As Per Updated Syllabus

Unit – 10 [ Higher Education ]

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Ancient Education in India

India was the top destination for travelers from various regions having different climates and cultures. To
them, India was a land of wonder. The fame of Indian culture, wealth, religions, philosophies, art,
architecture, as well as its educational practices, had spread far and wide. The education system of ancient
times was regarded as a source for the knowledge, traditions, and practices that guided and encouraged
humanity.

Sources of Education

The ancient system of education was the education of the Vedas, Brahmanas, Upanishads, and
Dharmasutras. You all are aware of the names of Aryabhata, Panini, Katyayana, and Patanjali. Their
writings and the medical treatises of Charaka and Sushruta were also some of the sources of learning.
The distinction was also drawn between Shastras (learned disciplines) and Kavyas (imaginative and
creative literature). Sources of learning were drawn from various disciplines such as Itihas (history),
Anviksiki (logic), Mimamsa (interpretation) Shilpashastra (architecture), Arthashastra (polity),
Varta (agriculture, trade, commerce, animal husbandry) and Dhanurvidya (archery). Physical
education, too, was an important curricular area, and pupils participated in krida (games, recreational
activities), vyayamaprakara (exercises), dhanurvidya (archery) for acquiring martial skills, and
yogasadhana (training the mind and body) among others. The Gurus and their pupils worked
conscientiously together to become proficient in all aspects of learning. In order to assess pupils' learning,
shastrartha (learned debates) were organised. Pupils at an advanced stage of learning guided younger
pupils. There also existed the system of peer learning, like you have group/peer work.

Ancient Education System in India — A Way of Life

In ancient India, both formal and informal ways of education system existed. Indigenous education was
imparted at home, in temples, pathshalas, tols, chatuspadis and gurukuls. There were people in homes,
villages, and temples who guided young children in imbibing pious ways of life. Temples were also the
centres of learning and took an interest in the promotion of knowledge of our ancient system. Students
went to viharas and universities for higher knowledge. Teaching was largely oral, and students
remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the class.

Many monasteries/viharas were set up for monks and nuns to meditate, debate, and discuss with the
learned for their quest for knowledge during this period. Around these viharas, other educational centres
of higher learning developed, which attracted students from China, Korea, Tibet, Burma, Ceylon, Java,
Nepal, and other distant countries.

Viharas and Universities

The Jataka tales, accounts given by Xuan Zang and I-Qing (Chinese scholars), as well as other sources,
tell us that kings and society took active interest in promoting education. As a result, many famous
educational centres came into existence. Among the most notable universities that evolved during this
period were situated at Takshashila, Nalanda, Valabhi, Vikramshila, Odantapuri and Jagaddala. These
universities developed in connection with the viharas. Those at Benaras, Navadeep and Kanchi developed
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in connection with temples and became centres of community life in the places where they were situated.
These institutions catered to the needs of advanced level students. Such students joined the centres of
higher learning and developed their knowledge by mutual discussions and debates with renowned
scholars. Not only this, there was also occasional summoning by a king to a gathering in which the scholars
of the country of various viharas and universities would meet, debate and exchange their views. In this
section we will give you glimpses of two universities of the ancient period. These universities were
considered among the best centres of learning in the world. These have been recently declared heritage
sites by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

Ancient Institutions in Higher Learning in India

There are several famous ancient institutions; they are:

1. Takshashila (Taxila): It was located in modern-day Pakistan. It is estimated to exist around 5th
century BC. It is believed that Chanakya composed the Arthashastra at this place. Both Buddhist
and Hindu theologies were taught here. Subjects like Political Science, Hunting, medicine, law,
military tactics were taught here. Noted teachers and students from Takshashila include Chanakya,
Charaka, Panini, Jivaka, Prasenajit, etc
2. Nalanda: The most renowned university in South Asia. It is not clear as to who established it; it
was in existence during the Gupta period. It gained prominence under Harshavardhana’s reign and
Pala kings. All three Buddhist doctrines were taught here; however, it was a major site for
Mahayana Buddhist teachings. Subjects like Vedas, fine arts, grammar, philosophy, logic,
medicine, etc. were also taught here. It had eight separate compounds and even had dormitories
for students. It attracted scholars from Central Asia, South-East Asia and other parts of the world.
The teachings of the university deeply influenced Tibetan Buddhism. Famous scholars of Nalanda
are Nagarjuna (Madhyamika Shunyavad) and Aryabhatta the astronomer. Hsuan Tsang spent two
years at the university. Another Chinese scholar I-Tsing, spent ten years at Nalanda in late 7th
century.
3. Valabhi: It was situated in Saurashtra, Gujarat. It was an important centre of learning for the
Hinayana Buddhism. Various disciplines like administration and statecraft, laws, philosophy etc
were taught here. It was visited by the Chinese scholar, Hseun Tsang. It was supported by the
grants of rulers of Maitraka Dynasty of Gujarat.
4. Vikramshila: It is located in present-day Bhagalpur district of Bihar. It was established by King
Dharampala of Pala dynasty, primarily as a Buddhist learning centre. The scholars were invited by
kings outside India to spread Buddhist teachings. The Vajrayana sect flourished here and Tantric
teachings were taught. Other subjects like logic, Vedas, astronomy, urban development, law,
grammar, philosophy, etc were also taught.
5. Odantapuri: This University had been established long before the Kings of Pala dynasty came
into power in Magadha. Odantpuri could not attain that level of fame and repute which either
Nalanda or Vikramshila had accomplished. Still, nearly 1000 monks and students resided and
received an education there. Odantapuri contributed its share in spreading the tenets of Buddhism.
It attracted students from Tibet too.
6. Jagaddala: Jagaddala Pal King, Raja Ram Pal of Bengal, had set a city on the banks of Ganga. It

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was the beginning of the 11th century and it was named as Ranavati. He also constructed a

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monastery and named it as Jagaddala. Soon after this University became the center of learning it
remained the center of Buddhist culture for about 100 years. It was destroyed by Muslims in 1203
A.D. In Jagaddala there were many scholars notable for their knowledge. Their reputation reached
Tibet and their books were translated in Tibetan language.
7. Mithila: In the Upanishadic age Mithila became a prominent seat of Brahmanical system of
education. It was named as Videha. Raja Janak used to hold religious conferences, wherein learned
Rishis and pandits took part in religious discussions. Even in the Buddhist period, it continued its
glorious task and remained an important center of learning and culture. Later on this pace produced
devotees of Lord Krishna. Famous poet Vidyapati, who had written in Hindi and Jaideo who was
a prominent poet of Sanskrit literature were born here.
8. Nadia: Nadia was formerly called Navadweep. It is situated at the confluence of Ganga and Jalangi
rivers in Bengal. It was the center of trade and commerce as well as learning and culture. It had
produced innumerable scholars from time to time. The lyrics of Gita Govind by Jaideva still
reverberate in the ears of the people. Even during the Mohammedan rules, Nadia enjoyed
popularity and fame as an important center of education, especially for such branches of learning
as Logic, Vyakaran, Politics and Law.

9. Kancheepuram: It was a centre of learning for Hinduism, Jainism and Buddhism from 1st century
AD and achieved great name under the rule of Pallavas.

10. Manyakheta: It is now called Malkhed (Karnataka). It rose to prominence under the Rashtrakuta
rule. Scholars of Jainism, Buddhism and Hinduism studied here. It has a ‘matha’ of Dvaita school
of thought.

11. Pushpagiri Vihara and Lalitagiri (Odisha): It was established by Kalinga kings around 3rd
century AD near the Udayagiri hills. It was mainly a Buddhist learning centre.

12. Sharada Peeth: It is located in present-day Pakistan-occupied-Kashmir. It was an important place

for the Sanskrit scholars and many important texts were written here. It also has a Sharda Devi
temple.

13. Nagarjunakonda: It is situated 160 km from Amaravathi in Andhra Pradesh, and it was a major
Buddhist centre with scholars from Sri Lanka, China, etc. coming for higher-education. It had
many Viharas, Stupas, etc. It was named after Nagarjuna, a south Indian scholar of Mahayana
Buddhism.
Apart from the above-mentioned institutions, there was a system of gurukuls, Matth, and Ashrams for
education and learning which were not worked as institutions of higher learning in ancient India.

Evolution of Higher Learning and Research in Post-independence India

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Our country has always been identified as a knowledge hub since the beginning of human civilization.
Indian higher education system has been witnessing metamorphic changes and challenges through the
years, i.e., from the ancient Gurukul system to the modern technology-based learning system have changed
the lives of millions of people. This is evident from centres of learning which existed in the 7th century
BC were the Buddhist monasteries and in the 3rd century AD was Nalanda (Perkin, 2006). A fewof these
centres were very large, having several faculties. Invasions and disorder in the country have extinguished
the ancient Indian education system. Britishers brought western and secular education, with an emphasis
on scientific inquiry, to India.

To eradicate such prevailing systems in the pre-independence era. Many commissions were set up
to propose recommendations to make a change in the educational system.

After independence, India legally delegated all powers regarding education to the provincial governments
which laid more stress on the objective of increasing access than quality. As per the recommendation of
the Sarkar Committee (1945) higher technical institutes were formed based on the Massachusetts
Institute of Technology in the four regions of India. This resulted in the setting up of the five Indian
Institutes of Technology at Kharagpur (1950), Bombay (1958), Kanpur (1959), Madras (1960) and Delhi
(1961). The All India Council for Technical Education was set up in 1945, to oversee all technical
education (diploma, degree and post-graduate) in the country. Under the able leadership of Pandit
Jawaharlal Nehru, the Government of India set up the University Education Commission (UEC) under
the chairmanship of Dr. S. Radhakrishnan in 1948. The UEC discussed all aspects of university
education, and based on its recommendation, the University Grants Commission (UGC) was set up in
1953 for the coordination of development and maintenance of standards in higher education. UGC
became a statutory organization by the act of parliament in 1956. Since then, UGC has been
effectively contributing to the Indian higher education system, framing appropriate policies needed to
reform and revamp the higher education system.

The Nehruvian Period (1947-1964) was more focused on large-scale industrialization which thereby
gave impetus to growth of higher technical institutions, but with Indira Gandhi taking over in 1964,
the focus shifted to poverty and rural issues and the same tone is seen to be reflected in education as
well. Set up in 1964, under the chairmanship of D.S. Kothari, the Education Commission (Kothari
Commission) submitted its report in 1966 which set in motion the National Policy on Education (NPE)
in 1968, still considered to be a landmark event in the history of India. The NPE became the basis of
reforms that helped strengthen higher education system in India. Another important development that
followed was the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, (as a part of the Centralization Agenda of Indira
Gandhi during internal Emergency) which made Education a concurrent subject in Indian
Constitution, that is, now education became a joint responsibility of the central and the state governments,
while earlier it was solely in the hands of the state governments. All this while, the Planning Commission
(established in 1950 by Nehru) with the Prime Minister as the ex-officio chairman, has formulated its
five-year plans and the chief recommendations (with respect to higher education) of the first six five-year
plans are presented in the following table.

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Five-Year Plans covering the period 1951-1985

Five-Year Plan Major strides in the area of higher education

First FYP ➢ UGC was set up in 1953 for proper funding, development and quality maintenance in
(1951-1956) higher education
➢ Five Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) were started as major technical institutions.
➢ With an overall shift in focus from agriculture to manufacturing, more stress was
Second FYP laid on setting up of technical and professional institutes to produce skilled
(1956-1961) manpower
➢ The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research was established as a research institute
➢ Eleven Rural Institutes were established to educate the rural youth
Third FYP ➢ Rapid increase in the number of universities and colleges led to deterioration of quality.
(1961-1966) Thus, UGC tried to introduce reforms in the institutions through improvement in the
teacher-pupil ratio, introduction of post-graduate courses, improvements in libraries,
laboratories and other infrastructures
➢ Larger facilities were provided for diverting students to vocational and technological
education

➢ Main emphasis was on consolidation and improvement of higher education through

Fourth FYP the strengthening of staffand library and laborator facilities.
(1969-1974) ➢ Affiliated colleges which provide education to more than 88 per cent of the university
students were helped.
➢ Assistance for fuller development given to a few colleges selected on the basis of
their achievements, existing facilities and potentialities.
➢ Fostering equity by providing additional facilities to weaker sections of society and the
Fifth FYP backward areas
(1974-1978) ➢ Expansion of facilities through evening colleges and correspondence courses
➢ Strengthening post-graduate and research by developing centres of advanced study
➢ Introduction of programmes of faculty development, like summer institutes, seminars
and orientation programmes.
➢ Low emphasis on expansion
Sixth FYP ➢ Greater priority to improvement of quality of higher education
(1980-1985) ➢ Regulation of admission
➢ Stress on equity by assisting the disadvantaged groups
➢ Restructuring of courses for practical orientation and greater relevance

As may be noticed above, the shift in focus from agriculture to manufacturing in the Second Plan led to a
parallel shift in emphasis from elementary education to higher and higher technical education. This trend
continued for quite some time, till the mid-1980s when the bias against school education was recognized.
Thus, came the watershed year 1986, when PM Rajiv Gandhi-led Government of India decided
to launch long pending revision of the 1968 National Policy on Education in order to prepare
India to face challenges of the 21ST century.

The National Policy on Higher Education (1986) translated the vision of Radhakrishnan Commission and
Kothari Commission in five main goals for higher education, which include Greater Access, Equal Access
(or Equity), Quality and Excellence, Relevance and Value Based. The NPE of 1986 revamped the higher
education system by its recommendations of expansion of Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs),
development of autonomous colleges, redesigning of courses, enhancing quality research, training of
teachers, increasing coordination between national and state level bodies, fostering mobility between
institutions. In 1992, the policy was revised by a committee under Janardhana Reddy, recommending
planned development of higher education through different measures. The Action Plan of 1992 included
schemes and programs which were directed towards expansion of intake capacity in general, and that of
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the disadvantaged groups such as the poor, SC, ST, minorities, girls, the physically challenged persons,
and those in the educationally backward regions, in particular. The Schemes/Programmes were designed
to improve the quality through strengthening academic and physical infrastructure, to promote excellence
in those institutions which have exhibited potential for excellence, and to develop curriculum to inculcate
right values among the youth.

Summary and journey of Higher education after 1986 to 2015

Five-Year Plans covering the period 1986-2014

Five-Year Plan Major strides in the area of higher education

➢ More stress on speedy implementation of various reforms already initiated
Seventh FYP ➢ Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established
(1985-90) ➢ Emphasis on quality and equity
➢ After a period (1989-91) of political instability, this plan highlighted several
Eighth FYP weaknesses such as substandard institutions, outdated curriculum, lack of research
(1992-97) ➢ Focus on integrated and cost-efficient higher education without compromising
excellence and equity
➢ An information and library network “INFLIBNET” was proposed.
➢ Focused on the deterioration of quality, the resource crunch and the problems of
Ninth FYP (1997- governance in higher education
2002) ➢ Stress on enhancing access and equity
➢ Target to grant autonomous status to 10% of eligible colleges
➢ Target to raise the enrolment in higher education of the 18-23 year age group from the
Tenth FYP present 6 per cent to 10 per cent by the end of the Plan period through strategies of
(2002-2007) increasing access, quality, adoption of state-specific strategies and the liberalization
of the higher education system
➢ Emphasis on relevance of the curriculum, vocationalization, and networking on the use
of information technology
➢ As a wake-up call to prolonged neglect of higher education, the GOI set targets for
massive expansion
➢ Also, inclusion and rapid movement in quality by enhancing public spending,
Eleventh FYP encouraging private initiatives and initiating the long overdue major institutional and
(2007-2012) policy reforms
➢ Improve quality by working on a detailed reforms agenda including a) admission,
curriculum and assessment; b) accreditation & ratings; c) teachers competence and
motivation; and d) restructure affiliated colleges and research for policy formulation.
➢ Establish 30 new Central Universities, 16 in States where they do not exist and 14 as
World Class Universities, 8 new IITs, 7 new IIMs, 10 new NITs, 3 IISERs (Indian
Institutes of Science, Education and Research), 20 IIITs and 2 new SPAs (School of
Planning and Architecture)
Twelfth FYP ➢ Plans for inclusive expansion brought in under the RUSA (Rashtriya Uchchatar
(2012-2014) Shiksha Abhiyan) which would include up gradation of autonomous and A rated
Planning colleges into universities, increasing the intake capacity of existing higher education
Commission has institutions, encouraging existing universities to start undergraduate programmers or
been abolished integrated UG-PG programme; and creation of small, affiliating College Cluster
in 2014 to usher Universities at the regional level
in the NITI ➢ Other step would be to promote equal access to quality
AAYOG

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University and Higher Education System

Higher Education sector has witnessed a tremendous increase in the number of Universities/University
level Institutions & Colleges since Independence. The number of Universities has increased 50 times from
20 in 1950 to 993 in 2019. The sector boasts of 54 Central Universities of which 43 are under the
purview of Ministry of Human Resource Development, 409 State Universities, 349 State Private
universities, 127 Deemed to be Universities, 95 Institutions of National Importance (established
under Acts of Parliament) under MHRD and four Institutions (established under various State
legislations). The number of colleges has also registered manifold increase of 84 times with just 500
in 1950 growing to 41,901 as on 31st March 2020.
The quantum growth in the Higher Education sector is spear-headed by Universities, which are the highest
seats of learning.
In India, "University" means a University established or incorporated by or under a Central Act, a
Provincial Act or a State Act and includes any such institution as may, in consultation with the University
concerned, be recognised by the University Grants Commission (UGC) in accordance with the regulations
made in this regard under the UGC Act, 1956. Every year, millions of students from within the country
and abroad, enter these portals mainly for their graduate, post graduate studies while millions leave these
portals for the world outside.
Higher Education is the shared responsibility of both the Centre and the States. The coordination and
determination of standards in Universities & Colleges is entrusted to the UGC and other statutory
regulatory bodies.
The Central Government provides grants to the UGC and establishes Central Universities/Institutions of
National Importance in the country. The Central Government is also responsible for declaring an
educational institution as "Deemed-to-be University" on the recommendations of the UGC.

At present, the main categories of University/University-level Institutions are: Central Universities, State
Universities, Deemed-to-be Universities and University-level institutions. These are described as follows:

Central University:
A university established or incorporated by a Central Act.
State University:
A university established or incorporated by a Provincial Act or by a State Act.
Private University:
A university established through a State/Central Act by a sponsoring body viz. A Society registered under
the Societies Registration Act 1860, or any other corresponding law for the time being in force in a State
or a Public Trust or a Company registered under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956.
Deemed-To-Be University:

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An Institution Deemed to be University, commonly known as Deemed University, refers to a high-

performing institution, which has been so declared by the Central Government under Section 3 of the
University Grants Commission (UGC) Act, 1956.
Institution of National Importance:
An Institution established by Act of Parliament and declared as Institution of National Importance.
Institution Under State Legislature Act:
An Institution established or incorporated by a State Legislature Act.

University Grants Commission (UGC)

The University Grants Commission is a statutory organization established by an Act of Parliament in 1956
for the coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education. Apart from
providing grants to eligible universities and colleges, the Commission also advises the Central and State
Governments on the measures which are necessary for the development of Higher Education. It functions
from New Delhi as well as its Seven Regional offices located in Bangalore, Bhopal, Delhi, Guwahati,
Hyderabad, Kolkata and Pune.

National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), New Delhi

NCERT is an organisation set up by the Government of India, with headquarters located at Sri Aurbindo
Marg in New Delhi, to assist and advise the central and state governments on academic matters related to
school education. It was established in 1961.

Inter University Centres (IUCs)

The UGC establishes autonomous Inter-University Centres within the university system under Clause
12(ccc) of the UGC Act. The objectives for setting up these centres are:
• To provide common advanced centralized facilities/services for universities which are not able to
invest heavily in infrastructure and other inputs.
• To play a vital role in offering the best expertise in each field to teachers and researchers across the
country.
• To provide access for research and teaching community to the state-of-the-art equipment and excellent
library facilities which are comparable to international standards.
The Nuclear Science Centre at New Delhi (now called Inter University Accelerator Centre) was the
first research centre established in 1994. As of today, six Inter University Centres are functioning
within the university system, which are as follows:

Inter University Accelerator Centre (IUAC), New Delhi

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Inter University Accelerator Centre was the first Inter-University Centre to be established by the UGC in
1984. The primary objective of the Centre is to establish within the university system a world class facility
for accelerator-based research. Its aim is to formulate common research programmes of research and
development in collaboration with universities, IITs and other research institutions. It promotes group
activities and human research development in experimental science and other branches of knowledge.

Inter University Centre for Astronomy and Astro-Physics (IUCAA), Pune

Information IUCAA, Pune was set up in 1988 as an autonomous centre of excellence to help initiate and
nurture, research and developmental activities in Astronomy and Astrophysics in the University sector.
IUCAA was set up with the basic purpose of providing advanced centralized facilities for subjects not
adequately covered in the university departments and colleges.

UGC-DAE Consortium for Scientific Research (UGC-DAECSR), Indore

UGC-DAE was created in the year 1990 with the broad objective of developing competence and
promoting research in front line areas of science and technology in Indian Universities by providing
institutional framework for optimum utilisation of major research facilities established by the department
of Atomic Energy such as Dhruv Reactor of Mumbai, VECC at Kolkata and Synchrotron Radiation
Sources at Indore. The facilities of IUC can be availed by scientists from any university.

Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET), Ahmedabad, Estd. 1996

An Inter-University Centre of UGC the INFLIBNET serves towards modernization of Libraries, serves as
Information Centre for transfer and access of information, supporting scholarships and learning and
academic pursuits through a National Network of Libraries in around 264 Universities, Colleges and R&D
Institutions across the country.

Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC), New Delhi

The Consortium for Educational Communication popularly known as CEC is one of the Inter University
Centres set up by the University Grants Commission. It has been established with the goal of addressing
the needs of Higher Education through the use of powerful medium of Television alongwith the
appropriate use of emerging Information Communication Technology (ICT). Realizing
the potential and power of television to act as means of Educational Knowledge dissemination, UGC
started the Countrywide Classroom Programmes in the year 1984. For production of educational
programmes, initially Media Centres were set up at 6 Universities. Subsequently CEC was setup in 1993
as a nodal agency to coordinate, guide & facilitate such educational programme production through its
Media Centres. Today 22 Media Centres now known as Educational Multimedia Research Centres
(EMRCs) are working towards achieving this goal under the umbrella of CEC.

National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC), Bangalore

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National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) was established by the UGC in September 1994
at Bangalore for evaluating the performance of the Universities and Colleges in the Country. NAAC's
mandate includes the task of performance evaluation, assessment and accreditation of universities and
colleges in the country. The philosophy of NAAC is based on objective and continuous improvement
rather than being punitive or judgmental so that all institutions of higher learning are empowered to
maximize their resources, opportunities, and capabilities. Assessment is a performance evaluation of an
institution and /or its units and is accomplished through a process based on self-study and peer review
using defined criteria. Accreditation refers to the certification given by the NAAC, which is valid for a
period of five years. At present, the Assessment and Accreditation by NAAC are done on a voluntary
basis.

Inter University Centre for International Studies

Osmania University Campus Hyderabad.

The UGC has established Inter-University Centres (IUCs) for centrally providing state-of-the-art
equipment & facilities for the benefit of researchers working in different universities. So far, these IUCS
have been established mainly in the field of science and technology. The UGC proposed to build the first
IUC in the field of Humanities and Social Science by taking over academic and physical infrastructure
available at Indo-American Centre for International Studies.

Inter-University Centre for Teacher Education, Kakinada

List of Central Universities (as on 01-06-2020)

ANDHRA PRADESH
1 Central University of Andhra Pradesh, Anantapuramu
2 Central Tribal University of Andhra Pradesh, Vizianagaram
3 The National Sanskrit University, Tirupati
ARUNACHAL PRADESH
4 Rajiv Gandhi University, Itanagar
ASSAM
5 Assam University, Silchar
6 Tezpur University, Tezpur
BIHAR
7 Central University of South Bihar, Gaya
8 Mahatma Gandhi Central University, East Champaran (Motihari)
9 Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University, Pusa, Samastipur
10 Nalanda University, Rajgir, Nalanda, Bihar. (established under Central Act)
CHHATTISGARH

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11 Guru Ghasidas Vishwavidyalaya, Bilaspur (Converted State University to Central University).

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GUJARAT
12 Central University of Gujarat, Gandhinagar
HARYANA
13 Central University of Haryana, Mahendragarh,
HIMACHAL PRADESH
14 Central University of Himachal Pradesh, Dist. Kangra
JAMMU & KASHMIR
15 Central of University of Kashmir, Srinagar
16 Central University of Jammu, Jammu
JHARKHAND
17 Central University of Jharkhand, Ranchi
KARNATAKA
18 Central University of Karnataka, Gulbarga
KERALA
19 Central University of Kerala, Kasargod
MADHYA PRADESH
Dr Harisingh Gour Vishwavidyalaya, Sagar (Converted from State University to Central
20 University).
21 The Indira Gandhi National Tribal University, Amarkantak
MAHARASHTRA
22 Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalay, Wardha
MANIPUR
23 Central Agricultural University, Imphal
24 Manipur University, Canchipur, Imphal
25 National Sports University, Koutruk
MEGHALAYA
26 North Eastern Hill University, Shilong
MIZORAM
27 Mizoram University, Aizawal
NAGALAND
28 Nagaland University, Kohima
ODISHA
29 Central University of Orissa, Koraput
PUNJAB
30 Central University of Punjab, Bathinda
RAJASTHAN
31 Central University of Rajasthan, Ajmer
SIKKIM
32 Sikkim University, Tadong, Gangtok.
TAMILNADU
33 Central University of Tamil Nadu, Thiruvarur

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34 Indian Maritime University, Chennai

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TELANGANA
35 Hyderabad University, Hyderabad
36 Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Hyderabad
37 The English and Foreign Languages University, Osmania University Campus, Hyderabad
TRIPURA
38 Tripura University, Suryamanianagar, Agartala
UTTAR PRADESH
39 Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh
40 University of Allahabad, Allahabad
41 Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar University, Lucknow.
42 Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi
43 Rajiv Gandhi National Aviation University, Raebareli
Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University, NH-75, Near Pahuj Dam, Gwalior Road,
44 Jhansi
UTTRAKHAND
Hemwati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University, Srinagar (Converted from State University
45 to Central University).
WEST BENGAL
46 Vishwa Bharati, Shanti Niketan
NCT OF DELHI
47 Delhi University, Delhi
48 Indira Gandhi National Open University
49 Jamia Millia Islamia, Jamia Nagar
50 Jawaharlal Nehru University
51 South Asian University, JNU Campus, (established under Central Act)
52 The Central Sanskrit University, Janakpuri, New Delhi
53 Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit University, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi-110 016
PONDICHERRY
54 Pondicherry University, Pondicherry

Central Universities Which Are Not Under Ministry of HRD (not funded by UGC)

1. SOUTH ASIAN UNIVERSITY

The South Asian University is an International University sponsored by the eight Member States of the
South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). The eight countries are: Afghanistan,
Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. The formal Agreement to establish
the University was signed on April 4, 2007. The first academic session of the university started in August
2010 with two post-graduates academic programmes, one each in Economics and Computer Sciences.

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2. NALANDA UNIVERSITY
Nalanda University was established in November 2010. The University came into being by a special Act
of the Indian Parliament – a testimony to the important status that Nalanda University occupies in the
Indian intellectual landscape.

3. CENTRAL AGRICULTURAL UNIVERSITY

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), an apex body, which plans, undertakes aids,
promotes, and coordinates agricultural education, research and extension education in India, constituted a
research review committee in 1982 under the National Agricultural Research Project (NARP) to suggest
the ways and means to strengthen the research capability of the NE Region. The committee was also given
an additional mandate to look into the manpower needs of agriculture and allied sectors and suggests the
remedial measures.

4. INDIAN MARITIME UNIVERSITY

The Indian Maritime University, came into being through an Act of Parliament (Act 22) on 14th
November, 2008 as a Central University and is poised to play a key role in the development of trained
human resource for the maritime sector. November 14th is celebrated as 'IMU Day' every year.

5. RAJIV GANDHI NATIONAL AVIATION UNIVERSITY

Rajiv Gandhi National Aviation University (RGNAU) is an autonomous public central
university located in the Fursatganj Airfield, Amethi district, Uttar Pradesh. It is
a specialized institution and comes directly under the Government of India. It will be financed
primarily by Ministry of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Science and Technology, and collaboration
with International Aerospace and Aviation organizations.

6. INDIRA GANDHI NATIONAL OPEN UNIVERSITY

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established in 1985 by an Act of Parliament with
the dual responsibilities of (i) enhancing access and equity to higher education through distance mode and
(ii) promoting, coordinating and determining standards in open learning and distance education systems.
Since then, the IGNOU has undergone rapid expansion and emerged as an international institution in the
field of Open and Distance Learning.

7. RANI LAKSHMI BAI CENTRAL AGRICULTURAL UNIVERSITY

The Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University has been established as an Institution of national
importance under Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE) by an Act of Parliament
(Act No. 10 of 2014) and notified on 5th March 2015. This second Central Agricultural University in India
established and named in the memory of great freedom fighter known as warrior queen of Jhansi Late
Rani Lakshmi Bai who sacrificed her life at the altar of the freedom. The objectives of the university are
to impart education in different branches of agriculture and allied sciences, undertake research in

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agriculture, programmes of extension education and promote linkages with national and international

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educational institutes. The University became functional with the joining of Dr. Arvind Kumar as first
Vice-Chancellor on May 9, 2014. The University headquarter is at Jhansi located in Bundelkhand region
covering six districts, namely: Chhatarpur, Damoh, Datia, Panna, Sagar and Tikamgarh of Madhya
Pradesh and seven districts, namely: Banda, Chitrakoot, Hamirpur, Jalaun, Jhansi, Lalitpur and Mahoba
of Uttar Pradesh.

Association of Indian Universities (AIU)

The Association of Indian universities (AIU) is a registered society under the Societies Registration Act,
1860 with membership of Indian Universities. It provides a forum for administrators and academicians of
member universities to exchange views and discuss matters of common concern. It acts as a bureau of
information exchange in higher education and brings out a number of useful publications, including the
“Universities Handbook”, research papers and a weekly journal titled “University News”.
The present membership of the Association is 527 including seven Associate Members viz. Kathmandu
University, Kathmandu, Nepal, Mauritius University, Mauritius, University of Technology, Mauritius,
Royal University of Bhutan, Thimpu, Open University of Malaysia, Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, Middle
East University, UAE, and Semey State Medical University, Semey, Kazakhstan.
The Association is substantially financed from the annual subscription of the member universities. The
Government of India, Ministry of Human Resource Development provides grants for meeting a part of
the maintenance and development expenditure, including research studies, workshops, training
programmes for university administrators, orientation programmes and creation of Data Bank of Global(of
which Universities( the preliminary document Access to Global Universities is completed). AIU has
Evaluation Division, Students Information Service Division, and Publication Sales Division, Sports
Division to sponsor Inter-University Tournaments and World University Games:2007, Youth Affairs
Division, Library and Documentation Division, Finance Division, Administration Division, Computer
Division and Meeting Division.
The AIU is also empowered to grant Associate Membership to universities of the neighbouring countries
of India.

Councils

1. Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR), New Delhi

The Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) was established in 1969 for promoting social
science research, strengthening different disciplines, improving quality and quantum of research and its
utilization in national policy formulation. To realize these objectives, the ICSSR envisaged development
of institutional infrastructure, identifying research talents, formulating research programmes, supporting
professional organizations and establishing linkages with social scientists in other countries. The ICSSR
provides maintenance and development grants to various Research Institutes and Regional Centres across

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the country. Regional Centres have been set-up as extended arms of the ICSSR to support research and
development of local talents and its programmes and activities in a decentralized manner.
Since 1976, the ICSSR has been carrying out surveys of research in different disciplines of social sciences.
With a view to give special emphasis to the promotion of social science research in the North Eastern
Region, initiatives have been taken in the ICSSR to support research proposals and other activities.

2. Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR), New Delhi

Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) was set up in 1977 by the Ministry of Education,
Government of India as an autonomous organization for the promotion of research in Philosophy and
allied discipline. The ICPR was born out of the conviction that Indian philosophy tradition deserves to
have an exclusive and special agency in the country.
The Council has a broad-based membership comprising of distinguished philosophers, social scientists,
representatives of the University Grants Commission, Indian Council of Social Science Research, Indian
Council of Historic Research, Indian National Science Academy, the Central Government and the
Government of Uttar Pradesh. The Governing Body (GB) and the Research Project Committee (RPC) are
the main authorities of the council. These bodies are vested with well-defined powers and functions.

