus’s surface temperature and pressure make it uninhabitable by humans.
4. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to
A. the small amounts of nitrogen
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
C. growing plants
D. the high atmospheric temperatures
5. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth
A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
B. once had an atmosphere similar to Venus’s
C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
6. Look at the four blanks […] in paragraph 4 that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.
Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit?
7. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. desecration
Question 8: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE answer choices that express
important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the summary is provided bellowed.

Scientists look at Venus to predict Earth’s future.

●…………………………………………………
●…………………………………………………
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 ●…………………………………………………

Answer Choices
A. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and cause a rapid increase in carbon dioxide.
B. Earth’s wind has a greater velocity than Venus’s because the air movement on Venus is denser and can even
more large obstructions.
C. Spaceships landing on Venus, though often crushed by Venus’s atmosphere, have revealed much about its
carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
D. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with the great surface
pressure.
E. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
F. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of carbon dioxide will
produce a greenhouse effects similar to Venus’s.

Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.

PART 4: You are going to read a magazine article about learning how to fly a plane. Eight paragraphs have
been removed from the article. Choose from paragraphs A-I the one that fits each gap (1-8). There is one extra
paragraph that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the numbered table below.
Learning to Fly
I had been testing cars and motorcycles for over twenty years. I couldn’t take any more. It wasn’t terribly exciting
and, in any case, new cars were beginning to look identical and drive similarly. What I needed was a new challenge.
1
Unfortunately, I wore glasses. The Royal Air Force wouldn’t consider anyone for pilot training unless they had
perfect eyesight. Halfway through an aptitude test, they realised that my eyes were far from perfect. I didn’t stand a
chance.
2
It was an obvious choice. It’s just twenty minutes’ drive from my home. It’s very quiet, too, so the £90 per hour for
the training is spent flying in the air, not waiting on the ground for other planes to take off.
3
It took me a whole year to get my private pilot’s license. It started well, with my first solo flight coming after just
seven hours. Then came all the studying, the exams, the hard work. I never thought I’d get to the end of it.
4
Then came last winter and the end of the course was in sight. For weeks, the weather was so terrible that for most
of the time it was impossible to fly. Strong winds, heavy rain and even snow and ice made flying conditions
extremely hazardous.
5
But finally the first of three practical exams arrived – the navigation test. The examiner sets you a course that you
have to plan according to the weather, and then fly with him sitting beside you.
6
I passed this test, but I don’t know how. The second test involves flying cross-country to two other airports, which
you can choose, and landing at both. The important thing is to give the right messages to the air-traffic control people
and understand their replies.
7
After this alarming episode, the exercises in the flight-handling test were simple. As we complete the sixth exercise,
the examiner suddenly turned to me and said, ‘Congratulations – you’ve passed!’
8
I wasn’t sure why, because we usually land as slowly as possible. Then I turned round and realised straight away:
we were being followed by a British Airways jumbo jet!

A. A week which we had set aside for finishing the course came and went with no possibility of getting in the air at
all. And besides the problems with the weather, my second son was born, and that made it even more difficult to
find the time for lessons and studying.

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B. But the real reason I chose this club was that a friend of mine, Andrew Wilkins, is the chief instructor there. He
impressed me by taking me out for a free flight just so that I could see what it was like.

C. Unfortunately, I got myself lost this time and flew too far east. I completely missed the first airport. However, I
flew over a car factory I recognised and managed to get back on course.

D. Along the way, he’ll take the controls and fly off course, just to get you lost. Then he’ll hand back the control to
you and expect you to find your way home.

E. One day I was asked by an air-traffic controller if I could see another aircraft ahead. I said yes, and immediately
it disappeared into a cloud. I just didn’t know what to do.

F. At the time, taking private lessons to learn how to fly was financially beyond me. So I had to delay my plans to
become a pilot for quite a while. It was twenty years, in fact, before I finally enrolled at a flying club in Hertfordshire.

G. Since getting my pilot’s license, I’ve been out flying a few times. The highlight so far was flying up to
Birmingham International Airport for a motor show with Andrew beside me. As we approached the way, the air-
traffic controller came on the radio asking for as much speed as our little plane could manage.

H. For months, my head was always in a book and my head hurt from all the facts, figures and flying instructions.

I. This feeling of needing a change coincided with my 40th birthday, which started me thinking about what I’d been
doing all those years. When I left school all I had really wanted to do was fly.

Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
SECTION 4: WRITING (6 points)

PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentences
printed before it.
1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaints about it.
 Should ___________________________________________________________________
2. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.
 I cancelled ________________________________________________________________
3. Her success went beyond her expectation.
 Never ____________________________________________________________________
4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.
 The more _________________________________________________________________
5. They will not announce the findings until next week.
 No announcement __________________________________________________________
6. Both of the lifts were out of order.
 Neither ___________________________________________________________________
7. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation.
 The operation left __________________________________________________________

PART 2: Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentences printed before
it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between three and five words,
including the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0).
0. You must do exactly what the manager tells you. (CARRY)
 You must carry out the manager’s instructions exactly.
1. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
I wish ________________________________________________________ speak French.
2. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)
 The rain was ______________________________________________________________
3. The two theories appear to be completely different. (COMMON)

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The two theories____________________________________________________________
4. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)
 You ____________________________________________before you borrowed my book.
5. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE)
 This record used ______________________________________ mine when I was younger.
6. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)
 It’s difficult for my sister ___________________________________________ every day.
7. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. (RED-HANDED)
The police ________________________________________________________________
8. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
 The North Sea is ____________________________________________ the Mediterranean.

PART 3: In class, you have been discussing the statement ‘Old people should be looked after by members of their
family or it is better for them to live in nursing-home’. Your teacher has asked you to write an essay expressing
your own opinion.
Write your essay in 250-300 words.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………

---The End---

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 76
I/ READING:
PART 1: Choose the word or phrase ( A, B, C or D). Write your answers in the spaces bellow.
Number 0 is an example ( 2 ms )
0. The …………….-hour accident caused chaos for the local motorists yesterday evening.
A. rush B. high C. traffic D. heavy
1. The unemployment rate of the area ……………..every year until 2003 then started to fall.
A. raised B. rose C. dropped D. decreased
2. It is gravity……………………objects towards the earth.
A. pulling B. to pull C. what pulls D. that pulls
3. …………problems in sailing in tropical seas is the coral reefs.
A. One of the biggest B.The biggest one C. Of the biggest one D. There are the biggest
4. ……………foreign languages requires great effort.
A. Learn B. Learning C. To learn it D. Learnt
5. "I am tired"
“ ……… ”
A. Me too B. Also me C. For me the same D. I also
6. I’m really not satisfied with the way you have …………………the situation.
A. dealt B. handled C. done D. fingered
7. We may win, we may lose- It is just the ………………..of the draw.
A. strike B. odds C. chance D. luck
8. War is ……………as open-armed conflict between countries or factions within countries.
A. delineated B. declared C. defaulted D. defined
9. I hope you won’t take it…………………if I suggest an alternative remedy.
A. offence B. amiss C. upset D. most
10. Claims for compensation could ………………… run into billions of pounds.
A. far B. much C. well D. most
YOUR ANSWERS: 0 ………….A………………..
1…………………2……………………….3……………………….4……………………5……………….. .
6…………………7……………………….8……………………….9……………………10………………..

PART 2: Complete the spaces with A, AN, THE or (No article). Write your answers in the spaces bellow
Number 0 is an example (1 m)
0: Jason’s father bought him ………..bicycle that he had wanted for his birthday.
Countries around (1) ……………….world have begun to deal with (2) …………………problem in various ways.
Some countries, in (3) …………….effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to
animal reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining (4) ………
parks, and they often must also depend on (5) ……………..world organizations for support.
YOUR ANSWERS: 0 ………….the………………..
1…………………2……………………….3……………………….4……………………5………………..
PART 3: Give the correct preposition. Write your answers in the spaces bellow
Number 0 is an example (1 m)
0. It is very good ……….you to volunteer to help the poor.
1. I’m sure you are capable …………passing the exam.
2. He is not aware ………….the dangers of smoking.
3. Many Vietnamese students have difficulty …………… learning English.
4. I get very annoyed ………………..people who don’t queue at bus stop.
5. If you have any complaints , tell me ………my face. I can’t stand people who do things behind my back.
YOUR ANSWERS: 0 ………….of………………..
1…………………2……………………….3……………………….4……………………5……………….. .

PART 4: Give the correct forms and tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answers in the spaces bellow.
Number 0 is an example (1 m)
0. Her (get) ……………..sick was not expected.
1. She took a risk investing money with them. I’d rather she (not do) ………………..it.
2. He (not catch) …………………cold if he would not have walked in the rain so long.
3. I'll wait until he (finish)………………………….. his novel.
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4. By next month I (leave) …………………………….for India.
5. He volunteered ( help) …………………… us.

YOUR ANSWERS: 0 ………….getting………………..

1…………………2……………………….3……………………….4……………………5……………….. .

PART 5: Choose the word which best fits each gap of the passage.
Write your answers in the spaces bellow. (2ms)
Although all Americans do not (1) ............ the same way, their speech has enough in common that American
English can be recognized as a (2) …… of English distinct from British English, Australian English
and other national varieties. American English has grown up with the country. It began to (3) ............ from British
English during its colonial beginnings and (4) ............ regional differences and ethnic flavor. Today it
(5) …………….other languages and other varieties of English because it is the medium by which the attractions of
American culture - its literature, (6) ............pictures and television programs - are transmitted to the world.
All speakers of English (7)............ a common linguistic system and a basic set of words. But American
English (8) ............ from British English, Australian English and other national varieties in many of its
pronunciations, words, spellings and grammatical (9) .............. Words or phrases of American (10) ............ and those
used in America but not so much elsewhere, are called Americanisms.

1. A. say B. speak C. talk D. tell

2. A. alteration B. change C. variety D. variation
3. A. diverge B. divert C. digress D. depress
4. A. enquired B. inquired C. required D. acquired
5. A. affluence B. fluency C. influences D. nuances
6. A. motion B. moving C. movement D. removing
7. A. have B. bear C. tear D. share
8. A. differentiates B. differs C. changes D. alters
9. A. constructions B. building C. points D. syntax
10. A. birth B. source C. origin D. tradition

YOUR ANSWERS:
1…………………2……………………….3……………………….4……………………5……………….. .
6…………………7……………………….8……………………….9……………………10……………….. .

PART 6: Fill in each blank with one suitable word.

Write your answers in the spaces bellow. (2ms)
Is Photography Dead?
For a long time in the past photography was not regarded as an art. It was simply a skill and it was criticized
for being too mechanical and not creative enough. At last, however, photography is now accepted as a unique and
very important (1)...............of art.
The photograph's claim to be an objective record of reality is now seriously challenged, and the important
function of photography in modern-day society is consequently (2) ......threat. The threat has suddenly become all
the more serious as more and more photographers are (3)............... to the new technology which computers offer.
Moreover, a (n) (4) ............... number of colleges have now begun to offer (5) .......... in computer imaging. All
these developments (6)............... a disturbing question. Is photography, as we know (7)................dead?
In spite of its complete transformation by new technological developments, however, photography will
continue to play a (8) ...............role in our culture. Although it may no longer (9)............ to be realistic, modern
photography can continue to provide us with fresh visral (10) ...............about ourselves and the world in which we
live.

YOUR ANSWERS:
1…………………2……………………….3……………………….4……………………5……………….. .
6…………………7……………………….8……………………….9……………………10……………….. .

PART 7: Read the passage below carefully and choose the best answer.
Write your answers in the spaces bellow. (2ms)

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 Langston Hughes was one of the greatest American writers of the twentieth century. He was born in Joplin,
Missouri, and moved to Cleveland at the age of 14. Several years later he spent one year in Mexico before attending
Columbia University in New York. For a few years after that, he roamed the world as a seaman, visiting ports
around the world and writing some poetry. He returned to the United States and attended Lincoln University, where
he won the Witter Bynner Prize for undergraduate poetry. After graduating in 1928, he traveled to Spain and to
Russia with the help of a Guggenheim fellowship. His novels include Not without Laughter (1930) and The Big Sea
(1940). He wrote an autobiography in 1956 and also published several collections of poetry. The collections include
The Weary Blues (1926), The Dream Keeper (1932), Shakespeare in Harlem (1942), Fields of Wonder (1947), One
Way Ticket (1947), and Selected Poems (1959) A man of many talents, Hughes was also a lyricist, librettist, and a
journalist. As an older man in the 1960s, he spent much of his time collecting poems from Africa and from African-
Americans to popularize black writers. Hughes is one of the most accomplished writers in American literary history,
and he is seen as one of the artistic leaders of the Harlem Renaissance, the period when a neighborhood that was
predominantly black produced a flood of great literature, music, and other art forms depicting daily city life for
African-Americans.
1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The life of Langston Hughes B. The Harlem Renaissance
C. African-American writers D. American twentieth-century writers
2 .Where was Langston Hughes born?
A. Spain B. New York C. Missouri D. North Carolina
3. As used in the passage, which of the following words could best replace the word "ports"?
A. Islands B. Ships C. Friends. D. Harbors
4. To which of the following movements might Shakespeare in Harlem refer?
A. The Civil War B. The Harlem Riots
C. The Harlem Renaissance D. The Civil Rights Movement
5. What provided Hughes with assistance for his travel to Spain and Russia?
A. His job as a reporter B. His career as a soldier
C. A literary fellowship D. A college study program

6. The word "talents" in the passage could be replaced by which of the following?
A Desires B. Abilities C. Strategies D. Careers
7. According to the author, what did Hughes do during the later years of his life?
A. Write short stories B. Popularize African-American writers
C. Advocate racial equality . D. Write about life in Harlem
8. Which of the following could best replace the word "accomplished" as used in the passage?
A Successful B. Prolific C. Brilliant D. Imaginative
9. Which of the following can best substitute for the word "depicting" in the passage?
A. Congratulating Blessing C. Screening D. Portraying
10. According to the passage, Langston Hughes was all of the following EXCEPT:
A A novelist B. A poet C. A historian D. A journalism.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1…………………2……………………….3……………………….4……………………5……………….. .
6…………………7……………………….8……………………….9……………………10……………….. .

PART 8: Fill each blank with a suitable word or phrase.

Write your answers in the spaces bellow. (2ms)
1. The car can't have broken down. I........................serviced last week.
2. If I..........................situation, I certainly wouldn't have had the courage to do what you did.
3. Although he had a difficult time during the war, it............................harm.
4. It's no..........................the cold and wet, you'll just have to put up with it.
5. I won't have .............................. their cars in the street outside the entrance to my house!
6. In times of hardship we have to learn to do.................................some basic necessities.
7. I'm................................death of spiders!
8. I heard the thunder...............................in the distance.
9. He's been...................................weather for ages and still isn't back at work.
10. We made the uniforms ourselves as we couldn't ………………..made.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1…………………2……………………….3……………………….4……………………5……………….. .
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6…………………7……………………….8……………………….9……………………10………………..

II. WRITING:
PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as sentence
printed before it. (2ms)
EXAMPLE: “They would be very disappointed if you did not come,” the man said to his daughter.
 The man told his daughter (that) they would be very disappointed if she did not come.
1. “I am happy you have passed the final exams. Congratulations!” Tom said to me.
 Tom congratulated ……………………………………………………………………………….
2. You ‘d better not swim too far from the shore,” the lifeguard said to us
 The lifeguard advised ……………………………………………………………………………
3. Birth rates have fallen sharply recently.
 There …………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. I didn’t hear the news until the next day.
 It was not …………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Although it rain torrentially all day, we all enjoyed the excursion.
 Despite ………………………………………………………………………………………….

PART 2:Write a new sentence using the word in brackets. Do not alter the word in any way (2ms)
1. He may choose to take early retirement. (option)
 ……………………………………………………………………………
2. He didn’t take any part in the conversation. (contribute)
 …………………………………………………………………………….
3. We lose our way because the signposts were confusing. ( which)
 ……………………………………………………………………………..
4. He likes to be addressed as “Professor”. (call)
 ……………………………………………………………………………..
5. She always has a good relationship with the children. (gets)
 ……………………………………………………………………………..

PART 3: Write an essay about 200 words on the following topic:

What measures do you take in order to reduce air and water pollution in your city? (3ms)
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152
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 77
Mark the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
1: A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
2: A. young B. plough C. couple D. cousin
3: A. open B. happen C. offer D. begin
4: A. difficulty B. simplicity C. discovery D. commodity
5: A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
6: A. represent B. discover C. experience D. adventure
7: A. curriculum B. obstinacy C. historical D. tremendous
8: A. confetti B. confidence C. comrade D. conference
9: A. inexpensive B. psychiatry C. patriotic D. scientific
10: A. emission B. encounter C. impudence D. outnumber
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
11. (A)The most butterfly eggs are coated (B)with a sticky substance that (C)holds them (D)to plants.
12. Ancient people made (A) a clay pottery (B) because they needed (C) it for (D) their survival.
13. (A) Some of the plants in this store require very (B) little care, but this one needs (C) much more sunlight than
the (D) others ones
14. The bus (A) was plenty of people who had spent (B) many a happy hour in the stores (C) doing (D) their Christmas
shopping.
15. (A) In the human body, blood flows from (B) a heart through the (C) arteries and it returns through (D) the veins.
16. As a child grows (A) on, its physical health (B) is affected (C) by (D) many elements in the air, water and food.
16: Among the (A) world’s 44 (B) richest countries, (C) there has been (D) not war since 1945.
17: Educational films are made for (A) schools, training films for industry; documentary films present (B) fact
events (C) or circumstances of social, political, or historical nature (D).
18: The carpenters tried to (A) join together the pieces of the (B) broken beam, but (C) found it impossible (D) to
do.
19: A (A) smile can be observed, described, and reliably (B) identify; it can also be elicited and manipulated under
(C) experimental (D) conditions.
20: (A) After the rain had (B) let out, the Mitchells (C) continued (D) their hike up the mountain.
Choose the best answer
21: Had I studied harder, I_________________better in the last exam.
A. would do B. would have done C. had done D. wouldn’t have done
22: The larger the apartment, the __________________ the rent is.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive
23: Nam wanted to know what time _______.
A. the movie began B. the movie begins C. does the movie begin D. did the movie begin
24: On attaining maximum size, ______ by drawing itself out and dividing into two daughter amoebas, each
receiving identical nuclear materials.
A. the reproduction of the amoeba B. the amoeba, which reproduces
C. reproducing the amoeba D. the amoeba reproduces
25: Lenses, ____________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight.
A. are the forms of glasses and contact lenses B. in the form of glasses and contact lenses
C. glasses and contact lenses which form D. glasses and contact lenses may be formed
26:Tim: “____________” – Jeycy: “Certainly”
A. Welcome back! B. What are you doing there? C. I’m sorry I am late D. May I borrow a
pencil , please?
27: Jane:“Would you mind if I use you computer for an hour?” Tony:”________”
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job B. Yes, you can use it.
C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes, It’s all right.
28: Thanks to the laser beams, at last, he could get rid of the __________birthmark on his face.
A. normal B. abnormal C. abnormality D. abnormally
29: That beautiful girl died of an________ morphine.
A. overweight B. overhear C. overdo D. overdose
30: We usually do go by train, even though the car _________ is a lot quicker.
A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage
31: I suggest the room ………………..before Christmas.
A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate
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32: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little .....................”
A. out of the blue C. out of order B. under the weather D. under the impression
33: I know we had an arguement, but now I'd quite like to _________.
A. look down B. make up C. fall out D. bring up
34: Nowadays women ___the same wages as men
A.should pay B.will be paid C.will pay D.should be paid
35. ………he was kidnapped by the Iraqi guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed.
A. What B. If C. That D. Ø
36. The conference was organized for all of the ……… teachers in the city.
A. history B. historic C. historical D. historian
37: In the ____ of proof, the police could not take action against the man.
A. lack B. shortage C. want D. absence
38. He never………….. his word
A. goes back on B. puts up with C. makes up for D. goes down with
39. Someone ……….here recently: these ashes are still warm.
A. should be B. had to be C. must have been D. might have been
40: As an adult, I am independent _____ my parents financially.
A.on B. of C. out D. with
41: Environmentalists are earnestly trying to determine ______ of the ozone layer over the poles.
A. what is causing the deterioration B. what the cause of the deterioration
C. is causing the deterioration D. the deterioration is causing
42: The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained____
Ạ. A remembrance that interest rates were to rise the following month
B. A reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following
C. To remember that the interest rates was going up next month
D. A reminder that the interest rates would raise the following month
43. The smell of the sea …….. him …… to his childhood.
A. took …back B. brought…back C. reminded… of D. called …off
44. We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no ………. for them
A. request B. requirement C. claim D. demand
45. The problem is difficult, therefore ………. students could answer it.
A. a great number of B. a lot of C. few D. a few
46: Different cultures ____ dreams in different ways.
A. associate B. interpret C. interfere D. express
47: Max is not a(n) ____ drinker but he likes a glass of wine occasionally.
A. addict B. drunk C. heavy D. obsessed
48: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little _________________.”
A. out of the blue B. under the weather C. out of order D. under the impression
49. Sometimes life must be very unpleasant for …… near the airport.
A. people live B. those living C. someone to live D. they who live
50. The professor complimented a grade 1 pupil ……….his good achievement.
A. about B. on C. for D. due to
51: The delay to the flight was brought _____ by bad weather.
A. about B. in C. up D. down
52: When you do something, you should _____.
A. weigh up the pros and cons C. go down well with C. get through to D. turn over a new leaf
53. The road in front of my house is in great need ………..
A. repairing B. to be repaired C. of repair D. of being repaired.
54: I’ll be taking an English exam next Monday.
A. sitting (for) B. writing C. failing D. giving
55: Although John’s grandmother passed away many years ago, he still holds her in fond _____.
A. nostalgia B. sentiment C. memorial D. remembrance
56: Emperor Nero of Egypt was one _____ ruler in history who was cruel to his subjects.
A.unusual B. exceptional C. infamous D. odd
57: This encyclopedia is no good: it’s completely out of _____.
A.time B. date C. age D. hours
58: Let’s not decide yet where to stop on the journey – we’ll just play it by ____ and see how we feel.
154
 A. lip B. eye C. ear D. hand
59: The film starts in half an hour. We really must be making _____.
A. up for B. a move C. believe D. mess
60: ______ should a young child be allowed to play with fireworks without adult supervision
A. Under no circumstances B. No sooner than C. Always D. Only when
Read the following passage and indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
The traditional definition of literacy is considered to be the ability to read and write, or the ability to use language
to read, write, listen, and speak. In modern contexts, the word refers to reading and writing at a level (61) _____ for
communication, or at a level that lets one understand and communicate ideas in a literate society,' so as to take (62)
_____ in that society. The United Nations, Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) has drafted
the following definition: “Literacy is the ability to identify, understand, interpret, create, communicate and compute,
using printed and written' materials (63) _____ with varying contexts. Literacy involves a continuum of learning to
enable an Individual to achieve his or her goals, to develop his, or her (64) _____ and potential, and to participate
fully in the wider society."
Many policy analysts consider literacy rates a crucial measure of a region's human capital. This claim is made on
the (65) _____ that literate people can be trained less expensively than illiterate people, generally have a higher
socio-economic (66) _____ and enjoy better health and employment prospects. Policy makers also argue that literacy
increases job opportunities and access to higher education. In Kerala, India, for example, female and child mortality
rates declined (67) _____ in the 1960s, when girls who were educated in the education reforms after 1948 began to
raise families. Recent researchers, (68)_____, argue that correlations such as, the one listed above may have more
to do with the effects of schooling rather than literacy in general. Regardless, the (69) _____ of educational systems
worldwide includes a basic (70) _____ around communication through test and print, which is the foundation of
most definitions of literacy.
61. A. important B. adequate C. adaptable D. suitable
62. A. control B. comfort C. part D. honor
63. A. associated B. worked C. appropriated D. related
64. A. ability B. knowledge C. behavior D. performance
65. A. basics B. ways C. foundations D. grounds
66. A. status B. request C. condition D. state
67. A. actually B. dramatically C. extremely D. accurately
68. A. therefore B. however C. consequently D. additionally
69. A. main B. majority C. focus D. demand
70. A. concept B. content C. contact D. context
Read the following passage and indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Bringing up children
Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the child may have to go
back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible - for example, by providing the opportunity
for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle,
in fact, underlies all psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of
work in child clinics.
The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual stages to wait for
food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the world around him is a warm and friendly
one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things,
particularly for food, is a very important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great
demands are not made before the child can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's acquisition of
each new skill: the first spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is often
tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and
states of anxiety in the child. This might happen at any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a
young child might be encouraged to learn to read before he knows the meaning of the words he reads. On the other
hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or without any learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life
and his desire to find out new things for himself.
Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By playing together, parents
learn more about their children and children learn more from their parents. Toys and games which both parents and
children can share are an important means of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and
crosswords are good examples.
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children. Some may be especially
strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at night, punctuality for meals or personal
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cleanliness. In general, the controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community as
much as the child's own happiness and well-being.
With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is very important in parental
teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize
that “example is better than precept”. If they are hypocritical and do not practise what they preach, their children
may grow confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they
have been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents' ethics and
their morals can be a dangerous disillusion.
71. The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children ______.
A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains B. is to send them to clinics
C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced D. offers recapture of earlier experiences
72. Learning to wait for things is successfully taught ______.
A. in spite of excessive demands being made B. only if excessive demands are avoided
C. because excessive demands are not advisable D. is achieved successfully by all children
73: The encouragement of children to achieve new skills ______.
A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far
C. will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate
74: Parental controls and discipline ______.
A. serve a dual purpose B. are designed to promote the child’s happiness
C. reflect only the values of the community D. should be avoided as far as possible
75: The practice of the rule “Example is better than precept” ______.
A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves
B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals
C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise
76: In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of the ____ in helping the child in trouble.
A. psychiatrists B. community C. family D. nursery
77: The phrase ‘conforming to’ in the 2nd paragraph means ______.
A. adapting to B. accepting C. agreeing with D. following
78: The word ‘zest’ in the 2nd paragraph can be best replaced by ______.
A. appetite B. excitement C. enthusiasm D. enjoyment
79: The word ‘imposed’ in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. excepted B. introduced C. made D. constrained
80: Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may ______.
A. result in their children’s wrong behaviour B. make their children lose faith in them
C. disqualify their teachings altogether D. impair their children’s mind
Read the following passage and indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million
cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each
year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain
descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and
water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid.
One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids contract on cooling. For
this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon
be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would
be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent.
Another outstanding charateristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all liquids
and solids except ammonia. This characterisitc enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby
often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this
characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the
continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt
is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the
American Gulf Coast.
81: The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ___________.
A. illustrate the importance of conserving water B. describe the properties and uses of water
C. compare water with other liquids D. explain how water is used in commerce and
industry
156
82: The phrase “this vast amount” in line 4 of paragraph 1 refers to __________ .
A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain
C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D. 300 million cubic miles of water
83: The word “replenish” in paragraph 1 can best replaced by ________ .
A. fill again B. replace C. evaporate D. form
84: According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because ________ .
A. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle B. there are currents in the oceans
C. they do not need oxygen D. ice floats
85: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characterisitic of water?
A. Water can absorb heat B. Water is good solvent.
C. Water contracts on cooling D. Water expands when it is frozen
86: The word “outstanding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________
A. exceptionally good B. special C. amusing D. important
87: According the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT ___________ .
A. the part of the earth covered by water B. responsible for all forms of life
C. in danger of freezing over D. a source of natural resources
88: The author’s tone in the passage can best be described as ________ .
A. dispassionate B. speculative C. biased D. dogmatic
89: The author organizes the passage by _______.
A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas B. comparison and contrast
C. general statement followed by examples D. hypothesis and proof
90: Which of the following statements would be the most likely to begin the paragraph immediately following the
passage?
A. Water has the ability to erode land
B. Droughts and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water
C. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength
D. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes
*** the end ***
Good luck

157
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 78
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
- Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally
are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to
keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost.
Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity – horned larks dig holes in the ground and
ptarmigan burrow into snow banks – but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling
together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the
surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were
found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as "information centers. " During the
day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening
some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when
the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to follow
those that did. The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of
similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar
hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel
roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can learn from
others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at
any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that
mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can
be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch
small birds perching at the margins of the roost.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How birds find and store food B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together
2. The word "conserve" in the passage is closest in meaning to……………
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
3. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by……………...
A. huddling together on the ground with other birds B. building nests in trees
C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation D. digging tunnels into the snow
4. The word "magnified " in the passage is closest in meaning to……………
A. caused B. modified C. intensified D. combined
5. The author mentions “kinglets” in the passage as an example of birds that….
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes B. nest with other species of birds
C. nest together for warmth D. usually feed and nest in pairs
6. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?
A. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.
B. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
C. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.
D. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.
7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle
together while sleeping?
A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.
8. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds. B.Groups are more attractive to predators than
individual birds are.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted. D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
9. The word "they" in the passage refers to…
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. predators D. trees
10. The word vulnerable in the passage is closest in meaning to …
" "

A. easy to attack B. easy to be attacked C. easy to give alarm D. easy to move

around
158
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago and the
police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very obviously
empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A burglar will
wonder if it is worth the bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving signs that
your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or television, and do not
leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the doormat or in
a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to
leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a
burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside
of your house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to target
your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access
while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you
should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is
surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit window locks
to the inside of the window.
What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have top quality
security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can
afford it as another line of defence against intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of breaking in
if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if you are elderly,
fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody
into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an intruder, then
on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for help.
11. A well-protected house …………
A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals.
C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.
12. According to the writer, we should …………
A. avoid leaving our house empty. B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed. D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.
13. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot …………
A. is predictable. B. is useful. C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.
14. What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4?
A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing
15. The 'aforementioned precautions' refer to steps that …………
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not. B. are the most important precautions to take to make your
home safe.
C. will stop a potential burglar. D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and
enter your home.
16. Gaining entry to a house through a small window …………
A. is surprisingly difficult. B. is not as difficult as people think.
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door. D. is tried only by very determined burglars.
17. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms …………
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.
C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.
18. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole…………
A. will prevent your home being burgled. B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.
C. is only necessary for elderly people. D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.
19. What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7?
A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine
20. The best title for the text is …………
A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders.
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C. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home. D. Burglary statistics
Read the following passage and mark the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The English channel

Engineers have dreaming of an underwater link between Britain and France (21) ____ 1802 . Finally in 1994
the Channel Tunnel ( nicknamed “ The Chunnel “ by the English ) was (22) _____ opened .
This fifteen billion dollar project took seven years to (23) ____. It is about 50 km long and built 45 metres
under the seabed . The trains which go through the Chunnel can travel at up 300 km/h due to the (24) _____ electrical
system .
The journey from London to Paris via the Chunnel takes just three hours . It is also (25) _____ for drivers
since they can load their cars onto the trains . They don’t need to book in (26) _____ , as trains (27) _____ every
few minutes .
However, while on the train , there isn’t much to do and many (28) _______ the Chunnel for this
(29) ______ the ferries , there is no duty-free shopping , no videogame parlou or refreshment stand (30) ______ can
you look outside and enjoy the view . As a result , many would find the Chunnel unappealing and would take the
ferry instead .
21: A. from B.during C. since D. ago
22: A . officially B. regularly C. correctly D. typically
23: A. perform B. achieve C. deal with D. complete
24: A. forward B. advanced C. higher D. increased
25: A. benefit B. handy C. advantage D. spare
26: A. advance B. time C. ahead D. future
27: A. go away B.exit C. set out D. depart
28: A. criticise B. accuse C. complain D. blame
29: A. Opposite B. Not alike C. Unlike D. Dissimilar
30: A. Nor B. Either C. Neither D. Not
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
31: A. international B. entertain C. Vietnamese D. politics
32: A. polite B. children C. husband D. mother
33: A. economy B. communicate C. unemployment D. particular
34: A. rhinoceros B. curriculum C. kindergarten D. discriminate
35: A. project B. support C.secure D. believe
36. A. tornado B. idea C. coherent D. almost
37. A. instrument B. enthusiasm C. accent D. influence
38. A. electrician B. insincere C. argumentative D. interview
39. A. refrigerator B. cathedral C. extraordinary D. discipline
40. A. severe B. statue C. romance D. endurance
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
41. (A) All the staff in Tam's film (B) are expected to do (C) some overtime, if the need (D) rises.
42. (A) Many Civil War battles (B) were fought in Virginia than in any (C) other (D) state.
43. The arthropods, (A) including insects and spiders, (B) are great (C) economic and medical (D) significance
44. Within the Alamo (A) was one hundred and eighty men, more than (B) two thirds of whom had recently (C)
migrated from (D) near-by states.
45. Even the most (A) discriminating gourmet will agree (B) that food in the south is as good (C) as any other (D)
region in the country.
46: The skin receives (A) nearly (B) the third of the blood (C) pumped out (D) by the heart.
47: I (A) had my motorbike (B) repair yesterday (C) but now it still doesn’t (D) work.
48. If you are working (A) with young children in a (B) primary school, you (C) will find that teaching lively
songs and rhymes (D) are very popular.
49: Paris has been (A) well-known (B) about its famous (C) monuments, beautiful music, and wonderful
restaurants (D) for over 100 years.
50: Foreign students who (A) are doing a decision (B) about which school (C) to attend may not know exactly
where (D) the choices are located.
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
51: The vase is definitely not_______, but just a very good imitation.
A. real B. factual C. genuine D. true

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52: I walked away as calmly as I could. __________, they would have thought I was a thief.
A. In case B. If so C. Or else D. Owing to
53: I like that photo very much. Could you make an _____ for me?
A. increase B. enlargement C. extension D. expansion
54: Do you think you can meet the _________ given by our teacher ?.
A. deadline B. line C. dead D face
55: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ______.
A. another B. other C. the another D. the other.
56. We should not …………… the other person’s formality as stiffness or unfriendliness.
A. notice B. interpret C. think D. translate
57. She often battles with her daughter …………. her irresponsibility for disposing ………… the garbage can.
A. against/ of B. about/ away C. against/ with D. about/ of
58. His play made a tremendous………….on audience.
A. result B. affect C. impact D. collision
59. Unmarried middle-aged ladies usually dislike being called ……….although it is technically the correct word to
use.
A. old maids B. spinsters C. maidens D. bachelors
60. -"Haven’t you been here before?" - "_______ "
A. No, I was here in 1999. B. Yes, I was here in 1999. C. No, I haven’t D. B or C
61. As a model, you have to ………. the art of walking in high heels.
A. master B. grasp C. study D. gain
62. Smith: “I’m afraid I can’t come with you.” John: “________”
A. What a shame! B. It’s shameful! C. Thank you D. I don’t think so
63. They are bring in ………….changes to the way the office is run.
A. large B. radical C. deep D. immense
64. Some people feel that television should give less ……… to sport.
A. programmes B. coverage C. concern D. involvement
65. I wish Ben worked as hard as Mary .................. A. did B. had C. does D. would
66. Mr. Lam supposes, .............., that he will be retiring at 60.
A. like most people did B. like most people do C. as most of people D. as do most
people
67. ………the cave was found, millions of visitors from many countries have come to look at its beauty.
A. When B. Since C. While D. Unless
68. ……… the steps when you go in. A. Consider B. Mind C. Attend D. Look
69. The car burst into ……… but the driver managed to escape . A. fire B. burning C. heat D.
flames
70. The interviewees are supposed to give their answers to the job offers …………..
A. on the spot B. all in all C. beyond the joke D. with in reach
71. Jane changed her major from French to business __________
A. with hopes to be able easier to locate employment B. hoping she can easier get a job
C. with the hope for being able to find better a job D. hoping to find a job more easily
72. Are you sure you told me ? I don’t recall _________ about it .
A. having told B. having been told C. to have told D. to have been told .
73. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when ______ next.
A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet
74. The staff can’t take leaves at the same time. They have to take holidays ….. rotation. A. on B. under C. by
D. in
75. The campaign raised far more than the . . . . . of $20.000. A. aim B. object C. goal D.
target
76. We have a …. future ahead with little comfort, food or hope. A. cruel B. pessimistic C.
grim D. fierce
77. Only thoroughly unpleasant people leave the ……… of their picnics to spoil the appearance of the
countryside.
A. rest B. remainder C. remains D. rester
78. She was overwhelmed with honor ………. recognition ……….. her bravery.
A. with/of B. on/in C. by/about D. in/of
79. This is the stone bed………the king had lain before he died in the 14 century. th

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A. however B. of which C. wherever D. where
80. An accident in the power station may result in large ………. of radiation being released.
A. numbers B. number C. amount D. amounts
Mark the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
81: “It is a really difficult matter to decide how to solve now. I will need time to think it over”.
A. to sleep on it. B. to make it better C. to make up for it D. to think out of time
82: “He insisted on listening to the entire story”.
A. part B. funny C. whole D. interesting
83: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested in C. pay all attention to D. express interest in
84: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking.
A. steers me B. irritates me C. moves me D. frightens me
85: . School uniform is required in most of Vietnamese schools.
A. divided B. depended C. compulsory D. paid
86. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
87. The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies.
A. unique B. novel C. exotic D. vital
88: I’d rather stay in a hotel with all the amenities than camp in the woods.
A. expenses B. friends C. sports D. conveniences
89: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
90: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to brightness.
A. shine B. record C. categorize D. diversify
ENGLISH PRACTICE 79
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently in each group.
1. A. latter B. label C. ladder D. latitude
2. A. pour B. roar C. flour D. soar
3. A. chase B. purchase C. bookcase D. suitcase
4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead
5. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice
Mark the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following word.
6 : A. invalid B. predict C. pretend D. preface
7 : A. mausoleum B. conservative C. disqualify D. magnificant
8 : A. nuclear B. province C. construct D. complex
9 : A. literacy B. contingency C. ceremony D. sanctuary
10 : A. optimist B. accuracy C. continent D. artificial
Mark the correct answer to each of the following question
11: The first movie- length cartoon, _____ , “Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs” set the standard for later full length
features such as “ The Lion King” and “Pocahotas”
A. that released ever B. whichever released C. ever released D. released whatever
12: _____, such as banking and travel, computers are not a convenience: they are a necessity.
A. where some industries B. there are some industries C. in some industries D. some industries
13: Only in the Civil war _____killed or wounded
A. soldiers in America B. so many American soldiers were C. many in America D. were so many American
soldiers
14: Studies have shown that the elderly who are pet owners have lower blood pressure than____ who live without
pets.
A . do the elderly B. elderly C. for the elderly to do D. to the elderly
15:______, Harry was the thirty – third President of the United States
A. He was born and raised in Missori B. That he was born and raised in Missori
C. Because he was born and raised in Missouri D. Born and raised in Missouri
16: ___ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar system
A. The Earth being B. The Earth is C. That the Earth is D. Being the Earth
17: All the way along the wind street ____ A. he came B. came he C. did he came D. comes he
18: Both liquids and gases flow freely from a container because they have ____
A. not definite shape B. none definite shape C. no definite shape D. nothing definite shape
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19: Environmentalists are earnestly trying to determine ______ of the ozone layer over the poles.
A. what is causing the deterioration B. what the cause of the deterioration
C. is causing the deterioration D. the deterioration is causing
20: The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained____
Ạ. A remembrance that interest rates were to rise the following month
B. A reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following
C. To remember that the interest rates was going up next month
D. A reminder that the interest rates would raise the following month
21: There’s a lot more to Willie than one would think: still waters run _____
A. deep B. deeply C. deepness D. depth
22: The idea ____to nothing because I couldn’t afford to do it A. went B. came C. turned D.
changed
23. The players’ protests_____ no difference to the referee’s decision at all
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
24: Peter, Harry and Chuck were first, second, and third ______ in the school cross-country race
A. respectively B. actively C. responsively D. tremendously
25: By using all the latest technology, the yathchman managed to cross the Atlantic in ____ time.
A. record B. lightning C. top D. quickest
26:Why ____ Peter to the party? He is always making trouble
A. Don’t we invite B. don’t you invite C. not invite D. invite
27. The speaker fail to get his message ____ to his audience A. around B. in C. across D. out
28: You are under no obligation _____ to accept this offer A. whatsoever B. Eventually C. Apart D.
indeed
29: ______ no money would be wasted, we will use energy more efficiently
A. so that B. in order that C in order to D. A and B
30: Interpreting is not a mechanical process of converting a sentence in language A in to a sentence in language B.
_______, it is a complex art. A. But B. In addition C. Rather D. However
31: You can always _____Ann to give you sound advice A. bank of B. bank for C. bank at D. bank
on
32: His emotional problems _____from the attitudes he encountered as a child, I think.
A. stem B. flourish C. root D. sprout
33:There should be an international law encouraging__ A. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D.
reforestation
34: I’m not keen on _____ control of the project to a relatively newcomer
A. undertaking B. charging C. entrusting D. allotting
35: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep___with rapidly changing technology
A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace
36. He is not under arrest, nor have the police placed any _____ on his movements
A. obstacle B. veto C. restriction D. regulation:
37: He was very taken ___ by her aggressive attitude A. about B. aside C. apart D.
aback
38: Most crimes that are committed are no more than __theft A. slight B. small C. unimportant D. petty
39:John was asked to _____ before the judge A. wit B. testify C. execute D. prejudice
40: She is extremely competent and _____ A. industrial B. industrious C. industry D. industrialized
Find out the mistake part
41. Assessment instruments in nursery schools (A) they feature items and (B) other materials different (C) from
those on elementary (D) school tests.
42. (A) All the witnesses said (B) that John (C) was blaming (D) for the accident.
43. Migrant (A) workers live in (B) substandard (C) unsanitary, and dilapidated housing and often (D) are lacking
medical care.
44. For thousands of years, (A) man has created (B) sweet-smelling substances from wood, herbs, and
flowers and (C) using them for perfume (D) or medicine.
45. Copper comes from seven (A) types of (B) ores that (C) also contain (D) the other materials.
46 : (A) At the rate the clerks were (B) processing the applications, Joe figured that it (C) will take four hours for
(D) his to be reviewed
47:Professor Layton was (A) equally fond of the two children, but he had to admit that he (B) found the (C)
youngest and (D) easier child to handle
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48: In order to (A) become a law, a bill (B) must be passed not (C) only by the Senate but also (D) the House of
Representatives
49: (A) Automobile began to be equipped (B) by (C) built-in radios (D) around 1930
50: (A) The Oxford University Publisher has just published a new (B) series of (C) readers for students (D) of
English
Mark the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part.
51 : Hypertension is one of the most widespread and potential dangerous diseases
A. colossal B. popular C. common D. scattered
52 : In the United States, a party can nominate a single candidate for office
A. refuse B. keep C. change D. name
53 : The sales of drugs is controlled by law in most of countries
A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding
54: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!
A. considerably B. thoroughly C. altogether D. specificially
55 : A brief outlined of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students at the first meeting
A. dispensed B. dispered C. distributed D. contributed
Read the following passage and indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
Looking for an unforgettable way to celebrate that special occasion? Well, the ….(56)of options open today’s
youngster – or even “ oldster” for that matter, is a far cry from the traditional party or restaurant visit. No longer is
it ….(57) sufficient to invite your friends round , buy some food and get a barker to produce a cake. No, today’s
birthday boy or girl is looking for something out of the ordinary, ranging from the ….(58) expensive to the downright
dangerous. Anything goes, as long as it is unusual and impressive.
Top of this year ‘s popular …..(59) are as follows: taking some friends rally driving , helicopter lessons, plane trip
and parachuting , and hot air ballooning . Then there is always group bungee jumping or taking your buddies on a
stomach – churning , while water rafting ……(60) down rapids.
The desire of adventurous celebration is not restricted to the ….(61) . I recently met an octogenarian who celebrated
…..(62) the milestone of eighty by having a fly lesson.
Of course, if you have money the world is your oyster. A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of his friends to a
Caribbean island to mark the passing of his half century. Unfortunately I was only a ….(63) relation.
Undoubtedly, the more traditional forms of celebration do continue to ….(64) the less extravagant or less
adventurous among us. However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I would not say no to a weekend
in Paris and a meal at the Eiffel Tower. I can …(65)dream. Perhaps by the time I’m eighty I’ll be able to afford it.
56: A. scale B. degree C. range D. variance
57: A. hoped B. decided C. marked D. considered
58: A. perfectly B. dearly C. outrageously D. explicity
59: A. experiments B. extravagances. C. exposures D. expenses
60: A. ride B. travel C. voyage D. crossing
61: A. adolescents B. teenagers C. youth D. young
62: A. attaining B. arriving C. reaching D. getting
63: A. distant B. remote C. faraway D. slight
64: A. pacify B. satisfy C. distract D. absorb
65:A. however B. but C. nevertheless D. anyway
Fill in the blank with a suitable word or phrase
Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (66) ___ as much on what
they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (67) ___ and tone of voice are obvious ways of
showing our (68) ___ to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to
hide. The art of being (69) ___ lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and
acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (70) ___
to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and
interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down.
However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while what many employers want to know relates
to the candidate’s character traits, and (71) ___ stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates
should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (72)
___ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (73) ___ into their
private lives.

