17/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 7 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A 3. Work done in increasing the potential of a
capacitor from V volt to 2V volt is W. Then, the
1. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower of
work done in increasing the potential of the same
height ‘h’. After 1 s another stone is dropped from capacitor from 2V volt to 4V volt will be
the balcony, 20 m below the top. Both reach the
(assume ideal scenario)
bottom simultaneously. What is the value of h?
(1) W (2) 2W
(g = 10 m s–2) (3) 4W (4) 8W
(1) 3125 m 4. A potential difference V is applied to a copper
wire of length l and radius ‘r’. If V is doubled, the
(2) 312.5 m
drift velocity
(3) 31.25 m (1) Is doubled (2) Is halved
(4) 25.31 m (3) Remains same (4) Becomes zero
2. A drop of liquid of density  is floating half- 5. Two resistors of resistances 200 k and 1 M
immersed in a liquid of density ‘d’. If  is the form a potential divider with outer junctions
maintained at potentials of +3 V and
surface tension, the diameter of the drop of the –15 V.
liquid is

 2
(1) (2)
g ( 2 − d ) g ( 2 − d ) The potential at the junction X between the
resistors is
6 12 (1) +1 V (2) 0 V
(3) (4)
g ( 2 − d ) g ( 2 − d ) (3) –0.6 V (4) –12 V
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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

6. The equation of path of projectile of a particle is 11. The ratio of minimum to maximum possible
Y = 0.5 x − 0.04 x . The initial velocity of the
2 radiation energy in Lyman series of Bohr’s
particle is (g = 10 m/s2) Hydrogen atom is equal to

(1) 10 m/s (2) 15 m/s (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 4

(3) 12.5 m/s (4) 14 m/s (3) 4 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
7. A point source of sound is placed in a non 12. A particle of mass 4 g, charge 4 mC is released
absorbing medium. Two points A and B are at N
from origin in a region of electric field E = ( 4i )
distance of 2 m and 3 m from source, C

( )
respectively. The ratio of intensity of wave at A to
at B is and magnetic field B = −4 j T . The speed of

(1) 3: 2 (2) 3 : 2 particle when the x-coordinate is 2 m, is (neglect

gravity)
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
(1) 1 m/s
8. A man weighs 60 kg on surface of earth. At what
height above surface of earth will the weight be (2) 3 m/s
45 kg? (3) 4 m/s
2− 3   3  (4) 2 m/s
(1)  R (2)   R
 3  2− 3  13. In the YDSE set up shown in figure if P is the
point on screen in front of mid point between
(3) ( 2+ 3 R ) (4) ( 3− 2 R ) slits, then

9. A particle displaced by wave has its motion

sin ( t ) cos ( t )
represented by equation + . The
2 2
amplitude of the motion is
1
(1) unit (2) 2 unit
2
(3) 1 unit (4) 2 unit
(1) Zero order maximum will lie above point P
10. A radioactive sample goes under a decay as per
the following graph. At time t = 0, the number of (2) Zero order maximum will lie at point P
undecayed Nuclei is N0. The number of nuclei left (3) Zero order maximum will lie below point P
after 1 hour is
(4) Zero order maximum may lie above or below
point P
14. The wavelength among the following is greatest
for
(1) Radio waves
(2) Microwaves
(3) Infrared
(4) Visible light
N0 N0 15. The emissivity of a black body is (where ‘e’
(1) 8
(2) 10
e e represents emissivity)

N0 N0 (1) e = 1 (2) 0 < e < 1

(3) (4)
e12 e14 (3) e > 1 (4) e = 0

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

16. In the arrangement shown in figure three very 20. On increasing the clockwise current in one of the
large plates are placed parallel and close to each coaxial loops, the current induced in the other
other. Considering them as ideal black body and loop will be
first plate being maintained at temperature 3T
and second plate being maintained at
temperature 2T, the temperature of middle plate
under steady state condition is

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) No current will be induced
(4) Depends on distance between loops
1 1 21. Light emerges out of prism at 60° when incident
 97  4  90  4 at 30°. If light is incident at 60°, then it will
(1)   T (2)   T
 2   2  emerge at
1 1 (1) 30° (2) 60°
 65  4  81  4
(3)   T (4)   T (3) 90° (4) 45°
 13   4
22. A converging lens of focal length ‘f’ is dipped in
17. A rectangular sheet (3 m × 4 m) is hinged from
liquid of refractive index ‘n’. For lens to behave
its vertex and held in equilibrium by force F. If
as diverging lens of same focal length it should
mass of sheet is 6 kg then force F is
have refractive index
n 2n
(1) (2)
n +1 n +1
n 2n
(3) (4)
n −1 n −1

(1) 50 N (2) 40 N 23. A circular race track is banked at 45° and radius
of track is 30 m. The coefficient of friction
(3) 60 N (4) 80 N
between the wheels and a track is 0.5. What is
18. A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder rolls down maximum speed at which a car can travel round
an inclined plane from same height. the track without skidding? (g = 10 m/s2)
Choose the correct statement (1) 26 m/s (2) 40 m/s
(1) Solid cylinder will take more time than hollow (3) 30 m/s (4) 36 m/s
cylinder 24. A solid sphere of radius R made of a material of
(2) Solid cylinder will take less time than hollow bulk modulus B is surrounded by a liquid in a
cylinder cylindrical container. A massless piston of area A
floats on surface of liquid. What is fractional
(3) Both will take same time
 R 
change in radius of sphere   when a weight
(4) Insufficient Information  R 
19. A block is attached to a spring of spring constant W is placed on piston to compress liquid?
K. If spring is cut into two equal parts and joined 2W W
in parallel, the time period of block will get (1) (2)
BA 2BA
(1) Doubled (2) Quadrupled W W
(3) (4)
(3) Halved (4) One-fourth 3BA BA

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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

