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 SSC CGL PRE 2024 Complete General Awareness Subject Wise
Complete E-Book Hard To Easy By Gagan Pratap Sir

History

Q1. Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, which was founded by Pandit Vinaya Chandra Maudgalya, is located at ________.

A) New Delhi B) Pune C) Kolkata D) Mumbai

Q2. According to the inscriptions, Pushyamitra Shunga was a devotee of which of the following Gods?

A) Rama B) Shiva C) Krishna D) Indra

Q3. Which of the following Sikh reform movements was started in 1873 in Amritsar?

A) Babbar Akali Movement B) Akali Movement C) Singh Sabha Movement D) Gurudwara Movement

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Q4. An inscription, Takht-i-Bahi recovered from Mardan near Peshawar, indicates the rule of which of the following

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dynasties in north-western area of present Pakistan?

A) Bactrian B) Sakas C) Indo-Greek

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Q5. Sangeet Kala Acharya Award is given by which organisation every year since 1993?
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A) Madras Music Academy B) Calcutta School of Music C) Shankar Mahadevan Academy

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D) Subramaniam Academy of Performing Arts

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Q6. The _________ were tributary chiefs of the Gupta dynasty. They established an independent kingdom in western

India. Dhruvasena II was the most important ruler of this kingdom.

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A) Maitrakas B) Maukharis C) Pushyabhutis D) Gurjara Pratiharas

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Q7. Valabhi, a city of ancient India was the capital of the _________ dynasty from the 5th to 8th Century CE.

A) Maitraka B) Chalukya C) Pallava D) Vakataka

Q8. In which of the following years was VD Savarkar sent to Andaman Jail by the British?

A) 1910 B) 1922 C) 1923 D) 1911

Q9. Which committee recommended Constitutional recognition for the local government bodies in 1989?

A) Ashok Mehta Committee B) PK Thungon Committee C) Balwant Rai Committee

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 D) Verma Committee

Q10. Some of the talas invented by ____________ include Trimukhi, Panchamukhi, Saptamukhi and Navamukhi.

A) M Balamuralikrishna B) Hariprasad Chaurasia C) Yashraj D) Bhimsen Joshi

Q11. Who among the following generally used to head the provincial administration under the Mauryas?

A) Dandapala B) Kumara C) Samaharta D) Prashasti

Q12. Which of the following Acts passed under Warren Hastings was also called ‘half-loaf system’?

A) Pitt’s India Act 1784 B) Government of India Act 1858 C) Charter Act 1813 D) Regulating Act 1773

Q13. In which of the following areas did the Uprising of Khurda in 1817 take place?

A) United Province B) Odisha C) Madras D) Bengal

Q14. Samata Sainik Dal was formed in 1927 by whom among the following personalities?

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A) Savitribai Phule B) BR Ambedkar C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Narayana Guru
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Q15. One of the greatest of Chola ruler Rajaraja I ruled from 985 AD to ______.
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A) 1015 AD B) 1017 AD C) 1014 AD D) 1018 AD

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Q16. Pushyabhuti dynasty, after Prabhakarvardhana, strengthened its position in the regions of Punjab and Haryana
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after defeating which of the following dynasties?

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A) Maukharis B) Hunas C) Chalukyas D) Maitrakas

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Q17. After the fall of the Guptas, different kingdoms emerged in various parts of India. Among them, the Maukharis
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emerged in which of the following areas?

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A) Thanesar B) Kunnur C) Valabhi D) Kannauj

Q18. In 1936, The Independent Labour Party was founded by _______.

A) Mohan Singh Bhakhna B) BR Ambedkar C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak D) Bhagat Singh

Q19. In 10th century India, Queen Didda became the ruler of which of the following regions of north India?

A) Kannauj B) Malwa C) Delhi D) Kashmir

Q20. Where was the first official summit of the Non-Aligned movement held?

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 A) India B) Yugoslavia C) New York D) Egypt

Q21. Silappathikaram (the Jewelled Anklet), the earliest epic poem in Tamil was written in the 5th - 6th Century CE by
_________.

A) Tolkappiyar B) Ilango Adigal C) Sittalai Sattanar D) Tirumalisai Alwar

Q22. Which of the following kingdoms was divided into subdivisions called Aharas or Rashtras that meant districts?

A) Kushana B) Parthian C) Satavahana D) Shaka

Q23. Which of the following inscriptions of Rudradaman happened to be the first royal inscription of early India

composed in chaste Sanskrit?

A) Prayag B) Girnar C) Chirand D) Mehrauli

Q24. Which of the following Sultans of Delhi primarily adopted a policy of consolidation rather than expansion?