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 After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her
family doctor to provide (74) ___ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether
a person is likely to be a (75) ___ employee or a values colleague?
66: A. reckon B. rely C. trust D. estimate
67: A. manner B. image C. expression D. looks
68: A. notion B. feeling C. view D. reaction
69: A. successful B. humble C. good at D. tactful
10: A. hesitant B. reluctant C. tending D. used
71: A. psychological B. physical C. similar D. relevant
72: A. reliable B. predictable C. faithful D. regular
73: A. invasion B. infringement C. intrusion D. interference
74: A. confidential B. secretive C. reticent D. classified
75: A. laborious B. particular C. thorough D. conscientious
Read the following passage and indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Collecting maps can be an enjoyable hobby for antiquarian booksellers, a captivating interest for cartographers, a
lucrative vocation for astute dealers, and an inspirational part of the occupational functioning of map catalogers,
archivists, and historians. Among recognized collectibles, maps are relatively rarer than stamps, but they have had
their avid enthusiasts and admirers ever since copies were made by hand only for affluent, the commanding officer,
and the ship captain.
Whether the interest is business-related or amateur, the economic means abundant or slim, a collection needs a
theme, be it associated with contemporary changes in cartographic representation or geographic knowledge, or a
more accessible goal centered on a particular mapmaker, technique, or type of subject matter. Collectors should not
overlook topical maps issued predominantly or exclusively after World War II, such as navigational charts, industrial
compound road layouts, or aerial projections. Potential collectors ought not to disregard two superficially prosaic,
yet important themes: maps of travel routes for family trips, and maps that, for aesthetic reasons, they personally
find intriguing or simply attractive. In the first case, like the box with old family photos, the collection will give the
travelers the opportunity to reminisce and relive the journey.
In most cases, photocopies are worthy alternatives to originals. For example, historical society collections
customarily include the high quality facsimiles needed to make a collection as comprehensive and practical as
possible, supplementing the contributions made by well-to-do donors and benefactors. If not predisposed to wait
patiently, and possibly ineffectually, for a lucky find, collectors may choose to sift through dealer stock, peruse
through advertisements in local, regional, or national periodicals, and solicit the assistance of the U.S. Library of
Congress and private agencies. Government and public agencies, companies, and trade associations can advise the
collector about maps currently in circulation and pending sales of dated reproductions, editions, and prints.
76. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Why hobbyists always flaunt their map collections.
B. How maps can be collected by professionals and enthusiasts.
C. How to assure an interrupted flow of collectibles.
D. What cartographers advocate as a worthy undertaking.
77. In paragraph 1, the word lucrative is closest in meaning to
A. instructive B. insensitive C. profitable D. profuse
78. According to the passage, map collecting as a hobby is
A. not deserving of the time and resources B. not as conventional as collecting stamps
C. as eccentric as collecting dolls D. conformist in the best sense of the word.
79. In paragraph 1, the word avid is closest in meaning to
A. keen B. humorous C. devoted D. supportive
80. It can be inferred from the passage that, at a time when maps were accessible to the upper socioeconomic classes,
they appealed also to a fair number of
A. professional copiers B. ardent devotees
C. buried-treasure hunters D. obscure amateur dealers
81. In paragraph 2, the phrase “economic means” is closest in meaning to
A. economic maps B. fiscal responsibility C. available funds D. capital investment
82. The author of the passage mentions all of the following as sources of procuring maps EXCEPT
A. fellow collectors B. map vendors C. personal archives D. publishers
83. In paragraph 2, the author uses the phrase “superficially prosaic” to mean
A. described in informal prose B. seemingly boring and unimaginative
C. useful for travelers who enjoy a change D. potentially uncovered in a box of photos
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84. In paragraph 3, the word “predisposed” is closest in meaning to
A. pressured B. provoked C. condemned D. inclined
85. A paragraph following the passage would most likely discuss
A. specific organizations to contact about map acquisition
B. specific mapping techniques used to enlarge the scale
C. trimming and framing valuable acquisitions
D. volunteering time and work to maintain obsolete maps
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the following questions
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and
town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution. It was noted that troops played “ baseball”
in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game : a
diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers – you’re – out , batter out on a caught ball , three
outs per inning , a nine man team. “ The New York Game” spread rapidly , replacing earlier localized forms. From
its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial
society. At its inception it was it was played by and for gentlement. A club might consists of 40 members. The
president would appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the members . Games were played on
Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners.
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging admission),
under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was said
that a club would have their regular professional ten , an amateur first - nine , and their” muffins “ (the gentlemently
duffers who once ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking
Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball , including formation of the
National Association of Professional baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs
was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called
Major League Baseball’s “ Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games
became one of 132, a weekly periodical “ The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck
stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the
Western League based in the growing cities of the Mis west proclaimed itself the American League
86: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origin of baseball B. the commercialization of baseball
C. the influence of the “ New York Game” on baseball D. the development of baseball in the
nineteenth century
87: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did
not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that
develop in baseball
C. the “ New York “ spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits
88 : The word “ inception” closest in meaning to
A. requirements B. beginning C. insistence D. rules
89 : The word “ lavish “closest in meaning to
A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive
90:Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception
A. a team might consist of 40 members B. the president would choose teams from among the
members
C. they didn’t play on weekend D. they might be called “ duffers” if they didn’t make the first
nine
91 : According to the second paragraph , all of the following are true except:
A. commercialism became more prosperous B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income D. people gamed on the outcome of games
92 : Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “ Golden Age”
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields B. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed D. profits soared
93: The word” somewhat” is closest in meaning to
A. to a significant extent B. to a minor extent C. to not the same extent D. to some extent
94: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to
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A. the Western League B. growing cities C. the Midwest D. the American
League
95: The word business-minded is closest in meaning to
A. able to work in business B. able to think about business C. good at business management D.
minded in business
*** the end ***

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 80
I. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. (10 points)
1. The school was closed for a month because of serious ______ of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
2. The campaign raised far more than the ______ of $20.000.
A. aim B. object C. goal D. target
3. We have a ______ future ahead with little comfort, food or hope.
A. cruel B. pessimistic C. grim D. fierce
4. Only thoroughly unpleasant people leave the ______ of their picnics to spoil the appearance of the countryside.
A. rest B. remainder C. remains D. rester
5. An almost ______ line of traffic was moving at a snail’s pace through the town.
A. continuous B. constant C. continual D. stopping
6. Medieval travelers’ tales of fantastic creatures were often fascinating but not always ______
A. credible B. creditable C. credulous D. imaginable
7. Don’t be late for the interview, ____ people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
8. My friends have just moved to a new flat in a residential area on the ______ of Paris.
A. suburbs B. outside C. outskirts D. side
9. You are being thoroughly ______ in refusing to allow this ceremony to take place.
A. unrequited B. unrepresentative C. unreliable D. unreasonable
10. “But so”, I told him, “you are my own ______.”
A. heart and heart B. body and soul C. flesh and blood D. skin and bone
Part 2: Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space. (20
points)
1. How much does ______ of this club cost? (MEMBER)
2. She is extremely ______ about the history of art. (KNOW)
3. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more ______ every day. (TROUBLE)
4. He is completely ______ ! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too. (EMPLOY)
5. His boss told him off because he had behaved ______ (RESPONSIBLE)
6. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later ______ when a medical check proved that he had
been taking drugs. (QUALIFY)
7. Women who are slimming can never enjoy a meal without being afraid of ______ their diet. (ORGANISE)
8. The trouble with Mr. Brown is that he’s so ______ One minute he goes mad when you come late; the next he
says nothing. You never know where you are! (CONSIST)
9. It is forbidden to hunt for that kind of bird. It has been listed as one of the ______ species (DANGER)
10. I didn’t know who it was – with a mask on she was completely ______(RECONGNISE)
Part 3: Complete each sentence with one of the idiomatic phrases given. Use each phrase once only. (8 points)
gave me the cold shoulder lost her head
made her blood boil jumped out of her skin
had a lump in her throat kept her head
took her breath away pulled her legs
1. Pauline completely ignored me this morning. She ______
2. It really ______ to see her friend copy a poem she had written and then present it to her boyfriend as one that
she had written for him.
3. Saying goodbye to her son was a very emotional occasion for her and she ______ as she watched him get on the
train.
4. The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely fantastic. It really ______
5. Susan panicked when the fire broke out. She ______
6. When I dropped that tray behind her, she got a shock. She almost ______
7. My sister remained very calm. She ______
8. Sally didn’t believe us, did she? We only joked! We only ______!
Part 4: Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. (17 points)
11. Mr. Pike, who is supposed __ ____________ (witness) the accident, ____________ (leave) the town.
1. At this time next week they __ ____________ _ (sit) in the train on their way to Paris.

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2. He said that he watered the plants every day. He __ ____________ ____________ _ (water) them. If he
____________ ____________ _ (have), they wouldn’t have died.
3. No sooner— ____________ -- the announcement __ ____________ (make) than everyone started complaining.
4. They said they never __ ____________ _ (make) to do anything they didn’t want to before.
5. We __ ____________ ____________ _ (watch) the play for nearly thirty minutes when he came.
6. The pop star who __ ____________ _ (take) part in over 25 films always avoids _being recognized_ (recognise)
by __ ____________ (wear) dark glasses.
7. There’s no point _ ____________ _ (try) to get Tim __ ____________ _ (lend) you his car.
8. Not until John ____________ __ (receive) the offer of promotion in writing .. ____________..he ______
(celebrate)
9. He __ ____________ _ (have) trouble with the second-hand car since he bought it. He wishes he __
____________ ____________ _ (not / buy) it.
II. READING
Part 1: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C
or D next to the answer you choose. (10 points)
If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol
of our wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1)_____ it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that
plastic has brought enormous (2)_____ even environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics themselves that are the
environmental (3)_____ – it’s the way society choose to use and (4)_____ them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal – non-renewable
natural (5)_____ We (6)_____ well over three million tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later,
most of it is thrown away. A high (7)_____ of our annual consumption is in the (8)_____ of packaging, and this
(9)_____ about seven per cent by weight of our domestic (10)_____ Almost all of it could be recycled, but very
little of it is, though the plastic recycling (11)_____ is growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich – they have a higher calorific (12)_____ than coal and
one (13)_____ of ‘recovery’ strongly (14)_____ by the plastic manufacturers is the (15)_____ of waste plastic into
a fuel.
1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood
2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits
3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil
4. A. dispose B. store C. endanger D. abuse
5. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels
6. A. remove B. import C. consign D. consume
7. A. portion B. amount C. proportion D. rate
8. A. way B. kind C form D. type
9. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes
10. A. refuse B. goods C. requirements D. rubble
11. A. manufacture B. plant C. factory D. industry
12. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect
13. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
14. A. desired B. argued C. favored D. presented
15. A. conversion B. melting C. change D. replacement
Part 2: Read the following text and then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 points)
I was reading an article last week in (1)__ ____________ _ the writer described (2) _ ____________ _ her
children has changed as they (3)_ ____________ up. When they were small she had to (4)_ ____________ __ up
with noisy games in the house, or join in interminable games of football in the garden which (5)__ ____________
__ her out. If the house went quiet, she wondered what the monsters were getting up to, or what crisis she would
have to (6)_ ____________ _ with next. She dreaded the fact that they might (7)_ ____________ _ after her
husband, who admitted having (8)__ ____________ __ an uncontrollable child who (9)_ ____________ most of
the time showing off to his friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was worse was that (10)__
____________ _ else thought he was a sweet child, and he got away with the most terrible things! However, she
had experienced an even greater shocked with her children. They had (11)_ ____________ _ out of all their naughty
behavior, and (12)__ ____________ __ up serious hobbies (13)__ ____________ as chess and playing the piano.
They never did anything without (14)__ ____________ __ it over first, and coming to a serious decision. She had
to face up to the fact that they made her feel rather childish as they got (15)_ ____________ __, and that in some
ways she preferred them when they were young and noisy.

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Part 3: The paragraphs of the magazine article are in the wrong order. Number the paragraphs (A, B, C, D, E)
(5 points)
4. A. On the ghost of Chaffin’s second visit to his son, he told him that he would find a will in the overcoat
pocket. The coat was actually in the possession of the third brother.
2. B. In 1921, a certain James Chaffin died, leaving his entire fortune to his third son, Marshal, in a will
which had been written a full fifteen years earlier, in 1905, and signed in front of witnesses. His wife and two other
sons were virtually cut off without a penny. Marshal was not inclined to split up the inheritance he had come into
any more fairly.
5 .C. Once it was found, they came across a note sewn in the lining of one of the pockets saying they should
look in an old family Bible. This Bible was found in the keeping of Chaffin’s widow and examined in front of
independent witnesses. Sure enough, there in the Bible they discovered a later version of the will, one which divided
the property and money evenly between the widow and the three sons. The will appeared to be genuine and Marshal
was not prepared to challenge it in court.
1. D. Some people believe that the dead still keep in touch with us through our dreams. One of the most
famous and extraordinary cases of contact with the dead was the so-called Chaffin Will affair.
3. E. Four years went by and then, strangely, James Chaffin’s ghost started to appear before one of his other
two sons. The apparition had on an old overcoat which had often worn in life.
III. WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it. (20 points)
1. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
Scarcely ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
2. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
3. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
4. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
5. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
6. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful.
Much to ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
7. People no longer smoke so many cigarettes as they used to.
The ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
8. Their relationship was doomed because of their incompatibility.
Had ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
9. You should admit that you are to blame, not to conceal it.
I’d rather ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
10. If she had been less determined she wouldn’t have been able to get better so quickly.
It was her ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 81
Read the following passage adapted from an article on environment, Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009 and choose
the correct word for each of the blanks
Greenpeace, international environmental organization (1)______ to preserving the earth's natural resources and its
diverse plant and animal life. The organization campaigns (2) ______ nuclear weapons testing, environmental
pollution, and destructive practices in fishing, logging, and other industries. Greenpeace was founded in Vancouver,
British Columbia, Canada, in 1971 by members of the Don't Make a Wave Committee, a small group (3) _____ to
nuclear weapons testing by the United States military in Alaska. The group renamed itself Greenpeace to reflect the
broader goal of creating a green and peaceful world.
Greenpeace won fame for its (4)________ exploits calculated to attract media attention to environmental issues.
Greenpeace members in rubber rafts have (5) _______ whaling expeditions by positioning themselves between the
whales and hunters' harpoons. They used similar tactics in Newfoundland and Labrador to protest the clubbing of
baby harp seals, (6)__ __ soft white fur is highly valued by clothing manufacturers. The organization is well known
for scaling corporate skyscrapers and factory smokestacks to hang protest banners. Greenpeace's aggressive style
has often led to (7)__ __ with corporations, local authorities, and even national governments. In 1985 the Greenpeace
ship Rainbow Warrior, on a (8) ____ to protest French nuclear weapons testing in the Pacific, sank in a New Zealand
port, and the crew photographer, Fernando Pereira, drowned. Investigations revealed that the ship had been
deliberately sabotaged with explosives planted by (9)__ __ agents of the French military. The resulting scandal
rocked the highest levels of the French government, leading to the resignation of Defense Minister Charles Hernu
and the dismissal of Admiral Pierre Lacoste, director of the French Secret Service. During the 1990s Greenpeace
has been troubled by internal disagreements over political strategy. Some members want to persist with a militant
approach, emphasizing civil disobedience and physical confrontation. Other members, including the organization's
leaders, are convinced that Greenpeace must work cooperatively with the companies and industries that have been
its targets in the past. Greenpeace has about 3 million dues-paying members and offices in more than 40 countries.
Its international (10) __ are in Amsterdam, Netherlands.
1. A. cooperated B. convinced C. dedicated D. provided
2. A. from B. to C. over D. against
3. A. persist B. opposed C. disagreed D. disobeyed
4. A. daring B. discouraging C. frightening D. deliberate
5. A. rocked B. reflected C. disrupted D. revealed
6. A. whose B. whom C. that D. who
7. A. confrontation B. conflicts C. investigations D. resignation
8. A. voyage B. trip C. flight D. expedition
9. A. underclassman B. legal C. undercover D. official
10. A. skyscrapers B. offices C. centers D. headquarters
Choose the word/phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part.
11. The cotton gin was commonplace on many nineteenth century farms.
A. often required B. sorely needed C. frequently seen D. visibly absent
12. In the field of artificial intelligence, scientists study methods for developing computer programs that display
aspects of intelligent behavior.
A. exhibit B. classify C. depend on D. conform to
13. She lost her temper with a customer and shouted at him.
A. had a temperature B. kept her temper C. became very angry D. felt worried
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
14. Doctors have been criticized for their indiscriminate use of antibiotics.
A. disciplined B. selective C. wholesale D. unconscious
15. Slavery was abolished in the US in the 19th century.
A. instituted B. eradicated C. eliminated D. required
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
16. When he called to tell me that he was studying, I didn't believe him because I could hear the noise of a party in
the background.
A. I didn't believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the background and I told him that
when he telephoned.
B. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying, I couldn't hear what he was saying properly because of my
unbelievably noisy party.

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C. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn't believe his claim that he
was studying.
D. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because in the background there were party-
like sounds.
17. I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
18. It was not until after I had got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the office.
A. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had forgotten to turn on the burglar alarm in the office.
B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I would have had
to travel all the way back to the office.
C. I didn't turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd arrived home.
D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office; then it would
have been easier to go and set it.
19. My father couldn’t stand Tom’s behavior.
A. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerant
B. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerable
C. My father was tolerant towards Tom’s behavior
D. Tom’s behavior was not tolerable
20. Cultures vary from country to country.
A. Cultures are different in different countries.
B. There are different cultures in one country
C. Culture differences are based on countries
D. Cultures move from one country to another.
21. Nobody at all came to the meeting
A. There was almost nobody at the meeting
B. Not many people came to the meeting
C. Not a single person came to the meeting
D. Only a few people came to the meeting
22. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life.
B. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.
C. He found no peace in life because he retired early.
D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
23. This question is even harder than the last one.
A. The last question is not difficult
B. This question is the most difficult one
C. The last question is difficult but this one is more difficult
D. This question is hard but the last one is not.
24. It's a shame we didn't apologise to Mary for all that mess.
A. It's a shame that we must have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
B. We might have apologised to Mary for all that mess, it’s shameful.
C. We were ashamed not to apologise Mary for all that mess.
D. We should have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
25. "Don't cry honey, I'll help you to find your mummy" - a shop assistant said to the little girl.
A. A shop assistant threatened the little girl and she told that she would help her to find her mummy
B. A shop assistant ordered the little girl to stop crying and she helped her to find her mummy
C. A shop assistant scolded the little girl and she said that her mummy would find her.
D. A shop assistant told the little girl not to cry and she promised that she would help her to find her mummy
Choose the underlined part that needs correction
26. In (A) just three months H.G. Wells (B) wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for (C) what he won (D)
a Newberry Caldecot award.
27. Food prices have (A) raised (B) so rapidly in the past few months (C) that some families have been (D) forced
to alter their eating habits.

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 28. So far this term, (A) the students in the writing class (B) have learned how (C) to write thesis statements, organize
their material, and (D) summarizing their conclutions.
29. The disciplinary (A) committee recommended that (B) the manager (C) was dismissed (D) from service.
30. At least (A) three-quarters of that book on (B) famous Americans (C) are about people who (D) lived in the
nineteenth century.
Read the following extract from Jess McElhinney's article on health issues and choose the correct answer to each of
the questions.
In a study of aspirin's effect on blood clotting in which abstinence from chocolate was required, a large proportion of
participants broke the rules. Their "offence" led to what is believed to be the first biochemical evidence that a few squares of
chocolate a day can almost halve the risk of heart attack death by decreasing the tendency of tiny particles (or platelets)
to clot in narrow blood vessels.
"What these chocolate offenders taught us is that the chemical in cocoa beans has a biochemical effect similar to
aspirin in reducing platelet clumping, which can be fatal if a clot forms and blocks a blood vessel, causing a heart attack,"
said Diane Becker from Johns Hopkins University in Maryland, USA, who led the study.
Becker cautions that this discovery should not become an excuse to indulge in large amounts of chocolate frequently,
since chocolate also contains high amounts of sugar, butter and cream. However just a few squares of dark chocolate the
purest form may be just what the doctor ordered. For almost 20 years researchers have known that chemicals, called
flavonoids, most common in dark chocolate, help blood flow and lower blood pressure. This new finding, presented at the
American Heart Association's annual scientific sessions in Chicago this week, identifies the effect of everyday doses of
chocolate found in regular foods such as hot chocolate or chocolate bars. This differs from previous studies which
have examined the effects of eating unrealistic doses of flavonoids, equivalent to several pounds of chocolate a day.
"Eating a little bit of chocolate or having a drink of hot cocoa as part of a regular diet is probably good for personal
health, so long as people don't eat too much of it, and too much of the kind with lots of butter and sugar," said Becker.
In the study, 139 chocolate offenders were disqualified from a larger experiment which aimed to examine the effects
of aspirin on blood clotting. Before the study began, all participants were instructed to follow a strict exercise and diet
regimen and to refrain from smoking or using foods and drinks known to affect blood-clotting activity, like caffeinated
drinks, wine, grapefruit juice and, of course, chocolate.
Platelet samples from both groups (offenders and non-offenders) were run through a mechanical blood vessel
system designed to time how long it takes for platelets to clump together. Chocolate lovers' samples were found to
clot more slowly, on average taking 130 seconds to block the system. Platelets from those who stayed away from chocolate
clotted faster, taking an average of 123 seconds.
31: According to the findings, what helps lower blood pressure?
A. The most important ingredient in chocolate. B. The most common chemicals in dark chocolate.
C. The chemical reaction in dark chocolate. D. The tiny particles in white chocolate.
32: The word "offenders" in paragraph 3 refers to the ____.
A. people who violate laws B. trouble makers C. people who produce chocolate D. people who ate chocolate
33: What has been found about the relation between aspirin and the chemical in cocoa beans?
A. Similarity B. Difference C. Irrelevance D. Interdependence
34: The kind of chocolate that can help the heart is identified as _____ chocolate.
A. mixed B. dark C. white D. hot
35: How does chocolate help the heart and the vascular system?
A. It widens the blood vessels. B. It helps the heart pumps better. C. It helps blood flow more easily. D. It
prevents harmful bacteria.
36: Too much of chocolate ____ is not very good for health.
A. with a lot of butter and sugar B. containing a lot of milk C. with lots of sugar and cocoa D. made with
artificial sugar
37: The word "abstinence" can be interpreted as ______.
A. eating some chocolate B. not eating chocolate C. not smoking D. doing exercise
38: An experiment has found out that the forming of blood clots is ____ in chocolate lovers.
A. stopped B. moderate C. faster D. slower
39: The word "indulge" in this case is closest in meaning to "____".
A. become much interested in B. give up oneself totally
C. abandon oneself D. get heavily involved in
40: The article has probably taken from ____.
A. ads of medicine B. a science journal C. a doctor's prescription D. a book of instructions
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
41. A. mathematics B. academic C. politics D. continental
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 42. A. beautifully B. differently C. dedicated D. acceptable
43. A. biologist B. eliminate C. archaeology D. stability
44. A. enthusiast B. statistics C. philosophy D. sociology
45. A. misunderstand B. misbehaviour C. responsibility D. characteristic
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
46. Only in the Civil War____________ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America were B. so many American soldiers were C. many in America were D. were so many
American soldiers
47. Frankly, I'd rather you _______ anything about it for the time being.
A. don't do B. hadn't done C. didn't do D. haven't done
48. I was angry when you saw me because I ______ with my sister.
A. have been arguing B. had been arguing C. argued D. would argue
49. The book would have been perfect ________ the ending.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for C. it hadn't been for D . hadn't it been for.
50. I'm __________ my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious than D. nowhere near as ambitious as
51. _____ I'd like to help you out, I'm afraid I just haven't got any spare money at the moment.
A. Even B. Despite C. Much as D. Try as
52. Hardly ________ of the paintings at the gallery were for sale
A. none B. few C. some D. any
53. Jane's very modest, always ________ her success.
A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D. pushing back
54. I feel __ to inform the committee that a number of members are very unhappy with the decision.
A. my duty B. it my duty C. this my duty D. that my duty
55. Check the bottles carefully to make sure they have not been _______
A. broken into B. taken out C. touched up D. tampered with
56. All things_________, he is the best president we are likely to get.
A. considered B. thought C. taken D. added
57 George: “In my opinion, action films are exciting.” Frankie: “______”
A. Yes. Congratulations! B. There’s no doubt about it. C. What an opinion! D. You shouldn’t have said that.
58. Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.” Kate: “Uh, really? __________!”
A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are
59. Tom:" Would you take this along to the office for me?" - Jerry:"_________"
A. Never mind B. Yes, with pleasure C. Yes, that's right D. Not at all
60. Mother: "Gloria, I'd rather you ___________home so late."
A. hadn't come back B. haven't come back C. don't come back D. didn't come back
61. You are 27 years old so it's high time you ______ responsibility for your deeds.
A. took B. have taken C. had taken D. take
62. Suppose he _________you stealing, what would you do?
A. has caught B. catches C. had caught D. caught
63. I used a calculator so it's impossible I made a mistake with the bill. I ___a mistake with the bill because I used
a calculator
A. couldn’t make B. shouldn’t have made C. mightn’t make D. can't have made
64. The school Principal suggested that he __________a scholarship.
A. was awarded B. would be awarded C. be awarded D. must be awarded
65. The portrait__________ by an Italian.
A. is known to have been painted B. known to have been painted C. is knowing to be painted D. is known to
be painted
66. If you want the day off, you’ll have to find someone ________ you.
A. stand up B. stand in for C. stand for D. set off
67. I bought a __________ bag at the market yesterday.
A. old leather lovely B. old lovely leather C. lovely old leather D. leather old lovely
68. I ran _____ some old records while I was tidying the attic.
A. into B. out C. across D. after
69. You should never spend all the money you earn, but always _____________a rainy day
A. put an end to B. put something by for C. put the blame on D. put off
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 70. ____________, I decided to go in, which turned out to be a mistake.
A. Noticed the door was open B. Open the door C. The open door was noticed D. Noticing the door
was open
Read the following passage adapted from MS Encarta 2008 and choose the correct answer to each of the questions that
follow.
The work of women has been economically vital since prehistory, although their contributions have varied according
to the structure, needs, customs, and attitudes of society. In prehistoric times, women and men participated almost equally
in hunting and gathering activities to obtain food. With the development of agricultural communities, women's work revolved
more around the home. As urban centres developed, women sold or traded goods in the marketplace.
From ancient to modern times, four generalizations can be made about women's paid work. (1) Women have worked
because of economic necessity; poor women in particular worked outside the home whether they were unmarried or
married, and especially if their husbands were unable to sustain the family solely through their own work. (2) Women's
indentured work has often been similar to their work at home. (3) Women have maintained the primary responsibility for
raising children, regardless of their paid work. (4) Women have historically been paid less than men and have been
allocated lower-status work.
Some major changes are now occurring in industrial nations, including the steadily increasing proportion of
women in the labour force; decreasing family responsibilities (due to both smaller family size and technological
innovation in the home); higher levels of education for women; and more middle and upper-income women working
for pay or for job satisfaction. Statistically, they have not yet achieved parity of pay or senior appointments in the
workplace in any nation
Artisans working in their own homes not infrequently used the labour of their families. This custom was so
prevalent during the Middle Ages, craft guilds of the period, including some that otherwise excluded women, often
admitted to membership the widows of guild members, providing they met professional requirements. Dressmaking
and lacemaking guilds were composed exclusively of women.
Gradually, the guilds were replaced by the putting-out system, whereby tools and materials were distributed to
workers by merchants; the workers then produced articles on a piecework basis in their homes.
During the 18th and early 19th centuries, as the Industrial Revolution developed, the putting-out system slowly declined.
Goods that had been produced by hand in the home were manufactured by machine under the factory system. Women
competed more with men for some jobs, but were concentrated primarily in textile mills and clothing factories.
Manufacturers often favoured women employees because of relevant skills and lower wages, and also because early
trade union organization tended to occur first among men. Employees in sweatshops were also preponderantly women.
The result was to institutionalize systems of low pay, poor working conditions, long hours, and other abuses, which
along with child labour presented some of the worst examples of worker exploitation in early industrial capitalism.
Minimum wage legislation and other protective laws, when introduced, concentrated particularly on the alleviation of these
abuses of working women.
Women workers in business and the professions, the so-called white-collar occupations, suffered less from poor
conditions of work and exploitative labour, but were denied equality of pay and opportunity. The growing use of the
typewriter and the telephone after the 1870s created two new employment niches for women, as typists and
telephonists, but in both fields the result was again to institutionalize a permanent category of low-paid, low-status
women's work.
71: When the farming communities developed, women worked __
A. less at home B. more at home C. more outside D. in groups
72: With the development of urban centres, women ____.
A. traded cattle in the marketplace B. stayed at home to take care of their children
C. worked more in the marketplace D. sold cloth in the marketplace
73: The word "indentured" in this context may mostly means
A. outside the home B. in the kitchen C. outside the kitchen D. inside the home
74: With better education and less family burden, women ____.
A. have been respected at home and in the workplace B. have enjoyed equal status in the workplace
C. have not yet achieved high status in the workplace D. have become more influential in their companies
75: Although women cannot avoid the task of bringing up children, _
A. they have to work to feed their men B. they have to amuse their men
C. are the mainstay of their families D. they can be breadwinners as men
76: The word "sweatshops" suggests ____. A. workshop B. factory work C. hard work D. harmful work
77: Under the "putting-out system", the workers ____.
A. are provided with tools to produce goods at home B. bought materials to manufacture goods
C. provide their factories with raw materials D. turn their homes into factories
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78: Manufacturers tended to employ women because _
A. women demanded less than men B. they did not have to pay for high insurance
C. they could cheat them more easily D. they did not have to pay high wages
79: During the time of Industrial Revolution, women were dominant in ___.
A. entertainment industry B. Broidery C. textile industry D. bakery
80: What women have done for the economic development have changed over time due to ____.
A. their role in the home B. their marital status and their husbands C. the different factors of the society D. the
Industrial Revolution

