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API 572 Study Guide

297 Questions!!!
Practice Questions
This study aid will help you learn the content of API 572, Inspection of Pressure Vessels, 5th
Edition, 2023. There will be about 7-10 questions from API 572 on the API 510 exam. We do NOT
spend time in class on this publication. So, you need to become familiar with this content in your
personal study sessions. Here are some suggestions on working with this Study Guide.

1. Make a copy – Always have a fresh copy when you repeat any guide or homework.
2. Don’t eat this “Elephant” at one time. The questions in this Guide are in the same order
as the content written in API 572. So … read a few pages in API 572 & then answer the
questions associated with those pages. Always put a MARK by questions that you GUESS.
3. Check your answers. Answer Key is provided in the back with API 572 references.
4. For questions that you either MISS or GUESS, look up the answer in API 572.
5. Have more time? Repeat the process; Read a few pages & then Answer more questions.
6. Don’t overlook short periods of time. Even 15 minutes is enough time to “eat through” 5-
10 pages of API 572 and complete the associated questions.
7. Note! Questions that are highlighted in YELLOW are Open Book Questions.

How many times should you do this Study Guide? Keep repeating this Guide until you can score
80+%!!! And then … occasionally repeat to maintain your peak score.

Chapter 3: (pg 1-6)

1. An alteration on a vessel is defined as:
A. a physical change.
B. restoring the vessel to original conditions.
C. restoring the vessel to a safe suitable condition.
D. changing either the design pressure or design temperature.

2. A CML:

A. is a spot on a vessel not larger than 1.0” in diameter.

B. is a spot on a vessel not larger than 3.0” in diameter.
C. is a spot on a vessel for only taking UT thickness measurements.
D. may contain one or more examination points.

3. If a CML is a spot, then what is normally the maximum diameter of the spot?

A. 1” C. 3”
B. 2” D. 4”

4. What is a defect?

A. Discontinuity
B. Discontinuity that renders a part unable to meet minimum acceptance standards
C. Flaw
D. Flaw where the depth exceeds the remaining corrosion allowance

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Practice Questions
5. The MAWP of a vessel is the maximum pressure permitted:
A. anywhere on a vessel. C. at the mid-point of the vessel.
B. at top of the vessel. D. at the bottom of the vessel.

6. What is the pressure design thickness of a vessel part?

A. Original nominal thickness

B. Nominal thickness minus acceptable mill tolerance
C. Minimum thickness needed to contain the design pressure at ambient conditions
D. Minimum thickness needed to contain the design pressure at design temperature

7. A vessel repair is defined as:

A. a physical change.
B. restoring the vessel to original conditions.
C. restoring the vessel to a safe suitable condition.
D. changing either the design pressure or design temperature.

8. What is CUF?

A. Corrosion Under Fiberglass

B. Corrosion Under Fireproofing
C. Continuously Under-Funded inspections
D. Continuous Ultra-Frequency examinations

9. What is an IOW?

A. Interval Operating Window

B. Inspection Operating Window
C. Integrity Operating Window
D. Inside Open Window

Chapter 4: (pg 6-15)

1. Most pressure vessels codes do not apply to vessels with internal or external pressure that is
less than:
A. 5 psig. C. 25 psig.
B. 15 psig. D. 50 psig.

2. Many vessels with external pressure are:

A. jacketed. C. reactors.
B. accumulators. D. regenerators.

3. Towers are used to either: fractionate, strip out a gas or liquid, or enrich a gas or liquid.
These terms are collectively called:
A. catalyzation. C. mass transfer.
B. chemical reactions. D. reformation.

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Practice Questions
4. Liquid levels on trays are maintained by:
A. downcomers. C. tray caps.
B. reflux limiters. D. weirs.

5. The vapor seal on trays are maintained by:

A. downcomers. C. tray caps.

B. reflux limiters. D. weirs.

6. In a fractionating column, what rises through a bubble cap?

A. Catalyst C. Low Density Liquids

B. High Density Liquids D. Vapors

7. In a fractionating column, the liquid at the top of the column comes from:

A. reclaimation. C. reformation.
B. reflux. D. stratification.

8. Liquid-to-liquid extraction is done to recover a solvent or raffinate in a process called:

A. Distillation Stripping. C. Liquid Washing.

B. Fractionation. D. Polymerization.

9. An exchanger is used to cool a vapor to the point that some or all the vapors convert to liquid.
This exchanger is often called a(n):

A. air cooler. C. condenser.

B. cooler. D. liquidizer.

10. An exchanger cools a liquid to a lower temperature. This exchanger is often called a(n):
A. air cooler. C. condenser.
B. cooler. D. liquidizer.

11. An optionally part of an exchanger that is used to protect the tubes at the inlet nozzle is
called a(n):
A. baffle. C. impingement plate.
B. demister mat. D. strip lining.

12. Air coolers can be used to get the outlet process temperature down to within:

A. 20oF. of the outside temp. C. 50oF. of the outside temp.

B. 40oF. of the outside temp. D. 70oF. of the outside temp.

13. What is the purpose for fins on an air cooler?

A. Prevent walking on tubes C. Simplifies tube fabrication

B. Collect dust and debris D. Provide more surface area for heat transfer

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14. Which of the following is an example of a batch reactor?
A. Amine Stripper C. Hydrotreater reactor
B. Coke Drum D. Steam Reboiler

15. In a fixed bed reactor, the process gases typically flow through a(n):

A. acid. C. caustic.
B. catalyst. D. steam.

16. What vessel type has the best design efficiency? (uses less steel to hold the product)

A. Horizontal Vessel C. Sphere

B. Knockout Drum D. Vacuum Column

17. Spheres are often used in cryogenic service. Why?

A. Became an Industry Norm years ago, and has continued.

B. Easier to build than a cylindrical vessel.
C. Safety issues, if it fails, the top will blow straight up.
D. Less surface area to insulate, per process volume.

18. Some horizontal vessels have a “boot”. What is a common purpose of a vessel boot?
A. Collect Solids C. Remove Water
B. Filter Product D. Vapor Removal

Chapter 5: (pg 16-20)

1. The vessel fabrication code called the “API/ASME Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels” was
discontinued in:
A. 1939. C. 1973.
B. 1956. D. 1980.

2. Most pressure vessels in USA refineries are constructed to which Code?

A. API/ASME Code C. ASME Sect VIII – Div 2
B. ASME Sect VIII – Div 1 D. ASME Sect VIII – Div 3

3. Many high-pressure vessels are constructed to which Code?

A. API/ASME Code D. ASME Sect VIII – Div 3

B. ASME Sect VIII – Div 1 E. TEMA
C. ASME Sect VIII – Div 2

4. ASME Sect VIII – Div. 3 provides rules for vessels with pressures generally above:

A. 15 psig. C. 3000 psig.

B. 150 psig. D. 10,000 psig.

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5. What codes are used when constructing a heat exchanger used in the petrochemical industry?
A. API 660, ASME Section VIII, and TEMA
B. API 530, ASME Section VIII, and TEMA
C. API 660, API 560, and TEMA
D. API 530, API 661, and ASME Section VIII

6. What codes are used when constructing an air-cooler used in the petrochemical industry?

A. API 660, ASME Section VIII, and TEMA

B. API 661, ASME Section VIII, and TEMA
C. API 660, API 661, and TEMA
D. API 660, API 661, and ASME Section VIII

7. All manufacturers that build vessels to ASME Sect VIII Div 1 & 2 must have:

A. an API 510 inspector on staff.

B. access to an AWS inspector.
C. a quality-control system.
D. a machine capable of making dished heads.

8. The ASME vessel manufacturer stamps the vessel with the appropriate code symbol. What is
the meaning of this Code Stamp?

A. All applicable requirements of the ASME Code have been met.

B. All requirements of the U-Section in the ASME Code have been met.
C. Vessel has been hydrotested.
D. Vessel has been radiographed.

9. Vessel shell rings are normally made by:

A. rolling plate at ambient temperatures.

B. rolling plate at elevated temperatures.
C. rolling plate at either elevated or ambient temperatures.
D. forging.
E. casting and machining.

10. When fabricating a vessel shell, which fabrication method does not result in a longitudinal
shell weld?

A. Extruding C. Multi-layer
B. Hot forging D. Rolling

11. Vessel shells constructed with multi-layers (a number of thin cylindrical sections) are
normally used for vessels having:
A. high design pressures. C. exotic materials.
B. high design temperatures. D. a small diameter.

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Practice Questions
12. Which the most common material used to make pressure vessels?
A. Carbon steel C. Ferritic stainless steel
B. Chrome D. Nickle alloys

13. Which of the following materials is seldom used to make a pressure vessel but is common in
heat exchanger tubes?

A. Aluminum alloys C. Magnesium alloys

B. Copper alloys D. Zinc alloys

14. What is the primary purpose for installing a metallic liner on the inside of a vessel?

A. Decrease friction and improve fluid flow

B. Improve heat transfer
C. Minimize the effort to clean vessel at next outage
D. Resist corrosion or erosion

15. When are pressure vessel shells & heads normally made from a solid alloy material? (one
without cladding)

A. In corrosive service
B. Service where high product purity is needed
C. High operating temperatures
D. High operating pressures
E. Either operates at high temperatures or high pressures

16. Which of the following is a way that integrally bonded metallic liners are attached to the
base metal?
A. Explosion bonded C. Cold rolled with based metal
B. Fillet Welded D. Plug welded

17. Which of the following applies to non-integrally bonded liners? This may have more than one
correct answer, select all answers that apply.

