29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

NPSI
Class Test

1. Which one of the following sets of phenomena would increase on raising the temperature?
Options
(A) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
(B) Evaporation, compression of gases, solubility
(C) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
(D) Evaporation, solubility, diffusion, compression of gases

2. Seema visited a Natural Gas Compressing Unit and found that the gas can be liquefied under specific conditions of
temperature and pressure. While sharing her experience with friends she got confused. Help her to identify the correct
set of conditions
Options
(A) Low temperature, low pressure
(B) High temperature, low pressure
(C) Low temperature, high pressure
(D) High temperature, high pressure

3. The property to flow is unique to fluids. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Options
(A) Only gases behave like fluids
(B) Gases and solids behave like fluids
(C) Gases and liquids behave like fluids
(D) Only liquids are fluids

4. During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of
Options
(A) diffusion
(B) transpiration
(C) osmosis
(D) evaporation

5. A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of ‘forces of attraction’ between their particles. Which one of the
following represents a correct arrangement?
Options
(A) Water, air, wind
(B) Air, sugar, oil
(C) Oxygen, water, sugar
(D) Salt, juice, air

6. On converting 25°C, 38°C and 66°C to kelvin scale, the correct sequence of temperature will be
Options
(A) 298 K, 311 K and 339 K
(B) 298 K, 300 K and 338 K
(C) 273 K, 278 K and 543 K
(D) 298 K, 310 K and 338 K

7. Choose the correct statement of the following

Options
(A) conversion of solid into vapours without passing through the liquid state is called vapourisation.
(B) conversion of vapours into solid without passing through the liquid state is called sublimation.
(C) conversion of vapours into solid without passing through the liquid state is called freezing.
(D) conversion of solid into liquid is called sublimation.

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

8. The boiling points of diethyl ether, acetone and n-butyl alcohol are 35°C, 56°C and 118°C respectively. Which one of the
following correctly represents their boiling points in kelvin scale?
Options
(A) 306 K, 329 K, 391 K
(B) 308 K, 329 K, 392 K
(C) 308 K, 329 K, 391 K
(D) 329 K, 392 K, 308 K

9. Which condition out of the following will increase the evaporation of water?
Options
(A) Increase in temperature of water
(B) Decrease in temperature of water
(C) Less exposed surface area of water
(D) Adding common salt to water

10. In which of the following conditions, the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas would increase?
(i) Increasing pressure on hydrogen contained in a closed container
(ii) Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container
(iii) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas
(iv) Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing the volume of the container
Options
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

11. A sample of water under study was found to boil at 102°C at normal temperature and pressure. Is the water pure? Will
this water freeze at 0°C? Comment.

12. A student heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content of the beaker as a
function of time. Which of the following (Fig.) would correctly represent the result? Justify your choice.

13. Fill in the blanks:

Evaporation of a liquid at room temperature leads to a________ effect.

14. Fill in the blanks:

At room temperature the forces of attraction between the particles of solid substances are__________than those which
exist in the gaseous state.

15. Fill in the blanks:

The arrangement of particles is less ordered in the __________ state. However, there is no order in the_______________
state.

16. Fill in the blanks:

______________is the change of gaseous state directly to solid state without going through the ________________state.

17. Fill in the blanks:

The phenomenon of change of a liquid into the gaseous state at any temperature below its boiling point is
called___________.

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

18. Match the physical quantities given in column A to their S I units given in column: B
( A) (B)
(a) Pressure (i) cubic metre
(b) Temperature (ii) kilogram
(c) Density (iii) pascal
(d) Mass (iv) kelvin
(e) Volume (v) kilogram per cubic metre

19. The non S I and S I units of some physical quantities are given in column A and column B respectively. Match the units
belonging to the same physical quantity:
(A) (B)
(a) degree celsius (i) kilogram
(b) centimetre (ii) pascal
(c) gram per centimetre cube (iii) metre
(d) bar (iv) kelvin
(e) milligram (v) kilogram per metre cube

20. ‘Osmosis is a special kind of diffusion’. Comment.

21. Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion

Swelling up of a raisin on keeping in water.

22. Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion

Spreading of virus on sneezing.

23. Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion

Earthworm dying on coming in contact with common salt.

24. Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion

Shrinking of grapes kept in thick sugar syrup.

25. Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion

Preserving pickles in salt.

26. Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion

Spreading of smell of cake being baked through out the house.

27. Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion

Aquatic animals using oxygen dissolved in water during respiration.

28. Water as ice has a cooling effect, whereas water as steam may cause severe burns. Explain these observations.

29. Alka was making tea in a kettle. Suddenly she felt intense heat from the puff of steam gushing out of the spout of the
kettle. She wondered whether the temperature of the steam was higher than that of the water boiling in the kettle.
Comment.

30. A glass tumbler containing hot water is kept in the freezer compartment of a refrigerator (temperature < 0°C). If you
could measure the temperature of the content of the tumbler, which of the following graphs (Fig.) would correctly
represent the change in its temperature as a function of time.

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

31. Look at Fig. and suggest in which of the vessels A,B, C or D the rate of evaporation will be the highest? Explain.

32.
Conversion of solid to vapour is called sublimation. Name the term used to denote the conversion of vapour to solid.

33.
Conversion of solid state to liquid state is called fusion; what is meant by latent heat of fusion?

34. You are provided with a mixture of naphthalene and ammonium chloride by your teacher. Suggest an activity to separate
them with well labelled diagram.

35. It is a hot summer day, Priyanshi and Ali are wearing cotton and nylon clothes respectively. Who do you think would be
more comfortable and why?

36. You want to wear your favourite shirt to a party, but the problem is that it is still wet after a wash. What steps would you
take to dry it faster?

37. Comment on the following statements:

Evaporation produces cooling.

38. Comment on the following statements:

Rate of evaporation of an aqueous solution decreases with increase in humidity.

39. Comment on the following statements:

Sponge though compressible is a solid.

40. Why does the temperature of a substance remain constant during its melting point or boiling point?

41. Look at the diagram below and answer the following questions:

(i) When a force is applied through the free end of the spring balance A, then the reading on the spring balance A is 15 g-
wt. What will be the measure of the reading shown by spring balance B?
(ii) Write reasons for your answer.
(iii) Name the force which balance A exerts on balance B and the force of balance B on balance A.

42. An iron sphere of mass 1 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m. If the acceleration of sphere is 9.8 m /`s^2`, then calculate
the momentum transferred to the ground by the ball.

43. Two hockey players of opposite teams, while trying to hit a hockey ball on the ground, collide and immediately get
entangled. One has a mass of 60 kg and was moving with a velocity of 5 m/s. The other has a mass of 55 kg and was
moving with a velocity of 6 m/s towards the first player. In which direction and with what velocity will they move after
they become entangled? Assume that the frictional force acting between the feet of two players and ground is negligible.

44. A bullet of mass 0.02 kg is fired from a gun weighing 7.5 kg. If the initial velocity of the bullet is 200 m/s, then calculate
the speed with which the gun recoils.

45. A rifle of mass 3 kg fires a bullet of mass 0.03 kg. The bullet leaves the barrel of the rifle at a velocity of 100 m/s. If the
bullet takes 0.003 s to move through its barrel, then calculate the force experienced by the rifle due to its recoil.

46. Car A of m ass 1500 kg travelling at 25 m/s collides with another car B of m ass 1000 kg travelling at 15 m/s in the sam
e direction. After collision, the velocity of car A becomes 20 m/s. Calculate the velocity of car B after collision.

47. (i) When a carpet is beaten with a stick dust comes out of it. Explain.
(ii) Calculate the force required to impart a car with a velocity of 30 m/s in 10 s starting from rest. The mass of the car is
15000 kg.

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

48. Derive the mathematical relation of Newton's second law of motion.

49. (i) Define momentum. State its SI unit.

(ii) An object of mass 5 kg is accelerated uniformly from a velocity of 4 m/s to 8 m/s in 8 s. Calculate the initial and final
momentum of the object. Also, find the magnitude of the force exerted on the object.

50. If the engine of a car provides an acceleration of 2 m/s2 to start it from rest, then assuming the mass to be roughly 1000
kg. Calculate
(i) force provided by the engine.
(ii) velocity after 10 s.
(iii) time after which the car comes to rest, if the engine is turned off after 15 s. (take, frictional force =15 N)

51. A bullet of mass 20 g is horizontally fired with a horizontal velocity 150 m/s from a pistol of mass 2 kg. What is the recoil
velocity of the pistol?

52. A boy of mass 40 kg jumps with a horizontal velocity of 5 m/s onto a stationary cart with frictionless wheels. The mass
of the cart is 3 kg. What is his velocity as the cart starts moving? Assume that there is no external unbalanced force
working in horizontal direction.

53. A constant force of friction of 50 N is acting on a body of mass 200 kg moving initially with a speed of 15 m/s. How long
does the body take to stop? What distance will it cover before coming to rest?

54. Which of the following statements are true for pure substances?
(i) Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
(ii) Pure substances may be compounds or mixtures
(iii) Pure substances have the same composition throughout
(iv) Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel
Options
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)

55. Rusting of an article made up of iron is called

Options
(A) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical change
(B) dissolution and it is a physical change
(C) corrosion and it is a chemical change
(D) dissolution and it is a chemical change

56. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is

Options
(A) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(B) homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(C) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
(D) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

57. Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This solution is made by dissolving
Options
(A) iodine in potassium iodide
(B) iodine in vaseline
(C) iodine in water
(D) iodine in alcohol

58. Which of the following are homogeneous in nature?

(i) ice (ii) wood (iii) soil (iv) air
Options
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)

59. Which of the following are physical changes?

(i) Melting of iron metal
(ii) Rusting of iron
(iii) Bending of an iron rod
(iv) Drawing a wire of iron metal
Options
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

60. Which of the following are chemical changes?

(i) Decaying of wood
(ii) Burning of wood
(iii) Sawing of wood
(iv) Hammering of a nail into a piece of wood
Options
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)

61. Two substances, A and B were made to react to form a third substance, A2B according to the following reaction 2 A + B
→ A2B
Which of the following statements concerning this reaction are incorrect?
(i) The product A2B shows the properties of substances A and B
(ii) The product will always have a fixed composition
(iii) The product so formed cannot be classified as a compound
(iv) The product so formed is an element
Options
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii),
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

62. Two chemical species X and Y combine together to form a product P which contains both X and Y
X+Y→P
X and Y cannot be broken down into simpler substances by simple chemical reactions. Which of the following
concerning the species X, Y and P are correct?
(i) P is a compound
(ii) X and Y are compounds
(iii) X and Y are elements
(iv) P has a fixed composition
Options
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii),
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

63. Suggest separation technique(s) one would need to employ to separate the following mixtures.
Mercury and water

64. Suggest separation technique(s) one would need to employ to separate the following mixtures.
Potassium chloride and ammonium chloride

65. Suggest separation technique(s) one would need to employ to separate the following mixtures.
Common salt, water and sand

66. Suggest separation technique(s) one would need to employ to separate the following mixtures.
Kerosene oil, water and salt

67. Which of the tubes in Fig. (a) and (b) will be more effective as a condenser in the distillation apparatus?

68. Salt can be recovered from its solution by evaporation. Suggest some other technique for the same?

69. The ‘sea-water’ can be classified as a homogeneous as well as heterogeneous mixture. Comment.

70. While diluting a solution of salt in water, a student by mistake added acetone (boiling point 56°C). What technique can be
employed to get back the acetone? Justify your choice.

71. What would you observe when

a saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at 60°C is allowed to cool to room temperature.

72. What would you observe when

an aqueous sugar solution is heated to dryness.

73. What would you observe when

a mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder is heated strongly.

74. Explain why particles of a colloidal solution do not settle down when left undisturbed, while in the case of a suspension
they do.

75. Smoke and fog both are aerosols. In what way are they different?

76. Classify the following as physical or chemical properties

The composition of a sample of steel is: 98% iron, 1.5% carbon and 0.5% other elements.

77. Classify the following as physical or chemical properties

Zinc dissolves in hydrochloric acid with the evolution of hydrogen gas.

78. Classify the following as physical or chemical properties

Metallic sodium is soft enough to be cut with a knife.

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

79. Classify the following as physical or chemical properties

Most metal oxides form alkalis on interacting with water.

80. The teacher instructed three students ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ respectively to prepare a 50% (mass by volume) solution of sodium
hydroxide (NaOH). ‘A’ dissolved 50g of NaOH in 100 mL of water, ‘B’ dissolved 50g of NaOH in 100g of water while ‘C’
dissolved 50g of NaOH in water to make 100 mL of solution. Which one of them has made the desired solution and why?

81. Name the process associated with the following

Dry ice is kept at room temperature and at one atmospheric pressure.

82. Name the process associated with the following

A drop of ink placed on the surface of water contained in a glass spreads throughout the water.

83. Name the process associated with the following

A potassium permanganate crystal is in a beaker and water is poured into the beaker with stirring.

84. Name the process associated with the following

A acetone bottle is left open and the bottle becomes empty.

85. Name the process associated with the following

Milk is churned to separate cream from it.

86. Name the process associated with the following

Settling of sand when a mixture of sand and water is left undisturbed for some time.

87. Name the process associated with the following

Fine beam of light entering through a small hole in a dark room, illuminates the particles in its paths.

88. You are given two samples of water labelled as ‘A’ and ‘B’. Sample ‘A’ boils at 100°C and sample ‘B’ boils at 102°C. Which
sample of water will not freeze at 0°C? Comment.

89. What are the favourable qualities given to gold when it is alloyed with copper or silver for the purpose of making
ornaments?

90. An element is sonorous and highly ductile. Under which category would you classify this element? What other
characteristics do you expect the element to possess?

91. Give an example each for the mixture having the following characteristics. Suggest a suitable method to separate the
components of these mixtures Evaporation or distillation
A volatile and a non-volatile component.

92. Give an example each for the mixture having the following characteristics. Suggest a suitable method to separate the
components of these mixtures Evaporation or distillation
Two volatile components with appreciable difference in boiling points.

93. Give an example each for the mixture having the following characteristics. Suggest a suitable method to separate the
components of these mixtures Evaporation or distillation
Two immiscible liquids.

94. Give an example each for the mixture having the following characteristics. Suggest a suitable method to separate the
components of these mixtures Evaporation or distillation
One of the components changes directly from solid to gaseous state.

95. Give an example each for the mixture having the following characteristics. Suggest a suitable method to separate the
components of these mixtures Evaporation or distillation
Two or more coloured constituents soluble in some solvent.

96. Fill in the blanks

A colloid is a ——— mixture and its components can be separated by the technique known as __________.

97. Fill in the blanks

Ice, water and water vapour look different and display different _________properties but they are ____________the same.

98. Fill in the blanks

A mixture of chloroform and water taken in a separating funnel is mixed and left undisturbed for some time. The upper
layer in the separating funnel will be of___________ and the lower layer will be that of___________.

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

99. Fill in the blanks

A mixture of two or more miscible liquids, for which the difference in the boiling points is less than 25 K can be
separated by the process called ________.

100. Fill in the blanks

When light is passed through water containing a few drops of milk, it shows a bluish tinge. This is due to the
______________ of light by milk and the phenomenon is called __________. This indicates that milk is a _______________
solution.

101. Sucrose (sugar) crystals obtained from sugarcane and beetroot are mixed together. Will it be a pure substance or a
mixture? Give reasons for the same.

102. Give some examples of Tyndall effect observed in your surroundings?

103. Can we separate alcohol dissolved in water by using a separating funnel? If yes, then describe the procedure. If not,
explain.

104. On heating calcium carbonate gets converted into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
Is this a physical or a chemical change?

105. On heating calcium carbonate gets converted into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
Can you prepare one acidic and one basic solution by using the products formed in the above process? If so, write the
chemical equation involved.

106. Non metals are usually poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are non-lustrous, non-sonorous, non-malleable and
are coloured.
Name a lustrous non-metal.

107. Non metals are usually poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are non-lustrous, non-sonorous, non-malleable and
are coloured.
Name a non-metal which exists as a liquid at room temperature.

108. Non metals are usually poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are non-lustrous, non-sonorous, non-malleable and
are coloured.
The allotropic form of a non-metal is a good conductor of electricity. Name the allotrope.

109. Non metals are usually poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are non-lustrous, non-sonorous, non-malleable and
are coloured.
Name a non-metal which is known to form the largest number of compounds.

110. Non metals are usually poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are non-lustrous, non-sonorous, non-malleable and
are coloured.
Name a non-metal other than carbon which shows allotropy.

111. Non metals are usually poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are non-lustrous, non-sonorous, non-malleable and
are coloured.
Name a non-metal which is required for combustion.

112. Classify the substances given in Fig. into elements and compounds

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

113. Which of the following are not compounds?

(a) Chlorine gas
(b) Potassium chloride
(c) Iron
(d) Iron sulphide
(e) Aluminium
(f) Iodine
(g) Carbon
(h) Carbon monoxide
(i) Sulphur powder

114. Fractional distillation is suitable for separation of miscible liquids with a boiling point difference of about 25 K or less.
What part of fractional distillation apparatus makes it efficient and possess an advantage over a simple distillation
process. Explain using a diagram. 34.
Under which category of mixtures will you classify alloys and why?

115. Fractional distillation is suitable for separation of miscible liquids with a boiling point difference of about 25 K or less.
What part of fractional distillation apparatus makes it efficient and possess an advantage over a simple distillation
process. Explain using a diagram. 34.
A solution is always a liquid. Comment.

116. Fractional distillation is suitable for separation of miscible liquids with a boiling point difference of about 25 K or less.
What part of fractional distillation apparatus makes it efficient and possess an advantage over a simple distillation
process. Explain using a diagram. 34.
Can a solution be heterogeneous?

117. Iron filings and sulphur were mixed together and divided into two parts, ‘A’ and ‘B’. Part ‘A’ was heated strongly while
Part ‘B’ was not heated. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added to both the Parts and evolution of gas was seen in both the
cases. How will you identify the gases evolved?

118. A child wanted to separate the mixture of dyes constituting a sample of ink. He marked a line by the ink on the filter
paper and placed the filter paper in a glass containing water as shown in Fig. The filter paper was removed when the
water moved near the top of the filter paper.

What would you expect to see, if the ink contains three different coloured components?

119. A child wanted to separate the mixture of dyes constituting a sample of ink. He marked a line by the ink on the filter
paper and placed the filter paper in a glass containing water as shown in Fig. The filter paper was removed when the
water moved near the top of the filter paper.

Name the technique used by the child.

120. A child wanted to separate the mixture of dyes constituting a sample of ink. He marked a line by the ink on the filter
paper and placed the filter paper in a glass containing water as shown in Fig. The filter paper was removed when the
water moved near the top of the filter paper.

Suggest one more application of this technique.