25. Two moles of an ideal gas are compressed 29. A system has two charges q1 = 4.5  10 −6 C and
through reversible isothermal process from an
q2 = −4.5  10 −6 C located at points A: (0, 0,
initial pressure of 2 atm to final pressure of 16
atm at 27°C. What is work done on the gas? –20 cm) and B: (0, 0, +20 cm), respectively.
Electric dipole moment of the system is
(1) 5432 J (2) 12,616 J
(1) 9 × 10–6 C m (2) 1.8 × 10–7 C m
(3) 10,369 J (4) 8,000 J
(3) 1.8 × 10–6 C m (4) 9 × 10–7 C m
26. The energy of gas molecule in a gas at given
30. Electric filed intensity at a point 2 m away from
temperature T(K) is calculated based on kinetic
the surface of a uniformly charged hollow sphere
theory of gases. Match column I with column II of radius 1 m is 9 × 102 N/C. Surface charge
density on the surface of hollow sphere will be
Column I Column II
nearly
A. Mean kinetic energy per (P) 3 (1) 5 × 10–6 C/m2 (2) 7.2 × 10–12 C/m2
k T
mole of diatomic gas 2 B (3) 9 × 10–6 C/m2 (4) 7.2 × 10–8 C/m2
B. Mean translational kinetic (Q) 3 31. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one-
RT dimensional motion with acceleration given by
energy per molecule of a 2
gas a = kt, where k is a constant. Power delivered to
it at time ‘t’ is proportional to
C. Mean translational kinetic (R) 5 (1) t3 (2) t2
RT
energy per mole of an 2 (3) t3/2 (4) t–3
ideal gas
32. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The
D. Mean rotational kinetic (S) kBT concentration of acceptor atoms is approximately
energy per molecule of 1024 m–3. Given that intrinsic carrier concentration
diatomic gas is nearly 1019 m–3, then the concentration of
electrons in the specimen is nearly
(1) A(P), B(R), C(S), D(Q) (1) 1010 m–3 (2) 1014 m–3
(2) A(R), B(Q), C(P), D(S) (3) 1019 m–3 (4) 1018 m–3
(3) A(R), B(S), C(Q), D(P) 33. The semiconductor material, ideal for solar cell
(4) A(R), B(P), C(Q), D(S) fabrication, has band gap energy Eg close to

27. When a bar magnet is made to vibrate in (1) 15 eV (2) 07 eV
horizontal plane, the time period of vibration is (3) 3 eV (4) 23 eV
3 2 s , angle of dip of the place is 60°. What will 34. Choose the incorrect options, among the
be period of vibration in vertical plane parallel to following
magnetic meridian at the same place? (1) 1° is equal to 1.745 × 10–2 rad
1 (2) 1 is equal to 2.91 × 10–4 rad
(1) s (2) 3 s
2 (3) 1 is equal to 4.85 × 10–6 rad

(3) 3 s (4) 4 s (4) 1 is equal to 4.85 × 10–8 rad

28. A 110 V, 40 W bulb is run from 220 V AC mains 35. Consider the following statements and choose
the correct statement.
using a capacitor in series with the lamp, instead
of a resistor, then the voltage across the Statement A: If an equation fails the test of
capacitor is about consistency of dimensions, it is proved wrong but
if it passes, it is not proved right.
(1) 110 V
Statement B: A dimensionally correct equation
(2) 140 V may or may not be physically correct.
(3) 138.6 V (1) A only (2) B only
(4) 190.5 V (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

SECTION-B 39. Ten capacitors are joined in parallel and charged

36. Some numbers (values of various quantities) are with a battery upto a potential V. They all are
given in column I and number of significant then disconnected from battery and joined in
figures of them in column II. Match the column I series. The maximum potential difference across
with column II. this combination will be
(1) 1V (2) 10V
Column-I Column-II
(3) 5V (4) 2V
A. 0.005 m2 (P) 5 40. Two bulbs A and B of 25 W and 100 W power, at
B. 0.23480 g/cm3 (Q) 4 a rated voltage of 220 V are connected in series
across a 440 V supply. Which of the bulb will
C. 0.005020 m2 (R) 1 fuse?

D. 2.54×1024 kg (S) 3 (1) Only bulb ‘A’

(2) Only bulb ‘B’
(1) A(R), B(Q), C(P), D(S)
(3) Both bulbs ‘A’ and ‘B’
(2) A(P), B(R), C(S), D(Q)
(4) Neither bulb ‘A’ nor ‘B’
(3) A(S), B(R), C(Q), D(P)
41. For a given frequency of the incident radiation,
(4) A(R), B(P), C(Q), D(S)
the stopping potential is
37. For a CE amplifier, the audio signal voltage
(1) Directly proportional to intensity
across the collector resistance of 2 k is 2 V.
Suppose the current amplification factor of (2) Inversely proportional to intensity
transistor is 100. If dc base current is 10 times (3) Proportional to cube root of intensity
the signal base current, then choose the correct (4) Independent of intensity
options for the given circuit. (Take VBE = 0.6 V)
42. The magnetic field B at centre O due to the wire
bent in shape as shown in the figure is

(1) DC voltage drop across the collector 0 i  ( b − a ) 0 i  ( b − a )

resistance (RC) is 22 V (1) (2)
8ab 4ab
(2) Base resistance RB is equal to 14 k
0 i  ( b − a ) 0 i  ( b + a )
(3) DC base current is equal to 10 A (3) (4)
2ab 4ab
(4) DC collector current is equal to 1 mA
43. A particle hanging from a spring stretches it by
38. Water on surface of a river 10 m deep is 2 cm at earth’s surface. How much will the same
observed to be flowing at 5 m/s. The shearing particle stretch the spring at a place 400 km
stress between horizontal layers of the river is ( above the earth’s surface? (Radius of the earth
= 10–3 SI units) = 6400 km)
(1) 10–3 N/m2 (1) 0.9 cm
(2) 0.8 × 10–3 N/m2 (2) 3 cm
(3) 0.5 × 10–3 N/m2 (3) 1.77 cm
(4) 1 N/m2 (4) 2.5 cm