A. Difficult to inspect. C. Not commonly used today

B. Inexpensive repairs D. Counted as part of the pressure boundary

18. Refractory is often attached to a vessel shell with:

A. cement adhesive. C. rebar.

B. hex mesh. D. stainless steel tabs.

19. What are two primary reasons for the use of non-metallic liners?

A. Resist erosion, and insulate to reduce shell temperature

B. Insulate to reduce shell temperature, and resist thermal expansion
C. Resist corrosion, and resist thermal expansion
D. Resist stress corrosion cracking, and insulate to reduce shell temperature

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20. Non-metallic vessels are sometimes used in:
A. corrosive services. C. high-pressure services.
B. high-temp services. D. low-temperature services.

21. Which non-metallic material is usually used to build vessels in corrosive services?

A. CPVC C. PVC
B. FRP D. Refractory

22. Copper alloy exchanger tubes are often used in which of the following processes?

A. Crude oil above 650 oF. C. Cooling Water

B. Erosive services D. Seawater

23. Titanium exchanger tubes are often used in which of the following processes?

A. Crude oil above 650 oF. C. Processes subject to HTHA

B. Erosive services D. Seawater

Chapter 6: (pg 20-21)

1. Which of the following is not a reason to inspect a pressure vessel?

A. Determine the rate of damage
B. Determine the type of damage
C. Minimize potential for equipment failure
D. Reduce the number of unplanned outages
E. Provide individuals great jobs with unbelievable wages!

2. Per OSHA 1910, refineries should follow:

A. EIEIO. C. RAGAGEP.
B. PSIPE. D. WWJD.

3. Per OSHA 1910, RAGAGEP means:

A. Recognized and Generally Accepted Good Engineering Practice.
B. Regionally Accepted Guidelines and Good Engineering Principles.
C. Recognized ASME Guidelines and/or Geographic Exceptional Practices.
D. Risk Acceptable Guidelines and/or General Equipment Publications.

Chapter 7: (pg 21-25)

1. Which of the following is a factor in that should be considered when developing an inspection
plan? This may have more than one correct answer, select all answers that apply.

A. Available NDE C. Expense to Open the Vessel

B. Damage Rate D. Remaining Life

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2. Which of the following is not a part of an inspection plan?
A. How to inspect C. Where to inspect
B. When to inspect D. Who should inspect

3. Where is a common location for localized corrosion? This may have more than one correct
answer, select all answers that apply.

A. Impingement Areas C. Weld Heat Affected Zones

B. Liquid-to-Vapor Interface D. Low velocity areas

4. Which of the following fluid / material pairs could cause cracking? This may have more than
one correct answer, select all answers that apply.

A. Amines / CS C. Chlorides / CS
B. Caustics / SS D. Chlorides / SS

5. If the damage mechanisms that affect a vessel are not understood, then:
A. a proper inspection plan can not be developed.
B. the vessel should be inspected annually.
C. all the welds on this vessel should be checked with UT phase array.
D. the vessel should be pressure tested after the inspection.

6. Which of the following equipment has no significant damage mechanism?

A. Alkylation plant C. Ethylene plant in cryogenic section

B. Crude distillation D. Hydrotreating reactor

7. The inspector selects appropriate NDE method(s) for an inspection. What is the most
important factor to consider when determining which NDE method(s) to use?
A. Expected damage mechanism(s)
B. Cost of NDE method
C. Original construction code’s NDE requirements
D. Portability of NDE method

8. What document would be useful to understand the type of damage mechanism that is
occurring on a vessel?

A. API 579 C. CCD

B. API 580 D. CUF

9. When should an inspection plan be reviewed and updated? This may have more than one correct
answer, select all answers that apply.

A. After an inspection C. Deviation from IOW limits

B. Process change D. At least every 3 years

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Practice Questions
10. Integrity Operating Windows (IOWs) should be established for vessels in accordance with:
A. API 583. C. API 652.
B. API 584. D. API 2201.

11. What should happen if the vessel’s operating conditions go outside the limits of the IOWs?

A. Follow appropriate pre-defined actions

B. Only note the exceedance in the equipment records
C. Just note the exceedance in the equipment records if the next outage is within 2 yrs
D. Shut the vessel down and open for Internal Inspection

12. Pressure vessel IOW’s should be updated after changes in:

A. the construction code. C. the process.

B. personnel. D. NDE technology.

13. Baseline thickness readings should be obtained:

A. by an ASNT Level 2 or 3 UT technician.
B. by an API QUTE technician.
C. prior to the vessel being placed in service.
D. within the first 5 years of the vessel’s operation.

Chapter 8: (pg 25-28)

1. Short-term corrosion rates:

A. are most useful for determining the remaining life of a vessel.

B. are higher than long-term rates due to higher process volumes.
C. can be significantly errored due to measurement error.
D. should be calculated by the vessel engineer.

2. The two primary factors of risk are:

A. consequence of failure & probability of failure.

B. consequence of failure & location of failure.
C. location of failure and volume of the process released.
D. volume of the process released & probability of failure.

3. Which document provides guidance on performing RBI assessments?

A. API 576 C. API 579

B. API 578 D. API 580

4. An On-stream inspection is done in lieu of an Internal Inspection. Which NDE method often
is not adequate to find suspected damage?

A. Spot UT C. UT Scan
B. UT Grid D. UT Flaw Detection

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Practice Questions
5. Which of the following often sets the run length of an operating unit? This may have more
than one correct answer, select all answers that apply.

A. Catalyst Life D. Fouling of equipment

B. API 584 E. Industry norms
C. Electric motors

Chapter 9: (pg 28-34)

1. Which NDE method(s) may cause problems in a confined space by displacing breathing air?

A. AUT D. RT
B. MT E. AUT or RT
C. PT F. MT or PT

2. Which document should be followed when using breathing air in a confined space?

A. API 578 C. API 2217A

B. API 2201 D. ASME PCC-1

3. When using breathing air in a confined space which of the following is correct?
A. Breathing air should be provided from 2 independent sources.
B. Breathing air couplings should meet OSHA 2017 regulations.
C. Maximum duration to use breathing air is 30 minutes per hour.
D. Breathing air must have at least 30% Oxygen.

4. Often the inspector inside a column does not have visual contact with the entry attendant. At
most facilities how is this addressed?

A. Horn signals
B. Inspector should “pop-out” of vessel every 15 minutes.
C. Radios given to inspector and entry attendant.
D. Tap the Morse Code “SOS” on the wall with your hammer if in trouble. “dot-dot-dot,
dash-dash-dash, dot-dot-dot”

5. Which of the following is not a significant safety concern while inside a column?
A. Upset trays makes climbing dangerous
B. Release of gases that is underneath debris
C. Sharp edges on tray hardware
D. Determining whether to get a Rib-eye, or a Prime Rib tonight

6. Prior to inspecting a vessel, the inspector should become familiar with the vessel’s:
A. operating conditions. C. RT Factor.
B. relief valve. D. year of construction.

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Practice Questions
7. Prior to inspecting a vessel, which of the following needs to be reviewed by the inspector?
This may have more than one correct answer, select all answers that apply.

A. Abnormal operating conditions during the last run

B. Construction and welding details of the vessel
C. Names of the last 3 inspectors who inspected this vessel
D. Operating conditions

8. An internal inspection will be performed on a vessel. What is the initial step to be

performed?

A. Collect all necessary inspection tools.

B. Check the vessel permitting requirements.
C. Collect the necessary personnel protective equipment.
D. Read the previous inspection reports.

9. Normal vessel cleaning methods, like steam cleaning, is usually adequate to meet the
inspector’s needs for an internal inspection. Extra cleaning such as abrasive-grit or water
blasting may be required when inspecting for:
A. localized thin areas. C. stress corrosion cracking.
B. deep pitting. D. thermal fatigue cracking.

10. The degree of surface preparation needed for an internal inspection depends on the:

A. type of deterioration expected.

B. location of deterioration expected.
C. type and extent of deterioration expected.
D. amount of overtime the inspector needs!

11. Caution should be used when using:

A. a carbon steel cleaning brush on non-carbon steel equipment.

B. a carbon steel cleaning brush on exchanger tubes.
C. penetrant for a PT exam on low-ally materials.
D. low-chloride water on carbon steel materials.