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

121. A group of students took an old shoe box and covered it with a black paper from all sides. They fixed a source of light
(a torch) at one end of the box by making a hole in it and made another hole on the other side to view the light. They
placed a milk sample contained in a beaker/tumbler in the box as shown in the Fig. They were amazed to see that milk
taken in the tumbler was illuminated. They tried the same activity by taking a salt solution but found that light simply
passed through it?

Explain why the milk sample was illuminated. Name the phenomenon involved.

122. A group of students took an old shoe box and covered it with a black paper from all sides. They fixed a source of light
(a torch) at one end of the box by making a hole in it and made another hole on the other side to view the light. They
placed a milk sample contained in a beaker/tumbler in the box as shown in the Fig. They were amazed to see that milk
taken in the tumbler was illuminated. They tried the same activity by taking a salt solution but found that light simply
passed through it?

Same results were not observed with a salt solution. Explain.

123. A group of students took an old shoe box and covered it with a black paper from all sides. They fixed a source of light
(a torch) at one end of the box by making a hole in it and made another hole on the other side to view the light. They
placed a milk sample contained in a beaker/tumbler in the box as shown in the Fig. They were amazed to see that milk
taken in the tumbler was illuminated. They tried the same activity by taking a salt solution but found that light simply
passed through it?

Can you suggest two more solutions which would show the same effect as shown by the milk solution?

124. Classify each of the following, as a physical or a chemical change. Give reasons.
Drying of a shirt in the sun.

125. Classify each of the following, as a physical or a chemical change. Give reasons.
Rising of hot air over a radiator.

126. Classify each of the following, as a physical or a chemical change. Give reasons.
Burning of kerosene in a lantern.

127. Classify each of the following, as a physical or a chemical change. Give reasons.
Change in the colour of black tea on adding lemon juice to it.

128. Classify each of the following, as a physical or a chemical change. Give reasons.
Churning of milk cream to get butter.

129. During an experiment the students were asked to prepare a 10% (Mass/Mass) solution of sugar in water. Ramesh
dissolved 10g of sugar in 100g of water while Sarika prepared it by dissolving 10g of sugar in water to make 100g of
the solution.
Are the two solutions of the same concentration

130. During an experiment the students were asked to prepare a 10% (Mass/Mass) solution of sugar in water. Ramesh
dissolved 10g of sugar in 100g of water while Sarika prepared it by dissolving 10g of sugar in water to make 100g of
the solution.
Compare the mass % of the two solutions.

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29/08/2024, 18:47 Class Test-9th Science-NPSI

131. You are provided with a mixture containing sand, iron filings, ammonium chloride and sodium chloride. Describe the
procedures you would use to separate these constituents from the mixture?

132. Arun has prepared 0.01% (by mass) solution of sodium chloride in water. Which of the following correctly represents
the composition of the solutions?
1.00 g of NaCl + 100g of water

133. Arun has prepared 0.01% (by mass) solution of sodium chloride in water. Which of the following correctly represents
the composition of the solutions?
0.11g of NaCl + 100g of water

134. Arun has prepared 0.01% (by mass) solution of sodium chloride in water. Which of the following correctly represents
the composition of the solutions?
0.0l g of NaCl + 99.99g of water

135. Arun has prepared 0.01% (by mass) solution of sodium chloride in water. Which of the following correctly represents
the composition of the solutions?
0.10 g of NaCl + 99.90g of water

136. Calculate the mass of sodium sulphate required to prepare its 20% (mass percent) solution in 100g of water?

137. The velocity-time graph of a ball moving on the surface of floor is as shown in figure. Calculate the force acting on the
ball, if m ass of the ball is 100 g.

138. The speed-tim e graph of a car is given. The car w eighs 1000 kg.
(i) What is the distance travelled by the car in first 2s?
(ii) What is the braking force applied at the end of 5 s to bring the car to stop within one second?

139. Two forces and F2 are acting on a body as shown in the figure, then acceleration in the body is

Options
(A) 23 m/`s^2`
(B) 3 m/`s^2`
(C) 2 m/`s^2`
(D) 22 m /`s^2`

140. A bullet of 20 g strikes a sand bag at a speed of 200 m/s and gets embedded after travelling 2 cm, then the resistive
force exerted by sand on the bullet is
Options
(A) `2xx10^(3)` N
(B) `2xx10^4` N
(C) `2xx10^6` N
(D) `2xx10^5` N

141. A truck moving with a speed of 54 km/h. Truck driver applied brakes suddenly and brings the truck to rest in 5 s, then
the average retarding force on truck, if mass of the truck and driver is 400 kg, will be
Options
(A) 1200 N
(B) 600 N
(C) 800 N
(D) 500 N

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142. A bus of mass 500 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s and is acted upon by a forward force of 500 N due to engine
and retarding force of 200 N due to friction velocity of bus after 20 s will be
Options
(A) 15 m/s
(B) 17 m/s
(C) 19 m/s
(D) 21 m/s

143. A force acts on a body of mass 5 kg and changes its velocity from 8 m/s to 12 m/s in 4s, then magnitude of force is
Options
(A) 8 N
(B) 4 N
(C) 5 N
(D) 6 N

144. Impulse is equal to

Options
(A) rate of change in momentum
(B) rate of change in force
(C) change in reaction force
(D) change in momentum

145. When a person jumps down from a tower into a stretched trapaulin, then be receives
Options
(A) greater injury
(B) less injury
(C) no injury
(D) None of these

146. A bullet of mass 30 g is fired horizontally with a velocity of 120 m/s from a pistol of mass 2 kg, the recoil velocity of the
pistol is
Options
(A) 1.6 m/s
(B) 2.8 m/s
(C) 2.4 m/s
(D) 1.8 m/s

147. Assertion: Impulsive force is long range force and acts for a short time.
Reason: Change in momentum should be produced by force.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

148. Assertion: If two persons walking or running in opposite direction collide with each other, then both feel hurt.
Reason: Every action applies equal reaction.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

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149. Assertion: To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Reason: Thrust on a rocket depends upon exhaust speed of the gases.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

150. Give two examples of effects of force.

151. Apart from changing the magnitude of velocity of an object or changing the direction of motion of an object, what other
changes can force bring on an object?

152. Using a horizontal force of 200 N, we intend to move a wooden cabinet across a floor at a constant velocity. What is the
frictional force that will be exerted on the cabinet?

153. What do you mean by resultant force?

154. While riding on the bicycle, if we stop peddling, why does the bicycle begin to slow down?

155. What did Galileo conclude on the basis of his experiments on the motion of objects?

156. Velocity-time graph of a moving particle of mass 1 kg is shown in figure.

Is any force acting on the body? Justify your answer.

157. Name the agency which when applied to a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of momentum which it
produces in the body.

158. Name the physical quantity which corresponds to the rate of change of momentum.

159. What .is the net momentum of gun and bullet system after firing?

160. If F and F' are balanced forces, then what will be the magnitude of `F_2` ?

161. On what factors do the following physical quantities depend? (i) Inertia (ii) Momentum (iii) Force

162. Give reason for the following questions:

(i) Road accidents occurring due to high speeds are much worse than accidents due to low speeds of vehicles.
(ii) When a motorcar makes a sharp turn at a high speed passengers tend to get thrown to one side

163. Glasswares are wrapped in straw during their transportation. Justify giving reason.

164. What would happen if a fielder stops the fast moving ball suddenly? Justify your answer.

165. A body of mass m is moving with a velocity u. When a force is applied on it for time t, then its velocity increases to v,
write expressions for (i) initial and final momentum (ii) change of momentum (iii) rate of change of momentum. Also,
write SI unit for each.

166. (i) Explain, why is it difficult to walk on sand?

(ii) Why is the recoil of a heavy gun, on firing, not so strong as that of a light gun using the same cartridge?

167. A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a hole in it and the glass pane is not cracked. But on the other hand,
when a stone strikes the same glass pane, then it gets smashed. Why is it so?

168. What do you understand by momentum? A vehicle is moving with velocity of 5 m/s. If the momentum of the vehicle is
5000 kg-m/s, then what is its mass?

169. Force of 10N applied to a mass m1 produces an acceleration of 5 m/`s^2` and when applied to mass `m_2`, produces
an acceleration of 15 m/`s^2` in the mass. How much acceleration will the same force produce, if the two masses are
tied together?

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170. A bullet of mass 4 g when fired with a velocity of 50 m/s can enter a wall upto a depth of 10 cm. How much will be the
average resistance offered by the wall?

171. For how m uch time should a force of 200 N acts on an object having m ass 5 kg, so as to increase its velocity from 50
m/s to 100 m/s?

172. The motion of a body of m ass 5 kg is shown in the velocity-time graph.

Find from the graph. (i) Its acceleration. (ii) The force acting on the body. (iii) The change in momentum of body in 2 s
after start.

173. A boy begins to walk eastward along a street in front of his house and the graph of his position from have is shown in
the following figure. His average speed for whole time interval in equal to
Options
(A) 8 m/min
(B) 6 m/min
(C) `8/3` m/min
(D) 2m/min

174. A bus is travelling the first one-third distance at a speed of 10 km/h, the next one-fourth at 20 km/h and the remaining
at 40 km/h. What is the average speed of the bus?
Options
(A) 17 km/h
(B) 17.8 km/h
(C) 18 km/h
(D) 20 km/h

175. A sprinter has to cover a total run of 100 m. She increases her speed from rest under a uniform acceleration of 1. 0 m
/s2 up to three quarters of the total run and covers the last quarter him uniform speed. The time she takes to cover the
first half, and to cover the second half of the run will be
Options
(A) 3.25 s
(B) 4.25 s
(C) 5.25 s
(D) 6.25 s
8.A bus begin to move with an acceleration of 1 m /s2. A man who is 48 m behind the bus starts running at 10 m/s to
catch the bus. The man will be able to catch the bus after
(a.) 8 s (b) 5 s (c) 6 s (d) 7 s

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176. Which graph represents a state of rest for an object?

Options

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

177. Write three equations of uniformly accelerated motion. Also, state the symbols used.

178. A 100 m sprinter increases her speed from rest uniformly at the rate of 1 m /s2 upto 40m and covers the remaining
distance with a uniform speed. The sprinter covers the first half of the run in r, s and second half in t2s, then
Options
(A) `t_1 > t_2`
(B) `f_1 < f_2`
(C) `f,_1= t_2`
(D) information given is incomplete

179. Particles P and Q are undergoing uniform horizontal circular motions along concentric circles of different radii in
clockwise sense P completes each round in 2 min while Q does it is 5 min time required by Q to make one revolution
around P is
Options
(A) 3 min
(B) 10 min
(C) `10/3` min
(D) This is not possible as Q is moving slower than P

180. You are sitting in a stationary car. There is a helium balloon tied to its floor. You accelerate and obviously feel like you
are being pushed backwards (against the direction of your accelerations). The balloon
Options
(A) will move forward
(B) will move backward
(C) will remain state
(D) None of these

181. Figure shows x-t graph of a particle moving along a straight line. What is the sign of the acceleration during the
intervals OA, AB, BC and CD?

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182. Plot velocity-time graph of a body

(i) moving with a uniform retardation.
(ii) moving with a variable acceleration.

183. A body starts to slide over a horizontal surface with an initial velocity of 0.5 m/s. Due to friction, its velocity decreases
at the rate 0.105 m/s2. How much time will it take for the body to stop?

184. Look at the figure below and answer the following questions:

(i) Name the kind of motion of the stone.

(ii) Is this an example of accelerated motion? Why?
(iii) Name the force that keeps the stone in its path.
(iv) What is the direction of this force? Draw it in your answer sheet.

185. Study the velocity-time graph and calculate

(i) the acceleration from A toB.

(ii) the acceleration from B to C.
(iii) the distance covered in the region ABE
(iv) the average velocity from C to D.
(v) the distance covered in the region BCFE.

186. The driver of train A travelling at a speed of 54 km/h applies brakes and retards the train uniformly. The train stops in
5s. Another train B is travelling on the parallel with a speed of 36 km/h. Its driver applies the brakes and the train
retards uniformly, train B stops in 10 s. Plot speed-time graphs for both the trains on the same axis. Which of the trains
travelled farther after the brakes were applied?

187. A bridge is 400 m long. A 150 m long train crosses the bridge at a speed of 50 m/s . Time taken by the train to cross it.
Options
(A) 5 s
(B) 8 s
(C) 6 s
(D) 11 s

188. When two bodies moves uniformly towards each other, then they cross each other at the speed of 10 m/s. If both the
bodies move in the same direction, then they cross each other at the speed of 6 m/s. The speed of both bodies are
Options
(A) 8 m/s, 2 m/s
(B) 8 m/s, 4 m/s
(C) 6 m/s, 2 m/s
(D) 6 m/s, 4 m/s

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189. If a body is moving on a circular path of radius 21 cm with velocity of 2 m/s, then time taken by the body to complete
half revolution is
Options
(A) 11s
(B) 22 s
(C) 44 s
(D) 33 s

190. Assertion: Distance travelled by a body may be positive, negative or zero.

Reason: Shortest distance travelled by the body between two points is called distance.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

191. Assertion: Acceleration of a body can be calculated from velocity-time graph.

Reason: Area of velocity-time graph gives distance travelled by the body.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

192. Assertion: A body performing uniform circular motion with constant speed may have acceleration. Reason: When
speed of a body remains constant, then its acceleration is always zero.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

193. If the acceleration of the particle is constant in magnitude but not in direction, then what type of path does the particle
follow?

194. What does the path of an object took like when it is in uniform motion?

195. The velocity of a body increases by 10 m/s in every one second. What physical quantity does the body represent and
what is its magnitude?

196. Area under the velocity-time graph line is 40 m. What physical quantity does this area represent?

197. Does the motion of second's hand of a watch represent uniform velocity or uniform speed?

198. How can you calculate the following?

(i) Speed from distance-time graph.
(ii) Acceleration from velocity-time graph.
(iii) Displacement from velocity-time graph.

199. How will you show that the slope of displacement-time graph gives velocity of the body?

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200. Given below is the velocity-time graph for the motion of the car. What does the nature of the graph show? Also, find the
acceleration of the car.

201. (i) If the velocity-time graph of an object is parallel to Af-axis, then what does it mean? Can it be parallel to F-axis?
(ii) What type of motion is represented by each one of the following graphs?

(iii) A bus increases its speed from 36 km/h to 54 km/h in 10 s. Find its acceleration.

202. An insect moves along a circular path of radius 10 cm with a constant speed. It takes 1 min to move from a point on
the path to the diametrically opposite point, find (i) the distance covered, (ii) the speed, (iii) the displacement and (iv)
the average velocity.

203. The v-f graph of an object as shown below:

(i) Identify the type of motion by lines OA and BC.
(ii) Velocity at t = 8s.
(iii) Calculate acceleration
(a) between 3rd and 10 th second.
(b) last 2s

204. Distance travelled by a train and time taken by it is shown in the following table:
(i) Plot distance-time graph.
(ii) What is the average speed of the train?
(iii) When is the train travelling at the highest speed?
(iv) At what distance does the train slow down?
(v) Calculate the speed of the train between 10:40 am to 11:00 am.
Time Distance (in km)
10:00 am 0
10:30 am 25
10:40 am 28
11:00 am 40
11:15am 42
11:30 am 50

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205. Study the speed-time graph of a body given here and answer the following questions:

(i) What type of motion is represented by OA?

(ii) What type of motion is represented by AB ?
(iii) What type of motion is represented by BC ?
(iv) Find out the acceleration of the body.
(v) Calculate the retardation of the body.
(vi) Find out the distance travelled by the body from A to B.

206. Which of the following can be made into crystal?

Options
(A) A Bacterium
(B) An Amoeba
(C) A Virus
(D) A Sperm

207. A cell will swell up if

Options
(A) The concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher than the concentration of water molecules in surrounding
medium
(B) The concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium is higher than water molecules concentration in the
cell
(C) The concentration of water molecules is same in the cell and in the surrounding medium
(D) Concentration of water molecules does not matter

208. Chromosomes are made up of

Options
(A) DNA
(B) protein
(C) DNA and protein
(D) RNA

209. Which of these options are not a function of Ribosomes?

(i) It helps in manufacture of protein molecules
(ii) It helps in manufacture of enzymes
(iii) It helps in manufacture of hormones
(iv) It helps in manufacture of starch molecules
Options
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) and (i)

210. Which of these is not related to endoplasmic reticulum?

Options
(A) It behaves as transport channel for proteins between nucleus and cytoplasm
(B) It transports materials between various regions in cytoplasm
(C) It can be the site of energy generation
(D) It can be the site for some biochemical activities of the cell

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211. Following are a few definitions of osmosis

Read carefully and select the correct definition
Options
(A) Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a
semipermeable membrane
(B) Movement of solvent molecules from its higher concentration to lower concentration
(C) Movement of solvent molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration of solution through a permeable
membrane
(D) Movement of solute molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration of solution through a
semipermeable membrane

212. Plasmolysis in a plant cell is defined as

Options
(A) break down (lysis ) of plasma membrane in hypotonic medium
(B) shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium
(C) shrinkage of nucleoplasm
(D) none of them

213. Which of the following are covered by a single membrane?

Options
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Vacuole
(C) Lysosome
(D) Plastid

214. Find out the false sentences

Options
(A) Golgi apparatus is involved with the formation of lysosomes
(B) Nucleus, mitochondria and plastid have DNA; hence they are able to make their own structural proteins
(C) Mitochondria is said to be the power house of the cell as ATP is generated in them.
(D) Cytoplasm is called as protoplasm

215. Find out the correct sentence

Options
(A) Enzymes packed in Lysosomes are made through RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum)
(B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum produce lipid and protein respectively
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum is related with the destruction of plasma membrane
(D) Nucleoid is present inside the nucleoplasm of eukaryotic nucleus

216. Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in a cell?
Options
(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Vacuoles

217. The proteins and lipids, essential for building the cell membrane, are manufactured by
Options
(A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(B) golgi apparatus
(C) plasma membrane
(D) mitochondria

218. The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes are also known as

Options
(A) nucleus
(B) nucleolus
(C) nucleic acid
(D) nucleoid

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219. The cell organelle involved in forming complex sugars from simple sugars are
Options
(A) endoplasmic reticulum
(B) ribosomes
(C) plastids
(D) golgi apparatus

220. Which out of the following is not a function of vacuole?

Options
(A) Storage
(B) Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell
(C) Waste excretion
(D) Locomotion

221. Amoeba acquires its food through a process, termed

Options
(A) exocytosis
(B) endocytosis
(C) plasmolysis
(D) exocytosis and endocytosis both

222. Cell wall of which one of these is not made up of cellulose?

Options
(A) Bacteria
(B) Hydrilla
(C) Mango tree
(D) Cactus

223. Silver nitrate solution is used to study

Options
(A) endoplasmic reticulum
(B) golgi apparatus
(C) nucleus
(D) mitochondria

224. Organelle other than nucleus, containing DNA is

Options
(A) endoplasmic reticulum
(B) golgi apparatus
(C) mitochondria
(D) lysosome

225. Kitchen of the cell is

Options
(A) mitochondria
(B) endoplasmic reticulum
(C) chloroplast
(D) golgi apparatus

226. Lipid molecules in the cell are sythesized by

Options
(A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(B) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(C) golgi apparatus
(D) plastids

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227. Cell arises from pre-existing cell was stated by

Options
(A) Haeckel
(B) Virchow
(C) Hooke
(D) Schleiden

228. Cell theory was given by

Options
(A) Schleiden and Schwann
(B) Virchow
(C) Hooke
(D) Haeckel

229. The only cell organelle seen in prokaryotic cell is

Options
(A) mitochondria
(B) ribosomes
(C) plastids
(D) lysosomes

230. Organelle without a cell membrane is

Options
(A) ribosome
(B) golgi apparatus
(C) chloroplast
(D) nucleus

231. 1 µm is
Options
(A) `10^(–6)` m
(B) `10^(–9)` m
(C) `10^(–10)` m
(D) `10^(–3)` m

232. Lysosome arises from

Options
(A) endoplasmic reticulum
(B) golgi apparatus
(C) nucleus
(D) mitochondria

233. Living cells were discovered by

Options
(A) Robert Hooke
(B) Purkinje
(C) Leeuwenhoek
(D) Robert Brown

234. Select the odd one out

Options
(A) The movement of water across a semi permeable membrane is affected by the amount of substances dissolved in
it.
(B) Membranes are made of organic molecules like proteins and lipids
(C) Molecules soluble in organic solvents can easily pass through the membrane.
(D) Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants

235. Why are lysosomes known as ‘suicide-bags’ of a cell?

236. Do you agree that “A cell is a building unit of an organism”. If yes, explain why?

237. Why does the skin of your finger shrink when you wash clothes for a long time?
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238. Why is endocytosis found in animals only?