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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

44. The intensity of each of two slits in YDSE is I0. 47. An ideal diatomic gas ( = 1.4) does 200 J of
The minimum separation between two points on work when it is expanded isobarically. What is
the screen where intensities are I0 and 2I0 is ( is heat given to the gas in this process?
the fringe width) (1) 600 J (2) 700 J
  (3) 500 J (4) 900 J
(1) (2)
12 6 48. A jet of water with cross-sectional area A is
striking against a wall at an angle of  from
 
(3) (4) normal to the wall and rebounds elastically. If the
4 2
velocity of jet of water is v and density of water is
45. A thin prism ( V = 1.625; R = 1.375 ) is being , the normal force acting on the wall is
used in combination with another thin prism (1) 2Av 2 cos  (2) Av 2 sin 
( V = 1.5; R = 1.3 ) to minimize deviation of
Av 2
(3) Av sin  (4) sin 
light. (V and R are refractive index of prism for 2
violet and red light). Choose the correct
49. A resistance of 40  and an inductance of
statement for the combination if prism angles are 95.5 mH are connected in series with a 50
4° and 5° respectively. cycle/second AC source of peak voltage 200 volt.
(1) Light is dispersed but not deviated What is peak value of current in the circuit?
(2) Light is deviated but not dispersed (1) 2 A (2) 2 2 A
(3) Light is neither dispersed nor deviated (3) 4 A (4) 4 2 A
(4) Light is deviated as well as dispersed 50. A block moving horizontally on a smooth surface
46. Friction force acting on a spherical shell of mass with a speed of 80 m/s splits into two equal parts.
2 kg rolling down the incline of inclination 30° is If one of parts moves at 60 m/s in the same
direction, then the fractional change in the kinetic
(1) 10 N energy of the system will be equal to
(2) 2.9 N (1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 4 N 1 1
(3) (4)
(4) Zero 8 16

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
51. The lowest value of n that allows h orbitals to correct
exist is
(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) 5 (4) 6
52. The radical which initiates the chain reaction for (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
ozone depletion is incorrect
(1) (2)
54. Which of the following oxides is not expected to
(3) (4) react with sodium hydroxide?
53. Statement I : The electronegativity of any given
element is not constant. (1) BaO

Statement II : Electronegativity varies depending (2) SO3

on the element to which it is bound.
(3) Al2O3
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. (4) SiO2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

55. Select the incorrect match from the following 60. Statement-I: If the standard electrode potential
(1) Dry ice : Solid carbon dioxide of an electrode is greater than zero then its
reduced form is more stable compared to
(2) (CH3)3 SiCl : Controls the chain length Hydrogen gas.
(3) Boron : Extremely low melting point metal Statement-II: Electrolytic cells are extensively
(4) Pyrosilicate : One oxygen atom of SiO 4−
is used for determining the pH of solutions,
4
solubility product and other thermodynamic
shared
properties.
56. Identify the coal gasification reaction among the
In the light of above statements, choose the
following correct option.
(1) CH4 (g) + H2O(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
1270 K
Ni
→ CO(g) + 3H2 (g) (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) CO(g) + H2O(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯673 K

→ CO2 (g) + H2 (g) (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
Iron chromate
incorrect
(3) 2C(s) + O2 (g) + 4N2 (g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
1273 K
→ 2CO(g) + 4N2 (g)
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) C(s) + H2 O(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ CO(g) + H2 (g)
1270 K incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
57. Which of the following reaction represents
correct
Calcination process?
61. If NaCl crystal is doped with 10–4 mol% of AlCl3
(1) 2ZnS(s) + 3O2 (g) → 2ZnO (s) + 2SO2 (g) then the number of cation vacancies per mole of

(2) Fe2O3. xH2O (s) ⎯⎯ → Fe2O3(s) + xH2O (g) NaCl is (Given : NA = 6 × 1023)
(1) 1.8 × 1018 (2) 1.2 × 1018
(3) ZnO (s) + C (s) → Zn (s) + CO (g)
(3) 6 × 1017 (4) 1.2 × 1017
(4) FeO (s) + SiO2 (s) → FeSiO3
62. Mixture of chloroform and aniline is separated by
58. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) Sublimation
(1) The half reactions that involve gain of
(2) Distillation
electrons are called reduction reactions.
(3) Differential extraction
(2) In oxygen difluoride, the oxidation state of
oxygen is +2. (4) Crystallisation
63. Number of moles of oxygen required for
(3) KMnO4 can oxide F– ions into F2.
complete combustion of one mole of benzene is
(4) The hypochlorite ion (CIO–) acts as a
7 9
bleaching agent. (1) (2)
2 2
59. Match Column-I with Column-II and identify the
15
correct option. (3) (4) 6
2
Column-I Column-II 64. Number of chiral carbons present in  – D – (+) –
(Type of solids) (Example) Glucopyranose is
(1) 6 (2) 5
a. Covalent solid (i) CaF2
(3) 4 (4) 3
b. Metallic solid (ii) Ar
65. Consider the following reaction sequence
c. Ionic solid (iii) Diamond CH3 CN ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i) SnCl2 / HCl
→ A ⎯⎯⎯⎯
NH2 OH
→B
(ii) H O+
3

d. Molecular solid (iv) Ag

Product B is an
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (1) Substituted imine (2) Hydrazone
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (3) Primary amine (4) Oxime

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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

66. 1 L of an ideal gas at a pressure of 20 atm 71. If QC = KC then which of the following statement
expands isothermally into vacuum until its total is correct?
volume is 10 L. Heat absorbed and work done (1) Net reaction goes from reactants to products
during above expansion respectively will be (2) Net reaction goes from products to reactants
(1) Zero, – 19 L - atm (3) No net reaction occurs
(2) Zero, zero (4) Forward and backward reactions stopped.
(3) –19 L atm, + 19 L – atm 72. Number of atoms present in 5 g monoatomic gas
(4) Zero, + 19 L – atm with vapour density 8 will be
(1) 0.625 NA (2) 0.25 NA
67. Calculated magnetic moment of complex ion
[CoF6]3– is (3) 0.3125 NA (4) NA
73. Which of the following correctly represents
(1) Zero (2) 3 BM positive deviation from Raoult’s law for any liquid-
liquid mixture?
(3) 15 BM (4) 24 BM