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A) Ibrahim Lodi B) Balban C) Alauddin Khalji D) Bahlol Lodi

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Q25. Ali Akbar Khan was associated with which of the following gharanas? ap
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A) Maihar gharana B) Agra gharana C) Gwalior gharana D) Kirana gharana
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Q26. Guru Ghasidas led which of the following movements to improve the social condition of leather workers in British
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India?
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A) Aravipuram Movement B) Satyashodhak Samaj C) Nirankari Movement D) Satnami Movement

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Q27. In peninsular India, which of the following kingdoms was the local power that ruled over northern Maharashtra
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and Vidarbha?
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A) Vakatakas B) Maukharis C) Maitrakas D) Chalukyas

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Q28. __________ is often touted as Tansen of the 20th century, this musical genius blended the best of classical music and

created a unique style of his own.

A) Ustad Ali Baksh Khan B) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan C) Mubarak Ali Khan D) Barkat Ali Khan

Q29. With reference of Ajivikas, consider the following statements.

a) Makkhali Gosala was the prominent teacher of this sect.

b) Ajivikas believed in fatalism.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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 A) Both a and b B) Neither a or b C) Only b D) Only a

Q30. Deimachus who was a Greek ambassador came to India during the reign of the Mauryan king, _________.

A) Shatadhanvan B) Bindusara C) Ashoka D) Chandragupta Maurya

Q31. Which among the following was NOT a part of the three sections of the Rigvedic tribe?

A) Craftsman B) Priests C) Ordinary people D) Warriors

Q32. In the context of Mathura school of Art, during which of the following periods were a number of sculptures of

Brahmanical deities, such as Kartikeya, Vishnu and Kubera carved?

A) Shaka B) Parthian C) Satavahana D) Kushana

Q33. Vasudeva I who issued coins in gold (dinars and quarter dinars) and copper (single denomination) was a

_________king.

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A) Shunga B) Vakataka C) Shaka D) Kushana

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Q34. Vindhyashakti was the founder of which of the following dynasties? ap
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A) Pallava B) Maukhari C) Vakataka D) Chalukya
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Q35. In the ancient temple of Mahadev at Mahabaleshwar, the spout emerging from the mouth of a cow statue is the

source of which river basin?

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A) Kaveri B) Krishna C) Godavari D) Narmada

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Q36. In which year was the temple entry movement started by Bhimrao Ambedkar?
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A) 1935 B) 1918 C) 1927 D) 1922

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Q37. Who among the following rulers built five astronomical observatories at different places in north India?

A) Sawai Mansingh B) Maharana Pratap C) Sawai Jaisingh II D) Madho Singh

Q38. After the death of Humayun, the 13 year-old Akbar was coronated in 1556 at Kalanaur in ________.

A) Rajasthan B) Gujarat C) Bengal D) Punjab

Q39. British Parliament introduced Indian High Courts Act in which year?

A) 1860 B) 1861 C) 1859 D) 1858

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Q40. Which party formed the government in Britain in the year 1945?

A) Democratic Party B) Labour Party C) Socialist Party D) Liberal Party

Q41. Rudrasena II of which of the following dynasties married Prabhavatigupta, the daughter of Chandragupta II of the

Gupta dynasty?

A) Pushyabhuti B) Vakataka C) Chalukya D) Pallava

Q42. Which of the following departments of Delhi Sultanate was reorganized by Balban?

A) Diwan-i-Ishtiaq B) Diwan-i-Arz C) Diwan-i-Risalat D) Diwan-i-Mustakhraj

Q43. Who among the following freedom fighters of India is the author of the book, ‘The Indian Struggle’?

A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Motilal Nehru C) Vallabhbhai Patel D) Subhas Chandra Bose

Q44. According to which of the following foreign travellers, people of Delhi used to write letters containing abuses to

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the Sultan, therefore, in order to punish them Sultan decided to shift the capital?

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A) Isami B) Hasan Nizami C) Ibn Batuta D) Al Biruni
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Q45. Mahendravarman I was the ruler of which of the following dynasties?
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A) Pandya B) Chola C) Chalukya D) Pallava

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Q46. Which of the following was NOT one of the basic attributes of Ashokas' Dhamma?
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A) Political unification B) Ahimsa C) Celibacy D) Secularism

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Q47. According to the Ashrama system of Vedic life, which of the following was the third stage of life?
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A) Grihastha B) Sanyasa C) Brahmacharya D) Vanaprastha

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Q48. The Vedangas are Hindu auxiliary disciplines that originated in ancient times and are linked to the study of the
Vedas. These are _________ in number.

A) five B) seven C) four D) six

Q49. Indian National Army was formed in which of the following countries?

A) Singapore B) Germany C) London D) Japan

Q50. With reference to Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909, consider the following statements.
a) They are also called the Indian Councils Act, 1909.
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b) They increased the strength of Legislative Councils.
c) The right to separate electorate was given to the Muslims.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) b, c B) a, b, c C) c, a D) a, b

Q51. Who established Shantiniketan and when?