239. A person takes concentrated solution of salt, after sometime, he starts vomiting. What is the phenomenon responsible
for such situation? Explain.

240. Name any cell organelle which is non membranous.

241. We eat food composed of all the nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals and water. After
digestion, these are absorbed in the form of glucose, aminoacids, fatty acids, glycerol etc. What mechanisms are
involved in absorption of digested food and water?

242. If you are provided with some vegetables to cook. You generally add salt into the vegetables during cooking process.
After adding salt, vegetables release water. What mechanism is responsible for this?

243. If cells of onion peel and RBC are separately kept in hypotonic solution, what among the following will take place?
Explain the reason for your answer.
(a) Both the cells will swell.
(b) RBC will burst easily while cells of onion peel will resist the bursting to some extent.
(c) a and b both are correct.
(d) RBC and onion peel cells will behave similarly.

244. Bacteria do not have chloroplast but some bacteria are photoautorophic in nature and perform photosynthesis. Which
part of bacterial cell performs this?

245. Match the following A and B

(A) (B)
(a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (i) Amoeba
(b) Lysosome (ii) Nucleus
(c) Nucleoid (iii) Bacteria
(d) Food vacuoles (iv) Detoxification
(e) Chromatin material and nucleolus (v) Suicidal bag

246. Write the name of different plant parts in which chromoplast, chloroplast and leucoplast are present.

247. Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under
Transporting channels of the cell__________

248. Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under
Power house of the cell___________

249. Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under
Packaging and dispatching unit of the cell___________

250. Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under
Digestive bag of the cell____________

251. Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under
Storage sacs of the cell____________

252. Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under
Kitchen of the cell_______________

253. Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under
Control room of the cell_________________

254. How is a bacterial cell different from an onion peel cell?

255. How do substances like carbon dioxide (CO2 ) and water (H2O) move in and out of the cell?

256. How does amoeba obtain its food?

257. Name the two organelles in a plant cell that contain their own genetic material and ribosomes.

258. Why are lysosomes also known as “scavengers of the cells”?

259. Which cell organelle controls most of the activities of the cell?
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260. Which kind of plastid is more common in

roots of the plant

261. Which kind of plastid is more common in

leaves of the plant

262. Which kind of plastid is more common in

flowers and fruits

263. Why do plant cells possess large sized vacuole?

264. How are chromatin, chromatid and chromosomes related to each other?

265. What are the consequences of the following conditions?

A cell containing higher water concentration than the surrounding medium

266. What are the consequences of the following conditions?

A cell having low water concentration than the surrounding medium.

267. What are the consequences of the following conditions?

A cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium.

268. Draw a plant cell and label the parts which

determines the function and development of the cell

269. Draw a plant cell and label the parts which

packages materials coming from the endoplasmic reticulum

270. Draw a plant cell and label the parts which

provides resistance to microbes to withstand hypotonic external media without bursting

271. Draw a plant cell and label the parts which

is site for many biochemical reactions necessary to sustain life.

272. Draw a plant cell and label the parts which

is a fluid contained inside the nucleus

273. Illustrate only a plant cell as seen under electron microscope. How is it different from animal cell?

274. Draw a neat labelled diagram of an animal cell.

275. Draw a well labelled diagram of an eukaryotic nucleus. How is it different from nucleoid?

276. Differentiate between rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. How is endoplasmic reticulum important for
membrane biogenesis?

277. In brief state what happens when

dry apricots are left for sometime in pure water and later transferred to sugar solution?

278. In brief state what happens when

a Red Blood Cell is kept in concentrated saline solution?

279. In brief state what happens when

the Plasma-membrane of a cell breaks down?

280. In brief state what happens when

rheo leaves are boiled in water first and then a drop of sugar syrup is put on it?

281. In brief state what happens when

golgi apparatus is removed from the cell?

282. Draw a neat diagram of plant cell and label any three parts which differentiate it from animal cell.

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283. The distance-time graph of two trains are shown in figure. The trains start simultaneously in the same direction.
(i) How much A is ahead of B when the motion starts?
(ii) What is the speed of B?
(iii) When and where will A catch B?

(iv) What is the difference between speeds of A and B?

(v) Is the speed of both the trains uniform or non-uniform? Justify your answer.

284. Deduce the following equations of motion.

(i) `s = ut + (1/2) at^2` (ii) `v^2 = u^2 + 2 as`

285. On a 100 km track, a train travels the first 30 km at a uniform speed of 30 km/h. How fast must the train travel the next
70 km, so as to average 40 km/h for the entire trip?

286. Give one example of each of the following situations:

(i) Uniformly accelerated nation .
(ii) Motion with uniform retardation.
(iii) Accelerated motion with uniform magnitude of velocity.
(iv) Motion in a direction with acceleration in perpendicular direction.
(v) Motion in which v-t graph is a horizontal line parallel to X -axis

287. A fan rotates at 100 rpm. Find its an gu lar velocity an d lin ear velocity, if tip of its b lad es is 0.20 m aw ay from the axis
of rotation.

288. An object is moving with a uniform speed in a circle of radius r. Calculate the distance and displacement, (i) when it
completes half the circle, (ii) when it completes full circle, (iii) what type of motion does the object possess?

289. The speedometer readings of a car are shown below. Find the acceleration of the car and its displacement.
Time Speedometer
9:25 am 36 km/h
9:45 am 72 km/h

290. Brakes applied to a car produce an acceleration of 6 m/s2 in opposite direction to motion. If the car takes 2 s to stop
after application of brakes, then calculate the distance it travels during this time.

291. A train accelerates uniformly from 36 km/h to 72 km/h in 20 s. Find the distance travelled.

292. Study the v-t table and answer the following:

Velocity (m/s) 0 10 15 20 15 10 0
Time (s) 0 5 10 15 20 25 30
(i) What is the value of a in 0 to 15 s.
(ii) Predict the nature of acceleration in different part of the graph.

293. Which of the following tissues has dead cells?

Options
(A) Parenchyma
(B) Sclerenchyma
(C) Collenchyma
(D) Epithelial tissue

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294. Find out incorrect sentence

Options
(A) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces
(B) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners
(C) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues
(D) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack vacuoles

295. Girth of stem increases due to

Options
(A) apical meristem
(B) lateral meristem
(C) intercalary meristem
(D) vertical meristem

296. Which cell does not have perforated cell wall?

Options
(A) Tracheids
(B) Companion cells
(C) Sieve tubes
(D) Vessels

297. Intestine absorb the digested food materials. What type of epithelial cells are responsible for that?
Options
(A) Stratified squamous epithelium
(B) Columnar epithelium
(C) Spindle fibres
(D) Cuboidal epithelium

298. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of hand were dislocated. Which among the following may be
the possible reason?
Options
(A) Tendon break
(B) Break of skeletal muscle
(C) Ligament break
(D) Areolar tissue break

299. While doing work and running, you move your organs like hands, legs etc. Which among the following is correct?
Options
(A) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones
(B) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones
(C) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones
(D) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones

300. Which muscles act involuntarily?

(i) Striated muscles
(ii) Smooth muscles
(iii) Cardiac muscles
(iv) Skeletal muslces
Options
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)

301. Meristematic tissues in plants are

Options
(A) localised and permanent
(B) not limited to certain regions
(C) localised and dividing cells
(D) growing in volume
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302. Which is not a function of epidermis?

Options
(A) Protection from adverse condition
(B) Gaseous exchange
(C) Conduction of water
(D) Transpiration

303. Select the incorrect sentence

Options
(A) Blood has matrix containing proteins, salts and hormones
(B) Two bones are connected with ligament
(C) Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile
(D) Cartilage is a form of connective tissue

304. Cartilage is not found in

Options
(A) nose
(B) ear
(C) kidney
(D) larynx

305. Fats are stored in human body as

Options
(A) cuboidal epithelium
(B) adipose tissue
(C) bones
(D) cartilage

306. Bone matrix is rich in

Options
(A) fluoride and calcium
(B) calcium and phosphorus
(C) calcium and potassium
(D) phosphorus and potassium

307. Contractile proteins are found in

Options
(A) bones
(B) blood
(C) muscles
(D) cartilage

308. Voluntary muscles are found in

Options
(A) alimentary canal
(B) limbs
(C) iris of the eye
(D) bronchi of lungs

309. Nervous tissue is not found in

Options
(A) brain
(B) spinal cord
(C) tendons
(D) nerves

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310. Nerve cell does not contain

Options
(A) axon
(B) nerve endings
(C) tendons
(D) dendrites

311. Which of the following helps in repair of tissue and fills up the space inside
the organ?
Options
(A) Tendon
(B) Adipose tissue
(C) Areolar
(D) Cartilage

312. The muscular tissue which function throughout the life continuously without fatigue is
Options
(A) skeletal muscle
(B) cardiac muscle
(C) smooth muscle
(D) voluntary muscle

313. Which of the following cells is found in the cartilaginous tissue of the body?
Options
(A) Mast cells
(B) Basophils
(C) Osteocytes
(D) Chondrocytes

314. The dead element present in the phloem is

Options
(A) companion cells
(B) phloem fibres
(C) phloem parenchyma
(D) sieve tubes

315. Which of the following does not lose their nucleus at maturity?
Options
(A) Companion cells
(B) Red blood cells
(C) Vessel
(D) Sieve tube cells

316. In desert plants, rate of water loss gets reduced due to the presence of
Options
(A) cuticle
(B) stomata
(C) lignin
(D) suberin

317. A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the side ways conduction of water in the branches is
Options
(A) collenchyma
(B) xylem parenchyma
(C) parenchyma
(D) xylem vessels

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318. If the tip of sugarcane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the presence
of
Options
(A) cambium
(B) apical meristem
(C) lateral meristem
(D) intercalary meristem

319. A nail is inserted in the trunk of a tree at a height of 1 metre from the ground level. After 3 years the nail will
Options
(A) move downwards
(B) move upwards
(C) remain at the same position
(D) move sideways

320. Flexibility in plants is due to

Options
(A) collenchyma
(B) sclerenchyma
(C) parenchyma
(D) chlorenchyma

321. Cork cells are made impervious to water and gases by the presence of
Options
(A) cellulose
(B) lipids
(C) suberin
(D) lignin

322. Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of
Options
(A) intercalary meristem
(B) conducting tissue
(C) apical meristem
(D) parenchymatous tissue

323. Choose the wrong statement

Options
(A) The nature of matrix differs according to the function of the tissue
(B) Fats are stored below the skin and in between the internal organs
(C) Epithelial tissues have intercellular spaces between them
(D) Cells of striated muscles are multinucleate and unbranched

324. The water conducting tissue generally present in gymnosperm is

Options
(A) vessels
(B) sieve tube
(C) tracheids
(D) xylem fibres

325. Animals of colder regions and fishes of cold water have thicker layer of subcutaneous fat. Describe why?

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326. Match the column (A) with the column (B)

(A) (B)
(a) Fluid connective tissue (i) Subcutaneous layer
(b) Filling of space inside the organs (ii) Cartilage
(c) Striated muscle (iii) Skeletal muscle
(d) Adipose tissue (iv) Areolar tissue
(e) Surface of joints (v) Blood
(f) Stratified squamous epithelium (vi) Skin

327. Match the column (A) with the column (B)

(A) (B)
(a) Parenchyma (i) Thin walled, packing cells
(b) Photosynthesis (ii) Carbon fixation
(c) Aerenchyma (iii) Localized thickenings
(d) Collenchyma (iv) Buoyancy
(e) Permanent tissue (v) Sclerenchyma

328. If a potted plant is covered with a glass jar, water vapours appear on the wall of glass jar. Explain why?

329. Name the different components of xylem and draw a living component?

330. Draw and identify different elements of phloem.

331. Write true (T) or false (F)

Epithelial tissue is protective tissue in animal body.

332. Write true (T) or false (F)

The lining of blood vessels, lung alveoli and kidney tubules are all made up of epithelial tissue.

333. Write true (T) or false (F)

Epithelial cells have a lot of intercellular spaces.

334. Write true (T) or false (F)

Epithelial layer is permeable layer.

335. Write true (T) or false (F)

Epithelial layer does not allow regulation of materials between body and external environment.

336. Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary muscles. Give one example of each type.

337. Differentiate the following activities on the basis of voluntary (V) or involuntary (I V) muscles.
Jumping of frog

338. Differentiate the following activities on the basis of voluntary (V) or involuntary (I V) muscles.
Pumping of the heart

339. Differentiate the following activities on the basis of voluntary (V) or involuntary (I V) muscles.
Writing with hand

340. Differentiate the following activities on the basis of voluntary (V) or involuntary (I V) muscles.
Movement of chocolate in your intestine

341. Fill in the blanks

Lining of blood vessels is made up of_____________.

342. Fill in the blanks

Lining of small intestine is made up of _______________.

343. Fill in the blanks

Lining of kidney tubules is made up of______________.

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344. Fill in the blanks

Epithelial cells with cilia are found in_______________of our body.

345. Water hyacinth float on water surface. Explain.

346. Which structure protects the plant body against the invasion of parasites?

347. Fill in the blanks

Cork cells possesses ___________on their walls that makes it impervious to gases and water.

348. Fill in the blanks

______________ have tubular cells with perforated walls and are living in nature.

349. Fill in the blanks

Bone possesses a hard matrix composed of ___________and _________________.

350. Why is epidermis important for the plants?

351. Fill in the blanks

________are forms of complex tissue.

352. Fill in the blanks

________have guard cells.

353. Fill in the blanks

Cells of cork contain a chemical called________

354. Fill in the blanks

Husk of coconut is made of ________tissue.

355. Fill in the blanks

________gives flexibility in plants.

356. Fill in the blanks

________and________are both conducting tissues.

357. Fill in the blanks

Xylem transports________and________from soil.

358. Fill in the blanks

Phloem transport________from________to other parts of the plant.

359. Differentiate between sclerenchyma and parenchyma tissues. Draw well labelled diagram.

360. Describe the structure and function of different types of epithelial tissues. Draw diagram of each type of epithelial
tissue.

361. Draw well labelled diagrams of various types of muscles found in human body.

362. Give reasons for

Meristematic cells have a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm but they lack vacuole.

363. Give reasons for

Intercellular spaces are absent in sclerenchymatous tissues.

364. Give reasons for

We get a crunchy and granular feeling, when we chew pear fruit.

365. Give reasons for

Branches of a tree move and bend freely in high wind velocity.

366. Give reasons for

It is difficult to pull out the husk of a coconut tree.

367. List the characteristics of cork. How are they formed? Mention their role.

368. Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues? How are they different from one other?

369.
Differentiate between meristematic and permanent tissues in plants

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370.
Define the process of differentiation

371.
Name any two simple and two complex permanent tissues in plants.

372. The speed-time graphs of two cars are represented by P and Q as shown below:

(i) Find the difference in the distance travelled by the two cars (in m) after 4 s.
(ii) Do they ever move with the same speed? If, so when?
(iii) What type of motion of car P and car Q are undergoing?

373. Find the total displacement of the body from the following graph.

374. Speedometer is a device which is used to measure

Options
(A) average speed
(B) average acceleration
(C) instantaneous speed
(D) instantaneous acceleration

375. If velocity of an object decreases with time, then it is called

Options
(A) retardation
(B) deceleration
(C) negative acceleration
(D) All of these

376. Velocity-time graph for a moving object is found to be curved line, then its acceleration is
Options
(A) constant
(B) variable
(C) zero
(D) None of these

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377. In the following figure of velocity-time graph for the motion of the body, the total distance covered by the body from 3 s
to 7 s is

Options
(A) 28 m
(B) 56 m
(C) 14 m
(D) 35 m

378. A train starting from rest attains a velocity of 90 km/h in 2 min, then the distance travelled by the train for attaining this
velocity is
Options
(A) 1.5 km
(B) 2 km
(C) 2.5 km
(D) 1.2 km

379. Assertion: Displacement of body may be zero, when distance travelled by it is not zero.
Reason: The displacement is the longer distance between initial and final positions.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

380. Assertion: A body can have acceleration even its speed is constant.
Reason: In uniform circular motion, speed of body is constant but its velocity continuously changes.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

381. What is the importance of reference point?

382. Is it possible that the train in which you are sitting appears to move while it is at rest?

383. Odometer measures displacement of the vehicle. Correct this statement.

384. In which condition, will the magnitude of the displacement be equal to the distance travelled by an object?

385. What is the numerical ratio of average velocity to average speed of an object when it is moving along a straight path?

386. The distance-time graph for motion of Ram and Shyam is shown alongside. Which of them has greater acceleration?
Justify your answer.

387. if the displacement-time graph for a particle is parallel to time axis, what is the velocity of the particle?

388. Is the motion of a body uniform or accelerated, if it goes round the sun with constant speed in a circular orbit?

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389. Find the angular velocity of satellite which revolves in a circular orbit of radius 35000 km and completes one round in
12 h.