3. Project of History of Indian Science, Philosophy & Culture (PHISPC)

PHISPC was launched in the year 1990 under the aegis of Indian Council of Philosophical Research
(ICPR) with the basic objective of undertaking inter-disciplinary study so that inter-connection between
Science, Philosophy and Culture as developed in the long history of Indian civilization, could be brought
out in detail. From April 1, 1997, PHISPC was officially de-linked from Indian Council of Philosophical
Research (ICPR) for a greater autonomy to complete the Project by the stipulated period, and is now
affiliated to Centre for Studies in Civilizations (CSC). Government of India has recognized CSC as the
nodal agency for the purposes of funding the ongoing research project, PHISPC.
The major programme of PHISPC is to publish several volumes on the theme mentioned in the
'Introduction'.

4. Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) , New Delhi

Indian Council of Historical Research is an autonomous organization which was established under
Societies Registration Act (Act XXI of 1860) in 1972. The prime objectives of the Council are to give a
proper direction to historical research and to encourage and foster objective and scientific writing of
history. The broad aims of the Council are to bring historians together, provide a forum for exchange of
views between them, and give a national direction to an objective and rational presentation interpretation
of history, to sponsor historical research programmes and projects and to assist institutions and
organizations engaged in historical research. It has a broad view of history so as to include in its fold the
history of Science and Technology, Economy, Art, Literature, Philosophy, Epigraphy, Numismatics,
Archaeology, Socio-Economic formation processes and allied subjects containing strong historical bias
and contents.

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The ICHR has established two Regional Centres, one at Bangalore and the other at Guwahati with a
view to reach out the far-flung areas of the country.

5. National Council of Rural Institutes (NCRI), Hyderabad

The National Council of Rural Institute is a registered autonomous society fully funded by the Central
Government. It was established on October 19, 1995 with its Headquarters at Hyderabad. Its main
objectives are to promote rural higher education on the lines of Mahatma Gandhi’s vision for education
so as to take up challenges of micro planning for the transformation of rural areas as envisaged in National
Policy on Education (NPE) 1986. In order to achieve its objectives, the NCRI has been identifying various
programmes for providing support and financial assistance, to be taken up by suitable institutions,
including voluntary organizations.

Other Institutions of Higher Learning

1. Indian Institute of Advanced Study, Shimla

The Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS), Shimla was established in the year 1965, under the
Societies Registration Act 1860 and housed in Rashtrapati Nivas, Shimla. It is a residential center for free
and creative enquiry into the fundamental themes and problems of life and thought. The functions of the
Institute are:
• To promote creative thought in areas which have deep human significance and to provide
environment suitable for academic research and also to undertake, organize, guide and promote
advanced research in Humanities, Social Sciences, Science, Technology and Development;
Methodologies and Techniques;
• To provide facilities for advanced consultation, collaboration and exhaustive library and
documentation facilities; including financial assistance for advanced study for teachers and other
scholars for specific period to be determined in each case;
• To organize National Seminars, Lectures, Symposia, Conferences etc;
• To invite Visiting Professors and Visiting Scholars from India and abroad to deliver lectures or
conduct research;
• To start, conduct, print, publish and exhibit any magazines, periodicals, newspapers, books,
pamphlets, monographs or posters that may be considered desirable for the promotion of the
object;
• To make arrangements for pooling the results of research, analyzing and adopting them in terms
of their social relevance for the publication;
• To collaborate with other academic or governmental bodies in the dissemination of knowledge;
and
• To award Fellowships for conduct of independent research by scholars and researchers.

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2. Dr. Zakir Husain Memorial College Trust, New delhi

Dr. Zakir Husain Memorial College Trust, Delhi was established in 1973 to manage and maintain Zakir
Husain College (formerly Delhi College. Prime Minister is the Chairperson of the Trust and Minister of
Human Resource Development is the Vice-Chairperson. Zakir Husain College is one of the constituent
colleges of the University of Delhi. Earlier the college was housed in an old and dilapidated historical
building situated at Ajmeri Gate in the walled city. That campus was more than 300 years old. The college
had the blessings of national leaders such as Late Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the First Prime Minister of
India, and Late Dr. Zakir Husain, Former President of India. The University Grants Commission meets
95% of the recurring grants of the college and the balance 5% is meet by the Dr. Zakir Husain College
Trust. Since the Trust has no resource of its own, grants are provided by the Department of Higher
Education, Ministry of Human Resource Development. Besides, the maintenance expenditure of the
College, the Trust and the University Grants Commission meet on 50:50 percent bases, the cost of the
construction of the new campus, the land of which was allotted by the Ministry of Urban Development.
With the completion of the first phase of the college buildings, the college shifted to its new campus from
the old building at Ajmeri Gate in 1991.

3. Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeethya, New De lhi

Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha, New Delhi was established in 1962 and declared
a ‘Deemed to be University’ in 1987.
The Vidyapeetha provides courses of study from Shastri to Vidya Vachaspati (D. Litt.). Since 1997-98,
Vidyapeetha is also offering diploma in Vedic and conducting refresher courses for teachers. It also offers
programmes in faculties namely: Sahitya; Sanskrit; Darshan and Veda Vedanga. These faculties have
eighteen departments viz. Sahitya, Puranetihasa, Prakit, Nyaya Vashaishik, Sankhya Yoga, Advaita
Vedanta, Jain Darshan, Sarva Darshan, Mimamsa, Vishishtadvaita Vedanta, Veda, Dharam Shastra,
Vyakaran, Paurohitya, Jyotish, Shiksha Shastra, and Shikshacharya. The Vidyapeeth also offers P.G.
Diploma in Vastu Shastra and Medical Astrology.

4. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha, Tirupati

Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha, Tirupati was established in 1986 with the objective of preserving learning
of Shastras as well as promotion of Sanskrit language, literature, philosophy through teaching and
research. These institutions were declared as ‘Deemed to be University’ in the year 1987. A number of
programmes and activities for realising their objectives in effective manner have been started by both
these institutions. These institutions receive annual grants through the University Grants Commission for
meeting their expenses. The Vidyapeetha provides courses of study in various disciplines ranging from
Prak Shastri (Intermediate) to Vidya Varidhi (Ph.D) and Diploma and Certificate Courses. The
Department Pedagogy of this Vidyapeetha is functioning as an Institute of Advanced Study in Education
(IASE) as a measure to use modern technology. A computer center was established in Vidyapeeth to
accelerate its publication activities. The Vidyapeetha has the following departments: Sahitya, Vyakarana,
Nyaya, Jyotisha, Advaitavedanta, Dvaita Vedanta, Visistadvaita Vedanta, Research and Publication,

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Physical Education and Education (IASE).

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5. National University Of Education Planning And Administration (NUEPA), New Delhi

The National University of Educational Planning and Administration (NUEPA) is a Deemed to be
University set up and fully financed by the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Human Resource
Development. The objectives of the Institute are to undertake, promote and coordinate research in
educational planning and administration, provide training and consultancy services in this field, to train
and orient key level functionaries as well as senior level administrators from the centre and states, to
collaborate with other agencies, institutions and organisations, to provide facilities for training and
research to other countries particularly of the Asian region in the field of educational planning and
administration and to prepare, print and publish papers, periodicals and books, to share experience and
expertise in the area of educational planning and administration with other countries and to conduct
comparative studies for the furtherance of these objectives.
The NUEPA maintains a well stocked Library/Documentation Centre on Educational Planning and
Administration and Inter Disciplinary subjects. It is perhaps one of the richest libraries in the field of
Educational Planning and Management in the Asian Region. It serves the faculty, research scholars and
participants of the various programmes, as also other organisations through Inter Library Loan system.

6. Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan (RSKS), New Delhi

The Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan (RSKS) was established on October 15, 1970 as an autonomous
organisation registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 (Act XXI of 1860) for the development
and promotion of Sanskrit all over the country. It was declared a Deemed to be University in May 2002.
It is fully funded by Government of India. It functions as an apex body for propagation and development
of Sanskrit and assists the Ministry of Human Resource Development in formulating and implementing
various plans and schemes for the development of Sanskrit studies. It has assumed the role of a nodal body
for the effective implementation of various recommendations made by the Sanskrit Commission set up by
the Government of India, Ministry of Education in 1956 to consider the propagation and development of
Sanskrit language and education in all its aspects.

Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)

Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), launched in 2013
aims at providing strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions. The central funding (in
the ratio of 65:35 for general category States and 90:10 for special category states) would be norm based
and outcome dependent. The funding would flow from the central ministry through the state
governments/union territories to the State Higher Education Councils before reaching the identified
institutions. The funding to states would be made on the basis of critical appraisal of State Higher
Education Plans, which would describe each state’s strategy to address issues of equity, access and
excellence in higher education.

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Objectives

The salient objectives of RUSA are to;

• Improve the overall quality of state institutions by ensuring conformity to prescribed norms and
standards and adopt accreditation as a mandatory quality assurance framework.
• Usher transformative reforms in the state higher education system by creating a facilitating
institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State
Universities and improving governance in institutions.
• Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic and examination systems.
• Ensure adequate availability of quality faculty in all higher educational institutions and ensure
capacity building at all levels of employment.
• Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to
research and innovations.
• Expand the institutional base by creating additional capacity in existing institutions and
establishing new institutions, in order to achieve enrolment targets.
• Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by setting up institutions in un‐served
& underserved areas.
• Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities of higher education to
SC/STs and socially and educationally backward classes; promote inclusion of women, minorities,
and differently abled persons.

Components
RUSA would create new universities through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges and conversion
of colleges in a cluster. It would create new model degree colleges, new professional colleges and provide
infrastructural support to universities and colleges Faculty recruitment support, faculty improvements
programmes and leadership development of educational administrators are also an important part of the
scheme. In order to enhance skill development the existing central scheme of Polytechnics has been
subsumed within RUSA. A separate component to synergise vocational education with higher education
has also been included in RUSA. Besides these, RUSA also supports reforming, restructuring and building
capacity of institutions in participating state.
Institutional Hierarchy

RUSA is implemented and monitored through an institutional structure comprising the National Mission
Authority, Project Approval Board and the National Project Directorate at the centre and the State Higher
Education Council and State Project Directorate at the state level.

Open Universities

A. Central Open University

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INDIRA GANDHI NATIONAL OPEN UNIVERSITY

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established in 1985 by an Act of Parliament with
the dual responsibilities of (i) enhancing access and equity to higher education through distance mode and
(ii) promoting, coordinating and determining standards in open learning and distance education systems.
Since then, the IGNOU has undergone rapid expansion and emerged as an international institution in the
field of Open and Distance Learning.

B. State Open Universities

1 Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University (BRAOU), Hyderabad, A.P. - (1982)

2 Vardhman Mahaveer Open University (VMOU), Kota, Rajasthan - (1987)

3 Nalanda Open University (NOU). Patna, Bihar - (1987)

4 Yashwantrao Chavan Maharashtra Open University (YCMOU), Nashik, Maharashtra - (1989)

5 Madhya Pradesh Bhoj Open University (MPBOU), Bhopal, M.P. - (1991)

6 Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Open University (BAOU), Ahmedabad, Gujarat - (1994)

7 Karnataka State Open University (KSOU), Mysore, Karnataka – (1996)

8 Netaji Subhas Open University (NSOU), Kolkata, W.B. - (1997)

9 U.P. Rajarshi Tandon Open University (UPRTOU), Allahabad, U.P. - (1998)

10 Tamil Nadu Open University (TNOU), Chennai, Tamil Nadu - (2002)

11 Pt. Sunderlal Sharma Open University (PSSOU), Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh - (2005)

12 Uttarakhand Open University, Haldwani, Distt. Nainitall, Uttarakhand

13 Krishna Kanta Handique State Open University, Guwahati, Assam

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State-wise List of fake Universities as in November 2019

Andhra Pradesh
1. Christ New Testament Deemed University, # 32-23-2003, 7th Lane, Kakumanuvarithota, Guntur,
Andhra Pradesh – 522 002 or # fit No. 301, Grace Villa Apts., 7/5, Srinagar, Guntur, Andhra
Pradesh – 522 00

Delhi

2. Commercial University Ltd., Daryaganj, Delhi.

3. United Nations University, Delhi.
4. Vocational University, Delhi.
5. ADR-Centric Juridical University, ADR House, 8J, Gopala Tower, 25 Rajendra Place, New Delhi
– 110 008.
6. Indian Institute of Science and Engineering, New Delhi.
7. Viswakarma Open University for Self-employment, India, Rozgar Sewasadan, 672, Sanjay
Enclave, Opp. GTK Depot, New Delhi – 110 033
8. Adhyatmik Vishwavidyalaya (Spiritual University), 351-352, Phase-1, Block-A, Vijay Vihar,
Rithala, Rohini, Delhi – 110 08

Karnataka
9. Badaganvi Sarkar World Open University Education Society, Gokak, Belgaum, Karnataka.

Kerala
10. St. John’s University, Kishanattam, Kerala.

Maharashtra
11. Raja Arabic University, Nagpur, Maharashtra.

West Bengal
12. Indian Institute of Alternative Medicine, Kolkatta.
13. Institute of Alternative Medicine and Research, 8-A, Diamond Harbor Road Builtech inn, 2nd
Floor, Thakurpukur, Kolkata – 700 063

Uttar Pradesh
14. Mahila Gram Vidyapith/Vishwavidyalaya, (Women’s University) Prayag, Allahabad, Uttar
Pradesh.
15. Gandhi Hindi Vidyapith, Prayag, Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.
16. National University of Electro Complex Homeopathy, Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh.
17. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose University (Open University), Achaltal, Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
18. Uttar Pradesh Vishwavidyalaya, Kosi Kalan, Mathura, Uttar Pradesh.
19. Maharana Pratap Shiksha Niketan Vishwavidyalaya, Pratapgarh, Uttar Pradesh.

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20. Indraprastha Shiksha Parishad, Institutional Area,Khoda,Makanpur,Noida Phase-II, Uttar Pradesh.

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21. Gurukul Vishwavidyala, Vridanvan, Uttar Pradesh.

Odisha
22. Nababharat Shiksha Parishad, Anupoorna Bhawan, Plot No. 242, Pani Tanki Road, Shaktinagar,
Rourkela-769014.
23. North Orissa University of Agriculture & Technology, University Road Baripada, Distt.
Mayurbhanj, Odisha – 757 003

Puducherry
24. Sree Bodhi academy of Higher Education, No. 186, Thilaspet, Vazhuthavoor Road, Puducherry –
605 009

* Bhartiya Shiksha Parishad, Lucknow, UP – the matter is subjudice before the District
Judge – Lucknow

Oriental, Convention and Non-Conventional Learning in India

The word “Oriental” is derived from the term “Orient”. According to the oxford dictionary, the meaning
of “Orient” is “the countries of the East, especially East Asia.” Merriam-Webster dictionary defined as
“regions or countries lying to the east of a specified or implied point, the eastern regions or countries of
the world.”

The Orient is a historical term for the East, traditionally comprising anything that belongs to the Eastern
world. The term oriental is often used to describe anything from the Orient (East Asia).

Before the East India Company embarked on its political career in India, there was no organised education
organised and supported by the state. Both Hindus and Muslims, had their own indigenous systems, each
deeply rooted with great tradition of learning and scholarship behind them. The study of ancient and
traditional education was called Oriental learning by European and Britishers.

Oriental learning

In ancient India, both formal and informal ways of education system existed. Indigenous education was
imparted at home, in temples, pathshalas, tols, chatuspadis and gurukuls. There were people in homes,
villages and temples who guided young children in imbibing pious ways of life. Temples were also the
centres of learning and took interest in the promotion of knowledge of our ancient system. Students went
to viharas and universities for higher knowledge. Teaching was largely oral, and students remembered and
meditated upon what was taught in the class.

With the disappearance of the Gurukula system and the ancient universities like those at Nālandā and
Takṣaśilā (Taxila, now in Pakistan) as also the gradual dissolution of the powerful kingdoms by conquests
from outside, it became necessary to evolve a method by which the ancient knowledge and wisdom of the
East, especially of India, could be revived and preserved.

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It is the Western scholars of the 19th and the 20th centuries who were mainly responsible for this revival,
though many an Indian scholar too has contributed considerably to it. Further, they started to preserve the
ancient knowledge and education system, information, culture, etc. by setting up institutes and libraries.

Oriental Research Institutes

A lot of the ancient wisdom has been buried in the millions of manuscripts lying uncared for, in our
temples, Maṭhas (monasteries) and private libraries of scholars or their descendants. The various Oriental
Research Institutes in our country have successfully collected quite a lot of them, are taking care of them
and are also bringing them out as printed books. Modern science and technology are being put to good
use in this noble work. But for the struggle of these institutes, our appalling ignorance of our glorious
ancient culture would have been more appalling.

There are around 16 institutes/libraries whose work is consisted chiefly in collecting and collating rare
manuscripts in the oriental languages (like Prākṛt and Sanskrit) dealing with religion, philosophy,
literature, grammar, arts and sciences, editing them and publishing them with or without translations and
explanatory notes.

1. Adyar Library
The Theosophical Society of Madras was started in A. D. 1882 at Adyar (a suburb of Madras) and the
Library in A. D. 1886 by Col. Olcott (A. D. 1832-1907). This Library has gradually grown into a
research centre in oriental studies.

The Library also has been publishing a journal Brahmavidyā since A. D. 1937. It gives all help and
assistance to those scholars who intend to do research and special study.

2. Asiatic Society:
One of the good results of the British conquest of India is the deep interest aroused in Indological studies
in the Western intellectuals and scholars. The person who gave an institutional framework to such
studies was Sir William Jones (A. D. 1746-94). He did it by starting `The Asiatic Society' in A. D.
1794.

The name of the Society underwent several changes during the last two centuries, such as: the Asiatick
Society ( A. D. 1784-1825); The Asiatic Society ( A. D. 1825-1832); The Asiatic Society of Bengal (
A. D. 1832-1935); The Royal Society of Bengal ( A. D. 1936-1951) and the Asiatic Society again since
July 1951.

3. Bhaṇḍārkar Oriental Research Institute (Pune)

This institute (often abbreviated as BORI) was started in A. D. 1917 at Pune to commemorate the life
and works of R. G. Bhaṇḍārkar (A. D. 1875-1950), a distinguished pioneer of scientific Orientology in
India. The Institute is also bringing out periodically, the Annals, containing research papers.

4. Gaṅgānāth Jhā Kendrīya Saṁskṛta Vidyāpīṭha (Allahabad)

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Established in A. D. 1934, it was formerly known as G. N. Jhā Research Institute. It was started to
perpetuate the memory of Gaṅgānāth Jhā (A. D. 1872-1941) who was an eminent Indologist, a great
scholar in Sanskrit and a Vice-chancellor of the Allahabad University for nine years. The Institute was
taken over by the Government of India in A. D. 1945, placed under the Rāṣṭrīya Saṁskṛta Saṁsthāna
of Delhi and renamed `Gaṅgānāth Jhā Kendrīya Saṁskṛta Vidyāpīṭha'.

5. Kuppusvāmi Śāstrī Research Institute (Madras/Chennai)

This Institute was founded in A. D. 1944 in memory of the great savant S. Kuppusvāmi Śāstrī ( A. D.
1880-1943) in A. D. 1944. It is bringing out a Journal of Oriental Research.

6. Madras Sanskrit College (Chennai)

The College was founded in A. D. 1905 by V. Krishnaswamy Iyer (b. A. D. 1863) and started working
from February 1906. The course was for a duration of five years and was modelled on the traditional
methods of teaching. The certificate awarded to successful students was for Viśārada degree, the
subjects being Vedas, Vedānta, Mīmāṁsā, Smṛtis and some allied subjects.

7. Mythic Society (Bangalore)

An institution devoted to the study and research of religion, philosophy, history, ethnology and culture,
the Mythic Society of Bangalore (Karnataka State) was founded in A. D. 1909, primarily at the initiative
of F. J. Richards, the then Collector of Civil and Military Station (Cantonment) of Bangalore.

8. Oriental Institute (Baroda)

This institute was first founded at the instance of Sayyāji Rao Gāyakvāḍ (Gaekwad), the third ( A. D.
1875-1939), by the then dewan in A. D. 1893 with a small collection of manuscripts and printed texts.
It formed a part of the Sanskrit section of the central library of Baroda. The now famous Gaekwad's
Oriental Series was started in A. D. 1915. The Kāvyamīmāṁsā of Rājaśekhara (circa A. D. 900) was
the first publication.

9. Oriental Manuscripts Library (Trivandrum)

Started in A. D. 1911 as a department of the Government of Travancore, it was amalgamated with the
Manuscripts Library of the Kerala University in A. D. 1940. It has a collection of over 50,000
manuscriptsin Sanskrit, Malayāḷam and other languages. It is publishing two journals, one in Sanskrit
(Journal of the Kerala University Oriental Manuscripts Library) and the other in Malayāḷam
(Bhāṣātraimāsikam).

10. Oriental Research Institute (Mysore)

Chamaraja Wodeyar (A. D. 1863-1894) the Mahārāja (king) of the erstwhile Mysore State, who was a
staunch admirer and follower of Hindu values of life, founded this Oriental Institute in A. D. 1891. It
was then known as `Oriental Library'.

Starting with the publication of the Ᾱpastambasūtra (with the commentary of Sudarśanācārya) in A. D.
1893, and the Ᾱdipurāṇa (in Kannaḍa) of the great poet Pampa ( A. D. 941) the institution has so far
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brought out a very large number of books both in Sanskrit and in Kannaḍa. By A. D. 1979, 127 Sanskrit
books had been published.

11. Oriental Research Institute (Tirupati)

The temple town of Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh is not only a place of pilgrimage but also a place of
oriental learning. The management of the Tirumala-Tirupati Devasthānams has been spending a part of
the surplus funds for the propagation of education and spread of Hindu religion and culture. As a part of
this, the Oriental Research Institute of Tirupati came into being in A. D. 1941. When the Sri
Venkateshwara University was started in A. D. 1954, Tirupati became its seat. The Institute was handed
over to it in A. D. 1956.

12. Saṁskṛta Academy (Madras/Chennai)

The Samskrita Academy of Madras (now Chennai) was started in A. D. 1927 in the Senate Hall of the
Old Senate building of the University of Madras by Paṇḍit Madan Mohan Māḷavīya ( A. D. 1861- 1946).
The wellknown savant Kuppusvāmi Śāstrī [Kuppuswami Sastry ( A. D. 1880-1943)] was chosen as the
first president.

13. Saṁskṛta Sāhitya Pariṣat (Calcutta/Kolkata)

This institution owes its origin to a handful of Sanskrit pundits with limited financial resources but
endowed with unlimited love and zeal for the rich heritage of the country. Founded in A. D. 1916 in a
tiny rented house, it is now housed in its own spacious three storeyed building. It has now become an
advanced centre of Sanskrit learning and research.

14. Government Sanskrit College (Calcutta/Kolkata)

This College was established in A. D. 1824 by the East India Company. The method of teaching Sanskrit
was traditional. The subjects taught too were the usual traditional ones like Nyāya and other systems of
philosophy, grammar, astrology and āyurveda (health-sciences). When Īśvaracandra Vidyāsāgara ( A.
D. 1820-1898) became its principal in 1851, he introduced the Western method of teaching in the
college.

15. Sarasvati Mahal Library (Tanjavur)

Known to contain one of the largest and the most important collection of Indian manuscripts in the
world, the Sarasvatī Mahal Library of Thanjavur (in Tamil Nadu) was probably established by the end
of the 16th Century A. D. Its full official name is ``Thanjavur Maharaja Serfoji's Sarasvati Mahal
Library''.

16. Viśveśvarānand Viśvabandhu Institute of Sanskrit and Indological Studies (Hoshiarpur)

Two saṁnyāsins, Svāmis Viśveśvarānanda and Nityānanda, launched a project at Simla (now in
Himachal Pradesh) in A. D. 1903 to prepare word-indices for the four principle Vedic Saṁhitās. After
the passing away of Svāmi Nityānanda and after changing the placeultimately to Lahore (now in
Pakistan) in A.D. 1923, Svāmi Viśveśvarānanda handed over the work and the project to Ᾱcārya
Viśvabandhu.
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The Institute was originally known as `The Vishveshvaranand Vedic Research Institute' (at Sadhu
Ashram). The Punjab University took it over in A. D. 1965 and renamed it as `TheVishveshvaranand
Vishvabandhu Institute of Sanskrit and Indological Studies' (VVBIS & IS).

For Further Study: Oriental learning Institutes

Conventional Learning (Education)

Conventional education, also known as back-to-basics, traditional education or customary education, c-

learning refers to long-established customs that society traditionally used in schools and colleges or
universities. It also refers to conventional education within a brick-and-mortar classroom facility.

Conventional education uses traditional teaching-learning methods in which instructors (teachers) and
students (learners) are involved by interacting in a face-to-face manner in the classroom. These instructors
initiate discussions in the classroom and focus exclusively on knowing content in textbooks and notes.
Students receive the information passively and reiterate the information memorized in the exams.

Characteristics of Convention education

- It is on campus education with fixed time

- Require regular attendance
- Prescribed curriculum
- Emphasis more on teaching, not on learning
- Teacher centred learning
- Student learn through listening and observation
- Student assessment through traditional way i.e. written exams.
Non-Conventional Education

The Education system in which teaching learning activities is offered other than the on-campus with fixed
time classrooms. For examples, evening learning, distance learning, vocational studies, skill-based
courses, online learning, etc.

Non-conventional education is inspired by the P.H. Coombs, and Ahmed who has worked on non-formal
education for poor.

Characteristics of Non-conventional education

- Learners oriented
- No fixed curriculum
- Cost effective

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- Linked to employment
- Continuous
- For improvement of Quality
Target groups of non-conventional education are unemployed youths, school dropped out, Underprivilege
group, Women and girls, Tribal and Minority population. This type of education is also for literacy
programmes.

Professional, Technical and Skilled Based Education

The Indian education system is based on (10+2+3) pattern under the Ministry of Human Resource
Development (MHRD). The MHRD was created on September 26, 1985, through the 174th amendment
to the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961.

The main objectives of the Ministry would be:

• Formulating the National Policy on Education and to ensure that it is implemented in letter and
spirit
• Planned development, including expanding access and improving quality of the educational
institutions throughout the country, including in the regions where people do not have easy access
to education.
• Paying special attention to disadvantaged groups like the poor, females and the minorities
• Provide financial help in the form of scholarships, loan subsidy, etc to deserving students from
deprived sections of the society.
• Encouraging international cooperation in the field of education, including working closely with
the UNESCO and foreign governments as well as Universities, to enhance the educational
opportunities in the country.

The MHRD works through two departments:

• Department of School Education & Literacy

• Department of Higher Education

Structure of Indian Education System

The Indian education system works for primary education to research specialised education. It can be
categorised as following:

A. School Education & Literacy

a. Primary Schooling
b. Secondary education
c. Senior Secondary Education

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B. Higher Education (Tertiary Education

a. Academic Degrees (Non-professional)
b. Professional Degrees
c. Technical Degrees
C. Vocational Education (Skilled Based)

According to New Revised Syllabus of UGC NET, we have to study only related to higher and skilled
based education.

Higher Education

Higher education is also called tertiary education system. Indian higher education system is the third
largest in the world, next to the United States and China, comprising academic, professional and technical
degrees.

Academic Degrees (Non-Professional Education)

Non-professional education emphasize on theory and are not primarily designed as preparation for
professional careers. These degree programs may lead to research, thereby conferring the title of ‘doctor’.
These courses prepare the student for a life of scholarship in an academic discipline, rather than specific
applications of knowledge to professional practices. Moreover, students earning academic qualification
do not often make use of the degree in their profession.

Examples of such degree courses are Bachelor of Arts (B.A.), Bachelor of Science (B.Sc), Master of Arts
(M.A.), Master of Science (M.Sc), Master of Philosophy (M.Phil), Doctor of Philosophy (Ph.D), etc.

Academic degrees, such as BA, B.Sc. and B.Com have been considered more ‘traditional’ and well-
established forms of higher education and are available in a variety of specializations, such as B.A
Economics, B.A English, B.A Hindi, B.Sc. Physics, B.Sc. Computer Science, B.Sc Applied Science, and
the list goes on. An academic degree typically provides a thorough education and knowledge on the
specific subject, after which the student can pursue a master’s degree or a professional course.

Traditionally, academic degree courses held more value, but the popularity of professional courses in
recent times have firmly established their ground in the job market.

Non-professional Education:

1. Keeps More Career Options Open

2. Helps You Specialise
3. Doesn’t Make You Job-Ready like professional degrees

Professional Education

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A professional degree helps students prepare for careers in specific fields, such as law, pharmacy,
medicine, and education. Professional education is a formalized approach to specialized training in a
professional school through which participants acquire content knowledge and learn to apply techniques.

Some common goals of professional education include:

• incorporating the knowledge and values basic to a professional discipline;

• understanding the central concepts, principles, and techniques applied in practice;
• attaining a level of competence necessary for responsible entry into professional practice; and
• accepting responsibility for the continued development of competence.

Examples of Professional Education (degrees)

• Surgery and Medicines (MBBS, MS, MD)

• Dentistry (BDS)
• Management Studies (MBA)
• Law (LLB, LLM)
• Education (B.Ed., M.Ed.)
• CA, ICWA, CS etc.

Technical Education (Technical Degree)

According to Britannica, “Technical education is the academic and technical preparation of students for
jobs involving applied science and modern technology. It emphasises the understanding and practical
application of basic principles of science and mathematics.

In Indian context, technical education covers programmes in engineering, technology, management,

architecture, town planning, pharmacy, applied arts & crafts, hotel management and catering technology.

The apex body of Technical Education is All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE). was set up
in November 1945 as a national-level apex advisory body to conduct a survey on the facilities available
for technical education and to promote development in the country in a coordinated and integrated
manner. Later, AICTE was established by AICTE Act, 1987.

Examples of Technical Education:

• Engineering and Technology (Diploma, B.Tech, M.Tech)

• Architecture (B.Arch, M.Arch)
• Pharmacy (B.Pharma, M.Pharma), etc.

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Skill Based Education (Vocational Education)

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Vocational education also called Career and Technical Education (CTE), prepares learners for jobs that
are based in manual or practical activities, traditionally non-academic and totally related to a specific
trade, occupation or vocation, hence the term, in which the learner participates. It is sometimes referred
to as technical education, as the learner directly develops expertise in a particular group of techniques or
technology.

Vocational Education is a skill-based education, where learners get skill by practical and academical
knowledge. The Skill based Education is fully job oriented for a specific field.

Examples of Skill Based Education (Vocational Education)

• ITIs
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
• SANKALP (Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion)
• Udaan
• Polytechnic Schemes
• Promote Vocational education in School and Higher Education

Professional Councils

Professional councils are responsible for recognition of courses, promotion of professional

institutions and providing grants to undergraduate programmes and various awards. The statutory
professional councils are:

A. All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE)

B. Medical Council of India (MCI)
C. Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR)
D. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
E. Dental Council of India (DCI)
F. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) Indian
G. Nursing Council (INC)
H. Bar Council of India (BCI)
I. Central Council of Homeopathy (CCH) Central
J. Council for Indian Medicine (CCIM)
K. Council of Architecture
L. Distance Education Council (DEC)
M. Rehabilitation Council
N. National Council for Rural Institutes (NCRI)
O. State Councils of Higher Education (SCHE)

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A. All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE), Faridabad

All India council for Technical Education has been established under the AICTE Act, 1987. The
council is authorized to take all steps that are considered appropriate for ensuring coordinated and
integrated development of technical education and for maintenance of standards. The Council may,
amongst other things:

i. Coordinate the development of technical education in the country at all levels;

ii. Evolve suitable performance appraisal system for technical institutions and universities
imparting technical education, incorporating norms and mechanisms for enforcing
accountability;

iii. Laydown norms and standards for courses, curricula, physical and instructional facilities, staff
pattern, staff qualifications, quality instruction, assessment and examinations;

iv. Grant approval for starting new technical institutions and for introduction of new course or
programmes in consultation with the agencies concerned.

A. Medical Council of India (MCI), New Delhi

The Medical Council of India (MCI) was set up by the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956, amended
in 1993. The council is empowered to prescribe minimum standards for medical education required
for granting recognized medical qualifications by universities or medical institutions in India.

B. Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR), New Delhi

ICAR has established various research centres in order to meet the agricultural research and education
needs of the country.It is actively pursuing human resource development in the field of agricultural
sciences by setting up numerous agricultural universities spanning the entire country. It provides
funding to nearly 30(Thirty) State Agricultural Universities, one Central University and several
Deemed Universities. These universities employ about 26,000 scientists for teaching, research and
extension education; of these over 6000 scientists are employed in the ICAR supported coordinated
projects.

C. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), New Delhi

The National Council for Teacher Education is a statutory body set up under the National Council for
Teacher Education Act, 1993 to facilitate planned and coordinated development of the teacher
education system in the country, and for regulation and proper maintenance of norms and standards
in the teacher education system. The mandate given to the NCTE is very broad and covers the whole
gamut of teacher education programs including research and training of persons to equip them to
teach at pre•primary, primary, secondary and senior secondary stages in schools, and non•formal

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education, part•time education, adult education and distance (correspondence) education courses.