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 82
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct sentence which is built from the words and phrases given:
1. No one / know / answer / teacher / question.
A. No one knows the answer of the teacher’s question.
B. No one knows how to answer of teacher’s question.
C. No one knows the answer to the teacher’s question.
D. No one knows to answer the teacher’s question.
2. patient / he / be / have / intention / wait / three / hours.
A. He was so patient to have intention of waiting for three hours.
B. Patient as he was, he had no intention of waiting for three hours.
C. So patient was he that he had intention for waiting for three hours.
D. So patient he was to have no intention to wait for three hours.
3. I / get / refund / change / another / sweater.
A. I would like to get the refund if you can change me another sweater.
B. I would like to get the refund or you can change me another sweater.
C. I would like to get the refund; consequently, you can change me another sweater.
D. Unless I would like to get the refund or you can change me another sweater.
4. Henry / suggested / Anna / the doctor.
A. Henry suggested Anna to go to the doctor.
B. Henry suggested to Anna that she goes to the doctor.
C. Henry suggested to Anna that she go to the doctor.
D. Henry suggested Anna that she should go to the doctor.
5. do / cooking / she / look / after / garden.
A. As soon as she did the cooking, she looks after the garden.
B. Apart from to do the cooking, she looked after the garden.
C. In addition to do the cooking, she also looked after the garden.
D. Besides doing the cooking, she looks after the garden.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions:
6. This is his fifth day on the tour . He ___ four countries.
A. already visited B. visited C. has already visited D. is visiting
7. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises. – “____________ .”
A. That’s rubbish. B. Yes, let’s. C. Ok. D. That’s just what I was thinking.
8. There is fog at Heathrow; the plane, ___ , has been delayed.
A. otherwise B. or C. therefore D. so
9. “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “____________ .”
A. Yes, I am so glad. B. No, thanks. C. Sorry, the seat is taken. D. Yes, yes. You can sit
here.
10. ____, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. If he were studying to a greater degree C. If he studied more D. Had he studied more
11 The manager was very pleased with her last business trip, which had been a _____success.
A. full B. complete C. whole D. high
12. The man you saw yesterday ……..….Mr. Brown, because he went to London on business last week.
A. can’t have been B. mustn’t be C. can’t be D. mustn’t have been
13. “Why don’t you go to the zoo?” – “_______ .”
A. That’s a good idea. B. Because we don’t have enough money. C. I couldn’t agree more. D. Yes,
I’d love to.
14. She went ____ a bad cold just before Christmas. A. through B. over C. in for D.
down with
15. In every country , there are _____ between different regions, especially between the North and the South,
which result in unfriendliness, even hatred. A. quarrels B. conflicts C. differences D. disputes
16.The house that we used to live in is in a very ____ state.
A. negligent B. neglected C. negligible D. neglectful
17. _____ the bad weather, he could get to the airport in time. A. Despite B. Though C. However D.
Although
18. One of the great ___ to the students when they go on a mountain walk is that they learn a lot about wild
flowers.
A. supports B. returns C. benefits D. profits
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19. Imagination _____ facts. A. outlays B. outruns C. outplays D. outlives
20. “ Were there many people waiting in line at the stadium?” – “ Yes, I saw ____________.”
A. quite many B. quite much C. quite a few D. quite some
21. He is decorating the house with a view _____ it. A. to selling B. to be sold C. for selling D. to sell
22. I tried to talk her _____ joining our trip, but she refused. A. on B. in C. out of D. into
23. The boss ____ him because his mother had just passed away.
A. made up B. made use of C. made fun of D. made allowance for
24. “Must we do it now?” – “No, you ____________ .” A. won’t B. needn’t C. can’t D.
mustn’t
25.The fact is , doctor, I just cannot _____ this dreadful cough.
A. get down to B. get rid of C. get out of D. get round to
26. The Home – Loan Company ______the right to cancel this agreement.
A. serves B. conserves C. reserves D. deserves
27. After Joe’s mother died, he was _____ up by his grandmother. A. drawn B. taken C. grown D. brought
28. It _____ me as strange that my front door was open when I got home.
A. occurred B. seemed C. struck D. appeared
29.The music aroused an _____ feeling of homesickness in him.
A. intentional B. intense C. intended D. intensive
30. _____ regards sport and leisure activities, our two countries appear to have little in common.
A. With B. What C. As D. How
31. Jane is plain, but her sister is very____. A. complex B. attractive C. sympathetic D. sophisticated
32. On the street : “ Have you found a good place to eat yet?
“Yes, there’s a wonderful restaurant right down the street from the school.” “____________ ?”
“ Yes. And the food is good too.”A. Is it really like that B. Do you like good food
C. Are the prices reasonable D. Do they often go there
33. Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. changed his decision B. refused to change his decision C. felt sorry for us D. wanted to continue
34. Of all the factors _____ agricultural products, weather is the one that influences farmers the most.
A. affecting B. to effect C. to affect D. effecting
35. I like the idea of becoming your partner and which is more, this business really _____me.
A. adjusts B. conforms C. suits D. likes
Mark the letter A, B, C ,or D to indicate the correct answer which completes each of the following sentences :
36.Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is _____.
A. well established extremely by the age of five. B. by the age of five and extremely well established.
C. extremely well established by the age of five. D. by the age of five it is extremely well established.
37.Civil rights are the freedoms and rights ________ as a member of a community, state, or nation.
A. may have a person whoC. may have a personB. and a person may have D. a person may have
38.The Internet _____ access to current news, political articles, business statistics, and software for practically any
purpose. A. can be provided readily B. ready and can be providing C. can provide ready D. is
ready and can provide
39.Fibers of hair and wool are not continuous and must normally be spun into thread ____ woven into textile
fabrics.
A. when to be B.if they are to be C. as are they D. that they are
40. Franklin D. Roosevelt was _______ the great force of radio and the opportunity it provided for taking
government policies directly to the people.
A. as the first President he understood fully B. the first President to understand fully
C. the first President fully understood D. the first President that, to fully understand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D to indicate the correct answer for each of the
questions
This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last half of the
19th century were accompanied by the development of a national literature of great abundance and variety.
New themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new audiences all emerged in the literature
of this half century.
As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature had evolved
remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late 1880s and the
sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in
the main by solemn, typically moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no longer were polite,
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 well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people the only central characters in its narratives;
no longer were these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote times; no longer, indeed, were fiction,
poetry, drama, and formal history the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally, was
literature read primarily by young, middle class women.
In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt Whitman
called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and region
as peers "and expands from them, and includes the world ... connecting an American citizen with the citizens
of all nations." At the same time, these years saw the emergence of what has been designated "the literature of
argument," powerful works in sociology, philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by the spirit of
exposure and reform. Just as America learned to play a role in this half century as an autonomous international
political, economic, and military power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of major works.
41. The word evolved is closest in meaning to ____ .A. became famous B. turned back C. changed D.
diminished
42. The word it refers to _____ . A. American literature B. the energy C. the population D. the
manufacturing
43. The author uses the word indeed for what purpose?
A. For variety in a lengthy paragraph B. To emphasize the contrast he is making
C. To wind down his argument D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature
44. The word exotic in line 12 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. well-known B. unusual C. urban D. old-fashioned
45. The phrase these years in line 16 refers to _____________ .
A. the present B. the 1900s C. the early 1800s D. 1850-1900
46. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about the new literature EXCEPT ________ .
A. It was not highly regarded internationally B. It broke with many literary
traditions of the past
C. It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings D. It spoke to the issue of reform and change
47. It can be inferred from lines 1-3 that the previous passage probably discussed _____.
A. the limitations of American literature to this time B. the importance of tradition to
writers
C. new developments in industrialization and population shifts D. the fashions and values of 19th century
America
48. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman ______ .
A. disliked urban life B. wrote Leaves of Grass C. was an international diplomat D. was disapproving of the new
literature
49. The main idea of this passage is___.
A. that the new American literature was less provincial than the old
B. that most people were wary of the new literature
C. that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
D. that centers of culture shifted from East to West
50. This passage would probably be read in which of the following academic courses?
A. International affairs B. Current events C. American literature D. European history
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
Ask anyone over forty to make a comparison (51)____ the past and the present and nine (52)____ ten people will
tell you that things have been getting (53)____ worse for as long as they can remember. Take the weather for
example, which has been behaving rather strangely lately. Everyone remembers that in their childhood the summers
were(54)____ hotter, and that winter always included abundant falls of snow just when the school holidays had
started. Of course, the food in those days was far superior too, as nothing was imported and everything was fresh.
Unemployment was negligible, the pound really was worth something, and you could buy a sizeable house even if
your means were limited. And above all, people were (55)____ better in those days, far more friendly, not inclined
to crime or violence, and spent their free time making model boats and tending their stamp collections (56)____ than
gazing at the television screen for hours on end. As we know that this picture of the past (57)____ cannot be true,
and there are plenty of statistics dealing with health and prosperity which prove that it is not true, why is it that we
all have a (58)____ to idealize the past ? Is this simply nostalgia? Or is it rather that we need to believe in an image
of the world which is (59)____ the opposite of what we see around us? Whichever it is, at least it leaves us with a
nagging feeling that the present could be better, and perhaps (60)____ us to be a little more critical about the way
we live.
51. A. between B. from C. with D. in
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 52. A. to B. out of C. or D. from
53. A. virtually B. so C. steadily D. out
54. A. considerably B. at least C. rarely D. not only
55. A. more B. somehow C. whatsoever D. as
56. A. usually B. different C. other D. rather
57. A. especially B. hardly C. simply D. specifically
58. A. tendency B. custom C. habit D. practice
59. A. utterly B. widely C. quite D. rather
60. A. makes B. encourages C. reassures D. supports
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
61. For centuries, philosophers and (A) artists alike (B) have debated the meaning of beauty and questioned (C)
whether it real or (D) only perceived.
62. The purpose (A) of the United Nations, (B) broad speaking, (C) is to maintain peace and securityand (D) to
encourage respect for human rights.
63. (A) There will always (B) be a job for Mike (C) if he change (D) his mind.
64. (A) Owing to their superior skill, (B) highly competitive athletes (C) have been known to win contests and break
records even (D) when suffered from injuries, physical disorders, and infections.
65. (A) Language is (B) important factor (C) in the accumulation (D) of culture.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the stress in each of the following questions
66 : A. contribute B. compliment C. bacteria D. procedure
67 : A. stagnant B. desert C. interest D. install
68 : A. sacrifice B. maintenance C. disaster D. overview
69 : A. rhinoceros B. curriculum C. kindergarten D. discriminate
70 : A. millennium B. incredible C. fascinating D. philosopher
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D to indicate the correct answer for the questions.
Aging is the process of growing old. It occurs eventually in every living thing provided, of course, that an
illness or accident does not kill it prematurely. The most familiar outward signs of aging may be seen in old
people, such as the graying of the hair and the wrinkling of the skin. Signs of aging in a pet dog or cat include
loss of playfulness and energy, a decline in hearing and eyesight, or even a slight graying of the coat. Plants age
too, but the signs are much harder to detect.
Most body plants grow bigger and stronger, and function more efficiently during childhood. They reach their
peak at the time of maturity, or early adulthood. After that they begin to decline. Bones, for example, gradually
become lighter and more brittle. In the aged, the joints between the bones also become rigid and more flexible.
This can make moving very painful.
All the major organs of the body show signs aging. The brain, for example, works less efficiently, and even
gets smaller in size. Thinking processes of all sorts are slowed down. Old people often have trouble in
remembering recent events.
One of the most serious changes of old age occurs in the arteries, the blood vessels that lead from the heart.
They become thickened and constricted, allowing less blood to flow to the rest of body. This condition accounts,
directly or indirectly, for many of the diseases of the aged. It may, for example, result in heart attack.
Aging is not a uniform process. Different parts of the body wear out at different rates. There are great differences
among people in their rate of aging. Even the cells of the body differ in the way they age. The majority of cells
are capable of reproducing themselves many times during the course of a lifetime. Nerve cells and muscle fibers
can never be replaced once they wear out.
Gerontologists - scientists who study the process of aging - believe the wearing out of the body is controlled
by a built - in biological time - clock. They are trying to discover how this clock works so that they can slow
down the process. This could give man a longer life and a great number of productive years.
71. What is the main idea in the first paragraph?
A. Signs of aging are easier to detect in animals than in plants. B. The outward signs of aging may be seen in
old people.
C. Aging occurs in every living thing after it has reached maturity. D. Not all signs of aging are visible.
72. Which piece of information is given in the passage?
A. Gerontologists can give man a longer life.
B. Gerontologists are studying how they can slow down the process of aging.
C. Gerontologists have discovered that aging is controlled by a built- in biological time- clock.
D. Gerontologists can prevent diseases connected with aging.
73. The human body begins to lose vigor and the ability to function efficiently ________ .
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A. soon after reaching adulthood C. before reaching adulthood B. during childhood D. in old age
74. In old age, the bones ___________
A. become more flexible B. become heavier C. cause much pain D. break easily
75. According to the passage, what condition is responsible for many of the diseases of the old?
A. Their trouble in remembering recent events B. The blood vessels that have become thickened and
constricted
C. The rigid and inflexible joints between the bones D. The worn - out nerve cells and muscle- fibers
76. Many of the diseases of old people are the results of __________.
A. lack of blood C. poor blood circulation B. the thickening of the blood vessels D. low blood pressure
77.The statement Aging is not a uniform process in line 19 means that __________
A. old people do not have the same outward signs of aging B. nerve cells and muscle fibers do not age
simultaneously
C. not all people age at the same age D. the process of aging is slow
78. The word arteries in line 15 refers to __________ .
A. vessels that are thickened and constricted B. the paths along which blood flows to all parts of the body
C. the tubes carrying blood back to the heartD. such heart diseases as suffered by old people
Question 79. When the brain begins to age, _________.
A. eyesight will begin too B. memorization declines C. it becomes lighter D. the thinking processes stop
80. Which of the statements about aging is false?
A. People vary in their rates of aging. B. All body cells once worn out can never be replaced.
C. The cells of the body age in different ways. D. The various parts of the body do not wear out at the same
rate.
_______THE END________

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 83
Gap filling:
I’m sure that many people in this lecture hall have, at some time, attempted to open up an image file in order to (1)
__ their photos onto a social (2) _ site, only to find the file has been (3)_. You find there’s no way to retrieve your
digital memories as you’ve already (4) __ the photos from your memory card. Worse is the realization that your
entire hard drive has crashed and that you never made back-up copies of your dissertation, years of research, and
so on. Right now, I’m afraid, there’s no guarantee that any of our data will survive in the (5) ___ currently available.
You see, manufacturers want to (6) __ the speed and capacity of drivers, but aren’t worried about long-term
stability. Flash memory drives are not a reliable alternative as they have an estimated (7) __ lifespan of ten years.
Top-end CDs with the gold and the phthalocyanine dye layers will (8) __ longer. The other issue of course, is that
technology is constantly becoming obsolete. Many of your parents will have video cassettes at home but unless
you have a video player still in (9) __, you are unlikely to ever view the content. The same goes for any documents
saved on floppy disks; no modem PC comes with a compatible drive. It’s ironic, of course, that paper, the old
(10)__of transferring information, is actually more durable than its modem equivalents.
1. A. paste B. display C. share D. upload
2. A. chatroom B. discussion C. meeting D. networking
3. A. spoilt B. disrupted C. corrupted D. disturbed
4.A. erased B. cancelled C. withdrawn D.rubbed
5. A. formats B. shapes C. means D. types
6. A. excel B. build C. uplift D. boost
7. A. peak B. maximum C. top D. upper
8. A. spend B. last C. produce D. act
9.A. order B. operation C. function D. occupation
10. A. opportunity B. source C. medium D. technology
Sentence formation
11. Joe/ not/ good/ swimmer/ however/jump/ river/ rescue/ little/ girl/ who/ drown/.
A. Joe wasn’t a good swimmer however jumping in the river rescuing a little girl who was drowning.
B. Joe wasn’t the good swimmer, however he jumped in the river to rescue a little girl who drowned.
C. Joe wasn’t a good swimmer. However, he jumped into the river to rescue the little girl who was drowning.
D. Joe wasn’t the good swimmer; however, he jumped into the river rescuing the little girl who drowned.
12. Last night/storm/ damage/power/ lines/so/ town/ without/ electricity/several/ hour/.
A. Last night a storm damaged power lines. So town had without electricity several hours.
B. Last night the storm had damaged power line so town has been without electricity for several hours.
C. Last night’s storm has damaged the power line; so the town is without electricity in several hours.
D. Last night’s storm damaged the power lines, so the town was without electricity for several hours.
13. Henry Johnson/ honest/politician/ but/I/ never/ vote/ him/ because/ not/ agree/position/foreign/ policy
G. Henry Johnson is a honest politician. But I never vote him because I do not agree of his position at foreign policy.
H. Henry Johnson is an honest politician, but I would never vote for him because I do not agree with his positions
on foreign policy.
I. Henry Johnson was an honest politician; but I would never vote him because I didn’t agree with his positions
about foreign policy.
J. Henry Johnson is a honest politician but I will never vote for him because I won’t agree his position in foreign policy.
14. Because/ snowstorm/ only/five/ student/ come/ class/ teacher/ therefore/ cancel/ class/.
A. Because of the snowstorm only five students came to class. The teacher, therefore, cancelled the class.
B. Because of a snowstorm only five students have come to the class, teacher therefore has cancelled class.
C. Because the snowstorm only five students came to class the teacher, therefore, had to cancel the class.
D. Because a snowstorm only five students came to the class; teacher, therefore, cancelled class.
15. Paul/ always/ enjoy/ study/ sciences/ high school/ therefore/ decide/ major/ biology/ university/.
A. Paul always enjoys to study sciences in high school therefore decides majoring biology at the university.
B. Paul always enjoys studying sciences at high school, He therefore decides to major on biology at university.
C. Paul always enjoyed studying sciences in high school. Therefore, he decided to major in biology in university.
D. Paul always enjoyed to study sciences in the high school; he, therefore, decided majoring at biology at the
university.
Reading comprehension
Line Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture, or anything else that is

182
included in one’s possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible, and copyright deals with intangible
forms of property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to authors of creative works, for example, books,
magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in
dance, and all other forms of intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright establishes the ownership
of the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to this individual as a tangible object.
However, the authors of the magazine articles own the research and the writing that went into creating the articles.
The right to make and sell or give away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other
individuals or organizations that hold the copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be received
from the copyright owner, who will most likely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be played by anyone after
it is published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need to pay a fee, called a royalty. A similar
principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On the other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are excepted.
Ideas do not become copyrighted property until they are published in a book, a painting, or a musical work. Almost
all artistic work created before the 20th century is not copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law
was passed.
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are plagiarism and piracy. Plagiarizing the work of another
person means passing it off as one's own. The word plagiarism is derived from the Latin plagiarus, which means
“abductor." Piracy may be an a a of one person but, in many cases, it is a joint effort of several people who reproduce
copyrighted material and sell it for profit without paying royalties to the creator. Technological innovations have
made piracy easy, and anyone can duplicate a motion picture on videotape, a computer program, or a book. Video
cassette recorders can be used by practically anyone to copy movies and television programs, and copying software
has become almost as easy as copying a book. Large companies zealously monitor their copyrights for slogans,
advertisements, and brand names, protected by a trademark.
16. In line 3, the word “extended” is closest in meaning to A. explicated B. exposed C. guaranteed D.
granted
17. What does the passage mainly discuss?

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 A. Legal rights of property owners C. Examples of copyright piracy
B. Legal ownership of creative work D. Copying creating work for profit
18. In line 16, the word “principle ” is closest in meaning to
A. crucial point B. cardinal role C. fundamental rule D. formidable force
19. The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the purpose of which of the following?
A. A law against theft B. A law against smoking C. A school policy D. household rule
20. It can be inferred from the passage that copyright law is intended to protect
A. the user’s ability to enjoy an artistic work C. paintings and photographs from theft
B. the creator’s ability to profit from the work D. computer software and videos from being copied
21. Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
22. It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
23. In line 27, the word “practically” is closest in meaning to A. truthfully B. hardly C.
clearly D. almost
24. According to the passage, copyright law is
A. meticulously observed B. routinely ignored C. frequently debated D. zealously enforced
25. With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which tnej ’ wrote the music and the lyrics.
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
Sentence similar meaning
26. The thief wore gloves so as to avoid leaving any fingerprints.
A. The thief wore gloves so as to not leave any fingerprints. fingerprints.
B. The thief wore gloves so that not leave any fingerprints. D. The thief wore gloves in order to not leave any
C. The thief wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.
27. They left early because they did not want to get caught in traffic.
A. They left early for not getting stuck. C. Because they got caught in the traffic, they left early.
B. In order to avoid being stuck in the traffic, they left D. Leaving late, they got caught in the traffic.
early.
28. If there isn’t enough rain, the hydropower station cannot operate.
A. When there isn’t enough rain, the hydropower station can operate.
B. Unless there is enough rain, the hydropower station can operate.
C. Unless there isn’t enough rain, the hydropower station cannot operate.
D. Unless there is enough rain, the hydropower station can’t operate.
29. Because the evidence was withheld, the prisoner was found guilty.
A. If the evidence was presented, the prisoner wouldn’t be found guilty.
B. Had the evidence been presented, the prisoner wouldn’t have been found guilty.
C. The prisoner was found guilty thanks to the evidence.
D. Because he withheld the evidence so the prisoner was found guilty.
30. They stayed in that hotel despite the noise.
A. Despite the hotel is noisy, they stay there. C. Although the noisy hotel, they stayed there.
B. In spite of the noisy hotel and they like it. D. Noisy as the hotel, they stayed there.
Pronunciation
31. A. describe B. spelling C. ethnic D. affect
32. A. either B. climate C. automobile D. island
33. A. complete B. command C. common D. compare
34. A. watched B. laughed C. stuffed D. wicked
35. A. wonder B. construct C. structure D. statue
Reading comprehension
Line For many people, mushrooms are strange, colorless, incomprehensible plants that should be avoided. Quaint
tales and scary stories surround mushrooms because some are extremely poisonous. In reality, however,
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 mushrooms are fungi that are simple plants without developed roots, leaves, stems, flowers, or seeds. They
grow in wetlands, grassy meadows, and woods. Certain types of mushrooms
5 are delicious and are included as ingredients in many recipes and trendy snacks. For example, morels are
considered one of the choicest foods, and truffles, related to morels, are highly prized in Europe. Their shape
is tube-like, and they remain entirely underground, a foot or more below the surface. In the old days, dogs
and pigs were specially trained to hunt them by scent.
Mushrooms stand out among other plants because they have no chlorophyll and cannot generate
10 their own nourishment. The part of the fungus that rises above the ground is the fruiting body, and the
vegetative part that produces growth is hidden under the ground. It can be usually dug up in the form of dense,
white tangled filaments, which, depending on the food supply and moisture, can live for hundreds of years.
In fact, mushrooms, as well as the rest of the fungus genus species, are one of the few remaining simple plants
that are believed to be among the oldest living organisms. When their
15 environment is not conducive to growth, filaments stop proliferating and can lie dormant for dozens of years.
Although mushrooms are rich in flavor and texture, they have little food value. Picking mushrooms requires
a thorough knowledge of environments where they are most likely to grow and an ability to tell between
edible and poisonous plants. Most mushrooms thrive in temperatures from 68° to 86° (F)
20 with plenty of moisture, and nearly complete darkness produces the best crop. The entire mushroom should be
picked, the stem, the cap, and whatever part that is underground. Brightly colored mushroom caps usually
indicate that the plant is not fit for consumption, and the more the mushroom attracts attention, the more
poisonous it is. Mushrooms with beautiful red or orange spotted caps that grow under large trees after a good
rain are particularly poisonous. If milky or white juices seep from a break in the body of plant, chances are it
should not be picked. Old mushrooms with brown caps are also not very safe.
36. In line 7, the word “Their” refers to A. morels B. foods C. truffles D. morels and
truffles
37. With which of the following statements is the author of the passage most likely to agree?
A. In the old days, when food was scarce, people chose mushrooms as food.
B. Mushrooms should be treated as all other plants.
C. Because they are poisonous, people should stay away from mushrooms.
D. Mushrooms have different forms of roots, stems, and leaves.
38. In line 5, the word “trendy” is closest in meaning to A. tender B. experimental C. fashionable D.
trusted
39. In line 2, the word “quaint” is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. convoluted B. fanciful C. irritating D. perfunctory
40. It can be inferred from the passage that mushrooms multiply mostly by means of
A. moisture B. fruiting bodies C. nourishment D. root systems
41. What does the author of the passage imply about brightly colored mushrooms?
A. They are beautiful. B. They should not be eaten. C. They attract attention. D. They should be destroyed
42. In line 19, the word “tell” is closest in meaning to A. narrate B. distinguish C. say D. see
43. The author of the passage implies that mushrooms
A. have been known since ancient times
B. are a relatively recent form of plants
C. cannot survive without a good environment
D. have been carefully analyzed

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 Grammar and vocabulary
44.It has been estimated ___________ milligram of skin scales have over half a million bacteria.
A. that a B. how a C. a D. to be a
45.We oppose this war, as we would do any other war which created an environmental catastrophe.
A. pollution B. disaster C. convention D. epidemic
46.A: Thanks a lot for your help. B: …………………….
A. Your welcome B. You’re welcome C. You’re welcomed D. You welcomed
47.Spider monkeys are the best climbers in the jungle; ____________ they do not have thumbs.
A. nevertheless B. for C. despite D. although
48 . _________ cell in the body is far from a capillary. A. Not B. No C. Not only a D. Neither a
49.A man ___________ helping police with their interview.
A. was reported to have B. was reported to have been C. reports to be D. reported to have been
50.Vietnam is __________ the top exporters of rice. A. in B. of C. between D. among
51.When you see your friend off, you say ‘ ___________ !’
A. Lucky you B. Have a good journey C. Good night D. See you later
52.If you don’t pay your rent, your landlord is going to kick you out!
A. lend you some money . B. play football with you C. give you a kick D. force you to leave
53.Mrs. Jones’s husband passed away last Friday. We are all shocked by the news.
A. got married B. divorced C. died D. fell ill
54.A: Did you get any information from Peter? B: He…………an expert, but he doesn’t seem to know much.
A. supposes to be B. is supposed to be C. supposed to be D. is supposed being
55.I’m having problems with David. He………me up in the middle of the night and………me his troubles.
A. has called; told B. has been calling; telling C. is calling; telling D. called; told
56.An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross
Societies in 1991. A. started B. helped C. treated D. dedicated
57.A: The problems seem annoying to everyone. B: …………..
A. It is B. They are C. They do D. It does
58.During the war...wrote a poem for General Washington, who complimented her on her ‘style and manner’
A. Phillis Wheatley was B. it was Phillis Wheatley C. Phillis Wheatley D. Phillis Wheatley she
59.Underwater activities are less varied and the most popular of which are snorkeling and scuba diving.
A. portable B. diverse C. familiar D. durable
60.In 1736, the number of poor people in Boston receiving public assistance ____________ about 4,000.
A. was B. were C. it was D. they were
61 . _________ in 1776 that the Declaration of Independence was signed.
A. It was B. There was C. There D. It
62.1 can’t believe it, Inspector. You mean that Smith ____________ money from the till all this time!
A. stole B. has stolen C. has been stealing D. was stealing
63. If Mr. Smith __________ this company, he would have made a lot of changes.
A. runs B. had run C. is running D. ran
64. The core of the moon is much smaller, in relation to its size ___________ of the planets.
A. those B. than those C. ones D. than are those
65 . was made of minute particles called corpuscles was believed by scientists.
A. Light B. That light C. As light D. Whereas light
66. Americans account ___________ 12% of the US population. A. for B. with C. of D. 0
67. The company___________ a new advertising campaign.
A. thought to plan B. is thought to be planning C. is thought about planning D. is thought that it is planning
68. A: I phoned but you didn’t answer it. You must have gone out. B… A. I did B. I was C. I must D.
I agree
69. How many times has Venus Williams ___________ her sister? A. won B. defeated C. lost D. beaten
70. Robert has a new car. He __________ it for a very good price. He paid 30 percent less than the regular retail
cost.
A. could buy B. had to buy C. was supposed to buy D. was able to buy
71. Pollution can cause changes in the climate ___________ the global scale.
A. in B. on C. of D. under

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72. The __________ refused to change the plot of the play as the actor suggested.
A. composer B. writer C. scriptwriter D. novelist
73 _________ invited, so we three won’t come to her wedding. If you are invited, you should go.
A. Not only I but also my parents are B. Both my parents and I are
C. Either my parents or I are not D. Neither my parents nor I am
Mistake identification
74. Contact lenses made of actylic are more transparent and least fragile than lenses made of glass.
A. transparent B. least C. than D. glass
75. Aristole believed that the mind or soul, who the Greeks coiled psyche, was separate from the body.
A. the mind B. who C. was separate D. the body
76. Warm and moisture help microbes grow and thus assist the decay process.
A. Warm B. grow C. thus D. decay
77. Although fewer Americans work on farms today, they are too productive that the U.S is now the world’s top
food exporter. A. Although B. fewer C. too D. top
78. It is estimated that at least a million meteors have hit the Earth’s surface, which is only 25 percentage of the
planet.
A. at least B. million C. have hit D. percentage
79. Navajo Indians are far more numerous today as they were in the past.
A. Navajo Indians B. far C. as D. in
80. Many fruits contain large amounts of vitamin C, as well as sugar, which provide energy.
A. Many B. amounts C. as well as D. provide

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 84
Choose the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
sentences.
1. I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.
A. be related B. be interested in C. get in touch D. have connection
2. He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job.
A. take in B. count on C. base on D. put up with
3. We’ll have to use the restrooms on the next floor because the ones on this floor are not in working condition.
A. out of work B. run out of C. out of order D. torn down
4. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said.
A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. audible
5. I couldn’t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there.
A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from
Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is the
big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment.
Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce,
Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive
plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a
bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse
cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low-quality appliances break,
many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a
customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message.
In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to
the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers empty
the bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the drinks collect bottles, wash them, and then fill
them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles
for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from
throw-away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again.
Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to
run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of
the world’s
precious resources.
6. It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______.
A. they will soon throw them away B. they have to be repaired many times
C. customers always change their idea D. they are very cheap .
7. The word “motto” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaning B. belief C. value D. reference
8. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality products B. buy simply-wrapped things C. buy more hamburgers D. reuse cups

9. What is the topic of the passage?

A. How to reduce garbage disposal. B. How to live sensitively to the environment.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement. D. What people understand the term “recycle”.
10. Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?
A. South America. B. Europe. C. Middle East. D. Asia.
11. The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. training B. exercise C. belief D. deed
12. What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. friendly. B. cautious. C. logical. D. responding.
13. What best describe the process of reuse?

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 A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.
C. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
D. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
14. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. D. TV sets and aluminum cans.
15. Garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because _______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few
C. few bottles are made of glass or plastic D. each returned bottle is paid
Choose the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
16. Having been served lunch, _______ .
A. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
B. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
C. the committee members discussed the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
17. New sources of energy are constantly being looked for _______.
A. although fossil fuels continue to dwindle B. fossil fuels continuing to dwindle
C. so that we continue to reduce fossil fuels D. as fossil fuels continue to dwindle
18. _______, he would have come to class on time.
A. If Mike could get up early B. If Mike was able to get up early C. Had Mike got up earlier D. Unless Mike had
got up early
19. _______ is the price of this car .
A. What interested in us B. What we are interested in C. That interested us D. That we are interested in
20. Such _______ that we all felt numb.
A. a cold weather was B. was a cold weather C. cold the weather D. was cold weather
Choose the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
21. As I was _______ of the change in the program, I arrived half an hour late for the rehearsal.
A. unconscious B. unable C. unaware D. unreasonable
22. _______ I didn’t know how to do the job. But now I am making progress.
A. At first B. First C. First of all D. At the first
23. My uncle is in _______ of 60 engineers and workers.
A. management B. charge C. leadership D. direction
24. I’d rather you _______ for me here.
A. wait B. waited C. to wait D. waiting
25. He _______ the plants. If he had, they wouldn't have died.
A. couldn't water B. needn't have watered C. can't have watered D.
shouldn't water
26. -Peter: "Would you like a beer?" - David: "Not while I’m _______ ."
A. in the act B. on duty C. in order D. under control
27. They decided to _______ their differences and became friends.
A. take on B. give away C. go over D. put aside
28. -Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” -Susan: "_______ .”
A. You’re welcome B. I feel very bored C. That would be great D. I don't agree, I'm afraid
29. Tom. "Thank you for your help." - Mary. "_______ ."
A. With all my heart B. Never mind me C. Wish you D. It’s my pleasure
30. On _______ he had won, he jumped up for joy.
A. he was told B. being told C. having told D. telling
31. Unemployment _______ by 5 percent since the beginning of the year.
A. has risen B. rose C. has raised D. was raised
32. No one died in the accident, _______ ?
A. did he B. did they C. didn’t he D. didn’t they
33. There's a good film _______ town.
A. on in B. at C. over D. in on

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34. You have a good feeling about yourself and _______ when you volunteer.
A. the others B. others C. other D. the other
35. There was no _______ in waiting longer than an hour so we left.
A. use B. worth C. good D. point
36. There was nothing they could do _______ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. than B. unless C. but D. instead of
37. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______.”
A. Yes, I am so glad B. No, thanks. C. Sorry, the seat is taken D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
38. Jump in the car. There’s enough _______ for you.
A. place B. space C. room D. chair
39. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I’ll write to you when I arrive there."
A. Have a good trip B. Good luck C. Have a go D. Good bye
40. She accepted the job _______ the salary, which was rather low.
A. although B. despite C. because of D. inspite
41. The information is strictly _______ and should not be discussed in public.
A. exact B. believable C. valuable D. secret
42. The concert was _______ because of the heavy rain.
A. put out B. run out C. set off D. called off
43. His father is a bank manager, _______ makes him easy to have a good job.
A. whom B. which C. who D. that
44. His father left New York. The doctor suggested he _______ there.
A. not stay B. not stayed C. didn’t stay D. not go to stay
45. Where can I get a good rate of _______ for my money?
A. deposit B. capital C. credit D. interest

Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences.
46. I only recognized him when he came into the light.
A. Only when I recognized him, he came into the light.
B. Not until he came into the light I did recognize him
C. It wasn’t until he came into the light that I recognized him
D. I did not recognize him even when he came into the light.
47. You are all welcome to take any food you like .
A. Please help yourselves to any food you like. B. Any food welcome to take if you like.
C. It’s my pleasure to take any food you like. D. You don’t have to pay for any food that you like.
48. Jane refused to attend his birthday party, which made him feel sad.
A. He felt sad not be able to attend her birthday party.
B. Jane’s refusal to attend his birthday party made him feel sad.
C. Jane made him sad despite her refusal to attend his birthday party.
D. Jane refused to attend his birthday party because it made him sad.
49. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. When the figures were re-checked, they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
B. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
C. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
D. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were checked.
50. In spite of heavy rain, my brother went to work.
A. In spite it rained heavily, my brother went to work. B. Though rain was heavily, my
brother went to work.
C. Although it rained heavily, my brother went to work. D. Despite it rained heavily, my brother went to work.
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences.
51. They are known that colds can be avoided by eating the right kind of food and taking exercise regularly.
A B C D
52. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A B C D
53. There are many researches show that various species of animals have been extinct.

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 A B C D
54. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A B C D
55. Most doctors agree that it is not good for patients to lay in bed without exercising.
A B C D
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite
technology and computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment for
scientists doing research on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish, and their
mental concentration was severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects their speech organs, communication
among divers has always been difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable
human divers, preferring to reduce the risk to human life and make direct obervations by means of instruments that
are lowered into the ocean, from samples take from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites.
Direct observations of the ocean floor can be made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the
water and even by the technology of sophisticated aerial photgraphy from vantage points above the surface of more
than seven miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by
remote control in order to transmit data back to land-based laboratories via satellite. Particularly important for ocean
study are data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea
ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can represent the
temperature and the color of the ocean’s surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents from laboratories
on dry land. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect, organize, and analyze data from submarines
and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean’s movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns
and possible effects of the ocean on the enviroment.
Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or even
submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more effectively. Some of
humankind’s most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of
observations
made possible by this new technology.
56. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?
A. A model of the ocean’s movements. B. Cloud formations over the ocean.
C. The temperature of the ocean’s surface. D. The location of sea ice.
57. The words “those” refers to _______.
A. vehicles B. ships C. problems D. computers
58. With what topic is the passage primarily converned?
A. Technological advances in oceanography. B. Direct observation of the ocean floor.
C. Undersea vehicles. D. Communication among drivers.
59. The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. slow moving B. very weak C. nervous D. confused
60. The word “cruise” could best be replaced by _______.
A. function without problems B. travel at a constant speed
C. stay in communication D. remain still
61. Undersea vehicles _______.
A. have the same limitations that divers have B. are too small for a man to fit inside
C. are very slow to respond D. make direct observations of the ocean floor
62. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon _______.
A. controlling currents and the weather B. vehicles as well as divers
C. radios that divers use to communicate D. the limitations of diving equipment
63. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because _______.
A. they did not pronounce clearly B. the water destroyed their speech organs
C. the vehicles they used have not been perfected D. the pressure affected their speech
organs
64. The word “data” is closest in meaing to _______.
A. samples B. photographs C. articles D. information
65. How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?

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 A. by operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform. B. By operators outside the vehicle
on ship.
C. by operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore. D. by operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater.
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the stress pattern in each of the following words.
66. A. discriminate B. enthusiast C. admiration D. minority
67. A. essential B. industry C. embarrass D. develop
68. A. particular B. primitive C. continuous D. connected
69. A. explain B. involve C. control D. purpose
70. A. automatic B. familiar C. responsible D. environment
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future because they
have been (71) _______ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found nowhere else in
the world but they are (72) _______ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and (73) _______
plants.
The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (74) _______ the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian plants
with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the (75) _______ . Since 1990, (76) _______ a result of their "Plant
Extinction Prevention Program", sixteen species have been brought into (77) _______ and three species have been
reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to (78) _______ plants in
the wild.
In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (79) _______ collecting genetic material from the
remaining plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild populations
and where possible reintroduce species into (80) _______ .
71. A. reduced B. increased C. disappeared D. developed
72. A. guarded B. invested C. threatened D . conserved
73. A. national B. native C. non-native D. international
74. A. encourage B. stimulate C. influence D. prevent
75. A. atmosphere B. hole C. sky D. wild
76. A. so B. as C. due D. but
77. A. contamination B. cultivation C. production D. generation
78. A. derive B. vary C. protect D. remain
79. A. for B. with C. on D. at
80. A. reserves B. shelters C. gardens D. halls

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 85
Choose the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
1. New sources of energy are constantly being looked for _______.
A. although fossil fuels continue to dwindle B. fossil fuels continuing to dwindle
C. so that we continue to reduce fossil fuels D. as fossil fuels continue to dwindle
2. _______, he would have come to class on time.
A. If Mike could get up early B. If Mike was able to get up early
C. Had Mike got up earlier D. Unless Mike had got up early
3. _______ is the price of this car.
A. What interested in us B. What we are interested in
C. That interested us D. That we are interested in
4. Having been served lunch, _______ .
A. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
B. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
C. the committee members discussed the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
5. Such _______ that we all felt numb.
A. a cold weather was B. was cold weather C. was a cold weather D. cold the weather
Choose the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
sentences.
6. I couldn’t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there.
A. make up B. make for C. make out D. make from
7. We’ll have to use the restrooms on the next floor because the ones on this floor are not in working condition.
A. out of order B. out of work C. run out of D. torn down
8. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said.
A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible
9. I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.
A. get in touch B. be related C. be interested in D. have connection
10. He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job.
A. take in B. base on C. put up with D. count on
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences.
11. Jane refused to attend his birthday party, which made him feel sad.
A. Jane refused to attend his birthday party because it made him sad.
B. He felt sad not be able to attend her birthday party.
C. Jane made him sad despite her refusal to attend his birthday party.
D. Jane’s refusal to attend his birthday party made him feel sad.
12. I only recognized him when he came into the light.
A. It wasn’t until he came into the light that I recognized him.
B. Only when I recognized him, he came into the light.
C. Not until he came into the light I did recognize him.
D. I did not recognize him even when he came into the light.
13. You are all welcome to take any food you like .
A. Any food welcome to take if you like. B. It’s my pleasure to take any food you like.
C. Please help yourselves to any food you like. D. You don’t have to pay for any food that you like.
14. In spite of heavy rain, my brother went to work.
A. Although it rained heavily, my brother went to work. B. In spite it rained heavily, my brother went to work.

C. Though rain was heavily, my brother went to work. D. Despite it rained heavily, my
brother went to work.
15. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. When the figures were re-checked, they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
C. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were checked.
D. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.

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Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences.
16. There are many researches show that various species of animals have been extinct.
A B C D
17. Most doctors agree that it is not good for patients to lay in bed without exercising.
A B C D
18. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of
another.
A B C D
19. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A B C D
20. They are known that colds can be avoided by eating the right kind of food and taking exercise regularly.
A B C D
V. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is the
big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment.
Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce,
Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive
plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a
bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse
cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low-quality appliances break,
many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a
customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message.
In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to
the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers empty
the bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the drinks collect bottles, wash them, and then fill
them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles
for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from
throw-away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again.
Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to
run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of
the world’s
precious resources.
21. Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?
A. South America. B. Middle East C. Asia. D. Europe.
22. What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. cautious. B. logical. C. friendly. D. responding.
23. The word “motto” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaning B. value C. reference D. belief
24. It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______.
A. they will soon throw them away B. customers always change their idea
C. they have to be repaired many times D. they are very cheap
25. What is the topic of the passage?
A. How to reduce garbage disposal. B. How to live sensitively to the environment.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement. D. What people understand the term “recycle”.
26. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy more hamburgers B. buy high-quality products
C. buy simply-wrapped things D. reuse cups
27. What best describe the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.

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 D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
28. The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. training B. exercise C. belief D. deed
29. Garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because _______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few
C. few bottles are made of glass or plastic D. each returned bottle is paid
30. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. TV sets and aluminum cans. B. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil.
C. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil. D. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings.
Choose the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
31. His father is a bank manager, _______ makes him easy to have a good job.
A. whom B. who C. which D. that
32. There was nothing they could do _______ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. instead of B. but C. than D. unless
33. There's a good film _______ town.
A. at B. on in C. over D. in on
34. He _______ the plants. If he had, they wouldn't have died.
A. shouldn't water B. couldn't water C. can't have watered D. needn't have watered
35. -Peter: "Would you like a beer?" - David: "Not while I’m _______ ."
A. in the act B. under control C. on duty D. in order
36. My uncle is in _______ of 60 engineers and workers.
A. charge B. leadership C. management D. direction
37. I’d rather you _______ for me here.
A. wait B. to wait C. waited D. waiting
38. Tom. "Thank you for your help." - Mary. "_______ ."
A. With all my heart B. It’s my pleasure C. Never mind me D. Wish you
39. On _______ he had won, he jumped up for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. telling D. being told
40. Where can I get a good rate of _______ for my money?
A. interest B. deposit C. capital D. credit
41. As I was _______ of the change in the program, I arrived half an hour late for the
rehearsal.
A. unconscious B. unable C. unaware D. unreasonable
42. _______ I didn’t know how to do the job. But now I am making progress.
A. First B. First of all C. At the first. D. At first
43. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______”
A. Yes, I am so glad B. No, thanks. C. Sorry, the seat is taken D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
44. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I’ll write to you when I arrive there."
A. Good luck B. Have a good trip C. Have a go D. Good bye
45. Unemployment _______ by 5 percent since the beginning of the year.
A. rose B. has raised C. was raised D. has risen
46. You have a good feeling about yourself and _______ when you volunteer.
A. the others B. other C. the other D. others
47. They decided to _______ their differences and became friends.
A. put aside B. take on C. give away D. go over
48. There was no _______ in waiting longer than an hour so we left.
A. point B. use C. worth D. good
49. She accepted the job _______ the salary, which was rather low.
A. although B. because of C. inspite D. despite
50. -Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” -Susan: "_______ .”
A. That would be great B. You’re welcome C. I feel very bored D. I don't agree, I'm afraid
51. No one died in the accident, _______ ?
A. did he B. did they C. didn’t he D. didn’t they
52. The information is strictly _______ and should not be discussed in public.