12. Vessels are often cleaned with a high-pressure water blast? What is the typical pressure
used for this water blast?
A. 1000 - 2000 psig C. 8000 – 12,000 psig
B. 2000 - 8000 psig D. 12,000 – 40,000 psig

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Practice Questions

Chapter 10 – Sections 10.1 & 10.2: (pg 34-44)

1. During the internal inspection a large vessel, the inspector finds that the bottom third of the
vessel has a 4” layer of coke deposit. Which of the following is correct? 10.1
A. Must determine if base metal under deposit is corroding.
B. The deposit does not need to be removed, since it always protects the base metal.
C. All of the deposit must be removed to determine base metal condition.
D. Some of the deposit must be removed & analyzed by a lab.

2. Prior to the internal inspection, vessel internals:

A. must all be removed.

B. never need to be removed.
C. do not need to be removed if the vessel wall is cladded with alloy.
D. do not need to be removed if deterioration is not expected behind the component.

3. Which of the following is not a significant factor in atmospheric corrosion?

A. Chemical vapors C. Metal surface temperature

B. Humidity D. Vessel’s operating pressure

4. Additional information concerning inspecting for CUI can be found in:

A. API 578. C. API 2201.

B. API 583. D. ASME B16.47.

5. In a caustic storage vessel, caustic embrittlement is least likely at:

A. areas of high stress. C. internal baffles or vortex breakers.

B. heating coil connections. D. nozzles.

6. Caustic embrittlement is most likely to occur at areas of:

A. high stress. C. low temperature.

B. high pressure. D. either high stress or high pressure.

7. Caustic that seeps through a crack will often leave a:

A. brown residue. C. yellow sticky deposit.

B. white salt deposit. D. black hard residue.

8. Where is soil-to-air corrosion usually most severe?

A. From ground level to a several inches below ground level

B. From ground level to a 24 inches below ground level
C. From 12 to 36 inches below ground level
D. From 24 to 60 inches below ground level

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Practice Questions
9. A vessel operates in a cyclic temperature service. The vessel support-to-vessel welds should
be checked using MT or PT to check for:
A. fatigue cracking. C. polytheonic cracking.
B. HTHA. D. stress corrosion cracking.

10. Tough question! The temperature of a hot-spot on a refractory lined vessel should be
periodically checked. Which of the following is not an acceptable method for checking the
temperature?
A. Portable thermocouple
B. Thermography (infrared imaging camera)
C. Temperature indicating crayons
D. Place your hand on surface for exactly 1 second. Calculate the vessel
temperature based on the depth of the 3rd degree burns on your hand.

11. A hot-spot has developed on a refractory lined carbon steel vessel. During the next internal
inspection, the wall at the hot-spot should be metallurgically examined whenever the metal
temperature for an extended period of time has exceeded:
A. 450 oF. C. 850 oF.
B. 750 oF. D. 1100 oF.

12. Metallurgical damage at a hot-spot can be checked using:

A. a material sample. D. either a material sample or replication.

B. replication. E. either replication or thermography.
C. thermography.

13. Which component is most affected by excessive vessel foundation settlement?

A. Manways C. Relief devices

B. Nozzles with piping D. Stiffener rings

14. What should be done if shell distortion is found at a nozzle?

A. Check for cracking on the nozzle welds and any adjacent shell welds.
B. Check the hardness of the nozzle welds.
C. Taking close-grid UT readings on the nozzle and shell in the distorted area.
D. Only note the distortion in your inspection report.

15. Catalytic reformer vessels may have creep damage if the operating temperature is:

A. > 800oF. C. > 1000oF.

B. > 900oF. D. > 1100oF.

16. Creep damage may be detected using:

A. MT. C. replication.
B. profile RT. D. ring gauging the vessel.

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Practice Questions
17. Weep holes on nozzle repads:
A. should remain open.
B. are needed only to air-test the repad during construction.
C. should be at least 1/2” in diameter.
D. should be plugged with a threaded metal plug.

18. The vessel’s external inspection should start by first inspecting the:

A. anchor bolts. C. insulation.

B. electrical grounding. D. ladders, stairs & platforms.

19. Which of the following is true concerning the inspection of ladders and platforms?

A. This inspection relies heavily on UT & RT.

B. The inspector should be recognized by the Structural Steel Product Council (SSPC).
C. The inspector does not have to be an API Authorized Inspector.
D. The inspector should be an API Authorized Inspector.

20. Ladders and platforms should be inspected:

A. only with a visual examination.

B. by visual examination and UT.
C. by visual examination and RT.
D. by visual examination and hammer-testing.

21. Tightness of bolts can be checked by:

A. hammer-tapping.
B. UT.
C. visual examination.
D. looking for nuts on the ground using API’s certified Squirrelly Inspectors.

22. Worn stair treads:

A. can be slippery. C. are usually repaired with alloy materials.

B. can be a tripping hazard. D. are usually repaired with non-metallic materials.

23. Small depressions on platforms are of concern since these can:

A. collect and hold water, potentially causing accelerated corrosion.

B. create a tripping hazard.
C. create flexing that could cause a fatigue failure.
D. be rather ugly and prevent your facility from achieving API’s Petrochemical Facility of
the Year award.

24. Where is a common place for corrosion on ladders?

A. Ladder cage C. Where rungs fit into the side rails

B. Rungs D. Side rails

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Practice Questions
25. What type of corrosion often occurs at bolts & nuts?
A. Crevice corrosion C. Liquid metal embrittlement
B. Galling D. Sulfidation

26. Crevice corrosion is not common at which of the following?

A. Between exchange shell & cradle support

B. Repad-to-shell welds
C. Where stair treads slip into support members
D. Under anchor bolt nuts

27. Which of the following does not cause cracking in concrete foundations?

A. Concrete corrosion D. Freezing of entrapped moisture

B. Corrosion of rebar E. Uneven settlement
C. Excessive heat

28. Small hair-like cracks in fireproofing:

A. should always be caulked.

B. should always be repaired with a cement material similar to the original material.
C. should be further examined by hammer-testing.
D. are usually not a serious concern.

29. Small hair-like cracks in concrete foundations can be a problem if the crack:

A. is deeper than ½”. C. extends 20% through the foundation.

B. is longer than 3”. D. extends to the foundation’s rebar.

30. Major cracking is found in a concrete foundation. Vessel settlement is checked and is
determined to not be a contributing factor. What is the probable cause(s)?

A. Fatigue C. Fatigue or High Temperature

B. High Temperature D. Fatigue or Poor Materials

31. Vessel settlement measurements are:

A. routinely taken at each internal vessel inspection.
B. never required.
C. scheduled based on the rate and seriousness of the settlement.
D. normally scheduled based on jurisdictional requirements.

32. What examination method is normally used to examine in-service anchor bolts?
A. Eddy current C. Radiography
B. Hammer-testing D. Scrapping with a scrapper of wire brush

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Practice Questions
33. A distorted anchor bolt is usually the result of:
A. serious foundation settlement.
B. selecting the wrong material for the anchor bolt.
C. using an anchor bolt of insufficient diameter.
D. using an anchor bolt of insufficient length.

34. Corroded anchor bolts can also be checked using:

A. acoustic emission. C. radiography.

B. eddy current. D. UT.

35. What is one of the best ways to prevent external corrosion on structural steel?

A. Fireproofing C. Insulation
B. Galvanizing D. Painting

36. Buckling of support columns can be checked with:

A. 1-foot level. C. tape measure.
B. plumb line. D. thermography.

37. To check for distortion of a vessel skirt, take diameter measurements of the skirt every:
A. 10 feet. C. 60 degrees.
B. 45 degrees. D. 90 degrees.

38. The inside of a vessel skirt may be subject to corrosion from condensed moisture if the
temperature in the skirt is:

A. > 50 oF. C. > 100 oF.

B. < 50 oF. D. < 100 oF.

39. Floating ends of exchangers should be free to allow for:

A. alignment. C. facilitate ease in maintenance activities.

B. sideways movement. D. thermal growth.

40. During operation, air coolers tubes will buckle if:

A. cooler fan is not balanced.
B. shipping pins are not removed.
C. operating pressure exceeds design pressure.
D. operating temperature exceeds design temperature.

41. What is a good way to check for disbonded fireproofing?

A. Light hammer taps D. Visual examination
B. Thermography E. 25 lb. sledge hammer test
C. UT

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Practice Questions
42. A bulge in fireproofing can be caused by:
A. corrosion of the steel.
B. excessive thickness of fireproofing.
C. less than needed thickness of fireproofing.
D. excessive heat.

43. Guy wires supporting tall vessels should be examined using:

A. acoustic emission. D. UT.

B. profile RT. E. visual examination.
C. ring gauge.

44. Guy wires supporting tall vessels should be occasionally lubricated to:

A. ensure freedom of movement.

B. keep birds from landing on wires.
C. minimize corrosion.
D. facilitate a way for rapid descent from the top of the vessel. (and we mean RAPID!)

45. At the end of a guy wire, the wire wraps, making an 180o bend and is held together by clips.
The spacing between the clips should be at least:
A. 3” apart. C. 3 wire diameters apart.
B. 6” apart. D. 6 wire diameters apart.