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D. Dental Council of India (DCI), New Delhi

Dental Council of India, constituted under the Denstists Act, 1948, is a Statutory Body
incorporated under an Act of Parliament to regulate the dental education and the profession of
Dentistry throughout India. The Council is responsible for according recognition to dental degree
awarded by various universities and also for maintaining uniform standards of dental education in
India. The Dental Council of India (DCI) lays down minimum requirements in respect of staff and
infrastructure and prescribes the syllabus and the scheme of examinations.

E. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI), New Delhi

The Pharmacy Council of India (PCI), also known as Central council, was constituted under section
3 of the Pharmacy Act, 1948. The PCI controls pharmacy education and profession in India up to
graduate level. The Council prescribes the minimum standard of education for qualification as
pharmacist.

F. Indian Nursing Council (INC), New Delhi

The Indian Nursing Council is a statutory body constituted under the Indian Nursing Council Act,
1947. The Council is responsible for regulation and maintenance of a uniform standard of training
for Nurses, Midwives, Auxilliary Nurse•Midwives and Health Visitors.

G. Bar Council of India (BCI), New Delhi

The Bar Council of India is empowered to make rules to discharge its functions under the Advocates
Act 1961. A significant rule•making power is with reference to laying down guidelines for the
standards of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates. The Bar Council of
India Rules may prescribe for a class or category of the person entitled to be enrolled as an advocate.
The Bar Council of India can also specify the conditions subject to which an advocate must have the
right to practice and the circumstances under which a person must be deemed to practice as an
advocate in a court.

H. Central Council of Homeopathy (CCH), New Delhi

The Central Council of Homoeopathy was established under the Homoeopathy Central Council
Act, 1973. The Council prescribes and recognizes all homeopathic medicine qualifications. Any
university or medical institution that desires to grant a medical qualification in homeopathy is
required to apply to the Council. The Council is responsible for the constitution and maintenance
of a Central Register of Homoeopathy and for matters connected therewith. All universities and
boards of medical institutions in India are required to furnish all information regarding courses of
study and examination. The Council is empowered to appoint inspectors at examinations and
visitors to examine facilities.

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I. Central Council for Indian Medicine (CCIM), New Delhi

The Central Council of Indian Medicine is the statutory body constituted under the Indian Medicine
Central Council Act, 1970. This Council prescribes minimum standards of education in Indian
Systems of Medicine viz. Ayurved, Siddha, Unani Tibb. The Council is responsible to maintain a
Central Register on Indian Medicine and prescribes Standards of Professional Conduct, Etiquette and
Code of Ethics to be observed by the practitioners. The Council is empowered to appoint medical
inspectors to observe the conduct of examinations, and visitors to inspect facilities in colleges,
hospitals and other institutions imparting instruction in Indian medicine.

J. Council of Architecture, New Delhi

The Council of Architecture (COA) was constituted under the provisions of the Architects Act,
1972, enacted by the Parliament of India. The Act provides for registration of Architects, standards
of education, recognized qualifications and standards of practice to be complied with by the
practicing architects. The Council of Architecture is responsible to regulate the education and
practice of profession throughout India besides maintaining the register of architects. Any person
desirous of carrying on the profession of "Architect" must register himself with Council of
Architecture.

K. Distance Education Council, New Delhi

Distance Education Council was constituted under statute 28 arising from Section 25 of the Indira
Gandhi National Open University Act, 1985. The Distance Education Council (DEC) is
responsible for the promotion and coordination of the open university and distance education
system and for determination of its standards. The Council provides academic guidelines to
promote excellence, encourage use of innovative technologies and approaches, enable
convergence of all systems and sharing of resources through collaborative networking for access
to sustainable education, skill upgradation and training to all.

L. Rehabilitation Council of India, New Delhi

The Rehabilitation Council of India was set up as a registered society in 1986. However, it was
soon found that a Society could not ensure proper standardization and acceptance of the standards
by other Organizations. The Parliament enacted Rehabilitation Council of India Act in 1992. The
Rehabilitation Council of India become Statutory Body on 22nd June 1993. The RCI Act was
amended by the Parliament in 2000 to work it more broad based. The Act casts onerous
responsibility on the Council. It also prescribes that any one delivering services to people with
disability, who does not possess qualifications recognised by RCI, could be prosecuted. Thus the
Council has the twin responsibility of standardizing and regulating the training of personnel and
professional in the field of Rehabilitation and Special Education.

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M. National Council for Rural Institutes, Hyderabad

National Council of Rural Institutes is an autonomous society fully funded by the Ministry of
HRD, Govt. of India. Registered on 19th October, 1995 with its Headquarter at Hyderabad, It was
established with a main objective of promoting Rural Higher Education for advancing rural
livelihoods with the instrument of education on the lines of Mahatma Gandhiji's revolutionary
concept of Nai Talim, a functional education based on the values proposed by Gandhiji. Othe r
objectives of the council include teachers training, extension and research by networking with
policy making bodies such as UGC, AICTE and research organizations like CSIR, AICTE etc., in
addition to encouraging other educational institutions and voluntary agencies to develop in
accordance with Gandhian Philosophy of education.

N. State Councils of Higher Education

Following the National Policy on Education, respective state governments have established State
Councils of Higher Education (SCHE). These councils prepare coordinated programmes of
development of higher education in each state. Thus they seek to consolidate the efforts and
investments of institutions of higher education with the state.

a. Andhra Pardesh State Council for Higher

b. Education Tamil Nadu State Council for Higher
Education
c. UP State Council for Higher Education

Value Education and Environmental Education

What are Values?

Values are principles, fundamental convictions, ideals, and standards of life which act as general guide to
behaviour or as a reference point in decision making. Values are beliefs about what is right and what is
wrong and what is important in life.

• It is a set of principles which guide the standard of behaviour. Values are desirable and held in
esteem. They give strength to a person’s character by occupying a central place in his life. It
reflects one’s attitudes, choices, decisions, judgments, relationships, dreams and vision.
• Values are virtues, ideals and qualities on which actions and beliefs are based. Values are guiding
principles that shape our world outlook, attitudes and conduct. The moral values present a true
perspective of the development of any society or nation. They tell us to what extent a society or
nation has developed itself.

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Value Education

Value education is a process of teaching and learning about the ideals that a society considers them to be
important. Value education can take place in different forms, but the main aim of providing it to students
in their educational institutions is to make them understand the importance of good values; use and reflect
them in their behaviour and attitudes; and finally contribute to the society through their good responsibility
and ethics.

In simpler terms, Value education is defined as the process by which people give moral values to others.
It can be seen as an activity taken place in an institution or organisation in which people are assisted or
helped by others, who are elder or have more experience or have an authority over the people. This activity
of value education will be used to make an individual better and it is important to assess the result of it
in order to see the long-term well-being of an individual and others.

In the words of John Dewey (1966), “Value education means primarily to prize to esteem to
appraise, holding it dear and also, the act of passing judgment upon the nature and amount of
its value as compared with something else”.

Objectives of Value Education:

• To improve the integral growth of human begins.

• To create attitudes and improvement towards sustainable lifestyle.
• To increase awareness about our national history our cultural heritage, constitutional
• rights, national integration, community development and environment.
• To create and develop awareness about the values and their significance and role.
• To know about various living and non-living organisms and their interaction with environment
Need for Value Education

Mahatma Gandhi found that there is a great deal of moral degradation in the society.
The main causes of moral degeneration are:
▪ Lack of respect for the sanctity of human life.
▪ Breakdown of parental control of children in families
▪ Lack of respect for authority, seen through the brazen breaking of the law and total disregard
for rules and regulations
▪ Crime and corruption
▪ Abuse of alcohol and drugs
▪ Abuse of women and children, and other vulnerable members of society.
▪ Lack of respect for other people and property.

Other reasons for the need of Value Education

▪ to teach the values of the culture and society
▪ to enable them to distinguish between right and wrong
▪ to form the conscience of youngsters
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▪ to continue the traditions of the society

▪ to make meaningful the practices and beliefs
▪ to connect to every human being in the right way

Value Education in India

In the history of Value Education, we see rather a slow development of the system in India. In the 1980s,
the government was more responsive to the needs of Value Education in our schools.

Ancient India: Value Education in India from the ancient times has held a prime place of
importance. From the gurukul stage the child not only learnt skills of reading and archery but
more the philosophy of life in relation with its impermanence. Hence education in India was
born of this vision to achieve one’s experience in the absolute as a spark of the divine and in
this process practice of one’s duty accompanies the acquisition of knowledge.

In the modern school system value education, was termed moral education or moral science.
British were absolutely neutral in their policy towards religion and value education.

CABE – (1943-46) emphasized spiritual and moral education. It was the responsibility of
home and community.

Committee on Emotional Integration (1961) pointed out that the science students should have
at least some background of humanities; it opined that there should be a compulsory paper on
India’s cultural heritage.

Education Commission (1964-66) recommended moral, social and spiritual values at all
levels.

UNESCO (1972) felt that the education system should promote values of world peace and
international understanding and unity of mankind.

National Policy on Education (NPE 1986) proposed readjustments in curriculum to make

education a forceful tool to inculcate social and moral values; to eliminate obscurantism,
fanaticism, superstition, illiteracy and fatalism. The National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986 envisages
a national system of education based
on a National Curricular Framework containing a common core along with other components that are
flexible.
The common core includes the history of India’s freedom movement, the constitutional obligations and
other content essential to nurture national identity. These elements will cut across subject areas and will
be designed to promote values such as India’s common cultural heritage, etiquette, egalitarianism,
democracy and secularism, equality of the sexes, protection of the environment, removal of social barriers,
observance of the small family norm and inculcation of the scientific temper.

Environmental Education
Environmental education has been defined and redefined over the last twenty-five years. Definitional
issues are inherent in a field this broad and encompassing. It is generally agreed that environmental
education is a process that creates awareness and understanding of the relationship between humans and

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their many environments - natural, 17 man-made, cultural and technology. Environmental education is
concerned with knowledge, values, attitudes, application and has as its aim responsible environmental
behaviour (NEEAC, 1996).

Environmental education is a process that allows individuals to explore environmental issues, engage in
problem solving, and take action to improve the environment. As a result, individuals develop a deeper
understanding of environmental issues and have the skills to make informed and responsible decisions.

The components of environmental education are:

• Awareness and sensitivity to the environment and environmental challenges

• Knowledge and understanding of the environment and environmental challenges
• Attitudes of concern for the environment and motivation to improve or maintain environmental
quality
• Skills to identify and help resolve environmental challenges
• Participation in activities that lead to the resolution of environmental challenges

Environmental education does not advocate a particular viewpoint or course of action. Rather,
environmental education teaches individuals how to weigh various sides of an issue through critical
thinking and it enhances their own problem-solving and decision-making skills.

Need for Environmental Education

The need to protect the environment hence the rationales for environmental education arise as a
result of the following:
1. Environment is the basis of all life and therefore deserves proper care and management.
2. If the environment is threatened on a continuous basis, numerous problems which would
constitute a danger to human existence could arise.
3. The environment is part of our cultural heritage which should be handed down to prosperity.
4. Some resources of the environment are not easily replaceable and should be managed on a
sustainable basis, to prevent the extinction of certain components of the environment such as
plants and animals.
5. There is need to enhance the sanity and aesthetic quality of our environment in order to
promote healthy living.
6. The environment is part of nature and needs to be preserved for its own sake.

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GOVERNANCE, POLITY AND ADMINISTRATION

Basics of Indian Constitution

The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India. It lays down the framework defining fundamental
political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions,
and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world,
containing 448 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules and 104 amendments.
But Indian Constitution has 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules at the time of commencement.
Besides the English version, there is an official Hindi translation.

Various Subject Committees like the Committee on Fundamental Rights and Union Constitution
Committee had submitted their respective proposals and after a general discussion on all the proposals, a
Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. BR Ambedkar was appointed. The Drafting Committee had the full
authority to add, modify or delete any of the proposals submitted by the committees. The finalized draft
of the Indian Constitution got the signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly, Dr. Rajender
Prasad on Nov 26, 1949, which is referred to as the Date of Passing. Since the Constituent Assembly,
which finalized the Constitution was duly elected by means of indirect election by the people of India,
The Constitution of India derives its authority from the people of India. The Constitution was thus enacted
by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949 and came into effect on 26 January 1950. The date
26 January was chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of independence of 1930. With its
adoption, the Union of India officially became the modern and contemporary Republic of India and it
replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country's fundamental governing document.
The Indian Constitution has borrowed heavily from other constitutions of the world and can be called a
“beautiful patchwork”.
Some of the prominent features which have been borrowed are as under.

Feature Source / Inspiration

1. Fundamental Rights USA

2. The Parliamentary System of Government UK

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3. Directive Principles of State Policy Ireland (Eire)

4. Emergency Provisions Germany (Third Reich)

5. Amendment Procedure South Africa

6. Preamble to The Constitution of India France

7. Federal Model of Governance Canada

Salient Features of Constitution:

1. It is the longest written constitution in the world.
2. It proclaims India a Sovereign Democratic Republic.
3. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to all citizens of India.
4. Directive Principles of State Policy are incorporated.
5. It established the parliamentary system of government, i.e., the President of the Union is the
constitutional head, the Council of Ministers or the Union Cabinet is the real executive and is responsible
to the Lok Sabha.
6. It is federal in form (in normal times) but unitary in spirit (in emergencies).
7. It is neither too rigid (as some provisions can be amended by a simple majority) nor flexible (as some
provisions require special majority for amendment).
8. It declares India a secular state.
9. It guarantees single citizenship to all citizens.
10. It introduced adult franchise, i.e., every adult above 18 years has the right to vote and the system of
joint electorates.
11. It established an independent judiciary; the Supreme Court acts as a guardian of the Constitution in
place of the Privy Council.

Structure: The Constitution, in its current form, consists of a preamble, 25 parts containing 448 articles,
12 schedules, 2 appendices and 104 amendments.
The Preamble: The draft of the Preamble was prepared by Jawaharlal Nehru and is based on the American
model. The 42nd Amendment added the words ``Secular and Socialist'' and now the preamble reads as
follows.
“We the People of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
Justice; social, economic and political;
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Liberty; of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;

Equality; of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all;
Fraternity; assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation;
In our Constituent Assembly, November 26, 1949, do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
constitution”.
The Preamble is, technically, not a part of the Constitution (and this has been confirmed by the SC also),
but it contains the basic philosophy of the whole Constitution and the ideals of the constitution-makers. It
can be used by the Courts to help them in interpretation of the Constitution in certain matters where the
Constitution itself is silent.
Parts: The individual Articles of the Constitution are grouped together into the following Parts:

Preamble
Part I – Union and its Territory
Part II– Citizenship.
Part III – Fundamental Rights.
Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy
Part IVA – Fundamental Duties.
Part V – The Union.
Part VI – The States.
Part VII – States in the B part of the First schedule (Repealed).
Part VIII– The Union Territories
Part IX – The Panchayats.
Part IXA – The Municipalities.
Part IXB – The Cooperative Societies
Part X – The scheduled and Tribal Areas
Part XI – Relations between the Union and the States.
Part XII – Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
Part XIII – Trade and Commerce within the territory of India
Part XIV – Services Under the Union, the States.
Part XIVA – Tribunals.
Part XV – Elections
Part XVI – Special Provisions Relating to certain Classes.
Part XVII – Languages
Part XVIII – Emergency Provisions
Part XIX – Miscellaneous

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Part XX – Amendment of the Constitution

Part XXI – Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions
Part XXII – Short title, date of commencement, Authoritative text in Hindi and Repeals

Part Article Articles of the Constitution Deals with

Territory of India, admission, establishment or formation of new
Part I Articles 1-4
states
Part II Articles 5-11 Citizenship
Part III Articles 12-35 Fundamental Rights
Part IV Articles 36-51 Directive Principles of State Policy
Duties of a citizen of India. It was added by the 42nd
Part IV A Article 51-A
Amendment in 1976
Part V Articles 52-151 Government at the Union level
Part VI Articles 152-237 Government at the State level
Deals with states in Part B of the First Schedule. It was repealed
Part VII Article 238
by 7th Amendment in 1956
Part VIII Articles 239-241 Administration of Union Territories
Territories in Part D of the First Schedule and other territories.
Part IX Article 242-243
It was repealed by 7th Amendment in 1956
Articles 244-244
Part X Scheduled and tribal areas
A
Part XI Articles 245-263 Relations between the Union and States
Part XII Articles 264-300 Finance, property, contracts and suits
Part XIII Articles 301-307 Trade, commerce and travel within the territory of India
Part XIV Articles 308-323 Services under the Union and States
Part Articles 323A- Added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 and deals with
XIV-A 323B administrative tribunals to hear disputes and other Complaints
Part XV Articles 324-329 Election and Election Commission
Part XVI Articles 330-342 Special provision to certain classes ST/SC and Anglo Indians
Part
Articles 343-351 Official languages
XVII
Part
Articles 352-360 Emergency provisions
XVIII
Miscellaneous provision regarding exemption of the President
Part XIX Articles 361-367
and governors from criminal proceedings
Part XX Article 368 Amendment of Constitution
Part XXI Articles 369-392 Temporary, transitional and special provisions
Part
Articles 393-395 Short title, commencement and repeal of the Constitution
XXII

Schedules: Schedules are lists in the Constitution that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and
policy of the Government.

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First Schedule (Articles 1 and 4)- This lists the states and territories of India, lists any changes to their
borders and the laws used to make that change.
Second Schedule (Articles 59, 65, 75, 97, 125, 148, 158, 164, 186 and 221)- – This lists the salaries of
officials holding public office, judges, and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Third Schedule (Articles 75, 99, 124, 148, 164, 188 and 219)—Forms of Oaths – This lists the oaths of
offices for elected officials and judges.
Fourth Schedule (Articles 4 and 80) – This detail the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the upper
house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory.
Fifth Schedule (Article 244) – This provides for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and
Scheduled Tribes (areas and tribes needing special protection due to disadvantageous conditions).
Sixth Schedule (Articles 244 and 275) — Provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Seventh Schedule (Article 246)—the union (central government), state, and concurrent lists of
responsibilities.
Eighth Schedule (Articles 344 and 351)—the official languages.
Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) – Originally Articles mentioned here were immune from judicial review
on the ground that they violated fundamental rights. but in a landmark judgment in 2007, the Supreme
Court of India held in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu and others that laws included in the 9th schedule
can be subject to judicial review if they violated the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14, 15,
19, 21 or the basic structure of the Constitution.
Tenth Schedule (Articles 102 and 191)—"Anti-defection" provisions for Members of Parliament and
Members of the State Legislatures.
Eleventh Schedule (Article 243-G)—Panchayat Raj (rural local government)
Twelfth Schedule (Article 243-W)—Municipalities (urban local government).

The Federal System & Territory of The Union

1. The Federal System:

Article 1 of the Indian Constitution describes India as a “Union of States”. The term “Union” implies that:
I. The Indian federation is not the result of a voluntary agreement by the states themselves. As is well
known, after India’s independence, more than 550 states were integrated into the Union of India by the
then Home Minister, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel, leading to his being branded as the “Iron Man of India”.
So, their inclusion in India is purely involuntary.
II. The components of the Indian Union have no freedom to secede from it. (unlike the erstwhile USSR
or the present-day USA where such freedom was/is vested in the states).

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The Indian federal system is unique in the sense that in spite of its being a federal set-up, it still does not
have many features characteristic of a typical federal set-up (like the USA). In general, the Indian set-up
has been mostly described as quasi-federal or semi-federal due to the fact that the balance of power tilts
heavily in favour of the Centre i.e. the states enjoy comparatively lesser powers in most spheres as
compared with the Centre.

2. Territory of the Union

The territory of India comprises the entire geographical territory over which the sovereignty of India, for
the time being, prevails. On the other hand, the Union of India includes only those component units, i.e.,
the states, which share power with the Centre. The UTs are centrally administered areas governed by the
President acting through an Administrator appointed by him. As on date, the territory of India consists of
28 states, 7 UTs and 1 National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT- Delhi is neither a full state nor a
UT). India is a federal constitutional republic governed under a parliamentary system consisting of 28
states and 7 union territories. All states, as well as the union territories of Puducherry and the National
Capital Territory of Delhi, have elected legislatures and governments, both patterned on the Westminster
model. A newly created UT, Jammu & Kashmir will also have legislatures and governments. The
remaining five union territories are directly ruled by the centre through appointed administrators. In 1956,
under the States Reorganisation Act, states were reorganised on a linguistic basis.

Making use of this provision, several landmark changes have been brought about in the political
composition of the Indian territory, some of which are found in the table below:

ACT/LEGISLATION CHANGE
Andhra, Kerala formed (Andhra-first state on linguistic
1 States Reorganization Act, 1956
basis)
2 Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960 Gujarat, Maharashtra born as new states
The Panjab Reorganization Act,
3 Panjab, Haryana and Chandigarh created
1966
4 Mysore State Act, 1973 The name Mysore changed to Karnataka
5 State of Mizoram Act, 1986 Mizoram, earlier a UT, made a State
State of Arunachal Pradesh Act,
6 Arunachal Pradesh elevated to statehood
1986
Goa, Daman and Diu Reorganization
7 Goa made a state
Act, 1987

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Fundamental Rights

Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are guaranteed
to all citizens. They are applicable without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender, etc.
Significantly, fundamental rights are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain conditions.
These rights are called fundamental rights because of two reasons:
1. They are enshrined in the Constitution which guarantees them.
2. They are justiciable (enforceable by courts). In case of a violation, a person can approach a court of
law.

The Constitution provided for seven Fundamental Rights, but one right was removed later.
• Right to equality (Article 14-18)
• Right to freedom (Article 19-22)
• Right against exploitation (Article 23-24)
• Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25-28)
• Cultural & educational rights (Articles 29-30)
• Right to Property (Article 31) (It was removed later)
• Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32).

List of Fundamental Rights

There are six fundamental rights mentioned in the Indian Constitution. They are listed below:
1. Right to equality (Articles 14-18)
Article 14: Equality before law and equal protection of law
Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Article 17: End of untouchability Article 18 :- Abolition
2. Right to freedom (Articles 19-22)
Article 19: It guarantees the citizens of India the following six fundamentals freedoms:
• Freedom of Speech and Expression
• Freedom of Assembly
• Freedom of form Associations
• Freedom of Movement
• Freedom of Residence and Settlement
• Freedom of Profession, Occupation, Trade and Business

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Article 20- Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Article 21- Protection of life and personal liberty
Article 21A- Right to education
Article 22- Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
3. Right against exploitation (Articles 23-24)
Article 23: Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
Article 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.
4. Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25-28)
Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs
Article 27: Prohibits taxes on religious grounds
Article 28: Freedom as to attendance at religious ceremonies in certain educational institutions

5. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29-30)

Article 29: Protection of interests of minorities
Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
Article 31: Omitted by the 44th Amendment Act

6. Right to constitutional remedies (Articles 32-35)

Article 32: Right to move to Supreme Court (and high courts also) for getting his fundamental rights
protected

Article 33: Power of Parliament to modify the rights.

Article 34: Restriction on rights while martial law is in force in any area.
Article 35: Legislation to give effect to the provisions.

What is a Writ?
Writs are written order issued by the Supreme Court of India to provide constitutional remedies in order
to protect the fundamental rights of citizens from a violation.
Type of Writs
The Constitution empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to issue orders or writs.
The types of writs are:
• Habeas Corpus
• Certiorari

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• Prohibition

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• Mandamus
• Quo Warranto

Fundamental Duties
The fundamental duties which were added by the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution in
1976, in addition to creating and promoting culture, also strengthen the hands of the
legislature in enforcing these duties vis-a-vis the fundamental rights.

The list of 11 Fundamental Duties under article 51-A to be obeyed by every Indian citizen is
given below:

1. Abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag
and the National Anthem
2. Cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom
3. Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
4. Defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
5. Promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of
India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce
practices derogatory to the dignity of women
6. Value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
7. Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and
wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
8. Develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
9. Safeguard public property and to abjure violence
10. Strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that
the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement
11. Provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and
fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment

The President: At the head of the Union Executive stands the President of India, who is elected by indirect
election i.e. by an electoral college, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by a
single transferable vote.
This electoral college comprises -
A. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
B. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies

Eligibility Conditions:
In order to contest for Indian Presidency, a person must

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• be a citizen of India
• have completed 35 years of age
• be eligible election to the Loksabha
• not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or any State Government or under
any local or other authority subject to the control of Central/State Governments.
The office tenure of the President is 5 years from the date of assuming office, but he will be eligible
for re-election. There is no bar on the number of times for which a person can become the President of
India. However, his office may terminate before 5 years in case of -

1. his resignation in writing which is addressed to the Vice-President of India

2. his removal by impeachment.

Emoluments and Allowances: The President gets a monthly salary of Rs. 5,00,000/- only apart from an
official residence for use (free of cost) with other allowances. He is also eligible for an annual pension, if
he is not re-elected as President.

Powers, Privileges, Duties: The Constitution says that the all the executive powers of the Union are
vested in the President, making him the Head of the Indian State. Executive functions are those, which are
left after taking out legislative and judicial functions.

Different Powers:
A. Administrative Powers: The Indian President remains the formal Head of the Union Administration
and as such, all executive functions of the Union are expressed to be taken in his name. Further, all officers
of the Union shall be subordinate to him and “He will have a right to be informed of the affairs of the
Union”. (Art 78)
But simply, it means that he can ask for any file/document or information relating to the affairs of the
Union.
The administrative power includes the power to appoint and remove certain high dignitaries of the State.
The President enjoys the power to appoint
1. The Prime Minister
2. Other Central Ministers on PM’s advice
3. The Attorney-General of India
4. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
5. Supreme Court Judges including the CJI

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6. High Court Judges including the Chief Justice

7. The Governor of a State
8. The Finance Commission
9. The Union Public Service Commission and Joint Commission for a group of States
10. A special officer for SC/STs
11. A Commission on Scheduled Areas
12. A Commission on Official Languages
13. A special officer for Linguistic Minorities
14. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners
15. A Commission for Backward Classes

He is competent to remove
1. the Union Ministers (on the advice of the PM)
2. the Attorney-General of India
3. the Chairman or a member of the Union Public Service Commission on the report of the Supreme Court.
4. a Supreme Court/High Court Judge/Election Commissioner, on an address of Parliament.

B. Military Powers: The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India and as such,
has the right to declare war or peace with any country. However, such powers are subject to parliamentary
control.

C. Diplomatic Powers: The task of negotiating international treaties and agreements belongs to the
President, who acts according to ministerial advice in such matters. This again is subject to ratification by
the Parliament.

D. Legislative Powers: The President is component part of the Union Parliament (though not a member
of either House) and enjoys the following legislative powers:

1. Summoning, Prorogation, Dissolution: The President has the power to summon (call) or prorogue (end
the session) the Houses of Parliament and to dissolve the Loksabha.
2. He also enjoys the right to call a Joint Sitting of both the Houses to resolve a deadlock over any bill
(Art 108)
3. He addresses the first session after each general election and at the first session of each year.

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4. He can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from persons with special achievements/experience
in literature, science, art and social service. Similarly, he has the right to nominate 2 Anglo-Indians to the
Loksabha, if he feels their representation is not sufficient.

It is obligatory to obtain Presidential sanction beforehand in case of certain bills like -

1. a bill for forming a new state/change of state boundaries
2. a money bill
3. a bill affecting taxation in which states are also interested

A Bill becomes an Act only after getting Presidential assent. The President is competent to take any of the
following steps if a Bill is presented to him for his assent:
A. He may give assent to the Bill enabling it to become a law
B. He may withhold his assent
C. He may return the Bill for reconsideration (except Money Bills) to the Parliament. If the Bill is re-
presented to him in this case after reconsideration, it is obligatory for him to give his assent to it.

The above is true of ordinary bills (bills except Money and Amendment Bills).

The President of India cannot refuse to sign a bill. At the most, he can withhold his assent from the bill,
which is the equivalent of not approving a Bill. Also, there is no time-limit prescribed for him to give his
assent to a Bill. Theoretically speaking, he may keep the Bill in his pocket for an indefinite time.
An example in this regard is Mr. Zail Singh’s, who kept the Postal Amendment Bill with him, and it lapsed
without his approval once he retired from office. This type of veto power is known as “Pocket Veto”. In
case of sending back the Bill for re-consideration, if the Bill again comes back to him, the only effect of
sending back the bill is suspending the process of assent for some days. This is referred to as “Suspensive
Veto”.

Ordinance-Making Power: The President enjoys the power to issue an ordinance at a time, when the
Parliament is not in session. An ordinance, for all practical purposes, has the effect of a normal law passed
by the Parliament. This power is exercised by him on Cabinet advice. The ordinance issued by the
President must be passed by the Parliament within 6 weeks of reassembly otherwise it will cease to be in
operation. (Art 123)

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The Pardoning Powers: He can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or commutation in
punishment in cases where death sentence is awarded by the Courts (even by a Court-Martial). He is the
only authority for pardoning a death sentence.
Miscellaneous Powers:
1. Power to draw up and notify the lists of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for each state separately
and UTs.
2. To refer any matter to the Supreme Court for its advice (Art. 143)

Emergency Powers
Three types of emergency have been prescribed under the Constitution to deal with exigencies.

The President can -

A. declare a “Proclamation of Emergency” due to threat to the security of India or any part of it. It can be
imposed even in the anticipation of such a threat. The proclamation of emergency must be passed by both
Houses with special majority within one month of its issuance. It can last for six months by passing each
such resolution by the requisite majority.
Because of war, external attack or armed rebellion. (Art.352). An example is the infamous emergency
imposed in 1975 by Mrs. Indira Gandhi. Please note that whenever the word “Emergency” alone is used,
it refers to the National Emergency.
During such an Emergency, the Union can direct the States to perform their Executive functions in the
manner specified by it, thus bringing the States under the complete control of the Union (without
suspending it). During such times, the Parliament will be authorized to make laws in respect of the State
List also (which it normally does not do). Whenever a proclamation of emergency is issued, the rights
granted by Art. 19 are immediately suspended. Any other FR can be suspended depending on a special
presidential order except the Right To Life. But since the emergency order has to be ultimately approved
by the Parliament and it is within its right to disapprove it, the final authority to suspend any FR in India
remains the Indian Parliament.

B. proclaim a state emergency (Art 356) due to breakdown of governmental machinery in any state if he
is satisfied that the government there cannot be carried out according to Constitutional provisions. Such
breakdown may occur due to a political deadlock (as in UP where no government could be formed even
after election owing to a hung assembly) or failure of the state government to comply with directions of
the Union.
In such cases, the President suspends the assembly of that state and rules the state through the Governor,

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who is his nominee. That is why this is popularly known as the “President’s Rule”. It has been applied

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more than 106 times till date. In such cases, the President may assume to himself any or all of the powers
of the State Legislature. Normally, it is imposed for two months initially, and is to be approved by the
Parliament. This duration can be extended, however, by six months each upto maximum of three years by
passing resolutions in the Parliament.

C. declare a Financial Emergency under Art. 360 if he feels that the creditworthiness of India or any part
of it is in danger. The objective of such an emergency is to maintain financial stability of India by
controlling the expenditures and by reducing the salaries of all government servants. Such an emergency
has never been imposed so far.

The Union Council of Ministers:

While the Prime Minister is selected by the President, all other ministers are appointed by him on the
advice of the Prime Minister. While selecting a Prime Minister, the President is restricted to the leader of
the majority party at the Centre or the person who is in a position to form a government and prove is
majority later on. The allocation of portfolios to the Ministers is also done by the President as per the
Prime Ministerial advice.

The PM is at the head of the Council of Ministers and the Council cannot continue to exist in the event of
resignation or death of the Prime Minister.

Eligibility to be the Prime Minister of India:

The person should be an elected member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
Powers and functions of Prime Minister
• recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the President.
• can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the President at any time.

The PM is the chairman of the Niti Ayog, National Development Council, National Integration Council,
Inter-State Council and National Water Resources Council.

The term Council of Minister refers to all the Ministers, whether Cabinet, State or DeputyMinisters.

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The Union Legislature: Comprises the President, the Loksabha and the Rajyasabha.

1. The Lok Sabha: The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is
made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the
Union Territories and not more than 2 members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the
Hon'ble President, if, in his/her opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House.

Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by an electoral college of all adult citizens (of not less 18 years
and who is not disqualified for non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime or corrupt or illegal
practices-Universal Adult Franchise –Art. 326). The normal duration of a Lok Sabha is 5 years, unless
dissolved earlier by the President. The duration can be increased by a maximum of 1 year at a time
only during an Emergency.