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 A. exact B. believable C. secret D. valuable
53. His father left New York. The doctor suggested he _______ there.
A. not stayed B. didn’t stay C. not go to stay D. not stay
54. Jump in the car. There’s enough _______ for you.
A. place B. space C. room D. chair
55. The concert was _______ because of the heavy rain.
A. put out B. run out C. called off D. set off
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite
technology and computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment for
scientists doing research on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish, and their
mental concentration was severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects their speech organs, communication
among divers has always been difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable
human divers, preferring to reduce the risk to human life and make direct obervations by means of instruments that
are lowered into the ocean, from samples take from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites.
Direct observations of the ocean floor can be made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the
water and even by the technology of sophisticated aerial photgraphy from vantage points above the surface of more
than seven miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by
remote control in order to transmit data back to land-based laboratories via satellite. Particularly important for ocean
study are data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea
ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can represent the
temperature and the color of the ocean’s surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents from laboratories
on dry land. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect, organize, and analyze data from submarines
and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean’s movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns
and possible effects of the ocean on the enviroment.
Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or even
submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more effectively. Some of
humankind’s most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of
observations
made possible by this new technology.
56. With what topic is the passage primarily converned?
A. Communication among drivers. B. Direct observation of the ocean floor.
C. Technological advances in oceanography. D. Undersea vehicles.
57. The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. very weak B. nervous C. slow moving D. confused
58. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon
_______.
A. the limitations of diving equipment B. controlling currents and the weather
C. radios that divers use to communicate D. vehicles as well as divers
59. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because _______.
A. they did not pronounce clearly B. the pressure affected their speech organs
C. the water destroyed their speech organs D. the vehicles they used have not been perfected
60. The word “cruise” could best be replaced by _______.
A. remain still B. function without problems
C. stay in communication D. travel at a constant speed
61. Undersea vehicles _______.
A. have the same limitations that divers have B. make direct observations of the ocean floor
C. are too small for a man to fit inside D. are very slow to respond
62. The word “data” is closest in meaing to _______.
A. samples B. information C. photographs D. articles
63. How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?
A. by operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore B. by operators outside the vehicle on a
diving platform
C. By operators outside the vehicle on ship D. by operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater

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64. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?
A. The location of sea ice B. Cloud formations over the ocean
C. A model of the ocean’s movements D. The temperature of the ocean’s surface
65. The words “those” refers to _______.
A. problems B. vehicles C. ships D. computers
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future because they
have been (66) _______ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found nowhere else in
the world but they are (67) _______ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and (68) _______
plants.
The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (69) _______ the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian plants
with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the (70) _______. Since 1990, (71) _______ a result of their "Plant
Extinction Prevention Program", sixteen species have been brought into (72) _______ and three species have been
reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to (73) _______ plants in
the wild.
In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (74) _______ collecting genetic material from the
remaining plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild populations
and
where possible reintroduce species into (75) _______ .
66. A. disappeared B. increased C. reduced D. developed
67. A. threatened B. guarded C. invested D . conserved
68. A. national B. non-native C. native D.
international
69. A. encourage B. influence C. stimulate D. prevent
70. A. atmosphere B. hole C. wild D. sky
71. A. so B. due C. but D. as
72. A. contamination B. cultivation C. production D. generation
73. A. protect B. derive C. vary D. remain
74. A. for B. at C. with D. on
75. A. shelters B. gardens C. reserves D. halls
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following words.
76. A. familiar B. responsible C. environment D. automatic

77. A. discriminate B. admiration C. enthusiast D. minority

78. A. purpose B. explain C. involve D. control
79. A. essential B. embarrass C. industry D. develop
80. A. connected B. primitive C. particular D. continuous

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 86
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
1. The factory is said _______ in a fire two years ago.
A. being destroyed B. to have been destroyed C. to have destroyed D. to destroy
2. By the end of this year my father _______ in this company for 12 years.
A. will work B. will have been working C. has been working D. has worked
3. –“Would you mind giving me a hand with this bag?” -“ _____________________”
A. Yes, I’ll do it now. B. No, not at all. C. Well, I’d love to D. Yes, I am.
4. Forget all and try your best next time- Lightning never _______ twice in the same place.
A. strikes B. attacks C. beats D. hits
5. _____ raiding for camels was a significant part of Bedouin life has been documented in Wilfed Thesiger’s Arabian
Sands.
A. That B. Which C. What D. Where
6. The little boy pleaded _____ not to leave him alone in the dark.
A. on her mother B. her mother C. with her mother D. at his mother
7. _____, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
8. The TV station, in _______ to massive popular demand, decided not to discontinue the soap opera.
A. reaction B. response C. answer D. rely
9. His emotional problems _______ from the attitudes he encountered as a child, I think.
A. stem B. flourish C. root D. sprout
10. Pete was born and brought up in Cornwall and he knows the place like the _________.
A. nose on his face B. back of his hand C. hairs on his head D. teeth of his mouth
11. Tom: "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary: “_______”.
A. Sounds like fun B. Well, never mind C. Oh, that's annoying D. Great
12. British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as _____.
A. cats and dogs B. salt and pepper C. chalk and cheese D. here and there
13. Rows and silences are ______ and parcel of any marriage.
A. package B. stamps C. packet D. part
14. How do you account for the manager's fiery _______ yesterday afternoon?
A. output B. outburst C. outcry D. outlaw
15: Patient: "Can I make an appointment to see the doctor, please?" Receptionist: “________”
A. Not at the moment. He can't be disturbed. B. OK, you will need to check my diary.
C. OK, let me just check the diary. D. Have a seat and I'll be with you in an hour.
16. It’s not in my nature to _______ over the price of something.
A. haggle B. discuss C. challenge D. transact
17: ” Buy me a newspaper on your way back, _________?”
A. don’t you B. can’t you C. will you D. do you?
18. We usually do go by train, even though the car _________ is a lot quicker.
A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage
19. The sign says that all shoplifters will be ________.
A. persecuted B. disproved C. prosecuted D. prohibited
20. In elections, politicians try to get old people to vote for them, it’s called the _______ vote.
A. white B. blue C. old D. grey
21. In the end, I just lost my _________ and started gabbling incoherently.
A. head B. mind C. brain D. intelligence
22. John: “May I come in?” Peter: “ ________________”
A. Feel free B. Yes, no problem C. You’re welcome D. Sorry, you may not
23. When I got up yesterday morning, the sun was shining, but the ground was very wet. It …….
A. rained B. has been raining C. had rained D. had been raining
24. The villagers strongly recommend that a new school ___________ immediately.
A. must be built B. is going to be built C. be built D. will be built
25. The children can stay here __________ they don’t make too much noise.
A. whether B. providing C. unless D. until

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26. _______ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.
A. Small as the stars B. The stars as small C. As the small stars D. Despite of the small stars
27. I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of _______.
A. brain B. tongue C. mind D. memory
Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
28. I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home and dry.
A. have been successful B. have not got wet C. have got no water D. have
got home dry
29. Crime frequently increases during periods of social upheaval
A. ruin B. unrest C. havoc D. trends
30. The evening would have been more enjoyable if all the extraneous activities had been dropped from the
program.
A. irrelevant B. excessive C. overextended D. exceptional
Choose the underlined part that needs correction
31. The reason he wants to take a leaving of absence is that he needs a complete rest.
A B C D
32. A desert area that has been without water for six years will still bloom when rain will come.
A B C D
33. Like a synonym of speech, which is the general term, address implies some degree of formality.
A B C D
34. The fact that half of the known species is thought to inhabit the world's rain forests does not seem
A B
surprising, considering the huge numbers of insects that comprise the bulk of the species.
C D
35. Moonquakes originating at deep of some 800 kilometers indicate the Moon has considerable rigidity and is not
molten at such levels. A B C D
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
36. A. consequently B. profile C. initiate D. project
37. A. obedience B. curriculum C. benefactor D. moustache
38. A. arithmetic B. assassinate C. agriculture D. controvert
39. A. compulsory B. technology C. academic D. eliminate
40. A. inheritance B. mathematician C. communication D. tuberculosis
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
41. I thought she was the right person for the position, yet it turned out that she was quite useless.
A. Contrary to my initial impression, she was not totally unsuitable for the position.
B. I was right in thinking that she was totally useless for the job.
C. I was mistaken about her suitability for the position, since she proved rather incompetent.
D. Because I was expecting her to be competent, I was shocked to see her perform rather badly.
42. At this time tomorrow, hopefully, I'll be relaxing at home rather than working this hard.
A. Resting at home is something I hope to be doing at this time tomorrow, but I'll probably be working quite hard
instead.
B. Tomorrow, rather than relaxing at home as I'd hoped to do, I'll be working quite hard.
C. I'm planning to relax at home tomorrow, instead of working so hard.
D. I hope that, instead of working so hard at this time tomorrow, I'll be at home resting.
43. Public education is so good in European countries that there is almost no demand for private schools.
A. Even the excellence of public education in Europe does not stop people from sending their children to
private schools.
B. People still send their children to private schools in Europe although the public education system is
excellent.
C. Hardly anyone sends their children to private schools in Europe because state schools are excellent.
D. In Europe, there is no reason for parents to send their children to private schools because state schools are
so good.
44. The number of people participating in the conference was far below my expectation.
A. I had expected that many more people would actually attend the conference.

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 B. I think attendance at the conference was low because it was held too far away from the city centre.
C. I knew that holding such a conference required the participation of more people.
D. The number of participants at the conference far exceeded my expectations.
45. Seeing how happy she looked, I was certain that Jack had proposed to her.
A. I knew just by looking at her that she was in love with Jack.
B. The happy look on her face convinced me that she'd received a marriage proposal from Jack.
C. Judging by the happy look on her face, I guess that she accepted Jack's marriage proposal.
D. When I talked to her, I learnt that she was so happy because Jack had proposed to her.
46. By the end of our tour, we had been to every major city in Eastern Europe, except Tallinn, in Estonia.
A. Towards the end of our trip, having visited all the main cities in Eastern Europe, we also wanted to see Tallinn,
in Estonia.
B. Our tour included almost all major cities in Eastern Europe, besides Tallinn, In Estonia.
C. During our trip, we visited all the main cities of Estonia, in Eastern Europe, apart from Tallinn.
D. With the exception of Tallinn, in Estonia, we visited all the important cities in Eastern Europe during our.
47. She has been living on her own for about ten years, but she had never been financially secure until she got that
bank job last year.
A. She's been having financial troubles during the last ten years, even though she's been living on her own and
working in a bank the whole time.
B. A year ago she found a job in a bank and became financially secure for the first time since she began living by
herself about a decade ago.
C. For ten years she had been living there all alone, and was never financially secure even with the bank job she found
last year.
D. She hasn't been living with anyone for nearly ten years, but owing to her bank job, she's never had any financial
worries.
48. The capital city of Latvia, Riga has maintained the atmosphere of a medieval German city.
A. Latvia's capital, Riga, is a medieval German city with a nice atmosphere.
B. Latvia's capital city, Riga was established in medieval times, and it looks like a German city.
C. Riga, Latvia's capital city, was established by the Germans in medieval times.
D. Riga, Latvia's capital city, still reflects the characteristics of a medieval German city.
49. When we arrived at the party after our car broke down on the way there, there weren't many people left.
A. Our car broke down on the way to the party and by the time we got there, most of the guests had already left.
B. Because we had car trouble on the way to the party, many people grew tired of waiting and left before we
arrived there.
C. Not many people had left the party yet when we got there, although we were late because of a car problem on
the way.
D. When we arrived at the party after we had had car trouble on the way there, hardly anyone had left yet.
50. She had to buy a new battery for her mobile phone because the charge was unable to last for more than two
hours.
A. She had to charge a new battery for her mobile phone because the old one lasted for a little over two hours.
B. Her mobile phone couldn't hold a charge for more than two hours, so she had to buy a new battery.
C. Because she charged her new mobile phone battery for only two hours, the charge did not last very long.
D. The new battery she bought for her mobile phone would not hold a charge for longer than two hours.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
The languages spoken by early Europeans are still shrouded in mystery. There is no linguistic continuity
between the languages of Old Europe (a term sometimes used for Europe between 7,000 and 3,000 B.C.) and the
languages of the modern world, and we cannot yet translate the Old European script. Scholars have deciphered other
ancient languages, such as Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian, which used the cuneiform script, because of the
fortuitous discovery of bilingual inscriptions. When cuneiform tablets were first discovered in the 18th century,
scholars could not decipher them. Then inscriptions found in Iran at the end of the 18th century provided a link: these
inscriptions were written in cuneiform and in two other ancient languages, Old Persian and New Elamite – languages
that had already been deciphered. It took several decades, but scholars eventually translated the ancient cuneiform
script via the more familiar Old Persian language.
Similarly, the hieroglyphic writing of the Egyptians remained a mystery until French troops unearthed the famous
Rosetta stone in the late 18th century. The stone carried the same message written in ancient Greek, Egyptian hieroglyphs,

200
and Egyptian hieratic, a simplified form of hieroglyphs. The Rosetta stone thwarted scholars’ efforts for several decades
until the early 19th century when several key hieroglyphic phrases were decoded using the Greek inscriptions.
Unfortunately, we have no Old European Rosetta stone to chart correspondences between Old European script and the
languages that replaced it.
The incursions of Indo-European tribes into Old Europe from the late 5th to the early 3rd millennia B.C.
caused a linguistic and cultural discontinuity. These incursions disrupted the Old European sedentary farming
lifestyle that had existed for 3,000 years. As the Indo-Europeans encroached on Old Europe from the east, the
continent underwent upheavals. These severely affected the Balkans, where the Old European cultures abundantly
employed script. The Old European way of life deteriorated rapidly, although pockets of Old European cultural
remained for several millennia. The new peoples spoke completely different languages belonging to the Indo-
European linguistic family. The Old European language or languages, and the script used to write them, declined
and eventually vanished.
51. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Reason for the failure to understand the written records of Old European culture.
B. Influences on the development of Old European script.
C. Similarities between Old European script and other ancient writing systems.
D. Events leading to the discovery of Old European script.
52. According to the passage, New Elamite is _________.
A. a language that was used in Europe about 3,000 years ago B. a modern language that came from
Old Persian
C. one of the languages spoken by the Old Europeans D. a language that was understood by the late
18th century
53: When does the passage suggest that ancient Egyptian hieroglyphic script was finally deciphered?
A. At around the same time as cuneiform script was deciphered. B. Shortly before the Rosetta stone was
unearthed.
C. As soon as additional bilingual inscriptions became available to scholars.
D. A few decades after the hieratic script was decoded.
54: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of the Rosetta stone?
A. It was found by scholars trying to decode ancient languages. B. It contains two versions of
hieroglyphic script.
C. Several of its inscriptions were decoded within a few months of its discovery.
D. Most of its inscriptions have still not been decoded.
55: According to the passage, scholars were able to decipher cuneiform form with the help of _________.
A. the Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian languages B. Old Persian
C. tablets written in Old European D. languages spoken in 18th century Iran
56: The word “fortuitous” in the 1 paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
st

A. important B. immediate C. early D. lucky

57:The word “them” in the 1st paragraph refers to _________.
A. Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian B. bilingual inscriptions C. cuneiform tablets D.
scholars
58: The word “thwarted” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to _________
A. continued B. influenced C. encouraged D. frustrated
59: According to the passage, Indo-European incursions caused Old European population to ________.
A. separated into different tribes B. move eastward
C. change their ways of living and obtain food D. start recording historical events in writing
60: The author mentions the Balkans in the passage in order to explain why _________.
A. Indo-European languages were slow to spread in Old Europe
B. the inhabitants of Old Europe were not able to prevent Indo-European incursions
C. the use of the Old European script declined
D. the Old European culture survived for a time after the Indo-European incursions
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
Industrialization came to the United State after 1790 as North American entrepreneurs increased productivity
by reorganizing work and building factories. These innovations in manufacturing boosted output and living

201
standards to an unprecedented extent; the average per capita wealth increased by nearly 1 percent per year – 30
percent over the course of a generation. Goods that had once been luxury items became part of everyday life.
The impressive gain in output stemmed primarily from the way in which workers made goods, since the
1790's, North American entrepreneurs – even without technological improvements – had broadened the scope of the
outwork system that mace manufacturing more efficient by distributing materials to a succession of workers who
each performed a single step of the production process. For example, during the 1820's and 1830's the shoe industry
greatly expanded the scale and extend of me outwork system. Tens of thousands of rural women, paid according to
the amount they produced, fabricated the "uppers" of shoes, which were bound to the soles by wage-earning
journeymen shoemakers in dozens of Massachusetts towns, whereas previously journeymen would have made the
enduring shoe. This system of production made the employer a powerful "shoe boss" and eroded workers' control
over the pace and conditions of labor. However, it also dramatically increased the output of shoes while cutting their
price.
For tasks that were not suited to the outwork system, entrepreneurs created an even more important new
organization, the modem factory, which used power-driven machines and assembly-line techniques to turn out large
quantities of well-made goods. As early as 1782 the prolific Delaware inventor Oliver Evans had built a highly
automated, laborsaving flour mill driven by water power. His machinery lifted the grain to the top of the mill, cleaned
it as it fell into containers known as hoppers, ground the grain into flour, and then conveyed the flour back to the
top of the mill to allow it to cool as it descended into barrels. Subsequently, manufacturers made use of new improved
stationary steam engines to power their mills. This new technology enabled them to build factories in the nation's
largest cities, taking advantage of urban concentrations of inexpensive labor, good transportation networks, and
eager customers.
61. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The difficulties of industrialization in North America
B. The influence of changes in manufacturing on the growth of urban centers
C. The rapid speed of industrialization in North America D. Improved ways of organizing the
manufacturing of goods
62. The word "boosted" is closest in meaning to
A. ensured B. raised C. arranged D. discouraged
63. The word "scope" is closest in meaning to
A. value B. popularity C. extent D. diversity
64. The author mentions the shoe industry in the second paragraph to provide an example of how
A. entrepreneurs increased output by using an extended outwork system
B. entrepreneurs used technological improvements to increase output
C. rural workers responded to "shoe bosses" D. changes in the outwork system improved the quality of
shoes
65. All of the following are mentioned as effects of changes in the shoe industry during the 1820's and 1830's
EXCEPT
A. an increase in the worker's dependence on entrepreneurs B. an increase in the wages paid to journeymen
shoemakers
C. a decline in the workers ability to control the speed of production D. a decrease in the price of shoes
66. All of the following are true of the outwork system EXCEPT
A. It involved stages of production. B. It was more efficient than the systems used before 1790.
C. It made many employers less powerful than they had been before.
D. It did not necessarily involve any technological improvements.
67. The word "prolific" is closest in meaning to
A. efficient B. productive C. self-employed D. progressive
68. According to the passage, how did later mills differ from the mills differ from the mill built by Oliver Evans?
A. They were located away from large cities. B. They used new technology to produce power.
C. They did not allow flour to cool before it was placed in Barrels. D. They combined technology with the
outwork system.
69. The passage mentions which of the following as a result of improvements in factory machinery?
A. It become easier for factory' owners to find workers and customers.
B. Manufacturers had to employ more highly skilled workers.
C. The amount of power required for factories operate was reduced.

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 D. Factories could operate more than one engine at a time.
70. The word "eager" is closest in meaning to
A. wealthy B. knowledgeable C. regular D. enthusiastic
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks
Sound Advice for Language Learners
A recent issue of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of experts in the (71) _______ of
second language acquisition. Their advice may prove invaluable for those (72)_____ a language course. One
suggestion is that you (73) ______ whether you are likely to be successful at learning a language. Did you enjoy
studying languages at school, for example? Do you have enough time to learn a language? The major (74) _____
will be your own time and effort. If proof of your level of proficiency is important you must make sure that the
course on offer leads to a (75)_____ qualification. Also, be realistic in your (76)______. If you don't set
achievable aims you are more likely to give up. Do not be deceived (77)______ thinking that the most expensive
courses are the best. (78) ______ around to get the best possible value for money. You should also bear in mind
that the quicker you learn a language the more quickly you forget it. Sandra Miller, a French teacher, tried to teach
herself German by enrolling on a (79) ______course. Already fluent in four languages and with a sound
knowledge of teaching methodology her chances of making progress were high. Three years on she remembers
very little. She feels her biggest mistake was not to follow (80) ______ her first experience. "I should have
consolidated what I'd learn by continuing to study, even if it were by myself."

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71: A. domain B. branch C. field D. area
72. A. wondering B. thinkingC. looking D.
considering
73. A. assess B. review C. balance D. survey
74. A. chance B. cost C. price D.
evaluation
75. A. recognized B. understood C. valued D.
regarded
76. A. sights B. ends C. objects D.
goal
77. A. by B. about C. into D.
in
78. A. Nose B. Push C. Run D.
Shop
79. A. rapid B. crash C. quick
D. fast
80. A. up B. on C. through D. out

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205
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 87
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks
Parrots and macaws have become so (01)......... that special varieties of these birds are (02) ......... up to £9,000
each on the black market in Britain. Macaws from Brazil cost from £1,000 and parrots from Australia can cost
£7,500 a pair.
The demand for parrots, cockatoos and macaws has led to a (03)......... increase in thefts from zoos, wildlife
parks and pet shops. London and Whipsnade zoos are among the many places from which parrots have been stolen.
Some thefts have not been (04)......... in an effort to prevent further (05).......... Parrot rustling, as it is known among
bird fanciers, has increased rapidly in Britain since 1976 when imports and exports of (06)......... birds became
(07)......... controlled.
Quarantine controls, (08)......... with the scarcity of many types of parrots in the wild in Africa, Australia,
Indonesia, and South America, have caused a shortage of birds which can be sold legally under (09)..........This has
sent prices to (10)......... levels. Working at night and equipped with wire-cutters, nets and substances to dope the
birds, the rustlers are prepared to (11)......... serious risks to capture the parrots they want. At Birdworld, a specialist
zoo, thieves (12)......... two parrots after picking their (13)......... through an enclosure containing cassowaries, The
cassowary is a large flightless bird, related to the emu, which can be extremely (14)......., and has been (15)........ to
kill humans with blows from its powerful legs.
01. A. costly B. extinct C. outlandish D. rare
02. A. raising B. reaching C. lifting D. fetching
03. A. acute B. peak C. sharp D. high
04. A. published B. publicised C. advertised D. told
05. A. happenings B. incidents C. acts D. activities
06. A. unusual B. uncommon C. exotic D. strange
07. A. tightly B. hardly C. toughly D. grimly
08. A. coupled B. doubled C. attached D. accompanied
09. A. warranty B. guarantee C. licence D. law
10. A. unknown B. unheard C. record D. highest
11. A. sustain B. assume C. take D. make
12. A. thieved B. robbed C. misappropriated D. stole
13. A. way B. road C. path D. lane
14. A. aggressive B. fighting C. bad-tempered D. rough
15. A. heard B. known C. considered D. able
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
16. A. popularity B. conscientious C. apprenticeship D. personality
17. A. horizon B. ignorant C. determinedly D. librarian
18. A. consonant B. divisible C. significant D. mosquito
19. A. consignation B. abnomality C. supplementary D. dictionary
20. A. garment B. comment C. cement D. even
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer
In the last third of the nineteenth century a new housing form was quietly being developed. I n 1869 the
Stuyvesant, considered New York’s first apartment house was built on East Eighteenth Street. The building was
financed by the developer Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard Morris Hunt, the first American architect
to graduate from the Ecole des Beaux Arts in Paris. Each man had lived in Paris, and each understood the economics
and social potential of this Parisian housing form. But the Stuyvesant was at best a limited success. In spite of Hunt’s
inviting façade, the living space was awkwardly arranged. Those who could afford them were quite content to
remain in the more sumptuous, single-family homes, leaving the Stuyvesant to newly married couples and
bachelors.
The fundamental problem with the Stuyvesant and the other early apartment buildings that quickly followed,
in the 1870’s and early 1880’s was that they were confined to the typical New York building lot. That lot was a
rectangular area 25 feet wide by 100 feet deep–a shape perfectly suited for a row house. The lot could also
accommodate a rectangular tenement, though it could not yield the square, well-lighted, and logically arranged
rooms that great apartment buildings require. But even with the awkward interior configurations of the early
apartment buildings, the idea caught on. It met the needs of a large and growing population that wanted something
better than tenements but could not afford or did not want row houses.
So while the city’s newly emerging social leadership commissioned their mansions, apartment houses and
hotels began to sprout in multiple lots, thus breaking the initial space constraints. In the closing decades of the
nineteenth century, large apartment houses began dotting the developed portions of New York City, and by the
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opening decades of the twentieth century, spacious buildings, such as the Dakota and the Ansonia finally transcended
the tight confinement of row house building lots. From there it was only a small step to building luxury apartment
houses on the newly created Park Avenue, right next to the fashionable Fifth Avenue shopping area.
21. The new housing form discussed in the passage refers to
A. single-family homes B. apartment buildings C. row houses D. hotels
22. The word “inviting”in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. open B. encouraging C. attractive D. asking
23. Why was the Stuyvesant a limited success?
A.The arrangement of the rooms was not convenient. B. Most people could not afford to live there.
C. There were no shopping areas nearby. D. It was in a crowded neighborhood.
24.The word “sumptuous”in line 8 is closest in meaning to
A. luxurious B. unique C. modern D. distant
25. It can be inferred that the majority of people who lived in New York’s first apartments were
A. highly educated B. unemployed C. wealthy D. young
26. It can be inferred that the typical New York building lot of the 1870’s and 1880’s looked MOST like which of
the following? A. (A) B. (B) C. (C) D. (D)

27. It can be inferred that a New York apartment building in the 1870’s and 1880’s had all of the following
characteristics EXCEPT: A. Its room arrangement was not logical. B. It was rectangular.
C. It was spacious inside. D. It had limited light.
28.The word “yield”in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A. harvest B. surrender C. amount D. provide
29. Why did the idea of living in an apartment become popular in the late 1800’s?
A. Large families needed housing with sufficient space.
B. Apartmentswere preferable to tenements and cheaper than row houses
C. The city officials of New York wanted housing that was centrally located.
D. The shape of early apartments could accommodate a variety of interior designs.
30. The author mentions the Dakota and the Ansonia in line 22 because
A. they are examples of large, well-designed apartment buildings B. their design is similar to that of row
houses
C. they were built on a single building lot D. they are famous hotels
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions
31. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
32. The clubs meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace.
A. renovated B. regenerated C. furnished D. neglected
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
33: that I tore up the letter.
A. I was such an annoyed B. Such was my annoyance C. I was so annoying D. So was I annoyed
34: It is the recommendation of many psychologists to associate words and remember names.
A. that a learner uses mental images B. that a learner use mental images
C. that a learner must use mental images D. mental images are used
35: “______” “Not really.”
A. I don't like that new movie. B. Would you like to watch a cartoon or a
documentary?
C. Would you recommend the new movie at the Odeon? D. How often do you go to the movies?
36: Something tells me that you to a single word I in the past ten minutes.
A. haven’t listened/ was saying B. didn’t listen/ said
C. haven’t been listening/ have said D. haven’t listened/ said
37: Don’t to any conclusion before you know the full facts.
A. rush B. dive C. leap D. fly
38: The police spokesman said he was _______ to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer they had been
looking for.
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 A. inclined B. seemed C. suspected D. supposed
39: For lunch, I always have something quick and easy: a sandwich, a salad, toast and the _______.
A. same B. similar C. like D. rest
40: _______, the invention was perfect, but it didn’t sell very well.
A. Technically B. Technologically C. Politically D. Practically
41: To decorate my room, I ______.the help of my roomate.
A. drafted B. engaged C. recruited D. enlisted
42: I don't think anyone understood what I was saying at the meeting, did they? I totally failed to get my point
______.
A. around B. along C. across D. about
43: This fruit has been in the fridge for over three weeks! It is all ________.
A. sour B. mouldy C. rotten D. bitter
44: If someone is down to earth, he is very________
A. practical B. sad C. shy D. strange
45: I tried to talk to her, but she was as high as a________
A. sky B. house C. wall D. kite
46: We don't seem to have any more of that book, Sir. It is out of ___ but we are getting a new delivery next Thursday
if you would like to pop back then.
A. stock B. order C. print D. shop
47: Cable TV revolutionized communications; ______, the very existence of that service is now threatened by
satellites.
A. consequently B. for example C. nevertheless D. moreover
48: Now I am unemployed, I have too much time _______ and don't know what to do with myself.
A. in my hands B. in hand C. to hand D. on my hands
49: - "What do you think of football?" - "_______"
A. I am crazy about it. B. Of course, football players are excellent
C. Well, it's beyond my expectation D. It's none of my business.
50: As coal mines became deeper, the problems of draining water, bringing in fresh air, and ______ to the surface
increased.
A. how ore is transported B. transporting ore
C. ore is transporting D. to transport ore
51: ______ is one of the many factors involved in changing farming methods.
A. Each climate B. A climate C. Climates D. The climate
52: There is no chance of you getting the promotion after only two months working here, ___ the great work you
have done.
A. presuming B. notwithstanding C. nevertheless D. regardless
53: Are you thinking of flying business class?" "______"
A. I'm flying there to attend a party. B. No, I'm just on business.
C. No, I'd like an aisle seat. D. No, economy.
54: On the battle field .
A. lied the tanks B. did the tanks lie C. the tanks lay D. lay the tanks
55: The team threw on all their substitutes in the last five minutes, all to no ___ as they lost the game narrowly by
three points.
A. use B. gain C. avail D. benefit
56: _______ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On my part B. On the whole C. On the contrary D. On the other hand
57: - "Do you mind if I use your phone?" - ".________."
A. Sorry. I have no idea B. Not at all. Help yourself C. Yes, certainly D. You can say that again
58: We took Bill ______ for a couple of months after the fire at his home. It was no trouble as we have the extra
bedroom up in the converted loft.
A. out B. off C. in D. up
Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions
59. He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. didn’t want to see B. didn’t show surprise C. wasn’t happy D. didn’t care
60. The notice should be put in the most conspicuous place so that all the students can be well-informed.
A. easily seen B. beautiful C. popular D. suspicious-
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer
208
 Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the realistic and the
formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute, terms. When used to suggest a tendency
toward either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in the end they are still just labels. Few films are exclusively
formalist in style, and fewer yet are completely realist. There is also an important difference between realism and
reality, although this distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a particular style, whereas physical reality is the source
of all the raw materials of film, both realistic and formalistic. Virtually all movie directors go to the photographable
world for their subject matter, but what they do with this material - how they shape and manipulate it - determines
their stylistic emphasis.
Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a minimum of
distortion. In photographing objects and events, the filmmaker tries to suggest the copiousness of life itself. Both
realist and formalist film directors must select (and hence emphasize) certain details from the chaotic sprawl of
reality. But the element of selectivity in realistic films is less obvious. Realists, in short, try to preserve the illusion
that their film world is unmanipulated, an objective mirror of the actual world. Formalists, on the other hand, make
no such pretense. They deliberately stylize and distort their raw materials so that only the very naive would mistake
a manipulated image of an object or event for the real thing.
We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self-effacing. Some filmmakers are more
concerned with what is being shown than how it is manipulated. The camera is used conservatively. It is essentially
a recording mechanism that reproduces the surface of tangible objects with as little commentary as possible. A high
premium is placed on simplicity, spontaneity, and directness. This is not to suggest that these movies lack artistry,
however, for at its best the realistic cinema specializes in art that conceals art.
61. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Acting styles B. Film plots C. Styles of filmmaking D. Filmmaking
100 years ago
62. With which of the following statements would theauthor be most likely to agree?
A. Realism and formalism are outdated terms.
B. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic.
C. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones.
D. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones.
63. Whom does the author say is primarily responsible for the style of a film?
A. The director B. The actors C. The producer D. The camera operator
64. The word "shape" in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. specify B. form C. understand D. achieve
65. The word "preserve" in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. encourage B. maintain C. reflect D. attain
66. The word “They” in line 12 refers to
A. films B. realists C. formalists D. raw materials
67. How can one recognize the formalist style?
A. It uses familiar images. B. It is very impersonal.
C. It obviously manipulates images. D. It mirrors the actual world.
68. The word "tangible" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
A. concrete B. complex C. various D. comprehensible
69. Which of the following terms is NOT used to describe realism in filmmaking?
A. Simple B. Spontaneous C. Self-effacing D. Exaggerated
70. Which of the following films would most likely use a realist style?
A. A travel documentary B. A science fiction film
C. A musical drama D. An animated cartoon---------------------------------------
Choose the underlined part that needs correcting.
71. James was worried that he was the last person to submit the physical assignment but he was actually the second.
A B C D
72. Today it seems hardly credible, but Los Angeles grew as it did because in its early days it had a highly
advanced public transporting system. A B
C
D
73. After the social science lecture all students are invited to take part in a discussion of the issues which were
risen in the talk.
A B C
D
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74. A football match begins with the ball kicking forwards from a spot in the centre of the field.
A B C D
75. They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them some challenges.
A B C D
Choose the correct sentence which is closest in meaning to each of the ones given before.
76. It’s your duty to finish your homework before you go to school.
A. You were supposed to finish your homework before you go to school.
B. Your homework is supposed to be finished before going to school.
C. That your homework is finished before you go to school is your duty.
D. Your duty finishing your homework before you go to school is necessary.
77. "You didn’t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I got home!" the woman told her
son.
A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.
B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that she saw the keys on the table.
C. The woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.
D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing that she saw the keys on the
table.
78. When he was asked for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
A. When asking for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
B. On being asked for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
C. Being asked for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
D. The man appeared quite upset, asking for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
79: I think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now.
A. I should not have cooked so much food.
B. I regrets cooking too much food now.
C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now.
D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.
80. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
C. No one took notice of what the politician was saying last night.
D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 88
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as the leader
of a social group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of
the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although
there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or
recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of research have failed
to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural leaders.” It seems that there is no set of
personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the
person has qualities that meet the needs of that particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research suggests that
there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals. Instrumental leadership is
leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look into instrumental leaders
to “get things”done.” Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well-
being of a social group’s member. Expressive leader are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with
providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group
members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to
individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members. They give
orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate
a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences
difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues
that threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive
more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals,
may enjoy a mote distant respect
1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The problems faced by leaders B. The role of leaders in social groups
C. How leadership differs in small and large groups D. How social groups determine who will lead them
2: The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders EXCEPT____.
A. recruitment B. formal election process
C. traditional cultural patterns D. specific leadership training
3: In mentioning “natural leaders” in lines 7-8, the author is making the point that_______.
A. there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist B. few people qualify as “natural leaders”
C. “natural leaders’ are easily accepted by the members of a social group
D. “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics
4: Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
A. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
B. A person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.
C. Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
D. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in another group.
5:The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on_______.
A. ensuring harmonious relationships B. achieving a goal
C. sharing responsibility with group members D. identifying new leaders
6: The word “collective” in line 15 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. necessary B. typical C. particular D. group
7:The word “them” in line 18 refers to_______.
A. expressive leaders B. group members C. goals of the group D. tension and conflict
8: A “secondary relationship” mentioned in line 20 between a leader and the members of a group could best be
characterized as_______. A. enthusiastic B. distant C. unreliable D.
personal
9: The word “resolve” in line 24 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. find a solution for B. talk about C. avoid thinking about D. avoid repeating
10: Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in term of_______.
A. examples that illustrate a problem B. comparison and contrast C. narration of events D. cause and
effect analysis
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
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 PAPER
Paper is everywhere. We use it for homework, money, checks, books, letters, wallpaper, and greeting cards. We
have paper towels, napkins plates, cups, and tissues. We print the news every day on newspaper. Our history and
knowledge is written on paper. Without paper, our lives would be completely different.
From the very beginning of time, people have tried to record their thoughts and lives. The earliest humans drew
pictures on cave walls. Later, people used large pieces of clay to write on. Almost 5,000 years ago, the Egyptians
wrote on pieces of plants called papyrus. Papyrus was used throughout the ancient world of the Mediterranean for
thousands of years. Eventually it was replaced by parchment. Parchment was made from animal skins. It was
stronger and lasted longer than any other material.
The Chinese made the first real paper in the year A.D. 105. They mixed tree bark and small pieces of old cloth
with water. They used a screen to remove the thin, wet piece of paper. Then they let the paper dry in the sun. The
Chinese kept papermaking a secret until after 751, in that year there was a war between the Chinese and the Muslims.
Many Chinese papermakers were taken away from China to live in Muslim countries. The art of papermaking soon
spread throughout the Muslim world. Finally, by the end of the twelfth century, papermaking reached Europe. The
first paper made in Europe was in Spain in 1151.
The first important improvement on the Chinese method of papermaking was in France in 1798. A man named
Nicholas Louis Robert invented a machine for making paper. His machine could make paper much faster than one
person could by hand. However, his machine was not very successful. About ten years later an Englishman improved
on Robert’s machine and began producing paper.
The most important improvement in papermaking also happened in France. A scientist observed a wasp making its
nest. The wasp chewed up pieces of wood, mixed it with the chemicals in its mouth, and made a paper nest. The
scientist realized that people could make paper from wood, too. Finally, a machine was invented for grinding wood
into pulp to use for making paper. Today, the principal ingredient in paper is wood pulp. It is made by machine. There
are also other kinds of paper made from rice, wheat, cotton, corn, and other plants. Paper from wood pulp is the most
common. Canada and the United States are the world leaders in paper production, due in part to the quantity, of wood
that is available in the forests of these two countries.
Because paper is made of wood, many people are becoming concerned that too many trees are being chopped
down every year in order to produce paper. Trees are an important part of the environment. As a result, many
companies that produce paper are using old paper instead of new wood pulp to make paper. This method of using
old products again instead of simply throwing them away is called recycling. Recycling paper helps reduce the
number of trees that are used every year. Many people also try to use less paper in their daily lives. They use both
sides of a sheet of paper instead of just one. They use cloth handkerchiefs instead of paper tissues. There are also
special containers in many schools and public places where people can put used paper instead of throwing it into the
garbage can. Then this paper is collected to be recycled.
Whether we use a little or a lot, paper has an important place in our lives. The books we read and write are made
of paper. Our history and scientific inventions have all been recorded on paper. This, however, is changing. Other
methods of storing information are becoming common. Computers can store an enormous amount of information in
a much smaller space. Computer faxes, electronic mail, and the Internet are only three examples of technology that
have replaced paper, Who knows, perhaps one day people will not use paper to write at all!
11: Papyrus was _______.
A. a kind of paper made from a plant. B. made by ancient Egyptians.
C. a kind of plant that ancient Egyptians wrote on. D. a special kind of clay.
12: The Chinese kept papermaking a secret _______.
A. because they were afraid of the Muslims B. so that they could keep exporting paper to the Muslim
world
C. until the Muslims found out about the special tree bark D. for more than 6 centuries
13:The Chinese method of papermaking was first improved by _______.
A. a papermaking machine B. an Englishman C. Nicholas Louis Robert D. employing people with faster
hands
14: The United States and Canada _______.
A. import most of the paper they need B. have the largest forests in the world
C. consume most of the paper they produce D. are the biggest producers of paper
15:What is the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. Paper and computers play the same role in our lives. B. New technology that helps recycling paper.
C. Paper is an important part of our life, but technology is changing this fast.
D. Those who know how to use a computer don’t need paper at all.
16: In order to record their thoughts and lives, the earliest humans _______.
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A. drew pictures on cave walls. B. wrote on cave walls. C. invented a system of writing. D found
a way to make paper.
17:Parchment was used to write on because _______.
A. it was stronger and lasted longer than papyrus. B. the plant it was made from died out.
C. it could be made into slabs of clay. D. there were a lot of animals.
18:The Chinese secret of papermaking was discovered _______.
A. by some Muslims who went to live among the Chinese B. as a result of a war between the Chinese and the
Muslims
C. by the Spanish in the 12th century D. because the Chinese let the paper dry in the Sun
19: Paper was first made from wood pulp _______.
A. in France B. by a wasp C. by a machine D. by a scientist
20:Some people think that producing a lot of paper is not good because ____.
A. papermaking factories are polluting the environment B. a lot of trees have to be chopped down for wood
pulp
C. recycling old paper is expensive D. there is not enough land to plant trees for wood pulp
Choose the underlined part that needs correction.
21: The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from Earth without a telescope.
A B C D
22: The major goals of primary education is to achieve basic literacy and numeracy among all students.
A B C D
23: I passed my exam last summer, but my friend has just failed her.
A B C D
24: It is primary education that establishes foundations in science geography, history, as well other social sciences
for
A B C D
young students.
25: This recipe, is an old family secret, is an especially important part of our holiday celebrations.
A B C D
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
26. A. collapse B. volcano C. festival D. appliance
27. A. forest B. disaster C. carriage D. furniture
28. A. agricultural B. mausoleum C. correspond D. compulsory
29. A. fashionable B. convenient C. traditional D. minorities
30. A. academic B. reputation C. experience D. intermediate
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks
A DAY IN YOUR LIFE – IN THE YEAR 2020
What are two ways that technology will probably change your life in the next 20-25 years?
People used to know more or less how their children would live. Now things are changing so quickly that we
don't even know what our own lives will be (31) ___ in a few years. What allows is not science fiction. It's how
experts see the future.
You're daydreaming behind the wheel of your car, but that's OK. You have it on automatic pilot, and with its
high-tech computers and cameras, your car "knows" (32) ___ you home safely.
You're hungry, so you head for the kitchen as soon as you get home. You ordered groceries by computer an hour
ago, and you know that by now they (33) __. Your kitchen has a two-door refrigerator, (34)_ opens to the outside to
accept deliveries. You've already paid for the food by having the money (35)__ from your bank account. Nobody
uses cash any more.
What's for lunch? In the old days, you used to stop off to buy a hamburger or pizza. Now you use your
diagnostic machine to find out which foods your body (36) _______. You find out you need more vegetables and
less fat. Your food-preparation machine (37)______ you a salad.
After lunch, you go down the hall to your home office. Here you have everything you need for doing your
work. Thanks to your information screen and your new computer, you (38) _______ never go into the office any
more.
The information screen shows an urgent message from a co-worker in Brazil. You set the screen to translate
Portuguese (39) __________ English. As you wait, you think about later, then you'll have a movie (40) ________
what a movie should you order tonight?