390. A cow and a bird both travelled from point A to point B. The cow travelled in a straight line but the bird travelled along
the curved path as shown below:
(i) What is the distance travelled by the cow?
(ii) What is the distance travelled by the bird?
(iii) Which one of them has more

391. Express average velocity when the velocity of a body changes at a non-uniform rate and a uniform rate.

392. Give one example each of the type of motion when

(i) acceleration is in the direction of motion.
(ii) acceleration is against the direction of motion.
(iii) acceleration is uniform

393. Derive second equation of motion graphically.

394. State the three equations of motion. Which of them describes

(i) velocity-time relation?
(ii) position-time relation?

395. A car moves with a speed of 30 km/h for half an hour, 25 km/h for one hour and 40 km/h for two hours. Calculate
average speed of the car.

396. The graph given below is the distance-time graph of an object.

(i) Find the speed of the object during first four seconds of its journey.
(ii) How long was it stationary?
(iii) Does it represent a real situation? Justify your answer.

397. Complete the analogy given below and choose the correct option.
Cutin : Epidermis ; Suberin : .......... .
Options
(A) Cambium
(B) Apical meristem
(C) Sieve tube
(D) Cork cells

398. A fat person is less affected by the cold wheather because of the presence of more
Options
(A) areolar tissue
(B) striated muscles
(C) adipose tissue
(D) platelets

399. Choose the incorrectly matched pair from the options given below
Options
(A) Salivary gland — Glandular epithelium
(B) Companion cells — Perforated walls
(C) Collenchyma — Flexibility
(D) Axon — Nerve cell

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400. Nucleus is located at the periphery in

Options
(A) cardiac muscles
(B) smooth muscles
(C) striated muscles
(D) Both (a) and (c)

401. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after half a circle would be:
Options
(A) Zero
(B) π r
(C) 2 r
(D) 2π r

402. A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity u, the greatest height h to which it will rise is,
Options
(A) u/g
(B) `u^2`/2g
(C) `u^2`/g
(D) u/2g

403. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is

Options
(A) always less than 1
(B) always equal to 1
(C) always more than 1
(D) equal or less than 1

404. If the displacement of an object is proportional to square of time, then the object moves with
Options
(A) uniform velocity
(B) uniform acceleration
(C) increasing acceleration
(D) decreasing acceleration

405. From the given v – t graph (Fig), it can be inferred that the object is

Options
(A) in uniform motion
(B) at rest
(C) in non-uniform motion
(D) moving with uniform acceleration

406. Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a merry-go-round which is moving with a constant speed of 10 m `s^(–1)`. It implies
that the boy is
Options
(A) at rest
(B) moving with no acceleration
(C) in accelerated motion
(D) moving with uniform velocity

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407. Area under a v – t graph represents a physical quantity which has the unit
Options
(A) `m^2`
(B) m
(C) `m^3`
(D) `ms^(–1)`

408. Four cars A, B, C and D are moving on a levelled road. Their distance versus time graphs are shown in Fig. Choose the
correct statement

Options
(A) Car A is faster than car D.
(B) Car B is the slowest.
(C) Car D is faster than car C.
(D) Car C is the slowest.

409. Which of the following figures (Fig) represents uniform motion of a moving object correctly?
Options

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

410. Slope of a velocity – time graph gives

Options
(A) the distance
(B) the displacement
(C) the acceleration
(D) the speed

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411. In which of the following cases of motions, the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement are equal?
Options
(A) If the car is moving on straight road
(B) If the car is moving in circular path
(C) The pendulum is moving to and fro
(D) The earth is revolving around the Sun

412. The displacement of a moving object in a given interval of time is zero. Would the distance travelled by the object also
be zero? Justify you answer.

413. How will the equations of motion for an object moving with a uniform velocity change?

414. A girl walks along a straight path to drop a letter in the letterbox and comes back to her initial position. Her
displacement–time graph is shown in Fig. Plot a velocity–time graph for the same.

415. A car starts from rest and moves along the x-axis with constant acceleration 5 m `s^(–2)` for 8 seconds. If it then
continues with constant velocity, what distance will the car cover in 12 seconds since it started from the rest?

416. A motorcyclist drives from A to B with a uniform speed of 30 km `h^(–1)` and returns back with a speed of 20 km `h^(–
1)`. Find its average speed.

417. The velocity-time graph (Fig) shows the motion of a cyclist. Find

its acceleration

418. The velocity-time graph (Fig) shows the motion of a cyclist. Find

its velocity and

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419. The velocity-time graph (Fig) shows the motion of a cyclist. Find

the distance covered by the cyclist in 15 seconds

420. Draw a velocity versus time graph of a stone thrown vertically upwards and then coming downwards after attaining the
maximum height.

421. An object is dropped from rest at a height of 150 m and simultaneously another object is dropped from rest at a height
100 m. What is the difference in their heights after 2 s if both the objects drop with same accelerations? How does the
difference in heights vary with time?

422. An object starting from rest travels 20 m in first 2 s and 160 m in next 4 s. What will be the velocity after 7 s from the
start.

423. Using following data, draw time - displacement graph for a moving object:
Use this graph to find average velocity for first 4 s, for next 4 s and for last 6 s.
Time (s) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
Displacement (m) 0 2 4 4 4 6 4 2 0

424. An electron moving with a velocity of `5 × 10^4` m `s^(-1)` enters into a uniform electric field and acquires a uniform
acceleration of `10^4` m `s^(–2)` in the direction of its initial motion.
Calculate the time in which the electron would acquire a velocity double of its initial velocity.

425. An electron moving with a velocity of `5 × 10^4` m `s^(-1)` enters into a uniform electric field and acquires a uniform
acceleration of `10^4` m `s^(–2)` in the direction of its initial motion.
How much distance the electron would cover in this time?

426. Obtain a relation for the distance travelled by an object moving with a uniform acceleration in the interval between 4th
and 5th seconds.

427. Two stones are thrown vertically upwards simultaneously with their initial velocities `u_1` and `u_2` respectively. Prove
that the heights reached by them would be in the ratio of $u_{1}^{2}{}$:$u_{2}^{2}{}$ ( Assume upward acceleration is –
g and downward acceleration to be +g ).

428. Find out incorrect sentence

Options
(A) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces
(B) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners
(C) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues
(D) Meristematic tissues in its early stage lack vacuoles

429. Presence of which tissue made it possible for survival of plants in terrestrial environment?
Options
(A) Protective tissue
(B) Parenchymatous tissue
(C) Permanent tissue
(D) Conducting tissue

430. Which among the following statements is true?

Options
(A) All xylem cells are living except tracheids
(B) All phloem cells are living except sieve tubes
(C) All xylem cells are dead cells except xylem parenchyma
(D) All phloem cells are living cells except phloem fibres.
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431. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of hand were dislocated. Which among the following may be
the possible reason?
Options
(A) Tendon break
(B) Break of skeletal muscle
(C) Ligament break
(D) Areolar tissue break

432. Walls of collenchyma are irregularly thickened due to the deposition of

Options
(A) pectin
(B) lignin
(C) suberin
(D) All of the above

433. In the given figure, which of the following parts transmits impulse away from the cell body?

Options
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3

434. Write im portant functional differences between striated and smooth muscle tissues. Draw a labelled diagram of the
muscle tissue that shows rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout the life.

435. Name the tissue and write characteristic feature of following.

(i) Connects bone to bone in humans.
(ii) Forms inner lining of alveoli.
(iii) Has prominent middle lamella.
(iv) Transports water and m inerals in plants.

436. Identify the anim al tissues from the given descriptions and also m ention their location in the hum an body.
(i) Tissue A cells are filled with fat globules and the tissue acts as an insulator.
(ii) Tissue B has cylindrical branched cells and the tissue shows rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout the life.

437. (i) You can very easily bend the stem of a plant without breaking it. Name the tissue in the plant, which m akes it
possible. Where is it located? State any two characteristics of the cells of this tissue.
(ii) Draw a labelled diagram of the transverse section of this tissue.

438. Contractile proteins are found in

Options
(A) bones
(B) blood
(C) cartilage
(D) muscles

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439. Which among the following is not a leucocyte?

Options

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

440. Which of the following statement is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an accelerated motion?
Options
(A) Its speed keeps changing
(B) Its velocity always changes
(C) It always goes away from the earth
(D) A force is always acting on it

441. According to the third law of motion, action and reaction

Options
(A) always act on the same body
(B) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(C) have same magnitude and directions
(D) act on either body at normal to each other

442. A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the
goal keeper to
Options
(A) exert larger force on the ball
(B) reduce the force exerted by the ball on hands
(C) increase the rate of change of momentum
(D) decrease the rate of change of momentum

443. The inertia of an object tends to cause the object

Options
(A) to increase its speed
(B) to decrease its speed
(C) to resist any change in its state of motion
(D) to decelerate due to friction

444. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train is
Options
(A) accelerated
(B) uniform
(C) retarded
(D) along circular tracks

445. An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 m `s^(–1)` on a frictionless horizontal table. The force
required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
Options
(A) 32 N
(B) 0 N
(C) 2 N
(D) 8 N

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446. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of

Options
(A) mass
(B) energy
(C) momentum
(D) velocity

447. A water tanker filled up to `2/3` of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On sudden application of the brake, the
water in the tank would
Options
(A) move backward
(B) move forward
(C) be unaffected
(D) rise upwards

448. There are three solids made up of aluminium, steel and wood, of the same shape and same volume. Which of them
would have highest inertia?

449. Two balls of the same size but of different materials, rubber and iron are kept on the smooth floor of a moving train.
The brakes are applied suddenly to stop the train. Will the balls start rolling? If so, in which direction? Will they move
with the same speed? Give reasons for your answer.

450. Two identical bullets are fired one by a light rifle and another by a heavy rifle with the same force. Which rifle will hurt
the shoulder more and why?

451. A horse continues to apply a force in order to move a cart with a constant speed. Explain why?

452. Suppose a ball of mass m is thrown vertically upward with an initial speed v, its speed decreases continuously till it
becomes zero. Thereafter, the ball begins to fall downward and attains the speed v again before striking the ground. It
implies that the magnitude of initial and final momentums of the ball are same. Yet, it is not an example of
conservation of momentum. Explain why ?

453. Velocity versus time graph of a ball of mass 50 g rolling on a concrete floor is shown in Fig. Calculate the acceleration
and frictional force of the floor on the ball.

454. A truck of mass M is moved under a force F. If the truck is then loaded with an object equal to the mass of the truck
and the driving force is halved, then how does the acceleration change?

455. Two friends on roller-skates are standing 5 m apart facing each other. One of them throws a ball of 2 kg towards the
other, who catches it, How will this activity affect the position of the two? Explain your answer.

456. Water sprinkler used for grass lawns begins to rotate as soon as the water is supplied. Explain the principle on which it
works.

457. Using second law of motion, derive the relation between force and acceleration. A bullet of 10 g strikes a sand-bag at a
speed of `10^3` m `s^(-1)` and gets embedded after travelling 5 cm. Calculate.
the resistive force exerted by the sand on the bullet

458. Using second law of motion, derive the relation between force and acceleration. A bullet of 10 g strikes a sand-bag at a
speed of `10^3` m `s^(-1)` and gets embedded after travelling 5 cm. Calculate.
the time taken by the bullet to come to rest.

459. Derive the unit of force using the second law of motion. A force of 5 N produces an acceleration of 8 m `s^(–2)` on a
mass `m_1` and an acceleration of 24 m `s^(–2)` on a mass `m_2` . What acceleration would the same force provide if
both the masses are tied together?

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460. What is momentum? Write its SI unit.Interpret force in terms of momentum. Represent the following graphically.
momentum versus velocity when mass is fixed.

461. What is momentum? Write its SI unit.Interpret force in terms of momentum. Represent the following graphically.
momentum versus mass when velocity is constant.

462. (i) Identify A, B, C and D.

(ii) Write the functions of A, B, C and D.
(iii) Write the difference between A and D

463. Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of moon would
Options
(A) have same velocities at any instant
(B) have different accelerations
(C) experience forces of same magnitude
(D) undergo a change in their inertia

464. The value of acceleration due to gravity

Options
(A) is same on equator and poles
(B) is least on poles
(C) is least on equator
(D) increases from pole to equator

465. The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both objects are halved without changing distance
between them, then the gravitational force would become
Options
(A) F/4
(B) F/2
(C) F
(D) 2 F

466. A boy is whirling a stone tied with a string in an horizontal circular path. If the string breaks, the stone
Options
(A) will continue to move in the circular path
(B) will move along a straight line towards the centre of the circular path
(C) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path
(D) will move along a straight line perpendicular to the circular path away from the boy

467. An object is put one by one in three liquids having different densities. The object floats with `1/9, 2/11` and `3/7` parts
of their volumes outside the liquid surface in liquids of densities `d_1 , d_2` and `d_3` respectively. Which of the
following statement is correct?
Options
(A) `d_1> d_2> d_3`
(B) `d_1> d_2< d_3`
(C) `d_1< d_2> d_3`
(D) `d_1< d_2< d_3`

468. In the relation F = G M m/`d^2`, the quantity G

Options
(A) depends on the value of g at the place of observation
(B) is used only when the earth is one of the two masses
(C) is greatest at the surface of the earth
(D) is universal constant of nature

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469. Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between

Options
(A) the earth and a point mass only
(B) the earth and Sun only
(C) any two bodies having some mass
(D) two charged bodies only

470. The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation

Options
(A) depends on mass of earth only
(B) depends on radius of earth only
(C) depends on both mass and radius of earth
(D) is independent of mass and radius of the earth

471. Two particles are placed at some distance. If the mass of each of the two particles is doubled, keeping the distance
between them unchanged, the value of gravitational force between them will be
Options
(A) `1/4` times
(B) 4 times
(C) `1/2` times
(D) unchanged

472. The atmosphere is held to the earth by

Options
(A) gravity
(B) wind
(C) clouds
(D) earth’s magnetic field

473. The force of attraction between two unit point masses separated by a unit distance is called
Options
(A) gravitational potential
(B) acceleration due to gravity
(C) gravitational field
(D) universal gravitational constant

474. The weight of an object at the centre of the earth of radius R is

Options
(A) zero
(B) infinite
(C) R times the weight at the surface of the earth
(D) 1/`R^2` times the weight at surface of the earth

475. An object weighs 10 N in air. When immersed fully in water, it weighs only 8 N. The weight of the liquid displaced by the
object will be
Options
(A) 2 N
(B) 8 N
(C) 10 N
(D) 12 N

476. A girl stands on a box having 60 cm length, 40 cm breadth and 20 cm width in three ways. In which of the following
cases, pressure exerted by the brick will be
Options
(A) maximum when length and breadth form the base
(B) maximum when breadth and width form the base
(C) maximum when width and length form the base
(D) the same in all the above three cases

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477. An apple falls from a tree because of gravitational attraction between the earth and apple. If `F_1` is the magnitude of
force exerted by the earth on the apple and `F_2` is the magnitude of force exerted by apple on earth, then
Options
(A) `F_1` is very much greater than `F_2`
(B) `F_2` is very much greater than `F_1`
(C) `F_1` is only a little greater than `F_2`
(D) `F_1` and `F_2` are equal

478. What is the source of centripetal force that a planet requires to revolve around the Sun? On what factors does that force
depend?

479. On the earth, a stone is thrown from a height in a direction parallel to the earth’s surface while another stone is
simultaneously dropped from the same height. Which stone would reach the ground first and why?

480. Suppose gravity of earth suddenly becomes zero, then in which direction will the moon begin to move if no other
celestial body affects it?

481. Identical packets are dropped from two aeroplanes, one above the equator and the other above the north pole, both at
height h. Assuming all conditions are identical, will those packets take same time to reach the surface of earth. Justify
your answer.

482. The weight of any person on the moon is about 1/6 times that on the earth. He can lift a mass of 15 kg on the earth.
What will be the maximum mass, which can be lifted by the same force applied by the person on the moon?

483. Calculate the average density of the earth in terms of g, G and R.

484. The earth is acted upon by gravitation of Sun, even though it does not fall into the Sun. Why?

485. How does the weight of an object vary with respect to mass and radius of the earth. In a hypothetical case, if the
diameter of the earth becomes half of its present value and its mass becomes four times of its present value, then how
would the weight of any object on the surface of the earth be affected?

486. How does the force of attraction between the two bodies depend upon their masses and distance between them? A
student thought that two bricks tied together would fall faster than a single one under the action of gravity. Do you
agree with his hypothesis or not? Comment.

487. Two objects of masses `m_1` and `m_2` having the same size are dropped simultaneously from heights `h_1` and `h_2`
respectively. Find out the ratio of time they would take in reaching the ground. Will this ratio remain the same if (i) one
of the objects is hollow and the other one is solid and (ii) both of them are hollow, size remaining the same in each
case. Give reason.

488.
A cube of side 5 cm is immersed in water and then in saturated salt solution. In which case will it experience a greater
buoyant force. If each side of the cube is reduced to 4 cm and then immersed in water, what will be the effect on the
buoyant force experienced by the cube as compared to the first case for water. Give reason for each case.

489.
A ball weighing 4 kg of density 4000 kg `m^(–3)` is completely immersed in water of density `10^3` kg `m^(–3)` Find the
force of buoyancy on it. (Given g = 10 m `s^(–2)`.)

490. (i) Identify the structures marked below as A, B and C.

(ii) Complete the labelling of each structure.
(iii) Write the function of each structure.

491. M ention the location of the following tissues.

(i) Tendon (ii) Areolar tissues (iii) Cuboidal epithelium

492. The functional combination of nerve and muscle tissue is fundamental to most animals. Comment.

493. Name the tissue, which helps in transportation of oxygen that we inhale to various parts of the body. Write the com
position of this tissue.
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494. List the constituents of phloem. What will happen if the phloem at the base of a branch is removed?

495. Give the name of the following:

(i) Tissue concerned with the conduction of food materials.
(ii) Tissue capable of cell division.
(iii) Multiple pores present in epidermis of leaf.

496. Which is the simplest protective tissue present in animal body? State its two functions.

497. Name the type of epithelium present in respiratory tract. What is its specialisation?

498. Give three differences between epithelial tissue and connective tissue.

499. Mention three different types of blood cells with their functions. Draw diagrams also.

500. Differentiate between bone and cartilage.

501. Name the tissue that smoothens bones surfaces at joints. Describe its structure with the help of. a diagram.

502. Give the differences between tendon and ligament.

503. State the functions of skeletal connective tissue.

504. Write a note about structure and significance of striated muscles with diagram.

505. Name the kinds of muscles found in your limbs and lungs. How do they differ from each other structurally and
functionally?

506. Which type of muscle, smooth or striated is found in the iris of eye? Why are smooth muscles called involuntary
muscles? In what way are they different from striated muscles with respect to number of nuclei?

507. Draw a labelled diagram of unstriated muscle tissue and mention its occurrence, features and functions.

508. Draw a well-labelled diagram of cardiac muscle found in the human body. Write two differences between striated and
smooth muscles.