2. The Speaker: The Speaker is the person who presides over the Lok Sabha sittings. Soon after its
formation, the new Lok Sabha chooses its Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
The Speaker may cease to be so
1. if he loses the Lok Sabha membership for some reason
2. if he submits his resignation in writing to the Deputy Speaker and vice-versa.
3. If he is removed from the post by a Lok Sabha resolution supported by a majority all the members of
the House.

Normally, the Speaker exercises the casting vote in case of a tie over a bill in the House.
Besides, the LS Speaker presides over a Joint Sitting of both the Houses. The Speaker also ratifies a bill
as Money Bill and his decision in this matter is final. During a vacancy in the office of the LS Speaker,
the Deputy Speaker performs his duties.
After the first General Elections in 1951, GV Mavlankar became the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

3. The Rajya Sabha: It is a permanent House (cannot be dissolved) with a member having a term of 6
years. One-thirds of its members retire after every two years. Consequently, there will be an election of
one-thirds of the Rajya Sabha at the beginning of every 3rd year.
It is the duty of the President to summon both Houses of Parliament at such intervals that not more than
6 months elapse between two successive sessions.

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The Vice-President of India is the ex-office Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. During his absence, the
Deputy Chairman discharges his duties in the House.

The State Executive: Our Constitution provides for a federal set-up and contains provisions for the
administration of the Union and the State governments. The procedure laid down for the governance of
the States is equally applicable to all, except Jammu and Kashmir.

1. The Governor: The State Governor is largely parallel to the Union President in matters of his role in
the legislative and executive process. The Governor, appointed by the President, holds office at the
President’s pleasure and enjoys the formal executive authority in a state. Any Indian Citizen above 35
years of age is eligible for Governorship, but he must not hold any office of profit, nor he be a member
of the Union or a State Legislature. The powers of appointment to the State Council of Ministers, the
Advocate-General, recommending Money- Bills etc. enjoyed by the Governor are largely analogous to
those held by the President at the Centre.
The normal office term of a Governor is 5 years, terminable earlier by resignation to the President
or dismissal by the President.

2. The State Legislature: Some of the states are unicameral i.e. have got only the State Legislative
Assembly. In some others, apart from it, there is a State Legislative Council e.g. Bihar, Jammu and
Kashmir. The SLC is largely analogous to the Rajyasabha while the State Legislative Assembly is the
equivalent of the Rajyasabha.

The Indian Judicial System:

The Supreme Court of India sits at the apex of the judicial system in India and the Parliament is competent
to make any changes regarding its constitution, jurisdiction and the salaries payable to its judges. The
Supreme Court comprises a Chief Justice of India and 33 other Judges. Besides, the CJI, with presidential
consent, can request a retired SC Judge to act as a Temporary Judge in case of lack of quorum.

Qualifications and Tenures of Judges

A person, in order to be appointed an SC Judge must
1. be a citizen of India
2. Be either a distinguished jurist or have at least 10 years’ High Court practice as an advocate OR
3. have been a High Court Judge for at least 5 years.
No minimum age nor any fixed tenure has been prescribed. An SC Judge may cease to be so
1. on attaining the age of 65 years
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2. by sending his resignation to the President

3. being impeached
The only grounds upon which an SC Judge can be removed are:
A. proven misbehavior
B. incapacity
As A Guarantor of The Constitution: The Supreme Court is the final interpreter the Constitution and
Other laws. It tries to ensure adherence to both and thus acts a guarantor of individual rights in India
granted by the law and the Constitution.

The High Courts: A High Court stands at the head of the judiciary in each state. But the Parliament has
the power to establish a common High Court for two or more states (like the common HC for the North-
Eastern states). A High Court comprises a Chief Justice and a number of other Judges, as may be decided
by the President.
The HC enjoys the jurisdiction over the territorial limits of the state and has the power of superintendence
and control over all Courts and Tribunals in that area.
In order to be appointed an HC Judge, a person must
1. be an Indian citizen
2. not be above 62 years of age
3. have held a judicial office in India OR
4. have been an advocate of an HC or of two more such courts in succession

In appointing HC Judges, the President shall consult the CJI, the State Governor (and also the CJ of the
State HC in case a judge other than the CJ is to be appointed) an HC Judge holds office till 62 years of
age. However, the Judge may vacate his post-
1. by resignation in writing to the President
2. on appointment as an SC Judge
3. by impeachment in Parliament.

The mode of removal of both SC and HC Judges is the same i.e. impeachment by Parliament and both
hold office during “good behviour”. Both categories of Judges, in addition to a monthly salary, are entitled
to the use of an official residence, free of cost.

Some Important Political Terms

1. Lame duck Government: Is defined as that government which has lost the motion of no-confidence
in the Lok Sabha and does not have the constitutional authority to run the government. Still on being asked
by the President, such a government has to continue until alternative arrangements are made. Such a

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government is referred to as a lame duck government.

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2. Left Parties: Are those parties that adopt a radical political ideology. For instance, the CPI, CPI(M)
and RSP etc.
3. Right Parties: Are defined as those parties which adopt a politically conservative ideology e.g. the
BJP, Shiv Sena etc.
4. Centrist Parties: Are those which adopt a political position which is a via media between the leftist
and the rightist political ideologies.
5. Cut Motion: A motion moved to affect a cut in the Annual Budget. If an insignificant cut is proposed,
such a motion is known as a token cut-motion. It has great political significance because if it is carried
through in the Parliament, the government is under moral obligation to resign as a consequence.
6. Zero Hour: That time during parliamentary proceedings in the day when any matter of urgent national
importance without any prior notice.
7. Starred Question: Those the answers to which are given orally by the Minister concerned in the
Parliament.
8. Unstarred Questions: The answers to which are given in writing in Parliament by the Minister
concerned.
9. Vote-On–Account: Is passed without discussions pending final approval by the Parliament if money
is required urgently.
10. Guillotine: A motion is said to be guillotined if it is passed without any discussion on it in parliament
in view of urgency of the issue under question.
11. Filibuster: Is a person who, in order to block the passage of a bill in Parliament, makes a long speech
just before voting is going to take place. This term has British origins. Such a person and such a speech,
both are referred to as filibuster.
12. Whip: A whip is a person who regulates the presence and conduct of the members of a particular
political party in Parliament. He is supposed to ensure their presence and voting on particular days and in
a particular manner. Before voting on any matter in Parliament, an order is issued by the whip to all party
MPs. Such an order is also known as a whip. Under the provisions of the Anti-Defection Law, violating a
party whip can attract disqualification from Parliament. However, as per current provisions, which are
likely to undergo drastic change in future, party splits (i.e. if one-thirds or more legislators from a
particular party leave it and join another one) are not termed as defections and do not attract penal
provisions.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)

(Repeated Questions have been deleted but the serial number of MCQs have not arranged
accordingly. Ignore the deleted MCQs in Answer keys)

Governance, Polity and Administration: A) The Union B) The States C) The Parliament
Q1) Collective responsibility is the Hallmark of D) The President
which form of Government? Q6) The most controversial amendment passed
Options: during the emergency was?

A) parliamentary form B) Presidential form C) Options:

Military form D) None of the above A) 43rd B) 41st C) 42nd D) 44th
Q2) In case of death, resignation or removal of Q7) In India freedom of press is
Governor…..acts as the Governor. Options:
Options: A) Specifically provided in the Constitution B)
A) The Chief Minister B) The President of India Implied in the right to freedom of expression C)
C) The Speaker D) The Chief Justice of High Available to the people of India under Law of
Court Parliament D) Available to the people of India
Q3) The Comptroller and Auditor General of under executive orders
India is appointed by the Q8) The subject on which the State Government
Options: enjoys exclusive powers are given in

A) Prime Minister of India B) President of India Options:

C) Finance Minister D) Lok Sabha A) Concurrent List B) State List C) Union List
Q4) India is a republic because D) Residuary List

Options: Q9) The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and

the Raja Sabha is
A) Every adult of the age 18 or more has been
given the right to vote B) The Constitution Options:
guarantees fundamental rights of the people C) A) 525 and 250 respectively B) 550 and 250 C)
The Council of Ministers is responsible to the 535 and 275 D) 500 and 250
Lok Sabha D) Head of State is elected for a fixed Q10) The Contingency Fund of the State is
term placed under the
Q5) Indian Constitution reserves the residuary Options:
powers to
A) Chief Secretary B) Finance Minister C) Chief
Options:
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Minister D) Governor

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Q11) .....is the popular House of State Q17) Which of the following is not a Union
Legislature. Territory?
Options: Options:
A) Legislative Assembly B) Legislative Council A) Lakshadweep B) Delhi C) Manipur D)
C) Legislative Sabha D) Zilla Council Daman&Diu
Q12) How many seats have been reserved for the Q18) The Governor of a State holds his office
Union Territories in Lok Sabha? only during the pleasure of
Options: Options:
A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) 50 A) Prime Minister B) President C) Chief Minister
Q13) The President of India, who has some D) Home Minister
political differences with Prime Minister was Q19) What does the Article 352 of the
Options: Constitution contain?

A) Zakir Hussain B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad C) Options:

Fakrudin Ali Ahmed D) None of the above A) Provision regarding declaration of Emergency
Q14) If a Governor wants to resign, to whom B) Powers of the High Court C) Division of
does he address his letter of resignation? powers between the Centre and the States D)
Powers of the Prime Minister
Options:
Q20) A Parliamentary government cannot
A) Prime Minister B) Home Minister C) Chief
operate without
Minister D) President of India
Options:
Q15) The Legislative Council of a State can be
abolished or created by the A) A written constitution B) An independent
judiciary C) Political parties D) A rigid
Options:
constitution
A) President of India on the recommendation of
Q21) Which one of the following is wrong?
the Parliament B) Legislative Assembly of the
State concerned C) Parliament through a simple Options:
legislation D) Parliament on the recommendation A) It is the duty of the Chief Minister to keep the
of the Legislative Assembly of the State Governor informed of all the decisions of the
concerned Cabinet B) The Governor has the Power to ask
Q16) The sanctioned strength of the Supreme for any information from the Chief Minister
Court of India is regarding the administration of the State C) The
Governor is the real head of the State
Options:
administration D) As an agent of the Central
A) 13 B) 15 C) 16 D) 31 Government the Governor may have to act

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sometimes independently of the advice of the Constitution was headed by

Council of Ministers
Q22) The report of the Public Accounts
Committee is presented to the
Options:
A) President B) Prime Minister C) Rajya Sabha
D) Lok Sabha
Q23) Which of the following is not one of the
Fundamental rights?
Options:
A) Right to freedom of Religion B) Right to
freedom of through and expression C) Right to
equality D) Right to equal pay for equal work for
man as well as women
Q24) The Constitution of India is
Options:
A) Very rigid B) Very flexible C) A combination
of rigidity and flexibility D) Neither rigid nor
flexible
Q25) Decisions on question about
disqualification of members of the Lok Sabha are
taken by the
Options:
A) President B) Prime Minister C) Minister for
Parliamentary Affairs D) Secretary to Parliament

Answer Key
Q1) A, Q2) D, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) A, Q6) C, Q7)
B, Q8) B, Q9) B, Q10) D, Q11) A, Q12) A, Q13)
B, Q14) D, Q15) D, Q16) D, Q17) C, Q18) B,
Q19) A, Q20) C, Q21) C, Q22) D, Q23) D, Q24)
C, Q25) A,
Q26) The drafting committee of the Indian

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Options: theLegislative Council of a State cannot exceed
A) Dr.Rajendra Prasad B)
N.Gopalaswamy C)B.R.Ambedkar D)
None of these
Q27) Which of the following statements
is correct regarding the procedure of
passing ofBills in Parliament?
Options:
A) A bill pending in Parliament shall not
lapse because of the prorogation of the
two Houses of Parliament B) A bill
pending in the Rajya Sabhawhich has not
been passed by the Lok Sabha shall lapse
on its dissolution C) A bill pending in the
Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya
Sabha not lapse on the dissolution of the
Lok Sabha D) A bill pending in the Rajya
Sabha which has been passed by the Lok
Sabha shall not lapse on the adjournment
of the Rajya Sabha
Q28) Representatives of Union
Territories inLok Sabha are chosen by
Options:
A) Direct election B) Indirect election
C)Nomination D) All the above
Q29) The term of Rajya Sabha
members was fixed by the
Options:
A) Constitution B) President C)
Parliament D)Cabinet
Q30) The main feature of
Presidentialgovernment is
Options:
A) Stability B) Irresponsibility C)
Check andbalances D) Rigidity
Q31) The total number of members in
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Options: accountable to the Legislature

A) One-fourth of the total number of members in

the Legislative Assembly B) One-third of the
total number of members of the Legislative
Assembly C) One-sixth of the total members of
the Legislative Assembly D) No such limit has
been fixed
Q32) Parliamentary government was adopted in
India
Options:
A) By sheer accident B) Because it was made
obligatory to adopt this government under Indian
Independence Act of 1947 C) Because of
historical considerations and practical necessities
D) On account of all the above reasons
Q33) Which one of the following statements
holds good in respect of the Rajya Sabha?
Options:
A) One-third of its members retire after every
three years B) Two-thirds of its members retire
after every three years C) Two-thirds of its
members retire after every two years D) One-
third of its members retire after every two years
Q34) Who was the first President of India to be
elected unopposed?
Options:
A) Dr. Radhakrishnan B) N.Sanjiva Reddi C)
V.V. Giri D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q35) The Government in India is known as
Parliamentary because
Options:
A) Parliament is elected by the people B)
Parliament consists of two houses C) Parliament
is a sovereign body D) The executive is

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Q36) The President of India is entitled President of India a person must have completed
to amonthly salary of the age of
Options:
A) Rs.1, 50, 000 B) Rs.1, 40, 000 C) Rs. 1, 35,
000 D) Rs.1, 25, 000
Q37) The Governor of a State in India is
Options:
A) Directly elected by the people of the
State B)Appointed by the Prime Minister
C) Appointed by the President D)
Appointed by the State ChiefMinister
Q38) If a Governor wants to resign, to
whomdoes he address his letter of
resignation?
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) Chief Minister C)
Presidentof India D) Home Minister
Q39) Seats in the Lok Sabha are not
reserved forthe
Options:
A) Scheduled Castes B) Scheduled
Tribes C) Scheduled Tribes in the
autonomous district of Assam D) Anglo
Indians
Q40) The Indian Constitution has given a
special status to the State of Jammu and
Kashmir under Article
Options:
A) 352 B) 370 C) 368 D) 361
Q41) What is the minimum strength of
a StateLegislative Assembly?
Options:
A) 40 B) 60 C) 50 D) 70
Q42) To be eligible for election as

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Options: all religions C) Religion is separated from

A) 35 years B) 40 years C) 30 years D) 25 years

Q43) The Constituent Assembly of India opted
for a Parliamentary form of government. Leaders
like Ambedkar, in this, preferred
Options:
A) Stability over responsibility B) Responsibility
over stability C) Responsibility and stability D)
People's rule
Q44) Who amongst the following acts as the
presiding officer of the House without being its
members?
Options:
A) Vice-President of India B) Speaker of the Lok
Sabha C) Chairman of the Legislative Council D)
Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Q45) Which one of the following cannot be
dissolved but can be abolished any time?
Options:
A) State Legislative Councils B) State
Legislative Assemblies C) Rajya Sabha D) Lok
Sabha
Q46) The Governor of a State can address the
Legislature at the commencement of the
Options:
A) New session after each general election B)
First session every year C) Both of the above D)
None of the above
Q47) Which is the most important reason to
consider India as a Secular State?
Options:
A) People of different religions live in India B)
Government works for the welfare of people of

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politics D) Minority religions are given
special protection
Q48) The Governor of a State can
Options:
A) Dissolve the Legislative Assembly B)
Dissolve the Legislative Council C) Both
theabove D) None of the above
Q49) The maximum duration between
two sessions of the Indian Parliament
should not be more than
Options:
A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months
D) oneyear
Q50) In Parliamentary Government
Options:
A) The President has the main importance
B) The Prime Minister has the main
importance C) The Vice-President has the
main importance D) The Head of the State
has the main importance

Answer Key
Q26) C, Q27) A, Q28) A, Q29) A, Q30) A, Q31)
B, Q32) C, Q33) D, Q34) B, Q35) D, Q36) A,
Q37) C, Q38) C, Q39) D, Q40) B, Q41) B, Q42)
A, Q43) B, Q44) A, Q45) A, Q46) C, Q47) B,
Q48) A, Q49) B, Q50) B,

Q51) The Constitution amendment bills

areinitiated in
Options:
A) The Lok Sabha B) The Rajya Sabha C)
EitherHouse D) The Lok Sabha with the
prior approvalof the State assemblies

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Q52) What is the age of retirement of the A) By the President of India according to his
Supreme Court Judges? sweet will B) By the Prime Minister of India C)
Options: By the Chief Justice of India D) By the President
on an address by each House of Parliament and
A) 60 years B) 65 years C) 62 years D) 70 years
supported by a majority of the total membership
Q53) All the following are Fundamental Rights of that house and by a majority of not less than
guaranteed by the Indian Constitution except 2/3 of the members of that House present and
Options: voting

A) The right to equality B) The right against Q58) Which one of the following Lok Sabha was
exploitation C) The right to adequate means of dissolved before the expiry of its normal term?
livelihood D) The right to freedom of religion Options:
Q54) The Election Commission of a state can be A) First Lok Sabha B) Fourth Lok Sabha C) Sixth
removed from office Lok Sabha D) None of the above
Options: Q59) If the Vice-President were to submit his
A) Only by the Governor B) In the same manner resignation, he would notify to
and on the same grounds as a judge of the Options:
Supreme Court C) Only by the President on the
A) The President of India B) The Prime Minister
advice of the Chief Justice of the concerned State
C) The Chief Justice of India D) The Speaker of
D) In the same manner as the Vice-president of
the Lok Sabha
India
Q60) The number of UTs in the Indian Union is
Q55) Who among the following is considered to
be the custodian of the Lok Sabha? Options:

Options: A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9

A) The Prime Minister B) The Leader of the Q61) Which of the following means the
opposition C) The Chief whip of the ruling party collective responsibility of the Cabinet?
D) The Speaker Options:
Q56) The subordinate courts enjoy A) The venue and agenda of the Cabinet meeting
Options: are kept secret for security reasons B) It is
imperative for the Prime Minister to consult all
A) Only civil jurisdiction B) Only criminal
the ministers to ascertain their views C) The
jurisdiction C) Only revenue jurisdiction D) All
deliberations of the Cabinet are kept secret D)
of the above
The Cabinet functions as a compact unit in
Q57) A Judge of the Supreme Court of India can justifying its decisions
be removed from office
Q62) The total number of members of the
Options: Legislative Council can in no case be less than

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Options: None of the above

A) 40 B) 60 C) 50 D) No minimum strength has

been fixed
Q63) Which one of the following is not a
function of the Chief Minister of a State?
Options:
A) He allots business among his colleagues B)
He can ask any Minister to resign and in case of
his refusal advise the Governor to dismiss him C)
He can dissolve the Legislative Assembly D) He
presides over the meetings of the Cabinet and
controls the agenda thereof
Q64) The Presidential Government operates on
the principle of
Options:
A) Separation of Powers B) Division of Labour
C) Fusion of Labour D) Centralisation of Power
Q65) Cabinet government is based on
Options:
A) Separation of legislature and executive B)
Fusion of legislature, executive and judiciary C)
Fusion of legislature and executive D) None of
the above
Q66) Which of the following Articles speaks of
the appointment of the Governor?
Options:
A) Article 160 B) Article 140 C) Article 255 D)
Article 155
Q67) The Constitution of India is
Options:
A) One of the smallest constitutions in the world
B) A medium sized constitution C) One of the
most elaborate constitutions of the world D)

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Q68) The Vice-President of India is elected by been a part of the constitution of India 2. Have
Options: been added through an amendment 3. Are
applicable to all
A) The same electoral college which
elects the President of India B) The Rajya
Sabha C) The Lok Sabha D) By an
electoral college consisting of the
members of Houses of Parliament
Q69) A Governor can issue an ordinance
Options:
A) Whenever he likes B) whenever Chief
Minister advises him C) Whenever the
State Legislature is not in Session and the
Governor is satisfied that immediate
action is needed D) When the Union
Government tells him to do so
Q70) In...the executive power of the
StateGovernment is vested
Options:
A) The President of India B) The Chief Minister
C) The Governor D) The Speaker of
theLegislative Assembly
Q71) Chief Minister is
Options:
A) The Head of the State B) The Head of
theGovernment C) An integral part of the
legislature
D) Always a member of the Lower House
Q72) Which of the following was the
permanentChairman of the Constituent
Assembly?
Options:
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad B) Pt.Jawahar Lal Nehru
C) Sardar Patel D) B.R.Ambedkar
Q73) Consider the following statements:
The Fundamental duties- 1. Have always

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citizens of India Which of these statements is/are provided the State Legislative Assembly passes a
correct? resolution to that effect
Options: Q78) The Union Cabinet is responsible to
A) 1 and 3 B) 1 only C) 2 only D) 2 and 3 Options:
Q74) The grant of franchise to women on equal A) The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha B) The
terms with men is assertion of the principle of President of India C) The Lok Sabha only D) The
Options: electorate

A) Political equality B) Civil equality C) Natural Q79) The Speaker of a State Assembly can be
equality D) Social equality removed from his office by

Q75) Prime Minister of India is Options:

Options: A) A resolution of the Legislative Assembly

passed by a majority of all the members of the
A) Leader of the Rajya Sabha B) Leader of the
Assembly B) The President of India C) The Chief
Lok Sabha C) Leader of the masses D) None of
Minister D) The Governor
the above
Q80) The first general election under the
Constitution was held in
Answer Key
Options:
Q51) C, Q52) B, Q53) C, Q54) B, Q55) D, Q56)
A) 1949 B) 1950 C) 1952 D) 1953
D, Q57) D, Q58) C, Q59) A, Q60) B, Q61) C,
Q62) A, Q63) C, Q64) A, Q65) C, Q66) D, Q67) Q81) A Governor can be removed by
C, Q68) D, Q69) C, Q70) C, Q71) B, Q72) A, Options:
Q73) D, Q74) A, Q75) B, A) Prime Minister B) President of India C) Chief
Minister D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Q76) Parliamentary Supremacy' is a definite Q82) The subordinate Civil Courts are headed by
feature of the political system in Options:
Options: A) District Court B) Session Court C) Board of
A) U.K B) India C) Canada D) Australia Revenue D) None of these
Q77) The Legislative Council of a State can be Q83) The size of the Council of Ministers of a
abolished or created by State
Options: Options:
A) The President of India B) The Legislative A) Is fixed by the governor in accordance with
Assembly of the State concerned C) By the High Court’s advice B) Is decided by the
Parliament according to its will D) By Parliament Chief Minister C) Is fixed by the Constitution (91

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st Amendment) Act, 2003 D) Is dependent on the Q88) The Speaker of Lok Sabha has to address
total strength of the assembly his letter of resignation to the
Q84) The right of vote in India is given to all Options:
people on the basis of A) Prime Minister of India B) Deputy Speaker of
Options: Lok Sabha C) President of India D) Vice-
A) Age B) Education C) Religion D) Property President of India

Q85) The right to freedom of speech and Q89) The Rajya Sabha
expression Options:
Options: A) Is a permanent house B) Has a maximum life
A) Does not include freedom of press B) Includes of 6 years C) Has a maximum life 5 years D) Has
freedom of press C) Includes freedom of press no fixed life
only in certain respects D) None of the above Q90) The President of India is elected by
Q86) Which one of the following statements is Options:
correct? A) Parliament B) State legislatures C) By the
Options: people directly D) By an electoral college
A) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha elected by consisting of the elected members of the Lok
the elected members of the Rajya Sabha B) The Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha president over the Assemblies
joint session of both the Houses of Parliament C) Q91) Which of the following statements is NOT
The electoral college for the election of the Vice- correct?
President is the same as that for the election of Options:
the President D) The nominated members of both
A) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on
the House of Parliament have voting right in the
the advice of Prime Minister B) Money Bills
election of the Vice-President but not in the
cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha C) The
election of the President
42nd Amendment extended the term of the Lok
Q87) The "Fundamental Duties" of the Indian Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies from
citizen have been 5 years to 6 years D) As nearly as possible one-
Options: third members of the Rajya Sabha retire on the
A) Originally provided by the constitution B) expiration of every third year
Included in the constitution by the 44th Q92) The vacancy in the office of the President
amendment C) Included in the constitution by the must be filled within
42nd amendment D) Inserted into the Options:
constitution by a judgement of the Supreme
A) One year B) Six months C) Four months D)
Court
Three months

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Q93) Which of the following words were added Seven years

to the Preamble of Indian Constitution under the
42nd Amendment?
Options:
A) Democratic Republic B) Democratic Socialist
C) Socialist Secular D) Sovereign Secular
Q94) The Governor of a state enjoys
Options:
A) No discretionary powers B) Very extensive
discretionary powers C) Discretionary Powers in
certain matters D) None of these
Q95) The Governor even though is a
constitutional head, he
Options:
A) Is at par with the President B) Is on a different
footing from the President C) Is the successor of
the President in the State Administration D)
None of the above
Q96) To Which one of the following categories
does the Right to Property belong?
Options:
A) Legal Right B) Fundamental Right C) Human
Right D) Natural Right
Q97) The Supreme Commander of the Defence
Forces of India is
Options:
A) The Defence Minister B) The Prime Minister
C) The Chief of the Army Staff D) The President
of India
Q98) The members of Rajya Sabha are elected
for a term of
Options:
A) Three years B) Five years C) Six years D)

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Q99) Which one of the following Presidentof India C) Prime Minster of India D)
statements correctly describes "a hung By aspecial committee formed for the purpose
Parliament"?
Options:
A) A Parliament in which no party has
clear majority B) The Prime Minister has
resigned butParliament is not dissolved C)
The Parliament lacks the quorum to
conduct business D) A lame duck
Parliament
Q100) The number of Anglo-Indians who
can benominated by the President to the
Lok Sabha is
Options:
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Q101) The time-gap between two
sessions ofParliament must not exceed
Options:
A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months
D) oneyear
Q102) India has
Options:
A) Parliamentary form of government B)
Presidential form of government C) Both
parliamentary and presidential forms of
government D) None of these
Q103) Which is the largest State in area?
Options:
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Uttar Pradesh C)
Maharashtra D) Rajasthan
Q104) When the two Houses of
Parliament differregarding a Bill then the
deadlock is resolved by
Options:
A) A joint sitting of the two Houses B)
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Q105) Which of the following exercises power Options:

to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the
legislative?
Options:
A) Chief Minister B) Governor C) Speaker D)
Deputy Speaker
Q106) Who appoints the Governor of a State?
Options:
A) Home Minister of India B) President of India
C) Chief Minister of that State D) Prime Minister
of India
Q107) When does a Presidential Ordinance cease
to operate?
Options:
A) At the expiry of four-weeks from the
reassembly of Parliament or earlier if both
Houses disapprove it B) At the expiry of six-
weeks from the reassembly of Parliament or
earlier if both Houses disapprove it C) At the
expiry of six-months from the reassembly of
Parliament or earlier if both Houses disapprove it
D) None of these
Q108) The President of India is elected by
Options:
A) Direct election B) Indirect election by means
of the single transferable vote C) Universal adult
franchise D) All members of the Parliament
Q109) The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha
is
Options:
A) 500 B) 525 C) 535 D) 550
Q110) Sikkim was made an integral part of India
under the

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A) 42nd Amendment B) 40th Amendment in the State C) The defence of the State D) None
C) 39th Amendment D) 36th Amendment of theabove
Q111) When a State Government fails to
complywith the directions of the Centre in
the exercise of administrative power
Options:
A) The Governor may be directed by the
President to dismiss the ministry B) The
President can declare a national
emergency and convert the federal
structure into a unitary one C) A
Constitutional emergency can be declared
in the State and the President can assume
all the powers of the State Government D)
The Supreme Court may be asked to
intervene
Q112) The Attorney General of
India isappointed by
Options:
A) The Chief Justice of India B) The
PrimeMinister C) The President of India
D) The UPSC
Q113) Article 370 of the Indian
Constitutiondeals with
Options:
A) The Emergency Powers of the
President B) The special position of the
State of Jammu and Kashmir C) The
power to seek the advisory opinion of the
Supreme Court on any matter of public
importance D) Distribution of taxes
between the Centre and the States
Q114) Chief Minister is not responsible for
Options:
A) Running the entire administration of the State
B) The maintenance of the law and order

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Q115) How many languages have been Q103) D, Q104) A, Q105) B, Q106) B, Q107)
recognised by the Constitution?
Options:
A) 13 B) 14 C) 22 D) 16
Q116) Which of the following has not been laid
down by the Indian Constitution?
Options:
A) Direct election to the Lok Sabha B) Direct
election to the State Legislative Assemblies C)
Direct election of the President of India D)
Creation of Supreme Court which is competent
to interpret the Constitution
Q117) The Governor of a State is an integral part
of the
Options:
A) State Cabinet B) Parliament C) President's
Secretariat D) State Legislature
Q118) How many States are there in the Union
of India?
Options:
A) 22 B) 24 C) 26 D) 28
Q119) Which one of the following is not an
essential qualification for contesting election to
Lok Sabha?
Options:
A) Citizenship of India B) Age of 25 years C)
Soundness of mind D) Graduation
Answer Key:
Q76) A, Q77) D, Q78) C, Q79) A, Q80) C, Q81)
B, Q82) A, Q83) C, Q84) A, Q85) B, Q86) D,
Q87) C, Q88) B, Q89) A, Q90) D, Q91) D, Q92)
B, Q93) C, Q94) C, Q95) B, Q96) A, Q97) D,
Q98) C, Q99) A, Q100) A, Q101) B, Q102) A,

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B, Q108) B, Q109) D, Q110) D, Q111) C, India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr.
Q112) C, Q113) B, Q114) C, Q115) C, Abul Alam Azad. D) It is being celebrated since
Q116) C, Q117)D, Q118) D, Q119) D 2008

Higher Education System with

Governance,Polity and
Administration:
Q1) Match List -I with List -II and
select thecorrect answer using the codes
given below:
List-I (Institutions)
a) Central Institute of English
b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya
c) Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies
d) IGNOU
List-II (Locations)
i) Chitrakoot and Foreign Languages
ii) Hyderabad
iii) New Delhi
iv) Dharmasala
Options:
A) A − (ii), B − (i), C − (iv), D − (iii)
B) A − (iii), B − (iv), C − (ii), D − (i)
C) A − (v), B − (iii), C − (iv), D − (ii)
D) A − (iv), B − (ii), C − (iii), D − (v)
Q2) Which statement is not correct
about theNational Education Day of
India?
Options:
A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
C) It is celebrated in the memory of

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Q3) Deemed Universities declared by UGC Options:

under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not A) 1980 B) 1948 C) 1950 D) 1956
permitted to
Q8) Universities having central campus for
Options: imparting education are called:
A) Offer programmes in higher education and Options:
issue degrees. B) give affiliation to any institute
A) Central Universities B) Deemed Universities
of higher education. C) open off-campus and off-
C) Residential Universities D) Open Universities
shore campus anywhere in the country and
overseas respectively without the permission of Q9) The University Grants Commission was
the UGC. D) offer distance education constituted on the recommendation of:
programmes without the approval of the Distance Options:
education Council
A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission B)
Q4) India’s first Defence University is in the Mudaliar Commission C) Sargent Commission
State of D) Kothari Commission
Options: Q10) Which one of the following Articles of the
A) Haryana B) Andhra Pradesh C) Uttar Pradesh Constitution of India safeguards the rights of
D) Punjab Minorities to establish and run educational
institutions of their own liking?
Q5) Which of the following institutions in the
field of education is set up by the MHRD Options:
Government of India? A) Article 19 B) Article 29 C) Article 30 D)
Options: Article 3
A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi B) Q11) Foundation training to the newly recruited
Mythic Society, Bangalore C) National Bal IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:
Bhawan, New Delhi D) India International Options:
Centre, New Delhi
A) Indian Institute of Public Administration B)
Q6) The University which telecasts interactive Administrative Staff College of India C) L. B. S.
educational programmes through its own channel National Academy of Administration D) Centre
is: for Advanced Studies
Options: Q12) Electoral disputes arising out of
A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are
B) IGNOU C) University of Pune D) Annamalai settled by:
University Options:
Q7) The Government established the University A) Election Commission of India B) Joint
Grants Commission by an Act of Parliament in Committee of Parliament C) Supreme Court of
the year:
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India D) Central Election Tribunal

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Q13) Value education makes a student: Q19) Autonomy in higher education implies
Options: freedom in:

A) Good citizen B) Successful businessman C) Options:

Popular teacher D) Efficient manager A) Administration B) Policy-making C) Finance
Q14) The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi D) Curriculum development
Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya issituated Q20) According to Radhakrishnan Commission,
in: the aim of Higher Education is:
Options: Options:
A) Sevagram B) New Delhi C) Wardha D) A) To develop the democratic values, peace and
Ahmedabad harmony B) To develop great personalities who
Q15) The aim of vocationalisation of education can give their contributions in politics,
is: administration, industry and commerce C) Both
(A) and (B) D) None of these
Options:
Q21) The National Museum at New Delhi is
A) preparing students for a vocation along with
attached to:
knowledge B) converting liberal education into
vocational education C) giving more importance Options:
to vocational than general education D) Making A) Delhi University B) a Deemed University C)
liberal education job-oriented a Subordinate Office of the JNU D) Part of
Q16) NAAC is an autonomous institution under Ministry of Tourism and Culture
the aegis of: Q22) Election of Rural and Urban local bodies
Options: are conducted and ultimately supervised by:

A) ICSSR B) CSIR C) AICTE D) UGC Options:

Q17) National Council for Women’s Education A) Election Commission of India B) State
was established in: Election Commission C) District Collector and
District Magistrate D) Concerned Returning
Options:
Officer
A) 1958 B) 1976 C) 1989 D) 2000
Q23) Which opinion is not correct?
Q18) Which one of the following is not situated
Options:
in New Delhi?
A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII
Options:
schedule of Constitution of India B) University
A) Indian Council of Cultural Relations B) Grants Commission is a statutory body C) Patent,
Indian Council of Scientific Research C) inventions, design, copyright and trademarks are
National Council of Educational Research and the subject of concurrent list
Training D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies

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D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is Q28) Which one of the following is not the tool
a statutory body related to research in social of good governance?
sciences Options:
Q24) The Kothari Commission’s report was A) Right to information B) Citizens’ Charter C)
entitled on: Social Auditing D) Judicial Activist
Options: Q29) The recommendation of National
A) Education and National Development B) Knowledge Commission for the establishment of
Learning to be adventure C) Diversification of 1500 Universities is to
Education D) Education and socialization in Options:
democracy
A) create more teaching jobs B) ensure increase
Q25) Which of the following is not a Dual mode in student enrolment in higher education C)
University? replace or substitute the privately managed
Options: higher education institutions by public
A) Delhi University B) Bangalore University C) institutions D) enable increased movement of
Madras University D) Indira Gandhi National students from rural areas to urban areas
Open University Q30) According to Article 120 of the
Answer Key Constitution of India, the business in Parliament
shall be transacted in
Q1) A, Q2) A, Q3) B, Q4) A, Q5) C, Q6) B, Q7)
D, Q8) A, Q9) A, Q10) C, Q11) C, Q12) C, Q13) Options:
A, Q14) C, Q15) D, Q16) D, Q17) A, Q18) D, A) English only B) Hindi only C) English and
Q19) D, Q20) C, Q21) D, Q22) B, Q23) C, Q24) Hindi both D) All the languages included in
A, Q25) D, Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Q31) Which of the following is more interactive
Q26) Which part of the Constitution of India is and student centric?
known as “Code of Administrators”? Options:
Options: A) Seminar B) Workshop C) Lecture D) Group
A) Part I B) Part II C) Part III D) Part IV Discussion

Q27) Which article of the constitution provides Q32) The Parliament in India is composed of
safeguards to Naga Customary and their social Options:
practices against any act of Parliament? A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha B) Lok Sabha,
Options: Rajya Sabha & Vice President C) Lok Sabha,
A) Article 371 A B) Article 371 B C) Article 371 Rajya Sabha & President D) Lok Sabha, Rajya
C D) Article 263 Sabha with their Secretariats

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Q33) The enrolment in higher education in India Options:

is contributed both by Formal System of A) Most of the educational institutions of
Education and by System of Distance Education. National repute in scientific and technical sphere
Distance education contributes fall Under 64th entry of Union list. B) Education,
Options: in general, is the subject of concurrent list since
A) 50% of formal system B) 25% of formal 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976. C)
system C) 10% of the formal system D) Distance Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE)
education system’s contribution is not taken into was first established in 1920. D) India had
account while considering the figures of implemented the right to Free and Compulsory
enrolment in higher education Primary Education in 200 through 86th
Constitutional Amendment.
Q34) Assertion (A): The UGC Academic Staff
Colleges came into existence to improve the Q37) Networking of libraries through electronic
quality of teachers. Reason (R): University and media is known as:
college teachers have to undergo both orientation Options:
and refresher courses. A) Inflibnet B) Libinfnet C) Internet D) HTML
Options: Q38) SITE’ stands for:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Options:
explanation. B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but
A) System for International technology and
(R) is not the correct explanation of (A). C) (A)
Engineering B) Satellite Instructional Television
is correct and (R) is false. D) (A) is false and (R)
Experiment C) South Indian Trade Estate D)
is correct.
State Institute of Technology and Engineering
Q35) The accreditation process by National
Q39) What is the name of the Research station
Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
established by the Indian Government for
differs from that of National Board of
’Conducting Research at Antarctic?
Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
Options:
Options:
A) Dakshin Gangotri B) Yamunotri C) Uttara
A) Disciplines covered by both being the same,
Gangotri D) None of the above
there is duplication of efforts. B) One has
institutional grading approach and the other has Q40) Ministry of Human Resource Development
programme grading approach. C) Once get (HRD) includes:
accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is Options:
free from renewal of grading, which is not a
A) Department of Elementary Education and
progressive decision. D) This accreditation
Literacy B) Department of Secondary Education
amounts to approval of minimum standards in the
and Literacy C) Department of Women and Child
quality of education in the institution concerned.
Development D) All the above
Q36) Which option is not correct?
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Q41) The right to impart and receive information ii) Election Commission of India
is guaranteed in the Constitution of India by
Article:
Options:
A) 19 (2) (a) B) 19(16) C) 19(2) D) 19(1) (a)
Q42) Use of radio for higher education is based
on the presumption of:
Options:
A) Enriching curriculum based instruction B)
Replacing teacher in the long run C) Everybody
having access to a radio set D) Other means of
instruction getting outdated
Q43) The first Indian Satellite for serving the
educational sector is known as:
Options:
A) SATEDU B) INSAT -B C) EDUSAT D)
INSAT-C
Q44) Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU
is known as:
Options:
A) GyanDarshan B) Cyan Vani C) DoorDarshan
D) Prasar Bharati
Q45) Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution)
with List-II (Institutions) and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
List-I(Articles of the Constitution)
a) Article 280
b) Article 324
c) Article 323
d) Article 315
List -II (Institutions)
i) Administrative Tribunals

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iii) Finance Commission at Union level A) A − (iv), B − (i), C − (ii), D − (iii)
iv) Pre Union Public Service Commission
Options:
A) a − (iii), b − (ii), c − (i), d − (iv)
B) a − (ii), b − (iv), c − (i), d − (iii)
C) a − (iii), b − (ii), c − (iv), d − (i)
D) a − (i), b − (iii), c − (ii), d − (iv)
Q46) Match List-I (Institutions) with List-
II (Locations) and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
List-I (Institutions)
a) National Law Institute b) Indian
Institute ofAdvanced Studies c) National
Judicial Academy
d) National Savings
InstituteList-II
(Locations)
i) Shimla ii) Bhopal iii) Hyderabad iv) Nagpur
Options:
A) a − (iii), b − (i), c − (ii), d − (iv)
B) a − (ii), b − (iv), c − (i), d − (iii)
C) a − (iii), b − (ii), c − (iv), d − (i)
D) a − (i), b − (iii), c − (ii), d − (iv)
Q47) Match List-I (Institutions) with List-
II (Locations) and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
List-I (Institutions)
a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University b)
Send. t. University c) M.S. University d)
j. n. Vyas University
List-II (Locations)
i) Mumbai ii) Baroda iii) Jodhpur iv) Sagar
Options:

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B) A − (ii), B − (iv), C − (i), D − (iii) C, Q43) C, Q44) A, Q45) A, Q46) D, Q47) A,

C) A − (iv), B − (ii), C − (iv), D − (i) Q48) B, Q49) C, Q50) D,

D) A − (i), B − (iii), C − (v), D − (iv)

Q48) Match List-I (Institutions) with List-II Q51) To make teachers accountable. They
(Functions) and select the correct answer from should be given
the code given below: Options:
List-I (Institutions) a) Parliament b) C & A.G. c) A) Freedom in the selection of content and
Ministry of Finance d) Executing Departments methods of teaching B) Training in teaching and
List-II (Functions) i) Formulation of Budget ii) examining. C) Opportunities for professional
Enactment of Budget iii) Implementation of growth D) Transfer to places where they want to
Budget iv) Legality of expenditure v) serve.
Justification of Income Q52) Who is the custodian of fundamental rights
Options: of people?

A) a − (iii), b − (iv), c − (i), d − (iii) Options:

B) a − (iii), b − (iv), c − (ii), d − (i) A) Supreme Court B) President C) Prime

Minister D) State Assembly
C) a − (v), b − (iii), c − (iv), d − (ii)
Q53) The social heritage of people could be
D) a − (iv), b − (ii), c − (iii), d − (v)
described by the following term
Q49) Most of the Universities in India
Options:
Options:
A) Culture B) Social norm C) Transmission D)
A) conduct teaching and research only B) Human involvement
affiliate colleges and conduct examinations C)
Q54) Which one of the following characteristics
conduct teaching/research and examinations D)
could be regarded as the outstanding aspect of a
promote research only
scientific culture?
Q50) Which one of the following is not a
Options:
Constitutional Body?
A) Generalization B) Actualization C)
Options:
Qualification D) Quantification
A) Election Commission B) Finance
Q55) In India, education means
Commission C) Union Public Service
Commission D) Planning Commission Options:

Answer Key A) The assimilation of tradition in language B)

Respectful behaviour to elders & teachers C)
Q26) D, Q27) A, Q28) D, Q29) A, Q30) C, Q31)
Customs D) All are important
D, Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) A, Q35) C, Q36) C,
Q37) A, Q38) B, Q39) A, Q40) D, Q41) D, Q42)

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Q56) Which of the following standing A) To seek justice in court B) To seek financial
committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya security of life C) To criticize policies of
Sabha? government D) To vote at the time of
Options: ’Parliamentary election

A) Public Accounts Committee B) Estimates Q62) The Legislative Council of a State is a

Committee C) Committee on Public Options:
Undertakings D) Committee on Government A) temporary body B) permanent body C) semi-
Assurances permanent body D) chamber of the nominated
Q57) India is a members
Options:
A) Secular State B) Bilingual State C)
Communist State D) Capitalist State Q63) Which of the following is the federal
Q58) The Council of Ministers is responsible to feature of the Indian Constitution?
the Options:
Options: A) There is distribution of Powers in accordance
A) President B) Lok Sabha C) Vice-President D) with 2 lists B) Written and rigid constitution C)
Rajya Sabha Independent Judiciary D) All of these
Q59) The judges of the Supreme Court are Q64) The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of
appointed by the India relates to
Options: Options:
A) Prime Minister of India B) Speaker of the A) Panchayati Raj Institutions B) Anti-defection
Rajya Sabha C) President of India D) Ministry of Act C) List of languages recognized by the
Law & Justice Constitution D) Procedure for amendment to the
Q60) Which of the following are the ideals set Constitution
forth in the Preamble? Q65) Hearing is controlled by
Options: Options:
A) Social, economic and political Justice B) A) Frontal lobes B) Occipital lobes C) Temporal
Equality of status and of opportunity C) Liberty lobes. D) Parietal lobes
of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship Q66) All the functions of educational
D) All of these measurements are concerned, directly or
Q61) Of which fundamental right is a foreigner indirectly with
in India deprived of? Options:
Options:

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A) Avoidance of conflicts B) Selection of Q71) The project method of teaching is best

teachers C) Facilitation of learning D) associated with the philosophy of
Improvement of administration Options:
Q67) The most accurate statement about A) John Dewey B) Max Rafferty C) Robert
teaching machines is that Hutchins D) B F Skinner
Options: Q72) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
A) B F Skinner began the movement for their use is situated at
B) they were designed as an economy measure to Options:
replace teachers C) they are not as efficient as
A) N. Hyderabad B) Bangalore C) Delhi D)
teachers in reinforcing responses D) they can be
Trombay (Mumbai)
used for all learning programmes
Q73) Birla Institute of Technology is situated at
Q68) A culturally disadvantaged child is best
served by the school system that Options:
Options: A) Ranchi B) Jaipur C) Kota D) Hardwar
A) places him/her in a class with other culturally Q74) Central Forensic Science Laboratory is
disadvantaged children B) gives him/her an situated in
annual intelligence test C) trains teachers to Options:
understand his/her impoverished home back-
A) Chandigarh B) Patna C) Patiala D) Ludhiana
ground D) assesses his/her strengths and needs
and provide for an individualized learning plan Q75) In which of the following respects is a
theory ’not’ different from a belief?
Q69) All of the following tend to erode local
control of education in favour of national control, Options:
except The A) Antecedent consequent relationships’ B)
Options: Acceptability C) Verifiability D)
Demonstrability
A) National Science Foundation B) National
Institute of Mental Health C) College Entrance
Examination Board D) National Defence Answer Key
Education Act
Q51) A, Q52) A, Q53) A, Q54) D, Q55) D, Q56)
Q70) A student fails a test for which he did not B, Q57) A, Q58) B, Q59) C, Q60) D, Q61) D,
study. By ascribing his failure to the fact that the Q62) B, Q63) D, Q64) B, Q65) C, Q66) C, Q67)
teacher does not like him he is utilizing A, Q68) D, Q69) B, Q70) C, Q71) A, Q72) D,
Options: Q73) A, Q74) A, Q75) B,

A) conversion B) sympathism C) rationalization

D) Compensation Q76) According to Swami Vivekananda,

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teacher’s success depends on

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Options: Q81) Which one of the following sets of special

A) His renunciation of personal gain a” service powers has been conferred on Rajya Sabha by the
to others B) His concentration on his work and if Constitution?
with a spirit of obedience to God C) His Options:
professional training and creating D) His mastery A) To change the existing territory of a state and
of the subject and task controlling the students to change the name of a state B) To pass a
Q77) The Montessori schools insist on resolution empowering the parliament to make
Options: laws i the State List and creation of one or more
All-India services C) To amend the election
A) The principle of sense training B)
procedure of the President and to determine the
Creativeness, the main objective c education C)
pension of the President after his retirement D)
Complete discipline and supervision D) Well
To determine the functions of the Election
equipped school buildings
Commission and to determine the number of
Q78) It is usually claimed that any subject that is Election Commissioners
taught in school has a disciplinary value. This
Q82) It is often complained that there is brain
means, that
drain in our country. The implication is that
Options:
Options:
A) It requires strict discipline among students to
A) The brains of educated persons are having
learnt it B) It teaches certain habits and qualities
washed in unnecessary pursuits. B) Students
to train the minds of students C) Every subject is
brains are unnecessarily burdened with every
the outcome of the disciplined thinking and
education C) Education that is imparted is astring
experience of experts D) It requires special and
to the brains average students D) Educated and
disciplined methods of teaching
capable people are seeking jobs in othercountries
Q79) According to Alder, the primary cause for because of unemployment here
stresses and strains in a individual is
Q83) Historically speaking, Thorndike's theory
Options: of learning was translated into class room method
A) The feeling of inferiority B) The desire for following
knowledge of the self C) The desire for Options:
gratification of the sex impulse D) The curiosity
A) Froebel an principles of child education. B)
to know the mind of others
Herbatian steps with only slight modifications.
Q80) The Pancha Kosh Theory of Education was C) John Looke’s approach to children’s state of
elaborated by mind D) The scientific principles recommended
Options: by Rousseau.

A) Swami Vivekananda B) Patanjali C) Q84) Rousseau who popularized the Naturalistic

Mahatma Gandhi D) Aurobindo Philosophy of Education in the West belonged to

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Options:

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A) The 17th Century B) The 16th Century C) The Options:

15th 16th Centuries D) The 18th Century A) President B) Parliament C) Prime Minister D)
Q85) A good piece of research is the product of Union Cabinet
Options: Q90) How many members of the Anglo-Indian
A) A good research library B) Collective community can be nominated to the Lok Sabha
scholarship C) A penetrating and analytical mind by the President?
D) A touch of genius Options:
Q86) The horizontal enrichment programme of A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12
instruction means Q91) When you put a question in the class to
Options: check the knowledge of students, the best method
A) Selecting topics of equal difficulty level and would be to
presenting them together. B) Grouping children Options:
of similar abilities for teaching advanced A) Put more than one question at a time to
knowledge C) Teaching topics in relation to other stimulate students B) Frame the question as
topics to suggest self study by students D) lengthy as you can C) To point to intelligent
Enlisting the co-operation of all talented students students first and then put the question D) To
to study together with a competitive spirit pose the question to the whole class and then
Q87) Appetite and satiety centres of brain an select somebody to answer
present in Q92) Research is
Options: Options:
A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebral hemisphere C) A) Data gathering B) Moving from a broad area
Cerebellum D) Medulla oblongata to a narrow and focused area C) A systematic
Q88) The Indian Education Commission (1964- process of finding the truth D) Data gathering,
66) has recommended compulsory social service processing and analysis
for school children as follows Q93) If you were reading a series of articles
Options: about the teaching of reading, you would expect
A) 20 days for the lower secondary stage and 20 to be reading an article by
days for the higher secondary stage B) 10 days Options:
for the primary stage and 30 days the secondary A) Paul McKee B) Albert Harris C) Arthur Gates
stage C) 30 days for the lower secondary and 20 D) Frank Riesman
days for the higher secondary stage D) 1 0 days
Q94) Of the following, the author of a widely
for the lower secondary stage and 20 days for the
used intelligence test is
higher secondary stage
Options:
Q89) Who can amend the Constitution?

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A) David Wechsler B) B F Skinner C) William

Cruiksha D) Bruno Bettelheim Answer Key
Q95) Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is located Q76) A, Q77) A, Q78) B, Q79) A, Q80) D, Q81)
in B, Q82) D, Q83) B, Q84) D, Q85) C, Q86) C,
Options: Q87) C, Q88) C, Q89) B, Q90) A, Q91) D, Q92)
A) Chennai B) Kolkata C) Bangalore D) Mumbai D, Q93) D, Q94) A, Q95) C, Q96) C, Q97) A,
Q98) A, Q99) D, Q100) D,
Q96) Indian Institute of Foreign Trade is situated
in
Options: Q101) Of the following learning theories, the one
that embodies the idea that learning takes place
A) Lucknow B) Dehradun C) New Delhi D)
through insight is known as
Mumbai
Options:
Q97) National Institute of Immunology is
situated in A) Gestalt B) stimulus-response C) connectionist
D) pragmatic
Options:
Q102) Overlearning tends to strengthen an
A) Delhi B) Hyderabad C) Goa D) Kochi
individuals
Q98) A set of test papers from a class of 29
Options:
students has been arranged in order from the
highest to the lowest scores. The mark on the A) powers of retention B) endurance C) feeling
fifteenth paper is known as the of boredom D) motivation

Options: Q103) How many Indian Institutes of

Technology (IIT) are there in India?
A) median B) mean C) mode D) norm
Options:
Q99) Recreational reading should be
A) 16 B) 4 C) 6 D) 3
Options:
Q104) How many Indian Institutes o
A) reserved for the school library period B)
Management (IIM) are there in India?
assigned as homework C) a responsibility of the
home, not the school D) an integral part of the Options:
language arts curriculum A) 13 B) 7 C) 5 D) 8
Q100) When Jeewan receives his failing test Q105) The theory of learning associated with
mark, he tells the teacher, ”You don’t like me.” connectionism was propounded by
This is an example of Options:
Options: A) Socrates B) Pavlov C) Thorndike D)
A) identification B) transference C) egocentrism Kilpatrick
D) projection

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Q106) Evaluation in education insists on the A) Sympathetic nervous system B) Central

following: nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous
Options: system D) Sensory nerves

A) Making tests more reliable and valid B) Q111) The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme
Conducting periodical tests to detect students’ Court are charged on the consolidated fund of
weaknesses C) Insisting on clear cut behaviour al India Because
objectives of teaching D) Examining students Options:
objectively for selection purpose A) they may get salaries regularly every month
Q107) The main purpose of the first degree in our B) their salaries may be free from legislative vote
universities should be to C) there may not be any cut in their salaries D)
Options: their financial position may be secure to enable
them to dispense impartial justice
A) Bring students to frontiers of knowledge and
from there should be research B) Equip students Q112) A member of the Union Public Service
with necessary competencies for different work Commission holds office for a period of
experiences C) Prepare students for socialservice Options:
and bring them to the threshold of knowledge D) A) Five Years B) Seven years C) Six years or
Bring to the frontiers of research with necessary sixty five years of age whichever is more D) Six
equipment of knowledge years or until he attains the age of sixty five
Q108) The idea of starting girls’ University in whichever is earlier
our country started in the year 1970. Q113) Adult education’s main objective is to
Options: Options:
A) As an initiative of the British rulers. B) A) Teach adults to be able to understand’ what
Through the efforts of municipalities and local they read B) Enable the adults to read and write
fund communities C) With the opening of the C) Help adults achieve literacy along it personal
SNDT university at Bombay D) With thepolitical development D) Socialize the adults to move
awakening in the country by the push given by about freely
Mahatma Gandhi
Q114) The idea of sense training in the Monte:
Q109) A good communicator needs to be good at method is based on
Options: Options:
A) Speaking B) Listening C) The use of language A) The theory of transfer of training B) The
D) The use of humour in speech behaviouristic theory of education C) The
Q110) Which controls reflex action? stimulus response theory of learning D) The
Options: pragmatic aspects of education theories
Q115) Which of the following skills/qualities is

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most important for a researcher?

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Options: Creating an educational bias among vocational

A) Desire to discover the truth B) people
Communication skills C) Ability to gather data Q121) The quorum of the Parliament is fixed at
D) Ability to work hard Options:
Q116) The term “Manpower Needs” in any A) one-tenth of the membership of the House B)
country requires the one-third of the membership of the House C)
Options: one-half of the membership of the House D) four-
A) People should be educated in accordance with fifths of the membership of the House
specified jobs requirements B) Enrolments in Q122) The Directive Principles
educational institutions should be decided Options:
according C) Capacities of men should be fully
A) aim at establishing welfare state of Gandhian
utilized for education and training D) Education
conception B) aim at giving ideals to be
at all stages should be geared to promote the
incorporated at a later stage C) aim at giving
powers of the educates
support to the , Fundamental Rights D) A and B
Q117) Spinal nerves are usually only
Options: Q123) In India the executive is responsible
A) Mixed B) Efferent C) Afferent D) Sensory directly to the
Q118) A mixed cranial nerve is Options:
Options: A) Legislature B) President C) Judiciary D) Lok
A) Facial B) Abducens C) Auditory D) Sabha
Oculomotor Q124) The Rajya Sabha is
Q119) Man is superior to other animals mainly Options:
due to A) dissolved once in two years B) dissolved after
Options: every five years C) adjourned every six months
A) Large brain B) Free forelimbs C) Erect D) not subject to dissolution
posture D) Front eyes Q125) Ministers in the Union Cabinet are
Q120) Vocationalisation of education has the appointed by the
object of Options:
Options: A) Prime Minister B) President C) President of
A) Preparing students for a vocation along with India on the advice of the Prime Minister D)
knowledge B) Giving more importance to None of these
vocation than general education C) Converting
liberal education into vocational education D) Answer Key

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Q101) A, Q102) A, Q103) A, Q104) A, Q105) A) Telephoning student’s parents and waiting for
C, Q106) C, Q107) A, Q108) C, Q109) C, Q110) the B) Rushing to the principal’s office and
C, canvassing for help impatiently C) Giving first
Q111) D, Q112) D, Q113) C, Q114) A, Q115) aid to him and trying to contact any nearby doctor
D, Q116) A, Q117) B, Q118) C, Q119) D, Q120) D) Making arrangement to send him to his home
A, Q121) A, Q122) D, Q123) A, Q124) D,Q125) Q131) Effective teaching means
C, Options:
A) Love, cooperation, sympathy, affection and
Q126) The Council of Ministers headed by the encouragement give to students B) Corporal
Prime Minister is responsible to punishment given to students at the time of moral
Options: of-fences C) Individualized instruction and open
classroom discussion D) Both A and C
A) Prime Minister B) President C) Parliament D)
Speaker of Lok Sabha Q132) School children are often victims of
infection caused by
Q127) What is the literal meaning of secularism?
Options:
Options:
A) Mal-nutrition caused by undigested food
A) Freedom to worship any God B) Death of
particles B) Invasion of the body by the plant and
religion C) Separation of religion from the state
animal organisms C) Carelessness of teachers in
D) All of these
providing activities D) Lack of proper exercises
Q128) The real powers in the Central and drills
Government are enjoyed, according to the
Q133) One can be a good teacher, if he
Constitution of India by the
Options:
Options:
A) Has genuine interest in teaching B) knows his
A) President of India B) Vice-President of India
subjects C) knows how to control students D)
C) Prime Minister of India D) Chief Ministers
Has good expression
Q129) The abbreviation SUPW means
Q134) Drop outs are more likely to be
Options:
Options:
A) Social Upsurge for Progress and Work B)
A) Vulnerable to the requirement of public
Scientific Utilization for People and World C)
assistance B) Unemployed C) Engaged in
Socially Useful and Productive Work D)
antisocial behaviour D) All of these
Solution of Utilitarian Problems of Work
Q135) Genu and splenium are associated with
Q130) If a student becomes unconscious in the
class what will you do first? Options:

Options: A) Medulla oblongata’s B) Cerebrum C)

Cerebellum D) Vermis
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Q136) Parkinson's disease is of University Education Commission D) The

Options: Technical Education Commission

A) Heart B) kidneys C) Brain D) Lungs Q143) The best way to react to wrong answer by
a student is
Q137) The professional requirements of ateacher
as explained in the UNESCO publicationis/ are Options:

Options: A) To scold him for not having learnt lesson B)

To explain why the answer is wrong C) To ignore
A) Innovativeness in approach and teaching
the wrong answer and pass on to the next
strategies B) Mastery over the subject and
question D) To ask another student to give the
competency for teaching C) Justice to the
corn answer
profession D) All of the above
Q144) The trial and error method of learning
Q139) Students should prefer those teachers who
according to Thorndike could be classified as
Options: under
A) Give important questions before examination Options:
B) Dictate notes in the class C) Can clear their
A) The principle of multiple responses B) The
difficulties regarding subject-matter D) Are
law of exercise C) The principle of partial
themselves disciplined
activity D) The principle of Associative learning
Q140) Students learn more from a teacher who is
Q145) Liberalism in education, when it was
Options: claimed by universities of the world since the
A) One who communicates his ideas precisely 19th century, meant
and clearly? B) Affectionate C) Gently D) Hard Options:
working
A) Freedom to be given to education from the
Q141) The most important skill of teaching is clutches of religion B) Favouring liberal
Options: education as opposed to special education C)
Academic freedom for teachers in instruction D)
A) making students understand what the teacher
Administrative freedom to universities to run the
says B) keeping students relaxed while teaching
institution
C) Covering the course prescribed in his subject
D) Taking classes regularly Q146) The term ’Evaluation’ and ’Assessment’
could be discriminated as follows:
Q142) A technical educational cess was
recommended to be levied in our country’ the Options:
first time by A) Assessment is limited to coverage
Options: achievement whereas evaluation is qualitative in
character B) Evaluation is concerned with the
A) The Secondary Education Commission B)
effective aspects of achievement whereas
The International Education Commission C) The
assessment judges the cognitive aspects C)
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Evaluation involves the measurement as well as Q126) C, Q127) C, Q128) C, Q129) C, Q130) C,
diagnosis of students’ attainments, whereas Q131) D, Q132) B, Q133) A, Q134) D, Q135)
assessment is concerned with only scholars-tic C, Q136) C, Q137) D, Q138) C, Q139) C, Q140)
attainments. D) Assessment is an attempt to D, Q141) A, Q142) A, Q143) B, Q144) A,
measure the pupil as whole whereas evaluation is Q145) C, Q146) C, Q147) A, Q148) B, Q149)
concerned with his achievement only A, Q150) A,
Q147) Naturalism in education means
Options: Q151) The pair of terms incorrectly associated is
A) Introduction of physical sciences in education Options:
B) Giving more importance to mind than to A) IQ-relationship between MA and CA B)
matter C) Making discrimination between mind validity-measure of consistency in testing C)
and consciousness D) Supporting both mind and inkblot-projective testing D) median-the middle
consciousness equally score
Q148) In a class of ten pupils the grades in a Q152) ”School is life, not a preparation for life.”
spelling test were 97 − 97 − 97 − 9 − 9 − 8 − 76 This statement summarizes one important aspect
− 73 − 6 − 60 The mode of those scores is of educational philosophy of
Options: Options:
A) 92 B) 97 C) 97 minus 60 divided by D) the A) John Dewey B) Robert Hutchins C) Mortimer
sum of the scores divided by 10 Adler D) SI Hayakawa
Q149) Of the following intelligence tests, the one Q153) Of the following, the educator who is not
which is individually administered is the an advocate of radical educational reform
Options: Options:
A) WISC B) Pintner-Cunningham Primary C) A) Postman B) Illich C) Bestor D) Kozol
Army Alpha D) Kuhlman-Anderson
Q154) All of the following are correct paired
Q150) With respect to the development of skills, except
all of the following are correct except that
Options:
Options:
A) Froebel -progressivism B) Dewey –
A) pupils of the same mental age should learn at pragmatism C) Skinner–Gestalt D) Herbart–
the same rate B) group instruction facilitates the apperception
learning process C) learning individual
Q155) The most powerful Upper Chamber in the
instruction is often required D) workbooks can
world is
be an invaluable learning aid
Options:
Answer Key

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A) American Senate B) British House of Lords Q161) All of the following are advantages of
C) Rajya Sabha of the Indian Republic D) None teaching machines except
of the above Options:
Q156) The President of India is A) the control of cheating B) the tracking of
Options: errors C) the insurance of attention D) their
A) The head of the State B) The head of the universal use for different kinds of programmes
Government C) The head of the State as well as Q162) Holding of elections for the village
Government D) All of these Panchayat is decided by
Q157) As per Indian Protocol, who among the Options:
following ranks highest in the order of A) The Collector B) The Election Commission
precedence? C) The Central Government D) The State
Options: Government
A) Deputy Prime Minister B) Former President Q163) The industrial revolution that started in
C) Governor of a State within his State D) the West to begin with had the following effect
Speaker of Lok Shaba on education
Q158) A bill becomes a law when Options:
Options: A) Shifting the emphasis from the lower class
A) Both Houses of Parliament approve it by culture to the middle class culture B) Shifting the
requisite majority B) The Council of Ministers centre of gravity from the middle to the lower
approves it C) The President gives his assent D) class culture C) Introduction of mass educational
The Supreme Court upholds its constitutional programmes D) In production of
validity vocationalisation of education

Q159) Mainstreaming is a term associated with Q164) Any deterrents are negative in character

Options: Options:

A) career education B) education for the A) When they prevent children from doing
handicapped C) interage class groupings D) wrong B) When they prevent doing wrong but do
environmental education not reform children C) When they are
administered owing to some misunderstanding
Q160) Most students in medieval universities
D) When they are administered with a negative
learned by
motive
Options:
Q165) Industries near the towns cause
A) laboratory experimentation B) reading the
Options:
Bible C) listening to lectures D) studying in
libraries A) Pollution B) Finished material C) Security D)
Employment

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Q166) Out of the following, in which lesson, a Options:

general rule is explained first and then,
knowledge is accumulated on the basis of that
rule?
Options:
A) Deductive lesson B) Inductive lesson C)
Developing lesson D) knowledge lesson
Q167) In the project education technique, the
work load on the teacher is
Options:
A) very high B) comparatively low C) low D) nil
Q168) Why do you not support the five-stage
method of Herbart?
Options:
A) In this, there is no scope for the individual
diversity of students B) Under this, it is difficult
to make coordination between various subjects
C) Under this, generalization is not required to be
done while teaching subjects like language,
history, geography etc. D) all of these
Q169) Who is known as the father of educational
psychology?
Options:
A) Pestology B) Devy C) Herbart D) Spencer
Q170) The educational system of today promotes
”educated unemployment”. The reason is that
Options:
A) education gives theoretical knowledge only
B) professional education is not a part of
education C) the objective of education is not
vivid D) all of these
Q171) In the school, “education on environment”
can be imparted by

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A) lectures B) articles C) sports D)
adopting itourselves
Q172) Indian Institute of Advanced
studies islocated in
Options:
A) Shimla B) Solan C)
Dharmshala D)Chandigarh
Q173) Air Force Administrative
College issituated in
Options:
A) Hyderabad B) Coimbatore C) Bidar
D) AgraQ174) Indian School of Mines
is situated at Options:
A) Patna (Bihar) B) Dhanbad
(Jharkhand) C)Kolkata (W. Bengal) D)
Guwahati (Assam)
Q175) What is the full form of MCA?
Options:
A) Ministry of Commerce & Agriculture
B) Master of Computer Application C)
Member Chartered Accountant D) Master
of Commerce & Arts
Answer Key
Q151) B, Q152) A, Q153) C, Q154) C,
Q155) A, Q156) A, Q157) C, Q158) C,
Q159) B, Q160) C, Q161) D, Q162) D,
Q163) B, Q164) B, Q165) A, Q166) A,
Q167) A, Q168) D, Q169) C, Q170) B,
Q171) D, Q172) A, Q173) B, Q174) B,
Q175) B,

Q176) Immediate feedback is an

essentialcharacteristic of
Options:

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A) team teaching B) teaching machines C) the Q181) If a student is constantly rubbing his eyes
Dalton Plan D) the project method and is inattentive during blackboard work he is
Q177) Of the following objectives of an having
elementary music programme, the one of lowest Options:
priority is A) Adjustment problem B) Hearing problem C)
Options: Visual problem D) All of the above
A) to expose children to a variety of musical Q182) Play therapy is adopted in the study of
compositions B) to prepare children for wise use children in order to
of leisure time C) to develop a group of Options:
performers for the holiday assemblies D) to
A) Make the educational process joyful B) To
provide children with emotional outlets
understand the inner motives and complexes of
Q178) With regard to readiness to read, all of children C) Make education more activity
these statements are true except that centred D) Highlight the importance of play
Options: activities in education
A) some psychologists believe that a child is not Q183) The most powerful barrier of
ready to begin reading until he/ she has achieved communication in the classroom is
a mental age of about six years B) a strong desire Options:
to read is a determining factor C) a reading
A) Noise in the classroom B) Confusion on the
readiness programme may begin for some
part of the teacher C) Lack of teaching aids D)
children in kindergarten D) physical maturation
More outside disturbance in the class room
is a crucial factor
Q184) It is said that there is an urgent need of
Q179) It is absurd to say that there can be
articulation among schools and colleges, this
Options: problem of articulation is concerned with
A) A pollution due to noise B) Education causes Options:
pollution C) Transport vehicles cause pollution
A) Provision of better administrative facilities B)
D) All of the above
Appointment of talented teachers C)
Q180) Which of the following will not hamper Communication and closer relationship among
effective communication in the class? teachers D) Better facilities for in-service
Options: training of teachers
A) An ambiguous statement B) A lengthy Q185) The most important challenge before a
statement C) A precise statement D) A statement teacher is
which allows the listener to draw his own Options:
conclusions
A) To maintain discipline in the classroom B) To
make students do their home work C) To prepare

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question paper D) To make teaching-learning A) the testing of intelligence began in Germany

process enjoyable B) the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children
Q186) The idea that Basic Education is education (WISC) is a group test C) the Rorschach test uses
through crafts inkblots D) the Thematic Apperception Test
(TAT) is easy to interpret
Options:
Q191) Heterogeneous grouping best serves the
A) True as far as the rural areas are concerned B)
aims of a democratic society because
The whole truth of the schemes C) The complete
truth even for urban areas D) True to some extent Options:
only because the concept is deeper A) parents prefer it B) pupils prefer it C) it
Q187) The joint sittings of the Union Parliament minimizes class distinctions D) it is the best
may be summoned for environment for learning

Options: Q192) The Lok Sabha secretariat comes under

the control of
A) Special address of the President B) Annual
address of the President C) President’s Options:
occasional messages of national significance D) A) Ministry of Home Affairs B) Speaker of the
Resolution of the dead lock between the two Lok Sabha C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Houses on a non-money bill D) Prime Minister
Q188) Who appoints the comptroller an Auditor- Q193) Who examines the of the Comptroller and
General of India? Auditor-General of India after it is laid before
Options: Parliament?