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31: A. like B. as C. alike D. about
32: A. to get B. get C. how to get D. what to get
33:.A. are arriving B. arrive
C. will arrive D. have arrived
34: A. which B. that C. what D. and
35: A. added B. counted C. subtracted D. reduced
36:. A. eats B. prefers C. needs D. finds
37: A. does B. makes C. works D. feed
38: A. almost B. hardly C. most D.
mostly
39: A. onto B. in C. into D. from
40: A. transmitted B. order
C. broadcast D. transmit

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Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
41: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior. The word bewildered is closest in
meaning to
A. upset B. puzzled C. disgusted D. angry
42:Some wild animals are in danger in this region. The phrase in danger is closest in meaning to
A. dangerous B. likely to cause harm C. likely to be extinct D. predators
43:We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
Which of the following word has the opposite meaning to the word secure?
A. unsure B. uninterested C. slow D. open
44:The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded
soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war. Which of the following word has the opposite meaning to the word
sufferings
A. happiness B. pain and sorrow C. loss D. worry and sadness
45:Jack: “Hi, Tom. What’s going on?” Tom: “ Nothing special, Jack. ____ with you?”
A. What’s up B. Have you got something C. Nothing new D. Not much
46:Don’t lie! You ____ their phone ringing. They haven’t got a phone.
A. can’t hear B. couldn’t have heard C. haven’t heard D. had not heard
47: Frank: “ Do you know how old I am?” Daisy: “_____.”
A. I couldn’t help it B. Happy birthday C. Don’t mention it D. I haven’t a clue
48: It’s difficult for a sloppy person to live with a ___.
A. perfect B. perfection C. perfectionism D. perfectionist
49:Up ____, and the people cheered.
A. went the balloon B. does the balloon go C. did the balloon go D. goes the balloon
50: It may be wonderful to own a big, old house, but think of the ___.
A. upkeep B. keep-up C. keep-on D. keep-out
51: Learning English isn’t so difficult; once you ____.
A. get down to it B. get off it C. get on it D. get down with it
52: “I’m sorry I couldn’t come to your party last night.” “ _____.”
A. That’s all right B. Excuse me C. You’re welcome D. Don’t mention it
53:. _____, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was B. Despite the homework was difficult
C. Thanks to the difficult homework D. As though the homework was difficult
54: You’re quite right, of course, but ____ you needn’t have been so rude about it.
A. at once time B. from time to time C. at the same time D. at times
55: ______ had the restaurant opened ____ people were flocking to eat there.
A. Hardly …than B. No sooner…when C. No sooner … than D. Hardly …. that
56:The other driver failed to signal his ____ to turn right so I had to brake suddenly.
A. purpose B. idea C. intention D. design
57: “ What are you going to do next?” “ I wish I ____ the answer to that question.”
A. knew B. had known C. would know D. will know
58:There was ____ evidence to bring charges against the man.
A. insubstantial B. interior C. ineffective D. insufficient
59: What a ____!
A. new small nice car B. nice small new car C. new nice car, that is small D. car new nice and
small
60: His parents hostile attitude ___ him to leave home .
A. drove B. urged C. made D. suggested
61:. I recommend that the student ____ his composition as soon as possible.
A. finishes writing B. should finish the writing C. finish writing D. finished writing
62: Hearing-aid devices are very helpful for ________ are hard of hearing.
A. those B. those who C. people D. who
63: We should study hard ___________ our parents can be proud of us.
A. so as to B. in order that C. as that D. in order to
64: As soon as I ___________ my assignment, I'll show you how to solve that problem.

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 A. have finished B. will finish C. will have finished D. finished
65: Today many countries are trying to develop _________ energy sources.
A. sustainable B. natural C. damaging D. non-renewable
66: The company managed to __ its best workers and kept its rival from stealing them.
A. promote B. employ C. retain D. consider
67: The _______ of food during that long winter left many families in despair.
A. scarcity B. availability C. variety D. abundance
68: You ___________ smoke in here. It's against the rules.
A. shouldn't B. mightn't C. mustn't D. needn't
69: The new director is favorably _________ towards innovations.
A. disposed B. devoted C. dedicated D. discouraged
70:These teachers ________ to help their students understand simple things.
A. do an attempt B. make great efforts C. try a great effort D. put great efforts
71: To apply for the scholarship, the students are required to write a _________ essay about their future plans.
A. two-hundred-word B. two-pages C. double pages D. two hundred words
72:It was a ______ that the driver survived the crash. His car was completely damaged.
A. mystery B. miracle C. secret D. strange
73:Sharks acquire many sets of teeth _________ their lifetime.
A. over B. from C. during D. since
74: “Don’t fail to send your parents my regards.” – “______.”
A. You’re welcome B. Good idea, thanks C. Thanks, I will D. It’s my pleasure
75: John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” Laura: “______”
A. There’s no doubt about it. B. Well, that’s very surprising. C. Of course not. You bet! D. Yes, it’s an
absurd idea.
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following question
76:She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here.”
A. She made a trip round her city with John. B. She promised to show John round her city.
C. She planned to show John round her city. D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
77: There’s no point in persuading Jane to change her mind.
A. No one wants Jane to change her mind because it’s pointless. B. It’s possible for us to persuade Jane to change
her mind.
C. Jane will change her mind though she doesn’t want to. D. It’s useless to persuade Jane to change her mind
78:“Why don’t you reply to the President’s offer right now?” said Mary to her husband.
A. Mary suggested that her husband should reply to the President’s offer without delay.
B. Mary told her husband why he didn’t reply to the President’s offer then.
C. Mary ordered her husband to reply to the President’s offer right now.
D. Mary wondered why her husband didn’t reply to the President’s offer then.
79: If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies.
A. Because I had to do so much work, I couldn’t go to the movies. B. I would go to the movies when I had done so
much work.
C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies. D. I never go to the movies if I have work to
do.
80: Unlike her friends, Jane prefers an independent life.
A. Jane doesn't like her friends because she prefers an independent life.
B. Her friends live in an independent life and Jane doesn't like it.
C. Jane doesn't like her friends to live in a dependent life. D. Jane prefers an independent life but her friends do
not.

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 89
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
1: A. entrepreneur B. extracurricular C. autobiography D. disciplinary
2: A. elaborately B. flamingo C. embryo D. gazelle
3: A. e-book B. quick-witted C. in-depth D. white-collar
Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
4: A. markedly B. cooked C. punished D. laughed
5: A. recollect B. restore C. preface D. predator
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
6: ___________ giraffe is the tallest of all __________animals.
A. A/ ø B. ø/ the C. The/ ø D. A/ the
7: By the year 2050, many people currently employed __________ their jobs.
A. have lost B. will be losing C. will have lost D. are losing
8: He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his __________ when he meets the right girl.
A. shoe B. shell C. shed D. hole
9: She had just enough time to __________ the report before the meeting.
A. dip into B. get through C. turn round D. go into
10: We’d better phone __________ the restaurant to reserve a table.
A. at B. ø C. to D. for
11: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as_________.
A. a water fall B. a mirror C. a bell D. a lake
12: “What do you do for a living?” – “___________.”
A. I work in a bank B. I get a high salary, you know. C. I want to be a doctor, I guess D. It’s hard work, you
know.
13: Governments shoud __________ international laws against terrorism.
A. bring in B. bring up C. bring about D. bring back
14: The documentary was so __________ that many viewers cried.
A. touchy B. moody C. moved D. touching
15: Joe, remember that I’m __________ you to see that there’s no trouble at the party on Sunday.
A. relying on B. waiting for C. believing in D. depending on
16: Space travel seemed __________ but it has come true now.
A. unthinkable B. unable C. disbelievable D. disagreeable
17: In 1975, the successful space probe to __________ beginning to send information back to earth.
A. Venus it was B. Venus C. Venus was D. Venus the
18: A cooperative program between China and Germany on building Yangzhow, a famous ancient city, into a(n)
________ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. ecology-friendly B. friendly ecology C. friendly-ecological D. ecological-friendly
19: The city has __________ of young consumers who are sensitive to trends, and can, therefore, help industries
predict the potential risks and success of products.
A. a high tendency B. a high rate C. a high proportion D. a great level
20: He left the country __________ arrest if he returned.
A. with fear of B. under threat of C. with threat of D. in fear of
21: With competition from __________ the British coal industry is facing a serious ___________.
A. imports/ crisis B. imports/ crises C. import/ crisis D. import/ crises
22: Students can __________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures.
A. provide B. transmit C. read D. absorb
23: Some __________ back workers were working hard in the sunshine.
A. empty B. vacant C. bare D. naked
24: She brought three children up __________.
A. single-handedly B. single-minded C. single-mindedly D. single-handed
25: “Jane is really conscientious, isn’t she?” “Absolutely. ___________, she is very efficient”
A. What is more B. So C. All the same D. Still
26: “Excuse me. I’m your new neighbor. I just moved in.” “__________.”
A. Where to, sir? B. Sorry, I don’t know C. Oh, I don’t think so D. I’m afraid not

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27: I know you didn’t see me yesterday because I was in Hanoi. You __________ me.
A. may not have seen B. mustn’t have seen C. shouldn’t have seen D. can’t have seen
28: Simple sails were made from canvas __________ over a frame.
A. was stretched B. a stretch C. it was stretched D. stretched
29: -“I’m going out now.” - “__________ you happen to pass a chemist’s, would you get me some aspirins?”
A. Were B. Had C. Did D. Should
30: “Have you __________ this contract yet?” - “Not yet. I’ll try to read it this weekend.
A. looked up B. looked over C. looked into D. looked out
Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
What is meant by the term economic resources? In general, these are all the natural, man-made, and human
resources that go into the (31) _________of goods and services. Economic resources can be broken down into (32)
_________ general categories: property resource – land and capital, and human resources – labor and entrepreneurial
skills.
What do economists mean (33) __________land? Much more than the non-economist, land refers to all the
natural resources (34) ________ are usable in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil deposits,
and (35)__________ on. What about capital? Capital goods are all the man-made aids to producing, storing,
transporting, and distributing goods and (36) __________. Capital goods differ from consumer goods in that (37)
__________ satisfy wants directly, while the former do so indirectly by facilitating the production of consumer
goods. It should be noted that capital as defined here does not (38) ___________ to money. Money, as such,
produces nothing.
The term labor refers to the physical and mental talents of humans used to produce goods and services (with the
exception of a certain set of human talents, entrepreneurial skills, which will be considered separately because of
their special significance). Thus the services of a factory worker or an office worker, a ballet (39) ___________ or
an astronaut all fall (40) __________ the general heading of labor.
31: A. doing B. plant C. using D. production
32: A. some B. many C. two D. six
33: A. with B. calling C. using D. by
34: A. these B. they C. what D. that
35: A. such B. go C. come D. so
36: A. crops B. services C. machines D. money
37: A. the latter B. lately C. the latest D. later
38: A. speak B. refer C. come D. go
39: A. director B. dancer C. performance D. writer
40: A. from B. to C. under D. into
Choose the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word(s)
41: I used to meet him occasionally on Fifth Avenue.
A. in one occasion B. once in a while C. one time D. none is correct
42: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water heating and process heating.
A. increase B. sparing C. generation D. reformation
43: We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. the long day B. all long day C. day after day D. all day long
Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning to the underlined word(s)
44: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding to B. holding back C. holding at D. holding by
45: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. married C. single D. separated
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
46: Some of the agricultural (A) practices (B) used today (C) is responsible for (D) fostering desertification.
47: A 1971 U.S (A) government policy not only put (B) warnings on cigarette packs but also (C) ban television (D)
advertising of cigarettes.
48: Snapping turtles are (A) easily recognized (B) because of the large head, the long tail and the shell that seems
(C) unsufficiently (D) to protect the body.
49: In the 1920s, Tulsa had a (A) higher number of (B) millionaire than any (C) other U.S. (D) city.

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50: Because of (A) its ability to survive (B) close to human habitations, the Virginia deer (C) has actually increased
(D) their range and numbers.
Read the following passage and choose the answer to each of the questions
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the
Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal
waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves,
far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for
example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of
waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis
have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near
the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the
Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes
tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come
with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however,
originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel
and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami,
when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast
and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of
the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters
high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was
witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
51: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses
A. tides B. storm surges C. tidal waves D. underwater earthquakes
52: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides B. this terminology is not used by the scientific
community
C. they are the same as tsunamis D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea
waves
53: The word “displaced” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. not pleased B. located C. moved D. filtered
54: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean D. cause severe damage in the middle of the
ocean
55: In line 10, water that is “shallow” is NOT
A. deep B. coastal C. tidal D. clear
56: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
57: The possessive “their” in line 18 refers to
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. these tsunamis C. thousands of miles D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
58: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 20, is one that is
A. disastrous B. expected C. extremely calm D. at fault
59: From the expression “on record” in line 22, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano
A. was filmed as it was happening B. occurred before efficient records were kept
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
60: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands B. resulted in little damage
C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away D. caused volcanic explosions in the English
Channel
Read the following passage and choose the answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.

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 Esperanto is what is called a planned, or artificial, language. It was created more than a century ago by Polish
eye doctor Ludwik Lazar Zamenhof. Zamenhof believed that a common language would help to alleviate some of
the misunderstandings among cultures.
In Zamenhof’s first attempt at a universal language, he tried to create a language that was as uncomplicated as
possible. This first language included words such as ab, ac, ba, eb, be, and ce. This did not result in a workable
language in that these monosyllabic words, though short, were not easy to understand or to retain.
Next, Zamenhof tried a different way of constructing a simplified language. He made the words in his language
sound like words that people already knew, but he simplified the grammar tremendously. One example of how he
simplified the language can be seen in the suffixes: all nouns in this language end in o, as in the noun amiko, which
means “friend”, and all adjectives end in -a, as in the adjective bela, which means “pretty”. Another example of the
simplified language can be seen in the prefix mal-, which makes a word opposite in meaning; the word malamiko
therefore means “enemy”, and the word malbela therefore means “ugly” in Zamenhof’s language.
In 1887, Zamenhof wrote a description of this language and published it. He used a pen name, Dr. Esperanto, when
signing the book. He selected the name Esperanto because this word means “a person who hopes” in his language.
Esperanto clubs began popping up throughout Europe, and by 1950, Esperanto had spread from Europe to America and
Asia.
In 1905, the First World Congress of Esperanto took place in France, with approximately700 attendees from 20
different countries. Congresses were held annually for nine years, and 4,000 attendees were registered for the Tenth
World Esperanto Congress scheduled for 1914, when World War I erupted and forced its cancellation.
Esperanto has had its ups and downs in the period since World War I. Today, years after it was introduced, it is
estimated that perhaps a quarter of a million people are fluent in it. This may seem like a large number, but it is
really quite small when compared with the billion English speakers and billion Mandarin Chinese speakers in today’s
world. Current advocates would like to see its use grow considerably and are taking steps to try to make this happen.
61: The topic of this passage is
A. a language developed in the last few years B. one man’s efforts to create a universal language
C. using language to communicate internationally D. how language can be improve
62: According to the passage, Zamenhof wanted to create a universal language
A. to provide a more complex language B. to create one world culture
C. to resolve cultural differences D. to build a name for himself
63: It can be inferred from the passage that the Esperanto word malespera means
A. hopelessness B. hopeless C. hope D. hopeful
64: The expression “popping up” in line 17 could best be replaced by
A. hiding B. shouting C. leaping D. opening
65: It can be inferred from the passage that the Third World Congress of Esperanto took place
A. in 1909 B. in 1907 C. in 1913 D. in 1905
66: According to the passage, what happened to the Tenth World Esperanto Congress?
A. It was scheduled for 1915 B. It had attendees from20 countries C. It never took place D. It had 4,000
attendees
67: The expression “ups and downs” in line 23 is closest in meaning to
A. takeoffs and landings B. floors and ceilings C. highs and lows D. tops and bottoms
68: Which paragraph describes the predecessor to Esperanto?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
69: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. applied linguistics B. European history C. English grammar D. world government
70: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses
A. another of Zamenhof’s accomplishments B. attempts to reconvene the World Congress of Esperanto in the
1920s
C. the disadvantages of using an artificial language D. how current supporters of Esperanto are encouraging its
growth
Choose the sentence that is correct and closest in meaning to each of the following sentences
71: There are two interesting things I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry in addition to the general theme of death and
dying.
A. The general theme of death and dying is the most interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry.
B. In The Last Leaf by O. Henry two interesting things about death and dying are additional themes I found.

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 C. The general theme of death and dying is what I found interesting in The Last Leaf by O. Henry besides the
other two things.
D. The general theme of death and dying is one interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry.
72: Some scientists think that a meteor impact, which occurred around 65 million years ago, may have caused the
extinction of the dinasaurs.
A. Some scientists reckon that the impact of a meteor that struck Earth some 65 million years ago need not have
caused the extinction of the dinosaurs.
B. In the opinion of some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs could have been the result of the impact of a
meteor which occurred roughly 65 million years ago.
C. According to some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by a meteor that struck Earth 65
million or so years ago.
D. The extinction of the dinosaurs could only have been caused by a meteor impact that occurred some 65
million years ago.
73: Although it is not a threat to humans, the Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture.
A. The Bespectacled Bear is killed although it is neither a threat to humans nor damage to agriculture.
B. The Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture and is a threat to humans.
C. People kill the Bespectacled Bear because of its damage to agriculture even though it is not a threat to humans.
D. As a threat to human and damage to agriculture, the Bespectacled Bear is killed.
74: When he asked which one I wanted, I said I didn’t mind.
A. He wanted me to choose for him and I agreed to do so.
B. He said I could choose between them, but I said it didn’t matter to me.
C. It was up to me to choose between them, but I really didn’t want to.
D. I would have done the choosing if they had asked me to.
75: Many have said that if he had not needed the money as a writer, he would have had the freedom to explore his
potential.
A. It has been said that without his need for money as a writer, he would have explored the freedom of his potential.
B. Many have said that it was the need for money that made him explore his potential.
C. Many have said that he needed money as a writer more than his freedom to explore his potential.
D. It has been said that because he needed the money as a writer, he didn’t have the freedom to explore his potential.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet that best completes each sentence from 76 to 80.
76: ___________ that hunted other animals tended to have very narrow, sharp, curved claws.
A. For dinosaurs B. Like dinosaurs C. Dinosaurs are known D. Dinosaurs
77: For more than a decade, ___________ that certain species are becoming scarce.
A. a warning for bird-watchers B. warn the bird-watcher
C. the warnings of bird-watchers D. bird-watchers have warned
78: Manufacturers can help conserve mineral and timber supplies ___________.
A. recycling materials which left over from production processes
B. that recycles materials being left over from production processes
C. which recycling materials left over from production processes
D. by recycling materials left over from production processes
79: ____ at the Isthmus of Panama, so animals were able to migrate between North and South America.
A. With a land bridge B. A land bridge C. A land bridge existed D. When a land bridge existed
80: Only for a short period of time __________ run at top speed.
A. can B. cheetahs C. that a cheetah can D. do cheetahs

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 90
Read the following passage and indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
Next on our trip around the beauties of Greece we take a look at Thrace and Samothrace. Thrace (Thraki) is (1) ___
in the north-eastern corner of Greece. It is a special place with a very rich history and has been (2) ___ untouched
by the tourist explosion. The lakes and wetlands of Thrace are (3) ___ the most important in Europe, with perhaps
more than three hundred (4) ___ species of birds. More than 200,000 wild waterbirds spend their winters here. (5)
___ Thrace from Kavala, the visitor finds scenic Xanthi, the capital of the district of the (6) ___ name. It is built on
the site of the ancient Xantheia and is proud of the many old houses and mansions which are prime examples of (7)
___ architecture. (8) ___ to the north-east is scenic Komotini, the capital of the district of Rodopi. Parts of the area,
which (9) ___ from pre-Christian times to the Byzantine era, are of special (10) ___. Finds from all the archeological
sites in Thrace are displayed in the Komotini Museum.
1 A. populated B. placed C. situated D. occupied
2 A. very B. much C. little D. almost
3 A. among B. being C. through D. some
4 A. covered B. protected C. safe D. cared
5 A. Arriving B. Entrance C. Coming D. Entering
6 A. constant B. same C. like D. equal
7 A. local B. close C. nearby D. neighborhood
8 A. Additional B. Besides C. Extra D. Further
9 A. date B. age C. time D. begin
10 A. attention B. knowledge C. interest D. concentration
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions.
Alcoholics Anonymous
Alcoholics Anonymous, or A.A., was founded by two friends who were themselves alcoholics. Bill Wilson was a
stockbroker from New York City, and Dr. Robert Smith was a surgeon from Ohio. [1] When the two met in May,
1935, Wilson had already been sober for several months, after years of struggling with his drinking. He shared with
Smith three important aspects that he had learned about alcoholism. The first was that alcoholism is not a moral
weakness, or a lack of willpower. A New York specialist, Dr. William Duncan Silkworth had taught Wilson that it
was more like a disease than a sin. Alcoholism, he said, is comparable to allergies, in that it produces abnormal
reactions to alcohol that do not afflict non-alcoholics.
These include the intense craving for alcohol that makes it so hard for an alcoholic to stop drinking, once he or she
has started. Second, alcoholics develop an obsession that leads them to begin drinking again even after long
periods of sobriety, even knowing that the powerful cravings would return. These facts explained the
enormous rate of relapse among “reformed” alcoholics. [2]
The third of Wilson’s discoveries is that recovery is possible through a spiritual transformation. He first learned of
this approach through a friend who told him the story of Rowland H. Roland H. was an alcoholic who had undergone
treatment with the famous Swiss psychologist Carl Jung. After a prolonged period of therapy that produced no
results, Jung told Rowland that his case, like that of most alcoholics, was almost hopeless. Rowland had only one
chance: a spiritual conversion experience. According to Jung, virtually every successful alcoholic recovery was due
to a spiritual transformation. Heeding Jung’s advice, Rowland became a member of the Oxford Group, a Christian
movement that advocated finding God through moral selfexamination, confession of faults, reliance upon God, and
helping others. [3] Rowland’s story suggested that such a spiritual conversion could cure an alcoholic of the
obsession that kept sending him or her back to drinking. Also, Wilson told Smith he had found that simply talking
to other alcoholics about his personal
struggle with drinking seemed to be very beneficial.
The two men decided together to put these ideas into practice. Smith’s last drinking is thought to have been on June
10, 1935, and that is still considered to be the date of A.A.’s founding. In 1939 they published their book Alcoholics
Anonymous, which is still in print and remains a bestseller. [4] There are now more than 100,000 A.A. groups in
150 countries, with a total membership of about two million people.
11 Which of the following best describes the passage?
A. An explanation the Alcoholics Anonymous program B. A history of the founding of Alcoholics
Anonymous
C. Short biographies of the two men who founded Alcoholics Anonymous
D. A discussion of the origin and symptoms of alcoholism

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12 Which is the best place for the following sentence? “The growth of the organization has been phenomenal.”
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
13 Which of the following is true?
A. Wilson stopped drinking before Smith did. B. Smith told Wilson several important things he had
learned.
C. Smith and Wilson believed that alcoholism was a moral weakness.
D. Wilson learned from Carl Jung that alcoholism was a disease.
14 According to paragraph 2, there is a high rate of relapse among alcoholics because
A. most of them do not have enough willpower to stop drinking. B. they have abnormal reactions to
alcohol.
C. they have an allergy to alcohol that cannot be cured. D. most of them do not really wish to
stop drinking.
15 It can be inferred from the passage that
A. Rowland H. failed to quit drinking.
B. spiritual conversion is an important part of the Alcoholics Anonymous program.
C. Rowland H. convinced Smith to stop drinking. D. joining Alcoholics Anonymous is the only way to cure
alcoholism.
16 The word “comparable” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
A. similar B. identical C. relevant D. related
17 The word “advocated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. developed B. encouraged C. questioned D. tried
18 Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 2 in
the passage (“Second … “reformed” alcoholics”)?
A. After long periods without alcohol, most alcoholics experience intense cravings.
B. Even long after they’ve stopped, many alcoholics begin drinking again because of their obsession with alcohol.
C. Because they begin drinking again after years of sobriety, alcoholics may become obsessed with alcohol.
D. Powerful cravings cause an obsession with alcohol that makes it very difficult to give up drinking.
19 What does the author discuss Rowland H. in paragraph 3?
A. To explain how Wilson learned about the spiritual conversion approach
B. To give an example of one of Alcoholics Anonymous’s early successes
C. To contrast his story with that of Wilson D. To show that most cases of alcoholism are hopeless
20 Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?
Choose the sentences (1 – 7) with the most important information.
1. Wilson told Smith how a doctor had taught him that alcoholism was a disease of abnormal reactions to alcohol.
2. Rowland H.’s case seemed almost hopeless until he joined the Oxford Group, a Christian organization.
3. Wilson and Smith used these ideas to write a book and found an organization that now has a large membership.
4. The story of A.A. began with the first meeting of Bill Wilson, a reformed alcoholic, and Dr. Robert Smith, who was
still drinking.
5. Smith and Wilson founded Alcoholics Anonymous in 1935 and published their book in 1939.
6. Wilson also told Smith the story of Rowland H., who had treated his alcoholism through a spiritual conversion.
7. Wilson learned from Dr. William Silkworth that alcoholism was not only a matter of willpower.
A. 1, 2, 5, 6 B. 2, 3, 4, 7 C. 1, 3, 5, 7 D. 1, 3, 4, 6
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions.
Choosing a career
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an
opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to
thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career,
and moving from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every
aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing
your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find
most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as, “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children?
Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is
important to you.

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Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. [1]
Then rank them in order of importance to you. [2] The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may
not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diverse occupations – building inspector, surveyor, and real estate
agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographic location may be a concern, and
employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. For example, aerospace jobs in the U.S. are most
plentiful in California, Texas, and Washington. Advertising jobs can generally be found in large cities. On the other
hand, many industries such as hospitality, law, education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.
[3] If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance
sales, offer relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience,
additional training, promotions, and commission. [4] Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it.
Some industries evoke positive or negative associations: The travelling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous,
while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have
merits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can
be as highly paid as some doctors another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new
interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final
one.
21 The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
22 The author states in paragraph 2 “there are no right or wrong answers” in order to
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult
process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
23 According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is not suitable for a person who does not want to live in a
big city?
A. Plumbing B. Law C. Retail sales D. Advertising
24 According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. If you want to make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. If you want to make a lot of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming a flight attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
25 It can be inferred from the passage that
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B. insurance salespeople can earn high salaries later in
their careers.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
26 Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 1? (“Investing …
right one”)
A. Leaving an unsatisfying job is an opportunity to find a rewarding career.
B. Most people have unsatisfying careers because they failed to examine their options thoroughly.
C. If you don’t take the time to think carefully about your choices, you may never find the right career.
D. Choosing a career takes a great deal of effort, and you may not make the right choice the first time.
27 In last paragraph, the author suggests that
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably be
less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably be jobless at some time in the
future.
28 Which is the best place for the following sentence? “Consider your financial goals.” A. [1] B. [2] C.
[3] D. [4]
29 The word “evoke” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. bring to mind B. be related to C. be different from D. agree on
30 Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 5?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perceptions.
C. To show that people must be willing to work hard for the career they’ve chosen.

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D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
Indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
31 A. conversation B. introduce C. romantic D. parallelogram
32 A. safeguard B. precede C. serial D. packet
33 A. artificial B. inhabitant C. mausoleum D. integration
34 A. acquaintance B. ambassador C. stagnant D. prohibit
35 A. convenience B. mechanic C. preference D. official
Show the underlined part that needs correction.
36 Average (A) world temperatures have risen (B) on half a (C) degree Celsius (D) since the mid-nineteenth
century.
37 Dimness of light (A) will not harm the eyes (B) any more than (C) taking a photograph in (D) dimly light can harm a
camera.
38 The early (A) periods of aviation in the United States was marked by (B) exhibition flights made by (C)
individual fliers or by (D) teams of performers at county fairs.
39 John’s wisdom teeth (A) were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon (B) to see (C) about having (D)
them pull.
40 It was (A) near end of (B) prehistoric times (C) that the first (D) wheeled vehicles appeared.
Indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
41 Please don’t ask her to the party.
A. I’d rather you didn’t invite her to the party. B. I’d rather not ask her to the party.
C. Please don’t ask her about the party. D. You ask her to the party, don’t you?
42 “If you don’t pay the ransom, we’ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.
A. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
B. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.
C. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if you refused to pay the ransom.
43 There will be no change to the policy before everyone has voted the proposal.
A. Without any change to the policy, everyone would not have voted the proposal.
B. After the proposal has been voted, the policy will not be changed.
C. Not until everyone has voted on the proposal will there be a change in policy.
D. There will be no policy to change and no proposal to vote.
44 Few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
A. Quite a few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
B. Not many people realized that he played an important part in the company.
C. Many people realized his important role in the company.
D. He was realized as an important role in the company by a few people.
45 I couldn’t understand what I was reading.
A. I couldn’t make sense of what I was reading. B. What I was reading was difficult for me to know.
C. I misunderstood of what I was reading. D. Understanding what I was reading was nonsense.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet that best completes each sentence.
46 His English teacher recommends that _____
A. he will begin a regular degree program. B. he is beginning a regular degree program.
C. he begins a regular degree program. D. he begin a regular degree program.
47 Having been served lunch, _____
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee. B. the committee members discussed
the problem.
C. it was discussed by the committee members about the problem.
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
48 _____ about genetic diseases has increased is welcome news.
A. That scientific knowledge B. It was scientific knowledge C. Though scientific knowledge D.
Scientific knowledge
49 _____ I admire you, I think you are silly. A. Much as B. Now that C. As long as D. In case
50 _____, dahlias are stocky plants with showy flowers that come in a wide range of colors.

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A. Comprising 20 species and many cultivated forms B. When they comprise 20 species and many
cultivated forms
C. If comprising 20 species many cultivated forms D. They are comprised 20 species and many cultivated forms
Indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
51 _____ the weather forecast had predicted that skies would remain clear and sunny, it rained throughout the day.
A. Instead of B. According to C. Due to D. Even though
52 John has come _____ some good suggestions for raising the money we need.
A. up with B. on to C. round to D. across with
53 _____ discounted airline tickets may seem attractive, but they have some restrictions.
A. Heavily B. Busily C. Safely D. Solely
54 Prices quoted in this package include _____ hours of Internet access for one month.
A. unwarranted B. uncontrolled C. unlimited D. unrecoverable
55 The decimal numeral system is one of the _____ ways of expressing numbers.
A. useful most world’s B. world’s most useful C. useful world’s most D. most world’s useful
56 Nebraska has floods in some years, _____.
A. in others drought B. droughts are others C. while other droughts D. others in drought
57 Salt is manufactured in quantities that exceed those of most, _____, other commercial chemicals.
A. of all not B. not if all are C. are not all D. if not all
58 The air inside a house or office building has higher concentration of contaminants ___ heavily polluted outside
air.
A. than does B. more C. as some that are D. like of
59 Their first product is a _____. A. small hand-painted china vase B. hand-painted small china
vase
C. china small hand-painted vase D. small china hand-painted
vase
60 - “Do you know where John Smith is?” - “________.“
A. I’m sorry not to B. I regret, but no C. Pardon, I don’t know D. I’m afraid I don’t
61 - “How much do you earn a month, Jean?” - “I’d _________.”
A. rather don’t say B. better not to say C. rather not say D. prefer not say
62 - “Would you like another coffee?” - “________.”
A. I’d love one B. Willingly C. Very kind of your part D. It’s a pleasure
63 An accident of this magnitude could easily bring the factory’s production to a _____.
A. block B. quit C. stay D. halt
64 We are going to implement new standards in the assembly to _____ the requirements set by the government.
A. meet B. build C. serve D. face
65 My mother always told me that I should _____ the things I believe in, regardless of how others perceive them.
A. put up with B. get along with C. come up to D. stand up for
66 If you don’t get your full _____ of sleep, your work will begin to suffer.
A. extent B. quota C. degree D. ratio
67 Don’t you think she bears an _____ resemblance to his first wife?
A. identical B. uneasy C. uncanny D. indifferent
68. If you set your sights too high, you may fall flat on your _____.
A. back B. nose C. face D. mouth
69 I don’t mind wearing my big brother’s _____.
A. pick-me-ups B. turn-ups C. hand-me-downs D. keep-pace-withs
70 Our school _____ about 600 new students every year.
A. admits B. allows C. accepts D. gets
71 I would have paid _____ for my car if the salesman had insisted because I really liked it.
A. as much twice B. much twice C. twice as much D. two times
72 _____ all of his business dealings, he has been driven by his desire _____ wealth.
A. During – with B. Throughout – to C. In – for D. Over – beyond
73 Hardly _____ the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet.
A. he had entered B. had entered C. entered D. had he entered
74 He has made a mistake, and must face the _____. A. hardship B. music C. noise D. play

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75 Since the blind cannot use their eyes, they are taught to use the _____ of touch in their fingers.
A. feeling B. sensitivity C. sensation D. sense
Indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
76 The bread has become stale and I cannot swallow it.
A. gone away B. gone down C. gone up D. gone off
77 The quest for supercomputers is intensifying.
A. investment B. challenge C. search D. demand
78 Hotels were among the earliest facilities that bound the United States together.
A. led B. protected C. tied D. strengthened
Indicate the word or phrase that is opposite in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
79 She came for Christmas laden with gifts for everyone.
A. later B. provided C. unloaded D. lifted
80 In big cities, animals should be kept under control.
A. out of hand B. out of order C. out of dispute D. out of discipline

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 91
Read the following passage and indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
Getting to the root of Bonsai crime
Bonsai trees have always been a source of great fascination to people. They are perfect miniatures, grown in
pots small enough to sit on a windowsill. You have to keep reminding yourself that these trees are (1) _____ real
and identical to their larger cousins in all respects except their size. Rather like other small and perfectly-formed
artifacts, bonsai trees (2) _____ quite a high price in the marketplace and so it doesn’t come as a great surprise to
find that they also attractthe attention of thieves. It seems that quite a flourishing business has (3) _____, in which
they are stolen from the homes of growers and collectors, then repotted and trimmed by unscrupulous dealers, to be
sold on, at good prices, to unsuspectingbuyers.One of Britain’s top collectors of bonsai trees, Paul Widdington,
believes that he has found a solution, however. After losing his life’s work, (4) _____ at £250,000, when burglars
broke into his home one night, Paul decided to (5) _____ the possibilities of electronically tagging the trees he
bought as a replacement. This (6) _____ injecting a microchip the size of a (7) _____ of rice into the trunk of each
tree. Each chip is a laser-etched with information which is (8) _____ in a central register held by the police. Paul is
quite aware that this kind of data-tagging doesn’t prevent thieves from stealing the trees in the first (9) _____,
although it may increase the (10) _____ of getting them back. So he’s also installinga security alarm system,
complete with infra-red detectors, in his home.
1 A. deeply B. eventually C. actually D. greatly
2 A. obtain B. expect C. command D. charge
3 A. erupted B. evolved C. adapted D. arrived
4 A. prized B. treasured C. valued D. costed
5 A. look into B. set about C. try out D. go after
6 A. requires B. includes C. involves D. reflects
7 A. crumb B. speck C. bean D. grain
8 A. stored B. detained C. locked D. piled
9 A. turn B. time C. point D. place
10 A. counts B. chances C. choices D. claims
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions.
TELEVISION
An American TV network has had an international hit with the drama “24”, a thriller known for its suspense and
often graphic violence. Over the past year, controversy has surrounded the series because of its portrayal of Muslim
terrorists and its frequent scenes of torture. But the content of “24” is not the only thing that would have been
unthinkable of prime-time television 20 years ago. Its form also represents a major change in modern TV: during
each episode’s 44 minutes – a real-time hour, minus 16 minutes for commercials – the show connects the lives of
21 different characters, each with their own personalities and specific relationships with other characters. Nine
different story lines (or “threads”) are depicted, each involving events and information revealed in previous episodes.
[1)
[2] For years many people have assumed that popular culture is in a state of decline, rapidly degenerating into “junk
culture” with no worthwhile purpose. But an interesting new book challenges that assumption. “Everything Bad is
Good for You: How Today’s Popular Culture Is Actually Making Us Smarter,” by Steven Johnson, makes a
persuasive argument that today’s complex TV dramas and other pop culture products give us healthy mental
exercise. He calls the use of complex, interwoven plot lines involving multiple characters “multi-threading”, and it
is a new and growing phenomenon in TV. To keep up with shows like “24”, he points out, you must “pat attention,
make inferences, track shifting social relationships”, and these cognitive challenges are changing our mental
development for the better. [3]
[4] The most obvious change in the last five years of narrative entertainment is the rise of TV. Surely, you might be
thinking, watching “Survivor” or “The Bachelor” cannot possibly raise anyone’s IQ. “Survivor” is now in its tenth
season, and “The Bachelor” is in its seventh. But as Johnson tells us, lately “even the junk has improved.” The new
reality shows are like games: they are series of competitive tests, each more challenging than the last, and with rules
that be learned as you play On “Survivor”, for instance, the participants and the audience know the general objective
of the game, but each episode brings new challenges that require quick thinking. Success in these games calls for
the intellectual labor of finding the weak spots in the rules and in your opponents. This labor is done not just by the
stars of the shows, but the viewers at home as well. This is what makes these shows such fun to watch – the human

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 mind enjoys being challenged. As Johnson writes, “There’s real pleasure …..in solving puzzles, detecting patters or
understanding a complex drama system.”
11 What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The decline of TV today B. Benefits of TV today C. TV and culture D. Why “24” became I hot
12 Which is the best place for the following sentence?
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
13 The author begins the passage by discussing “24” in order to
A. prove that TV has become more violent C. explain why many TV shows nowadays are controversial
B. show how TV has become more complex D. argue against its graphic violence and portrayal of terrorist
14 It can be inferred that the author of the passage
A. agrees with Steven Johnson’s views C. has no opinion about Steven Johnson’s views
B. strongly disagrees Steven Johnson’s D. agrees with some of Johnson’s view but disagrees with others
views
15 According to the passage, Johnson’s book argues all following except that
A. popular culture is not in decline C. people enjoy the effort of understanding complex shows
B. many TV shows involve cognitive challenges D. hour-long drama bring the greatest benefits
16 “Multi-threading” in TV is a new type of
A. form B. content C. series D. character
17 The author mentions “junk culture” in paragraph 2 in order to
A. emphasize how worthless most TV shows are B. contrasts a common view of TV with the one he presents in
the passage
C. explain why TV viewing is in decline in the United States
D. argue against the view that popular culture can be worthwhile
18 The word “detecting” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. making B. admiring C. remembering D. finding
19 The word “objective” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. prize B. rule C. goal D. origin
20 Which ones of the following would be the best summary of the passage?
1. Even reality shows provide good examples of how watching TV can be both intellectually challenging and
enjoyable.
2. The drama “24” demonstrates new trends in television in its content and, more importantly, in its complicated
form.
3. Steven Johnson’s new book addresses the popular view that TV and other pop culture products have little
intellectual value.
4. Shows such as “Survivor” have become popular mainly because people enjoy looking for patterns and solving
puzzles.
5. Steven Johnson’s new book argues that despite most people’s low opinion of TV, the complexity of its
characters and plots actually presents beneficial mental challenges.
A. 1 , 3, 4 B. 1, 3, 5 C. 1, 2, 5 D. 2, 4, 5
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions.
The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked down
one after another of the microbes responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries: tuberculosis, cholera,
diphtheria. But there remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra,
rickets, beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance
in the diet. The diseases could be prevented or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the
decades of the 1920’s and 1930’s, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters.
In the 1940’s and 1950’s, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health. They
discovered that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the
chemistry that provides cells with energy for growth and function. Now, these enzyme hunters occupied center stage.
You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking genes –
the blueprints for each of the enzymes – and are discovering the defective genes that cause inherited diseases –
diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and
clone genes and introduce them into bacterial cells and plants to create factories for the massive production of

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 hormones and vaccines for medicine and for better crops for agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibillion-
dollar industry.
In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the spotlight.
When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our waning century and in
the early decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists
who apply the techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the functions of the brain. What to call them? The head
hunters. I will return to them later.
 microbe: an extremely small living thing which you can only see if you use a microscope
21 What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The microbe hunters C. The progress of modern medical research
B. The potential of genetic engineering D. The discovery of enzymes
22 The word “incriminated” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. investigated B. blamed C. eliminated D. produced
23 Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet?
A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. Cystic fibrosis D. Pellagra
24 The word “strived” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. failed B. tried C. experimented D. studied
25 How do vitamins influence health?
A. They are necessary for some enzymes to C. They keep food from spoiling
function D. They are broken down by cells to produce energy
B. They protect the body from microbes
26 In the third paragraph, the author compares cells that have been genetically altered by bio-technicians to
A. gardens B. factories C. hunters D. spotlights
27 The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. receive the most attention B. go the furthest C. conquer territory D. lighten the load
28 The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be
A. the functions of the brain B. inherited C. the operation of vitamins D. the structure of genes
diseases
29 Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the last paragraph of the passage?
A. Critical B. Speculative C. Appreciative D. Emotional
30 With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. The focus of medical research will change in the next two decades
B. Medical breakthroughs often depend on luck
C. Medical research throughout the twentieth century has been dominated by microbe hunters
D. Most diseases are caused by defective genes
Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.
31 A. architecture B. chortle C. choreography D. cholera
32 A. drought B. daughter C. laughter D. caught
33 A. crabbed B. crooked C. naked D. veiled
34 A. book B. foot C. brook D. booth
35 A. applicant B. abbey C. abandon D. happy
Show the underlined part that needs correction.
36 The Canadian province of British Columbia is rich (A) of minerals and, because over 50 percent of (B) the land
is (C) covered with forests, lumbering is its major industry.
37 (A) The astronomy is the oldest (B) science, but it continues (C) to beat the forefront of scientific thought.
38 Henry David Thoreau was (A) an American writer who (B) is remembered (C) for his faith in the religious (D)
significance of the nature.
39 (A) As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures (B) produced in the USA (C) comes from
marketingfilms (D) abroad.
40 The walls (A) around the city of Quebec, which was originally a (B) fort military, still (C) stand, making Quebec
(D) the only walled city in North America.
Choose the best sentence built from the given words or phrases.
41 No point/ join/ club/ full/ eccentrics.//
A. There is no point in joining that club because it seems to be full with eccentrics.