A) Mahatma Gandhi, 1910 B) Ravindranath Tagore, 1901 C) Ravindranath Tagore, 1905

D) Devendranath Tagore, 1915

Q52. Who among the following was the Vakil under the reign of Mughal Emperor, Akbar, who received the title of

Khan-i-Khanan?

A) Mulla do-Piyaza B) Birbal C) Raja Todar Mal D) Bairam Khan

Q53. The Pratiharas who first had their capital at Bhinmal gained prominence during the rule of:

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A) Nagabhatta I B) Nagarjuna C) Devpala D) Kanishka

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Q54. The Maukharis ruled over which of the following cities in western Uttar Pradesh that over the time replaced
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Pataliputra as a political centre of north India?
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A) Kannauj B) Bareli C) Agra D) Kanpur

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Q55. As per the Timurid tradition, Humayun had to share power with his brothers. Humayun had the control of Delhi,

Agra and Central India, while his brother Kamran controlled which of the following regions?
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A) Afghanistan and Punjab B) Deccan C) Gujarat and Rajasthan D) Bengal and Bihar
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Q56. The first southern campaign of Alauddin Khilji in 1307-08 AD was led to which of the following regions?
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A) Devagiri B) Warangal C) Dwar Samudra D) Madura

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Q57. Under the leadership of which of the following revolutionaries was Chittagong Armoury Raid conducted?

A) Rash Behari Bose B) Badal Gupta C) Hemu Kalani D) Surya Sen

Q58. With reference to Sepoy Mutiny of 1857, on which of the following dates did the soldiers at Meerut start their
journey to Delhi?

A) 10 May B) 19 April C) 2 June D) 29 March

Q59. Which of the following animals was the emblem of the Chola dynasty?

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 A) Wolf B) Horse C) Elephant D) Tiger

Q60. With reference to Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, consider the following statements.
a) He protested child marriage and polygamy.
b) Due to his efforts, the first Hindu Widow Remarriage Act, 1856, was introduced.

c) He was primarily known for his scholarship in Persian language.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) a, b, c B) a, b C) a, c D) b, c

Q61. The Pandya Kingdom was first mentioned by Megasthenes, who said that their kingdom was famous for
pearls.Their capital was:

A) Thanjavur B) Uraiyur C) Madurai D) Kaveripatnam

Q62. Who among the following devised the system of ‘Subsidiary Alliance’?

A) Lord Wellesley B) Lord Canning C) Lord William Bentinck D) Lord Dalhousie

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Q63. Which of the following plays was NOT written by Harshavardhana?
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A) Vikramorvasiyam B) Ratnavali C) Nagananda D) Priyadarshika
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Q64. Who suggested the law that the British Government passed in 1856 to support widow remarriage?
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A) Keshub Chandra Sen B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar C) Atmaram Pandurang

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D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

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Q65. Ghiyas ud-din Balban had set up a _________ department called 'Diwan-i-arz'.
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A) military B) commerce C) education D) agriculture

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Q66. To promote agriculture, Muhammad Tughlaq founded which of the following new ministries?

A) Diwan-i-Arz B) Diwan-i Amir-i kohi C) Diwan-i-Insha D) Diwan-i-Risalat

Q67. A large number of words are derived from the word ‘Go’ meaning cow. A wealthy person was known as ________ in
Vedic times.

A) Gomat B) Gotra C) Gabaksha D) Gaveshana

Q68. Mahendravarman I who wrote Mattavilasa-prahasana is related to which of the following ruling dynasties?

A) Maitraka B) Pallava C) Pushyabhuti D) Chalukya

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Q69. The Daroga system in 1792 was introduced by whom among the following Governor- Generals in India?

A) Lord Cornwallis B) Lord Minto C) Lord Mayo D) Lord William Bentinck

Q70. Who among the following founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1814?

A) Keshab Chandra Sen B) Raja Rammohun Roy C) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

D) Debendranath Tagore

Q71. Sido and Kanhu were leaders of which of the following tribal rebellions?

A) Moplah Rebellion B) Santhal Rebellion C) Kol Rebellion D) Munda Rebellion

Q72. In which of the following Major Rock Edicts of Ashoka is the Kalinga war mentioned?

A) XII B) X C) XIII D) XI

Q73. Who among the following has authored the play ‘Nil Darpan’?

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A) Motilal Nehru B) Chittaranjan Das C) Dinabandhu Mitra D) Sarojini Naidu

Q74. Who founded the Theosophical Society in New York in 1875?

ap
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A) Naoroji Furdunji and Satyendra Nath Bose B) Baba Dayal Das and Madan Lal
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C) Ramabai Ranade and GK Devadhar D) Madame HP Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott

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Q75. Which of the following battles is considered the formal beginning of the British Raj in India?
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A) First Carnatic War B) Battle of Plassey C) Battle of Wandiwash D) Battle of Buxar

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Q76. The Permanent Settlement came into operation in which of the following years?
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A) 1890 B) 1790 C) 1789 D) 1793

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Q77. The name ‘Piyadassi’ is associated with whom among the following Mauryan kings?