509. What are neurons? Where are they found in the body? What function do they perform in the body of an organism?

510. Differentiate between axon and dendrite.

511. Give one function of each of the following.

(i) Stomata
(ii) Contractile proteins in muscles
(iii) Cardiac muscle fibres

512. Write functions of the following: (i) Areolar connective tissues (ii) Neurons (iii) Adipose connective tissues

513. What happens, when

(i) formation of cork in older stem does not occur.
(ii) blood platelets are removed from blood.
(iii) apical meristem is damaged in plants.

514. Write a note on the protective tissue in plants. (Give appropriate diagram also)

515. The transportation system of plants is composed of complex permanent tissue. They have their transportation system
within themselves. Justify in detail with appropriate diagrams.

516. Differentiate between bone and cartilage with respect to structure, function and location.

517. Explain the significance of the following:

(i) Hair-like structures on epidermal cells.
(ii) Epidermis has a thick waxy coating of cutin in desert plants.
(iii) Small pores in epidermis of leaf.
(iv) Numerous layers of epidermis in cactus.
(v) Presence of a chemical suberin in cork cells.

518. (i) Describe adipose tissue with the help of diagram.

(ii) How is adipose tissue different from blood tissue?

519. Differentiate between various types of muscular tissues. Draw appropriate diagrams.

520. 'We can control some of the actions of our body, but some are not in our control'. Comment on this statement.
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521. (i) What will happen if cells are not properly organised in tissue?
(ii) Under certain Circumstances squamous epithelium is known as stratified squamous epithelium. Justify.

522. Write differences between animal tissue and plant tissue.

523. All phloem cells are living except

Options
(A) phloem fibres
(B) companion cells
(C) sieve tubes
(D) phloem parenchyma

524. Which of the following is not a part of epidermal tissue system ?

Options
(A) Companion cells
(B) Guard cells
(C) Root hairs
(D) Subsidiary cells

525. The striated appearance of a myofibril is due to the distribution pattern of

Options
(A) meromyosin
(B) actin and myosin
(C) sarcoplasmic reticulum
(D) troponin and fascicles

526. Assertion: Apical meristem is present at shoot and root tips.

Reason: It helps in the longitudinal growth of plants.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

527. Assertion Water hyacinth can float on water surface.

Reason Aerenchyma tissue is present in water hyacinth.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

528. Assertion Heart can pump blood throughout the body.

Reason It is made up of cardiac muscles.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

529. Give one similarity between permanent and meristematic tissue.

530. Name a component of phloem formed by end to end fusion of cells with perforated transverse walls.

531. Give one word for

(i) Zig-zag thickenings in cardiac muscles. (ii) Thickening present in sclerenchyma cells.

532. What is the function of thin, hair-like projections present on the cuboidal epithelium?

533. Which part of neuron receives and transmits impulses?

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534. Bark of a tree is impervious to gases and water. Give reasons.

535. Where are companion cells located in plants? Mention their functions.

536. (i) Identify the tissues shown in the figure.

(ii) Give the characteristic features of their cells.
(iii) Specify any two parts of the plant, where these tissues are present.

537. What is the difference between sclerenchyma and collenchyma?

538. Name the tissue responsible for the flexibility in plants. How would you differentiate it from other permanent tissues?

539. Answer the following:

(i) How is the epidermis of the plants living in very dry habitats adapted?
(ii) Write functions of guard cells of stomata in the leaf.

540. Describe three functions of protective tissue in plants

541. (i) Identify the given figures.

(ii) Give any two major differences between the structures identified.
(iii) Describe the role performed by these two in the plant body.

542. (i) Identify the tissue given in the following figure.

(ii) Mention the characteristic features of the cells.
(iii)- Specify the function of this tissue.
(iv) Name any one part of the plant, where these cells are present.

543. List any six characteristics of parenchyma.

544. (i) A plant tissue is observed under a microscope, as shown in the figure below. Identify the tissue.
(ii) State the characteristic features of these cells.
(iii) Name any two parts of the plant, where such cells are present.

545. Explain the basic criteria for classification of permanent tissue in plants.

546. Draw a diagrammatic labelled sketch of stem tip to show the location of meristematic tissue. Mention the functions of
different types of meristematic tissue.

547. Which type of tissue contracts, when it is stimulated by nerve impulse?

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548. Name the following: (i) Multinucleate muscle. (ii) Muscle with intercalated discs

549. What will happen if the cardiac muscles stop performing the rhythmic contraction and relaxation in living body?

550. Which type of muscle fibre has light and dark bands on its surface?

551. Name the connective tissue, which provides smoothness to the bone surfaces at the joints.

552. What is the prominent function of adipose tissue?

553. What is the function of ligament?

554. The matrix of cartilage is made up of a different compound than that of bone. Give its name.

555. State one function of bone.

556. Which body cell provides resistance against infection?

557. Blood, bone, ligaments, cartilages etc are all types of connective tissue present in body with different nature of matrix.
Why?

558. Which kind of cells can secrete substances at the epithelial surface?

559. Stratified squamous epithelium is abundantly found in the outer side of skin. What is the advantage of this arrangement
in living body?

560. Which type of conducting tissues conduct water and minerals vertically?

561. Identify the following. (i) Living component of xylem (ii) Dead element of phloem

562. Highlight the function of xylem and phloem.

563. Why epidermis of plants living in dry habitats is thicker?

564. Which feature of meristematic tissue helps aquatic plants to maintain buoyancy in water?

565. Which process in meristematic tissue converts it to permanent tissue?

566. Assertion: Axon and dendrites are special feature of neurons.

Reason: They help in the rapid conduction of nerve impulses.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

567. Assertion: Alimentary canal, iris of the eye and bronchi of lungs, the movements of these organs are not under our will.
Reason: These are voluntary m uscles.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

568. Assertion: Blood is a fluid connective tissue.

Reason: It is a motile connecting tissue which connects all the tissues, organs with each other.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

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569. Assertion: Cork is a protective tissue present in plants.

Reason: It aids in protection against water loss, m echanical injury and microbial infestation.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

570. Assertion: Lateral meristems are present along the side of various organs in plants.
Reason: These help in the healing of wounds in plants.'
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

571. Connective tissue is

Options
(A) ectodermal in origin with intercellular spaces
(B) ectodermal in origin without intercellular spaces
(C) mesodermal in origin without intercellular spaces
(D) mesodermal in origin with intercellular spaces

572. Choose the correctly matched pair.

Options
(A) Inner lining of salivary ducts- Ciliated epithelium
(B) M oist surface of buccal cavityG landular epithelium
(C) Tubular parts of nephrons- Cuboidal epithelium
(D) Inner surface of bronchiolesSquam ous epithelium

573. Lining of kidney tubules is made up of

Options
(A) stratified columnar epithelium
(B) sim ple cuboidal epithelium
(C) stratified squam ous epithelium
(D) sim ple colum nar epithelium

574. Which of the following is true?

Options
(A) Vessels are multicellular tube-like structure with wide lumen
(B) Tracheids are multicellular tube-like structure with wide narrow lumen
(C) Vessels are unicellular tube-like structure with wide lumen
(D) Tracheids are unicellular tube-like structure with wide lumen

575. Vacuoles
Options
(A) disrupt water balance in animals
(B) provide flexibility to plant cells
(C) are small-sized in animal cell and large-sized in plant cell
(D) All of the above

576. Which of the following plastids imparts red colour to pomegranate?

Options
(A) Chloroplast
(B) Chromoplast
(C) Amyloplast
(D) Leucoplast

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577. Choose the incorrectly matched pair from the options given below.
Options
(A) Director of the cell - Nucleus
(B) Protein factories - Ribosomes
(C) Semiautonomous organelle - Mitochondria
(D) Cytoplasmic bridges - Nucleolus

578. Pick out the incorrect statement.

Options
(A) Leucoplast is a colourless plastid.
(B) Cell wall is a non-living structure, mainly composed of cellulose.
(C) Golgi apparatus acts as the site of protein synthesis.
(D) Protoplasm is a life giving substance of a cell.

579. Cell wall of fungi is made up of

Options
(A) cellulose
(B) chitin
(C) pectins
(D) All of these
6 DNA stands for
(a.) Deoxyribonucleic acid (b)Dihydroribonucleate acetate
(c) Diribonucleate acetate (d) Decarboribonucleic acid

580. The cell organelle found in prokaryotes as well as eukaryotes is

Options
(A) centrioles
(B) plastids
(C) endoplasmic reticulum
(D) ribosomes

581. Which of these options are not a function of ribosomes?

I. It helps in manufacture of protein molecules
II. It helps in manufacture of enzymes
III. It helps in manufacture of hormones
IV. It helps in manufacture of starch molecules
Options
(A) Only II
(B) Only II
(C) Only IV
(D) Only I

582. Swollen feet and ankle can be naturally cured by dipping them in salt water. Suggest the mechanism involved in this
treatment.
Options
(A) Diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Plasmolysis
(D) Deplasmolysis

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583. Which among the following cells is involved in continuity of life?

Options

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

584. Explain in detail what do you know about the structure of nucleus.

585. (i) Where are chromosomes located? What is chromatin material and how does it change just before the cell divides?
(ii) The functional segments of DNA are genes.' Give reason.

586. State three differences between plasma membrane and cell wall.

587. What do you mean by the following terms? (i) Protoplasm (ii) Cytoplasm (iff) Nucleoplasm

588. State some differences between cytoplasm and nucleoplasm.

589. Differentiate between Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) and Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER). How
endoplasmic reticulum is important for membrane biosynthesis?

590. Describe the phenomenon of membrane biogenesis. Give one function of ER.

591. Name the organelle of the cell, which is involved in the formation of lysosomes. Write its functions in the cell.

592. Name the organelle of the cell, which has membrane-bound sac filled with powerful digestive enzymes. Write any four
common functions it performs inside the cell.

593. How many membranes are present in mitochondria? Give the characteristic features of these membranes. What is the
advantage of such features?

594. Name a cell organelle found only in a plant cell and mention its various types along with their functions and location.

595. Give the differences between leucoplasts and chromoplasts.

596. Which type of plastid stores starch, oil and proteins?

597. Why does plant cell possess large-sized vacuoles?

598. State reason for the following:

(i) Mitochondria is known as powerhouse of the cell.
(ii) Plastids are able to make their own protein.
(iii) Plant cell shrinks when kept in hypertonic solution.

599. Enlist any three functions of vacuoles.

600. Describe an activity to demonstrate endosmosis and exosmosis. Draw the diagram also.

601. Explain main functional regions of a cell with the help of a diagram.

602. Given below statements have underlined words which may be incorrect. Rewrite these words and state one function for
each of them other than those (if) given.
(i) The fundamental organisational unit of life is an organ.
(ii) The cell wall is an active part of the cell, and is selectively permeable.
(iii) The presence of plasma membrane enables the cells of plants and fungi to exist in hypotonic media without
bursting.
(iv) The Golgi body functions both as a passageway for intracellular transport and as a manufacturing surface.
(v) Leucoplasts contain carotenoides and their primary function is storage.

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603. (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of animal cell.

(ii) Name the structure, which helps in
(a) energy production
(b) exchange of materials between cytoplasm and nucleoplasm.
(c) lipid synthesis

604. Why are mitochondria called powerhouse of the cell? Give three similarities and one difference between mitochondria
and plastid.

605. Write the main functions of atleast ten cell components.

606. Grass looks green, papaya appears yellow. Which cell organelle is responsible for this?

607. How are the following related to each other?

(i) Chromatin network and chromosomes
(ii) Chloroplast and chlorophyll
(iii) Genes and DNA

608. (i) Describe the role played by the lysosomes. Why are they termed as suicidal bags? How do they perform their
function?
(ii) What happens to the dry raisins, when placed in plain water for some time? State the reason for whatever is
observed. What would happen if these raisins are then placed in concentrated salt solution?

609. The smallest known cell is 1.

Options
(A) yeast
(B) ovum
(C) Mycoplasma
(D) nerve cell

610. Identify the organelle present only in animal cells

Options
(A) Chloroplast
(B) Nucleus
(C) Centrioles
(D) Vacuoles

611. Assertion: Robert Brown discovered nucleus.

Reason: Nucleoplasm and cytoplasm of a living cell together form the protoplasm
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

612. Assertion: Lysosomes are often called as 'suicidal bags' of a cell.

Reason: Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes capable of digesting cellular waste.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

613. From where do new cells arise?

614. Give two examples of organisms in which a single cell performs all the functions.

615. In which form is the DNA present in a cell when the cell is not dividing?

616. What would happen to the life of a cell, if there are no vacuoles?

617. Name the fluid content of a cell. Write its function(s).

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618. Why is it said that 'a cell without nucleus is without any future'?

619. Write the function of leucoplast and chromoplast.

620. How do vacuoles perform differently in plant cell and a unicellular organism like Amoeba?

621. What will happen if (i) excess amount of fertilisers is added to a green lawn? (ii) salt is added to cut pieces of raw
mango?

622. Draw a well-labelled diagram of a eukaryotic nucleus. How is it different from nucleoid?

623. Given along side is a diagrammatic sketch of a certain generalised cell.

(i) Name the parts labelled as A-H.
(ii) Is it a plant cell or an animal cell? Give two reasons in support of your answer.
(iii) List the functions of parts marked as A, F and H.

624. The term 'protoplasm' was coined by

Options
(A) Purkinje
(B) Robert Hooke
(C) Virchow
(D) Robert Brown

625. Choose the incorrect statement from the following options

Options
(A) All cells arise from pre-existing cells only
(B) Rudolf Virchow proposed the cell theory
(C) Nucleus was discovered by Robert Brown in 1831
(D) The nucleus and cytoplasm of a living cell, altogether form the protoplasm

626. The flexibility of plasma membrane can be contributed to the presence of

Options
(A) proteins
(B) lipids
(C) nucleic acids
(D) Both (a) and (b)

627. Which one of the following terms describes 'a nucleus without nuclear membrane'?
Options
(A) N ucleolus
(B) Primitive nucleus
(C) N ucleoid
(D) All of these

628. Which one of the following cellular functions is performed by endoplasmic reticulum ?
Options
(A) Production of hydrolytic enzymes
(B) Supply of energy to cell
(C) Formation of lysosomes
(D) Production of vacuoles

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629. Select the correct functional role of vacuole in a cell.

Options
(A) Vacuoles do not help in m aintaining rigidity of cell
(B) Vacuoles form thread-like tail in sperms of many mammals
(C) Vacuoles expell excess water and waste products from the cell
(D) Vacuoles store only excretory products of a cell

630. Assertion: Rudolf Virchow proposed cell theory.

Reason: His cell theory states that all plants and animals are composed of cells.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

631. Assertion: Chromosomes are constituted by DNA and protein.

Reason: These are thread-like structures present in nucleus.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

632. Assertion: Prokaryotic cells are primitive and larger than eukaryotic cells.
Reason: Prokaryotic cells lack cytoplasmic organelles.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

633. Assertion: Golgi bodies store, modify and pack products in vesicles.
Reason: They are involved in the formation of lysosomes.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

634. Assertion: Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of a cell.

Reason: These generate energy (as ATP) for various cellular activities.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false

635. Name two unicellular organisms.

636. Name the process in which diffusion takes place through a semipermeable membrane.

637. What will happen if the already swollen raisin is kept in salt solution?

638. Name the process by which unicellular freshwater organisms and most plant cells tend to gain water.

639. What is the function of cellulose in plant cell?

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640. Why is nucleus called controller or brain of the cell?

641. State two important functions of the nucleus of the cell.

642. What is DNA? Where is it present?

643. How DNA is present in a cell which is

(i) dividing? (ii) not dividing?

644. Which organelle is called factory of ribosomes?

645. What are dictyosomes?

646. Is there any animal cell that lacks lysosomes?

647. In which cell organelle, the complete breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen takes place?

648. Name the energy currency of cell.

649. Which organelles are present only in plants cells and possess their own genome and ribosomes?

650. Name two structures, which are found in plant cell, but not in animal cell.

651. Name the type of plastid that helps in the process of photosynthesis.

652. Plant cells have large vacuoles each surrounded by a membrane. What is the name of this membrane?

653. List the contributions of the scientists given below in context of the study of cells
(i) Antony van Leeuwenhoek
(ii) Robert Brown
(iii) Camillo Golgi

654. Describe the structural features of cell membrane and cell wall. Why is cell membrane called selectively permeable
membrane?

655. Which of the following are matter? Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, lemon water, smell of perfume.

656. Give reasons for the following observation: The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get
the smell from cold food you have to go close.

657. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this observation show? 4. What
are the characteristics of the particles of matter

658. The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density. (density = mass/volume). Arrange the following in order of
increasing density – air, exhaust from chimneys, honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.

659.
Tabulate the differences in the characterisitcs of states of matter.

660.
Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy and density.

661. Give reasons

A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.

662. Give reasons

A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.

663. Give reasons

A wooden table should be called a solid. (d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid
block of wood we need a karate expert.

664. Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find
out why

665. What is the physical state of water at: a. 250ºC b. 100ºC ?

666. For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state?

667. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.

668. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?

669. How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?
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670. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?

671. Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?

672. What type of clothes should we wear in summer?

673. Convert the following temperatures to the celsius scale.

293 K

674. Convert the following temperatures to the celsius scale.

470 K.

675. Convert the following temperatures to the kelvin scale.

25°C

676. Convert the following temperatures to the kelvin scale.

373°C.

677. Give reason for the following observations.

Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.

678. Give reason for the following observations.

We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.

679. Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles— water, sugar,
oxygen.

680. What is the physical state of water at—

25°C ?

681. What is the physical state of water at—

0°C ?

682. What is the physical state of water at—

100°C ?

683. Give two reasons to justify—

water at room temperature is a liquid.

684. Give two reasons to justify—

an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.

685. Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?

686. What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?

687. Name A,B,C,D,E and F in the following diagram showing change in its state

688. What is meant by a substance?

689. List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.

690. Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.

691. How are sol, solution and suspension different from each other?

692. To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its concentration at
this temperature

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693. How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more than 25ºC),
which are miscible with each other?

694. Name the technique to separate

butter from curd,

695. Name the technique to separate

salt from sea-water,

696. Name the technique to separate

camphor from salt.

697. What type of mixtures are separated by the technique of crystallisation?

698. Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

cutting of trees,

699. Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

melting of butter in a pan,

700. Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

rusting of almirah,

701. Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

boiling of water to form steam,

702. Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

burning of paper and wood.

703. Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures

704. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Sodium chloride from its solution in water.

705. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.

706. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.

707. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.

708. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Butter from curd.

709. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Oil from water.

710. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Tea leaves from tea.

711. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Iron pins from sand.

712. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Wheat grains from husk.

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713. Which separation techniques will you apply for the

separation of the following?
Fine mud particles suspended in water .

714. Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble,
filtrate and residue.

715. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given
below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a
saturated solution).

What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 grams of
water at 313 K?

716. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given
below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a
saturated solution).

Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at room
temperature. What would she observe as the solution
cools? Explain.

717. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given
below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a
saturated solution).

Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?

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718. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given
below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a
saturated solution).

What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?

719. Explain the following giving examples.

saturated solution

720. Explain the following giving examples.

pure substance

721. Explain the following giving examples.

colloid

722. Explain the following giving examples.

suspension

723. Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture. soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered
tea.

724. How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?

725. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
Ice

726. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
Milk

727. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
Iron

728. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
Hydrochloric acid

729. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
Calcium oxide

730. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
Mercury

731. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
Brick

732. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
Wood

733. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
Air.

734. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

Soil

735. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

Sea water

736. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

Air

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737. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

Coal

738. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

Soda water.

739. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

Salt solution

740. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

Milk

741. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

Copper sulphate solution

742. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

Starch solution

743. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Sodium

744. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Soil

745. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Sugar solution

746. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Silver

747. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Calcium carbonate

748. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Tin

749. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Silicon

750. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Coal

751. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Air

752. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Soap

753. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Methane

754. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Carbon dioxide

755. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

Blood

756. Which of the following are chemical changes?

Growth of a plant

757. Which of the following are chemical changes?

Rusting of iron

758. Which of the following are chemical changes?

Mixing of iron filings and sand

759. Which of the following are chemical changes?

Cooking of food

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760. Which of the following are chemical changes?

Digestion of food

761. Which of the following are chemical changes?

Freezing of water

762. Which of the following are chemical changes?

Burning of a candle.

763. White gold used in jewellery contains two elements, gold and palladium. A jeweller has two different samples that are
both identical in appearance and have a uniform composition throughout. What can be said about the samples?
Options
(A) The materials are heterogeneous mixtures and can be classified by their components
(B) These are homogeneous mixture and can be classified as metallic alloys.
(C) The samples have variable compositions and are classified as metallic solutions.
(D) The samples are heterogeneous mixtures that can be separated by using magnetic properties.

764. Among the following statement, point out the incorrect separation technique.
I. Separation of colloidal particles from solution-centrifugation.
II. Separation of two miscible liquids separating funnel.
III. Separation of pure substance from its impure form-crystallisation.
IV. Separation of components with the help of same solvent-chroma togaphy.
Options
(A) II only
(B) I and II
(C) III and IV
(D) II and IV

765. Colloid consist of dispersed phase and dispered medium. Aerosol is one type of colloid. Aerosol is made up of which of
the following combination?
I. Gas in liquid II. Liquid in gas
III. Solid in gas IV. Gas in solid
Options
(A) Only II
(B) I,II and III
(C) I and II
(D) II, III and IV

766. Tyndall effect can be observed in a colloidal solution. Consider light scattering in the following:
I. When sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest.
II. When normal light passes through copper sulphate solution.
III. When normal light passes through milk.
IV. When a fine beam of light enters a room through a small hole.
Tyndall effect is observed in
Options
(A) I and IV
(B) I, III and IV
(C) II and III
(D) III and IV

767. Match column I with the column II.

Column l Column II
A. Solution 1. Chalk in water
B. Colloid II. Tincture of iodine
C. Suspension III. Starch in water
D. Homogeneous IV. A mixture of chalk and sand
E. Heterogeneous V. Air

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768. Who discovered cells, and how?

769. Why is the cell called the structural and functional unit of life?

770. How do substances like CO2 and water move in and out of the cell? Discuss.

771. Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane?

772. Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Prokaryotic Cell Eukaryotic Cell
1. Size : generally small
(1-10 μm) large ( 5-100 μm) 1. Size: generally large ( 5-100 μm)
1 μm = 10–6 m
2. Nuclear region:_______________
2. Nuclear region:well defined andsurrounded by a nuclear membrane
_______________ and known as-
3. Chromosome: single 3. More than one chromosome
4. _______________ _______________
4. Membrane-bound cell organelles absent
_______________ _______________

773. Can you name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic material?

774. If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, what will happen?

775. Why are lysosomes known as suicide bags?

776. Where are proteins synthesised inside the cell?

777. Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells.

778. How is a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?

779. What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down?

780. What would happen to the life of a cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?

781. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? Why?

782. Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesised?

783. How does an Amoeba obtain its food?

784. What is osmosis?

785. Carry out the following osmosis experiment: Take four peeled potato halves and scoos each one out to make potato
cups. One of these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water.
Now,
(a) Keep cup A empty
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D. Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups
and answer the following:
Explain why water gathers in the hollowed portion of B and C.

786. Carry out the following osmosis experiment: Take four peeled potato halves and scoos each one out to make potato
cups. One of these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water.
Now,
(a) Keep cup A empty
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D. Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups
and answer the following:
Why is potato A necessary for this experiment?

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787. Carry out the following osmosis experiment: Take four peeled potato halves and scoos each one out to make potato
cups. One of these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water.
Now,
(a) Keep cup A empty
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D. Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups
and answer the following:
Explain why water does not gather in the hollowed out portions of A and D.

788. Which type of cell division is required for growth and repair of body and which type is involved in formation of gametes?

789. Which flow chart correctly describes a homogeneous material?

Options
(A) Unknown-density-three layers
(B) Unknown-filtration-two substances
(C) Unknown-magnet-two substances
(D) Unknown-boiling-one temperature

790. The purpose of separating the components of a mixture is

Options
(A) Separation makes it possible to study and use the individual components of a mixture
(B) It is helpful in removing any harmful or undesirable constituents
(C) It is helpful in removing the pure form from impure form.
(D) It is helpful in separation of all solids.

791. Describe the various steps involved in the purification of water for city water supply.

792. How many litres of 15% (mass/volume) sugar solution would it take to get 75 g of sugar?

793. Draw a flow sheet diagram showing the separation of various components of a mixture containing camphor, sand and
iron filings.

794. Describe the process to show that the dye used in blue/black ink is a mixture of two or more components with diagram.

795. How will you separate the components of a mixture containing two miscible liquids? Give experimental details.

796. What is crystallisation? How can this technique be used to purify impure copper sulphate?

797. The solubility of potassium nitrate at 20°C is 32 g per 100 g of water. How much salt is required to prepare 66 g of its
saturated solution?

798. A solution contains 50 mL of alcohol mixed with 150 mL of water. Calculate the concentration of this solution.

799. A solution of alcohol in water has been prepared by mixing 150 mL of alcohol with 600 mL of water. Calculate the
volume percentage of the solution.

800. A solution contains 16 g of urea in 120 g of the solution. What is mass by mass percentage of solution?

801. Melting of wax is a physical change but burning of wax is a chemical change. Explain.

802. (i) Differentiate between physical and chemical change.

(ii) 'All mixtures are homogeneous', comment upon this statement.

803. The boiling points of two liquids A and B are 61°C and 111° C respectively. How will you separate this mixture?

804. What is the distillation process? What kind of mixture can be separated by distillation?

805. Define distillation. What types of liquids (substances) can be separated by this process?

806. State the principle of centrifugation. Give its two applications.

807. What happens, when

(i) light is passed through a colloidal solution?
(ii) electricity is passed through a colloidal solution?
(iii) sugar solution is kept undisturbed.

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808. Give one example each of the following

(i) Solution of a gas in liquid
(ii) Solution of a liquid in solid
(iii) Solution of a solid in solid

809. Define solubility. How does solubility of a solid in water change with temperature?

810. Identify colloids and true solutions from the following.

(i) Vinegar (ii) Muddy water (iii) Mist (iv) Aluminium paint

811. What is the difference between a pure substance and a mixture? Give one example in each case.

812. Mention the three characteristics of a mixture.

813. How can a saturated solution be made unsaturated?

814. To obtain a solid from its solution, which technique is better, evaporation or crystallisation?

815. What is a tissue?

816. What is the utility of tissues in multi-cellular organisms

817. Name types of simple tissues.

818. Where is apical meristem found?

819. Which tissue makes up the husk of coconut?

820. What are the constituents of phloem

821. Name the tissue responsible for movement in our body.

822. What does a neuron look like?

823. Give three features of cardiac muscles.

824. What are the functions of areolar tissue?

825. Define the term “tissue”.

826. How many types of elements together make up the xylem tissue? Name them.

827. How are simple tissues different from complex tissues in plants?

828. Differentiate between parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma on the basis of their cell wall.

829. What are the functions of the stomata?

830. Diagrammatically show the difference between the three types of muscle fibres.

831. What is the specific function of the cardiac muscle?

832. Differentiate between striated, unstriated and cardiac muscles on the basis of their structure and site/location in the
body.

833. Draw a labelled diagram of a neuron.

834. Name the following.

Tissue that forms the inner lining of our mouth.

835. Name the following.

Tissue that connects muscle to bone in humans.

836. Name the following.

Tissue that transports food in plants.

837. Name the following.

Tissue that stores fat in our body.

838. Name the following.

Connective tissue with a fluid matrix.

839. Name the following.

Tissue present in the brain.

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840. Identify the type of tissue in the following: skin, bark of tree, bone, lining of kidney tubule, vascular bundle.

841. Name the regions in which parenchyma tissue is present.

842. What is the role of epidermis in plants?

843. How does the cork act as a protective tissue?

844.

Complete the following chart:

845. What is the process called in which pigments of natural colours can be separated?

846. Define the term colloidal solution.

847. What is the particle size of a colloidal solution?

848. Name the two components of a colloid.

849. What are solute and solvent in aerated drinks?

850. Assertion: A mixture of acetone and methanol can be separated by fractional distillation.
Reason: The difference between boiling point of acetone and methanol is very less.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanationi of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Very Short Answer IVSAI Type Questions
[1 Mark each]

851. Assertion: Tyndall effect is an optical property.

Reason: Scattering of beam of light by the colloidal particles is known as Tyndall effect.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanationi of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

852. Assertion: Colloidal particles do not show Tyndall effect.

Reason: Colloidal solutions are stable and the colloidal particles do not settle down.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanationi of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

853. During purification of water, which of the following step(s) is incorrect ?

Options
(A) Sedimentation of water
(B) Loading of water with alum
(C) Electrolysis of water
(D) Chlorination of water

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854. Which of the following substance cannot be broken

down by a chemical method?
Options
(A) Ammonia (NH3)
(B) Helium (He)
(C) Methane (CH4)
(D) Water (H20)

855. The pair of substance (s) that can be separated by sublimation is/are
Options
(A) NH4Cl and salt
(B) sugar solution in water
(C) salt solution in water
(D) kerosene oil and wate

856. (i) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the apparatus used to separate components of blue-black ink. Name the
process and state the principle involved.
(ii) Identify the physical and chemical changes from the following.
(a) Burning of magnesium in air.
(b) Tarnishing of silver spoon.
(c) Sublimation of iodine.
(d) Electrolysis of water.

857. Show diagrammatically how water is purified in the water works system and list the processes involved.

858. (i) Write the steps involved in the process of obtaining pure copper sulphate from an impure sample.
(ii) Give any one application of this method.
(iii) Why is this technique better than simple evaporation to purify solids?

859. (i) You are given a mixture of sand, water and mustard oil. How will you separate the components of this mixture?
Explain it with the help of different separation methods involved in it.
(ii) Give flow diagram showing the process of obtaining gases from air.

860. (i) Pond water contains sand grains, clay particles, salt, pieces of paper and some air bubbles. Select from amongst
these, an example each of a solvent, solute, colloid and suspension.
(ii) Give one example of each of the following:
(a) A solution of gas in liquid
(b) A solution of two solids
(c) A solution pf two gases

861. Write your observations when the following processes take place:
(i) An aqueous solution of sugar is heated to dryness.
(ii) A saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at 608°C is allowed to cool at room temperature.
(iii) A mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder is heated strongly.
(iv) A beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution.
(v) Dilute HCl is added to the mixture of iron and sulphur.

862. (i) Distinguish among the true solution, suspension and colloid in a tabular form under the following heads:
(a) Stability (b) Filterability (c) Type of mixture
(ii) Give expression for the concentration of a solution. How will you prepare a 10% solution of glucose by mass in
water?

863. Assertion Impure benzoic acid can be purified by sublimation.

Reason Benzoic acid sublimes on heating.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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864. Assertion Chromatography can be used to separate a mixture of plant pigments.

Reason Chromatography is a process of separation of components of a mixture
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
( Very Short Answer IVSAl Type Questions )

865. Is ice water homogeneous or heterogeneous substance? Is it pure or impure substance?

866. Is fresh air free of dust particles and impurities of all other kind, a 1 pure substance?

867. What is meant by concentration of a solution?

868. Why particles in a true solution cannot be seen with naked eyes?

869. Do suspension show the property of Tyndall effect?

870. State which of the following solutions exhibit Tyndall effect?

Starch solution, sodium chloride solution, tincture of iodine, smoke.

871. How can you separate particles of colloidal solution? Name the process.

872. How can we obtain coloured component (dye) from blue/black ink?

873. List the two conditions essential for using distillation as a method for separation of the components from a mixture.

874. How will you justify that rusting of iron is a chemical change?

875. (i) Give the difference between mixture and compound.

(ii) Classify the following mixtures as homogeneous and heterogeneous.
(a) Tincture of iodine (b) Smoke (c) Brass (d) Sugar solution

876. Tell whether each of the following properties describes a homogeneous mixture, a solution, a heterogeneous mixture, a
compound or an element.
(i) A homogeneous liquid which leaves a solid residue on boiling.
(ii) A cloudy liquid which after some time appears more cloudy towards the bottom.
(iii) A colourless liquid which boils at a definite temperature and can be decomposed into simpler substances.

877. Define solute and solvent. Is it possible to separate them?

878. Why copper sulphate solution in water does not show Tyndall effect, but mixture of water and milk shows?

879. Explain the term 'Centrifugation'. Give its two applications.

880. A mixture containing two liquids is placed in separating funnel. Answer the following questions.
(i) What type of liquids form the mixture?
(ii) Which of the liquids will form the lower layer?
(iii) What is the basis of this method?

881. (i) Name the technique used for the separation of those solutes that dissolve in the same solvent.
(ii) Explain the technique used.
(iii) Give any two applications of this technique.

882. (i) Name the separation technique you would follow to separate the following mixtures.
(a) Clear water from muddy water
(b) Kerosene and water
(c) Iron filings and sand
(ii) What is the advantage of fractional distillation over simple distillation?

883. With the help of a flow diagram, show the process of obtaining different gases from air. If the boiling points of oxygen,
argon and nitrogen are -183° C, -186° C and -196° C, respectively, then which gas forms the liquid first as the air is
cooled?

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884. Determine whether each of the following change is physical or chemical. Give reason for your answer.
(i) A balloon filled with hydrogen gas explodes upon contact with a spark.
(ii) Copper turns green on exposure to air and water.
(iii) A metal surface becomes dull because of continued abrasion.

885. Can physical and chemical changes occur together? Illustrate your answer.

886. (i) What are elements?

(ii) What are the three main types of elements?
(iii) White a property of each type of element.

887. Assertion True solutions exhibins Tyndall effect.

Reason Particles are very small in size.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

888. Assertion A mixture of sugar and benzoic acid can be separated by shaking with ether. Reason Sugar is insoluble in
water.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

889. Assertion A solution of table salt in a glass of water is homogeneous.

Reason A solution having different composition throughout is homogeneous.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

890. The most suitable technique used to separate mixture of different gases from bulk of air, can be
Options
(A) chromatography
(B) sublim ation
(C) fractional distillation
(D) centrifugation

891. The method used to separate a dye from blue ink is

Options
(A) evaporation
(B) sedimentation
(C) crystallisation
(D) Alteration

892. Which of the following will not show Tyndall effect ?

Options
(A) Smoke
(B) Foam
(C) Jelly
(D) Salt solution

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893. Two elements X and Y combine to give a product Z. The correct statement about Z is
Options
(A) Z has more m ass than that of X
(B) Z has less m ass than that of X
(C) Z has less m ass than that of Y
(D) Z show sam e properties as that of X and Y

894. Which of the following property does not prove that water is a compound?
Options
(A) Water is m ade up of two different elements (H and O ). Which chemically combined
with one another in a fixed proportion.
(B) Water has fixed boding point (b.p.).
(C) The constituents of water cannot be separated by sim ple physical methods
(D) Distilled water and tap water have sam e taste and constituents.

895. Which of following is a pure substance?

Options
(A) Air
(B) Distilled water
(C) Steel
(D) Brass

896. An object has moved through a distance. Can it have zero displacement? If yes, support your answer with an example.

897. A farmer moves along the boundary of a square field of side 10 m in 40 s. What will be the magnitude of displacement
of the farmer at the end of 2 minutes 20 seconds from his initial position?

898. Which of the following is true for displacement?

It cannot be zero.

899. Which of the following is true for displacement?

Its magnitude is greater than the distance travelled by the object.

900. Distinguish between speed and velocity.

901. Under what condition(s) is the magnitude of average velocity of an object equal to its average speed?

902. What does the odometer of an automobile measure?

903. What does the path of an object look like when it is in uniform motion?

904. During an experiment, a signal from a spaceship reached the ground station in five minutes. What was the distance of
the spaceship from the ground station? The signal travels at the speed of light, that is, 3 × 108 m `s^(–1)`.

905. When will you say a body is in

uniform acceleration?

906. When will you say a body is in

nonuniform acceleration?

907. A bus decreases its speed from 80 km `h^(–1)` to 60 km` h^(–1)` in 5 s. Find the acceleration of the bus.

908. A train starting from a railway station and moving with uniform acceleration attains a speed 40 km` h^(–1)` in 10
minutes. Find its acceleration.

909. What is the nature of the distance-time graphs for uniform and non-uniform motion of an object?

910. What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance-time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

911. What can you say about the motion of an object if its speed time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

912. What is the quantity which is measured by the area occupied below the velocity-time graph?

913. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration

of 0.1 ` m s^(-2)` for 2 minutes. Find
the speed acquired,

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914. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration

of 0.1 ` m s^(-2)` for 2 minutes. Find
the distance travelled.

915. A train is travelling at a speed

of 90 ` km h^(–1)`

916. A train is travelling at a speed of 90 km `h^(–1)`. Brakes are applied so as to produce a uniform acceleration of – 0.5 m`
s^(-2)`. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest.

917. A trolley, while going down an inclined plane, has an acceleration of 2 cm` s^(-2)`. What will be its velocity 3 s after the
start?

918. A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4 m` s^(-2)`. What distance will it cover in 10 s after start?

919. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 5 m `s^(-1)`. If the acceleration of the stone during
its motion is 10 m `s^(–2)` in the downward direction, what will be the height attained by the stone and how much time
will it take to reach there?

920. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter

200 m in 40 s. What will be the distance covered and the displacement at the end of
2 minutes 20 s?

921. Joseph jogs from one end A to the other end B of a straight 300 m road in 2 minutes 30 seconds and then turns around
and jogs 100 m back to point C in another 1 minute. What are Joseph’s average speeds and velocities in jogging
from A to B

922. Joseph jogs from one end A to the other end B of a straight 300 m road in 2 minutes 30 seconds and then turns around
and jogs 100 m back to point C in another 1 minute. What are Joseph’s average speeds and velocities in jogging
from A to C?