68. The range of diameter of colloidal particles lies

between
(1)
(1) 1 to 10 nm (2) 1 to 100 nm
(3) 1 to 1000 nm (4) 1 to 10000 nm
69. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(a) NH+4 (i) Octahedral

(b) PCl6– (ii) Bent

(2)
(c) + (iii) Tetrahedral
H3 O

(d) ICl2+ (iv) Pyramidal

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
70. Given below are two statements (3)

Statement I : A catalyst lowers the activation

energy by providing an alternate path for the
reaction.
Statement II : A catalyst alters Gibbs free
energy, G of a reaction.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (4)
true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is false

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

74. Which of the following does not obey Henry’s 80. The correct order of thermal stability is
law?
(1) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(1) Ar (2) H2
(2) HF > HBr > HCl > HI
(3) O2 (4) NH3
(3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
75. Which of the following will be least reactive with
NH3 by following SN2 mechanism? (4) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
81. Consider the following reaction sequence,
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
Major product B is
76. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’ and
identify the correct option. (1) (2)

Column A Column B

(i) (a) Aryl halide (3) (4)

(ii) (b) Vinyl halide 82. Consider the following reaction sequence,

(iii) (c) Allyl halide

Major product C is
(iv) (d) Alkyl halide

(1) (2)
(1) (i)a, (ii)c, (iii)b, (iv)d (2) (i)d, (ii)b, (iii)c, (iv)a
(3) (i)d, (ii)c, (iii)b, (iv)a (4) (i)d, (ii)b, (iii)a, (iv)c
77. Compressible factor (Z) will always be more than
1 for
(1) He (2) Ne (3) (4)
(3) CH4 (4) N2
78. Incorrect statement regarding interstitial
compounds of d-block element is 83. Consider the following reaction sequence
(1) They have high melting point
(2) They are chemically inert
(3) They loses metallic conductivity The major product B is
(4) They are very hard
79. Identify the incorrect match for the preparation of (1)
given compounds

Column I Column II (2)

(1) Haber’s process NH3

(2) Deacon’s process HCl (3)

(3) Ostwald’s process HNO3

(4)
(4) Contact process H2SO4

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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

84. Consider the following statements about low 90. Consider the following statements
density polythene (a) But-2-yne does not react with ammoniacal
(I) Polymerisation takes place under high silver nitrate solution
pressure and high temperature (b) Acetylene is more acidic than propyne

(II) It has highly branched structure (c) But-1-yne decolourises bromine water
The correct statements are
(III) It is chemically inert
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
Correct statements among the following are
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) only
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only
91. Correct order of -I effect of the given species is
(3) I and III only (4) I, II and III
(1) (2)
85. Identify an incorrect match
(1) Equanil : Tranquilizer (3) (4)
(2) Penicillin : antibiotic 92. Which among the following has highest pKa
value?
(3) Norethindrone : antifertility drug
(4) Bithionol : disinfectant
SECTION-B (1) (2)

86. The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in

3p orbital are
(1) 0 and 2, respectively (3) (4)

(2) 1 and 1, respectively 93. Which among the following complex species has
(3) 1 and 0, respectively longest ‘C – O’ bond length?
(1) [Fe(CO)5] (2) Ni(CO)4
(4) 3 and 1, respectively
(3) (4) [Co(CO)5]
87. The calcium concentration in plasma is regulated
at about 94. For which reaction enthalpy change will be equal
to enthalpy of formation?
(1) 50 mg L–1 (2) 100 mg L–1
(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
(3) 200 mg L–1 (4) 500 mg L–1
(2) H2(g) + Br2 (l) → 2HBr(g)
88. The reducing agent in the given reaction is
(3) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)
2Cu2O (s) + Cu2S (s) → 6Cu (s) + SO2 (g) (4) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(1) Cu(I) of Cu2O (2) Sulphur of Cu2S 95. Conjugate base of NH+4 is
(3) Cu(I) of Cu2S (4) Sulphur of SO2
(1) NH2− (2) NH3
89. Select the incorrect option among the following
(3) NH4OH (4) NH2–
regarding lead storage battery
96. Maximum bond length is of
(1) During charging, Pb is deposited at anode
(1) C = C (2) C = N
(2) During charging, PbO2 is deposited at
(3) O = O (4) N = O
cathode
97. If the initial concentration of a second order
(3) A 38% solution of sulphuric acid is used as reaction 2A → B is doubled then half life of
an electrolyte reaction
(4) Lead grids filled with PbO2 behaves as (1) Remains unchanged (2) Becomes two times
negative plates. (3) Becomes four times (4) Becomes half

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

98. Classification on the basis of physical states of 100. Which of the following compound(s) give(s) a foul
dispersed phase and dispersion medium, how smelling substance on heating with chloroform
many types of colloids are possible? and ethanolic potassium hydroxide?