A) Bindusara B) Brihadratha C) Ashoka D) Chandragupta Maurya

Q78. Who among the following founded the Pala dynasty in 8th Century CE?

A) Dharmapala B) Ramapala C) Devapala D) Gopala

Q79. Which of the following Delhi sultans introduced two coins, namely silver tanka and copper jital?

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 A) Qutbuddin Aibak B) Bahlul Lodi C) Ghiyasuddin Balban D) Iltutmish

Q80.

A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii B) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Q81. Belur Math was founded by which of the following social reformers in British India?

A) Swami Vivekanand B) RG Bhandarkar C) VN Mandlik D) KT Telang

Q82. To gain control over Kannauj the Tripartite Struggle was fought between which of the following dynasties?

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A) Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Pala B) Solanki, Parmar and Chandella C) Khalji, Tughlaq and Lodhi

D) Pallava, Pandya and Chola

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Q83. Khudai Khidmatgar, a voluntary organisation, was established by which of the following leaders of India?
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A) Muhammad Ali Jinnah B) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan C) Hakim Ajmal Khan
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D) Maulana Muhammad Ali

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Q84. During which of the following rules did Buddhism get split into two schools - Hinayana and Mahayana in the
fourth Buddhist council?
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A) Kushana B) Parthian C) Gupta D) Shaka

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Q85. Which Act was passed by the British Parliament in the year 1773 AD to regulate the activities of the East India

Company?

A) Pitt’s India Act B) Indian Slavery Act C) Age of Consent Act D) Regulating Act

Q86. Which of the following groups/parties was started in San Francisco, United States of America during the Indian
National Movement?

A) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association B) Swaraj Party C) Khilafat Committee D) Ghadar Party

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Q87. Details about Sudarshana lake is given in a rock inscription at Girnar (Junagarh), which was composed to record
the achievements of the Shaka ruler _________.

A) Rudrasimha III B) Rudradaman I C) Chashtana D) Maues

Q88. Raziya Sultan was the first and only female ruler of the Sultanate, who ascended the throne in:

A) 1238 AD B) 1236 AD C) 1241 AD D) 1242 AD

Q89. In which of the following battles did Muhammad of Ghor defeat Jayachandra of Gahadavala dynasty in 1194 AD?

A) First battle of Tarain B) Battle of Chandawar C) Battle of Anhilwara D) Second battle of Tarain

Q90. Khudai Khidmatgars, a non-violent movement among the Pathans was started by ______.

A) Alluri Sitarama Raju B) Bakht Khan C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan D) Sachindra Bakshi

Q91. Pulakeshin II assumed the title of ‘Dakshinapatheshvara’ (lord of the south) after defeating which of the following

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rulers of north India?

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A) Rudrasena II B) Harshavardhana C) Dhruvasena II D) Prabhakarvardhana
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Q92. The magnificent Kailasa temple at Ellora was built during the reign of which Rashtrakuta king?
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A) Krishna I B) Indra III C) Govinda III D) Amoghavarsha

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Q93. Where was the Hindu College established in the year 1791?
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A) Mathura B) Kolkata C) Benaras D) Patna

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Q94. Who among the following was the President of the Belgaum Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1924?
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A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Vallabhbhai Patel C) Subhas Chandra Bose D) Jawaharlal Nehru

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Q95. Who among the following freedom fighters is known as ‘Deshbandhu’?

A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale B) Bhagat Singh C) Subhas Chandra Bose D) Chittaranjan Das

Q96. The real name of Babur, the founder of Mughal dynasty in India was:

A) Zahiruddin Muhammad B) Irfanuddin Muhammad C) Zainuddin Muhammad

D) Ruknuddin Muhammad

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Q97. Being the President of the Indian National Congress, who among the following had called for complete

independence from the British Raj in 1929?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Subhas Chandra Bose C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel D) Mahatma Gandhi

Q98. Medini Rai of Chanderi, Hasan Khan of Mewat and Mahmud Lodi joined Rana Sanga with their forces to fight

against which of the following Mughal rulers?

A) Babur B) Akbar C) Aurangzeb D) Humayun

Q99. Who was the Viceroy of India when Mahatma Gandhi started Dandi March on 12 March 1930?

A) Lord Chelmsford B) Lord Minto II C) Lord Irwin D) Lord Willingdon

Q100. Who among the following was the last sultan of Delhi sultanate?

A) Firoz Shah Tughlaq B) Sikandar Lodi C) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq D) Ibrahim Lodi

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Q101. Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 primarily dealt with which of the following subject matters?

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A) Education B) Railways C) Finance D) Health
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Q102. Under which of the following Acts was the power to rule India, transferred from the English East India Company
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to the British Crown?