46. At the end of a guy wire, the wire wraps, makes an 180o bend and is held together by clips.
The minimum number of clips is:

A. 3. C. based on wire diameter.

B. 6. D. based on wire length.

47. Vessel grounding is primarily needed to provide a path for electrical current from:

A. a lighting strike or a welding machine.

B. a lighting strike or static electricity.
C. a welding machine or an electrical short.
D. an electrical short or static electricity.

48. Vessel grounding connections should be inspected by:

A. measuring the resistance. C. measuring the resistance and visual inspection.
B. visual inspection. D. measuring the resistance or visual inspection.

49. Recommended resistance-to-ground for a vessel grounding system is:

A. < 5 ohms. C. < 100 ohms.

B. < 25 ohms. D. < 250 ohms.

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Practice Questions
50. The maximum resistance-to-ground for a vessel grounding system must not exceed:
A. 5 ohms. C. 100 ohms.
B. 25 ohms. D. 250 ohms.

51. Vessel sight glasses and other auxiliary equipment should be checked for:

A. expansion. C. sulfidation.
B. HTHA. D. vibration.

52. Vibrating level bridles may cause:

A. fatigue failure. C. pitting.

B. localized corrosion. D. stress corrosion cracking.

53. Which of the following coating failures is easily missed during a visual examination?

A. Blisters C. Holidays
B. Film lifting D. Rusting

54. Where are the two most likely areas for paint failures?

A. Nozzles and crevices D. Weld seams and crevices

B. Top heads and nozzles E. Weld seams and nozzles
C. Top heads and crevices

55. An external inspection is being conducted on an insulated vessel. How much insulation should
be removed to check the vessel’s external surface condition?

A. A minimum of 10% of the insulation should be removed.

B. A small area of insulation should be removed on each shell course & each head.
C. One small area of insulation should be removed in the most suspect area.
D. Insulation removal is not required unless there is a reason to suspect that corrosion is
occurring under the insulation.

56. CUI is a concern for insulated carbon steel vessels that operate between:

A. 10 to 250 oF. C. 25 to 250 oF.

B. 10 to 350 oF. D. 140 to 350 oF.

57. CUI is a concern for insulated low-alloy steel vessels that operate between:

A. 10 to 250 oF. C. 25 to 250 oF.

B. 10 to 350 oF. D. 140 to 350 oF.

58. CUI is a concern for insulated austenitic stainless-steel vessels that operate between:
A. 10 to 350 oF. C. 140 to 350 oF.
B. 25 to 250 oF. D. 280 to 350 oF.

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Practice Questions
59. CUI is a concern for insulated duplex stainless-steel vessels that operate between:
A. 10 to 350 oF. C. 140 to 350 oF.
B. 25 to 250 oF. D. 280 to 350 oF.

60. CUI is an inspection concern for insulated vessels that operate at 500 oF and:

A. are in intermittent service.

B. are made of austenitic stainless steel.
C. are made of low chromes.
D. have poorly maintained insulation.

61. Which of the following insulated vessels is most likely to experience CUI?

A. CS vessel operating at 600 oF. but is in an intermittent service.

B. CS vessel operating continuously at 375 oF.
C. CS vessel operating at cyclic temperatures ranging between 375-600 oF.
D. SS vessel operating continuously at 100 oF.

62. What on-stream NDE techniques may be able to locate moist insulation? This may have more
than one correct answer, select all answers that apply.

A. MFL C. Real-time RT
B. Neutron back scatter D. Thermography

Chapter 10 – Section 10.3: (pg 44-57)

1. Which of the following applies when coke deposits are found in a vessel?
A. It is important to determine if there is active corrosion under the deposit.
B. Coke deposits are always an effective barrier to internal corrosion.
C. Coke deposits always increase the vessel’s corrosion rate.
D. Coke deposits must always be removed.

2. Prior to doing the official Internal inspection, a preliminary inspection is suggested. What is
the purpose of the preliminary inspection? This may have more than one correct answer, select
all answers that apply.

A. Take thickness readings of all major components.

B. Determine is additional cleaning is required.
C. May reveal potentially unsafe conditions.
D. To take samples of any corrosion product.

3. Sulfidation is a common concern at the:

A. top of the crude unit’s fractionating column.

B. bottom of the crude unit’s fractionating column.
C. top of a hydrotreater reactor.
D. bottom of a hydrotreater reactor.

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Practice Questions
4. High temperature sulfidic corrosion (sulfidation) tends to appear as:
A. cracking. C. localized wall loss.
B. pitting. D. uniform wall loss.

5. The upper shell and top head of a distillation towers are sometimes subject to:

A. chloride attack. C. liquid metal embrittlement.

B. galling. D. temper-embrittlement.

6. Equipment in a wet hydrogen sulfide or cyanide environments may experience:

A. cracking in the base metal.

B. cracking in the welds and heat affected zones.
C. extensive pitting.
D. localized thinned area.

7. Sludge settles on a vessel’s bottom head, what corrosion mechanism is likely to occur?
A. Concentration cell corrosion D. Stress corrosion cracking
B. Dealloying E. Uniform corrosion
C. Sludgitization

8. If steam is injected into a vessel, a likely place for corrosion is on the:

A. inlet nozzle.
B. vessel wall directly below the nozzle.
C. vessel wall opposite the nozzle.
D. vessel’s anchor bolts. (once again proving it is difficult to come up with 3 wrong answers!)

9. When a reboiler is used with a tower (fractionating column), a common place for corrosion is:

A. the inlet to the reboiler. C. at the tower where the hot process returns.
B. top head of the tower. D. at the tower where the cold process returns.

10. What is a common cause of corrosion associated with reboilers?

A. Deposits in the process cause oxygen pitting

B. Hot process decomposes to form acids
C. Hot process decomposes to form polytheonic caustic
D. Increased velocity of returning process causes erosion

11. Most cracking occurs:

A. in carbon steel materials. C. at fillet welds.

B. in bottom heads. D. at welds and heat affected zones.

12. Areas opposite inlet nozzles may be subject to:

A. chloride cracking. C. erosion.

B. random pitting. D. concentration cell corrosion.

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Practice Questions
13. Exchangers in cooling water service have the highest corrosion rates where the:
A. ph is the highest. C. velocity is the lowest.
B. velocity is the highest. D. water temperature is the highest.

14. Which of these exchanger components would have a higher expected corrosion rate?

A. The gasket surface of a CS channel that has a zinc overlaid CS tubesheet

B. The gasket surface of a CS channel that has a brass tubesheet
C. On a brass tubesheet that has a carbon steel channel
D. On a SS tubesheet that has a carbon steel channel

15. In a vessel, where are cracks most likely to occur?

A. Sharp changes in size C. Near weld seams

B. Sharp changes in shape D. All the above

16. In an exchanger, accelerated corrosion is most likely in the:

A. tube inlets. C. tube outlets.
B. lower tubes. D. upper tubes.

17. An impingement plate is installed on an exchanger bundle at the inlet nozzle. What area is
most susceptible to corrosion?

A. Exchanger shell near the impingement plate

B. Tubesheet
C. Tubes near the impingement plate
D. Inlet nozzle

18. Prior to inspecting a vessel, which of the following does the inspector not need to understand?

A. The purpose of the vessel

B. The function of any internal components
C. The function of each nozzle
D. The Operation Manager’s inner feelings
19. To ensure that degradation is not missed, what inspection practice is recommended?

A. Take a recording device to minimize need to write.

B. Start at one end of the vessel and work to the other end.
C. Take photos of entire vessel.
D. Have a flashlight that provides 25 foot-candles of light at a distance of 12”.

20. What is the minimum number of UT examination points suggested for a small vessel that has
slight deterioration?

A. One
B. One on each head and one on the shell
C. One on each head and one on each shell course
D. Four on each head and four on each shell course

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Practice Questions
21. What is a simple way to estimate the depth of a pit?
A. Scratch the area with your finger nail
B. Extend the lead of a mechanical pencil
C. Rub the area with your fingers
D. Rub the area with a coin

22. Vessels containing amines are subject to:

A. oxygen pitting. D. caustic embrittlement.

B. oxidation. E. dew point corrosion.
C. environmental cracking.

23. Which of the following services does not promote cracking in the equipment?

A. Amine C. Caustic
B. Sulfuric Acid D. Wet H2S

24. Why is WFMT often used to detect certain types of cracking?

A. Easier to perform than other types of MT.

B. Requires less effort to qualify the NDE examiner as compared to dry MT.
C. It’s a more sensitive technique as compared to dry MT.
D. Equipment used for the exam is less expensive than for other MT exams.

25. Which of the following NDE methods is not good for surface breaking cracks?

A. ACFM C. Profile RT
B. ET D. UT Flaw Detection

26. Deaerators used for boiler feed-water are subject to:

A. pitting. D. corrosion fatigue.

B. localized thinned areas. E. dealloying.
C. uniform corrosion.

27. What is the recommended way to find deaerator cracking?

A. MT or PT C. UT
B. RT D. WFMT

28. Austenitic stainless steels are particularly susceptible to: This may have more than one correct
answer, select all answers that apply.