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 B. There is no point of joining that club because it seems to be full of eccentrics.
C. There is no point in joining that club because it seems to be full of eccentrics.
D. It is no point in joining that club because it seems to be full of eccentrics.
42 He/ catch/ red-handed/ he/ have/ no choice/ confess.//
A. He caught red-handed so he had no choice but to confess. B. He was caught red-handed so that he had no
choice but to confess.
C. He was caught red-handed so he had no choice of confessing.
D. He was caught red-handed so he had no choice but to confess.
43 New machinery/ put in/ this year/ with a view/ increase input.//
A. New machinery has been put in this year with a view of increase input.
B. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increasing input.
C. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increase input.
D. New machinery has been put in this year with a view of increasing input.
44 Secretary/ be/ responsible/ manager/ serious mistakes.//
A. The new secretary is responsible for the manager to the serious mistakes.
B. The new secretary is responsible for the manager for the serious mistakes.
C. The new secretary is responsible to the manager for the serious mistakes.
D. The new secretary is responsible to the manager to the serious mistakes.
45 It/ be/ cold/ this summer/ surprise/ everyone.
A. That it is so cold this summer surprise everyone. B. That it is such cold this summer surprise everyone.
C. That it is such cold this summer surprises everyone. D. That it is so cold this summer surprises everyone.
Mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet that best completes each sentence.
46 In its pure state antimony has no important uses, but _____ with other substances, it is extremely useful metal.
A. when combined physically or chemically C. the physical and chemical combination
B. combined when physically or chemically D. it is combined physically and chemically
47 Civil Rights are the freedoms and rights _____ as a member of a community, state, or nation.
A. may have a person B. may have a person C. a person may have D. and a person may have
who
48 Franklin D. Roosevelt was _____ the great force of radio and the opportunity it provided for taking government
policies directly to the people.
A. as the first President he understood fully C. the first President fully understood
B. the first President that, to fully understand D. the first President to fully understand
49 Would you mind _____?
A. if I borrowed your surfboard C. lending to me your surfboard
B. to lend me your surfboard D. that I borrow your surfboard
50 Good pencils erasers are soft enough not to damage paper _____ they crumble gradually when used.
A. but hard enough so that B. and enough hard C. and they are so hard that D. so hard are they
that
Indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
51 It’s ______ that blows nobody any good.
A. a bad breeze B. bad breath C. an unhappy instrument D. an ill wind
52 At last, I ______ on him to help us out of our dilemma.
A. persuaded B. prevailed C. labored D. convinced
53 She came back with an answer as quick as a(n) ______.
A. twinkling B. lighting C. flash D. express
54 He was prepared to announce the news to all and ______.
A. remainders B. odds C. sundry D. select
55 The Governor has been ______ for gross misconduct.
A. impressed B. impounded C. impeached D. impelled
56 I can’t go with you today; I have ______ things to do.
A. a great deal B. many a great C. a great many D. great many
57 Contributions to the charity are beginning to ______ up.
A. end B. finish C. peter D. dry
58 It was her ______ powers at the keyboard rather than her age which eventually forced her retirement.

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 A. meteoric B. waning C. slippery D. negative
59 _____ the decision would have a major impact on his political career.
A. Did he realize little B. A little he realized C. Little did he realize D. Realizing little
60 They shouted loudly _____ I could hear the instructions clearly.
A. for fear that B. in order that C. unless D. in case
61 He found that the test was child’s _____.
A. play B. games C. matches D. delight
62 Your son has the ______ of a fine musician.
A. beginnings B. makings C. looks D. talents
63 You really can’t trust George. One day he’s your best friend, and the next day he can _____ you in the back.
A. hit B. stab C. cut D. punch
64 He never stops criticizing me. He’s a real _____ in the neck.
A. ache B. pain C. hurt D. itch
65 William is an authority _____ medieval tapestries.
A. on B. with C. about D. in
66 - “Why don’t we go out for a walk?” - “______.”
A. Why not B. Yes, please C. OK, let’s D. Never mind
67 If a diamond is heated without oxygen, it will turn to graphite, a form of _____ that it is used as a lubricant.
A. carbon is so soft B. is carbon so soft C. carbon so soft D. so soft the carbon
68 The first people to live in _____ Hawaii were the Polynesians, who sailed there in large canoes from other
Pacific Islands about 2,000 years ago.
A. now where is B. what is now C. it is now D. now this is
69 If I were you, I’d _____ everything he says with a pinch of salt.
A. make B. admit C. take D. accept
70 - “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?” - “______.”
A. Do you think I would? B. I wouldn’t. Thank C. Yes, you’re a good friend. D. Yes, I’d love to. Thanks.
you.
71 - “When are you planning to resign?” - “By Christmas ______.”
A. no later B. until lately C. at the latest D. if not later
72 - “The landlord is raising my rent again.” - “______ reason for you to find a new apartment.”
A. Much more B. So much more C. All the more D. More than such a
73 Please _____ your luggage and leave now. I can’t stand your presence any more.
A. throw off B. pack up C. fit in D. pile up
74 I couldn’t speak Italian, so I couldn’t _____ my ideas across to the passer-by.
A. turn B. bring C. get D. look
75 William was 19 years old when he was _____ for war.
A. brought up B. called up C. made up D. put up
Indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
76 The politician’s conviction for tax fraud jeopardized his future in public life.
A. jettisoned B. penalized C. rejuvenated D. endangered
77 Savage hordes swept across Europe and ruthlessly killed all in their path.
A. without stopping B. without weapons C. without warning D. without pity
78 His physical condition was no impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. help B. impatience C. hindrance D. impossibility
Indicate the word or phrase that is opposite in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
79 His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. irregular B. legal C. elicited Secret
80 The soldiers were told to commence firing in the mock battle.
A. stop B. begin C. evoke D. continue

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 92
Indicate the sentence that is correct and closest in meaning to each of the following sentences
1: Although it is not a threat to humans, the Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture.
A. People kill the Bespectacled Bear because of its damage to agriculture even though it is not a threat to humans.
B. As a threat to human and damage to agriculture, the Bespectacled Bear is killed.
C. The Bespectacled Bear is killed although it is neither a threat to humans nor damage to agriculture.
D. The Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture and is a threat to humans.
2: Some scientists think that a meteor impact, which occurred around 65 million years ago, may have caused the
extinction of the dinasaurs.
A. The extinction of the dinosaurs could only have been caused by a meteor impact that occurred some 65 million
years ago.
B. According to some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by a meteor that struck Earth 65 million or
so years ago.
C. Some scientists reckon that the impact of a meteor that struck Earth some 65 million years ago need not have
caused the extinction of the dinosaurs.
D. In the opinion of some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs could have been the result of the impact of a
meteor which occurred roughly 65 million years ago.
3: There are two interesting things I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry in addition to the general theme of death
and dying.
A. In The Last Leaf by O. Henry two interesting things about death and dying are additional themes I found.
B. The general theme of death and dying is the most interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry.
C. The general theme of death and dying is one interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry.
D. The general theme of death and dying is what I found interesting in The Last Leaf by O. Henry besides the
other two things.
4: Many have said that if he had not needed the money as a writer, he would have had the freedom to explore his
potential.
A. Many have said that it was the need for money that made him explore his potential.
B. It has been said that without his need for money as a writer, he would have explored the freedom of his
potential.
C. It has been said that because he needed the money as a writer, he didn’t have the freedom to explore his
potential.
D. Many have said that he needed money as a writer more than his freedom to explore his potential.
5: When he asked which one I wanted, I said I didn’t mind.
A. He said I could choose between them, but I said it didn’t matter to me.
B. It was up to me to choose between them, but I really didn’t want to.
C. I would have done the choosing if they had asked me to.
D. He wanted me to choose for him and I agreed to do so.
Indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
questions
6: A. elaborately B. flamingo C. embryo D. gazelle
7: A. entrepreneur B. extracurricular C. autobiography D. disciplinary
8: A. e-book B. quick-witted C. in-depth D. white-collar
Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
What is meant by the term economic resources? In general, these are all the natural, man-made, and human resources
that go into the (9) _________of goods and services. Economic resources can be broken down into (10) _________
general categories: property resource – land and capital, and human resources – labor and entrepreneurial skills.
What do economists mean (11) __________land? Much more than the non-economist, land refers to all the natural
resources (12) ____ are usable in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil deposits, and
(13)______ on. What about capital? Capital goods are all the man-made aids to producing, storing, transporting,
and distributing goods and (14) ______.
Capital goods differ from consumer goods in that (15) __________ satisfy wants directly, while the former do so
indirectly by facilitating the production of consumer goods. It should be noted that capital as defined here does not
(16) ___________ to money. Money, as such, produces nothing. The term labor refers to the physical and mental
talents of humans used to produce goods and services (with the exception of a certain set of human talents,

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entrepreneurial skills, which will be considered separately because of their special significance). Thus the services
of a factory worker or an office worker, a ballet (17) ___________ or an astronaut all fall (18) __________ the
general heading of labor.
9: A. production B. plant C. using D. doing
10: A. many B. six C. two D. some
11: A. by B. using C. calling D. with
12: A. these B. they C. what D. that
13: A. so B. come C. such D. go
14: A. money B. machines C. crops D. services
15: A. later B. lately C. the latter D. the latest
16: A. come B. go C. speak D. refer
17: A. performance B. director C. writer D. dancer
18: A. into B. from C. under D. to
Indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions 19: A. punished B. cooked C. markedly D. laughed
20: A. recollect B. preface C. restore D. predator
Choose the best completes each sentence
21: Only for a short period of time __________ run at top speed.
A. that a cheetah can B. can C. cheetahs D. do cheetahs
22: Manufacturers can help conserve mineral and timber supplies ___________.
A. that recycles materials being left over from production processes
B. which recycling materials left over from production processes
C. by recycling materials left over from production processes
D. recycling materials which left over from production processes
23: ___________ that hunted other animals tended to have very narrow, sharp, curved claws.
A. For dinosaurs B. Dinosaurs C. Like dinosaurs D. Dinosaurs are known
24: ___________ at the Isthmus of Panama, so animals were able to migrate between North and South America.
A. With a land bridge B. When a land bridge existed C. A land bridge D. A land bridge existed
25: For more than a decade, ___________ that certain species are becoming scarce.
A. the warnings of bird-watchers B. warn the bird-watcher C. a warning for bird-watchers D. bird-
watchers have warned
Indicate the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
26: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water heating and process heating.
A. generation B. increase C. reformation D. sparing
27: We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. the long day B. all day long C. all long day D. day after day
28: I used to meet him occasionally on Fifth Avenue.
A. one time B. in one occasion C. once in a while D. none is correct
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
29: A cooperative program between China and Germany on building Yangzhow, a famous ancient city, into a(n)
________ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. friendly ecology B. ecology-friendly C. friendly-ecological D. ecologicalfriendly
30: She brought three children up __________.
A. single-minded B. single-handedly C. single-mindedly D. single-handed
31: He left the country __________ arrest if he returned.
A. with fear of B. with threat of C. under threat of D. in fear of
32: “What do you do for a living?” – “___________.”
A. I get a high salary, you know. B. I want to be a doctor, I guess C. I work in a bank D. It’s hard work,
you know.
33: “Jane is really conscientious, isn’t she?” “Absolutely. ___________, she is very efficient”
A. All the same B. So C. Still D. What is more
34: I know you didn’t see me yesterday because I was in Hanoi. You __________ me.
A. may not have seen B. mustn’t have seen C. shouldn’t have seen D. can’t have seen

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35: With competition from __________ the British coal industry is facing a serious ___________.
A. imports/ crisis B. import/ crisis C. import/ crises D. imports/ crises
36: Joe, remember that I’m _______ you to see that there’s no trouble at the party on Sunday.
A. believing in B. relying on C. depending on D. waiting for
37: “Excuse me. I’m your new neighbor. I just moved in.” “__________.”
A. Oh, I don’t think so B. Where to, sir? C. Sorry, I don’t know D. I’m afraid not
38: The city has __________ of young consumers who are sensitive to trends, and can, therefore, help industries
predict the potential risks and success of products.
A. a high rate B. a high tendency C. a high proportion D. a great level
39: Simple sails were made from canvas __________ over a frame.
A. was stretched B. stretched C. a stretch D. it was stretched
40: Governments shoud __________ international laws against terrorism.
A. bring about B. bring up C. bring back D. bring in
41: She had just enough time to __________ the report before the meeting.
A. turn round B. dip into C. go into D. get through
42: Students can __________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures.
A. read B. transmit C. provide D. absorb
43: In 1975, the successful space probe to __________ beginning to send information back to earth.
A. Venus the B. Venus it was C. Venus was D. Venus
44: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as_________.
A. a water fall B. a lake C. a mirror D. a bell
45: He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his __________ when he meets the right girl.
A. shed B. shell C. shoe D. hole
46: The documentary was so __________ that many viewers cried.
A. moved B. touching C. moody D. touchy
47: Some __________ back workers were working hard in the sunshine.
A. empty B. vacant C. naked D. bare
48: Space travel seemed __________ but it has come true now.
A. unable B. disagreeable C. disbelievable D. unthinkable
49: We’d better phone __________ the restaurant to reserve a table.
A. ø B. for C. to D. at
50: “Have you __________ this contract yet?” - “Not yet. I’ll try to read it this weekend.
A. looked out B. looked over C. looked up D. looked into
51: ___________ giraffe is the tallest of all __________animals.
A. ø/ the B. A/ the C. The/ ø D. A/ ø
52: -“I’m going out now.” - “__________ you happen to pass a chemist’s, would you get me some aspirins?”
A. Were B. Should C. Had D. Did
53: By the year 2050, many people currently employed __________ their jobs.
A. are losing B. will have lost C. will be losing D. have lost
Indicate the word(s) opposite in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
54: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding at B. holding to C. holding by D. holding back
55: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. married B. divorced C. separated D. single
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the Japanese
expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves,
although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more
appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for example,
and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves.
These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have
little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the
coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.

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Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific
well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis
in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with
little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however,
originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel
and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when
movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and
flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the
world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high
onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed
as far away as the English Channel.
56: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses
A. underwater earthquakes B. storm surges C. tides D. tidal waves
57: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
58: The word “displaced” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. moved B. filtered C. located D. not pleased
59: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean B. generally reach heights greater than 40
meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean D. are often identified by ships on the
ocean
60: In line 10, water that is “shallow” is NOT
A. deep B. clear C. coastal D. tidal
61: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
62: The possessive “their” in line 18 refers to
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. thousands of miles C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
63: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 20, is one that is
A. at fault B. disastrous C. extremely calm D. expected
64: From the expression “on record” in line 22, it can be inferred that the tsunami that
accompanied the Krakatoa volcano
A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
C. was filmed as it was happening D. occurred before efficient records were kept
65: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away B. resulted in little damage
C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions
Esperanto is what is called a planned, or artificial, language. It was created more than a century ago by Polish eye
doctor Ludwik Lazar Zamenhof. Zamenhof believed that a common language would help to alleviate some of the
misunderstandings among cultures.
In Zamenhof’s first attempt at a universal language, he tried to create a language that was as uncomplicated as
possible. This first language included words such as ab, ac, ba, eb, be, and ce. This did not result in a workable
language in that these monosyllabic words, though short, were not easy to understand or to retain.
Next, Zamenhof tried a different way of constructing a simplified language. He made the words in his language
sound like words that people already knew, but he simplified the grammar tremendously. One example of how he
simplified the language can be seen in the suffixes: all nouns in this language end in o, as in the noun amiko, which
means “friend”, and all adjectives end in -a, as in the adjective bela, which means “pretty”. Another example of the
simplified language can be seen in the prefix mal-, which makes a word opposite in meaning; the word malamiko
therefore means “enemy”, and the word malbela therefore means “ugly” in Zamenhof’s language.

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In 1887, Zamenhof wrote a description of this language and published it. He used a pen name, Dr. Esperanto, when
signing the book. He selected the name Esperanto because this word means “a person who hopes” in his language.
Esperanto clubs began popping up throughout Europe, and by 1950, Esperanto had spread from Europe to America
and Asia.
In 1905, the First World Congress of Esperanto took place in France, with approximately700 attendees from 20
different countries. Congresses were held annually for nine years, and 4,000 attendees were registered for the Tenth
World Esperanto Congress scheduled for 1914, when World War I erupted and forced its cancellation.
Esperanto has had its ups and downs in the period since World War I. Today, years after it was introduced, it is
estimated that perhaps a quarter of a million people are fluent in it. This may seem like a large number, but it is
really quite small when compared with the billion English speakers and billion Mandarin Chinese speakers in today’s
world. Current advocates would like to see its use grow considerably and are taking steps to try to make this happen.
66: The topic of this passage is
A. one man’s efforts to create a universal language B. how language can be improve
C. using language to communicate internationally D. a language developed in the last few years
67: According to the passage, Zamenhof wanted to create a universal language
A. to build a name for himself B. to provide a more complex language
C. to resolve cultural differences D. to create one world culture
68: It can be inferred from the passage that the Esperanto word malespera means
A. hopeless B. hope C. hopelessness D. hopeful
69: The expression “popping up” in line 17 could best be replaced by
A. shouting B. opening C. hiding D. leaping
70: It can be inferred from the passage that the Third World Congress of Esperanto took place
A. in 1905 B. in 1909 C. in 1907 D. in 1913
71: According to the passage, what happened to the Tenth World Esperanto Congress?
A. It had attendees from20 countries B. It never took place C. It had 4,000 attendees D. It was scheduled for 1915
72: The expression “ups and downs” in line 23 is closest in meaning to
A. tops and bottoms B. floors and ceilings C. takeoffs and landings D. highs and lows
73: Which paragraph describes the predecessor to Esperanto?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
74: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. European history B. English grammar C. world government D. applied linguistics
75: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses
A. how current supporters of Esperanto are encouraging its growth B. another of Zamenhof’s accomplishments
C. the disadvantages of using an artificial language D. attempts to reconvene the World Congress of Esperanto
in the 1920s
Show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
76: Because of its ability to survive close to human habitations, the Virginia deer has actually increased their range
and numbers.
A. its B. their C. has D. close to
77: A 1971 U.S government policy not only put warnings on cigarette packs but also ban television advertising of
cigarettes.
A. warnings B. advertising C. government D. ban
78: In the 1920s, Tulsa had a higher number of millionaire than any other U.S. city.
A. higher B. millionaire C. city D. other
79: Snapping turtles are easily recognized because of the large head, the long tail and the shell that seems
unsufficiently to protect the body.
A. unsufficiently B. easily C. because of D. to protect
80: Some of the agricultural practices used today is responsible for fostering desertification.
A. used B. fostering C. practices D. is
----------- THE END ----------

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 ENGLISH PRACTICE 93
Indicate the sentence that is correct and closest in meaning to each of the following sentences
1: Choosing a suitable job is really important to adolescents.
A. It is really important to choose a suitable job for adolescents. B. It is of great importance for adolescents to
choose a suitable job.
C. Choosing a suitable job for adolescents is a really important affair. D. The choice of a suitable job for adolescents
is really important.
2: That will put the cat among the pigeons.
A. That will cause a lot of trouble. B. The cat will have to stay outside the house today.
C. Then we shall have as many cats as we have pigeons. D. The cat will play with the pigeons.
3: Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars, but cars are the greatest contributor of
air pollution.
A. It is cars that are the greatest contributor of air pollution although the invention of cars has made transportation
much easier.
B. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest contributors of air
pollution.
C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to the pollution
of air.
D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest contributors
of air pollution.
4: The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends on the way by which we use these
inventions.
A. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.
B. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the purpose of any invention
is to make our lives better.
C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This depends on the way by which we
use these inventions.
D. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose: to make our lives better.
5: It is acknowledged that Vietnam had a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
A. Vietnam is acknowledged to have completely controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
B. Vietnam is acknowledged to have controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
C. Vietnam was acknowledged to have had a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
D. Vietnam is acknowledged to have a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
ENGLISH SPELLING
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down when Christian
monks came to England in Anglo-Saxon (6) _________. They used the 23 letters of Latin to write down the sounds
of Anglo-Saxon (7) _________ as they heard it. However, English has a (8) __________ range of basic sounds (over
40) than Latin. The alphabet was too small, and so combinations of letters were needed to (9) ________ the different
sounds. Inevitably, there were inconsistencies in the way that letters were combined. With the Norman invasion of
England, the English language was put at risk. English survived, but the spelling of many English words changed to
follow French (10) __________, and many French words were introduced into the language. The result was more
irregularity. When the printing press was (11) __________ in the fifteenth century, many early printers of English
texts spoke other first languages. They made little effort to respect English spelling. Although one of the short-term
(12) __________ of printing was to produce a number of variant spellings, in the long term it created fixed spellings.
People became used to seeing words spelt in the same way. Rules were (13) __________, and dictionaries were put
together which printers and writers could refer to. However, spoken English was not fixed and continued to change
slowly- just as it still does now. Letters that were sounded in the Anglo-Saxon period, like the ‘k’ in ‘knife’, now
became (14) ______. Also, the pronunciation of vowels then had little in common with how they sound now, but
the way they are spelt hasn’t changed. No (15) ______, then, that it is often difficult to see the link between sound
and spelling.

238
6: A. centuries B. times C. ages
D. years
7: A. chat B. communication C. speech D.
discussion
8: A. longer B. deeper C. thicker D. wider
9: A. tell B. express C. explain D. perform
10: A. types B. guides C. plans D. patterns
11: A. discovered B. made up C. taken in D.
invented
12: A. conclusions B. actions C. meanings D.
effects
13: A. filled in B. drawn up C. handed out D.
got across
14: A. silent B. dumb C. quiet D.
speechless
15: A. problem B. mention C. wonder D.
idea