(1) 2 (2) 3 I.
(3) 8 (4) 9
II. (CH3)2NH
99. Dipole-dipole interaction energy (E) between
rotating polar molecule is related with distance III.
between polar molecule (r) as
(1) I only
1 1
(1) E  2 (2) E  3 (2) I and II only
r r
(3) I and III only
1 1
(3) E  5 (4) E  6 (4) I, II and III
r r

BOTANY
SECTION-A 105. In a test cross AaBb  aabb, all the progenies
101. As per five kingdom classification system, were like parents only. It means
organisms with loose tissue body organisation (1) Genes are distantly situated
(1) Are prokaryotes (2) Genes A and B are completely linked
(2) Show heterotrophic mode of nutrition (3) Crossing over occurred during gamete
(3) Have peptidoglycanic cell wall formation

(4) Lack nuclear membrane (4) Genes A and B are incompletely linked

102. Bacteria that oxidise nitrites and ammonia are 106. A colourblind boy was born to a completely
normal couple. Which of the following options
(1) Photoautotrophs (2) Saprophytes
provides the suitable reason for the same?
(3) Chemoautotrophs (4) Heterotrophs
(1) Colourblindness is sex linked dominant trait
103. Read the below given features and select how
(2) Mother is carrier of colourblindness while
many of them are true for Agaricus?
father is normal
(a) Mycelium is branched and septate
(3) Being autosomal recessive trait
(b) Sexual spores are produced inside ascus
colourblindness trait can skip a generation
(c) Fruiting bodies are edible
(4) Colourblindness arises due to chromosomal
(d) Lack sex organs and sexual reproduction aberrations
(1) 4 107. Direct elongation of the radicle leads to the
(2) 3 formation of roots in

(3) 1 (1) Wheat (2) Mustard

(4) 2 (3) Grass (4) Maize

104. In incomplete dominance 108. Which of the following characteristics is common
to both guava and cucumber?
(1) F1 did not resemble either of the two parents
(1) Leaf base swells to form pulvinus
(2) Both the alleles express themselves equally
(2) Axillary buds are modified into tendrils
(3) F1 progeny resembles both the parents
(3) Flowers are epigynous
(4) A single gene product may produce more
than one effects (4) Flowers are unisexual

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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

109. Identify the following statements as true (T) or (1) Only statement-1 is correct
false (F) and choose the option accordingly. (2) Only statement-2 is correct
A. Some cells left behind from shoot apical (3) Both the statements are correct
meristem constitute the axillary bud.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
B. Intercalary meristem is secondary in origin. 113. Cytoskeleton is involved in all of the following
C. Interfascicular cambium is secondary in origin functions, except
as well as in function. (1) Mechanical support
A B C (2) Transporting materials from one cell to
another
(1) F T T
(3) Motility
(2) T F T (4) Maintenance of the shape of the cell

(3) F F T 114. Growth occurs in both living organisms and non

living objects. However both are different as in
(4) T T F living organisms growth
110. Consider the following figure of a vascular bundle (1) Increases the body mass
and choose the option which is not correct (2) Is intrinsic
regarding this (3) Takes place by accumulation of material on
surface only
(4) Takes place in multicellular organisms only.
115. Potato and Brinjal
(1) Belong to the same genus
(2) Are same species of Solanum
(1) It is a closed type of vascular bundle
(3) Belong to two different plant families
(2) It is conjoint vascular bundle
(4) Have specific epithet called nigrum
(3) Such vascular bundles are usually found in
116. Select incorrect option about pyruvate
dicot stem
dehydrogenase enzyme.
(4) Such vascular bundles are responsible for
(1) Requires Mg2+ as cofactor
secondary growth
(2) Requires NAD+ as coenzyme
111. Golgi apparatus principally performs the function
(3) Converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
of
(4) Converts pyruvic acid to acetaldehyde
(1) Synthesizing polypeptides
117. Pusa Komal is a variety of A and it is
(2) Digesting nucleic acids
resistance to B .
(3) Performing oxidative phosphorylation
Fill in the blanks A and B with correct option.
(4) Packaging materials
A B
112. Read the following statements and choose the
option which is true for them. (1) Chilli Leaf and stripe rust

Statement-1: Telocentric chromosomes have no (2) Cowpea Bacterial blight

centromere.
(3) Cauliflower Bacterial blight
Statement-2: The satellite chromosomes have
secondary constriction. (4) Brassica Black rot

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

118. State true (T) or false (F) for the following 123. The completion of prophase can be marked by
statements and select the correct option (1) Condensed chromosomal material to form
A. Soil composition, grain size and aggregation compact mitotic chromosomes
determine the percolation and water holding (2) Splitting of centromeres
capacity of the soil.
(3) Movement of chromatids to opposite poles
B. Not all the colour components of the visible
(4) Assembly of nuclear envelope around the
spectrum are available for marine plants living
chromosome clusters
at different depths of the ocean.
124. Sexual reproduction may be isogamous or
A B anisogamous in members of
(1) T F (a) Chlorophyceae
(b) Rhodophyceae
(2) F T
(c) Phaeophyceae
(3) T T
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(4) F F (3) Only (a) and (c) (4) Only (b) and (c)
119. During decomposition, which of the following 125. Which among the following is one of the tallest
statements describes the process of catabolism? tree species which belong to division
Gymnospermae?
(1) Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller
particles (1) Eucalyptus (2) Cedrus

(2) Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade (3) Sequoia (4) Wolffia
detritus into simpler inorganic substances 126. Consider the given statements, stating them true
(3) Humus is formed by earthworms (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.

(4) Water soluble substances get precipitated (A) Dark reaction occurs through Calvin cycle.
into the soil horizon (B) Calvin cycle occurs only in C3 plants.
120. The root endodermis (C) Productivity and yields are better in C4 plants
(1) Transports ions in bi-direction as compared to C3 plants.
(2) Has deposition of layer of suberin (1) A-T, B-F, C-T
(3) Transport charged ion passively only (2) A-T, B-T, C-T
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) A-F, B-T, C-T
121. Select the odd one w.r.t role of potassium (4) A-F, B-F, C-F
(1) It is required in more abundant quantities in 127. Phosphodiester linkage in DNA
the meristematic tissues (1) Joins adenine with ribose sugar
(2) It helps to maintain an anion-cation balance (2) Connects a phosphate group to OH of 5C of
in cell a nucleoside
(3) It is a constituent of the ring structure of (3) Forms a nucleoside
chlorophyll
(4) Forms a dinucleotide
(4) It maintains the turgidity of cells
128. In capping an unusual nucleotide is added to 5
122. M-phase lasts upto ______ of the duration of cell end of hnRNA. This nucleotide is
cycle.
(1) Methyl uracil triphosphate
Fill in the above blank with correct option.
(2) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(1) More than 95% (2) Less than 5%
(3) Methyl adenosine triphosphate
(3) Nearly 50% (4) More than 25%
(4) Methyl cytosine triphosphate