A. chloride corrosion. C. polythionic stress corrosion cracking.

B. vanadium cracking. D. sulfidation corrosion.

29. In a susceptible environment, check steels for cracking when the tensile strength exceeds:
A. 70,000 psi. C. 110,000 psi.
B. 90,000 psi. D. 125,000 psi.

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Practice Questions
30. Which of the following steels is most likely to crack?
A. Steels with a tensile strength lower than 70,000 psi
B. Steels with a yield strength above 20,000 psi.
C. Coarse-grain steels
D. Fine-grain steels

31. A primary concern in heavy-wall hydro-processing reactors is:

A. cracking in circumferential welds.

B. cracking in nozzle attachment welds.
C. grooving in nozzles.
D. pitting in the vapor space.

32. Erosion is characterized by:

A. build-up of corrosion product.

B. deep pits.
C. smooth surface with bright appearance.
D. rough surface with dark appearance.

33. Often corrosion will occur on an exchanger shell at the location of the bundle baffles. An
easy way to find this corrosion is by:

A. spot UT. C. eddy current testing.

B. visual examination. D. shining a flashlight beam parallel to the shell.

34. Areas directly above or below the liquid level in vessels having acidic components may be
subject to:
A. caustic embrittlement. D. creep.
B. hydrogen blistering. E. fatigue.
C. graphitization. F. dealloying.

35. How can small hydrogen blisters be easily found?

A. Feel metal surface with your fingers

B. Visual examination
C. Hammer-testing
D. Spot UT readings

36. What is another way that can be used to find hydrogen blisters?

A. Hold a flashlight perpendicular to the shell

B. Hold a flashlight parallel to the shell
C. RT
D. WFMT

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Practice Questions
37. Existing exchanger shells sometimes get out-of-round making it difficult to reinsert the
bundle. What is a common cause of an exchanger shell’s out-of-roundness?
A. Over pressure D. Creep
B. Elevated temperature E. Welding repairs to the shell
C. Metal fatigue F. Meteor strike

38. When HTHA occurs, what actually is happening in the steel?

A. Atomic hydrogen bonds with carbon.
B. Atomic hydrogen bonds with chrome.
C. Atomic hydrogen bonds with iron.
D. Atomic hydrogen forms molecular hydrogen in grain boundaries.

39. HTHA causes:

A. blisters. C. decarburization and fissures.
B. blisters and fissures. D. decarburization and fatigue cracking.

40. More information about HTHA can be found in which document?

A. API 763 C. NACE 1245
B. API 941 D. ASTM 488.

41. Inspecting tray supports and baffles is usually accomplished using:

A. Hammer Testing. C. Hammer Test & Visual.

B. Hammer Testing & UT. D. UT and Visual.

42. Damaged column trays normally:

A. affect the efficiency of the column operation.

B. affect the strength of the column.
C. affect the efficiency of the column operation and the strength of the column.
D. have no significant impact.

43. Normally tower (column) trays are inspected using:

A. only a visual examination.

B. visual examination and UT.
C. visual examination and some type of crack detection NDE method.
D. visual examination, UT and some type of crack detection NDE method.

44. Vessel internal piping should be:

A. constructed to ASME B31.1.

B. inspected to API 570.
C. inspected using visual examination.
D. examined with UT at specific CMLs.

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Practice Questions
45. Process deposits are a significant concern inside which nozzles?
A. Air cooler Inlets C. Reflux Lines
B. Exchanger Outlets D. Relief Device Inlets

46. The grooves on an existing ring-joint flange should be checked for cracking caused by:

A. excessive bolt tightening. C. thermal fatigue.

B. mechanical fatigue. D. zincification.

47. Ring-joint grooves on existing stainless-steel flanges should be checked for:

A. stress corrosion cracks. C. dealloying.

B. temper embrittlement. D. corrosion fatigue.

48. Existing Van Stone flanges should be checked for:

A. chloride cracking. C. crevice corrosion.

B. creep. D. graphitization.

49. The primary purpose of metallic linings is to prevent:

A. corrosion. C. corrosion or erosion.

B. erosion. D. thermal growth.

50. Loose or cracked metallic linings can be found using:

A. light taps with a hammer. C. MT.

B. visual inspection. D. acoustic emission.

51. A vessel is clad with a SS liner. A SS corrosion tab, perpendicular to the shell, is added to
help determine if the liner is corroding. Ten years later, it’s found that the tab’s corrosion
rate is 0.002 ipy. What is estimated corrosion rate of the SS liner?

A. Unknown C. 0.002 ipy

B. 0.001 ipy D. 0.004 ipy

52. Bulged metallic linings are often the indication of a:

A. low quality inspection during installation.
B. poor installation.
C. leaking liner.
D. leaking liner or differential thermal expansion.

53. If there are indications that a metallic liner has leaked, it is important to determine the:
A. thickness of the liner.
B. displacement of the bulged area.
C. condition of the base metal under the liner.
D. the identification of the welder who previously installed the liner.

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Practice Questions
54. What type of weld metal overlay is often used for hydrotreater reactors?
A. Low chromes D. Stabilized austenitic stainless steel
B. High chromes E. High nickel alloys
C. Austenitic stainless steel

55. What is the primary purpose for refractory linings? This may have more than one correct
answer, select all answers that apply.

A. Corrosion Resistance C. Minimize Thermal Growth

B. Insulation D. Substitute for Galvanizing

56. A break or void in a paint coating is called a:

A. blister. D. voidea.
B. film lift off. E. lamination.
C. holiday.

57. A common tool used to find breaks in a non-metallic lining is:

A. acoustic emission. C. MFL (magnetic flux leakage).

B. eddy current. D. spark testing.

58. Spark testing is being performed on a coating. What happens if the voltage on the spark
tester exceeds the dielectric strength of the coating?

A. Coating will become magnetic.

B. Strength of the coating bond increases.
C. A hole is “blown” in the coating.
D. Creates a nuclear chain reaction that will destroy the entire universe.

59. Which type of vessel is very susceptible to damage and very costly to repair? (assume all the
following vessels are the same size)
A. Glass Lined C. Refractory Lined
B. High Nickle Alloy D. Rubber Lined

60. What is a common tool that is used to inspect refractory?

A. Digital UT C. Hardness Tester

B. Light Hammer Tapping D. Pit Gauge

61. A vessel has an internal refractory lining. Which of the following is correct?

A. Inspection must be performed by an ACI (American Concrete Inst.) Level 2 inspector.

B. Some refractory must be removed to check condition of the base metal.
C. Refractory never needs to be removed to check condition of the base metal.
D. Refractory does not need to be removed to check condition of the base metal if the
lining appears in good condition.

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Practice Questions
62. When a refractory lining cracks, what is a common problem that can occur to the base metal?
A. Dew point corrosion C. Excessive thermal stress
B. Dealloying D. Brittle failure

63. What is a common way to check the base metal condition under a deteriorated internal lining?

A. From the external surface, Spot UT in areas of concern.

B. From the external surface, UT scan areas of concern.
C. Profile RT areas of concern.
D. Remove 100% of all the refractory.

64. What tool is useful for finding deteriorated refractory lining while the vessel is in service?

A. Acoustic Emission C. Thermography

B. Eddy Current Testing D. UT Scan

Chapter 10 – Section 10.4: (pg 57-61)

1. The primary means of obtaining vessel thickness measurements is by:

A. RT. C. RT or UT.
B. UT. D. RT, UT or Eddy Current.

2. A vessel’s nozzle thickness is checked. Which is correct?

A. All 4 quadrants should be checked.

B. Must take 3 readings at each examination point and record the lowest.
C. Must only use digital UT to check thickness.
D. The examination point is an area that has a maximum diameter of ½”.

3. Concerning thickness readings at an examination point, which of the following is correct?

A. Only one reading should be taken.

B. Multiple readings must be taken.
C. Always record the lowest reading.
D. The average reading can be recorded.

4. Magnetic flux scanning techniques can be used to detect wall loss on vessels:
A. of any material. C. made from austenitic SS.
B. of any wall thicknesses. D. with a wall thickness < 0.5” thick.

5. High temperature UT thickness readings have an apparent thickness that is:

A. too thick by about 0.5% for every 100 oF.
B. too thick by about 1.0% for every 100 oF.
C. too thin by about 0.5% for every 100 oF.
D. too thin by about 1.0% for every 100 oF.

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Practice Questions
6. The number of thickness measurement locations should progressively increase with:
A. the age of the equipment. C. when using inexperienced UT technicians.
B. increased alloy. D. higher expected corrosion rates.

7. A vessel is subjected to localized corrosion. Which of the following is correct?

A. Increase the number of measurement locations.

B. Do not use Spot UT, use alternative NDE methods.
C. Either increase the number of CML’s or use alternative NDE methods.
D. The CMLS’s and NDE method(s) should be specified by the API 510 AI.