239
16: appearance/ steamboats and railroads/ reduce/ transportation cost/ and have effects/ conditions/ workers.
A. Appearance of the steamboats and the railroads have reduced transportation cost and had effects in conditions
of workers.
B. The appearance of the steamboats and railroads have reduced transportation cost and had effects on conditions
of workers.
C. The appearance of steamboats and railroads had reduced transportation cost and had effects on conditions of
workers.
D. The appearance of steamboats and railroads reduced transportation cost and had effects on the conditions of
workers.
17: He/ like/ nothing/ better/ sit/ read/ science books/ father’s/ library.
A. He liked nothing better than to sit to read science books in his father’s library.
B. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in his father’s library.
C. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in father’s library.
D. He liked nothing better than sitting and read science books in his father’s library.
18: new/machinery/ put in/ this year/ with a view/ increase output.
A. New machinery have been put in this year with a view to increase output.
B. New machinery has put in this year with a view to increasing output.
C. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increase output.
D. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increasing output.
19: James Watt/ invention/ steam/ engine/ famous/ world/ Scottish scientist.
A. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world was Scottish scientist.
B. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world, was a Scottish scientist.
C. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous round the world was a Scottish scientist.
D. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous all the world, is a Scottish scientist.
20: scientists/ proved/ there/ close link/ smoking/ lung diseases/ such as/ cough/ tuberculosis/ and/ worst/ all/ fatal
cancer.
A. Scientists have proved that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases, such as cough and
tuberculosis and the worst of all is fatal cancer.
B. Scientists have proved that there has been a close link of smoking with lung diseases, such as cough and
tuberculosis and the worst of all, fatal cancer.
C. Scientists proved that there has been a close link from smoking to lung diseases, such as from cough to
tuberculosis and worst of all, fatal cancer.
D. Scientists have been proving that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases, such as cough and
tuberculosis and worst of all is fatal cancer.
Indicate the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
21: Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence, the entire teaching staff
consisted of the president and three or four tutors. A. back and forth B. to and fro C. more or less
D. side by side
22: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting his foot in his
mouth.
A. speaking indirectly B. making a mistake C. doing things in the wrong order D. saying embarrassing
things
23: To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue
money.
A. resolve B. medicate C. understand D. renew
Indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
24: In 1864, twelve nations signed the first Geneva Convention, _ down rules for the treatment and protection of
the wounded.
A. lying B. lied C. laying D. laid
25: I can’t see us beating them at tennis this year. We are so out of ___. A. step B. practice C.
fitness D. breath
26: I was talking to my aunt when suddenly my cousin George ________ in on our conversation.
A. went B. interrupted C. intervened D. broke
27: We wish that you __________ such a lot of work, because we know that you would have enjoyed the party.
A. hadn’t B. wouldn’t have C. didn’t have D. hadn’t had
28: He trained his muscles by ___ weightlifting and bodybuilding. A. doing B. playing C. going D.
taking
29: I was glad when he said that his car was___. A. for me use B. at my use C. for my use D. at my
disposal
30: It’s no use getting _____ him. He won’t change his mind. A. on B. across C. off D.
around
31: “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” – “ __________.”
A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t B. That’s a good idea C. You’re welcome D. Oh, I didn’t realize it
32: You must obey the speed limits on public roads. They are designed to keep you safe. You shouldn’t exceed the
speed limit ___ you are an experienced race car driver. A. only if B. even if C.
provided that D. if
33: The City Planning Department proposed that the new highway__________ in the fiscal year 2015.
A. would be built B. be built C. is to be built D. will be built
34: “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon” - “Good luck! I’ll keep my _______crossed for you.”
A. fingers B. legs C. arms D. hands
35: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is stressed differently from the
others.
A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
36: He blamed __________ me __________not explaining the lesson __________her carefully.
A. on/for/to B. ø/ about/ for C. for/ on/ for D. ø/ for/ to
37: “Haven’t you put an ad in the paper yet?” – “__________ .”
A. I can get a paper for you B. I’m not sure C. I’m with you there D. I will, first thing in the morning
38: ____, we missed our plane. A. As the train being late B. The train was late C. The train being late
D. To be late
39: Beyond the mountains __ where you will live. A. does the town lie B. lies the town C. which the
town lies D. the town lies
40: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that does not contain a silent letter.
A. rhino B. trade C. protect D. receipt
41: Many citizens say that they are __________ of the political policies of the candidates in a local election.
A. ignoring B. ignorance C. ignorant D. ignorantly
42: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is primarily stressed on the third
syllable.
A. cooperation B. supervise C. reinforce D. committee
43: __ you give the answer, ____. A. The quicker – the better you can get marks B. The more quickly – the
better marks you can get
C. More quickly – better marks you can get D. The quickest – the best marks you
can get
44: Tony and Nancy always kiss and make ___ after their argument. A. up with B. clear C. up D. out
45: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is not stressed on the first syllable.
A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
46: The player was ejected after committing 5 personal ____. A. faults B. mistakes C. errors D. fouls
47: “Do you think it’s bad to keep all the candy to yourself?” – “______ .”
A. I’m sorry. Sometimes I’m too aggressive B. You’re right. I’m a bit jealous
C. You are absolutely right.I’m crazy about candy D. I’m sorry. I should not be so selfish
48: Which of the following words is not an acronym? A. CANCER B. CARE C. LASER D.
AIDS
49: At the end of the nineteenth century, Alfred Binet developed a test for measuring intelligence ________ served
as the basis of modern IQ tests. A. it has B. has C. which has D.
and
50: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that contains a consonant /θ/.
A. diphthong B. southern C. breathing D. smooth
51: Hundreds came to __________ their last respects to the dead president.
A. pay B. express C. have D. indicate
52: International Games themselves can help to solve the problem of ___________ among countries.
A. takeoffs B. kickoffs C. standoffs D. warm-ups
53: One of the conservation efforts is the development of wildlife__________.
A. reserves B. reverses C. conserves D. reservoirs
Indicate the word(s) opposite in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from
54 to 55.
54: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. real B. natural C. true D. genuine
55: Mutualism is a type of symbiosis that occurs when two unlike organisms live together in a state that is
mutually beneficial.
A. alike B. likely C. similar D. dislike
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions
DESERTIFICATION
Desertification is the degradation of once-productive land into unproductive or poorly productive land. Since the
first great urban-agricultural centers in Mesopotamia nearly 6,000 years ago, human activity has had a destructive
impact on soil quality, leading to gradual desertification in virtually every area of the world.
It is a common misconception that desertification is caused by droughts. Although drought does make land more
vulnerable, well-managed land can survive droughts and recover, even in arid regions. Another mistaken belief is that
the process occurs only along the edges of deserts. In fact, it may take place in any arid or semiarid region, especially
where poor land management is practised.
Most vulnerable, however, are the transitional zones between deserts and arable land; wherever human activity
leads to land abuse in these fragile marginal areas, soil destruction is inevitable. [1] Agriculture and overgrazing are
the two major sources of desertification. [2] Large-scale farming requires extensive irrigation, which ultimately
destroys lands by depleting its nutrients and leaching minerals into the topsoil. [3] Grazing is especially destructive
to land because , in addition to depleting cover vegetation, herds of grazing mammals also trample the fine organic
particles of the topsoil, leading to soil compaction and erosion. [4] It takes about 500 years for the earth to build up
3 centimeters of topsoil. However, cattle ranching and agriculture can deplete as much as 2 to 3 centimeters of
topsoil every 25 years- 60 to 80 times faster than it can be replaced by nature.
Salination is a type of land degradation that involves an increase in the salt content of the soil. This usually occurs
as a result of improper irrigation practices. The greatest Mesopotamian empires- Sumer, Akkad and Babylon- were
built on the surplus of the enormously productive soil of the ancient Tigris-Euphrates alluvial plain. After nearly a
thousand years of intensive cultivation, land quality was in evident decline. In response, around 2800 BC the
Sumerians began digging the huge Tigris-Euphrates canal system to irrigate the exhausted soil. A temporary gain in
crop yield was achieved in this way, but over-irrigation was to have serious and unforeseen consequences.
From as early as 2400 BC we find Sumerian documents referring to salinization as a soil problem. It is believed that
the fall of the Akkadian Empire around 2150 BC may have been due to a catastrophic failure in land productivity;
the soil was literally turned into salt. Even today, four thousand years later, vast tracks of salinized land between the
Tigris and Euphrates rivers still resemble rock-hard fields of snow.
Soil erosion is another form of desertification. It is a self-reinforcing process; once the cycle of degradation begins,
conditions are set for continual deterioration. As the vegetative cover begins to disappear, soil becomes more
vulnerable to raindrop impact. Water runs off instead of soaking in to provide moisture for plans. This further
diminishes plan cover by leaching away nutrients from the soil. As soil quality declines and runoff is increased,
floods become more frequent and more severe. Flooding washes away topsoil, the thin, rich, uppermost layer of the
earth’s soil, and leaves finer underlying particles more vulnerable to wind erosion. Topsoil contains the earth’s
greatest concentration of organic matter and microorganisms, and is where most of the earth’s land-based biological
activity occurs. Without this fragile coat of nutrient-laden material, plan life cannot exist.
An extreme case of its erosion is found in the Sahel, a transitional zone between the Sahara Desert and the tropical
African rain forests; home to some 56 million people. Overpopulation and overgrazing have opened the hyperarid
land to wind erosion, which is stripping away the protective margin of the Sahel, and causing the desert to grow at
an alarming rate. Between 1950 and 1975, the Sahara Desert spread 100 kilometers southward through the Sahel.
56: Which of the following statements is true about desertification?
A. It has a history as long as that of civilization. B. It was just as serious in the past as it is today.
C. It is a fairly recent problem. D. Ancient societies managed the problem well.
57: The word “arable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. cultivatable B. dry C. settled D.
populated
58: According to the passage, many people’s understanding of desertification is incorrect because
A. they do not think of it as a serious problem B. they see it as being reversible
C. they do not see it as being caused by human activity D. they think of it as a very slow process
59: Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the
passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Most of the vulnerable areas are in transition from desert to arable land; a process that because of human
activity and the delicate nature of these areas, always leads to soil loss.
B. Human activity in the transition areas is vulnerable because of the fragile nature of these areas that are neither
desert nor arable land because they have suffered damage to the soil
C. Soil loss in the transitional zones is especially severe where human activity is damaging the environment
through agriculture which is causing the loss of soil.
D. It is the areas that exist between the deserts and the land that is usable for agriculture that are most at risk
because they are susceptible to poor land management methods from human activity which will always result in
the loss of soil.
60: The word “compaction” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. fragmentation B. depletion C. disruption D. compression
61: According to the passage, agriculture furthers desertification through which of the following activities
A. The repetitive planting of the same crops B. Irrigation C. The stripping away of native vegetation D. Over
fertilization
62: The word “degradation” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. rejuvenation B. deterioration C. contribution D. consumption
63: Paragraph 4 of the passage serves mainly to do which of the following?
A. Show the progress of desertification down through history B. Propose a method for dealing with the
desertification problem.
C. Describe one process that leads to desertification D. Describe the main cause of desertification in one
particular area
64: The word “leaching” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. washing B. depositing C. concentrating D. dispersing
65: Look at numbers [1], [2], [3], [4] in paragraph 3 of the passage. Where would the following sentence best fit?
Each furthers the process dramatically, but they act in quite different ways A. [1] B. [2] C.
[4] D. [3]
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a scientist of
diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested in exploring the
unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his design
for a diving bell that facilitated
exploration of the watery depths. The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells
that were in use prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so
divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design
allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet across the top and five
feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim
in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then
covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for
the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement that made
Halley’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied to the divers
from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from
the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he
could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass
viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.
66: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s
A. childhood B. work as an astronomer C. invention of the diving bell D. many different
interests
67: Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it ......
A. was bigger B. provided more air C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
68: The expression “ran low” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. sank to the bottom B. was almost exhausted C. had been replenished D. move slowly
69: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes C. For days on end D. For hours at a time
70: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell
A. was completely enclosed B. was wider at the top than at the bottom C. could hold more than one diver D. was
made of tarred wood
71: The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. in the future B. upside down C. as they wanted D. with great
speed
72: It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it would
A. float B. get wet C. trap the divers D. suffocate the divers
73: Where in the passage does the author indicate how air traveled from the barrel to the bell?
A. Lines 8-10 B. Lines 11-13 C. Lines 17-18 D. line 20
74: In which paragraph does the author describe the diving bells that preceded Halley’s?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph C. The third paragraph D. The fourth
paragraph
75: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. astronomy B. physiology C. oceanography D. recreation
Show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
76: (A) One another (B) surprising method of forest (C) conservation is (D) controlled cutting of trees.
77: There are many (A) frequently (B) mentioned reasons why one out of (C) four arrests (D) involve a juvenile.
78: Perhaps the most (A) welcoming and (B) friendly of the park’s wild places is the (C) live oak forest that
surrounds the district’s (D) alone visitors’ center in Gulf Breeze.
79: (A) On June 30, 1992, international timekeepers in Paris (B) were added an extra (C) second to (D) the day.
80: In 1863 and 1864, the U.S. Congress passed (A) the National Banks Acts, which set up a system of (B)
privately owned banks (C) chartered by (D) a federal government.
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 94
Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
1. Although they are identical twins, their teacher can easily ………between them.
A. identify B. select C. differ D. distinguish
2. I was most ………… of his efforts to help me during the crisis.
A. appreciation B . appreciable C. appreciate D. appreciative
3. John: “May I come in?” Peter: “ …………….”
A. Feel free B. Yes, no problem C. You’re welcome D. Sorry, let’s wait
4. If you go away, you ………write to me, …….. you?
A. will/ won’t B. do/ don’t C. will/ don’t D. will/ do
5. We have to start early …….. we’ll be late for school.
A. so that B. although C. or else D. consequently
6. The smell of the sea …….. him …… to his childhood.
A. took …back B. brought…back C. reminded… of D. called …off
7. The conference was organized for all of the ……… teachers in the city.
A. history B. historic C. historical D. historian
8. We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no ………. for them
A. request B. requirement C. claim D. demand
9. He never………….. his word
A. goes back on B. puts up with C. makes up for D. goes down with
10. When I got up yesterday morning, the sun was shining, but the ground was very wet. It …….
A. rained B. has been raining C. had rained D. had been raining
11. Someone ……….here recently: these ashes are still warm.
A. should be B. had to be C. must have been D. might have been
12……….of applicants for this job ……..very big.
A. The number /is B. A number /is C. A number /are D. The number /are
13. The professor complimented a grade 1 pupil ……….his good achievement.
A. about B. on C. for D. due to
14. ………your help, I wouldn’t have got the scholarship.
A. If I had had B. Had not it been for C. But for D. Unless I had
15. ………man suffering from ……..shock should not be given anything to drink.
A. A/ the B. The/ a C. Ø/ a D. A/ Ø
16. The villagers strongly recommend that a new school ………immediately.
A. must be built B. is going to be built C. be built D. will be built
17. You thought I did wrong, but the results ……….my action.
A. agree B. correct C. justify D. approve
18. It’s most unwise to ……in a quarrel between a man and his wife.
A. involve B. go C. take part in D. interfere
19. The more she practices, ……….she becomes.
A. the most confident B. the more confident
C. the greater confidence D. more confidently
20. In today’s paper it ……….that we shall have an election this year.
A. says B. admits C. expresses D. proposes
21.: John: “Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?” Peter: “……………”
A. Sorry for this inconvenience B. I have no clue
C. Not at all D. Sorry, I’m a new comer here
22. The problem is difficult, therefore ………. students could answer it.
A. a great number of B. a lot of C. few D. a few
23. ………he was kidnapped by the Iraqi guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed.
A. What B. If C. That D. Ø
24. The road in front of my house is in great need ………..
A. repairing B. to be repaired C. of repair D. of being repaired.
25. Sometimes life must be very unpleasant for …… near the airport.
A. people live B. those living C. someone to live D. they who live
26. She has just bought …………….
A. an old interesting painting French B. a French interesting old paint
C. a French old interesting painting D. an interesting old French painting
27. There are many opportunities for career ………. if you work for that company.
A. system B. sequence C. progression D. succesion
28. The children can stay here …..they don’t make too much noise.
A. whether B. providing C. unless D. until
29. “…………….” – “Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Your kid is naughty. B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C. Your child is just adorable! D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
30. There were a lot people at the party, only few of …….I had met before.
A. them B. who C. whom D. whose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
31. Assessment instruments in nursery schools (A) they feature items and (B) other materials different (C) from
those on elementary (D) school tests.
32. (A) All the witnesses said (B) that John (C) was blaming (D) for the accident.
33. Migrant (A) workers live in (B) substandard (C) unsanitary, and dilapidated housing and often (D) are lacking
medical care.
34. For thousands of years, (A) man has created (B) sweet-smelling substances from wood, herbs, and
flowers and (C) using them for perfume (D) or medicine.
35. Copper comes from seven (A) types of (B) ores that (C) also contain (D) the other materials.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position
of the main stress in each of the following questions.
36.A. experience B. maternal C. simplify D. physician
37.A. residential B. repetition C. mountaineer D. television
38.A. sequential B. mistake C. satisfy D. quality
39.A. residence B. establish C. maximum D. regional
40.A. questionable B. inferior C. criticize D. miserable
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions.
Collecting maps can be an enjoyable hobby for antiquarian booksellers, a captivating interest for cartographers, a
lucrative vocation for astute dealers, and an inspirational part of the occupational functioning of map catalogers,
archivists, and historians. Among recognized collectibles, maps are relatively rarer than stamps, but they have had
their avid enthusiasts and admirers ever since copies were made by hand only for affluent, the commanding officer,
and the ship captain.
Whether the interest is business-related or amateur, the economic means abundant or slim, a collection needs a
theme, be it associated with contemporary changes in cartographic representation or geographic knowledge, or a
more accessible goal centered on a particular mapmaker, technique, or type of subject matter. Collectors should not
overlook topical maps issued predominantly or exclusively after World War II, such as navigational charts, industrial
compound road layouts, or aerial projections. Potential collectors ought not to disregard two superficially prosaic,
yet important themes: maps of travel routes for family trips, and maps that, for aesthetic reasons, they personally
find intriguing or simply attractive. In the first case, like the box with old family photos, the collection will give the
travelers the opportunity to reminisce and relive the journey.
In most cases, photocopies are worthy alternatives to originals. For example, historical society collections
customarily include the high quality facsimiles needed to make a collection as comprehensive and practical as
possible, supplementing the contributions made by well-to-do donors and benefactors. If not predisposed to wait
patiently, and possibly ineffectually, for a lucky find, collectors may choose to sift through dealer stock, peruse
through advertisements in local, regional, or national periodicals, and solicit the assistance of the U.S. Library of
Congress and private agencies. Government and public agencies, companies, and trade associations can advise the
collector about maps currently in circulation and pending sales of dated reproductions, editions, and prints.
41. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Why hobbyists always flaunt their map collections.
B. How maps can be collected by professionals and enthusiasts.
C. How to assure an interrupted flow of collectibles.
D. What cartographers advocate as a worthy undertaking.
42. In paragraph 1, the word lucrative is closest in meaning to
A. instructive B. insensitive C. profitable D. profuse
43. According to the passage, map collecting as a hobby is
A. not deserving of the time and resources B. not as conventional as collecting stamps
C. as eccentric as collecting dolls D. conformist in the best sense of the word.
44. In paragraph 1, the word avid is closest in meaning to
A. keen B. humorous C. devoted D. supportive
45. It can be inferred from the passage that, at a time when maps were accessible to the upper socioeconomic classes,
they appealed also to a fair number of
A. professional copiers B. ardent devotees
C. buried-treasure hunters D. obscure amateur dealers
46. In paragraph 2, the phrase “economic means” is closest in meaning to
A. economic maps B. fiscal responsibility C. available funds D. capital investment
47. The author of the passage mentions all of the following as sources of procuring maps EXCEPT
A. fellow collectors B. map vendors C. personal archives D. publishers
48. In paragraph 2, the author uses the phrase “superficially prosaic” to mean
A. described in informal prose B. seemingly boring and unimaginative
C. useful for travelers who enjoy a change D. potentially uncovered in a box of photos
49. In paragraph 3, the word “predisposed” is closest in meaning to
A. pressured B. provoked C. condemned D. inclined
50. A paragraph following the passage would most likely discuss
A. specific organizations to contact about map acquisition
B. specific mapping techniques used to enlarge the scale
C. trimming and framing valuable acquisitions
D. volunteering time and work to maintain obsolete maps
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions .
The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give everyone on the planet access
to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots of information: more than 2.5 million articles in
200 different languages covering just about every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikepedia is not
written by experts, but by ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They
contribute to Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge.
Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human knowledge. The word
itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came
in the nineteenth century in Europe and the United States, with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary
readers. With the invention of the CD-ROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer discs.
Then with the Internet, it became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like
Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid experts. At first,
Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he
had the idea for an Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information quickly and easily to everyone.
Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that time.
But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to write the articles, and so
he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as it took them a long time to finish their
work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical new way, so that everyone would have access not only to
the information, but also to the process of putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as
“Wiki” software (from the Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page.
The system is very simple: When you open the web site, you can simply search for information or you can log on to
become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that interests you – about your hometown, for example –
you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until no one is interested in making any more changes.
51: Wikipedia is a(n) ………..
A. book B. journal C. article D. dictionary
52: Wikipedia is written by………..
A. paid written B. millionaires C. normal people D. world experts
53: The phrase “these writers” in the first paragraph refers to ……….
A. ordinary readers B. ordinary people C. encyclopedia experts D. every subject
54: The phrase “the word” in the second paragraph refers to………..
A. knowledge B. encyclopedia C. writing D. collection
55: Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of ……...
A. CD-ROM dictionary B. printed encyclopedia
C. online encyclopedia D. updateable online encyclopedia
56: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best replaced by……...
A. born B. child C. product D. father
57: The word “approach” in the third paragraph of the passage means……...
A. idea B. time C. method D. writing
58: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT……….
A. have access to information B. determinate the website
C. modify information D. edit information
59: We can say that Jimmy Wales……….
A. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia B. is the father of Wikipedia
C. made a great profit from Wikipedia D. decides who can use Wikipedia
60: Wiki software enables ……….
A. exchanging articles B. a purchase of information C. limited access D. editing
Read the following passage and mark the correct word for each of the blanks .
HELP ALWAYS AT HAND:
A MOBILE IS A GIRL’S BEST FRIEND
If it fits inside a pocket, keeps you safe as well as in touch with your office, your mother and your children, it is
(61)………..worth having. This is the (62)……….. of the dwelling ranks of female mobile-phone users who are
beginning to (63)……….. the consumer market.
Although Britain has been (64)……….. to be one of the most expensive places in the world to run a mobile phone,
both professional women and (65)……….. mothers are undeterred. At first, the mobile phone was a rich man’s
plaything, or a businessman’s (66)……….. symbol. Now women own almost as many telephones as men do - but
for very different reasons.
The main (67)……….. for most women customers is that it provides a form of communications back-up, wherever
they are, in case of contingency. James Tanner of Tancroft Communications says: “The majority of people buying
phones from us this year were women – often young women – or men who were buying for their mothers, wives
and girlfriends. And it always seems to be a question of (68)……….. of mind.”
“Size is also (69)……….. for women. They want something that will fit in a handbag,” said Mr Tanner. “The tiny
phones coming in are having a very big (70)………... This year’s models are only half the size of your hand.”
61. A. totally B. certainly C. absolutely D. completely
62. A. vision B. vista C. view D. conception
63. A. master B. dominate C. overbear D. command
64. A. demonstrated B. seen C. established D. shown
65. A. complete B. total C. absolute D. full-time
66. A. status B. fame C. power D. prestige
67.A. attraction B. enticement C. charm D. lure
68. A. tranquility B. calmness C. peace D. serenity
69. A. necessary B. crucial C. urgent D. essential
70. A. impression B. perception C. impact D. image
Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions or indicate the correct answer to
each of them .
71. Not until Kentucky’s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 …………………….
A. when was its full extent realized B. the realization of its full extent
C. was its full extent realized D. that its full extent was realized
72. The knee is……. most other joints in the body because it cannot twist without injury.
A. to be damaged more than likely B. more likely to be damaged than
C. likely to be more than damaged D. more than likely to be damaged
73. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
B. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
 C. The noise next door stopped at midnight
D. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
74. Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.
A. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
B. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
C. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
D. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
75. If you want to be kept informed about current affairs, you should listen to the radio.
A. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs.
B. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs.
C. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio.
D. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs.
76. I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
A. Travelling by bus is my only alternative.
B. It’s my only alternative to travel by bus.
C. I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
D. I travel by bus only as a last resort.
77. Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.
C. There’s no point calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
D. It’s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
Choose the best way to make the sentence from the cues.
78. fact/ her son/ out/ danger/ bring/ her/ some relief.
A. The fact that her son was out of danger brought her some relief.
B. The fact that her son was out of danger which brought her some relief.
C. The fact that her son is out of danger brought her some relief.
D. The fact that her son is out of danger has brought her some relief.
79. be sure/ good seat/ your tickets / should/ bought/ advance.
A. I’m sure about a good seat for your tickets should be bought in advance.
B. To be sure of a good seat, your tickets should be bought in advance.
C. To be sure of a good seat for your tickets should be bought in advance.
D. To be sure of a good seat, your tickets should be bought advance.
80. How/ ungrateful/ you/ not/ greet/ former/ teacher/ meet/ him.
A. How ungrateful of you not to greet your former teacher when you met him.
B. How ungrateful you are not to greet your former teacher when you met him.
C. How ungrateful to you not to greet your former teacher when you met him.
D. How ungrateful of you not to greet your former teacher to met him.

***** The end *****

 ENGLISH PRACTICE 95
Choose the correct answer in each of the following questions.
1: Education is the only method of ______ changes in world population.
A. bringing about B. carrying out C. taking off D. showing off
2: Grace Kelly was the first famous as a Hollywood actress and then ______ Prince Rainer of Monaco.
A. to be the wife of B. she was the wife of C. as the wife of D. the wife of
3: All visitors are requested to ______ with the regulations.
A. agree B. comply C. assent D. consent
4: Betty: “Your house is lovely! I especially like what you’ve done to the front yard.” Alice: ”______.”
A. Really? That’s nice of you to say so B. Nothing new. Same old thing
C. You’re welcome. I’m glad you can come D. Oh, it was nothing! It was nothing I hope
you like it
5: He gives a lot of money to the poor despite the fact that he has barely enough to live ______ himself.
A. in B. with C. through D. on
6: I’m glad you told me about the show being cancelled. ______, I’d have travelled all the way to Glasgow for
nothing.
A. Therefore B. However C. Otherwise D. Moreover
7: Joe couldn’t come to our party last weekend – he ______ house.
A. was moving B. had moved C. moved D. would move
8: Don’t worry about hotel. We can easily ______ for a few nights.
A. put you in B. put up with you C. put you down D. put you up
9: She wondered ______ her father looked like now, after so many years away.
A. how B. whose C. what D. whom
10: Sarah glanced around the room once more, ______ that nothing was out of place.
A. checked B. checking C. to check D. being checked
11: You ______ him your map. He has one of his own.
A. shouldn’t have lent B. mightn’t have lent C. mustn’t have lent D. needn’t have lent
12: It is vital that our country’s imports ______ its exports.
A. don’t exceed B. not exceed C. didn’t exceed D. won’t exceed
13: Tall people were obliged to bend down ______ their head on the low ceiling.
A. so that they won’t bang B. for them not to bang C. in case they will bang D. so as
not to bang
14: Never having been away from home before, ______.
A. Daisy, therefore, felt a little homesick at first B. it made Daisy feel a little homesick at first
C. Daisy was a little homesick at first D. the first feeling Daisy had was sickness.
15: I know William has been disobedient, but don’t be too ______ on him.
A. heavy B. strong C. hard D. strict
16: The two men looked so ______ that it was impossible to distinguish between them.
A. alike B. same C. like D. likely
17: I’d rather you ______ anything about the garden until the weather improves.
A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make
18: This is the athlete ______ everyone says will win the gold medal at the winter Olympic Games.
A. whose B. whom C. who D. whoever
19: Because of his poor health, it took him a long time to ______ his bad cold.
A. throw off B. throw away C. throw down D. throw over
20: Betty: “Wally, the bracelet is beautiful, but really, you shouldn’t have!” Wally: “ ______.”
A. Okay. Take care B. You’re welcome. I think it looks beautiful on you C. I hope not D. No. I
don’t think so
21: As he made no reference to our quarrel, I assumed he ______ me.
A. forgave B. had forgiven C. would forgive D. was
forgiving
22: “There is no further treatment we can give,” said Dr. Jekyll. “We must let the disease take its ______.”
A. term B. end C. course D. way
23: The Continental United States is ______ that there are four time zones.
 A. so a big area B. very big C. much big D. so big an area
24: ______ had I had time to take my coat off when the boss came in.
A. Scarcely B. Hard C. No sooner D. Almost
25: My supervisor had me ______ the morning taking inventory.
A. spend B. spent C. to spend D. spending
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
26: . This holiday is within our price range, provided we don’t go to the expensive restaurants in the tourist center.
A. Our holiday will be okay if there aren’t any expensive restaurants in the tourist center.
B. Because of the expensive restaurants in the tourist center, we cannot continue our holiday.
C. We can afford the holiday so long as we avoid the expensive restaurants in the tourist center.
D. We would be short of money unless we kept away from the expensive restaurants in the tourist center
27: The weather was getting worse, so Joe was forced to give up his attempt to climb the summit.
A. The weather was so bad that Joe wouldn’t be able to climb the summit.
B. But for such awful weather Joe managed to climb the summit.
C. Joe wasn’t encouraged to try to reach the summit because of the weather, which was extremely bad.
D. Due to the worsening weather, Joe had no alternative but to give up his attempt to climb the summit.
28: “Here are the car keys. You’d better wait in the car,” he said to her.
A. He handed her the keys, advising her to wait in the car.
B. He advised her to wait in the car with the car keys.
C. He got the car keys before advising her to wait in the car.
D. He gave the car keys to her who was to wait for him in the car.
29: It couldn’t have been Mary that you heard shouting last night as she is on holiday in Jakarta at the moment.
A. I think Mary is on holiday in Jakarta now, so you may be wrong in thinking that you heard her shouting
last night.
B. If you had heard Mary shouting last night she wouldn’t be able to take vacation in Jakarta now.
C. It was not Mary who shouted to you last night because she is on vacation in Jakarta at the moment.
D. Right now, Mary is having a holiday in Jakarta, so it is impossible that it was she whose shouting you
heard last night.
30: The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. When the figures were re-checked, they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistakes in the accounts was noticed.
C. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
D. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were checked.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
Ancient people made clay pottery because they needed it for their survival. They used the pots they made for
cooking, storing food, and carrying things from place to place. Pottery was so important to early cultures that
scientists now study it to learn more about ancient civilizations. The more advanced the pottery in terms of
decoration, materials, glazes and manufacture, the more advanced the culture itself.
The artisan who makes pottery in North America today utilizes his or her skill and imagination to create items
that are beautiful as well as functional, transforming something ordinary into something special and unique.
The potter uses one of the Earth’s most basic materials, clay. Clay can be found almost everywhere. Good pottery
clay must be free from all small stones and other hard materials that would make the potting process difficult. Most
North American artisan-potters now purchase commercially processed clay, but some find the clay they need right
in the earth, close to where they work.
The most important tools potters use are their own hand; however, they also use wire loop tools, wooden modeling
tools, plain wire, and sponges. Plain wire is used to cut away the finished pot from its base on the potter’s wheel.
After a finished pot is dried of all its moisture in the open air, it is placed in a kiln and fired. The first firing
hardens the pottery, and it is then ready to be glazed and fired again. For areas where they do not want any glaze,
such as the bottom of the pot, artisans paint on melted wax that will later burn off in the kiln. They then pour on the
liquid glaze and let it run over the clay surface, making any kind of decorative pattern that they want.
31: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different kinds of clay. B. The training of an artisan.
C. The making of pottery. D. Crafts of ancient civilizations.
32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a way that ancient people used pottery?
 A. To hold food B. To wash clothes C. To transport objects D. To cook
33: The word “it” in line 2 refers to ______.
A. clay B. culture C. survival D. pottery
34: According to the passage, which of the following can be learned about an ancient civilization by examining its
pottery?
A. Its food preferences B. Its developmental stage C. Its geographic location D. Its population
35: The word “functional” in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Useful B. Strong C. Inexpensive D. Original
36: The word “basic” in line 7 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Familiar B. Fundamental C. Versatile D. Dirty
37: According to the passage, how do most North American potters today get the clay they need?
A. They buy it B. They make it C. They did it from the earth D. They barter
for it
38: It can be inferred from the passage that clay is processed commercially in order to ______.
A. make it dry more evenly B. remove hard substances
C. prevent the glaze from sticking D. make it easier to color
39: According to the author, what do potters use to remove the pot from the wheel?
A. Melted wax B. A wire loop C. A sponge D. Plain wire
40: The word “pattern” in line 15 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Model B. Color C. Puzzle D. Design
Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Sports Photography
Sport as a spectacle and photography as a way of recording action have developed together. At the arrival of the
20th century, Edward Muybridge was experimenting with photographs of movement. His pictures of a runner (41)
______ in every history of photography. Another milestone was when the scientist and photographer Harold
Edgerton (42) ______ the limits of photographic technology with his study of a (43) ______ of milk hitting the
surface of a dish. Another advance was the development of miniature cameras in the late 1920s, which made it
possible for sports photographers to (44) ______ their cumbersome cameras behind.
The arrival of television was a significant development in the transmission of sport. Paradoxically, it was of
benefit to still photographers. People who watched a sports event on TV, with all its movement and action, (45)
______ the still image as a reminder of the game.
Looking back, we can see how (46) ______ sports photography has changed. (47) ______ sports photographers
were as interested in the stories behind the sport as in the sport itself. Contemporary sports photography (48) ______
the glamour of sport, the colour and the action. But the best sports photographers today do more than (49) ______
tell the story of the event, or make a (50) ______ of it. They capture in a single dramatic moment the real emotions
of the participants, emotions with which people looking at the photographs can identify.
41: A. exhibit B. show C. feature D. demonstrate
42: A. enlarged B. extended C. prolonged D. spread
43: A. splash B. drop C. dash D. drip
44: A. put B. keep C. lay D. leave
45: A. chose B. valued C. pointed D. cheered
46: A. highly B. radically C. extremely D. severely
47: A. Initial B. First C. Early D. Primary
48: A. outlines B. signals C. emphasises D. forms
49: A. simply B. alone C. singly D. only
50: A. preservation B. store C. mark D. record
Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
51: I haven’t finished my work because there was a fault in the network and I couldn’t log on until 4 o’clock.
A. connect B. check out C. wait D. repair
52: I hate it when students use their MP3 players in the library. It always bothers me when I’m trying to study.
A. disturbs B. converses C. entertains D. interests
53: Although Valentine’s Day has become a global industry with more than 80 million roses sold worldwide,
the origins of the day are unclear and hidden in the mists of time.
A. a long time ago B. unforgettable C. mysterious D. too old for anyone to confirm
Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
54: No one knew precisely what would happen to a human being in space.
A. wrongly B. casually C. flexibly D. informally
55: China has become the third country in the world which can independently carry out the manned space
activities.
A. put in B. put on C. put up D. put off
Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
question.
56: A. conserve B. proposal C. resident D. dissolve
57: A. category B. expand C. acacia D. applicant
Read the following passage and indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
The light bulb changed human existence by illuminating the night and making human activity possible in
darkness. The electric light, one of the everyday conveniences that most affects our lives, was invented in 1879 by
both Thomas Eva Edison in the United States, and Sir Joseph Wilson Swan in England at the same time.
However, the story of the electric light actually goes back to 1811, when Sir Humphrey Davy discovered that an
electrical arc passed between two poles produced light. In 1841, experimental lights were installed as public lighting
along the Place de la Concorde in Paris. Other experiments were undertaken in Europe and America, but the arc
light eventually proved impractical because it burned out too quickly. Inventors continued to work on the problem
of developing a reliable electric light that would be practical for both home and public use instead of gas light.
The solution lay not in electrical arc in open space, but in electricity passed through a filament. The breakthrough
theory became known as the Joule effect after James Prescott Joule. He theorized that electrical current, if passed
through a resistant conductor, would glow white-hot with heat energy and thus produce light.
Edison decided to try a carbonized cotton thread filament. When voltage was applied to the completed bulb, it
gave off a soft orange glow. Just about fifteen hours later, the filament finally burned out. Further experimentation
produced filaments that could burn longer and longer with each test. By the end of 1880, he had produced a 10-watt
bulb that could last for 1500 hours, and had begun to market his new invention.
58: What is the topic of the passage?
A. who first invented the light bulb B. the effects of public lighting on everyday
life
C. how the light bulb was invented D. the invention of carbonized cotton thread
filaments
59: Who first invented the electric light bulb?
A. Thomas Edison B. Sir Joseph Wilson Swan
C. Sir Humphrey Davy D. Both Thomas Edison and Sir Joseph Wilson Swan
60: Why is the date of the electric light’s invention, 1879, given first in the chronology of events?
A. to highlight the years of development preceding its invention
B. to state when the electric light was first invented
C. to show this was the year the light bulb was perfected
D. none of the above
61: Why were the first light bulbs impractical?
A. They lasted only a short time B. Glass was too expensive for light bulbs
C. Electricity wasn’t widely available D. They were too expensive
62: What is a filament?
A. an electrical plug B. anything that electricity passes through to create
light
C. an electrical arc in open space D. a burning stick
63: What did James Prescott Joule’s theory state?
A. Light was possible only with electricity
B. Gas light was impractical compared to electrical light
C. Electricity passed through a conductor would produce light
D. Carbonized cotton thread filament was the best means to produce light
64: It can be inferred that “illuminating” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. interrupting B. making easier C. giving light to D. getting rid of
65: It can be inferred that “undertaken” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
 A. failed B. tried C. funded D. discovered
66: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. bulb B. light C. current D. voltage
67: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. to prove which country the light bulb’s inventor came from B. to prove who invented the light bulb
C. to show that there were public lights before 1879 D. to inform the reader of the history of the
light bulb
Indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
68: Buenos Aires is one of the world capitals that are famous for its busy harbor.
A B C D
69: Of the two lectures, the first was by far the best, partly because the person who delivered it had such a
dynamic style.
A B C D
70: Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process applying wherever food and climatic conditions
make it possible.
A B C D
71: Ice skating and to go skiing are popular winter sports in the Northern United States.
A B C D
72: In recent years great advances forward have been made in the field of genetic research.
A B C D
Choose the sentence that best join each of the following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions.
73: Write your name in the book. He may forget who lent it to him.
A. He will remember whose book it is if you write your name in it.
B. Your name in the book will remind him of it.
C. He will forget the book unless you write your name in it.
D. Write your name in the book in case he forgets who lent it to him.
74: He had just entered the house. The police arrested him at once.
A. No sooner had he entered the house than the police arrested him.
B. Hardly that he had entered the house when the police arrested him.
C. Immediately had he entered the house when the police arrested him.
D. The police immediately arrested him as soon as he’s just entered the house.
75: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continued to climb up the mountain
C. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to climb up the mountain.
76: You have paid for the theatre tickets. Please let me pay for our dinner.
A. Please let me pay for our dinner just after your have paid for the theatre tickets.
B. Inasmuch as you have paid for the theatre tickets, please let me pay for our dinner.
C. Please let me pay for our dinner if you have paid for the theatre tickets.
D. You have paid for the theatre tickets so that I will be allowed to pay for our dinner.
77: The snowfall was very heavy. The result of that was they had to cancel all the trains.
A. The snowfall was heavy enough for them to be cancelled all the trains.
B. They had to cancel all the trains because of the snowfall, which had been heavy.
C. The snowfall was very heavy and they had better to cancel all the trains.
D. So great was the snowfall that all the trains had to be cancelled.
Indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following
question
78: A. concentrate B. comfortable C. interview D. technology
79: A. enthusiast B. educator C. curricula D. environment
80: A. particular B. acceptable C. pessimistic D. compulsory
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 96
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part
in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory
Question 2: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. punctuality B. technological C. characteristic D. representative
Question 4: A. equip B. vacant C. secure D. oblige
Question 5: A. effectiveness B. accountancy C. satisfaction D. appropriate
Question 6: A. prevention B. implement C. fertilize D. enterprise
Question 7: A. dynamism B. accompany C. comfortable D. interview
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: We _______ today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.
A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework
Question 9: You can go to the party tonight _______ you are sober when you come home.
A. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as
Question 10: She must _______ in the garage when we came that's why she didn't hear the bell.
A. have been working B. be working C. have worked D. work
Question 11: I'm sorry, but I've got _______ much work to do to come to the beach today.
A. too B. such C. enough D. so
Question 12: It’s essential that every student _______ the exam before attending the course.
A. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass
Question 13: I decided to go to the library as soon as I _______.
A. would finish what I did B. finished what I did
C. finished what I was doing D. finish what I did
Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, _______ ancient
Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. because B. whereas C. whether or not D. even though
Question 15: Please cut my hair _______ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length like B. the same length as
C. the same long like D. the same long as
Question 16: _______ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.
A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers
Question 17: _______, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. Had he studied more
C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more
Question 18: Study harder _______.
A. if you will pass the exam B. unless you pass the exam
C. or you won’t pass the exam D. and you pass the exam
Question 19: Fire safety in family houses, _______ most fire deaths occur, is difficult.
A. how B. when C. why D. where
Question 20: _______ of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would improve.
A. In the end B. At the height C. On the top D. At the bottom
Question 21: When I got my case back, it had been damaged _______ repair.
A. over B. further C. above D. beyond
Question 22: We intend to _______ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A. do up B. do in C. do away D. do down
Question 23: _______ that she burst into tears.
 A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so
Question 24: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are _______.
A. out of reach B. out of practice C. out of stock D. out of work
Question 25: Do you remember Daisy? I ran _______ her at the Fair yesterday.
A. by B. down C. across D. in
Question 26: I’m really sleepy today. I wish I _______ Bob to the airport late last night,
A. weren’t taking B. didn’t take C. hadn’t had to take D. didn’t have to take
Question 27: Matthew’s hands were covered in oil because he _______ his bike.
A. had been mending B. has mended C. has been mending D. had mended
Question 28: – “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.” –
“_______”
A. Never mind B. I can’t agree with you more
C. You can say that again D. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it.
Question 29: Mark: -“_______” Helen: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. What a beautiful dress you have on! B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you? D. When have you got this beautiful dress?
Question 30: Host: “I’m terribly sorry for this inconvenience.” Guests: -"_______"
A. It’s mine. I came late B. It’s not your fault C. I’ll do better next time D. Fine, thanks
Question 31: Once known as the “Golden State” because of its gold mines, _______.
A. North Carolina today mines few metallic minerals
B. few metallic minerals are mined in North Carolina today
C. there are few metallic minerals mined in North Carolina today
D. today in North Carolina few metallic minerals are mined
Question 32: Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from a garden _______ roots firmly anchor plants to the soil.
A. well aware B. is well aware that C. is well aware of D. well aware that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting.
Question 33: Children’s games, which are amusements (A) involve more than one individual, (B) appear to be
(C) culturally (D) universal.
Question 34: When I (A) came back I (B) realized that (C) my camera (D) had been disappeared.
Question 35: If (A) either of you (B) take a vacation now, we (C) won’t be able (D) to finish this work.
Question 36: Among the (A) world’s 44 (B) richest countries, (C) there has been (D) not war since 1945.
Question 37: (A) What we know about certain diseases (B) are still not sufficient to prevent them (C) from
spreading easily (D) among the population.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in
each of the following questions.
Question 38: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. revived B. surprised C. connived D. survived
Question 39: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize
Question 40: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.
A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the American press in
the late nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned
by Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today’s Sunday funnies,
appeared two years later, in William Randolph Hearst’s rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.
Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the
sale of papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid”, the first continuous comic
character in the United States, whose creator, Richard Outcault, had been lured away from the World by the
ambitious Hearst. The “Yellow Kid” was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce
that came to characterize later strips, and it introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the
characters’ heads.
 The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks’s “Katzenjammer Kids”, based
on Wilhelm Busch’s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The “Kids” strip, first published
in 1897, served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous
cast of characters, and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier
comics.
Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country.
Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. The first appeared in
the Chicago American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had
become a staple of daily newspapers around the country.
Question 41: In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?
A. In the order in which they were created.
B. From most popular to least popular.
C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared.
D. In alphabetical order by title.
Question 42: According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following
EXCEPT __.
A. feature the same character in each episode B. include dialogue inside a balloon
C. appear in a Chicago newspaper D. characterize city life in a humorous way
Question 43: The word “prototype” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. model B. story C. humor D. drawing
Question 44: The word “staple” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. new version B. huge success C. regular feature D. popular edition
Question 45: The word “incorporate” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. combine B. mention C. create D. affect
Question 46: Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?
A. Their comic strips are still published today.
B. They owned major competitive newspapers.
C. They established New York’s first newspaper.
D. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.
Question 47: The word “it” refers to _______.
A. balloon B. farce C. dialogue D. the “Yellow Kid”
Question 48: The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?
A. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.
B. They were about real-life situations.
C. Readers could identify with the characters.
D. They provided a break from serious news stories.
Question 49: To say that Richard Outcault had been “lured away from” the World by Hearst means which of the
following?
A. Hearst warned Outcault not to leave the World. C. Hearst fired Outcault from the World.
B. Hearst convinced Outcault to leave the World. D. Hearst wanted Outcault to work for the World.
Question 50: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The differences between early and modern comic strips.
B. Features of early comic strips in the United States.
C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories.
D. A comparison of two popular comic strips.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 51: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped. C. The noise next door stopped at midnight
B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped. D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
Question 52: Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.
A. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
B. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
C. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
 D. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
Question 53: If you want to be kept informed about current affairs, you should listen to the radio.
A. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs.
B. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio.
C. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs.
D. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs.
Question 54: I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
A. I travel by bus only as a last resort.
B. It’s my only alternative to travel by bus.
C. I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
D. Travelling by bus is my only alternative.
Question 55: Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.
C. It’s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
D. There’s no point calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
Question 56: The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.
A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
C. It’s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.
Question 57: Lin’s success took us all by surprise.
A. We were taken aback by all of Lin’s successes. B. Lin’s success was surprised to all of us.
C. Lin was successful, which surprised all of us. D. We took all of Lin’s successes surprisingly.
Question 58: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in the first place.
A. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
C. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess right now.
Question 59: Fiona goes to the theater once in a blue moon.
A. Fiona goes to the theater when the moon is full.
B. Fiona rarely goes to the theater.
C. Fiona goes to the theater when the blue moon is on.
D. Fiona goes to the theater only once a month.
Question 60: What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
C. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.
D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks
Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio
waves might (61) _______ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not (62)
_______ us to say with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (63) _______. On the other hand, current
research has not yet (64) _______ clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.
Numerous studies are now going (65) _______ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but
others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (66) _______, these studies are preliminary
and the issue needs further, long - term investigation.
(67) _______ the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long
(68) _______ of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact
showing the (69) _______ and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people (70) _______
bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.
Question 61: A. cause B. bring C. produce D. lead
Question 62: A. make B. let C. able D. enable
Question 63: A. risky B. secure C. unhealthy D. safe
Question 64: A. proved B. created C. demonstrated D. caused
Question 65: A. on B. about C. through D. by
Question 66: A. While B. Though C. Additionally D. However
Question 67: A. Until B. When C. Provide D. As
Question 68: A. quantities B. periods C. amounts D. intervals
Question 69: A. way B. truth C. opposite D. fact
Question 70: A. whose B. that C. with D. as
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects, an estimated 90 percent of the world's species have
scientific names. As a consequence, they are, perhaps, the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial
biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an
excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking
difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned
that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did
not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate
butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical
zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups.
However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather than between them,
is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and
Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison
between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made.
Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of
butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most
familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy
will be minimized.
Question 71: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names D. Their variety
Question 72: The word "consequence" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. requirement B. analysis C. result D. explanation
Question 73: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because
they _______.
A. are found mainly in temperate climates B. have been given scientific names
C. are simple in structure D. are viewed positively by people
Question 74: The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. noticeable B. successful C. confusing D. physical
Question 75: The word “exceed” in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. allow B. go beyond C. come close to D. locate
Question 76: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
C. patterns of distribution of species in each region
D. migration among temperate and tropical zones
Question 77: The author mentions "tropical Asia" in the passage as an example of a location where _______.
A. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
B. butterflies are affected by human populations
C. butterfly behavior varies with climate
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 78: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
Question 79: The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that _______.
A. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution
B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent
Question 80: The word "generated" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. assisted B. estimated C. requested D. caused
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 97
PART I: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
1: A. eventually B. capacity C. altogether D. particular
2: A. appearance B. ambitious C. performance D. telephone
3:A. temptation B. property C. government D. beautiful
4:A. relation B. arrange C. summary D. eliminate
5: A. interview B. processor C. essential D. compliment
PART II: Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
6: To solve this problem, it is advisable _______ .
A. a drastic measure to be adopted B. that to adopt a drastic measure
C. that a drastic measure be adopted D. that a drastic measure is adopted
7: John. “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” Laura. “_______ ”.
A. Yes, it's an absurd idea B. There's no doubt about it
C. Of course not. You bet D. Well, that's very surprising
8: A few animals sometimes fool their enemies _______ to be dead.
A. have been appearing B. to be appearing
C. to appear D. by appearing
9: On _______ he had won, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. being told D. telling
10: The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several_______ .
A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates
11: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso.
A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy
12: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very_______.
A. open – minded B. kind – hearted C. narrow- minded D. absent - minded
13: In most__ developed countries, up to 50% of___ population enters higher education at some time in their lives.
A. the/  B. /  C. the/ a D.  /the
14: What chemical is this? It's _______ a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
15: I have told you not to do it_______ .
A. hundreds of times B. many hundred times C. hundred times D. a hundred times
16: Learning English isn't so difficult once you_______ .
A. get down to it B. get off it C. get on it D. get down with it
17: George wouldn't have met Mary_______ to his brother's graduation party.
A. had he not gone B. hadn't he gone C. if he has not gone D. if he shouldn't have gone
18: Nowadays children would prefer history _______ in more practical ways.
A. to be taught B. teach C. be taught D. to teach
19: John has a monthly bank __ sent to him so that he knows how much there is in his account.
A. statement B. overdraft C. cheque D. balance
20: Can you list the problems _______ poor and _______ countries?
A. facing/ overpopulation B. facing/ overpopulated C. face/ overpopulated D. facing/ overpopulating
21: In a few hours, we_______ the test, and we’ll go home and rest.
A. are finishing B. have finished C. will have finished D. will be finishing
22: The doctor gave the patient _______ examination to discover the cause of his collapse.
A. a thorough B. an exact C. a universal D. a whole
23: I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,_______ ?
A. wasn't she B. didn't you C. didn't I D. wasn't it
24: _______ non-verbal language is _______ important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A.  /an B. A/ the C. the/ D. The/a
25: We bought some _______.
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
26: Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary. “_______”.
 A. Great B. Oh, that's annoying C. Well, never mind D. Sounds like fun
27: _______ air essential is to man, so is water to fish.
A. As B. Just C. Since D. Like
28: If you had taken my advice, you _______ in such difficulties now.
A. wouldn't have been B. hadn't been C. wouldn't be D. won't be
29: One's fingerprints are _______ other person.
A. different from B. different from any C. differ from any D. different from those of any
30: Jane wasn't in when I arrived. I suppose she _______ I was coming.
A. must have forgotten B. must forget C. may forget D. can't have forgotten
31: ____ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion.
A. The Moon B. The Moon which C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
32: I should very much like to have gone to that party of theirs, but _______.
A. I'm not invited B. I will not be invited
C. I have not been invited D. I was not invited
33: Jane. “It's going to rain”. Mary. “_______”.
A. I hope not so B. I don't hope either C. I don't hope so D. I hope not
34: A good friend is _______ will stand by you when you are in trouble.
A. the one who B. a person that C. people who D. who
35: _______, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was B. Thanks to the difficult homework
C. As though the homework was difficult D. Despite the homework was difficult
36: She listened so attentively that not a word_______.
A. she had missed B. she missed C. she didn't miss D. did she miss
37: On hearing the news she fainted and it was half an hour before she came_______ again.
A. round B. up C. over D. forward
38: The policeman_______ him to appear as a witness.
A. let B. discouraged C. made D. compelled
39: Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of their sex.
A. publicly supported B. rightly claimed C. publicly said D. openly criticized
40: Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. as much as twice B. twice as much as C. twice more than D. twice as
PART III: Mark the underlined part that needs correction.
41: The (A) reason he wants to take a leaving (B) of absence is that he (C) needs a complete (D) rest.
42: His boss (A) has asked (B) him to respond (C) immediately (D) this fax.
43: It is the writing (A) English that (B) causes difficulties (C) to foreigners (D).
44: The (A) diameter of the Sun is more than (B) one hundred times (C) greater than (D) the Earth.
45: Foreign students who are doing (A) a decision about which (B) school to attend (C) may not know exactly where
the choices (D) are located.
PART IV: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence which is closest in
meaning to the given one.
46: Friendly though he may seem, he's not to be trusted.
A. He's too friendly to be trusted.
B. However he seems friendly, he's not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he's not to be trusted.
D. However friendly he seems, he's not to be trusted.
47: You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
B. You didn't persuade him to change because of his mind.
C. You should persuade him to change his mind.
D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn't listen.
48: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
 D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
49: I wish you hadn't said that.
A. I wish you not to say that. B. If only you didn't say that.
C. I hope you will not say that. D. It would be nice if you hadn't said that.
50: “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
PART V: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the one that best completes each
sentence.
51: My English is progressing __________.
A. odds and ends B. leaps and bounds C. bounds and leaps D. ends and odds
52: Many of the current international problems we are now facing __________.
A. linguistic incompetencies
B. are the result of misunderstandings
C. are because of not understanding themselves
D. lack of the intelligent capabilities of understanding each other
53: We got on well when we shared a flat, __________.
A. in spite of the different in our old B. although the difference in our age
C. in spite that fact that I was much older than her D. despite her being much older than me
54: Having selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International Convention, ___.
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech
55: When you do something, you should __________.
A. get through to B. turn over a new leaf C. weigh up the pros and cons D. go down well with
PART VI: Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the following questions
Telecommunicating is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For
employees whose jobs involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of
the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is
completed, employees can dial the office computer from a distant site and transmit the material to their employers.
A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8.7 million telecommuters. But although the
numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week
published "The Portable Executive" as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn't telecommuting become more
popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers.
These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would
be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager's
responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are often reluctant to accept the opportunity.
Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the
same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even
when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.
56: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuters EXCEPT_____ .
A. the lack of interaction with a group B. the different system of supervision
C. the fact that the work space is in the home D. the opportunities for advancement
57: How many American workers are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than 8 million B. More than predicted in Business Week
C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today D. Fewer than last year
58: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is _______.
A. the manager of a group of telecommuters B. a reporter
C. a telecommuter D. a statistician
59: The word "resistance" could best be replaced by_______.
A. participation B. consideration C. opposition D. alteration
60: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. A definition of telecommuting B. The advantages of telecommuting
C. An overview of telecommuting D. The failure of telecommuting
PART VII: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions from 61 to 70.
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also contain a
high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more
than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg sales to plummet in recent
years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative
is to eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are
cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One
disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular
eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called 'designer' eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat
diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens
produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim
that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their
claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed
results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating
the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is
evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still
makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat
will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
61: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
D. To convince people to eat 'designer' eggs and egg substitutes.
62: According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases?
A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins
63: Which of the following could best replace the word 'somewhat'?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot
64: What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. increasing price B. decreased production
C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol
65: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested daily limit for
human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
66: The word 'portrayed' could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
67: What is the meaning of 'back up'?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
68: What is meant by the phrase 'mixed results'?
A. The results are blended. B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
69: According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following types of eggs EXCEPT?
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried
70: According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol?
A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
PART VIII: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word for each of the blanks 71 to 80.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee? The
schools teach a (71)____many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach
anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future
employee to know. But very few students bother (72)____ it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express
ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on your ability to
communicate, with people and to (73)____ your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will (74)____ understand
what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (75)____ itself. You must have something to say in the first place.
The effectiveness of your job depends (76) ___ your ability to make other people understand your work as they do
on the quality of the work itself.
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (77)___ teach. The foundations for skill in expression
have to be (78)____ early: an interest in and an ear (79)____ language; experience in organizing ideas and data, in
brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If you do not lay these foundations (80)
____ your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.
71: A. large B. great C. far D. lots
72: A. learning B. to learn C. with learning D. learn
73: A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
74: A. both B. not C. as well D. either
75: A. on B. for C. by D. in
76: A. on most B. most on C. much on D. on much
77: A. quite B. hardly C. truly D. really
78: A. lied B. laid C. lain D. lay
79: A. by B. in C. for D. of
80: A. during B. of C. for D. when
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 98
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the blanks
According to a magazine article I read recently, we (1)_____ live in an age of increasing leisure. Not only are
more and more people reaching retirement age with their taste for enjoyment and even adventure relatively
(2)________ but the working week is becoming shorter and the opportunities for leisure are becoming greater and
greater all the time. Not to mention the fact that people (3)_______ to spend less time traveling to work or may even
be working from home. What I can't understand, however, is who these people are. As far as I can (4)________ the
whole thing is another one of (5)_______ journalistic fictions. I admit that there are a lot of retired people
(6)_________ but I am not sure that all of them are dashing about learning hang- gliding or sailing single-handed
(7)_________ the world. My own parents seem to (8)_______ most of their time gazing at the television. And as
for the shorter working week, I wish someone (9)________ remind my company about it. I seem to be working
longer and longer hours all the time. The little leisure time I have is eaten into by sitting in the traffic jams or waiting
for trains to (10)_______ up at rain-swept platforms. I haven't noticed any dramatic improvements in my
(11)_________ either, but perhaps I just have to wait until I get my pension.
1: A. presently B. at the moment C. now D. at this time
2: A. present B. survived C. free D. intact
3: A. use B. tend C. have D. demand
4: A. concern B. imagine C. expect D. tell
5: A. the B. those C. these D. some
6: A. in our days B. in these times C. nowadays D. now and again
7: A. round B. over C. through D. into
8: A. have B. use C. save D. spend
9: A. would B. to C. had D. might
10: A. keep B. line C. show D. set
11: A. cost of living B. lifestyle C. lifeline D. livelihood
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 12 to 18.
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in
making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that
perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as
well., especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contract certain illnesses because
of the characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates
and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meat) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these
carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on
the packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because
of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.
Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons.
The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the
Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest.
Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food
without our knowledge.
12: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Harmful and Harmless Substances in Food B. Improving Health through a Natural Diet.
C. The Food You Eat Can Affect Your Health D. Avoiding Injurious Substances in Food.
13: The word “ carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. money-making B. trouble-making C. cancer-causing D. color-retaining
14: : The word “ these” refers to ____________.
A. researchers B. nitrates and nitrites C. meats D. colors
15: The word “ fit” is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. athletic B. adaptable C. suitable D. tasty
16: FDA means ____________.
A. Food and Drug Administration B. Federal Dairy Additives C. Final Difficult Analysis D. Food Direct
Additives
17: The word “additives” is closest in meaning to ________________.
A. added substances B. benign substances C. dangerous substances D. natural substances
18: What are nitrates used for?
A. They preserve flavor in packaged foods B. They cause the animals to become fatter.
C. They are the objects of research D. They preserve the colour of meat
19: How has science done a disservice to people?
A. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
B. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our
food
D. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.
20: The word “ prone” is nearest in meaning to __________.
A. supine B. unlikely C. predisposed D. healthy
21: All of the following statements are true except_____________.
A. Researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than forty-five years.
B. Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons
C. Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world.
D. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals.
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest ones.
22: A. imagine B. Valentine C. determine D. discipline
23: A. shore B. assure C. eventually D. proficient
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
24: : The government should take ___________ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.
A. measures B. changes C. steps D. solutions
25: .. ............... that the company has shown rapid growth in the last two years.
A. They are reported B. It is reported C. The report was D. It was reported
26: Professor Alan insisted that every student ___________ their report by Friday.
A. finish B. finishes C. had finished D. finished
27: Doctors advise people who are deficient _________ Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. for B. in C. of D. from
28: Sandra and Paul have just bought a small house…………………….. of the town.
A. in the district B. in the edge C. on the outskirts D. in the suburb
29: I’m sorry if I gave you false information : I didn’t intend to __________ you
A. mislead B. misconduct C. misrepresent D. mistrust
30: Let’s go ahead and do it now. Nothing ____________ by waiting.
A. accomplished B. accomplished C. has accomplished D. will be accomplished
31: I’m sorry you’ve decided not to go with us on the river trip ,___________ you change your mind , there will
still enough room on the boat for you.
A. provided that B. even C. nevertheless D. in the event that
32: We wish that you____________ such a lot of work , because we know that you would have enjoyed the party.
A. hadn’t B. haven’t had C. didn’t have D. hadn’t had
33: Look ! the yard is wet. It ______________ last night.
A. must have rained B. must rain C. couldn’t have rained D. should have rained
34: John. “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” -Laura. “______”
A . Yes, it’s an absurd idea B. Well, that’s very surprising
C. Of course not. You bet! D. There’s no doubt about it.
35: They decided to name the new baby boy ______________ Grandpa.
A. with B. as C. of D. after
36: ____________ in your class have tickets for the lecture series?
A. Does any of the student B. Do any of the students
C. Do any of the student D. Does any of the students
37: Robert has a new car. He __________ it for a very good price. He paid 30 percent less than the regular retail
cost.
A. could buy B. had to buy C. was supposed to buy D. was able to buy
38: Don’t worry if you make a mistake. Just ______________ it out.
A. leave B. rule C. cross D. slip
39: After failing his driving test four times, he finally ______________ trying to pass.
A. give away B. gave up C. gave off D. gave in
40: It was only _________ he told me his surname that I realized that he had been to the same school.
A. as soon as B. then C. when D. until
41: Olives are a principal source of cooking oil, but by no means the only source. __________ olives, cooking oil
can be extracted from coconuts , corn, and sunflower seeds.
A. In spite of B. In addition to C. Because of D. In case of
42: I would appreciate it................ what I have told you a secret.
A. you can keep B. that you kept C. if you kept D. you will keep
43: The United States consists of fifty states, ______ has its own government.
A. hence each B. each of that C. each of which D. they each
44: There is a severe ____________ in South Africa ,and thousands of people are dying from hunger.
A. starvation B. disease C. shortage D. famine
45: I don’t like to ask people for help but I wonder if you could ________________
A. make me a favour B. find me a favour C. do me a favour D. give me a favour
46: By the time he had finished work and returned home, he was absolutely________________
A. exhausted B. tired C. weary D. weak
47: “ Hello? Alice? This is Jeff. How are you ?” “ Jeff? What a coincidence! I ______ about you when the phone
rang.”
A. just thought B. was just thought C. was just thinking D. have just been thinking
48: Having been served lunch, __________________
A. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
B. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
C. the committee members discussed the problem
D. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.
Choose the sentence that expresses the best meaning formed by the given words.
49: / computer / run / ten times / fast / this / old one /
A. This computer runs faster ten times than the old one.
B. This computer runs ten times faster than the old one.
C. This ten times computer runs faster than the old one.
D. This computer runs fast ten times than the old one.
50: / survive / we / work / start / cleaner / safer / energy / sources /
A. We won’t survive otherwise we start working on cleaner, safer sources of energy.
B. We won’t survive so we start working on cleaner, safer sources of energy.
C. We won’t survive unless we start working on cleaner, safer sources of energy.
D. We won’t survive although we start working on cleaner, safer sources of energy.
51: I / think / your offer/ give / my answer / as / possible
A. I’ll think for your offer and give you my answer as soon as possible.
B. I’ll think over your offer and give you my answer as soon as possible.
C. I’ll think about your offer and give you my answer as soon as possible.
D. I’ll think of your offer and give you my answer as soon as possible.
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
52: Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile.
A. This job offers a poor salary. B. This job is rewarding at all.
C. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money. D. Although the salary is poor, the job is
worthwhile.
53: Invitations were sent out as soon as the date of the conference was chosen.
A. Before sending out invitations, the date of the conference was chosen.
B. Choose the date of the conference before sending out invitations.
 C. Hardly had the date of the conference been chosen when invitations were sent out..
D. After choosing the date of the conference, invitations were sent out.
54: The film didn’t come up to my expectations.
A. I expected the film to be more boring. B. The film fell short of my expectations.
C. I expected the film to end more abruptly. D. The film was as good as I expected.
55: I lent him some money. I wanted him to continue his study at college.
A. I lent him some money so as he will continue his study at college.
B. I lent him some money in order that he could continue his study at college.
C. I lent him some money so that to continue his study at college.
D. I lent him some money for him continue his study at college.
56: It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
A. They believed that the man stole the car.
B. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
C. The man is believed to escaped in a stolen car.
D. That the man they believed stole the car.
57: There was a hurricane in August 1992 over West Africa. This hurricane was named Andrew.
A. There was a hurricane what was named Andrew in August 1992 over West Africa.
B. There was a hurricane in August 1992 over West Africa whose hurricane was named Andrew.
C. There was a hurricane who was named Andrew in August 1992 over West Africa.
D. There was a hurricane which was named Andrew in August 1992 over West Africa.
58: Nothing but the whole story would satisfied Tim.
A. On the whole, Tim was satisfied with the story.
B. Tim wanted to know just the end of the story.
C. Tim wouldn’t be satisfied with anything.
D. Tim insisted on being told the complete story.
59: Mr. Smith is now the fifth wealthiest man in this city.
A. Mr. Smith is wealthier than five people.
B. Only four people in this city are wealthier than Mr. Smith .
C. No one in this city has more wealth than Mr. Smith.
D. Mr. Smith is the wealthiest one in this city.
60: The moon doesn’t have the atmosphere, neither does the planet Mars.
A. Neither the moon nor the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
B. Neither the moon or the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
C. Either the moon or the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
D. Either the moon nor the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
61: I think Bob has forgotten the whole event.
A. The whole event is no longer mentioned.
B. Bob appears to have forgotten the whole event.
C. Nothing about the event is worth remembering.
D. Bob must forget the whole event.
Choose the underlined part needs correction in each of the following questions.
62: When (A) the silkworm (B) gets through (C) to lay (D) its eggs, it dies.
63: The high protein (A) content of various strains of alfalfa plants, along with the (B) characteristically long root
system that enables them to survive long droughts, (C) make them (D) particularly valuable in arid countries
64: A fiber-optic cable (A) across the Pacific (B) went into service (C) in April 1989, (D) link the United States
and Japan.
65: The Gray Wolf, a species (A) reintroduced into (B) their native habitat in Yellowstone National park, (C) has
begun to breed (D) naturally there.
66: (A) Those of you (B) who signed up (C) for Dr Daniel’s anthropology class should get (D) their books as soon
as possible.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially
survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say
that you should read and listen to safety instructions before takeoff and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You
should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the
release mechanism of your belt operates. During takeoff and landings you are advised to keep your feet flat on the
floor. Before takeoff you should locate the nearest exit and an alterative exit and count the rows of seat between you
and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary
In the even that you are forewarned of the possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and
keep your head down until the plane come to complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your
head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against
smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew command and do not take personal belongings
with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are fully inflated and when you jump, do so with your arms and
legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as
possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.
67: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions ?
A. in an emergency B. if smoke is in the cabin
C. before locating the exits D. before take off
68: Airline passenger are to do all of the following EXCEPT
A locate the nearest exist B fasten their seat belt before take off
C ask questions about safety D carry personal belongings in an emergency
69: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. guidelines for increasing aircraft passengers survival. B. procedures for evacuating aircraft
C. safety instructions in air travel D. airline industry accident statistics
70: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take off
A. the nearest one B. the ones that can be found in the dark
C. the ones with counted rows of seats between them D. the two closest to the passenger’s seat
71: The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closes in meaning to_______.
A. expanded B. extended C. lifted D. assembled
72:It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they _____
A. read airline safety statistics B. wear a safety belt
C. don’t smoke in or near a plane D. keep their heads low
73:According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor _____ .
A. only if an accident is possible B. during takeoff and landings
C. especially during landings D. throughout the flight
74:The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closes in meaning to_______.
A. abscond B. vacate C. forestall D. evade
75:What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss?
A. Where to go to continue your trip B. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft
C. How to recover your luggage D. When to return to the aircraft
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
76 : A. invalid B. predict C. pretend D. preface
77 : A. mausoleum B. conservative C. disqualify D. magnificant
78 : A. nuclear B. province C. construct D. complex
79 : A. literacy B. contingency C. ceremony D. sanctuary
80 : A. optimist B. accuracy C. continent D. artificial