923. Abdul, while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to
be 20 ` km h^(–1)`. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the average speed is 30 ` km h^(–1)`.
What is the average speed for Abdul’s trip?

924. A motorboat starting from rest on a lake accelerates in a straight line at a constant rate of 3.0 ` m s^(–2)` for 8.0 s.
How far does the boat travel during this time?

925. A driver of a car travelling at 52` km h^(–1)` applies the brakes and accelerates uniformly in the opposite direction. The
car stops in 5 s. Another driver going at 3 ` km h^(–1)` in another car applies his brakes slowly and stops in 10 s. On the
same graph paper, plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars. Which of the two cars travelled farther after the
brakes were applied?

926. Fig shows the distance-time graph of three objects A,B and C. Study the graph and answer the following questions:

Which of the three is travelling the fastest?

927. Fig shows the distance-time graph of three objects A,B and C. Study the graph and answer the following questions:

Are all three ever at the same point on the road?

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928. Fig shows the distance-time graph of three objects A,B and C. Study the graph and answer the following questions:

How far has C travelled when B passes A?

929. Fig shows the distance-time graph of three objects A,B and C. Study the graph and answer the following questions:

How far has B travelled by the time it passes C?

930. A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20 m. If its velocity increases uniformly at the rate of 10 m s-2, with what
velocity will it strike the ground? After what time will it strike the ground?

931. The speed-time graph for a car is shown is Fig. .

Find how far does the car travel in the first 4 seconds. Shade the area on the graph that represents the distance
travelled by the car during the period.

932. The speed-time graph for a car is shown is Fig. .

Which part of the graph represents uniform motion of the car?

933. State which of the following situations are possible and give an example for each of these:
an object with a constant acceleration but with zero velocity

934. State which of the following situations are possible and give an example for each of these:
an object moving with an acceleration but with uniform speed.

935. State which of the following situations are possible and give an example for each of these:
an object moving in a certain direction with an acceleration in the perpendicular
direction.

936. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius 42250 km. Calculate its speed if it takes 24 hours to revolve
around the earth

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937. (i) What is matter? Write two properties of solids and two properties of liquids.
(ii) Give reasons for the following:
(a) Ice at 0°C appears colder in the mouth than water at 0°C.
(b) Doctors advise to put the strips of wet cloth on the forehead of a person having high temperature.

938. The temperature-time graph given below shows the heating curve for pure wax.

From the graph, answer the following:

(i) What is the physical state of the substance at the points A,B,C, and D?
(ii) What is the melting point of the wax?
(iii) What is its boiling point?
(iv) Which portions of the graph indicate that change of state is taking place?
(v) Name the terms used for heat absorbed during change of states involved in the above processes.

939. Which of the following has more inertia:

a rubber ball and a stone of the same size?

940. Which of the following has more inertia:

a bicycle and a train?

941. Which of the following has more inertia:

a fiverupees coin and a one-rupee coin?

942. In the following example, try to identify the number of times the velocity of the ball changes: “A football player kicks a
football to another player of his team who kicks the football towards the goal. The goalkeeper of the opposite team
collects the football and kicks it towards a player of his own team”. Also identify the agent supplying the force in each
case.

943. Explain why some of the leaves may get detached from a tree if we vigorously shake its branch.

944. Why do you fall in the forward direction when a moving bus brakes to a stop and fall backwards when it accelerates
from rest?

945. If action is always equal to the reaction, explain how a horse can pull a cart.

946. Explain, why is it difficult for a fireman to hold a hose, which ejects large amounts of water at a high velocity.

947. From a rifle of mass 4 kg, a bullet of mass 50 g is fired with an initial velocity of 35 m `s^(–1). Calculate the initial recoil
velocity of the rifle

948. Two objects of masses 100 g and 200 g are moving along the same line and direction with velocities of 2 `m s^(–1) and
1'm s^(–1)`, respectively. They collide and after the collision, the first object moves at a velocity of 1.67 `m s^(–1).
Determine the velocity of the second object.

949. An object experiences a net zero external unbalanced force. Is it possible for the object to be travelling with a non-zero
velocity? If yes, state the conditions that must be placed on the magnitude and direction of the velocity. If no, provide a
reason.

950. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out of it. Explain.

951. Why is it advised to tie any luggage kept on the roof of a bus with a rope?

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952. A batsman hits a cricket ball which then rolls on a level ground. After covering a short distance, the ball comes to rest.
The ball slows to a stop because
Options
(A) the batsman did not hit the ball hard enough.
(B) velocity is proportional to the force exerted on the ball.
(C) there is a force on the ball opposing the motion.
(D) there is no unbalanced force on the ball, so the ball would want to come to rest.

953. A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. It travels a distance of 400 m in 20 s. Find its
acceleration. Find the force acting on it if its mass is 7 tonnes (Hint: 1 tonne = 1000 kg.)

954. A stone of 1 kg is thrown with a velocity of 20 m s–1 across the frozen surface of a lake and comes to rest after
travelling a distance of 50 m. What is the force of friction between the stone and the ice?

955. A 8000 kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of 2000 kg, along a horizontal track. If the engine exerts a force of
40000 N and the track offers a friction force of 5000 N, then calculate:
the net accelerating force

956. A 8000 kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of 2000 kg, along a horizontal track. If the engine exerts a force of
40000 N and the track offers a friction force of 5000 N, then calculate:
the acceleration of the train.

957. An automobile vehicle has a mass of 1500 kg. What must be the force between the vehicle and road if the vehicle is to
be stopped with a negative acceleration of 1.7 ` m s^(–2)`?

958. What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with a velocity v?

Options
(A) (mv)2
(B) mv2
(C) ½ mv2
(D) mv

959. Using a horizontal force of 200 N, we intend to move a wooden cabinet across a floor at a constant velocity. What is the
friction force that will be exerted on the cabinet?

960. Two objects, each of mass 1.5 kg, are moving in the same straight line but in opposite directions. The velocity of each
object is 2.5 ` m s^(–1)` before the collision during which they stick together. What will be the velocity of the combined
object after collision?

961. According to the third law of motion when we push on an object, the object pushes back on us with an equal and
opposite force. If the object is a massive truck parked along the roadside, it will probably not move. A student justifies
this by answering that the two opposite and equal forces cancel each other. Comment on this logic and explain why the
truck does not move.

962. A hockey ball of mass 200 g travelling at 10 `m s^(–1)` is struck by a hockey stick so as to return it along its original
path with a velocity at 5` m s^(–1)`. Calculate the magnitude of change of momentum occurred in the motion of the
hockey ball by the force applied by the hockey stick.

963. A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a velocity of 150 `m s^(–1)` strikes a stationary wooden block and
comes to rest in 0.03 s. Calculate the distance of penetration of the bullet into the block. Also calculate the magnitude
of the force exerted by the wooden block on the bullet.

964. An object of mass 1 kg travelling in a straight line with a velocity of 10 `m s^(–1)` collides with, and sticks to, a
stationary wooden block of mass 5 kg. Then they both move off together in the same straight line. Calculate the total
momentum just before the impact and just after the impact. Also, calculate the velocity of the combined object.

965. An object of mass 100 kg is accelerated uniformly from a velocity of 5 `m s^(–1)` to

8 `m s^(–1)` in 6 s. Calculate the initial and final momentum of the object. Also, find the magnitude of the force exerted
on the object.

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966. Akhtar, Kiran and Rahul were riding in a motorcar that was moving with a high velocity on an expressway when an
insect hit the windshield and got stuck on the windscreen. Akhtar and Kiran started pondering over the situation. Kiran
suggested that the insect suffered a greater change in momentum as compared to the change in momentum of the
motorcar (because the change in the velocity of the insect was much more than that of the motorcar). Akhtar said that
since the motorcar was moving with a larger velocity, it exerted a larger force on the insect. And as a result the insect
died. Rahul while putting an entirely new explanation said that both the motorcar and the insect experienced the same
force and a change in their momentum. Comment on these suggestions.

967. How much momentum will a dumb-bell of mass 10 kg transfer to the floor if it falls from a height of 80 cm? Take its
downward acceleration to be 10 ` m s^–`

968. Benzoic acid is used as a food preservative. The given graph shows the heating curve for benzoic acid. Study the graph
and answer the following questions:
(i) At what time does benzoic acid begin to
(a) melt? (b) boil?
(ii) What is the melting point of benzoic acid?
(iii) What happens to the temperature while benzoic acid melts?
(iv) What is the physical state of benzoic acid during time interval of 35-45 mins?

969. What are the differences between solid, liquid and gaseous states?

970. (i) Explain the term density. Arrange different states of matter in increasing order of density.
(ii) Explain how ice floats on water?

971. How does the change in temperature and humidity affect the rate of evaporation?

972. (i) Which factors determine the state of a substance? (ii) Convert 30°C into Kelvin. (iii) Water droplets are observed on
the outer surface of a glass tumbler containing ice cold water. Give reason.

973. How will you change water from gaseous state to liquid state? Suggest a simple activity.

974. (i) How will you show that the process of evaporation depends on the nature of the liquid?
(ii) Why a drop of dettol is evenly distributed in a bucket of water without the need of stirring?

975. State the universal law of gravitation.

976. Write the formula to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and an object on the surface of the
earth

977. What do you mean by free fall?

978. What do you mean by acceleration Q due to gravity?

979. What are the differences between the mass of an object and its weight?

980. Why is the weight of an object on the moon 1 6 th its weight on the earth?

981. Why is it difficult to hold a school bag having a strap made of a thin and strong string?

982. What do you mean by buoyancy?

983. Why does an object float or sink when placed on the surface of water?

984. You find your mass to be 42 kg on a weighing machine. Is your mass more or less than 42 kg?

985. You have a bag of cotton and an iron bar, each indicating a mass of 100 kg when measured on a weighing machine. In
reality, one is heavier than other. Can you say which one is heavier and why?

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986. How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance between them is reduced to half ?

987. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion to their masses. Why then, a heavy object does not fall faster than a
light object?

988. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object on its surface? (Mass of the earth
is 6 × 1024 kg and radius of the earth is 6.4 × 106 m.)

989. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force. Does the earth attract the moon with a force
that is greater or smaller or the same as the force with which the moon attracts the earth? Why?

990. If the moon attracts the earth, why does the earth not move towards the moon?

991. What happens to the force between two objects, if

the mass of one object is doubled?

992. What happens to the force between two objects, if

the distance between the objects is doubled and tripled?

993. What happens to the force between two objects, if

the masses of both objects are doubled?

994. What is the importance of universal law of gravitation?

995. What is the acceleration of free fall?

996. What do we call the gravitational force between the earth and an object?

997. Amit buys few grams of gold at the poles as per the instruction of one of his friends. He hands over the same when he
meets him at the equator. Will the friend agree with the weight of gold bought? If not, why?
[Hint: The value of g is greater at the poles than at the equator.]

998. Why will a sheet of paper fall slower than one that is crumpled into a ball?

999. Gravitational force on the surface of the moon is only 1 6 as strong as gravitational force on the earth. What is the
weight in newtons of a 10 kg object on the moon and on the earth?

1000. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 49 m/s. Calculate

the maximum height to which it rises,

1001. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 49 m/s. Calculate

the total time it takes to return to the surface of the earth.

1002. A stone is released from the top of a tower of height 19.6 m. Calculate its final velocity just before touching the
ground.

1003. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s. Taking g = 10 m/`s^2` , find the maximum height
reached by the stone. What is the net displacement and the total distance covered by the stone?

1004. Calculate the force of gravitation between the earth and the Sun, given that the mass of the earth = 6 × 1024 kg and of
the Sun = 2 × 1030 kg. The average distance between the two is 1.5 × 1011 m.

1005. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 100 m high and at the same time another stone is projected vertically
upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25 m/s. Calculate when and where the two stones will meet.

1006. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower after 6 s. Find

the velocity with which it was thrown up,

1007. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower after 6 s. Find

the maximum height it reaches,

1008. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower after 6 s. Find

its position after 4 s

1009. In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immersed in a liquid act?

1010. Why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of water?

1011. The volume of 50 g of a substance is 20 cm3 . If the density of water is 1 g `cm^(–3)`, will the substance float or sink?

1012. The volume of a 500 g sealed packet is 350 cm3 . Will the packet float or sink in water if the density of water is 1 g
`cm^(–3)`? What will be the mass of the water displaced by this packet?
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1013. From the graph given below:

(i) Which region contains only solid?

(ii) Which region contains all liquids?
(iii) Which region shows latent heat of vapourisation?

1014. Draw a well-labelled diagram showing sublimation of ammonium chloride.

1015. What is dry ice? How is it formed?

1016. undefined
Options
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

1017. How do you differentiate between solids, liquids and gases on the basis of their melting and boiling points?

1018. (i) Explain the interconversion of three states of matter in terms of force of attraction and kinetic energy of the
molecules.
(ii) Arrange the three states of matter in the increasing order of rate of diffusion and particle motion.

1019. The cover plate is removed from the gas jars shown in the diagram. After several days, the colour of the gas is the
same in both jars. Why does this happen? Explain

1020. (i) A sponge can be compressed, yet it is a solid? Explain.

(ii) Name the state of matter that has minimum space between particles.

1021. What is the effect of sprinkling of water on the roof or open ground on a hot sunny day?

1022. Why should wet clothes are spread while drying?

1023. What happens to the melting point of solids with the decrease in pressure?

1024. Benzene is a liquid at 80°C, liquid benzene is in equilibrium with its vapours. It is found that particles of benzene
vapours are more energetic than particles of liquid benzene. Explain the observation.

1025. What is meant by latent heat of vapourisation?

1026. Why the temperature remains constant during sublimation?

1027. Why is boiling called a bulk phenomenon?

1028. Mention two ways to liquefy atmospheric gases.

1029. Which characteristic of a gas is used in supplying oxygen cylinders to hospitals?

1030. Why do gases exert more pressure on the walls of the container than the solids?

1031. What would be the effect of

(i) temperature and (ii) density of liquids

1032. Why do liquids take up the shape of the container in which they are kept?

1033. Rubber band changes its shape. Is it solid?

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1034. A given substance X has definite volume, but no definite shape and can diffuse easily. What is the physical state of a
substance X?

1035. A substance has no mass. Can we consider it as matter?

1036. Assertion During evaporation of liquids the temperature remains unaffected.

Reason Kinetic energy of the molecules is directly proportional to temperature.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

1037. The similarity between a liquid and a gas is

Options
(A) both do not show definite shape
(B) both have definite volume
(C) both have sam e boding point
(D) both have sam e nature

1038. Gases show faster rate of diffusion because

Options
(A) of higher boiling point
(B) of low intermolecular space
(C) of high m elting point
(D) of large intermolecular space

1039. Which of the following is found in solid state at room temperature?

Options
(A) Stone
(B) Sand
(C) M ercury
(D) Both (a) and (b)

1040. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. The property shown by the matter is
Options
(A) the particles are of very sm all size
(B) the matter have space between them
(C) the particles are in solid state
(D) the particles are running here and there, have no space between them

1041. Give reason for the following questions:

(i) It is difficult to balance our body when we accidentally step on a peel of a banana.
(ii) Pieces of bursting cracker fall in all possible directions.
(iii) A glass pane of a window is shattered when a flying pebble hits it.
(iv) It is easier to stop a tennis ball than a cricket ball moving at the same speed.
(v) A javelin thrower is marked foul, if an athlete crosses over the line marked for the throw. Athletes often fail to stop
themselves before the line.

1042. The resultant force acting on a body is zero, then a

Options
(A) body is in unequilibrium
(B) body is in equilibrium
(C) body moves with constant acceleration
(D) body moves with retardation

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1043. Two objects of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 4 m/s, respectively. They collide and after
collision the first object moves at a velocity 3 m/s, then velocity of second object is
Options
(A) 3.5 m/s
(B) 4.5 m/s
(C) 2.5 m/s
(D) 0 m/s

1044. Jetplanes and rockets work on the principle of conservation of

Options
(A) energy
(B) momentum
(C) mass
(D) heat

1045. Two similar vehicles are moving with the same velocity on the road such that one of them is loaded and the other one
is empty. Which of the two vehicles will require larger force to stop it? Give reasons.

1046. Name two effects a force can bring about other than moving or stopping a body.

1047. State Newton's first law of motion. In first law holds good. Why does a rolling football come to rest on its own?

1048. A body P has mass 2 m and velocity 5 v. Another body Q has mass 8m and velocity 1.25v. Which of the P and Q has
more momentum?

1049. State two factors which determine the momentum of a body.

1050. A body of mass 20 kg moves with an acceleration of 2 m/s2. Calculate change in momentum.

1051. Two balls of the same size but of different materials, rubber and iron are kept on the smooth floor of a moving train.
The brakes are applied suddenly to stop the train. Will the balls start rolling? If, so in which direction? Will they move
with the same speed? Give reasons for your answer.

1052. A bus starts from the stop and take 50 s to get the speed of 10 m/s. If the mass of the bus alongwith passengers is
10000 kg, then calculate the force applied by the engine of bus to push the bus at the speed of 10 m/s.

1053. State the action and reaction in the following. (i) Moving rocket (ii) Firing of a bullet from a gun (in) A person walking
on the floor

1054. A truck of mass 500 kg moving at 4 m/s collides with another truck of mass 1500 kg moving in same direction at 2
m/s. What is their common velocity just after collision, if they move off together?

1055. A ball X of mass 1 kg travelling at 2 m/s has a head on collision with an identical ball Y at rest. X stop and Y moves
off. Calculate the velocity of Y after the collision.

1056. (i) State the law that provides the formula for measuring force and the law which provides the definition of force.
(ii) Velocity-time graph of a 50 g marble rolling on floor is given below. Find

(a) time in which it stops. (b) negative acceleration produced on it. (c) positive force acting on the marble.

1057. (i) Explain, why is it difficult to walk on sand?

(ii) Why is the recoil of a heavy gun, on firing, not so strong, as that of a light gun using the same cartridge?
(iii) A constant force acts on an object of 5 kg for a period of 2s. It increases the velocity of an object from 3 m/s to 7
m/s. Find the magnitude of the applied force. Now, if the force was applied for a period of 5s, then what would be the
final velocity of the object?

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1058. A large truck and a car, both moving with a velocity of magnitude u, have a head on collision and both of them come to
a half after that. If the collision lasts for
(i) what vehicle experiences the greater force of impact?
(ii) which vehicle experiences the greater change in momentum?
(iii) which vehicle experiences the greater acceleration?
(iv) why is the car likely to suffer more damage than the truck.