8. After an inspection, what are the two most important factors that need to be understood?

A. Damage Rate & the Material Grade

B. Damage Rate & the Required Thickness of the parts
C. Construction Code and the Code Safety Factor
D. Codes Safety Factor and the Type of Material

9. Pertaining to the vessel’s tmin’s, which of the following is true?

A. tmin’s must be determined by a professional engineer.

B. tmin’s must be determined by the formulas from the original construction code.
C. tmin’s must be determined by the formulas from the current construction code.
D. tmin’s will probably be different for different vessel parts.

10. Extra metal in a vessel wall may have been used by the Designer to provide:

A. ladder clip reinforcement. C. nozzle reinforcement.

B. lifting lug reinforcement. D. transition reinforcement.

11. ASME B&PV Sect VIII does not provide a formula to calculate the retirement thickness of:

A. conical shell sections. C. cylindrical shells nozzles.

B. heads. D. internal trays.

12. ASME B&PV Section VIII does provide a formula to calculate the retirement thickness of:
A. 2:1 elliptical heads. C. ladders.
B. baffles. D. platforms.

13. The minimum thickness of a metallic lining on a vessel shell:

A. is 0.030”. C. is calculated per Section VIII.

B. is 0.100”. D. has no set value.

14. The minimum required thickness of heat exchanger tubes is:

A. 0.030”. C. based on risk.

B. 0040”. D. based on tube diameter.

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Practice Questions
15. What method is often used to detect metallurgical changes to the base metal?
A. Bend tests C. Impact tests
B. Metallography D. Tension tests

16. What method is often used to detect carburization and decarburization?

A. Bend tests C. Impact tests

B. Hardness testing D. Zwick analysis

17. Carburization of austenitic SS can sometimes be detected with a(n):

A. Magnet. C. Caustic Etching.

B. Fluorescent Light. D. Ohm-meter.

18. During repairs & alterations to vessels, who is responsible to establish the requirements for
an appropriate PMI program?

A. Authorized Inspector C. Owner-Operator

B. Engineer D. Repair Organization

19. What document is useful in setting the requirements for a PMI program?

A. API 578 C. API 2201

B. API 2015 D. ASME PCC-1

20. What document provides information on the corrosive effect of residual elements on carbon
steel in HF acid service?

A. API 530 C. API 652

B. API 583 D. API 751

21. In which of the following situations is hammer testing typically used today?

A. Check tightness of bolts C. Find cracks in metallic linings

B. Locate thin wall sections D. Find cracks in vessel heads and shell

22. It is recommended to not hammer test:

A. pressurized vessels. C. refractory lined vessels.
B. stainless steel vessels. D. vessels with SS cladding.

Chapter 11: (pg 61-62)

1. During a shutdown, a vessel is internally inspected. A portion of the shell is currently below
the minimum required thickness. What are acceptable options? This may have more than one
correct answer, select all answers that apply.

A. Permanent repair C. Rerate (derate) the vessel

B. Temporary repair D. Decrease construction code’s safety factor

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Practice Questions
2. What document can be used to assess a vessel component that has corrosion that has
exceeded the original corrosion allowance?
A. API 571 C. ASME Sect XIII
B. API 579 D. ASME PCC-2

Chapter 12: (pg 62-65)

1. A vessel is structurally sound, but due to corrosion it is no longer thick enough for the
designed conditions. The vessel:

A. can be derated. C. must be retired.

B. must be repaired. D. must be repaired or retired.

2. If a jurisdiction requires a vessel repair to meet the National Board Inspection Code, what
stamp must the Repair Organization possess?

A. A C. UV
B. U D. R

3. Which document provides guidelines on evaluation different forms of degradation?

A. API 579 C. API 2201

B. API 583 D. ASME FFS-26

4. A vessel’s shell thickness is 2.000”. The corrosion allowance is 0.250”. During an inspection,
the wonderful, talented, API inspector (who attended an MSTS class) discovers in a
longitudinal weld, a 24” long crack that is 0.150” deep. Which of the following is true?

A. The crack must be removed.

B. Crack doesn’t have to be removed since it doesn’t go through the corrosion allowance.
C. If the crack is removed, the area ground must be rewelded.
D. If the crack is removed, the area ground out does not have to welded.

5. When removing a crack in a vessel using arc gouging:

A. care must be taken to prevent the crack from growing.

B. the craftsman must be qualified in accordance with ASME B&PV Section IX.
C. the base metal should only be a P1 or P-3 material.
D. the crack length cannot be greater than allowed in API 579.

6. A deep crack in a vessel shell weld will be removed and then re-welded. Which of the
following is true?
A. A pressure test must be done after repairs are completed.
B. The area should be beveled to about a 37.5 degree angle.
C. Welders can be qualified to AWS D1.1.
D. Either MT or PT should be performed prior to welding.

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Practice Questions
7. Stairway treads that have been worn smooth:
A. can be roughened by placing weld beads on the worn surface.
B. should always be replaced.
C. are acceptable provided the tread thickness is adequate.
D. should be repaired with epoxy-based materials.

Chapter 13: (pg 65-68)

1. Which of the following is not a purpose for a pressure test?

A. Validate vessel MDMT

B. Assure equipment tightness
C. Assure equipment integrity
D. Redistribute stresses at discontinuities

2. A pressure test would probably not be required after which of the following repairs?
A. Install a 3’ x 4’ insert plate in the shell
B. Weld overlay a 5’ x 4’ corroded area in the shell
C. Replace the vessel’s top head
D. Add a 16 NPS nozzle in the top head

3. Acoustic emission testing is especially useful on:

A. heat exchangers. C. vessels with complex design.
B. large vessels. D. vessels with simplistic design.

4. After an exchanger hydrotest, the water is drained. But some residual water cannot be
drained. What may need to be done?

A. Nothing, a little residual water will not cause a problem.

B. Heat the equipment to 500oF to boil off the water.
C. Add corrosion inhibitors to prevent microbiological corrosion.
D. Add corrosion inhibitors to prevent oxidation.

5. A pneumatic pressure test is performed on a large vessel. What is one way to determine the
location of remote leaks?
A. Block-in the vessel and see if the pressure drops
B. UT leak detector
C. Binoculars
D. Thermography

6. A vessel is being vacuum tested. What is one negative aspect of a vacuum test?

A. Location of leak is not easily identified.

B. There are additional safety precautions as compared to a hydrotest.
C. Creating the vacuum requires expensive equipment.
D. The vacuum must be held for 24 hours.

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Practice Questions
7. A shell-side pressure test is being performed on an exchanger with a floating head bundle.
The bundle is in the shell and the channel cover is removed. This test will show overall bundle
integrity and can be used to specifically locate which of the following leaks?
A. Stationary tubesheet roll leaks
B. Floating head tubesheet roll leaks
C. Floating head gasket leak.
D. Leaking tubes
E. The exact location of any leak cannot be determined with this test

8. A tube-side pressure test is being performed on a floating head exchanger bundle. The
bundle is in the shell. Piping connected to a bottom shell nozzle is removed. This test will
show bundle integrity and can be used to locate which of the following leaks?

A. Stationary tubesheet roll leaks

B. Floating head tubesheet roll leaks
C. Leaking tubes
D. The exact location of any leak cannot be determined with this test

9. During pressure test of a bundle, a leaking tube is discovered. Other tubes are acceptable
for a future operational run. The leaking tube is normally:

A. replaced in kind. D. replaced with improved metallurgy.

B. removed. E. rerolled.
C. plugged.

10. Before applying a high-pressure hydrotest to an exchanger’s shell-side, be sure to:

A. connect a PRV to prevent excessive pressure.

B. have multiple pressure gauges connected for the test.
C. assure that all tubes have been seal-welded at the tubesheet.
D. determine whether the tubesheet is thick enough for the pressure.

11. What is a good practice when plugging an exchanger bundle tube?

A. Prior to plugging, pierce the tube to prevent pressure buildup.

B. Always seal weld the plug.
C. Never plug more than 10% of the tubes.
D. Plugs should be installed in accordance with ASME PCC-3.

12. How many tubes in a bundle can be plugged?

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. As many as needed, if it doesn’t impact the bundle’s ability to transfer adequate heat
energy.

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Practice Questions
13. What is major safety concern when performing a pneumatic test?

A. Compressed air when released creates a fireball.

B. Compressed gases when released expand at a very high velocity.
C. Compressed air reacts extremely fast with steel to create rapid thinning.
D. Compressed gases when released form a toxic cloud.

14. A vessel is going to be pneumatically tested. It is important to establish a safety perimeter.

Guidance for establishing a safety perimeter can be found in:

A. ASME B&PV Sect VIII. D. API 579.

B. ASME PCC-2. E. API 2201.
C. ASME B16.47.

15. A pressure test is conducted after an alteration on a vessel that has a shell thickness of 2.5”.
The minimum metal temperature allowed during this pressure test is:
A. 10oF. D. 10oF. above the vessel MDMT.
B. 30oF. E. 30oF. above the vessel MDMT.
C. 60oF.