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A) Charter Act of 1833 B) Regulating Act 1773 C) Pitt's India Act 1784
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D) Government of India Act 1858

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Q103. Gautamiputra Satakarni titled Rajaraja and Maharaja is related to which of the following dynasties?
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A) Shunga B) Pandya C) Satavahana D) Shaka

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Q104. Under which of the following Pala king's patronage the Vikramshila university in 8th century India was founded?
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A) Gopala B) Mahipala I C) Devapala D) Dharmapala

Q105. Who among the following Pallava kings occupied Vatapi (Badami) and defeated the Chalukyas?

A) Sivaskanda Varman B) Parameswaravarman C) Simhavarman D) Narasimhavarman

Q106. ______, authored by Tolkappiyar is the earliest Tamil literature.

A) Tolkappiyam B) Ettutogai C) Kalittogai D) Narrinai

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Q107. The birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi is celebrated as the national festival of India. In which of the following

years was Gandhi ji born?

A) 1885 B) 1869 C) 1890 D) 1877

Q108. Which of the following places is related to Gandhi’s Satyagraha of the year 1917?

A) Kheda B) Ahmedabad C) Champaran D) Bardoli

Q109. Who founded the Prarthana Samaj in Mumbai in 1867?

A) Atmaram Pandurang B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale C) Shri Ram Bajpai D) Ram Mohan Roy

Q110. Which type of well-managed industry was established in India at the time of independence?

A) Electronics and Electricals B) Steel and Electronics C) Steel and Cotton D) Cement and Sugar

Q111. The Tripartite struggle happened among the Palas, the Pratiharas and the _______.

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A) Chandelas B) Maukharis C) Rashtrakutas D) Chalukyas

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Q112. Which of the following movements created regional disparities between large and small farmers in India?
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A) Green revolution B) Yellow revolution C) Pink revolution D) Blue revolution

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Q113. Which of the following events took place in the United Provinces in February, 1922?
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A) Quit India B) Chauri Chaura C) Khilafat Movement D) Kakori Incident

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Q114. Which of the following battles was fought between Babur and Rana Sanga in 1527?
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A) Battle of Bayana B) Battle of Khanwa C) Second battle of Panipat D) Battle of Chanderi

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Q115. Which of the following organisations, divided into two branches, was established by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar

Tilak and Annie Besant?

A) Indian Association B) Theosophical society C) East Indian Association D) Home Rule League

Q116. Which Governor-General of British India helped Raja Ram Mohan Roy legally abolish the sati practice?

A) Lord Ripon B) Lord Curzon C) Lord Cornwallis D) Lord William Bentinck

Q117. ‘Drain of Wealth’, a critique of the colonial exploitation, was given by which of the following nationalist leaders?

A) Dadabhai Naoroji B) Rajendra Prasad C) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

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Q118. The revolution of 1857 started in May from which of the following cantonments in India?

A) Kanpur B) Jhansi C) Lucknow D) Meerut

Q119. In which year was the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed?

A) 1935 B) 1929 C) 1931 D) 1941

Q120. In 1539, the Battle of Chausa was fought between Humayun and ______.

A) Ibrahim Lodhi B) Sher Shah Suri C) Sikandar Suri D) Rana Sanga

Q121. Which of the following Acts gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities, and allowed

detention of political prisoners without trial for two years?

A) India Contract Act, 1872 B) Rowlatt Act, 1919 C) Criminal Tribes Act, 1871

D) Indian Slavery Act, 1843

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Q122. In which year was the battle of Buxar fought?

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A) 1793 B) 1777 C) 1764
ap D) 1757
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Q123. In which of the following cities did Mahatma Gandhi lead the peasant movement against the imposed indigo
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cultivation by the British planters?

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A) Kheda B) Gorakhpur C) Bardoli D) Champaran

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Q124. Due to which of the following events did Rabindranath Tagore return the title of ‘Knighthood’ to the British
By

Government while expressing his anguish?

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A) Charan Paduka Incident B) Partition of Bengal C) Jallianwala Bagh massacre

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D) Chauri Chaura Incident

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Q125. In the 7th Century AD, a new religion called Islam was born in _________.

A) Malaysia B) South Africa C) Arabia D) Indonesia

Q126. Who was the revenue minister during the reign of Akbar?

A) Todar Mal B) Abdul Rahim C) Mulla Do-Piyaza D) Tansen

Q127. The book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’ was written by _______.

A) MN Roy B) Dadabhai Naoroji C) Bipin Chandra Pal D) Lala Lajpat Rai

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Q128. Chand Bardai’s famous literary work ________, mentions Prithviraj Chauhan‘s love story and heroic deeds.

A) Harakeli Nataka B) Abhidhana Chintamani C) Prithviraj Raso D) Rajamartanda

Q129. The Aryans lived in the land known as ‘Sapta Sindhu’ (Land of the Seven Rivers). Which of the following was NOT

a part of it?