A) The U.P.S.C. B) The President C) The Prime Options:

Minister D) The Parliament A) Lok Sabha Speaker B) Estimates Committee
Q189) A frequency distribution is best defined as C) Public Accounts Committee D) None of the
the above

Options: Q194) Of great importance in determining the

amount of transference that occurs in learning is
A) number of scores above the median score B)
the
number of pupils scoring above the median score
C) number of test items attend correctly by a Options:
majority of the class D) number of pupils who A) IQ of the learner B) Knowledge of the teacher
received each score on a test C) use of appropriate materials D) presence of
Q190) With regard to standardized testing, which identical elements
of the following statements is correct? Q195) Which one of the following High Courts
Options: has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andamanand
Nicobar Islands

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Options: Options:
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Calcutta C) Madras D) A) Uplift the humanistic values beyond these
Orissa narrow walls and develop scientific temper in
Q196) In case of absence of President and Vice- your students B) Rebel against such attitudes as
President, which of the following acts as the it is against the norms of the India society C) Be
president of country submissive there and save your job at all costs D)
None of the above
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) Speaker of Lok Sabha C)
Chief Justice of India D) Leader of opposition Answer Key

Q197) Which of the following subjects does not Q176) B, Q177) C, Q178) D, Q179) B, Q180)
belong to the Union List? C, Q181) C, Q182) B, Q183) B, Q184) C, Q185)
D, Q186) D, Q187) D, Q188) B, Q189) D,
Options:
Q190) C, Q191) C, Q192) C, Q193) C, Q194) D,
A) Atomic Energy B) War and Peace C) Post Q195) B, Q196) C, Q197) D, Q198) B, Q199)A,
office Savings Bank D) Public Health and Q200) A,
Sanitation
Q198) President can be removed on charges o
Q201) Suppose you want to teach your students
violating the Constitution by
to develop factual knowledge of a subject. Which
Options: of the following methods would be suitable in
A) No-confidence motion B) Impeachment C) your opinion?
Electoral College of Legislative Assemblies D) Options:
Prime Minister
A) The demonstration method B) The lecturer
Q199) The term prejudice in a person is colored method C) The heuristic method D) The source
by method
Options: Q202) Judicial Review’ is the power of the
A) A hasty judgment about a situation with an higher court to declare unconstitutional any
unfavourable B) Judgment and assessment of a I) Law passed by legislature II) Judgment of the
situation without any favouritism C) Partial lower court III) Order of the executive Choose
observation and acquaintance of a situation the from the following choices
without any motives D) Pre-judgment of a
Options:
situation with a view to settle a conflict in haste
A) I and II only B) III only C) I and III only D) I,
Q200) Suppose you are teaching in a minority
II and III
college where castism and arrow mindedness
victimize you, for better adjustment there you Q203) How many types of emergency can be
should declared by the President of India?

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Options: A) State List B) Union List C) Concurrent List

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 D) None of the above

Q204) The retirement age of a Supreme Court Q209) Fundamental Rights of the citizens are
Judge is Options:
Options: A) non-justifiable B) justifiable C) justifiable if
A) 55 years B) 58 years C) 62 years D) 65 years the highest court feels it should be D) Some
rights are justifiable
Q205) The Prime Minister is
Q210) Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens
Options:
are contained in .......... Of the ’Indian
A) nominated by the President B) elected by the Constitution’
Chief Ministers of States C) is the leader of the
Options:
majority party of Lok Sabha D) is the leader of
the majority party of Rajya Sabha A) part I B) part II C) part III D) part IV

Q206) Why are the Fundamental Rights Q211) Freedom of the Press as such
considered fundamental? Options:
Options: A) has been guaranteed by the Constitution B)
A) Necessary for the successful working of has not been expressly guaranteed by the
democratic institution B) Basic to the welfare, Constitution C) both (a) and (b) D) None of the
dignity and happiness of the individual C) above
Constitution is based on these D) Only I and II Q212) Administrative Law means
Q207) The President’s Rule is imposed in a State Options:
orid a Union Territory when the A) law passed by the Union B) law or rules made
Options: by the executive C) laws relating to
A) Governor of a State or the Chief administration of non-Governmental institutions
Commissioner or Governor advises the President D) all the above
to do so because the Government in that Q213) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha sit
State/Territory cannot be carried on in jointly when
accordance with the provisions of the Options:
Constitution B) Chief Minister of a State requests
A) they like B) there is a disagreement between
to this effect C) Chief’ Justice of the State High
the two (Houses) C) the President summons both
Court recommends through the Governor D)
the Houses D) they must meet when two years
Prime Minister knows best
have lapsed after the last meeting
Q208) Agriculture, including research and
Q214) Who administers the Union Territories?
education, falls in
Options:
Options:
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A) The President through the Administrators C) Implement community development project

appointed by him’ B) The Prime Minister ofIndia schemes D) Deal with financial matters of the
C) The Law Minister, Government of India Panchayat
D) The Attorney-General of India Q220) Of the doctrine of immanence it can be
Q215) Directive Principles of State Policy aim at said truthfully that it
Options: Options:
A) ensuring individual liberty B) ensuring and A) Pictures the world as an unfriendly place B)
strengthening the country’s independence C) Implies that knowledge of the good is in the
protecting the depressed classes D) providing world about us C) distrusts the senses and
social and economic base for genuine democracy unaided reason D) Supports Plato’s theory of
in the country reality
Q216) Usually a Gram Panchayat is not Q221) The sociologist feels that, if men expect to
responsible for put an end to prejudice and race conflict, they
Options: will have to give major attention to

A) construction of village roads and tanks B) Options:

sanitation, maternity and child welfare C) A) Legislating human rights for minorities B)
financing of agriculturists D) agricultural Putting into effect the ”melting pot theory” C)
production Re-establishing ethnocentrism D) Remedying
Q217) What does the Panchayati Raj System social abuses and reducing conflict
signify? Q222) Boarding schools are considered to be
Options: better than the day schools because

A) single-tier structure of local Government B) Options:

Double-tier system of self Government C) Three- A) They help children in their social
tier structure of local Govt. at the village, block development B) They are helpful in freeing
and district level D) None of these parents from their responsibilities C) They save
Q218) The Chairman and the members of State the trouble for children to walk to school from
Public Service Commission are appointed by the homes D) They are meant for homeless and
parentless children
Options:
Q223) Which one of the following is an ODD
A) President B) Governor C) Chairman of UPSC
statement?
D) Prime Minister
Options:
Q219) The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to
A) Majority of teachers use lectures method B)
Options:
knowledge is static C) Most of the classrooms are
A) Deal with rural industrialization B) Deal with poorly equipped D) One way interaction prevails
administration of justice at the Panchayat level in the classrooms
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Q224) Which has the greatest potential for thought of learning in pragmatic terms whereas
education through audio-visual means? White Head thought in terms of cultural aspects
Options: C) Dewey thought of learning as an end in it
where as White Head thought about it as a means
A) SITE programmes B) Teaching machine C)
D) Dewey thought of learning in experimental
The language laboratory D) The Computer
terms while white Head thought of it in more
Q225) Teaching in higher education implies esthetic terms.
Options: Q228) Effective teaching, by and large is a
A) Asking questions in the class and conducting function of
examinations B) Presenting the informationgiven Options:
in the text book C) Helping students to prepare
A) Teacher’s honesty B) Teacher’s scholarship
for and pass the examination D) Helpingstudents
C) Teacher’s making students learn and
how to learn
understand D) Teacher likes for the job of
Answer Key teaching
Q201) B, Q202) C, Q203) B, Q204) D, Q205) Q229) Cultural pluralism is based on the concept
C, Q206) D, Q207) A, Q208) A, Q209) B, Q210) that
C, Q211) B, Q212) B, Q213) B, Q214) A, Q215)
Options:
D, Q216) C, Q217) C, Q218) B, Q219) C, Q220)
B, Q221) A, Q222) A, Q223) A, Q224) A, A) America is the ”Melting Pot” for various
Q225) D, foreign stocks B) The American culture for all C)
It is incompatible with democracy D) Our culture
is variegated and dynamic, each group of
Q226) Any deterrents are negative in character immigrants contributing towards its enrichment
Options: Q230) To say that the adolescents are rebellions
A) When they prevent children from doing in nature, will be regarded by experts as
wrong B) When they prevent doing wrong but do Options:
not reform children C) When they are
A) A misconception B) A necessary character at
administered owing to some misunderstanding
that stage C) And objective description of facts
D) When they are administered with a negative
D) An effect of the environment
motive
Q231) The competency of a teacher can be
Q227) The approach to the concept of learning
judged on the basis
was different for Dewey and White Head in the
following sense: Options:

Options: A) Length of service B) Publication of books C)

Meeting needs of students D) Personality of
A) Dewey’s approach was logical whereas White
teacher
Head’s approach was philosophical B) Dewey

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Q232) A teacher who believes in the realistic motor development of emotions D) Affective
philosophy of education would aspects of development
Options: Q236) The state of the psyche designated as
A) Support strict control and supervision to make super ego by the Psycho analysts, if found
children understand human race and culture B) Options:
Not allow control and pressure on students to A) In higher animal also B) Among human
learn what they want to learn C) Oppose beings alone C) Among men practicing yogic
supervision and interference of the teacher with exercises D) Among men and animals as well
the interests of students. D) Allow full freedom
Q237) As an idealist, which of the following
to students in learning, following a non-
maxim would you think to correct about the
interference policy.
problem of discipline?
Q233) Liberalism in education, when it was
Options:
claimed by universities of the world since the
19th century, meant A) The child should be trained to practice
restraint with only limited freedom B) Discipline
Options:
should be imposed from outsiders and teachers
A) Freedom to be given to education from the with full control C) The child should be allowed
clutches of religion B) Favouring liberal full-freedom without any restraint D) The child
education as opposed to special education C) is subjected to fear and control to train him to
Academic freedom for teachers in instruction D) desist from doing wrong
Administrative freedom to universities to run the
Q238) Fundamental duties of citizens were
institution
provided
Q234) My reaction to the statement: A good
Options:
teacher is essentially a good researcher” is that
this is A) Education department B) By the school
principle C) h. r. D. Ministry D) In the
Options:
Constitution of India
A) My firm belief B) Something find difficult to
Q239) Afferent nerve Fibres carry impulses from
agree to C) Something which I accept only as an
opinion D) Only a hypothesis Options:
Q235) The development of feelings of A) Effectors organs to CNS B) CNS to receptor
appreciation and interests come under the C) Receptors to CNS D) CNS to muscles
category of Q240) Education cultivates faculties which are
Options: Options:
A) Cognitive development of personality B) A) Moral B) Aesthetic C) Intellectual D) All of
Cognitive developmental aspects C) Psycho- these

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Q241) Object of education according to Options:

Durkheim is
Options:
A) Cultivate physical activities B) Awaken the
child to learn C) Games and competition D) All
of the above
Q242) Which of the following statement is in
correct?
Options:
A) U.S.A., in the year 1937, the Federal
Government felt the necessity of population
education in order to check the decline of
population and to increase the same. But
gradually that country felt the need of such
education in order to check the high growth of
population. Thus the term population education
is applied either to increase or to de-crease the
rate of growth of population as per the need of
situation of a nation of the world. B) ’Population
Education’, which is one of the recent topics that
we have introduced in our syllabus, was first used
in Sweden in 1935, when the population
education commission of the country to generate
public awareness about the increase of the rate of
growth C) The purpose of population education
is to develop awareness and understanding of the
relations between population growth and national
development both in short and long run and to
develop and understanding of the consequences
of individual decisions in the important area of
reproductive behaviour . A population awareness
programme, there-fore, should be provided the
facts of population dynamic, of family life, of
human reproduction that children will need. D)
None of these
Q243) Nerve transmission is

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A) Mechanical process B) Chemical Q249) A ganglion connected with spinal reflex is
process C)Biological process D) Physical present in
process Options:
Q244) In the Rajya Sabha, the States
have beenprovided
Options:
A) Equal representation B) Representation
on the ’basis of population C)
Representation on the basis of population
and size D) Representation onthe basis of
size
Q245) The Controller and Auditor-
General of India acts as the chief
accountant and auditor for the
Options:
A) Union Government B) State
Governments C) Union and State
Governments D) Neither Union nor State
Governments
Q246) Education is a subject in the
Options:
A) Union list B) State list C) Concurrent
list D)None of the lists
Q247) In which of the following states
was thePanchayati Raj first introduced?
Options:
A) Rajasthan B) Gujarat C) Uttar
Pradesh D)Bihar
Q248) Which Writ is issued by a High
Court or the Supreme Court to compel an
authority to perform a function that it was
not performing?
Options:
A) Writ of certiorari B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
C) Writ of Mandamus D) Writ of Quo Warrant

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A) White matter around grey matter of spinal subject in the curriculum C) Implement the study
cord B) Dorsal root of a spinal nerve C) Ventral of subject for its inherent values to fulfil the
horn of grey matter D) Ventral root of a spinal needs of students D) Care more for the content
nerve aspects than for the methodological
Q250) The student centred plan is most Q253) Twelve pairs of ribs and twelve pairs of
favourable in the matter of nerves occurs in
Options: Options:
A) Articulation B) Balance C) Continuity D) All A) Fish B) Snake C) Frog D) Man
of the above Q254) The interaction between teachers and
students or between buyers and sellers is
classified by the sociologists as a social inter
action of
Options:
Answer Key
A) The secondary type B) The multiple types C)
Q226) B, Q227) D, Q228) D, Q229) D, Q230)
The primary type D) The responsive type One
A, Q231) C, Q232) A, Q233) C, Q234) A, Q235)
undertakes research
D, Q236) B, Q237) A, Q238) D, Q239) A,
Q240) D, Q241) D, Q242) D, Q243) D, Q244) Q255) One undertakes research
B, Q245) C, Q246) C, Q247) A, Q248) C, Q249) Options:
B, Q250) A, A) To verify what has already been established
Q251) The term “Co-curricular activities” is a B) To describe and explain a new phenomenon
popular one for all educational institutions. C) To refute what has already been accepted as a
Which of the following would you regard as a co- fact D) To do one or the other of the above
curricular activity? Q256) Who realized the urgent need for the
Options: reform of rigid, lifeless, meaningless curriculum
A) Debating competitions B) Collection of funds Options:
for school building C) Foot-ball matches D) A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Jawahar Lai Nehru C)
Tournaments Subhash Chandra Bose D) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Q252) If a curriculum maker follows the Q257) An effective teacher adopts the norms of
subjective theory of values in education, he will’ the:
Options: Options:
A) Not insist on the inclusive of any subject in A) Autocratic society B) Laissez-faire society C)
the curriculum if pupils or parents are not Democratic society D) All of the above
interested in it B) Disregard the interests of
Q258) The most desirable outcome of higher
children the parents for the inclusive of any

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education is:

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Options: Options:
A) Acquisition of higher order thinking skills B) A) Shortage of educational institutions B)
Training of individual C) Acquisition of Requirement of educated people C) Dynamics of
knowledge D) Increase in academic achievement knowledge explosion D) Urge to learn more and
Q259) The tool that describes the degrees of more
dimensions being observed Q265) While dealing with juvenile delinquents a
Options: teacher should:

A) Opinionnaire B) Rating scale C) Inventory D) Options:

Questionnaire A) Talk with them frankly and guide and
Q260) The educationist who stressed the social channelize their potentialities in constructive
of education. ways B) Complain to the principal against them
C) Play them with filthy jokes D) None of the
Options:
above
A) Froebel B) John Dewey C) Prof. Bagley D)
Q266) According to 'Herbert Spencer', education
Herbart
is:
Q261) Intrinsic motivation means:
Options:
Options:
A) Harmonious development B) Complete living
A) Desire to perform activities because they are aim C) Morality D) Drawing out of best
rewarding B) To take lead to achieve goals C)
Q267) Use of telecast materials:
Desire that arises within the organism D) All of
the above Options:

Q262) Which one of the following is not A) Reduces the burden of the teacher B)
considered as a Regional College of Education? Increases retention power C) Enhances
concentration and learning D) All of the above
Options:
Q268) Stephen M.Corey is associated with:
A) Mumbai B) Mysore C) Ajmer D) Bhopal
Options:
Q263) If majority of students in your class are
weak you should: A) None of the above B) Scientific research C)
Action research D) Applied research
Options:
Q269) Classroom discipline can be maintained
A) Not care about the intelligent students B) keep
effectively by:
your teaching slow C) keep your speed of
teaching fast D) keep your teaching slow along Options:
with some extra guidance A) Providing a programme which is according to
Q264) Lifelong learning' has developed because the need and interest of the pupils B) By putting
of: on fancy clothes in the classroom C) knowing the

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cause of indiscipline and handling it with stern A) New education policy B) Wardha education
hand D) None of the above plan C) Essential education D) Universal
Q270) Perception, Retention and recall are: education

Options:
A) Task variables B) Receiver variables C) Answer Key
Source variables D) Message variables Q251) A, Q252) C, Q253) A, Q254) A, Q255)
Q271) A newcomer teacher who is maltreated in A, Q256) A, Q257) C, Q258) A, Q259) B, Q260)
his class will deal with the students by: B, Q261) D, Q262) A, Q263) D, Q264) C, Q265)
A, Q266) B, Q267) C, Q268) C, Q269) A, Q270)
Options:
C, Q271) B, Q272) C, Q273) D, Q274) C, Q275)
A) Changing his class after consultation with the B,
principal B) Improving his qualities and
expressing it before them in a good way C)
Punishing them D) Giving them a threat of Q276) Values are:
expulsion Options:
Q272) National Institute of Education is situated A) Intrinsic B) Ultimate C) Extrinsic D) All of
at: the above
Options: Q277) To gain popularity among students,
A) Kolkata B) Madras C) Delhi D) Mumbai teacher should:

Q273) Which of the following is true about our Options:

modern evaluation system in university A) Frequently organize tours B) Dictates notes
education? while teaching C) Personally help them in their
Options: studies D) Maintain good social relations

A) It doesn't encourage the habit of regular study Q278) The statement 'value is that which satisfies
B) It doesn't encourage students to attend their human desire' is by:
classes regularly C) it asses the acquisition of Options:
knowledge by cramming D) All of the above A) Allport B) I..S Mill C) B. Russell D) W.H
Q274) The psychological aspects of the Urban
classroom is best managed by: Q279) A student tries to solve a problem without
Options: any help from a teacher. The teacher should:
A) Counsellor B) Peers C) Class teacher D) Options:
Principal A) Pay no attention to her/him B) Scold him/her
Q275) Basic education is also known as: for foolishness C) Offer help to solve his problem
Options: D) Appraise his/her individual effort

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Q280) Informal education means:

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Options: Q287) Which of the following teaching method

A) Natural B) In artificial C) Artificial D) Artless is more effective?

Q281) One can be a good teacher if she/he: Options:

Options: A) Deductive method B) Discussion method C)

Lecture method D) Textbox method
A) knows how to control students B) knows
his/her subject C) Has genuine interest in Q288) UGC was established on:
teaching D) Has good expression Options:
Q282) The largest producers of highly educated A) 1958 B) 1949 C) 1953 D) 1935
man power. Q289) One will have more chances of being
Options: successful as a teacher, if
A) NIEPA B) NAAC C) NCERT D) UGC Options:
Q283) There will be better communication in a A) He is trained in teaching B) He is competent
lecture if a teacher: enough in his subject C) He belongs to the family
Options: of teachers D) He can organize his teaching
material systematically and conveys the same
A) Prepares the notes well in advance and use
effectively
them as a guide B) Talks extempore C) Reads
from prepared notes D) Talks extempore drawing Q290) Which is true in higher education?
examples from other disciplines Options:
Q284) Which one of the following is not a A) Right pupils receive right education B) All
professional education? cannot learn C) All can learn, but all do not learn
Options: D) All can learn, so all learn

A) Nursing B) Teacher education C) Medicine Q291) Which of the following is most important
D) None of the above for a teacher?

Q285) Effective teaching, is function of: Options:

Options: A) School B) Students C) Discipline D) Teaching

A) Teacher's honesty B) Teachers making Q292) An effective teacher:

students learn and understand C) Maintaining Options:
discipline in the class D) Teachers liking for the A) Is a strict disciplinarian B) Is a continuous
job of teaching learner C) Is the master of the subject D) Uses
Q286) Indian Institute of Advanced study is many teaching aids
situated at: Q293) If a principal of your college, charge you
Options: with the act of negligence of duties, how would
A) Hyderabad B) Simla C) Madras D) Bangalore you behave with him?

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Options: A) Provides a variety of learning experiences B)

A) You would neglect him B) You would take a Teaching the prescribed curriculum C)
tough stand against the charges C) You would Explaining everything D) Strict reinforcement of
take revenge by giving physical and mental academic standards
agony to him D) You would keep yourself alert Q299) Micro teaching is for:
in discharging your duties Options:
Q294) Which one of the following is not a A) Developing skills of learning B) Developing
Central University? teaching skills C) Developing proficiency in
Options: subjects D) All the above
A) Madras University B) Viswa Bharathi Q300) The first important step in teaching is:
Shanthiniketha C) Aligarh Muslim University D) Options:
Banaras Hindu University
A) knowing the background of students B)
Q295) Why will you ask questions from students Planning beforehand C) Organizing materials to
during the course of a lecture? be taught D) None of these
Options: Answer Key
A) To learn which one of the students is the Q276) D, Q277) C, Q278) D, Q279) D, Q280)
brightest one B) To learn whether students are A, Q281) C, Q282) D, Q283) D, Q284) D,
understanding the lecture or not C) Are the Q285) B, Q286) B, Q287) B, Q288) C, Q289) D,
students carefully listening to your lecture D) To Q290) A, Q291) B, Q292) B, Q293) D, Q294)A,
assist the students Q295) C, Q296) D, Q297) C, Q298) A, Q299)B,
Q296) The learning theory 'progressivism' is Q300) A,
associated with:
Options: Q301) Discussion in the class will be more
A) Montessori B) Rousseau C) Dewey D) effective if the topic of discussion is:
Froebel Options:
Q297) Education is a subject in the: A) Informed to the students well in advance B)
Options: Written on the board without introducing it C)
A) State list B) Union list C) Concurrent list D) Not introduced D) Stated just before the start of
None of the above discussion

Q298) The teacher's major contribution towards Q302) The innovative system for major
the maximum development of the child is education to learn while learn is:
through: Options:
Options: A) Non-formal education B) Open Universities
C) Informal education D) Navodaya Vidyalayas
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Q303) Which of the years, IGNOU was set up? Q310) Internship is must for teacher education,
Options: because it provides:

A) 1986 B) 1958 C) 1953 D) 1985 Options:

Q304) Which commission has recommended the A) Complete School Environment B) Content
formulation of UGC in India? Courses C) Practical Courses D) Result
Preparation.
Options:
Q311) Who said for nearly half a century, the
A) National Planning Commission B) University
examination has been recognized as one of the
Education Commission C) kothari Commission
worst features of Indian Education.
D) None of the above
Options:
Q305) The main function of UGC:
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad B) Dr. Radha Krishna C)
Options:
Dr. Laxman swamy Mudaliar D) Dr. tara chand
A) Management B) Finance C) Research D) All
Q312) When was National Policy on education
the above
formulated?
Q306) A university teacher should normally
Options:
concentrate on:
A) Aug, 1986 B) Jan, 1986 C) March, 1988 D)
Options:
Oct, 1988.
A) Research B) Guidance C) Teaching D) All the
Q313) Who gave the slogan 'Each one teach
above
one'?
Q307) Who contributed mainly for the
Options:
establishment of the university at Pondicherry?
A) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan B) Mahatma Gandhi
Options:
C) Dr. Khurana D) Maulana Azad.
A) R.N.Tagore B) j. l. Nehru C) Sri Aurobindo
Q314) The wandering teachers during the Vedic
D) Vivekananda.
age were called?
Q308) Who founded the 'Asiatic Society of
Options:
Bengal'?
A) Gurus B) Atmans C) Charakas D) Brahmana
Options:
Q315) The Name of great ancient Nalanda
A) David Hare B) William Jones C) William
University library was?
Carey D) Raja Ram Mohan Ray
Options:
Q309) This is what he should do'. Is a sentence
known as: A) Buddha B) Langha C) Dharmganj D)
Dharmartha.
Options:
Q316) Macaulay wrote his famous minute on
A) Atidesa B) Upadesa C) Both D) Neither
educational policy on?

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Options: A) Selection of students B) Planning for

A) 16th February B) 8th February C) 1st academic work C) Progress and Promotion of
February D) 2nd February teachers D) All above

Q317) Vidhayak sentences can be classified as: Q324) Cause of falling universities standard are:

Options: Options:

A) Upadesaka B) Atidesa C) Both D) Neither A) Lack of Facilities B) Traditional methods of

teaching C) Lack of Library D) All above.
Q318) In which year a committee of Public
instruction was set up? Q325) Evaluation of the teacher-trainee should
be in the field of:
Options:
Options:
A) 1821 a. d. B) 1822 a. d. C) 1823 a. d. D) 1824
a. d. A) Education Theory B) Community Work C)
Methodology D) All above
Q319) Which of the following is not an advisory
board of education? Q326) For the revival of Vedic learning, who
raised the Slogan of 'Back to the Vedas '?
Options:
Options:
A) CABE B) HRD C) UGC D) NCERT.
A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati B) Swami
Q320) Who govern the academic policies of the
Vivekanand C) Rabindra Nath Tagore D) Keshav
collages of education?
Chandra Sen
Options:
Q327) How many articles are there in National
A) UGC B) NEPA C) NCTE D) NCERT Policy on Education 1986?
Q321) Higher education was given during Vedic Options:
Period in:
A) 150 B) 157 C) 160 D) 158
Options:
Q328) During Vedic Age pupil were called?
A) Gurukuls B) Charan C) Shakhas D) All above
Options:
Q322) Which University was not established
A) Brahmana B) Brahmachari C) Charka D)
during 1854-1858:
None of these.
Options:
Q329) The 'Upanayana' of given was closed in?
A) Calcutta University B) Madras University C)
Options:
Punjab University D) Bombay
A) 500 AD B) 600 AD C) 700 AD D) 800 AD
Q323) University Areas of autonomy are:
Q330) Who raised the slogan 'Each one teach
Options:
one'?

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Options:

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A) j. l Nehru B) Mahatma Gandhi. C) Maulana A) Thurstone in 1932 B) Chave in 1929 C) Likert

Azad. D) None of these. D) Thurstone and Chave both as co-authors.
Q331) At the time of independence, there were Q338) The Charter Act of 1813 Provided how
how many universities? much as annual expenditure for the revival and
Options: promotion of literature in India?

A) Ten B) Fifteen C) Eighteen D) Twenty. Options:

Q332) The future of education in India depends A) 1 lakh rupees B) 2 lakh rupees C) 3 lakh
on: rupees D) 4 lakh rupees

Options: Q339) Who gave his reports on general

education in 1937?
A) Society B) Government C) Family D)
Economy Options:

Q333) Which thinker have Not accepted that the A) AN Jha B) Wood C) Mudaliar D) Dr. Zakir
state has an ethical purpose? Hussan

Options: Q340) In Which year the review committee on

curriculum was appointed?
A) Karl Marx B) Gandhi. C) Aristotle D) Laski
Options:
Q334) Which year a committee on decentralized
management of Education was appointed? A) 1977 B) 1976 C) 1978 D) 1979

Options: Q341) Where is N.d. t. Women University

situated?
A) Aug, 1992 B) Feb, 1993 C) March, 1993 D)
April, 1993 Options:

Q335) In Which year 'grant-in-aid' system was A) Calcutta B) Bombay C) Madras D) Delhi
introduced? Q342) When was Ishwar-bahi J. Patel
Options: Committee was appointed?

A) 1858 B) 1852 C) 1857 D) 1851 Options:

Q336) When was Indian University Commission A) 1975 B) 1976 C) 1977 D) 1978
Appointed? Q343) During 1901-02 there were how many arts
Options: and professional colleges in India?