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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

129. Select the incorrect interpretations w.r.t SECTION-B

transforming principle. 136. Haplo-diploid sex determination is seen in
(1) S strain → Inject into mice → Mice die (1) Honey bee (2) Grasshopper
(2) R strain → Inject into mice → Mice die (3) Drosophila (4) Bird
(3) S strain (heat-killed) → Inject into mice → 137. Viroids
Mice live
(1) Were discovered by T.O. Diener
(4) S strain (heat-killed) + R strain (live) → Inject
into mice → Mice die (2) Have ssDNA

130. Which of the given is ‘ex-situ’ conservation (3) Are causal agent of TMV
strategy of biodiversity? (4) Are facultative parasites
(1) Hot spots (2) National park 138. A single ovule is attached to the base of ovary in
(3) Sacred groves (4) Zoological park (1) Argemone (2) Sunflower
131. Consider the given statements and select the (3) Mustard (4) Citrus
correct option.
139. Select the incorrect match from the following.
Statement A: CFCs discharged in the lower part
of atmosphere, move upward and reach (1) Bark – Includes pericycle
stratosphere.
(2) Periderm – Includes cork
Statement B: UV rays are highly injurious to
cambium
living organisms.
(1) Only statement A is correct (3) Complementary – Parenchymatous
(2) Only statement B is correct cells

(3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Phellogen – Secondary

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect permanent tissue

132. Which chemical can be used to overcome seed 140. In plants, secondary cell wall is formed
dormancy?
(1) On the inner side of primary cell wall
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Phenolic acids
(2) Between two cell walls of adjacent cells
(3) Nitrates (4) Para-ascorbic acids
(3) In place of middle lamella
133. Select the dioecious plant among the following
(4) By primary cell wall on its outer side
(1) Cucurbits (2) Date palm
141. Which of the following can be primary or
(3) Coconut (4) Pinus
secondary consumer?
134. Syngamy is
(1) Grasses (2) Sparrow
(1) Fusion of male gamete with the polar nuclei
(3) Lion (4) Rabbit
(2) Fusion of male gamete with the nucleus of
egg cell 142. Population density of an area is decreased by

(3) Fusion of two male gametes (1) Natality (2) Immigration

(4) Fusion of two male gametes with egg cell (3) Births of individuals (4) Mortality
135. Select the incorrect match from the following 143. Select the correct match

(1) Ladybirds - Aphids (1) Psilopsida – Adiantum

(2) Dragonflies - Mosquito (2) Sphenopsida – Equisetum

(3) Butterfly caterpillar - Trichoderma (3) Lycopsida – Dryopteris

(4) Biofertiliser - Cyanobacteria (4) Pteropsida – Selaginella

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

144. Read the following statements and mark true (T) 147. EI Nino effect refers to
or false (F) for them. (1) Odd climatic change in environment
A. Diffusion is a fast process (2) Development of substitute for CFCs
C. Facilitated diffusion is very specific (3) Reducing deforestation
C. Solute potential is always positive (4) Slowing down population growth

A B C 148. Select the incorrect statement for abscisic acid

(1) Stimulates the closure of stomata in the
(1) T F T epidermis
(2) F F T (2) Induces dormancy
(3) Acts as an antagonist to auxin only
(3) T T F
(4) Inhibits seed germination
(4) F T F
149. When bacterial flocs sediment into the settling
145. DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus, tank then it is called
which was first identified by (1) Primary effluent (2) Debris
(1) Altmann (2) Friedrich Miescher (3) Secondary effluent (4) Activated sludge
(3) Watson and Crick (4) R. Franklin 150. Select the characteristic not seen in
anemophilous flower.
146. Which of the given contributes maximum to
proportionate number of species of (1) Very colourful flowers
invertebrates? (2) Light and non-sticky pollen grains
(1) Insects (2) Molluscs (3) Well exposed stamens
(3) Crustaceans (4) Fishes (4) Mostly single ovule in each ovary

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A (a) In humans, ammonia produced by
151. Respiration is a complex process which involves metabolism is converted into urea in the
kidneys and then excreted out by them.
a number of steps. Arrange the given steps in a
(b) The outer layer of kidney is a tough capsule.
correct sequence and select the correct option.
(c) Inside the kidney, there are two zones, an
(a) Cellular respiration outer medulla and an inner cortex.
(b) Transport of gases by the blood (d) The cortex extends in between the medullary
pyramids as renal columns called columns of
(c) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
Bertini.
(d) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and (e) In kidney, there is a broad funnel-shaped
tissues space called the renal pelvis with projections
called calyces.
(e) Pulmonary ventilation
(1) Five (2) Three
(1) a → b → c → d → e
(3) Four (4) Two
(2) a → c → b → d → e 153. Muscles present in the human body exhibit
(3) e → c → b → d → a special properties. Select the option w.r.t
property not shown by all muscles present in the
(4) e → d → b → c → a humans.
152. How many of the given statements are correct (1) Contractility (2) Extensibility
w.r.t. human urinary system? (3) Excitability (4) Autorhythmicity

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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

154. Match column I with column II and select the 158. Which of the following options is incorrect w.r.t
correct option. heart sounds?

Column I Column II (1) First heart sound is associated with the

closure of semilunar valves.
a. Striated (i) Assist in transportation
(2) First heart sound is produced at the
muscles of food through the
beginning of ventricular systole.
digestive tract
(3) Second heart sound is not associated with
b. Visceral (ii) Primarily involved in closure of atrioventricular valves.
muscles changes of body
(4) First heart sound is lub and second heart
postures
sound is dub.
c. Cardiac (iii) Fibres are branched 159. How many of the following are present in saliva
muscles and involuntary of human?
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
Salivary amylase, HCO3– , K+, Lysozyme, Cl–,
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
Pepsin, Na+
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(1) Five (2) Six
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(3) Seven (4) Four
155. Select an improved breed of cattle among the
given options. 160. Choose the option that correctly represents ‘A’
and ‘B’.
(1) Jersey
'A '
(2) Leghorn Lactose ⎯⎯⎯ → Glucose + ‘B’

(3) Mule ‘A’ ‘B’

(4) Hisardale
(1) Amylase Galactose
156. Select the correct equation from the below
(2) Lactase Galactose
options.