A) Indus B) Shipra C) Ravi D) Jhelum

Q130. Who founded the Arya Samaj in Mumbai in 1875?

A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati B) Debendranath Tagore C) Swami Vivekanand

D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Q131. Who among the following is primarily connected to the World’s Parliament of Religions convened in Chicago,

1893?

A) Dayanand Saraswati B) Swami Vivekananda C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy D) Ramakrishna Paramhansa

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Si
Q132. Who among the following sent Megasthenes to the court of Chandragupta Maurya?

A) Antiochus I Soter B) Alexander III

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C) Seleucus I Nicator D) Antiochus III
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Q133. The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation policy devised by which of the following Governor-Generals of India?
an

A) Lord Wellesley B) Lord Dalhousie C) Lord Mayo D) Lord Canning

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G

Q134. Who among the following was one of the Navratnas of Akbar?
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A) Purandar Das B) Swami Haridas C) Tansen D) Amir Khusro

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Q135. The Non-Cooperation Movement was called off after which of the following incidents?
at
M

A) Outbreak of the First World War B) Kakori train robbery C) Chauri-Chaura incident

D) Komagata Maru incident

Q136. Who among the following was the successor of Mughal Emperor, Babur?

A) Shahjahan B) Humayun C) Jahangir D) Aurangzeb

Q137. In the second Round Table Conference, Mahatma Gandhi represented which of the following parties?

A) Communist Party of India B) Indian National Congress C) All India Forward Bloc D) Muslim League

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Q138. In which of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi, along with other Indians, establish the Natal Congress to

fight against racial discrimination?

A) South Africa B) India C) England D) France

Q139.

A) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i D) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

Q140. Who founded the Brahmo Samaj in Calcutta in 1828?

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A) Ram Mohan Roy B) Swami Vivekanand C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale D) Ramabai Ranade

Si
ap
Q141. According to the Varna system that was prevalent in the Vedic period, which of the following was NOT a Varna?
at
A) Brahmanas B) Kshatriyas C) Samiti D) Vaishyas
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an

Geography
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G

Q1. Which of the following is an inosilicate amphibole mineral used in highway construction and as railroad ballast?
By

A) Shale B) Olivine C) Geyserite D) Hornblende

hs

Q2. At what latitude does the easterly jet stream blow over peninsular India during the summer months?
at
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A) 24°N B) 30°N C) 14°N D) 28°N

Q3. In which month is the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) located around 20°N-25°N latitude (over the
Gangetic plain)?

A) May B) August C) June D) July

Q4. Who asked James Rennel to prepare the map of Hindustan?

A) Lord Ripen B) Warren Hastings C) Lord Dalhousie D) Robert Clive

Q5. Which of the following is in geographical proximity to Sri Lanka?

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 A) Only Karaikal B) Karaikal and Yanam C) Mahe D) Only Yanam

Q6. Identify a water-harvesting system found in Jaisalmer.

A) Guls B) Johads C) Khadins D) Kuls

Q7. By which National Waterways (NW) of India, are the delta channels of Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and East

Coast Canal connected?

A) NW 1 B) NW 3 C) NW 2 D) NW 5

Q8. Which state of India has the maximum number of large dams?

A) Maharashtra B) Madhya Pradesh C) Odisha D) Rajasthan

Q9. The Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP) for providing employment to people in drought prone areas was
started by the Government of India during the _______.

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A) Fourth Five-Year Plan B) Sixth Five-Year Plan C) Third Five-Year Plan D) Seventh Five-Year Plan

Si
Q10. Exfoliation is a form of _________. ap
at
A) physical weathering B) chemical weathering C) mass wasting D) biochemical weathering
Pr
an

Q11. In which of the following districts of Rajasthan are the ‘Barchans’ found?
ag

A) Udaipur B) Jaisalmer C) Bhilwara D) Alwar

G

Q12. The New Moore Island is in geographic proximity to:

By

A) Pakistan B) Myanmar C) Bangladesh D) Sri Lanka

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at

Q13. Which ocean is encircling the continent of Antarctica and extends northward to 60 degrees south latitude?
M

A) Atlantic Ocean B) Indian Ocean C) Pacific Ocean D) Southern Ocean

Q14. In which state of India was the Neeru-Meeru programme introduced for construction of water harvesting

structures?

A) Andhra Pradesh B) Rajasthan C) Uttar Pradesh D) Punjab

Q15. Which of the following is the largest crustal plate on Earth with an area of over 103,000,000 km2?

A) South American plate B) African plate C) Eurasian plate D) Pacific plate

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Q16. In the context of water bodies, Neap Tides occur:

A) when the earth, moon and sun line up in a straight line

B) when the sun and moon are on the opposite sides

C) when there is so much interference by continents

D) when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other

Q17. Identify the group of districts that are NOT an example of industrial districts of India.

A) Cuttack and Kota B) Kanpur and Agra C) Alwar and Bhiwani D) Jabalpur and Bhopal

Q18. In West Bengal, how many rice crops are grown in a year?