A) 1463 B) 758 C) 829 D) 11047 Options:

Q337) The method of summated rating for A) 81 B) 91 C) 181 D) 191

increasing attitudes was development by: Q344) Sankhya theory of education is known as:
Options: Options:

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A) Brahman Parinamavada B) Prikriti Q301) A, Q302) B, Q303) D, Q304) B, Q305)D,

Parinamavada C) Both of these D) Neither Q306) D, Q307) C, Q308) B, Q309) B, Q310)
Q345) Chairman of Revised national policy of
education committee was:
Options:
A) Ram Murti B) Man Mohan Singh C)
Janardhan Reddy D) Murli Manohar Joshi
Q346) N.P.E document consists of:
Options:
A) Three Parts B) Seven Parts C) Twelve Parts
D) Twenty Parts
Q347) Who founded Royal Asiatic Society of
Bengal' in Calcutta in 1784?
Options:
A) Warren Hasting B) Johan Duncan C) William
Jones D) Sir Richard
Q348) In Which year the Indian university act
was passed?
Options:
A) 1901 B) 1902 C) 1903 D) 1904
Q349) When was 'National open school'
established?
Options:
A) 1975 B) 1986 C) 1989 D) 1990
Q350) What was the title of teacher in the Vedic
period?
Options:
A) Acharya B) Guru C) Siksha D) Brahma

Answer Key

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A, Q311) A, Q312) A, Q313) B, Q314) C, A) Cooperation in have work. B) Participation in

Q315) C, Q316) D, Q317) C, Q318) C, factory C) Participation in productive work for
Q319) B, Q320) C, Q321) D, Q322) C, earning D) All above
Q323) D, Q324) D, Q325) D, Q326) A,
Q327) B, Q328) B, Q329) B, Q330) B,
Q331) B, Q332) B, Q333) A, Q334) B,
Q335) C, Q336) B, Q337) D, Q338) A,
Q339) B, Q340) B, Q341) B, Q342) C,
Q343) D, Q344) B, Q345) C, Q346) C,
Q347) C, Q348) D, Q349) C, Q350)A,

Q351) The term of reference of

MudaliarCommission was:
Options:
A) Primary Education B) Secondary Education
C) Higher Education D) All-Round Education
Q352) According to wood's
Dispatch themedium of
instruction should be:
Options:
A) Only English B) Only Sanskrit C)
OnlyVernaculars D) English and
Vernaculars
Q353) Vallabhi was a famous education
wasregistered as a society in?
Options:
A) 500 a. d. B) 600 a. d. C) 700 a. d. D) 800 a. d.
Q354) Kendriya Vidyalaya
Sangathan was
registered as a Society in?
Options:
A) 23743 B) 24077 C) 24108 D) 01-12-1966
Q355) Work-Experience is a training for:
Options:

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Q356) Expenditure in primary education in VII Q362) What is the purpose of Jan Sikshan
th-Plan. Sansthan?
Options: Options:
A) 2849 Chores of rupees B) 1832 Chores of A) Provide vocational training to non-literate,
rupees C) 1083 Chores of rupees D) 7633 Chores neo-literate and school dropouts. B) Provide
of rupees basic education to illiterate adults. C) Create
Q357) Most of the important factor in awareness about health and reproduction among
educational reconstruction according to the rural people D) None of above.
commission is: Q363) Correct chronological order? (older to
Options: newer)

A) Teacher B) Building C) Finance D) Options:

Supervision A) Mid Day meal, RTE, SSA B) SSA, Mid Day
Q358) What was the medium of education in Meal, RTE C) RTE, Mid Day meal, SSA D) Mid
Vedic period? Day Meal, SSA, RTE.

Options: Q364) What is the purpose of Jalmani Yojana?

A) Pali B) Sanskrit C) Prakrit D) Local Dialect Options:

Q359) Where is Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public A) Install water purifiers in remote hamlets with
Library Situated? population less than 500 B) Installation of water
purifiers in rural schools. C) Provide drinking
Options:
water in desert areas D) Provide subsidy to
A) Patna B) Chandigarh C) Jhansi D) Lucknow farmers for installing drip irrigation system.
Q360) Which Commission recommended the Q365) What is the primary aim of Dhanlakshmi
induction of applied science and technology in Yojana?
the University Course?
Options:
Options:
A) Prevent child marriages. B) Promote
A) Mudaliar Commission B) Sadler Commission intercaste marriages C) Change the mentality of
C) Hunter Commission D) Indian University seeing girl child as a financial burden. D) Provide
Commission. scholarship to bright girl students to pursue PG
Q361) Which of the following org. is associated or Ph. d
with HRD ministry Q366) Which among the following Indian
Options: ministry coordinates with WIPO?

A) INDEST B) National Book Trust C) National Options:

Bal Bhavan D) All of above A) HRD B) External affairs C) Commerce and

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industries. D) Science and technology

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Q367) UGC is a females in Government college lecturer jobs. C)

Options:
A) Statutory organization B) Attached office of
HRD ministry C) Constitutional body D)
Subordinate office of HRD ministry
Q368) Who releases Educational content via
Gyan Darshan and Gyan Vani?
Options:
A) Education ministry B) IGNOU, NCERT C)
National Bal Bhavan D) None of Above.
Q369) Who is responsible for conducting All
India Pre-Dental entrance test?
Options:
A) AICTE B) Medical Council of India C) Dental
Council of India D) CBSE
Q370) Who among the following looks into the
Minimum qualification for appointment of
teachers?
Options:
A) UGC B) HRD ministry C) NCERT D)
National council for teacher education
Q371) What is the purpose of Bal Shree scheme?
Options:
A) Identify creative children and nurture them.
B) Provide extra protein and iron supplements to
kids suffering from Malnutrition C) Provide free
medical checkup in Government schools. D)
None of above.
Q372) Purpose of Mahila Samakhya scheme?
Options:
A) Provide incentives to female graduates to join
teaching profession. B) Provide reservation to

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Empower rural women by educating Q371) A, Q372) C, Q373) B, Q374) B, Q375) B,

them. D)None of above.
Q373) Target beneficiaries of SABLA
schemeare
Options:
A) Dowry victims B) Adolescent girls
C) Ruralwomen D) All of above.
Q374) The Kendriya vidhyalaya are meant for
I Wards of Transferable state
Governmentemployees
II Wards of Transferable central
Governmentemployees
III Wards of Defence personnel
V Bright students from naxal affected areas
Options:
A) Only I and IV B) Only II and III C)
Only I, IIand IV D) Only II
Q375) Correct statements about
RahstriyaMadhyamik Shiksha
Abhiyan (RMSA)
I Provide free and compulsory education
to highschool children.
II Increase the high school enrolment
rate from52% to 75%
Options:
A) Only I B) Only II C) Both I and II D)
none ofabove
Answer Key
Q351) B, Q352) D, Q353) C, Q354) B,
Q355) C, Q356) A, Q357) A, Q358) B,
Q359) C, Q360) B, Q361) A, Q362) A,
Q363) D, Q364) B, Q365) C, Q366) C,
Q367) A, Q368) B, Q369) D, Q370) D,

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Options:
Q376) What was the purpose of 86
Constitutional amendment act?
I Make right to education a fundamental right
II Impose duty on parents and guardians to
provide for education to their children.
Options:
A) Only I B) Only II C) Both I and II D) none of
the above
Q377) Correct Statement
I) 93rd amendment inserted article 21/A and
51A(K) in the Constitution.
II) 86 amendment modified article 15 of the
Constitution.
Options:
A) Only I B) Only II C) Both I and II D) None of
the above
Q378) Correct chronological order?
Options:
A) IGNOU, UGC, NCERT B) NCERT, UGC,
IGNOU C) UGC, NCERT, IGNOU D) GNOU,
NCERT, UGC
Q379) Which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India safe guards the rights of
Minorities to establish and run educational in-
situations of their own liking?
Options:
A) Article 19 B) Article 29 C) Article 30 D)
Article 31
Q380) Which one of the following is 28th state
of India

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A) Uttarakhand B) Jharkhand C) supervised by

Chhattisgarh D)None of these Options:
Q381) The effective means in
educationcommunication is
Options:
A) Black Board Writing B) Audio-Visual means
C) Audio means D) Visual means
Q382) The Dalton Scheme of Education
is usefulfor which one of the following?
Options:
A) For infants B) For little children C)
For olderchildren D) For all of these
Q383) The most powerful upper
chamber in theworld is:
Options:
A) American senate B) British House of
Lords C)Rajya Sabha of Indian Republic
D) None of these
Q384) Which of the following standing
committee of Parliament has no Member
of Parliament from Rajya Sabha?
Options:
A) Hawai Island B) Greenland C)
Kamchatka D)None of these
Q385) The Government of India
introducedBharat Ratna and Padmashree
awards under
Options:
A) Article 18 of the constitution B)
Article 20 ofthe constitution C) Article
17 of the constitution
D) Article 16 of the constitution
Q386) Election of Rural and Urban local
bodiesare conducted and ultimately

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A) Election Commission of India B) State is:

Election Commission C) District Collector and Options:
District Magistrate D) Concerned Returning
Officer
Q387) When was the All India Radio (AIR) was
adopted?
Options:
A) June 8th 1936 B) July 17th 19 C) June 17th
193 D) July 8th 1949
Q388) What is the full form of IPCC?
Options:
A) International Panel on climate change B)
International Panel on carbon consumption C)
Intergovernmental Panel o Climate D) None of
these
Q389) The Public Accounts Committee submits
its report to
Options:
A) the Speaker of Lok Sabha B) the Comptroller
and Auditor General C) the President of India D)
the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Q390) The biggest news agency of India is
Options:
A) PTI B) UNI C) NANAP D) Samachar Bharati
Q391) To educate according to nature means
Options:
A) to come back to nature as op-pose to
mechanical life B) to educate in accordance with
the law of nature of human development C) to
study natural laws and apply them to educational
process. D) All of the above
Q392) The aim of vocationalisation of education

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A) preparing students for a vocation along Options:

with knowledge B) converting liberal
education into vocational education C)
giving more importanceto vocational than
general education D) making liberal
education job-oriented
Q393) All of the following tend to erode
local control of education in favour of
national control,except the
Options:
A) National Science Foundation B)
National Institute of Mental health C)
College Entrance Examination Board D)
National Defenceeducation Act
Q394) India’s first Defence University
is set upin
Options:
A) Haryana B) Delhi C) Punjab D) Uttar Pradesh
Q395) Which of the following
Institutes issituated in Karikudi (Tamil
Nadu)?
Options:
A) Central Electro Chemical Re-search Institute
B) Central Marine Fish Research
institute C) Central Plantation Crop
Research Institute D)None of these
Q396) National Anthem “Jan-gana-
mana” was composed by
Options:
A) Madam Cama B) Surendranath
Chatterji C) Bankimchandra Chatterji D)
RabindranathTagore
Q397) Universities having central
campus forimparting education are
called:

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A) Central Universities B) Deemed Universities a state in case if the bill is

C) Residential Universities D) Open Universities Options:
Q398) Disputes regarding the election of Vice
President are decided by
Options:
A) the Speaker B) the President C) the Parliament
D) the Supreme Court
Q399) Use of radio for higher education is based
on the presumption of:
Options:
A) Enriching curriculum based instruction B)
Replacing teacher in the long run C) Everybody
having access to a radio set D) Other means of
instruction getting out-dated
Q400) When was the 1st Indian postal stamp was
issued?
Options:
A) 1937 B) 1876 C) 1854 D) 1852
Answer Key
Q376) C, Q377) B, Q378) C, Q379) C, Q380) B,
Q381) B, Q382) C, Q383) A, Q384) B, Q385)
A, Q386) B, Q387) A, Q388) C, Q389) A, Q390)
A, Q391) B, Q392) D, Q393) B, Q394) A, Q395)
A, Q396) D, Q397) B, Q398) D, Q399) B, Q400)
D, ,

Q401) Which of the following words is not

included in preamble of the constitution?
Options:
A) Socialist B) Secular C) Dignity D) Integrity
Q402) The President of India may either give his
assent or withhold his assent on a reserved bill of

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A) Finance Bill B) Money Bill C) An Options:

OrdinaryBill D) All of these
Q403) Central Institute of Design is situated at
Options:
A) Ahmedabad B) Pune C) Gulmarg
D)Dehradun
Q404) Electoral disputes arising out of
Presidential and Vice-Presidential
Elections are settled by
Options:
A) Election Commission of India B) Joint
Committee of Parliament C) Supreme
Court of India D) Central Election
Tribunal
Q405) Which of the following is not
created bythe Act of Parliament
Options:
A) Atomic Energy Commission B)
Backward Class Commission C)
University Grants Commission D)
Railway Board
Q406) Which of the following is Mahila
University in Rajasthan
Options:
A) Kota University B) MDS University, Ajmer
C) Banasthali Vidyapeeth D) JNY
University, Jodhpur
Q407) the final decision about the
disqualification of an M.P. of Lo Sabha
under thelaw of defection rests with
Options:
A) Speaker B) Election Commission C)
SupremeCourt D) President
Q408) The President of India

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A) Enjoys absolute powers. B) Enjoys limited A) Social, economic and political Justice B)Equality
but real powers C) Enjoys only nominal powers. of status and of opportunity C) Liberty
D) Enjoys no powers.
Q409) The main role of education ac-cording to
Plato is:
Options:
A) to develop the power of contemplation B) to
develop the personality of each individuals C) to
strengthen the state. D) All of these
Q410) The planning commission of India is
Options:
A) Tripura B) Meghalaya C) Mizoram D)
Manipur
Q411) India is a:
Options:
A) Secular State B) Bilingual State C)
Communist State D) Capitalist State
Q412) The Council of Ministers is responsible to
the:
Options:
A) President B) Lok Sabha C) Vice-President D)
Rajya Sabha
Q413) The judges of the Supreme Court are
appointed by the:
Options:
A) Prime Minister of India B) Speaker of the
Rajya Sabha C) President of India D) Ministry of
Law & Justice
Q414) Which of the following are the ideals set
forth in the Preamble?
Options:

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of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship of the House D) four-fifths of the membership of
D) All of these the House
Q415) Of which fundamental right is a Q420) The Directive Principles:
foreignerin India deprived of?
Options:
A) To seek justice in court B) To seek
financial security of life C) To criticize
policies of government D) To vote at the
time of 'Parliamentary election
Q416) The Legislative Council of a State is a:
Options:
A) temporary body B) permanent body C)
semi-permanent body D) chamber of the
nominated members
Q417) Which of the following is the
federalfeature of the Indian Constitution?
Options:
A) There is distribution of Powers in
accordance with 2 lists B) Written and
rigid constitution C) Independent
Judiciary D) All of these
Q418) The Tenth Schedule to the
Constitution ofIndia relates to:
Options:
A) Panchayati Raj Institutions B) Anti-
defection Act C) List of languages
recognized by the Constitution D)
Procedure for amendment to the
Constitution
Q419) The quorum of the Parliament is fixed at:
Options:
A) one-tenth of the membership of the
House B)one-third of the membership of
the House C) one-half of the membership

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Options: Answer Key

A) aim at establishing welfare state of Gandhian Q401) C, Q402) B, Q403) A, Q404) C, Q405)
conception B) aim at giving ideals to be D, Q406) B, Q407) A, Q408) C, Q409) D, Q410)
incorporated at a later stage C) aim at giving C, Q411) A, Q412) B, Q413) C, Q414) D, Q415)
support to the , Fundamental Rights D) A and B D, Q416) B, Q417) D, Q418) B, Q419) A, Q420)
only D, Q421) A, Q422) D, Q423) C, Q424) C, Q425)
Q421) In India the executive is responsible C
directly to the:
Options: Q426) The real powers in the Central
A) Legislature B) President C) Judiciary D) Lok Government are enjoyed, according to the
Sabha Constitution of India by the:

Q422) The Rajya Sabha is: Options:

Options: A) President of India B) Vice-President of India

C) Prime Minister of India D) Chief Ministers
A) dissolved once in two years B) dissolved after
every five years C) adjourned every six months Q427) The Prime Minister is:
D) not subject to dissolution Options:
Q423) Ministers in the Union Cabinet are A) nominated by the President B) elected by the
appointed by the: Chief Ministers of States C) is the leader of the
Options: majority party of Lok Sabha D) is the leader of
the majority party of Rajya Sabha
A) Prime Minister B) President C) President of
India on the advice of the Prime Minister D) Q428) Why are the Fundamental Rights
None of these considered fundamental?

Q424) The Council of Ministers headed by the Options:

Prime Minister is responsible to: A) Necessary for the successful working of
Options: democratic institution B) Basic to the welfare,
dignity and happiness of the individual C)
A) Prime Minister B) President C) Parliament D)
Constitution is based on these D) Only A and B
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q429) The President's Rule is imposed in a State
Q425) What is the literal meaning of secularism?
orid a Union Territory when the:
Options:
Options:
A) Freedom to worship any God B) Death of
A) Governor of a State or the Chief
religion C) Separation of religion from the state
\Commissioner of a Lt Governor advises the
D) All of these
President to do so because the Government in

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that State/Territory cannot be carried on

in

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accordance with the provisions of the administration of non-Governmental institutions

Constitution D) all the above

B) Chief Minister of a State requests to this effect

C) Chief' Justice of the State High Court
recommends through the Governor
D) Prime Minister knows best
Q430) Agriculture, including research and
education, falls in:
Options:
A) State List B) Union List C) Concurrent List
D) None of the above
Q431) Fundamental Rights of the citizens are:
Options:
A) non-justifiable B) justifiable C) justifiable if
the highest court feels it should be D) Some
rights are justifiable
Q432) Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens
are contained in .......... of the 'Indian
Constitution'
Options:
A) Part I B) Part II C) Part III D) Part IV
Q433) Freedom of the Press as such:
Options:
A) has been guaranteed by the Constitution B)
has not been expressly guaranteed by the
Constitution C) both (a) and (b) D) None of the
above
Q434) Administrative Law means:
Options:
A) law passed by the Union B) law or rules made
by the executive C) laws relating to

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Q435) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Government B)Double-tier system of self
Sabha sitjointly when: Government C) Three-
Options:
A) they like B) there is a disagreement
between the two (Houses) C) the President
summons both the Houses D) they must
meet when two years have lapsed after the
last meeting
Q436) Who administers the Union Territories?
Options:
A) The President through the
Administrators appointed by him B) The
Prime Minister of India
C) The Law Minister, Government of
India D)The Attorney-General of India
Q437) Directive Principles of State
Policy aimat:
Options:
A) ensuring individual liberty B) ensuring
and strengthening the country's
independence C) protecting the depressed
classes D) providingsocial and economic
base for genuine democracyin the country
Q438) Usually a Gram Panchayat is not
responsible for:
Options:
A) construction of village roads and tanks
B) sanitation, maternity and child welfare
C) financing of agriculturists D)
agricultural production
Q439) What does the Panchayati Raj
Systemsignify?
Options:
A) single-tier structure of local

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tier structure of local Govt. at the village, block Q445) "There should be no difference between
and district level D) None of these the words and deeds of a teacher." who gave this
Q440) For knowledge lessons statement?

Options: Options:

A) Glover's Scheme is used B) Herbart's five- A) McKennan B) John Locke C) Rousseau D)

stage system is used C) Garry's scheme is used Aristotle
D) none of these Q446) "The teacher ought to know about the
Q441) "This methodology trains the child to problems prevalent in the field of education".
search for facts, rules and principles by his own The reason is that
efforts, organize the set of knowledge gained and Options:
delineate general rules." The aforementioned A) only a teacher can do something about solving
statement is about the following methodology of them B) he can tell about the same to another
teaching teacher C) teachers can tell the government about
Options: it D) with this knowledge, the teacher can have
A) Montessori B) Kindergarten C) Heuristic D) information about education
Play-way Q447) The major objective of education is
Q442) In Garry's Plan Options:
Options: A) reforming the society B) making students
A) work is important B) play is important C) discipline C) developing inherent
learning is important D) all these three haveequal abilities/powers of students D) making students
importance followers of teachers

Q443) The Dalton Scheme of education is useful Q448) All India Institute of Medical Sciences
for which ones of the following? (AIIMS) is located in

Options: Options:

A) For infants B) For little children C) For older A) Lucknow B) Delhi C) Mumbai D) Chennai
children D) For all of these Q449) In the context of education, some views of
Q444) In the school, provisions must be made for Gandhiji have been appended below. Which one
free and natural expressions of a child." Who of them is incorrect?
give this statement? Options:
Options: A) In education, experimentation, work and
A) T. Remont B) Ryeburn C) Montessori D) research must be given due places B) Education
Lyndon must be self-dependent C) Literacy is education

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D) Education must be such as to develop

all the powers and inherent qualities of
children

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Q450) Personalized System of education Q454) Which one of the following provides
Options: constitutional guarantee of personal freedom?

A) does not inculcate a feeling of socialization in Options:

students B) does not inculcate a feeling of A) Quo Warrant B) Mandamus C) Certiorari D)
competition in students C) leads to wastage of Habeas Corpus
time and energy D) all of these are true Q455) The project education method of teaching
Answer Key is associated with
Q426) C, Q427) C, Q428) D, Q429) A, Q430) Options:
A, Q431) B, Q432) C, Q433) B, Q434) B, Q435) A) Rousseau B) Frobel C) Dewey D) Armstrong
B, Q436) A, Q437) D, Q438) C, Q439) C, Q440)
Q456) Under the Winnetka Plan
B, Q441) C, Q442) D, Q443) C, Q444) C, Q445)
A, Q446) A, Q447) C, Q448) B, Q449) C, Q450) Options:
D, A) the diversity of interests of the students is
recognized B) the diversities of abilities are
accepted C) the diversities of needs are accepted
Q451) In your view, arrangement for "education
D) all of these are recognized
on environment" in the school
Q457) According to Dewry, education is a
Options:
Options:
A) is important for creating an awareness among
students about the environment B) is likely to put A) Social need B) Personal need C)
more burden on students C) is a mode of Psychological need D) theoretical need
entertainment for students D) is like giving work Q458) Who gave the principle of "pupil
to teachers activity?"
Q452) Education not only conserves the culture Options:
of a nation, but also it
A) Rousseau B) Henderson C) Comenius D)
Options: Binet
A) makes the latter rich B) defines the latter C) Q459) In the wake of serious shortages of
makes the latter spiritual D) makes the latter resources and rising population of our nation, you
mass-oriented and popular have the following views about the programmes
Q453) National Defence Academy (NDA) is for improving the standards of education (under
situated at the aegis of national policy of education).
Options: Options:
A) Kharadwasla(Pune) B) Dehradun C) A) They are impractical B) They are courageous
Allahabad D) Chennai and laudable efforts C) They are new forms of

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traditional programmes D) They increase the psychology?

workload of teachers Options:
Q460) Adult education should be under the
authority of the following
Options:
A) The government B) Non-government
organizations C) Educated persons D) All of
these
Q461) NASA is the name of space agency of
Options:
A) Netherlands B) Britain C) America D) India
Q462) Out of the following, in which lesson, a
general rule is explained first and then,
knowledge is accumulated on the basis of that
rule?
Options:
A) Deductive lesson B) Inductive lesson C)
Developing lesson D) Knowledge lesson
Q463) In the project education technique, the
work load on the teacher is
Options:
A) very high B) comparatively low C) low D) nil
Q464) Why do you not support the five-stage
method of Herbart?
Options:
A) In this, there is no scope for the individual
diversity of students B) Under this, it is difficult
to make coordination between various subjects
C) Under this, generalization is not required to be
done while teaching subjects like language,
history, geography etc. D) all of these
Q465) Who is known as the father of educational

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A) Pestology B) Devy C) Herbart D) Spencer of Commerce & Arts

Q466) The educational system of today
promotes"educated unemployment". The
reason is that
Options:
A) education gives theoretical knowledge only
B) professional education is not a part of
education C) the objective of education is
not vivid D) all of these
Q467) In the school, "education on
environment" can be imparted by
Options:
A) lectures B) articles C) sports D)
adopting itourselves
Q468) Indian Institute of Advanced
studies islocated in
Options:
A) Shimla B) Solan C)
Dharmshala D)Chandigarh
Q469) Air Force Administrative
College issituated in
Options:
A) Hyderabad B) Coimbatore C) Bidar
D) AgraQ470) Indian School of Mines
is situated at Options:
A) Patna (Bihar) B) Dhanbad
(Jharkhand) C)Kolkata (W. Bengal) D)
Guwahati (Assam)
Q471) What is the full form of MCA?
Options:
A) Ministry of Commerce & Agriculture
B) Master of Computer Application C)
Member Chartered Accountant D) Master

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Q472) Immediate feedback is an essential C, Q456) D, Q457) A, Q458) D, Q459) B, Q460)

characteristic of:
Options:
A) team teaching B) teaching machines C) the
Dalton Plan D) the project method
Q473) Of the following objectives of an
elementary music programme, the one of lowest
priority is:
Options:
A) to expose children to a variety of musical
compositions B) to prepare children for wise use
of leisure time C) to develop a group of
performers for the holiday assemblies D) to
provide children with emotional outlets
Q474) With regard to readiness to read, all of
these statements are true except that:
Options:
A) some psychologists believe that a child is not
ready to begin reading until he/ she has achieved
a mental age of about six years B) a strong desire
to read is a determining factor C) a reading
readiness programme may begin for some
children in kindergarten D) physical maturation
is a crucial factor
Q475) If you were reading a series of articles
about the teaching of reading, you would expect
to be reading an article by:
Options:
A) Paul McKee B) Albert Harris C) Arthur Gates
D) Frank Riesman

Answer Key
Q451) A, Q452) A, Q453) A, Q454) D, Q455)

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B, Q461) C, Q462) A, Q463) A, Q464) D, B) assigned as homework C) a responsibility of

Q465) C, Q466) B, Q467) D, Q468) A, the
Q469) B, Q470) B, Q471) B, Q472) B,
Q473) C, Q474) D, Q475)D,

Q476) Of the following, the author of a

widelyused intelligence test is:
Options:
A) David Wechsler B) B F Skinner C)
WilliamCruikshank D) Bruno Bettelheim
Q477) Indian Institute of Science
(IISc) islocated in
Options:
A) Chennai B) Kolkata C) Bangalore D) Mumbai
Q478) Indian Institute of Foreign
Trade issituated in
Options:
A) Lucknow B) Dehradun C) New Delhi
D)Mumbai
Q479) National Institute of
Immunology issituated in
Options:
A) Delhi B) Hyderabad C) Goa D) Kochi
Q480) A set of test papers from a class of
29 students has been arranged in order
from thehighest to the lowest scores. The
mark on the fifteenth paper is known as
the:
Options:
A) median B) mean C) mode D)
norm Q481) Recreational
reading should be:Options:
A) reserved for the school library period

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home, not the school D) an integral part of the B) they were designed as an economy measure to
language arts curriculum replace teachers C) they are not as efficient as
Q482) When Jeewan receives his failing test
mark, he tells the teacher, "You don't like me."
This is an example of:
Options:
A) identification B) transference C) egocentrism
D) projection
Q483) Of the following learning theories, the one
that embodies the idea that learning takes place
through insight is known as:
Options:
A) Gestalt B) stimulus-response C) connectionist
D) pragmatic
Q484) Over learning tends to strengthen an
individual’s:
Options:
A) powers of retention B) endurance C) feeling
of boredom D) motivation
Q485) How many Indian Institutes of
Technology (IIT) are there in India?
Options:
A) 23 B) 4 C) 6 D) 3
Q486) How many Indian Institutes o
Management (IIM) are there in India?
Options:
A) 13 B) 7 C) 5 D) 8
Q487) The most accurate statement about
teaching machines is that:
Options:
A) B F Skinner began the movement for their use

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teachers in reinforcing responses D) they Options:

can beused for all learning programmes
Q488) A culturally disadvantaged child
is bestserved by the school system that:
Options:
A) places him/her in a class with other
culturallydisadvantaged children B) gives
him/her an annual intelligence test C)
trains teachers to understand his/her
impoverished home background D)
assesses his/her strengths and needs and
provide for an individualized learning plan
Q489) All of the following tend to erode
local control of education in favour of
national control,except the:
Options:
A) National Science Foundation B)
National Institute of Mental Health C)
College Entrance Examination Board D)
National DefenceEducation Act
Q490) A student fails a test for which he
did not study. By ascribing his failure to
the fact that theteacher does not like him
he is utilizing:
Options:
A) conversion B) sympathism C) rationalization
D) Compensation
Q491) The project method of teaching
is bestassociated with the philosophy of:
Options:
A) John Dewey B) Max Rafferty C)
RobertHutchins D) B F Skinner
Q492) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(BARC)is situated at

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A) N. Hyderabad B) Bangalore C) Delhi D) A) IQ-relationship between MA and CA B)validity-

Trombay (Mumbai) measure of consistency in testing C)
Q493) Birla Institute of Technology is situated at
Options:
A) Ranchi B) Jaipur C) Kota D) Hardwar
Q494) Central Forensic Science Laboratory is
situated in
Options:
A) Chandigarh B) Patna C) Patiala D) Ludhiana
Q495) In a class of ten pupils the grades in a
spelling test were:
97-97-97-92-92-85-76-73-65-60.
The mode of those scores is:
Options:
A) 92 B) 97 C) 97 minus 60 divided by 2 D) the
sum of the scores divided by 10
Q496) Of the following intelligence tests, the one
which is individually administered is the:
Options:
A) WISC B) Pintner-Cunningham Primary C)
Army Alpha D) Kuhlman-Anderson
Q497) With respect to the development of skills,
all of the following are correct except that:
Options:
A) pupils of the same mental age should learn at
the same rate B) group instruction facilitates the
learning process C) learning individual
instruction is often required D) workbooks can
be an invaluable learning aid
Q498) The pair of terms incorrectly associated is:
Options:

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inkblot-projective testing D) median-the D) Noneof the above

middle score Q503) The President of India is
Q499) "School is life, not a preparation Options:
for life." This statement summarizes one
important aspect of educational
philosophy of
Options:
A) John Dewey B) Robert Hutchins C)
MortimerAdler D) SI Hayakawa
Q500) Of the following, the educator
who is notan advocate of radical
educational reform
Options:
A) Postman B) Illich C) Bestor D) Kozol
Answer Key
Q476) A, Q477) C, Q478) C, Q479) A,
Q480) A, Q481) D, Q482) D, Q483) A,
Q484) A, Q485) A, Q486) A, Q487) A,
Q488) D, Q489) B, Q490) C, Q491) A,
Q492) D, Q493) A, Q494) A, Q495) B,
Q496) A, Q497) A, Q498) B, Q499) A,
Q500) C,

Q501) All of the following are correct

pairedexcept:
Options:
A) Froebel -progressivism B) Dewey --
pragmatism C) Skinner--Gestalt D)
Herbart-- apperception
Q502) The most powerful Upper
Chamber in theworld is
Options:
A) American Senate B) British House of Lords
C) Rajya Sabha of the Indian Republic

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A) The head of the State B) The head of the errors C) the insurance of attention D) their universal use
Government C) The head of the State as well as for different kinds of programmes
Government D) All of these
Q504) As per Indian Protocol, who among the
following ranks highest in the order of
precedence?
Options:
A) Deputy Prime Minister B) Former President
C) Governor of a State within his State D)
Speaker of Lok Shaba
Q505) A bill becomes a law when
Options:
A) Both Houses of Parliament approve it by
requisite majority B) The Council of Ministers
approves it C) The President gives his assent D)
The Supreme Court upholds its constitutional
validity
Q506) Mainstreaming is a term associated with
Options:
A) career education B) education for the
handicapped C) interage class groupings D)
environmental education
Q507) Most students in medieval universities
learned by:
Options:
A) laboratory experimentation B) reading the
Bible C) listening to lectures D) studying in
libraries
Q508) All of the following are advantages of
teaching machines except:
Options:
A) the control of cheating B) the tracking of

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Q509) Holding of elections for the

villagePanchayat is decided by
Options:
A) The Collector B) The Election Commission
C) The Central Government D) The
StateGovernment
Q510) The joint sittings of the Union
Parliamentmay be summoned for
Options:
A) Special address of the President B)
Annual address of the President C)
President's occasional messages of
national significance D) Resolution of the
dead lock between the two Houses on a
non-money bill
Q511) Who appoints the comptroller an
Auditor-General of India?
Options:
A) The U.P.S.C. B) The President C) The
PrimeMinister D) The Parliament
Q512) Consider the following statements
regarding the Governor of a state in India:
(i) To be appointed as Governor, one
should havecompleted the age of 45 years
(ii) The Governor holds the office during
the pleasure of the President
(iii) After completing five years in office,
the Governor cannot continue to hold the
office even when his successor has not
entered upon hisoffice
(iv) The executive power of the state is
vested inthe Governor.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Options:

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A) (i) and (ii) B) (iii) and (iv) C) (i), (ii) and (iii) A) This is the -topmost tier of the Panchayati Raj
D) (ii) and (iv) B) It consists of all the voters residing in the
Q513) A frequency distribution is best defined as
the:
Options:
A) number of scores above the median score B)
number of pupils scoring above the median score
C) number of test items answered correctly by a
majority of the class D) number of pupils who
received each score on a test
Q514) With regard to standardized testing, which
of the following statements is correct?
Options:
A) the testing of intelligence began in Germany
B) the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children
(WISC) is a group test C) the Rorschach test uses
inkblots D) the Thematic Apperception Test
(TAT) is easy to interpret
Q515) Heterogeneous grouping best serves the
aims of a democratic society because:
Options:
A) parents prefer it B) pupils prefer it C) it
minimizes class distinctions D) it is the best
environment for learning
Q516) Who is legally competent under the Indian
Constitution to declare war or conclude peace?
Options:
A) The President B) The Prime Minister C) The
Council of Ministers D) The Parliament
Q517) In the context-of Panchayati Raj, which
one of the following is true about Gram Sabha?
Options:

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jurisdiction of a Village Panchayat C) It is Options:

the executive body consisting of selected
representative from Village Panchayat D)
It consists of all the adult males of the
Village Panchayat
Q518) The Lok Sabha secretariat comes
under the control of
Options:
A) Ministry of Home Affairs B)
Speaker of theLok Sabha C) Ministry of
Parliamentary Affairs
D) Prime Minister
Q519) Who examines the report of the
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
after itis laid before Parliament?
Options:
A) Lok Sabha Speaker B) Estimates Committee
C) Public Accounts Committee D) None
of the above
Q520) Of great importance in
determining the amount of transference
that occurs in learning is the:
Options:
A) IQ of the learner B) knowledge of the teacher
C) use of appropriate materials D)
presence ofidentical elements
Q521) The term least restrictive
environmentrefers to the education of
the:
Options:
A) handicapped B) gifted C) early
childhoodyoungsters D) retarded
Q522) Which among the following is
not aFundamental Right now?