(1) Blood = Plasma + RBCs + (3) Lipase Fructose

WBCs – Platelets (4) Lactase Glucose
(2) Serum = Plasma + Clotting 161. Which among the following is a common feature
factors between muscle fibres present in heart and in
(3) Agranulocytes = T lymphocytes + B intestine?
lymphocytes + (1) Fusiform in shape
Monocytes (2) Multinucleated
(4) Lymph = Plasma + Formed (3) Involuntary
elements (4) Branched
157. The correct set of phagocytic WBCs that 162. Choose the odd one w.r.t mouth parts of
destroys foreign organisms entering the body is Periplaneta.
(1) Neutrophils and lymphocytes (1) Hypopharynx
(2) Neutrophils and monocytes (2) Maxillae
(3) Eosinophils and monocytes (3) Antennae
(4) Basophils and eosinophils (4) Mandibles

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

163. Read the following statements carefully. (1) Both of them will give results at the
Statement I: Reproductive health refers to a total approximately same time.
well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., (2) The non-transgenic mice will give results in
physical, emotional, behavioural and social. lesser time compared to the transgenic mice.
Statement II: USA was the first nation in the (3) The transgenic mice will give results in lesser
world to initiate various action plans at national time as compared to the non-transgenic mice
level towards attaining a reproductively healthy as the former is less sensitive to the toxic
society. substance being studied.

Choose the option which correctly describes the (4) The transgenic mice are made more
sensitive to the toxic substances, hence, they
above given statements.
will give results faster than the non-
(1) Both statements I and II are correct transgenic mice.
(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect 167. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules
(3) Only statement I is correct are separated on the basis of
(4) Only statement II is correct a. Size

164. Select the correct match w.r.t steps involved in b. Charge

PCR. c. Charge to size ratio

(1) Denaturation – Phosphodiester bonds d. Length of agarose gel

break Select the correct option.
(1) a only (2) b only
(2) Annealing – Primers anneal at 5’ end
of DNA template (3) a, b and c (4) a, b, c and d
168. Select the option among the following that
(3) Extension – Taq polymerase forms
correctly states the condition when the
hydrogen bonds
sensation of white light is produced.
between adjacent
nucleotides of growing (1) The photoreceptor cells responsible for day
DNA strand light vision are stimulated equally
(2) All the colour vision controlling photoreceptor
(4) Elongation – Thermostable DNA cells are stimulated unequally
polymerase adds
(3) All the scotopic vision controlling
nucleotide to 3’ end of
photoreceptor cells are stimulated
primers
equally
165. A couple is planning to take the help of ART to (4) All the photoreceptor cells are stimulated
have children. The wife is normal and healthy except cones
and wants in vivo fertilisation. The husband has 169. To isolate DNA from the bacteria, which of the
low sperm count in his ejaculate. They proceed following are not required?
with the ART and the woman gets pregnant. The
(1) Lysozyme, Spooling, Ribonuclease
procedure they underwent is ‘X’.
(2) Protease, Ribonuclease, Lysozyme
Which option from the following can ‘X’ be?
(3) Lysozyme, Deoxyribonuclease, Elution
(1) ICSI or AI (2) GIFT or IUI
(4) Centrifugation, Chilled ethanol, Spooling
(3) IUT or IUI (4) AI or IUI
170. Endocrine system comprises
166. Toxicity testing is done on non-transgenic as well
(1) Only endocrine glands
as transgenic mice. Out of these two scenarios,
which one will allow us to obtain results in less (2) Hormone producing diffused tissues only
time? (3) Endocrine as well as exocrine glands
Select the option that correctly answer the given (4) All hormone producing organs, tissues and
question. cells

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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

171. In a hypothetical scenario, a transgenic mouse is 175. Read the statements given below carefully w.r.t
made to carry a gene, which results in ringworm.
deactivation of the -cells of Islets of
(a) It is one of the most common non-infectious
Langerhans.
diseases in man.
To compensate this, the mouse should be
(b) Neurospora belongs to the same kingdom to
administered with which of the following
which the organisms causing ringworm
substances for the normal functioning of the
infection belong.
body?
(1) Insulin (c) Heat and moisture helps the infection to
spread.
(2) Hypoglycemic substance
Select the correct option.
(3) Glycogenesis-inducing substance
(1) Statements (a) and (b) are correct while
(4) Glucagon
statement (c) is incorrect.
172. Match the structures given in column I with their
names in column II. Select the correct option. (2) Statements (b) and (c) are correct while
statement (a) is incorrect.
Column I Column II
(3) Statements (a) and (c) are correct while
a. (i) Alanine statement (b) is incorrect.
(4) Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
176. Which of the following is responsible for the
b. (ii) Serine rejection of grafted kidney in a patient?
(1) Passive immune response
(2) Humoral immune response
c. (iii) Glycine (3) Cell-mediated immune response
(4) Innate immune response
177. The taxonomical classification helps in
d. (iv) Glycerol (1) Giving a common name to a newly described
species
(2) Nomenclature of a previously described
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) species

(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Assigning a systemic position to newly
described species
173. Read the statements given below carefully w.r.t
lipids and select the incorrect statement. (4) Identification of biochemical reactions in an
(1) Lipids are generally water insoluble. anabolic pathway of animals

(2) Gingelly oil has lower melting point than fats. 178. Unsegmented body covered with calcareous
shell is distinctive feature of members placed in
(3) Lecithin is a simple lipid found in cell
the phylum
membrane.
(1) Annelida
(4) Arachidonic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid.
174. Which of the following is a primary metabolite? (2) Coelenterata