16. A pressure test is conducted after a repair on a vessel that has a shell thickness of 1.25”.
The minimum metal temperature allowed during this pressure test is:
A. 10oF. D. 10oF. above the vessel MDMT.
B. 30oF. E. 30oF. above the vessel MDMT.
C. 60oF.

17. What is the most important concern when hydrotesting a large in-service vessel?

A. Assure the water used has less than 50 ppm of particulates.

B. Assure foundation & supports are adequate for the weight of the hydrotest.
C. Provide multiple calibrated pressure gauges.
D. Rope off an area equal to 1000 sq. ft. for every 1’ of vessel height.

18. During a turnaround, many temporary isolation blinds are installed. What is one significant
potential problem with these isolation blinds?

A. The blind material is usually incompatible with the process.

B. Most Owner-Operator lose track of the location of these blinds.
C. Most Owner-Operator lose track of the supporting Mill Certs for these blinds.
D. The blind thickness is usually not adequate to support a pressure test.

19. When performing a pneumatic pressure test of a vessel, the requirements of which code
should be followed?

A. ASME Section I D. ASME B31.3

B. ASME Section V E. API 579
C. ASME Section VIII F. API 2201

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 API 572 Study Guide
Practice Questions
Note! Per the API 510 Body of Knowledge Annex A & C are NOT included in the API Exam.

Annex B: (pg 88-139)

1. Which of the following parts is “missing” in a single-flow sieve tray?

A. Downcomers C. Valve Caps
B. Tray Ring D. Weirs

2. Which of the following parts is “missing” in a dual-flow sieve tray?

A. Downcomers C. Tray Ring

B. Tray Perforations

3. Dual-flow sieve trays are often used in which type of process?

A. Amine Service
B. Potential for Heavy Fouling
C. Only Light Hydrocarbons
D. Very Clean Services

4. Which of the following is not an advantage of a valve tray vs. a sieve tray?

A. Less expensive
B. Operate over a wider range of operating flow rates
C. Pressure profile across column is easier to maintain
D. Valve Caps are able to close

5 Which of the following is not an advantage of a Bubble Cap tray?

A. Good fouling resistance

B. Good at low liquid flow rates and high variations in vapor flow rates
C. Least costly tray type
D. No moving parts

6. Which of the following the primary advantage of trays with Floating Valves as compared to
sieve trays?

A. Easier to inspect than Bubble Caps.

B. Easier to crawl over than Bubble Caps!!!
C. High efficiency over a small Operating Range.
D. High efficiency over a large Operating Range.

7. What way can Floating Valve trays be designed to offer a greater Operating Range?

A. Use trays with different hole sizes

B. Use trays with different hole shapes
C. Use trays with caps of different weights
D. Use trays with caps of different heights

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 API 572 Study Guide
Practice Questions
8. Which of the following is the primary advantage of using Tray Packing?
A. Can handle large liquid volumes with low pressure drop
B. Can handle large vapor volumes with low pressure drop
C. Less expensive
D. Much easier to inspect

9. Random packing comes in sizes from:

A. 0.5” to 1.0” in diameter. C. 1.0” to 6.0” in diameter.

B. 0.5” to 3.0” in diameter. D. 2.0” to 6.0” in diameter.

10. Random packing:

A. usually creates a high pressure drop.

B. has a low to medium efficiency.
C. is not as useful for large diameter columns with low liquid flow rates.
D. comes in one shape, 2.0” ceramic pall rings.

11. Structured packing is made from:

A. corrugated metal. C. blocks of plastic chevrons.

B. bags of random packing. D. cylindrical carbon rings.

12. Fireproofing should be checked for CUF (corrosion under fireproofing) if the fireproofing is
bulged or if there is a crack over:

A. 0.125” wide. C. 3” long.

B. 0.250” wide. D. 12” long.

13. Which are significant reasons for a preliminary internal, “the dirty inspection”, of the inside a
column? This may have more than one correct answer, select all answers that apply.

A. Chance to PT or MT any discovered cracks.

B. Chance to see if liners are cracked or bulged.
C. Determine if additional cleaning is required.
D. Chance to detect significant unexpected damage to column internals.

14. What problem can occur from improper installation of a demister mat in a tower with packing?

A. Galvanic corrosion C. Stress Corrosion Cracking

B. Impingement D. Uniform corrosion

15. In a tower, a couple of the top head nozzles have either no flow or very low flow. What
problem might occur in the nozzles?

A. Galvanic corrosion C. Naphthenic acid corrosion

B. Impingement D. Precipitation of corrosive liquids

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 API 572 Study Guide
Practice Questions
16. Chimney trays need to be checked for cracks due to:
A. cyclic liquid loads. C. sulfide stress corrosion cracking.
B. liquid embrittlement. D. thermal fatigue

17. When hammer testing distributor hardware, it is best to hit the:

A. bolt head. C. threads.

B. nut. D. washer.

18. Why does API 572 recommend striking the washer instead of the nut when hammer testing
distributor hardware? ( Yes, I know this gives away the previous answer !!! )

A. Ensure you don’t miss and damage the threads.

B. Might crack the bolt since it is relatively small diameter.
C. Might loosen the nut, since these have low torque values.
D. No good, reason. Some engineer is just trying to make your life more difficult.

19. What is a common way to check whether “random tower packing” is too thin?

A. Measure with a micrometer

B. Measure with a UT
C. Try to bend using both hands
D. Try to distort by using your thumb and finger

20. When inspecting metal packing be sure to:

A. have fresh air. C. use a small ball peen hammer.

B. bring your UT meter. D. wear gloves.

21. When doing an internal inspection, vortex breaker welds should be tested using:

A. angle beam UT. C. rattling of the vortex breaker.

B. hammer testing. D. only visual inspection.

22. Attachment welds of strip lining:

A. will never crack if the correct alloy is selected.

B. might crack due to differences in thermal expansion of base and liner.
C. might crack due to expansion of trapped gases behind liner.
D. might crack due to mechanical fatigue.
23. When strip lining is installed, the welds are usually inspected:

A. only with UT.

B. only with UT & PMI equipment.
C. using a pressure test of 5 psig.
D. using a 15 psig pressure test.

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 API 572 Study Guide
Practice Questions
24. A carbon steel nozzle is internally lined with a SS plate. Which of the following is correct?
A. A hole shall be drilled in the carbon steel nozzle and left unplugged.
B. A hole shall be drilled in the carbon steel nozzle for a 15 psig air test. After the test,
the hole should be plugged.
C. A hole shall be drilled in the SS liner for a 15 psig air test. After the test, the hole
should be plugged.
D. The strip liner weld should be oriented on the top of the nozzle.

25. Clad lining refers to:

A. alloy material being explosion bonded or roll-bonded to a base metal.
B. full sections of alloy plate that are fillet-welded and plug-welded to a base metal.
C. strips of alloy plate that are fillet-welded and plug-welded to a base metal.
D. a base-metal that has been overlaid with an alloy weld metal.

26. An inspector has gained a basic understanding of how a tower works and what each section
does. Which of the following is a benefit for this inspector?

A. Understand what damage mechanisms might occur.

B. Predict where specific damage mechanisms will occur.
C. Better able to select specific types of NDE needed during an inspection.
D. Gives the inspector a better future. The more you know, the more you make.
E. All of the above

27. As a general rule, where is corrosion in a column normally located?

A. Upper half C. Upper third or bottom third

B. Bottom half D. Mid-section & top head

28. In a tower’s reflux area, where is corrosion most anticipated?

A. One to three trays above the reflux inlet
B. One to three trays below the reflux inlet
C. Five to ten trays above the reflux inlet
D. Five to ten trays below the reflux inlet

29. In tower trays, what does the term “Key-holing” mean?

A. Removing the tray manways for inspection & maintenance.
B. Fretting of the tray holes caused by valve tray movement.
C. Cutting a sample out for a metallurgical inspection.
D. Procedure used to install tray valves in the trays.

30. Fixed valve trays are:

A. the most common types of trays.
B. trays that are welded to the tray ring.
C. require a lot of maintenance.
D. always open.

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 API 572 Study Guide
Practice Questions
31. Bubble cap trays are:
A. easy to inspect. C. easy to crawl across during an inspection.
B. extremely durable. D. easy to clean.

32. Tray decks made of 410 SS at high temperature may:

A. become embrittled. C. keyhole rapidly.

B. corrode rapidly. D. fail due to HTHA.

33. Trays operating at maximum conditions may crack at stress points due to:

A. galvanic corrosion. C. high temperature oxidation.

B. naphthenic acid. D. vibration.

34. Which of the following is not a common tray hardware issue?

A. Galling of stainless steel hardware

B. Loosening of nuts
C. Mismatched materials (like CS nut on SS bolt)
D. Short bolts

35. The torque value for 3/8” tray hardware is typically:

A. 10-14 ft-lbs. C. 22-30 ft-lbs.
B. 18-22 ft-lbs. D. 25-50 ft-lbs.

36. The torque value for 1/2” tray hardware is typically:

A. 10-14 ft-lbs. C. 22-30 ft-lbs.

B. 18-22 ft-lbs. D. 25-50 ft-lbs.

37. The top of tray rings a common area for aggressive corrosion. Why?

A. Often made of a lower alloy.

B. Cavitation often occurs in this area.
C. It’s a stagnant area where process debris collects.
D. This is a high velocity area.