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A) Right to equality B) Right to property C) A) Atomic Energy B) War and Peace C) Post
Right to Constitutional remedies D) None of office Savings Bank D) Public Health and
these Sanitation
Q523) The time of gap between two sessions of Q527) President can be removed on charges o
Parliament is not more than violating the Constitution by
Options: Options:
A) 9 months B) 1 month C) 3 months D) 6 A) No-confidence motion B) Impeachment C)
months Electoral College of Legislative Assemblies D)
Q524) Which one of the following High Courts Prime Minister
has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andamanand Q528) In the Rajya Sabha, the States have been
Nicobar islands provided
Options: Options:
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Calcutta C) Madras D) A) Equal representation B) Representation on the
Orissa 'basis of population C) Representation on the
Q525) In case of absence of President and Vice- basis of population and size D) Representation on
President, which of the following acts as the the basis of size
president of country Q529) The Controller and Auditor-General of
Options: India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for
the
A) Prime Minister B) Speaker of Lok Sabha C)
Chief Justice of India D) Leader of opposition Options:
A) Union Government B) State Governments C)
Union and State Governments D) Neither Union
Answer Key
nor State Governments
Q501) C, Q502) A, Q503) A, Q504) C, Q505)
Q530) Education is a subject in the:
C, Q506) B, Q507) C, Q508) D, Q509) D, Q510)
D, Q511) B, Q512) D, Q513) D, Q514) C, Q515) Options:
C, Q516) A, Q517) B, Q518) C, Q519) C, Q520) A) Union list B) State list C) Concurrent list D)
D, Q521) A, Q522) B, Q523) D, Q524) B, Q525) None of the lists
C, Q531) In which of the following states was the
Panchayati Raj first introduced?
Q526) Which of the following subjects does not Options:
belong to the Union List? A) Rajasthan B) Gujarat C) Uttar Pradesh D)
Options: Bihar

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Q532) Which Writ is issued by a High Court or A) Deal with rural industrialization B) Deal with
the Supreme Court to compel an authority to administration of justice at the Panchayat level
perform a function that it was not performing?
Options:
A) Writ of certiorari B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
C) Writ of Mandamus D) Writ of Quo Warrant
Q533) Judicial Review' is the power of the higher
court to declare unconstitutional any
1. Law passed by legislature
2. Judgment of the lower court
3. Order of the executive
Choose the answer from the following choices:
Options:
A) 1 and 2 only B) 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1,
2 and 3
Q534) How many types of emergency can be
declared by the President of India?
Options:
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Q535) The retirement age of a Supreme Court
Judge is:
Options:
A) 55 years B) 58 years C) 62 years D) 65 years
Q536) The Chairman and the members of State
Public Service Commission are appointed by the
Options:
A) President B) Governor C) Chairman of UPSC
D) Prime Minister
Q537) The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to
Options:

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C) Implement community development A) To change the existing territory of a state and

project schemes D) Deal with financial to change the name of a state B) To pass a
matters of the Panchayat
Q538) The salaries of the Judges of the
Supreme Court are charged on the
consolidated fund of India because
Options:
A) they may get salaries regularly every month
B) their salaries may be free from legislative vote
C) there may not be any cut in their
salaries D) their financial position may be
secure to enable them to dispense
impartial justice
Q539) A member of the Union Public
ServiceCommission holds office for a
period of
Options:
A) Five Years B) Seven years C) Six years
or sixty five years of age whichever is
more D) Sixyears or until he attains the
age of sixty five whichever is earlier
Q540) Who can amend the Constitution?
Options:
A) President B) Parliament C) Prime
Minister D)Union Cabinet
Q541) How many members of the Anglo-
Indiancommunity can be nominated to the
Lok Sabha by the President?
Options:
A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12
Q542) Which one of the following sets of
special powers has been conferred on
Rajya Sabha by theConstitution?
Options:

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resolution empowering the parliament to make A) Social Need B) Personal Need C)

laws in the State List and creation of one or more Psychological Need D) Theoretical Need
All-India services C) To amend the election Q548) The major objective of education is:
procedure of the President and to determine the
Options:
pension of the President after his retirement D)
To determine the functions of the Election A) Reforming The Society B) Making Students
Commission and to determine the number of Disciplined C) Developing Inherent
Election Commissioners Abilities/Powers Of Students D) Making
Students followers Of Teachers
Q543) Which of the following standing
committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Q549) Personalized system of education:
Sabha? Options:
Options: A) Doesn't Inculcate A Feeling Of Socialization
A) Public Accounts Committee B) Estimates In Students B) Doesn't Inculcate A Feeling Of
Committee C) Committee on Public Competition C) Leads To Wastage Of Time And
Undertakings D) Committee on Government Energy D) All Of These
Assurance Q550) UGC was established in
Q544) Who is the custodian of fundamental Options:
rights of people?
A) 1966 B) 1953 C) 1946 D) 1986
Options:
A) Supreme Court B) President C) Prime
Answer Key
Minister D) State Assembly
Q526) D, Q527) B, Q528) B, Q529) C, Q530)
Q545) The Dalton Scheme of Education is useful
C, Q531) A, Q532) C, Q533) C, Q534) B, Q535)
for which one of the following?
D, Q536) B, Q537) C, Q538) D, Q539) D, Q540)
Options: B, Q541) A, Q542) B, Q543) B, Q544) A, Q545)
A) For infants B) For little children C) For older C, Q546) A, Q547) A, Q548) C, Q549) D, Q550)
children D) For all of these B,
Q546) The term'least restrictive environment'
refers to the education of the Q551) President can be removed on the charges
Options: of violating the constitution by
A) Handicapped B) Gifted C) Early Childhood Options:
Youngsters D) Retarded A) confidence motion B) Impeachment C)
Q547) According to Dewry, education is a: Electoral College of legislative Assemblies D)
Prime Minister
Options:

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Q552) The time of gap between two

sessions of Parliament is not more than

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Options: options:
A) 180 days B) 120 days C) 150 days D) 90days
Q553) The present annual examination system:
Options:
A) promotes rote learning B) does not promote
good study habits C) does not encourage students
to be regular in class D) All of the above
Q554) Kindergarten (KG)system of education is
indebted to
Options:
A) Dewey B) Froebel C) Plato D) Spencer
Q555) Of the following objectives of an
elementary music programme the one of lowest
priority is
Options:
a) to expose children to a variety of musical
compositions. b) to prepare children for wise use
of leisure time. c) to develop a group of
performers for holiday assemblies. d) to provide
children with emotion outlets.
Q556) which one is not the objective of special
education?
options:
a) to pursue those curricular matters that
strategically determine effective living for
specific type of handicapped children. b) to
develop motivational patterns in the handicapped
that will produce achievements. c) to develop
realistic self-concept in handicapped children. d)
all of these
Q557) the introduction of career courses in
schools and colleges aims at

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a) developing the ability to make the education isindebted to

intelligent choice of jobs. b) providing Options:
professional knowledge to students. c)
increasing g. k. in students. d) all of the
above
Q558) if the principal of your institution
is not satisfied with your performance and
charge you with the act of negligence of
duties, how would you behave with him?
options:
a) you would take revenge by giving
physical andagony to him. b) you would
neglect him. c) you would take a tough
stand against the changes. d) you would
keep yourself alert and make his efforts
unfruitful.
Q559) which is most favourable for education?
options:
a) social class b) social mobility c)
socialstratification d) caste
Q560) which of the following is the
educationalimplication of the of the
learning process?
options:
a) memory b) interest c) curiosity and
level of aspiration are motivating factors
according toberlyne. d) all of these
Q561) which one of the following
languages can be the best medium of
instruction at primary level?
Options:
A) National Language(Hindi) B)
International Language(English) C)
Regional Language D)Mother Tongue
Q562) Kindergarten (KG) system of

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A) Dewey B) Froebel C) Plato D) Spencer Right to freedom of speech and expression D) Right to
Employment
Q563) In which year the University Grants
Commission was established?
Options:
A) 1948 B) 1944 C) 1953 D) 1960
Q564) UNO has fixed the target for 'Education
for All' till the year
Options:
A) 2013 B) 2012 C) 2015 D) 2013
Q565) Freedom of Speech
Options:
A) has been guaranteed by the constitution. B)
has not been expressly guaranteed by the
constitution C) has been given only to selected
institutions. D) None of these
Q566) The decline of the British Empire should
have spelt the decline of English
Options:
A) the statement is a fact B) the statement is an
advice C) the statement is an opinion D) the
statement is a prejudice
Q567) The Lok -Sabha can be dissolved before
the expiry of its normal five year term by
Options:
A) The Prime Minister B) The Speaker of Lok
Sabha C) The President on the recommendation
of the Prime Minister D) None of these
Q568) Which of the following is not a
Fundamental Right?
Options:
A) Right to Equality B) Right to Education C)

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Q569) Joint SAARC University of eight

SAARCnations will be established in
Options:
A) Colombo (Sri Lanka) B) Dhaka (Bangladesh)
C) New Delhi (India) D) Male (Maldives)
Q570) A member of UPSC holds
office for aperiod of
Options:
A) 5 years B) 7 years C) Six years or sixty
five years of age whichever is more. D)
Six years or sixty five years of age
whichever is earlier.
Q571) The first Indian chronicler of
Indianhistory was:
Options:
A) Megasthanese B) Fahiyan C) Huan
Tsang D)Kalhan
Q572) At present right to property is a
Options:
A) Legal Right B) Human Right C)
FundamentalRight D) Natural Right
Q573) Institute of technology is situated at
Options:
A) BHU, Varanasi B) Osmania,
University C)Jamia Millia, Delhi D)
None of these
Q574) Indian Institute of Foreign
Trade issituated in
Options:
A) Lucknow B) Dehradun C) New
Delhi D)Mumbai
Q575) Mainstreaming is a term associated with
Options:

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A) career education B) education for Disciplinary cases should never be sent to

handicapped C) inter-age class groupings D)
environmental education
Answer Key
Q551) B, Q552) A, Q553) D, Q554) B, Q555)
C, Q556) D, Q557) B, Q558) D, Q559) C, Q560)
D, Q561) D, Q562) B, Q563) C, Q564) C, Q565)
B, Q566) D, Q567) C, Q568) D, Q569) C, Q570)
D, Q571) D, Q572) A, Q573) A, Q574) C,
Q575) B,

Q576) In our present society where values are

deteriorating, the excellent education will be
which
Options:
A) enables one to earn in an easy manner. B)
exaggerates the competition in the society. C)
works for establishment of human and cultural
value. D) deaccelerates the social change in
society.
Q577) Professors need to study educational
philosophy mainly because
Options:
A) most professors know nothing about
educational philosophy B) most professors
follow a wrong philosophy C) they may improve
their work by classifying their philosophy. D) All
of the above
Q578) On which of the following statements
there is consensus among educators?
Options:
A) Disciplinary cases should be sent to the
principal only when other means have failed. B)

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principal's office. C) Disciplinary cases President. B) Only after the constitution is

should betotally neglected in the class. D) amended suit-ably.
None of these C) In case of inconsistency among State
Q579) Quality of education in a legislatures. D) At the request of two or more
school/collegecan be measured through States.

Options:
A) infrastructural facilities available B)
manpower teachers and principal
available C) students achievements D) All
of the above
Q580) In your view arrangement for
"educationon environment" in the school
Options:
A) is important for creating an awareness
among an awareness among students
about the environment. B) is likely to put
more burden on students. C) is a mode of
entertainment for students. D) is like
giving work to teacher.
Q581) The main role of education
according toPlato is:
Options:
A) to develop the power of contemplation
B) to develop the personality of each
individuals C) to strengthen the state. D)
All of these
Q582) The planning commission of India is
Options:
A) Tripura B) Meghalaya C) Mizoram
D)Manipur
Q583) Parliament can legislate on
matters listedin the State list:
Options:
A) With the prior permission of the

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Q584) The final decision about the Jodhpur

disqualification of an M.P. of Lok Sabha under
the law of defection rests with
Options:
A) Speaker B) Election Commission C) Supreme
Court D) President
Q585) If you invite personal friends and
colleagues in your son's birthday party, the
procedure of invitation will be
Options:
A) only personal invitation will be extended to
most dear ones. B) only a specific group of
teachers will be invited. C) extend invitation to
all the teachers without any distinction. D) you
would invite all the personnel of the school.
Q586) Electoral disputes arising out of
Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are
stetted by
Options:
A) Election Commission of India B) Joint
Committee of Parliament C) Supreme Court of
India D) Central Election Tribunal
Q587) Which of the following is not created by
the Act of Parliament?
Options:
A) Atomic Energy Commission B) Backward
Class Commission C) University Grants
Commission D) Railway Board
Q588) Which of the following is Mahila
University in Rajasthan?
Options:
A) Kota University B) MDS University, Ajmer
C) Banasthali Vidyapeeth D) JNY University,

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Q589) When was the 1st Indian postal set upin

stamp wasissued? Options:
Options:
A) 1937 B) 1876 C) 1854 D) 1852
Q590) The President of India may either
give hisassent or withhold his assent on a
reserved bill ofa state in case if the bill is
Options:
A) Finance Bill B) Money Bill C) An
OrdinaryBill D) All of these
Q591) Central Institute of Design is situated at
Options:
A) Ahmedabad B) Pune C) Gulmarg
D)Dehradun
Q592) Use of radio for higher education
is basedon the presumption of:
Options:
A) Enriching curriculum based
instruction B) Replacing teacher in the
long run C) Everybody having access to a
radio set D) Other means of instruction
getting out-dated
Q593) Educational quality is
Options:
A) Fundamental right B) Only a customary right
C) Only a legal right D) None of these
Q595) Appropriation Act of the General
Budgetis
Options:
A) a Finance Bill B) a Money Bill C) an
OrdinaryBill D) a Constitution
Amendment Bill
Q596) India's first Defence University is

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A) Haryana B) Delhi C) Punjab D) Uttar Pradesh C, Q600) D,

Q597) Which of the following Institutes is

situated in Karikudi (Tamil Nadu)?
Options:
A) Central Electro Chemical Research Institute
B) Central Marine Fish Research Institute C)
Central Plantation Crop Research Institute D)
None of these
Q598) Universities having central campus for
imparting education are called:
Options:
A) Central Universities B) Deemed Universities
C) Residential Universities D) Open Universities
Q599) The Constitution of India envisages three
types of services
Options:
A) Navy, Air Force, Army B) Civil, Military and
Paramilitary C) All India Services, Central
Services, State Services D) None of these
Q600) The aim of vocationalisation of education
is:
Options:
A) preparing students for a vocation along with
knowledge B) converting liberal education into
vocational education C) giving more importance
to vocational than general education D) making
liberal education job-oriented
Answer Key
Q576) C, Q577) C, Q578) A, Q579) D, Q580)
A, Q581) D, Q582) C, Q583) D, Q584) A,
Q585) C, Q586) C, Q587) D, Q588) B, Q589)
D, Q590) B, Q591) A, Q592) B, Q593) D, Q594)
A, Q595) B, Q596) A, Q597) A, Q598) B, Q599)

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introducedBharat Ratna and Padmashree awards

under
Q601) INSAT-1 series was procured from
Options:
Options:
A) USA B) France C) USSR D) Japan
Q602) All of the following tend to erode
local control of education in favour of
national control,except the
Options:
A) National Science Foundation B)
National Institute of Mental Health C)
College Entrance Examination Board D)
National DefenceEducation Act
Q603) Which is the biggest multipurpose
projectin India?
Options:
A) Nagarjuna Sagar B) Bhakra Nangal
C)Damodar D) Krishanraja Sagar
Q604) To educate according to nature means
Options:
A) to come back to nature as oppose to
mechanical life B) to educate in
accordance with the law of nature of
human development C) to study natural
laws and apply them to educational
process. D) All of the above
Q605) In case of absence of both the
President and the Vice President who acts
as the presidentof the country?
Options:
A) Speaker of Lok Sabha B) The Prime Minister
C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court D)
Minister ofHome Affairs
Q606) The Government of India

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A) Article 18 of the constitution B) Article 20 of appleby Committee, 1951 C) b. r. Mehta

the constitution C) Article 17 of the constitution
D) Article 16 of the constitution
Q607) Election of Rural and Urban local bodies
are conducted and ultimately supervised by
Options:
A) Election Commission of India B) State
Election Commission C) District Collector and
District Magistrate D) Concerned Returning
Officer
Q608) The Directive Principles of State Policy
seek
Options:
A) to establish the supremacy of the constitution
B) to curb the authoritarian rule C) to strengthen
judiciary D) to make the constitution an
instrument of social change
Q609) The "Report on Currency and Finance ' for
each of the financial year in India is published by:
Options:
A) Reserve Bank of India B) Ministry of Finance
C) Planning Commission D) Central Statistical
Organization
Q610) Dhunaram Thermal Power Project is
situated in
Options:
A) Maharashtra B) Jharkhand C) Gujarat D)
Andhra Pradesh
Q611) The Idea of ' Democratic Decentralization'
in India was popularized by
Options:
A) a. d. Gorwala Committee, 1951 B) Paul H.

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Committee, 1957 D) Ashok Mehta Q617) In the context of Panchayati Raj, which
Committee,1978 one of the following is true about Gram sabha?
Q612) The effective means in Options:
educationcommunication is
Options:
A) Black Board Writing B) Audio-Visual means
C) Audio means D) Visual means
Q613) Which one of the following
Articles of the Constitution of India
safeguards the rights of Minorities to
establish and run educational institutions
of their own liking?
Options:
A) Article 19 B) Article 29 C) Article
30 D)Article 31
Q614) Which one of the following is
28th stateof India
Options:
A) Uttarakhand B) Jharkhand C)
Chhattisgarh D)None of these
Q615) The University Grants
Commission wasconstituted on the
recommendation of:
Options:
A) faster than that in rural areas B) slower
than that in rural areas C) the same as that
in rural areas D) cooler than that in rural
areas
Q616) Value-education stands for
Options:
A) making a student for B) making a
student to get a job C) inculcation of
virtues D) all-round development of
personality

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A) This is topmost tier of Panchayati Raj B) It Options:

consists of all the voters residing in the A) Chief Minister of a State B) A member of the
jurisdiction of a village panchayat C) It is State Public Service Commission C) Advocate-
executive body consisting of selected General D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
representative from village panchayat D) It
Q622) Most of the Universities in India
consists of all the adult males of villagepanchayat
Options:
Q618) MCA-21 is a measure initiative taken up
by the Government of India in which of the A) conduct teaching and research only B)
following areas affiliate colleges and conduct examinations C)
conduct teaching/research and examinations D)
Options:
promote research only
A) attracting international tourists B) e-
Q623) Which of the following fields had been
governance C) modernization of airports D)
given major stress n the National Education
foreign direct investment in India
Policy?
Q619) Who among the following Viceroys
Options:
enforced the Vernacular Press Act?
A) Examination and Evaluation B)
Options:
Professionalism C) Research D) Instruction
A) Lord Lytton B) Lord Hardings C) Lord
Q624) National Police Academy is situated at:
Canning D) Lord Mountbatten
Options:
Q620) Deemed Universities declared by UGC
under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not A) Hyderabad B) Humpy C) Kolkata D) Chennai
permitted to Q625) The established year of University Grants
Options: Commission (UGC) is
A) offer programme in higher education andissue Options:
degrees. B) give affiliation to any institute of A) 1949 B) 1953 C) 1966 D) 1956
higher education C) open off-campus and off-
Q626) The term fourth state refers to
store campus anywhere in the country and
overseas respectively without the permission of Options:
the UGC. D) offer distance education A) Backward classes residing in a static B)
programmes without the approval of country and Parliament C) Judiciary D) Press
overseas respectively without the permission of
Q627) The University which telecasts interaction
the UGC.
educational programmes through its women
Q621) Who among the following appointed by channel is
the Governor can be removed by only the
Options:
President of India?

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A) Osmania University B) University of Pune C) A) Any MLA B) Chief of Army Staff C) Solicitor
Annamalai University D) Indira Gandhi National General of India D) Major of Delhi
University (IGNOU)
Q628) Who is the chairman of Knowledge
commission?
Options:
A) Sam Pitroda B) k. m. Kaushik C) C.
Rangarjam D) Arjun Singh
Q629) Who among the following has the
following has the right to speak and take part in
proceedings of both houses of Parliament but is
not entitled to vote?
Options:
A) The Attorney General of India. B) The Chief
of Armed Forces. C) The Comptroller and
Auditor General of India. D) Election
Commissioner.
Q630) Which of the following is a joint project?
Options:
A) Parambikulam Alyar Project B) Tungabhadra
Project C) Damoder Valley Project D) All of
these
Q631) Geneco' technology is
Options:
A) The method for the development of species of
food crops B) Technique for prevention of
cataract C) Defence system for prevention from
AIDS D) Technique for preinformation
regarding genetic diseases
Q632) Who among the following can be asked to
make a statement in Indian Parliament?
Options:

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Q633) Which of the following is SargentCommission D) Kothari

responsible for all matters within higher Commission
education sector other than funding? Q638) The preamble was proposed before the
Options: drafting committee by
A) Association of India Universities
(AIU) B) University of Indian universities
(UGC) C) AICTE D) None of these
Q634) The judges of the Supreme Court
areappointed by the
Options:
A) Prime Minister of India B) Speaker of
Lok Sabha C) President of India D)
Ministry of Law and Justice
Q635) Which of the following does
not comeunder vocational courses?
Options:
A) Agro based food Industry (Crop based)
B) Sericulture C) Vegetable seed
production D) None of these
Q636) Foundation training to the newly
recruitedIAS(Probationers) is imparted
by:
Options:
A) Indian Institute of Public
Administration B) Administrative Staff
College of India C) l. b. s National
Academy of Administration D) Centre for
Advanced Studies
Q637) The University Grants
Commission wasconstituted on the
recommendation of:
Options:
A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishanan Commission
B) Mudaliar Commission C)

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Options: Institutes in India till today was

A) b. n. Rao B) b. r. Ambedkar C) Jawahar Lal

Nehru D) Sardar Patel
Q639) If there is no fire detection and control
equipment in your institutions computer lab,
which of the following is most important in such
circumstances?
Options:
A) Offsite storage of transaction and master
backup files B) Adequate fire insurance C) Fully
tested backup processing facility. D) Regular
hardware maintenance
Q640) Which of the following is a non affiliating
unitary central university?
Options:
A) Nagaland University, Kohima B) Tezpur
University, Nappam, Assam (Asom) C) North -
Eastern hill University, Shilong D) None of these

Answer Key:
Q601) A, Q602) B, Q603) B, Q604) B, Q605)
C, Q606) A, Q607) B, Q608) D, Q609) A, Q610)
C, Q611) C, Q612) B, Q613) C, Q614) B, Q615)
B, Q616) C, Q617) B, Q618) B, Q619) A, Q620)
B, Q621) B, Q622) C, Q623) B, Q624) A, Q625)
B, Q626) D, Q627) D, Q628) A, Q629) A,
Q630) C, Q631) A, Q632) C, Q633) A, Q634)
C, Q635) D, Q636) C, Q637) A, Q638) C, Q639)
A, Q640) B

Higher Education System:

Q1) The number of Agricultural Education

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Options: Q8) Which of the following institutes of higher

A) 37 B) 45 C) 39 D) 38 learning in India are not covered under RUSA?

Q2) At the end of Eleventh Five Year Options:

Plan thetotal number of Central
Universities in India was
Options:
A) 15 B) 17 C) 43 D) 20
Q3) The suggestion given by
Dr.Gajendragadkarwas
Options:
A) To review the organisation structures
of universities on regular basis B) To
bring timely change in the University's
organisation C) To bring change in
Administrative wings of Universities D)
All the above
Q4) In India, total number of Open University is
Options:
A) Fourteen B) Fifteen C) Eighteen D) Sixteen
Q5) What percentage of girls is enrolled
inHigher Education in India in 2014-15
Options:
A) 46% B) 42% C) 39% D) 36%
Q6) Total number of colleges in India,
impartingHigher Education in 2014-15
are
Options:
A) 38038 B) 39175 C) 39507 D) 40760
Q7) The total number of standalone
Institutiontill 31st March, 2015 was
Options:
A) 11922 B) 10576 C) 9813 D) 8756

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A) All State Universities 12B and 2 f compliant Q14) Which of the following is not an aim of
only B) All Colleges 12B and 2 f compliant only Higher Education according to Kothari
C) All State Universities Non 12B and non 2 f Commission?
compliant D) Central Universities Options:
Q9) Complex of Colleges' is called A) To explore new knowledge in context of truth
Options: and interpret it in terms of ancient knowledge and
A) Federal University B) Unitary University C) beliefs in contemporary needs B) To give right
Central University D) State University leadership in all the fields of life C) To promote
social justice and equality D) To explore innate
Q10) When a university has its separate campus
abilities in persons and develop them through
for Teaching purposes and there are many
training
autonomous and constituent colleges affiliated to
it, then this organisational pattern is called Q15) The U.G.C. have launched Career
Orientation Programme in
Options:
Options:
A) A Federal University B) A Decentralized
University C) An Unitary University D) None of A) 1994-95 B) 1995-96 C) 1986-87 D) 1992
the above Q16) The number of State Universities in India
Q11) On the basis of teaching process the as on 15th January 2016 was
universities can be categorised as Options:
Options: A) 344 B) 220 C) 225 D) 230
A) Traditional and Open Universities B) Central Q17) When a university runs some courses in its
and State Universities C) Residential cum Central Campus and some other course in its
Affiliating University D) None of the above affiliating colleges, such University is called as
Q12) In 1969 the U.G.C. had appointed Options:
Options: A) Residential-Affiliating University B)
A) Administration of Universities B) Affiliating University C) Unitary Teaching
Administration of Colleges C) Administrative University D) None of the above
Legislation for both of the above D) None of the Q18) Project cost of RUSA is to be shared
above between the center and state in the ratio of
Q13) What is the targeted Gross Enrolment Ratio ...except for special category states
in Higher Education by the end of XIII Plan Options:
Options: A) 50:50 B) 60:40 C) 65:35 D) 70:30
A) 32% B) 35% C) 38% D) 42% Q19) The aim of Higher Education according to

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Radhakrishnan Commission is
Options:

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A) To develop the great personalities who can Universities with potential for excellence C) Basic
give their contributions in politics, facilities for women D) All of the above
administration, profession, industry and
commerce B) To preserve the democratic values
and develop a harmony between individual and
society C) To pay respect to old beliefs and
develop intellectual giants having faith in new
beliefs and ideologies and their coordination with
old ones D) All of the above
Q20) Generally in Federal type of Universities
the Organisational Pattern of Courses is
Options:
A) Post Graduate Courses in University Campus
and Graduate Courses in Constituent College B)
Post Graduate and Graduate Courses in
University Campus while Graduate Courses are
only in its Constituent Colleges C) Special Post
Graduate Courses in University Campus and in
Constituent Colleges both types of the courses D)
None of the above
Q21) Open Universities are treated as Non-
traditional Universities because
Options:
A) Innovative methods of teaching and learning
are used in these Universities B) Innovation
methods of admission, curriculum and evaluation
are followed in these universities C) Modern
Communication Techniques are used in these
universities D) All of the above
Q22) Which of the following are included in
main feature of the UGC Xith Year Plan(2007-
12) for University only?
Options:
A) Incentives for resource mobilization B)

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Q23) Who was the Chairman of the structure theUniversities can be classified as
U.G.C. Committee 1969 appointed for Options:
Administrative Legislation of the
Universities?
Options:
A) Dr. P.B. Gajendragadkar B) Dr.
Laxman Swami Mudaliar C) Dr.
Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan D) Dr.Zakir
Hussain
Q24) A high level committee was set up
in April 2009, headed by formed UGC
Chairman Yash Pal for
Options:
A) Restructuring high education in the country
B) New University C) Salary revision D)
None of the above
Q25) The Development objective of
Higher Education during Twelfth Five
Year Plan (2012-17) is based on
Options:
A) Expansion B) Equity C) Excellence
D) All ofthe above
Q26) Delhi University is a
Options:
A) Central University B) State
University C)Deemed University D)
Cannot say
Q27) The National Institute of Education
Planning and Administration has been
convertedinto a Deemed University and is
now called the
Options:
A) NUEPA B) ERNET C) CIEFL D) INDEST
Q28) On the basis of organisational

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A) Residential and Affiliating Universities B) A) Central Campus for Imparting Education B)Many
Central and State Universities C) Unitary and Campuses for Imparting Education C)
Federal Universities D) None of the above
Q29) The total number of Central Universities in
India on 1st June, 2020 is
Options:
A) 10 B) 54 C) 25 D) 31
Q30) Unitary Teaching College is called
Options:
A) Residential University B) Affiliating
University C) Residential cum Affiliating
University D) None of the above
Q31) The main aim of Vocationalisation in
Higher Education is
Options:
A) To control the enrolment of students in Post-
Graduation Courses B) To create repulsion
towards Higher Education C) To shift the
students attention from the problem of
Unemployment D) To guard the students from
continuing higher education without purpose
Q32) The aim of U.G.C.s Standing Committee of
Vocational Education is
Options:
A) To identify such institution where vocational
courses can be implemented B) To impact
training to the teachers for vocational education
C) To prepare study material for vocational
courses D) All of the above
Q33) The Residential Universities are the
Universities having
Options:

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Both of the above are correct D) None

of theabove are correct
Q34) Gross enrolment Ratio in Higher
Educationin India during 2014-15 is
Options:
A) 23.6% B) 21.5% C) 20.3% D) 19.5%
Q35) What amount has been made in the
Eleventh Five Year Plan for Education
Mission through ICT?
Options:
A) 5000 crore B) 5500 crore C) 6000
crore D)6500 crore
Q36) The UGC INFONET network is
run andmanaged by
Options:
A) ERNET B) NUEPA C) INFLIBNET
D) Noneof the above
Q37) The agency which have founded SCOVE is
Options:
A) UGC B) NCERT C) ICSSR D) CSIR
Q38) At the end of Eleventh Five Year
Plan the total number of Deemed
Universities in India was
Options:
A) 129 B) 115 C) 117 D) 119
Q39) Which of the following is not related
to Indian Education Commission's (1964-
66) recommendations?
Options:
A) University's Autonomy and Income
Expenditure B) Role and Appointment of
Vice chancellor C) University Legislation
D) Role of Registrar

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Q40) The abbreviation 'SCOVE' stands for

Options:
A) Standing Committee of Vocational Education
B) Supreme Court Ordinance on Vocational
Employment C) State Committee on Vocational
Education D) State Council of Virtual Education
Q41) The meaning of Affiliating University is
Options:
A) The universities which are not having Central
Campus for teaching, but it is going on in
Affiliating Colleges B) The universities which
implement Curriculum only and Coordinating
Examinations C) The Universities which work as
distribution of Degrees D) All the above are true
Q42) The total number of Deemed Universities
in India upto 15th January 2020 was
Options:
A) 127 B) 99 C) 69 D) 97
Q43) To which committee, the name of Rev. P.T.
Chandi was associated?
Options:
A) The Committee for College Administrative
Legislation B) The Committee for University
Administrative Legislation C) Affiliating
University’s Standardization Committee D)
Federal University's Standard Committee
Answers:
Q1) B, Q2) C, Q3) D, Q4) A, Q5) A, Q6) D, Q7)
A, Q8) D, Q9) A, Q10) A, Q11) A, Q12) C,
Q13) A, Q14) D, Q15) A, Q16) A, Q17) A, Q18)
C, Q19) D, Q20) A, Q21) D, Q22) D, Q23) A,
Q24) A, Q25) D, Q26) A, Q27) A, Q28) A, Q29)
B, Q30) A, Q31) A, Q32) D, Q33) A, Q34) A,

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PDF Notes Academy HIGHER EDUCATION SYSTEMS

Q35) A, Q36) A, Q37) A, Q38) A, Q39) D, Q40)

A, Q41) D, Q42) A, Q43) A

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