(1) Carotenoid (2) Anthocyanin (3) Arthropoda

(3) Cellulose (4) Ribose (4) Mollusca

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

179. Gnathostomata has two A , B and 183. Gonadotropins (LH and FSH) peak during the

Tetrapoda. Classes Chondrichthyes and C end of

bear fins for locomotion and are grouped under (1) Secretory phase
D . (2) Menstruation
Choose the option which fills the blanks A, B, C (3) Follicular phase
and D correctly.
(4) Luteal phase
A B C D
184. Darwin’s finches are examples of all of the
(1) Classes Pisces Cyclostomata Tetrapoda
following except
(2) Super Pisces Osteichthyes Pisces
classes
(1) Biogeographical evidences for evolution

(3) Super Vertebrata Osteichthyes Tetrapoda

(2) Adaptive radiation
classes
(3) Founder’s effect
(4) Classes Pisces Osteichthyes Gnathostomata
(4) Speciation without geographical barrier
180. Assertion (A): Zygote is the vital link that 185. The fitness according to Darwin, refers to
ensures continuity of species between organisms
of one generation and the next. (1) Reproductive fitness only
Reason (R): Zygote is the product of fusion of (2) Physical vigor
male and female gametes and it is producer of
next generation. (3) Ability to live longer

In the light of above statements, choose the (4) Ability to survive without passing genes to the
correct answer from the options given below. next generations
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct SECTION-B
explanation of (A)
186. Read the following statements (A) and (B) w.r.t.
(2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) bony fishes and choose the correct answer from
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false following given options.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true Statement (A): Osteichthyes includes both
181. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into marine and fresh water fishes with bony
the vasa efferentia through endoskeleton.
(1) Epididymis (2) Rete testis Statement (B): Their body is streamlined and
(3) Vas deferens (4) Ejaculatory duct mouth is ventral in position.
182. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
correct option.
(2) Only statement (A) is incorrect
Column-I Column-II
(3) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
a. Perimetrium (i) Inner glandular layer of
uterus (4) Only statement (B) is incorrect
b. Myometrium (ii) External thin membrane 187. Choose the mismatch among the following.
of uterus
(1) Rabbit – Ureotelic
c. Endometrium (iii) Middle thick layer of
smooth muscles (2) Crow – Uricotelic

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (3) Hydra – Ureotelic
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (4) Crayfish – Ammonotelic

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CST-7 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

188. Consider the given statements and mark them as 191. Select the odd one among the options given
true (T) or false (F). below.

a. The membrane of alveoli is very thin and (1) Adenosine (2) Uridine
richly supplied with blood capillaries to assist (3) Cytosine (4) Thymidine
diffusion of gases between alveoli and 192. How many of the following are features of
blood. ‘Nirodh’?
b. The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is (a) Is a natural method of contraception
such that any change in the volume of the (b) Is similar to LNG-20 in its mechanism of
thoracic cavity will be reflected in the action
pulmonary cavity. (c) Can be self-inserted by males
c. The type of epithelium found in the walls of (d) Is a barrier method of contraception
blood vessels is same as that of alveoli of Select the correct option for the above given
lungs. question.
d. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain (1) One (2) Two
seasons are related to hot and humid (3) Three (4) Four
environment only. 193. The gene which encodes the toxin that controls
Select the correct option. corn borers is
a b c d (1) cryIAc (2) cryIAb

(1) T T T T (3) cryIIAb (4) Ori

194. Select the incorrect statement from the following
(2) T T T F
w.r.t the structural and functional unit of neural
(3) F T T F system.
(4) T F T F (1) Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly
found in autonomous neural system.
189. Read the given statements carefully.
(2) Nissl’s granules are present in the cell body
(a) Congestion of lungs is one of the main
of the neuron.
symptom of heart failure.
(3) Neurons with cyton and one axon only are
(b) Each vein has an inner lining of cuboidal usually found in the embryonic stage.
endothelium, called tunica intima. (4) Only myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped
(c) The cardiac output of an athlete will be much with Schwann cells.
lower than that of an ordinary man. 195. Match the following columns I and II and choose
Select the correct option. the correct option.

(1) Only statements (a) and (b) are correct Column-I Column-II
(2) Only statements (a) and (c) are correct a. Parturition (i) Release of ovum from
(3) Only statement (c) is correct ruptured Graafian follicle

(4) Only statements (b) and (c) are incorrect b. Menopause (ii) Delivery of the baby
190. Select the disease among the following that can c. Ovulation (iii) Blastocyst becomes
be transmitted through semen of an infected embedded in endometrium
male.
d. Implantation (iv) Menstrual cycles ceases
a. Malaria b. Ebola virus infection around age of 50 years in
c. Chikungunya d. Hepatitis-B human female

(1) a and b (2) b and d (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) c and d (4) d only (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-7 (Code-A)

196. Choose the correct option to complete the (1) Directional selection
analogy.
(2) Stabilising selection
Echinus : Calcareous ossicles : : Trygon : _____
(3) Balancing selection
(1) Calcareous bones
(4) Disruptive selection
(2) Chitinous endoskeleton
199. How many fragments will be obtained if the given
(3) Cartilaginous endoskeleton
vector is cut by EcoRI, BamHI as well as HindIII
(4) Calcareous shell at all the restriction sites mentioned in the
197. Which of the following is a pre-fertilisation event? vector?
(1) Zygote formation
(2) Embryogenesis
(3) Syngamy
(4) Gamete formation
198. Natural selection can act on characters with
quantitative variations and this can lead to the
result depicted in the following graph. (1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five
200. Choose the odd one w.r.t genetic engineering.
The bold line shows the distribution of (1) Gene cloning
phenotypes in the population before selection (2) Traditional hybridisation
and the broken lines shows the effect of the
selection. The changes in the phenotypic traits (3) Recombinant DNA
observed after selection represents (4) Gene transfer

❑ ❑ ❑

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