*** The end ***

 ENGLISH PRACTICE 99
I. PHONETICS.
Identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. privacy B. flight C. recycle D. vivid
2. A. introduce B. huge C. flute D. cute
3. A. ballet B. inlet C. buffet D. stay
Identify the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words.
4. A. elegant B. array C. departure D. inherit
5. A. belief B. dinosaur C. argument D. challenge
II. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR.
Choose the right word or phrase to complete the sentences.
6. There’s a list of repairs as long as .
A. a mile B. a pole C. your arm D. your arms
7. The news was to them that they were all dead silent.
A. such shock B. such a shock C. so shock D. too shock
8. In the United States the states but Hawaii is an island.
A. none of B. neither of C. all of D. no of
9. What a ! I have left the umbrella at home and now it starts raining.
A. complaint B. sorry C. shame D. regret
10. are forms of carbon has been known since the late 18th century.
A. Diamonds B. Diamonds, which C. Because diamonds D. That diamonds
11. Dinosaurs believed out millions of years ago.
A. are/ to have died B. were/ to have died C. are/ to die D. were/ to die
12. “Which blouse do you like best?” “ The one .”
A. I tried it on first B. I tried on first C. I tried on it first D. I tried it on firstly
13. The Williams have three sons, have become lawyers.
A. all of whom B. all of them C. they all D. of whom all
14. We would rather Helen us all the information we needed. We should have been well informed.
A. sent B. send C. had sent D. have sent
15. Only because she had to support her family to leave school.
A. that Alice decides B. so Alice decided C. Alice decided D. did Alice decide
16. Sorry, my father is out. Can I a message?
A. leave B. take C. put D. make
17. pollution control measures are expensive, many industries hesitate to adopt them.
A. Because B. Although C. However D. On account of
18. Income tax rates are usually to one’s annual income.
A. dependent B. associated C. adapted D. related
19. She won the competition in 2008 and seems likely again this year.
A. win B. to win C. to do so D. will win
20. The majority of primary school teachers women.
A. is B. are C. includes D. including
21. today, there would be nowhere for them to stay.
A. Were they to arrive B. If they arrive
C. Had they arrive D. Provided they arrived
22. “ I’m taking my driving test tomorrow.” “ !”
A. Luck B. Best wishes C. Good luck D. Good chance
23. The restaurant is very popular with film stars, artists, and the .
A. same B. similar C. such D. like
24. There are different styles in classical music, on when the music was composed.
A. depend B. depending C. depends D. depended
25. The bicycle has two wheels. One wheel is in front of .
A. another B. the other C. other D. others
26. His house is nothing out of the ; it’s just an average four- room house.
A. normal B. typical C. ordinary D. usual
27. Moving to a new town brought about many changes in his life.
A. resulted in B. speeded up C. resulted from D. prevented
28. Will you please give back the pen that yesterday?
A. I borrowed from you B. you lent to me
C. you borrowed to me D. I lent to you
29. “ Let me see. Will five o’clock do?” the nurse answered the patient who wanted an appoinment.
The most appropriate response is “ .”
A. Exactly! B. Not at all C. Maybe, it will D. Fine
30. “ That trumpet player was certainly loud.” “ I wasn’t bothered by his loudness by his lack of
talent.”
A. so much as B. rather than C. as D. than
31. “ Do you mind if I ask you one or two questions?” “ .”
A. Not at all. Fire away. B. That’s quite all right.
C. Why not? D. I’m sorry. I have no idea.
32. Their migration may be halted if fog, clouds, or rain hides the stars.
A. postponed B. spoiled C. stopped D. endangered
33. This magazine is very good. If you like reading, you should to it.
A. contribute B. enroll C. buy D. subscribe
34. the Prime Minister stressed that lack of trained personnel would the progress of Third
Development Plan.
A. overcome B. retard C. increase D. detect
35. We asked him to go back, but he insisted on watching the sun coming down at .
A. sunrise B. dawn C. dusk D. twilight
Choose the underlined part ( A, B, C or D) that is incorrect.
36. Hundred of scientists have been involved in the research.
A B C D
37. Automation reduces labour costs by cutting the number of workers needing to do a job.
A B C D
38. He drove at full speed lest he was late for the meeting.
A B C D
39. A computer can store information such as the size and the shape of a steel beam, recipe for a
A B C D
cake, and the amount of money in a bank account.
40. Many of the population in the rural areas is composed of manual labourers.
A B C D
III. READING.
Read the following passage and choose the right answer to fill in each of the blanks.
Keeping fit and staying healthy have, not surprisingly, become a growth industry (41)
apart from the amount of money spent each year on doctors’ (42) and approved medical treatment, huge
sums are now spent on health foods and (43) of various kinds, from vitamin pills to mineral water, (44)
health clubs and keep- fit books and videos. We are more concerned than ever, it seeems, (45)
the water we drink and the air we breathe, and are smoking less, though not yet drinking less alcohol. This does not
appear to mean that (46) and sneezes have been banished, or that we can all expect to live to a hundred.
To give a personal example, one of my friends, who is a keep- fit (47) , a non- smoker and teetotaler,
and who is very (48) about what he eats, is at present languishing in bed with a wrist in (49)
and a badly sprained ankle. Part of his healthy (50) is to play squash every day after work, and that (51)
for the ankle. He also cycles everywhere, and if you have ever tried to cycle through the rush-hour
traffic with a sprained ankle, you will understand (52) he acquired the broken wrist. For (53)
, it seems, is not just a matter of a good (54) and plenty of exercise. Too much exercise can be
harmful, as many joggers have discovered. Eating the right food can easily become an obsession, as can
overworking, which you might have to do so as to be able to afford your (55) of the squash club, your
mountain bike, your health food, and a few holidays in peaceful and healthy places.
41. A. Poles B. Far C. Quite D. So
42. A. prescriptions B. surgeries C. hospitals D. payments
43. A. medications B. cures C. drugs D. remedies
44. A. beside B. not to mention C. saying D. example
45. A. than B. about C. for D. hence
46. A. colds B. flu C. fevers D. coughs
47. A. fanatic B. follower C. fad D. person
48. A. interested B. varied C. detailed D. particular
49. A. crutches B. plaster C. treatment D. danger
50. A. living B. lifetime C. lifestyle D. liveliness
51. A. is B. caters C. depends D. accounts
52. A. how B. that C. whenever D. thus
53. A. fit B. this C. health D. all
54. A. diet B. eating C. menu D. recipe
55. A. share B. visit C. membership D. subscription
Read the following passage and choose the right answer to each of the questions.
Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally
grown and
marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods- a term whose meaning varies greatly-
frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.
The growing interest of consumers in the safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is
a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the foods supply
is unsafe or inadequate in the meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific
evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to
separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods
prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and formed the basic
for folklore.
Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods.
Thre are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs
are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains, and the like.
One thing that most organically grown foods products seem to have in common is that they cost more than
conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe foods. So there is real cause
for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food supply and buy expensive
organic foods instead.
56. The “ welcome development” mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase in .
A. interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans.
B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet.
C. the amount of healthy foods grown in North America.
D. the number of consumers in North America.
57. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term “ organic foods”?
A. It is accepted by most nutritionists. B. It has been used only in recent years.
C. It has no fixed meaning D. It is seldom used by consumers.
58. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead
of conventionally grown foods because .
A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods.
B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods.
C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods.
D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops.
59. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally
grown foods are often .
A. careless B. mistaken C. thrifty D. wealthy
60. What is the author’s attitude towards the claims made by advocates of health foods?
A. Very anthusiastic B. Skeptical C. Neutral D. Somewhat favorable
Read the following passage and choose the right answer to fill in each of the blanks.
One of the hottest topics on the international development agenda is how to harness the power of
International Monetary Fund for the benefit of developing countries. What is sometimes called “ the death of
distance”, brought about by the (61) ,allow professional services such as (62)
education and training to be provided easily and quickly to (63) areas. Some of the gains can be seen in
countries as diverse as India and Morocco, where innovations range from (64) government
announcements to local craftsmen selling their wares to a (65) market. But already a huge and
eapanding (66) divide is opening up between developed and developing nations. The major tasks
facing world leaders at present is to (67) everybody on the planet with clean water, basic education and
the drugs needed to fight preventable diseases. Installing a (68) in every classroom and liking us to (69)
must be a lesser (70) , for the time being at least.
61. A. computer B. telephone C. modern D. internet
62. A. stationary B. software C. hardware D. equipment
63. A. far B. uninhabited C. remote D. secluded
64. A. programmed B. broadcast C. recorded D. online
65. A. global B. technical C. village D. shrinking
66. A. physical B. digital C. electrical D. economical
67. A. supply B. give C. donate D. administer
68. A. plug B. video C. mobile phone D. modem
69. A. the real world B. cyberspace C. virtual reality D. outer space
70. A. priority B. advantage C. importance D. criteria
IV. WRITING.
Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one in bold.
71. It may seem strange, but I enjoy hard work.
A. I feel strange about hard work.
B. As it may seem strange, but I enjoy hard work
C. Strange as it may seem, I enjoy hardwork.
D. Strange as it may seem, but I enjoy hard work.
72. Look out for falling rocks!
A. Let’s look for falling rocks. B. Look out the window at those falling rocks.
C. Look for falling rocks. D. Don’t let those falling rocks hit you.
73. I only called the police when I had tried everything else.
A. I didn’t call the police because I had tried everything else.
B. I only called the police after I have tried evyrything else.
C. I only called the police as a last resort.
D. Because I had tried everything else, I called the police.
74. Any correspondence from the London office must be dealt with before other matters.
A. Any correspondence from the London office must take priority of other matters.
B. Any correspondence from the London office must be put off other matters.
C. Any correspondence from the London office must be given priority over other matters.
D. Both A & C are acceptable.
75. I would rather you wore something more formal to work.
A. I’d prefer you to wear something more formal to work.
B. I’d prefer you wear something more formal to work.
C. I’d prefer you wearing something more formal to work.
D. I’d prefer you should wear something more formal to work.
From the given words, make meaningful sentences by choosing the most appropriate answer.
76. They/ leave/ early/ not catch/ traffic.
A. They left early so that not to catch in the traffic.
B. They left early to avoid being caught in the traffic.
C. They left early so as to not get caught in the traffic.
D. They left earlt in order to not get caught in the traffic.
77. It/ not easy/ remain/ tranquil/ events/ suddenly/ change/ life.
A. It is noy easy remain tranquil when events suddenly change life.
B. It is not easy to remain tranquil when events suddenly change your life.
C. It is not easy remaining tranquil when events suddenly change your life.
D. It is not easy to remain tranquil if events suddenly change life.
78. You/ should/ doctor/ see/ that cut.
A. You should have a doctor seen to that cut.
B. You should get a doctor seen to that cut.
C. You should have a doctor see to that cut.
D. You should ask a doctor see to that cut.
79. She/ urge/ her husband/ accept/ post.
A. She urged that her husband accept the post.
B. She urged her husband accept the post.
C. She urged her husband accepted the post.
D. She urged her husband should be accepted the post.
80. Committee members/ resent/ treat/ that.
A. The committee members resented to treat as that.
B. The committee members resented to be treated as that.
C. The committee members resented to treat like that.
D. The committee members resented beinng treated like that.
 ENGLISH PRACTICE 100
Choose the word which is stressed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
1: A. innovate B. interfere C. sacrifice D. penalize
2: A. preferential B. communicate C. eliminate D. accompany
3: A. community B. businessman C. development D. environment
4: A. achieve B. improve C. enter D. contain
5: A. ability B. variety C. temperature D. original
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
6: I wish Tom worked as hard as Mary ________ .
A. will B. can C. did D. does
7: _______ you’ve asked me why I went there, I’ll tell you.
A. Since B. Although C. What D. That
8: ________ over the exam results ,she rushed home to tell her family the good news .
A. Excited B. Excitement C. To excite D. Exciting
9: Did she get the better of you in the argument ?
A. try to beat B. gain a disadvantage over C. gain an advantage over D. try to be better than
10: “ Well it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash.” - “ __________”
A. That’s nice B. Well, another time. C. Ok, see you. D. Yes , I enjoyed talking to you,too.
11: What if I ________ you that there’s a good chance I can get tickets for the concert ?
A. were telling B. were to tell C. have told D. would to tell
12: Why don’t you _______ a go ? It’s not difficult !
A. do B. have C. set D. make
13: The book would have been perfect __________ the ending.
A. it had not been for B. had it not been for C. hadn’t it been for D. it hadn’t been for
14: Jack __________ chess before so I showed him what to do.
A. wasn’t playing B. hadn’t been playing C. didn’t play D. hadn’t played
15: Part of ________ New York City is situated on _______ LongIsland .
A. the/a B. the/0 C. the/the D. 0/0
16: As you’ve arrived late, you’ll have to _________ the time you’ve lost .
A. do up for B. make up to C. make up for D. do up to
17: Are there any household chores for________ men are better _______ than women ?
A. that/suit B. whose/suited C. which/suited D. which/suit
18: We bought some _________ .
A. lovely old round German sunglasses B. lovely round old German sunglasses
C. lovely German round old sunglasses D. lovely round German old sunglasses
19: Tom “ I’m sorry .I won’t be able to come” . - Mary “ ________” .
A. Oh, that’s annoying B. Sounds like fun
C. Great D. Well, never mind
20: He says he will pay ; I don’t think he will, _______ .
A. even though B. but C. in case D. though
21: That was a bit of a ________ for the books : I never expected him to show up .
A. turn – out B. turn - away C. turn – in D. turn – up
22: Can you please tell me some information _______ to the job ?
A. relating B. that relate C. that are relating D. that indicates
23: I ______ “ Chicken Soup for the Soul” but I haven’t finished it yet.
A. am reading B. was reading C. have been reading D. read
24: Our firm ________ a lot of business with overseas custumers .
A. does B. takes C. deals D. makes
25: She tried to set _____ a few minutes each day for her exercises .
A. down B. in C. aside D. about
26: The _______ at the football macth cheered the team on .
A. audience B. onlookers C. congregation D. spectators
27: You shouldn’t live ____ your means .
A. into B. without C. beyond D. on
28: What if our habitat________ .
A. destroying B. was destroyed C. were destroyed D. to be destroyed
29: There’re several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one, the television is ______.
A. the other B. the another C. other D. another
30: Between you and me, so don’t tell anyone , I’m sure he’ll lose the election.
A. In conclusion B. In fact C. In truth D. In confidence
III. Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
31: There is a rumor that the army is about taking power though this has been denied by the government sources .
A. though B. There C. taking D. has been
32: After writing it , the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed into the department secretary
before the end of the month .
A. the end of B. the C. after writing it D. handed
33: It was obvious that he was thorough interested in the subject .
A. thorough B. interested in C. that D. obvious
34: None two butterflier have exactly the same design on their wings .
A. None B. the same C. on D. wings
35: The purpose of traveller’s checks is to protect travellers from theft and accidential lost of money .
A. of B. lost C. theft D. is
Choose the best phrases or clauses A ,B ,C,or D to complete each of the sentences below .
36: _____________ did Jane accept the job .
A. Only because it was interesting work B. The work was interesting
C. Only because it was interested work D. Because it was interesting work
37: The truck _______ crashed into the back of a bus scattering glass everywhere .
A. it was loading with empty bottles B. loaded with empty bottles
C. which loading with empty bottles D. loading with empty bottles
38: Harry would certainly have attended the proceedings _________ .
A. if he didn’t get a flat tyre B. had he not had a flat tyre
C. had the tyre not flattened itself D. if the flat tyre didn’t happen
39: _________ of tissues is known as histology .
A. That is scientific studying B. Studying scientific
C. The scientific study D. To study scientifically
40: Mango trees, _______ , grow rapidly and can attain heights of up to 90 feet.
A. which densely covered with glossy leaves and bear small fragrant flowers
B. whose densely covered glossy leaves and bear small fragrant flowers
C. which are densely covered with glossy leaves and bear small fragrant flowers
D. when are densely covered with glossy leaves and bear small fragrant flowers
V. Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
41: “ I am in a bit of hurry , but I’ll ring you tomorrow” he said .
A. He said that he was very hurried , but that he would ring me the next day .
B. He said he was a bit pressed for time , but that he would ring me the next day.
C. He said that he was in a bit of hurry and rang me the following day.
D. He said that he would ring me the next day as then he could .
42: It is open to question as to whether Jane will get the job .
A. Jane is being interviewed for the job .
B. It is not certain that Jane will get the job .
C. The question is whether Jane will get the job or not .
D. If Jane could answer the question , she would get the job .
43: The older he grew, the more forgetful he became.
A. He grew older and more and more forgetful .
B. He became moe forgetful and older.
C. He grew older when he became more forgetful.
D. As he grew older, he became more and more forgetful .
44: Julie and Anne had not met each other before he party.
A. The party was the place where Julie and Anne could not meet each other.
 B. The party prevented Julie and Anne from meeting each other.
C. Julie and Anne got acquainted when they were at the party.
D. Julie and Anne used to meet each other for the party.
45: It was your assistance that enabled us to get achievement.
A. If you assisted us, we could not get achievement.
B. But for you assistance, we could not have, got achievement.
C. Your assistance discouraged us from get achievement.
D. Without your assistance, we could get achievement
Read the following passage, and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake ,one of the world’s
largest and deepest , lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice .Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of
water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica . The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath
this blockof ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth’s core .The thick glacier above
Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface .
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research teamwas conducting an aerial survey of the area
.Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size.It
was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware of the tremendous size of the
lake ; the satellite –borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating
on the water of the lake .
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific
community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands upon
thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected
organism in more exposed areas .The downside of the discovery,however, lies in the difficulty of conducting
research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples
from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination . Scientists are looking for possible way to
accomplish this.
46: The word “hidden” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. unexploitable B. untouched C. undicovered D. undrinkable
47: What is true of Lake Vostok ?
A. It is beneath a thick slab of ice B. It is heated by the sun
C. It is a saltwater lake. D. It is completely frozen.
48: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “frigid” in paragraph 1 ?
A. easily broken B. quite harsh C. lukewarm D. extremely cold
49: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it ____
A. could not determine the lake’s exact size B. made use of radio waves
C. was conducted by air D. was controlled by a satellite
50: It can be inffered from the passage that the ice would not be flat if ______ .
A. there were no lake underneath B. Antarctica were not so cold
C. radio waves were not used D. the lake were not so big
51: The word “microbes” in paragrahp 3 could be best replaced by which of the following ?
A. Rays of light B. Pieces of dust C. Tiny bubbles D. Tiny organisms
52: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it ________ .
A. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light B. has already been contaminated
C. can be studied using radio waves D. may contain uncontaminated microbes
53: The word “ downside” in paragrahp 3 is closest in meaning to_______ .
A. buried section B. bottom level C. underside D. negative aspect
54: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of _______ .
A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica B. problems with satellite – borne radar equipment
C. the harsh climate of Antarctica D. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
55: The purpose of the passage is to _______ .
A. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica’s geography B. provided satellite data concerning Antarctica
C. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered D. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks
 About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil,gas,or coal-non-renewable natural resources . We
(56)______ well over three million tones of the stuff in Japan each year and,sooner or later, most of it is thrown
away .A high (57))______ of our animal consumption is in the (58)______ of packaging and this (59) ______ about
seven percent by weight,of our domestic(60) ______ . Almost all of it can be recycled , but very little of it is ,though
the plastic recycling (61)______ is growing fast .
The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(62) ____ than coal and one
(63)______ of “recovery” strongly(64)______ by plastic manufactures is the (65)______ of wast plastic into a fuel
.
56: A. consign B. import C. remove D. consume
57: A. proportion B. portion C. amount D. rate
58: A. kind B. type C. form D. way
59: A. constitutes B. carries C. takes D. makes
60: A. refuse B. goods C. requirements D. rubble
61: A. plant B. industry C. factory D. manufacture
62: A. value B. degree C. effect D. demand
63: A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
64: A. desired B. favoured C. argued D. presented
65: A. melting B. change C. conversion D. replacement
Choose the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
66: You ought to send two hours as a minimum in the fresh air every day .
A. at most B. at all C. at least D. at ease
67: He seems to make the same mistake over and over again .
A. for good B. in vain C. by the way D. repeatedly
68: Sharks are single – minded , and will usually ignore rescuers.
A. concentrate on only one purpose/aim … B. are selfish
C. are cruel D. attack suddenly
69: Our junior employees are being groomed for more senior roles.
A. inferior B. younger C. minor D. superior
70: There’s a shuttle bus to the nearby airport hotel .
A. bus that travels overnight B. bus with air – conditioners
C. bus which looks like a shuttle D. bus travels regularly between two places
Read the following passage, and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
In order to learn to be one’s true self, it is necessary to obtain a wide and extensive knowledge of what has
been said and done in the world : critically to inquire into it,nearly to sift it, and earnestly to carry it out .It matters
not what you learn ,but when you once learn a thing , you must never give it up until you have mastered it.It matters
not what you inquire into, but when you inquire into a thing, you must never give it up until you have completely
understood it .It matters not what you try to think out, but when you once try to think out a thing , you must never
give it up until you have got what you want . It matters not what you try to sift out ,but you once try to sift out a
thing, you must never give it up until you have sifted it out clearly and distinctly .It matters not what you try to carry
out , but when you once try to carry out a thing , you must never give it up till you have done it completely and well
. If another man succeeds by one effort, you will use a hundred efforts.If another man succeeds by ten efforts, you
will use a thousand efforts.
71: According to the author the ultimate purpose of study is to learn to ________ .
A. be one’s true self B. be a specialist C. succeed in a profession D. become weathy
72: First of all, one must ________ .
A. inquire B. analyse C. act D. obtain knowlegde
73: A consequence of man’s study should be _______ .
A. prayer B. action C. fame D. inaction
74: According to the author,_________ .
A. it doesn’t matter what we learn B. knowledge is unnecessary
C. learning is unimportant D. thinking is one of the least importance
75: The end of learning should be _________ .
A. inquiry B. mastery C. thought D. analysis
76: The end of inquiry should be ______ .
 A. understanding B. action C. analysis D. thought
77: A word that means almost the same as “ sift out” is _______ .
A. inquire B. carry out C. ponder D. analyse
78: To successfully carry out the author’s program a person would have to be , most of all, _______ .
A. extremely intelligent B. very weathy C. very persistent D. Aand B
79: According to the article, another man’s success should ______ .
A. spur us on to greater efforts B. make us envious
C. not be taken into consideration D. cause one to stop trying
80: Implied but not stated __________ .
A. Success in one’s profession is least important in one’s life
B. Success depends not so much on natural ability as it does on effort
C. The way to knowledge is through specialization
D. It is necessary to obtain a wide knowledge of what has been said and done in the world