1059. A force-time graph for a linear motion of a body is shown in the figure. The change in linear momentum between 0 and
7 s is

Options
(A) `2 N-s`
(B) `3 N-s`
(C) `4 N-s`
(D) `5 N-s`

1060. A body of weight 2 kg is suspended as shown in figure.

The tension T, in the horizontal string (in kg-wt) is

Options
(A) 2 /`sqrt3`
(B) `sqrt3/2`
(C) `2sqrt3`
(D) 2

1061. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are smooth and of negligible mass.
For the system to remain in equilibrium the angle `theta` should be

Options
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°

1062. A bullet of mass lOg moving with a velocity of 400 m/s gets embedded in a freely suspended wooden block of mass
900 g. What is the velocity acquired by the block?
Options
(A) 4.4 m/s
(B) 5.4 m/s
(C) 6.4 m/s
(D) 3.4 m/s

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1063. During a football match the ball shot towards the goal struck the defender's foot at the speed of 10 m/s and it
bounces back at 20 m/s. If the time of impact was 0.2 s and mass of the ball is 0.5 kg will then the average force
exerted by defender on the ball will be ’
Options
(A) 65 N
(B) 75 N
(C) 70 N
(D) 80 N

1064. TVvo particles A and B of masses 20 g and 30 g, respectively are at rest at a certain time. Because of the forces
exerted by them on each other, the particles start moving. At a given instant, particle A is found to move towards the
East with a velocity of 6 cm/s. What is the velocity of particle B at this instant?
Options
(A) 16 cm/s
(B) 8 cm/s
(C) 4 cm/s
(D) 2 cm/s

1065. A car is moving with uniform velocity on a rough horizontal road. Therefore, according to Newton's first law of motion.
Options
(A) No force is bqing applied by its engine
(B) A force is surely being applied by its engine
(C) An acceleration is being produced in the car
(D) The kinetic energy of the car is increasing

1066. A ship of mass 3 x 107 kg initially at rest is pulled by a force of 5 xlO4 N through a distance of 3m. Assume that the
resistance due to water is negligible, the speed of the ship is
Options
(A) 1.5 m/s
(B) 60 m/s
(C) 0.1 m/s
(D) 5m/s

1067. The weakest force in the following is

Options
(A) magnetic force
(B) nuclear force
(C) gravitational force
(D) electric force

1068. A planet is moving around the sun with mean distance 'r' and time period T', then
Options
(A) T ocr3
(B) T2 °= r3
(C) T2 °c r2
(D) T ocr2

1069. The value of gravitational acceleration (g) is

Options
(A) highest at poles
(B) highest at equator
(C) lowest at poles
(D) lowest at equator

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1070. A car falls off a ledge and drops to the ground in 0.9 s. If the value of g is 10 m/s2, then speed of car on striking the
ground is
Options
(A) 6 m/s
(B) 8 m/s
(C) 9 m/s
(D) 18 m/s

1071. An object is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a height of 20 m. Then, the velocity with which the object was
thrown upward is [Take, g = 10 m/`s^2` ]
Options
(A) 15 m/s
(B) 25 m/s
(C) 10 m/s
(D) 20 m/s

1072. The atmosphere is held to the earth by

Options
(A) earth's m agnetic field
(B) earth's rotation
(C) gravity
(D) earth's electric field

1073. The magnitude of weight of a body at the centre of earth is

Options
(A) zero
(B) equal to m ass of the body
(C) greater than g
(D) less than g

1074. Why the dam of water reservoir is thick at the bottom?

Options
(A) Quantity of water increases with depth
(B) Density of water increases with depth
(C) Pressure of water increases with depth
(D) Temperature of water increases with depth

1075. When a ball is fully immersed in a liquid, its weight get decreased. It happens due to
Options
(A) gravitational force
(B) magnetic force
(C) buoyant force
(D) friction force

1076. A large ship can float, but a steel needle sinks, because of
Options
(A) mass
(B) volume
(C) density
(D) None of these

1077. Assertion: The moon revolves around the earth due to gravitational force between moon and earth.
Reason: Gravitational force between moon and earth is calculated by Newton's law of gravitation.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

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1078. Assertion: The square of the period of revolution of a planet is proportional to the cube of its mean distance from sun.
Reason: Sun's gravitational field is directly proportional to the square of its mean distance from the planet.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

1079. Assertion: At the centre of earth, a body has no centre of gravity.

Reason: This is because, g = 0 at the centre of earth.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

1080. Assertion: A hydrogen filled balloon stops rising after it has attained a certain height in the sky.
Reason: The atmospheric pressure increases with height.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

1081. When do we use the term force of gravity rather than force of gravitation?

1082. Which force bring tides in the ocean?

1083. Which force keeps the moon in a uniform circular motion around the earth?

1084. Two objects kept in a room do not move towards each other as per the universal law of gravitation. Why?

1085. Two objects of masses m1 and are dropped in vacuum from a height above the surface of the earth (`m_1` is greater
than `m_2`). Which one will reach the ground first and why?

1086. Name the place on the earth's surface, where the weight of a body is maximum and minimum?

1087. The astronauts in space feel weightless. Why?

1088. Which of the two will double the pressure? Doubling the area or making the area half.

1089. A bucket of water weighs less inside the well water. Why?

1090. Density of glass is `3.5 g cm^(-3)` .What does it mean?

1091. Name the instrument which is used to determine the density of liquid.

1092. A stone dropped from a tree takes 2 s to reach the ground. Find its velocity on striking the ground.

1093. State the source of centripetal force that a planet requires to revolve round the sun. On what factors does the force
depend? Suppose this force suddenly becomes zero, then in which direction will the planet begin to move, if no other
celestial body affects it?

1094. (i) Seema buys few grains of gold at the poles as per the instruction of one of her friends. She hand over the same
when she meets her at the equator. Will the friend agree with the weight of gold bought? If not, why?
(ii) If the moon attracts the earth, then why does the earth not move towards the moon?

1095. Obtain a relation between the weight of an object on the surface of the earth and that on the moon.

1096. (i) Name the SI units of thrust and pressure.

(ii) In which situation, do we exert more pressure on ground when we stand on one foot or on the both feet? Justify
your answer.

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1097. (i) Explain, why a completely immersed bottle in water bounces back on the surface?
(ii) Why does a bucket of water weighs less inside the well water?

1098. When a fresh egg is put into a beaker filled with water, it sinks in water. But when a lot of salt is dissolved in the water,
the egg begins to rise and then floats. Why?

1099. Two different bodies are completely immersed in water and undergo the same loss in weight. Is it necessary that their
weights in air should also be the same? Justify your answer.

1100. (i) Why does a bucket of water feel heavier when taken out of water?
(ii) Lead has greater density than iron and both are denser than water. Is the buoyant force on a lead object greater
than, less than or equal to the buoyant force on an iron object of the same volume?

1101. Verify Archimedes' principle of buoyancy with an activity. For the activity, you are provided with a piece of stone, a
rubber string and a container filled with water.

1102. What happens to the magnitude of the force of gravitation between two objects, if
(i) distance between the objects is tripled?
(ii) mass of both objects is doubled?
(iii) mass of both objects as well as distance between them is doubled?

1103. If the distance between two masses be increased by a factor of 6, by what factor would the mass of one of them have
to be altered to maintain the same gravitational force? Would this be an increase or decrease in mass?

1104. A body weighs 25 kg on the surface of the earth. If the mass of the earth is `6 xx 10^(24)` kg, then the radius of the
earth is `6.4 xx 10^6` m and the gravitational constant `6.67 xx 10^(-11)N-m^2"/"kg^2`.
Calculate
(i) the mutual force of attraction between the body and the earth.
(ii) the acceleration produced in the body.
(iii) the acceleration produced in the earth.

1105. Two bodies of masses 3 kg and 12 kg are placed at a distance 12 m. A third body of mass 0.5 kg is to be placed at
such a point that the force acting on this body is zero. Find the position of that point.

1106. Calculate the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of satellite having mass `7.4 xx 10^(22)` kg and radius `1.74 xx
10^6` cm. (Take, `G = 6.7 xx 10^(11) N-m"/"kg^2`)

1107. What height above the surface of the earth, the value of g becomes 64% of its value at the surface of the earth? Take,
the radius of the earth = 6400 km.

1108. Prove that, if a body is thrown vertically upwards, then the time of ascent is equal to the time of descent.

1109. A ball is dropped from the edge of a roof. It takes 0.1s to cross a window of height 2.0 m. Find the height of the roof
above the top of the window.

1110. A ball is thrown with some speed u m/s. Show that under the free fall, it will fall on the ground with same speed.

1111. A firecracker is fired and it rises to a height of 1000 m. Find the (i) velocity by which it was released. (ii) time taken by
it to reach the highest point. (Take, g = 9 .8 m/`s^2`)

1112. A ball is thrown upwards from the ground of a tower with a speed of 20 m/s. There is a window in the tower at the
height of 15 m from the ground. How many times and when will the ball pass the window? (Take, g =10 m/`s^2)`.

1113. (i) According to universal law of gravitation every object in this universe attracts every other object. Explain, why then
a table and a chair lying in the same room do not collide with each other?
(ii) An object is thrown vertically upwards to a height of 12 m. Calculate its
(a) velocity with which it was thrown upwards.
(b) time taken by the object to reach a height of 12 m.

1114. A particle weighs 120 N on the surface of the earth. At what height above the earth's surface will its weight be 30 N?
Radius of the earth = 6400 km.

1115. Shashank placed an iron cuboid of dimensions 4 cmx 7 cmx 10 cm on a tray containing fine sand. He placed the
cuboid in such a way that it was made to lie on the sand with its faces of dimensions
(i) 4 cm x 7 cm, (ii) 7cm x 10 cm, (iii) 4 cm x 10 cm.
If the density of iron is nearly `8 g cm^(-3) and g =10 ms^(-2)`, find the minimum and maximum pressure as calculated
by Shashank.
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1116. A ball filled with air has a volume of `500 cm^3`. Calculate the minimum force applied by a child to put it completely
inside the water. (Take, `g = 10 ms^(-2)`).

1117. A boat of mass 50 kg is floating in the river with `1/2` of its volume inside the water. Calculate the buoyant force
acting on the boat. (Take, `g = 10 ms^(-2)`)

1118. A cubical object of side 4 cm has fallen in a well. If mass of the cube is 2 kg, then state whether this object will float or
sink in water. (Take, density of water `1000 kgm ^(-3)`)

1119. The dimensions of wooden block are 2 mx 0.25 mx 0.10 m. If relative density of wood is 0.6, calculate mass of the
block in kg. (Take, density of water = `10^3 kg m^(-3)` )

1120. (i) Write the formula to find the magnitude of gravitational force between the earth and an object on the earth's
surface.
(ii) Derive how does the value of gravitational force F between two objects change when
(a) distance between them is reduced to half and
(b) mass of an object is increased four times.

1121. (i) Prove that, if the earth attracts two bodies placed at the same distance from the centre of the earth with equal
force, then their masses will be the same.
(ii) Mathematically express the acceleration due to gravity in terms of mass of the earth and radius of the earth.
(iii) Why is G called a universal constant?

1122. (i) At some moment, two giant planets jupiter and saturn of the solar system are in the same line as seen from the
earth. Find the total gravitational force due to them on a person of mass 50 kg on the earth. Could the force due to the
planets be important?
Mass of the jupiter = `2 xx 10^(27)` kg
Mass of the saturn = `6 xx 10^(26)` kg
Distance of jupiter from the earth = `6.3xx 10^(11)` m
Distance of saturn from the earth = `1.28xx 10^(12)`m
Gravitational constant,
`G = 6.67 xx 10^(-11)N-m^2 "/"kg^2`
Acceleration due to gravity on the earth=9.8 m/`s^2`
(ii) A bag of sugar weighs w at a certain place on the equator. If this bag is taken to Antarctica, then will it weigh the
same or more or less. Give a reason for your answer.

1123. (i) A person weighs 110.84 N on the moon, whose acceleration due to gravity is 1/6 of that the earth. If the value of g
on the earth is 9.8 m/`s^2`, then calculate
(a) g on the moon
(b) mass of person on the moon
(c) weight of person on the earth
(ii) How does the value of g on the earth is related to the mass of the earth and its radius? Derive it.

1124. A stone is dropped from the edge of a roof.

(i) How long does it take to fall 4:9 am?
(ii) How fast does it move at the end of that fall?
(iii) How fast does it move at the end of 7.9 m?
(iv) What is its acceleration after Is and after 2 s?

1125. (i) A steel needle sinks in water but a steel ship floats. Explain, how?
(ii) Why do you prefer a broad and thick handle of your suitcase?

1126. (i) Define relative density. Give its mathematical form.

(ii) The mass of an iron cube having an edge length 1.5 cm is 50 g. Find its density.
(iii) The volume of a 250 g sealed tin is 400 cubic cm. Find the density of the tining `"(cc)"^(-1)`. State, if the object
would sink or float in water.

1127. The radius of the earth at the poles is 6357 km and the radius at the equator is 6378 km. Calculate the percentage
change in the weight of a body when it is taken from the equator to the poles.

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1128. Newton's law of gravitation is universal law, because it

Options
(A) acts on all bodies and particles in the universe
(B) it acts on all the masses at all distances and not affected by the medium
(C) is always attractive
(D) None of the above

1129. Gravitational force between two objects is 10 N. If masses of both objects are doubled without changing distance
between them, then the gravitational force would become
Options
(A) 2.5 N
(B) 20 N
(C) 40 N
(D) 10N

1130. Three spheres have radii 1 cm, 2 cm and 3 cm, respectively. Which sphere exerts maximum pressure on earth ?
Options
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) All equal

1131. When a body is dipped completly or partially into a liquid, then weight (w) of the liquid displaced by the body and
upthrust force on the body into the liquid are related as
Options
(A) w = F
(B) w < F
(C) w>F
(D) None of these

1132. Assertion: A planet is heavently body revolving around the sun.

Reason: A planet revolving around the sun follows Kepler's law.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

1133. Assertion: To float, a body must displace liquid whose weight is greater than actual weight of the body.
Reason: During floating the body will experience no net downward force in that case.
Options
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(e) If Assertion and Reason both are false.

1134. Does the force of gravitation exist at all the places of the universe?

1135. Is gravitation an attractive or repulsive force?

1136. The gravitational force between two objects is F. How will the force change when the distance between them is
reduced to 1/4th?

1137. Weight of an object at a given place can be measure of its mass. Comment.

1138. An object is immersed in three different liquids. Will it experience same buoyant force due to all the liquids?

1139. Does density vary with temperature?

1140. A sphere of mass 40 kg is attracted by a second sphere of mass 15 kg when their centres 320 cm apart with a force
of 0.1 milligram weight. Calculate the value of gravitational constant.
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1141. Does the acceleration of a freely falling object depend to any extent on the location, i.e. whether the object is on top of
Mount Everest or in Death Valley, California? Explain.

1142. Find the ratio of weights of a body on the earth and jupiter, given g on jupiter is 2.5 times that on the earth.

1143. A man is asked to run with a bag containing 20 kg steel block. Will it be easier for him to run with 20 kg cotton
replacing the block. Explain with reason.

1144. A test tube floats in water with a small coin at its bottom. The mass of this test tube is equal to mass of seven coins
and external volume is 16 `cm^3`. It just sinks when the third coin is added. Calculate the mass of each coin. (Density
of water is lg `cm^(-3)`).

1145. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 50 m/s. Take, g as 10 m/`s^2`. Find the maximum height
reached by the stone. What is the net displacement and the total distance covered by the stone?

1146. If a planet existed whose mass was twice that of the earth and whose radius is 3 times greater. How much will a 1 kg
mass weigh in the planet?

1147. What is upthrust? What are the quantities that can vary upthrust? How does it account for the floating of a body?
When a partially immersed body is pressed down a little, what will happen to the upthrust?

1148. How does the force of attraction between the two bodies depend upon their masses and distance between them? A
student thought that two bricks tied together would fall faster than a single one under the action of gravity. Do you
agree with his hypothesis or not? Comment.

1149. If a satellite is revolving around a planet of m ass M in an elliptical orbit of semi-major axis a, find the orbital speed of
the satellite when it is at a distance r from the focus.
Options
(A) `v^2=GM[2/r-1/a]`
(B) `v^2=GM[2/(r^2)-1/a]`
(C) `v^2=GM[2/r^2-1/a^2]`
(D) `v^2=G[2/r-1/a]`

1150. Distance between the centres of two stars is 10a. The m asses of these stars are M and 16 M and their radii are a and
2a respectively. A body of m ass m is fired straight from the surface of the larger star towards the smaller star. The
minimum initial speed for the body to reach the surface of smaller star is

Options
(A) `2/3 sqrt((GM)/a)`
(B) `3/2 sqrt((5GM)/(8a))`
(C) `2/3 sqrt((5GM)/a)`
(D) `3/2 sqrt((GM)/a)`

1151. A satellite is launched in a circular orbit of radius R. Another satellite is also launched in an orbit of radius 1.1 R. The
period of the second satellite is larger than the first by approximately.
Options
(A) 7.5%
(B) 1.5%
(C) 15%
(D) 10%

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1152. If earth comes closer to sun by 3/4 th of the present distance, then the year of earth consists of how many Days?

Options
(A) 45.625 days
(B) 25.625 days
(C) 50.625 days
(D) 60.625 days

1153. Communication satellites move in orbits of radius 44400 km around the earth. Assume that the only force acting on it
is that due to the earth, then what is acceleration of such a satellite? (Take, mass of earth = `6xx10^(24)` kg)
Options
(A) 0.3 m/`s^2`
(B) 0.2 m/`s^2`
(C) 0.4 m/`s^2`
(D) 0.5 m/`s^2`

1154. The mean radius of the earth's orbit round the sun is `1.5 xx 10^(11)`. The mean radius of the orbit of mercury round
the sun is `6 xx 10^(10)` m. The mercury will rotate around the sun in
Options
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

1155. A tank 5m is high filled with water and then is filled to the top with oil of density 0.85 g/cm 3. The pressure at the
bottom of the tank, due to these liquids is
Options
(A) 1.85dyne/`cm^2`
(B) 89.25 dyne/`cm^2`
(C) 462.5 dyne/`cm^2`
(D) 500 dyne/`cm^2`

1156. A wooden block of volume 1000 `cm^3` is suspended from a spring balance. It weighs 12 N in air. It is suspended in
water such that half of the block is below the surface of water. The reading of the spring balance is
Options
(A) 10 N ,
(B) 9N
(C) 8 N
(D) 7 N

1157. A body is floating in water with `2/3` of its volume below the surface of water. What is the density of body?
Options
(A) 666.7 kg/`m^3`
(B) 777.6 kg/`m^3`
(C) 656.7 kg/`m^3`
(D) 876.6 kg/`m^3`

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1158. A body of mass 6kg immerses in water partially. If the body displaces 100 g of water, then the apparent weight of the
body is
Options
(A) 59 N
(B) 40 N
(C) 49 N
(D) 60 N

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