A) Three B) Two C) Four D) One

Q19. Which of the following is associated with the retreating monsoon in India?

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A) Mahawat B) Kaal Baisakhi C) October heat D) Loo

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ap
Q20. Which of the following parts of the mountain will receive the most rainfall from moisture-laden winds?
at
A) Windward side B) Leeward side C) Upward side D) Relief side
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an

Q21. Which region in India receives less rainfall in summer, but heavy rainfall in winter season due to the retreating
north easterly winds?
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A) Southern coastal region B) Western coastal region C) Northern coastal region

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D) Eastern coastal region

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Q22. Subansiri, Jia Bharali, Dhansiri and Puthimari are the major tributaries of which river?
at

A) Godavari B) Mahanadi C) Brahmaputra D) Bhagirathi

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Q23. Ebony and Mahogany trees are found in which type of forests?

A) Mangrove forests B) Tropical deciduous forests C) Tropical evergreen forests D) Montane forests

Q24. Which of the following hills is located in the Eastern Ghats?

A) Naga hills B) Khasi hills C) Shevaroy hills D) Anamudi hills

Q25. Which of the following is a species of tropical deciduous forests?

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 A) Palms B) Mahogany C) Teak D) Ebony

Q26. Which of the following hills is located in the Eastern Ghats?

A) Shevaroy hill B) Mizo hill C) Khasi hill D) Anai Mudi hill

Q27. The name of the strait between the Pacific and Arctic oceans, separating the Chukchi Peninsula of the Russian Far

East from the Seward Peninsula of Alaska, is the:

A) Davis Strait B) Florida Strait C) Bering Strait D) Messina Strait

Q28. Which national park in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is home to species like Megapode, crab-eating Macaque,
Nicobar Pigeon, and Giant Robber Crab?

A) Raimona National Park B) Campbell Bay National Park C) Mouling National Park

D) Papikonda National Park

Q29. As of the June 2021, how many biosphere reserves are established in India?

r
Si
A) 18 B) 20 C) 26 D) 15
ap
at
Q30. The ICAR – Sugarcane Breeding Institute is located at:
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A) Vellore B) Coimbatore C) Tirunelveli D) Cuddalore

an
ag

Q31. According to Census of India 2011, what is the gap between male and female literacy rate in India?
G

A) 21.59% B) 18.30% C) 24.84% D) 16.68%

By

Q32. Which of the following is a landlocked Salt Lake in South-West Asia between Israel and Jordan?
hs

A) Don Juan Pond B) Aral Sea C) Caspian Sea D) Dead Sea

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M

Q33. The Wardha is a tributary of which of the following rivers?

A) Mahanadi river B) Tapi river C) Godavari river D) Narmada river

Q34. In which year was Project Tiger launched in India?

A) 1985 B) 1973 C) 1972 D) 1970

Q35. As per the definition of Census of India, a ‘marginal worker’ is a person who works for:

A) less than 183 days (or six months) in a year B) more than 183 days (or six months) in a year

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 C) eight months in a year D) 83 days in a year

Q36. What is the duration of monsoon in India?

A) 100-120 days B) 40-60 days C) 150-200 days D) 50-80 days

Q37. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the _________ to establish authorities charged with the mandate

of preventing environmental pollution in all its forms.

A) State Government B) Central Government C) Supreme Court D) local municipalities

Q38. Which coal is low-grade, brown and soft with high moisture content?

A) Metallurgical B) Lignite C) Bituminous D) Anthracite

Q39. Identify the oldest iron and steel company of India from the following options.

A) Tata Iron & Steel Company(TISCO) B) Visvesvaraiya Iron & Steel Works

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C) Indian Iron & Steel Company (IISCO) D) Mysore Iron & Steel Works

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ap
Q40. According to the Census of India 2011, which group of Union Territories recorded the highest sex ratio?
at
A) Puducherry, Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
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B) Puducherry, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands C) Chandigarh, Puducherry, Lakshadweep

an

D) Chandigarh, Puducherry, Delhi

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Q41. What was India's annual exponential growth rate as per the 2011 Census?
By

A) 1.10% B) 1.64% C) 4.34% D) 3.54%

hs
at

Q42. In which state of India is Kund or Tanka used for water harvesting?
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A) Rajasthan B) Andhra Pradesh C) Uttar Pradesh D) Punjab

Q43. The upper portion of the Earth is known as:

A) Stratosphere B) Troposphere C) Lithosphere D) Mesosphere

Q44. The variation between a high air temperature and a low temperature that occurs during the same day is called
_______ temperature.

A) diurnal B) annual C) wet bulb D) durian

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Q45. As of 2021, which is the world's largest drainage basin with an area of ​about 70,00,000 km2?

A) Congo basin B) Amur basin C) Amazon basin D) Nile basin

Q46. Which of the following is an example of major industrial region of India?