38. What is a good technique for finding shell surface corrosion above the top tray or below the
bottom tray?
A. Finger scanning C. Shadowing
B. Keyholing. D. Spot UT

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 API 572 Study Guide – Answers & References

Chapter 3 Annex 5 (cont) Chapter 10 (10.1-2)

1. 3.1.1 17. AC 5.3.3.2.3 1. A 10.1
2. D 3.1.3 18. B 5.3.2.3 2. D 10.1
3. B 3.1.3 19. A 5.3.2.3 3. D 10.2.2.1.2
4. B 3.1.9 20. A 5.3.3 4 B 10.2.2.1.3
5. B 3.1.20 21. B 5.3.3 5. D 10.2.2.1.4
6. D 3.1.24 22. C 5.3.4 6. A 10.2.2.1.4
7. C 3.1.27 23. D 5.3.4 7. B 10.2.2.1.4
8. B 3.2 8. A 10.2.2.1.6
9. C 3.2 Chapter 6 9. A 10.2.2.1.7
1. E 6.1 & 4 10. D 10.2.2.1.9
Chapter 4 2. C 6.3 11. B 10.2.2.1.9
3. A 6.3 12. D 10.2.2.1.9
1. B 4.1
13. B 10.2.2.2
2. A 4.1 Chapter 7 14. A 10.2.2.2
3. C 4.2
15. B 10.2.2.2
4. D 4.2 1. BD 7.1
2. D 7.1 16. C 10.2.2.2
5. A 4.2
3. ABC 7.2.1 17. A 10.2.2.2
6. D 4.2
4. ABD 7.2.1 18. D 10.2.3.1
7. B 4.2/Fig. 6
5. A 7.2.2 19. C 10.2.3.1
8. A 4.2
6. C 7.2.2 20. D 10.2.3.1
9 C 4.3
7. A 7.2.3 21. A 10.2.3.1
10. B 4.3
22. A 10.2.3.1
11. C 4.3 8. C 7.2.3
9. ABC 7.3 23. A 10.2.3.1
12. A 4.4
24. C 10.2.3.1
13. D 4.4 10. B 7.4
11. A 7.4 25. A 10.2.3.1
14. B 4.5
26. B 10.2.3.1/2
15. B 4.5 12. C 7.4
13. C 7.5 27. A 10.2.3.2
16. C 4.6
28. D 10.2.3.2
17. D 4.6
Chapter 8 29. D 10.2.3.2
18. C 4.7
30. D 10.2.3.2
1. C 8.2
31. C 10.2.3.2
Chapter 5 2. A 8.3
32. B 10.2.3.3
3 D 8.3
1. B 5.1 33. A 10.2.3.3
4 A 8.4
2. B 5.1 34. D 10.2.3.3
5. AD 8.5.2
3. C 5.1 35. B 10.2.3.5
4. D 5.1 Chapter 9 36. B 10.2.3.5
5. A 5.1 & Bibliography 37. C 10.2.3.5
6. B 5.1 & Bibliography 1. F 9.1.1 38. D 10.2.3.5
7. C 5.1 2. C 9.1.2 39. D 10.2.3.5
8. A 5.1 3. A 9.1.2 40. B 10.2.3.5
9. C 5.2 4. C 9.1.3.c 41. A 10.2.3.5
10. B 5.2 5. D 9.1.3.e/f 42. A 10.2.3.5
11. A 5.2 6. A 9.2 43. E 10.2.3.6
12. A 5.3.1 7. ABD 9.2 44. C 10.2.3.6
13. B 5.3.1 8. D 9.2 45. D 10.2.3.6
14. D 5.3.2.1 9. C 9.3 46. C 10.2.3.6
15. E 5.3.2.1 10. C 9.3 47. B 10.2.3.7
16. A 5.3.2.2.2 11. A 9.3 48. C 10.2.3.7
12. C 9.3

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 API 572 Study Guide – Answers & References

10.1-2 (cont) 10.3 (cont) 10.4 (cont)

15. B 10.4.4
49. A 10.2.3.7 33. D 10.3.2.4
16. B 10.4.4
50. B 10.2.3.7 34. B 10.3.2.5
17. A 10.4.4
51. D 10.2.3.8 35. A 10.3.2.5
18. C 10.4.5
52. A 10.2.3.8 36. B 10.3.2.5
19. A 10.4.5
53. B 10.2.3.9 37. E 10.3.2.6
20. D 10.4.5
54. D 10.2.3.9 38. A 10.3.2.7
21. A 10.4.6
55. D 10.2.3.9 39. C 10.3.2.7
22. A 10.4.6
56. B 10.2.3.9.a 40. B 10.3.2.7
57. B 10.2.3.9.a 41. C 10.3.3.1
Chapter 11
58. C 10.2.3.9.b 42. A 10.3.3.2
59. D 10.2.3.9.c 43. A 10.3.3.2 1. ABC 11.2.c
60. A 10.2.3.9 44. C 10.3.3.3 2. B 11.3
61. A 10.2.3.9 45. D 10.3.4
62. BD 10.2.3.9 46. A 10.3.4 Chapter 12
47. A 10.3.4
1. A 12.1
Chapter 10 (10.3) 48. C 10.3.4
2. D 12.2.1.c
49. C 10.3.5.1
1. A 10.3.1.1 3. A 12.2.2.1
50. A 10.3.5.1
2. BC 10.3.1.1 4. D 12.2.2.1
51. B 10.3.5.1
3. B 10.3.1.2 5. A 12.2.2.2
52. D 10.3.5.1
4. D 10.3.1.2 6. D 12.2.2.2
53. C 10.3.5.1
5. A 10.3.1.2 7. A 12.2.3
54. D 10.3.5.1
6. B 10.3.1.2
55. AB 10.3.5.2
7. A 10.3.1.2 Chapter 13
56. C 10.3.5.2
8. C 10.3.1.2
57. D 10.3.5.2 1. A 13.1
9. C 10.3.1.2
58. C 10.3.5.2 2. B 13.1
10. B 10.3.1.2
59. A 10.3.5.2 3. C 13.1
11. D 10.3.1.2
60. B 10.3.5.2 .4. C 13.2.1
12. C 10.3.1.2
61. D 10.3.6 5. B 13.2.1
13. D 10.3.1.2
62. A 10.3.6 6. A 13.2.1
14. B 10.3.1.2
63. B 10.3.6 7. A 13.2.2
15. D 10.3.1.2
64. C 10.3.6 8. D 13.2.2
16. A 10.3.1.2
9. C 13.2.2
17. A 10.3.1.2
Chapter 10 (10.4) 10 D 13.2.2
18. D 10.3.2.1
11. A 13.2.3
19. B 10.3.2.1 1. C 10.4.1.1
12. D 13.2.3
20. C 10.3.2.2 2. A 10.4.1.1
13. B 13.3
21. B 10.3.2.2 3. D 10.4.1.1
14. B 13.3
22. C 10.3.2.3 4. D 10.4.1.1
15. E 13.3
23. B 10.3.2.3 5. B 10.4.1.1
16. D 13.3
24. C 10.3.2.3 6. D 10.4.1.1
17. B 13.3
25. C 10.3.2.3 7. C 10.4.1.1
18. D 13.3
26. D 10.3.2.3 8. B 10.4.1.2
19. C 13.3
27. D 10.3.2.3 9. D 10.4.1.2
28. AC 10.3.2.3 10. C 10.4.1.2
29. A 10.3.2.3 11. D 10.4.1.2
30. C 10.3.2.3 12. A 10.4.1.2
31. B 10.3.2.3 13. D 10.4.1.2
32. C 10.3.2.4 14. C 10.4.2

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 API 572 Study Guide – Answers & References

Annex B
1. C B.1.3
2. A B.1.3
3. B B.1.3
4. A B.1.4
5. C B.1.5
6. D B.1.6
7. C B.1.6
8. A B.2.1
9. B B.2.2
10. C B.2.2
11. A B.2.3
12. B B.3.2.2
13. BCD B.3.3
14. B B.3.4.2
15. D B.3.4.2
16. A B.3.4.2
17. D B.3.4.2
18. C B.3.4.2
19. D B.3.4.2
20. D B.3.4.2
21. B B.3.4.2
22. C B.3.4.4
23. C B.3.4.4
24. A B.3.4.4
25. A B.3.4.4
26. E B.3.5.2.1
27. C B.3.5.2.1
28. D B.3.5.2.1.b
29. B B.3.5.2.2.1
30. D B.3.5.2.2.2
31. B B.3.5.2.2.3
32. A B.3.5.2.2.4
33. D B.3.5.2.2.4
34. D B.3.5.2.2.4
35. A B.3.5.2.2.4
36. B B.3.5.2.2.4
37. C B.3.5.2.2.5
38. C B.3.5.3

SDG

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