A) Chota Nagpur region B) Bhojpur-Munger C) Jaipur- Ajmer D) Bilaspur-Korba

Q47. Which of the following states is the biggest producer of Pulses?

A) Madhya Pradesh B) Haryana C) Punjab D) Bihar

Q48. Which of the following pairs do NOT share any borders?

A) Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh B) Bhutan and Meghalaya C) Bhutan and West Bengal

D) Bhutan and Assam

Q49. Which of the following is an example of an eastern coast port?

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Si
A) Mumbai Port B) Chennai Port C) Mormugao Port D) New Mangalore Port

ap
Q50. According to Census 2011, which district displays the highest population?
at
Pr

A) Kollam B) Ajmer C) Thane D) Pune

an

Q51. The Gandak river is a tributary of which river?

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A) Yamuna river B) Ganga river C) Kaveri river D) Brahmaputra river

G
By

Q52. The tropical cyclones in Australia are known as ________.

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A) hurricanes B) willy-willies C) cyclones D) typhoons

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Q53. Through which routes is the majority of India’s international trade carried out?

A) Railway and air B) Sea and air C) Only Railway D) Sea and railway

Q54. Which of the following countries has the highest Hindu population after India?

A) Bhutan B) Sri Lanka C) Myanmar D) Nepal

Q55. Sundari trees are found in which type of forests in India?

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 A) Mangrove forests B) Tropical deciduous forests C) The thorn forests and scrubs

D) Tropical evergreen forests

Q56. Which is the colloquial term to describe the occurrence of pre-monsoon rains in India especially in parts of Kerala,
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?

A) Mango showers B) Kalbaisakhi C) Nor Westers D) Orange showers

Q57. In the southern ranges of which hills is Mawsynram, which receives the highest rainfall in the world, located?

A) Shevaroy hills B) Mizo hills C) Khasi hills D) Naga hills

Q58. According to the Census of India 2011, which group of Union Territories has the highest density of population?

A) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu and Puducherry B) Delhi, Chandigarh and Daman and Diu

C) Delhi, Chandigarh and Puducherry D) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu and Chandigarh

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Q59. The climate of a place is NOT affected by which of the following?

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A) Relief B) Type of soil C) Location D) Distance from the sea
ap
at
Q60. Which of the following is NOT a kharif crop?
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A) Paddy B) Soyabean C) Wheat D) Cotton

an
ag

Q61. Which of the following peninsular rivers falls into the Arabian Sea?
G

A) Mahanadi river B) Krishna river C) Sabarmati river D) Godavari river

By

Q62. According to Census of India 2011, which Union Territory has the highest slum population?
hs
at

A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands B) Chandigarh C) Puducherry D) Delhi

M

Q63. In which part of India does the hot wind ‘Loo’ blow?

A) West and Southwestern B) North and Northwestern C) East and Northeastern

D) South and Southwestern

Q64. Which of the following rivers marks the eastern-most boundary of the Himalayas?

A) Kali B) Teesta C) Satluj D) Brahmaputra

Q65. Which of the following is NOT a major climate control of a place?

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 A) Altitude B) Latitude C) Interior of the earth D) Ocean currents

Q66. ______ leaves are used to make bidis.

A) Neem B) Champa C) Betel D) Tendu

Q67. Which plateaus are very fertile because they are rich in black soil that is very good for farming?

A) African plateau B) Ethiopian plateau C) Katanga plateau D) Deccan lava plateau

Q68. Which of the following rivers is an east flowing river?

A) Mahi river B) Narmada river C) Godavari river D) Tapi river

Q69. According to the Indian Railways (2019-2020), which state has the largest railway track in India?

A) Punjab B) Haryana C) Madhya Pradesh D) Uttar Pradesh

Q70. What action was taken by the government to celebrate the achievement of the Green Revolution in agriculture?

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Si
A) Released a regular salary for the farmers B) Distributed free food to all the people

C) Released a special stamp, ‘Wheat Revolution’

ap
D) Distributed green vegetables to the people
at
Pr

Q71. Which of the following are west flowing rivers?

an

A) Godavari and Mahanadi B) Krishna and Kaveri C) Ganga and Yamuna D) Mahi and Sabarmati
ag
G

Q72. What was a significant negative environmental impact of the Green Revolution?
By

A) Deforestation B) Soil degradation C) Increase in air pollution D) Ozone layer depletion

hs

Q73. In which group of states does the Luni River flow?

at
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A) Bihar and West Bengal B) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana C) Rajasthan and Gujarat

D) Maharashtra and Karnataka

Q74. The northern plain of the Indian subcontinent has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems
along with their tributaries. Choose the odd one out of the options given.

A) The Brahmaputra B) The Indus C) The Ganga D) The Godavari

Q75. Which of the following is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world?

A) Peacock B) Majuli C) Bhavani D) Lakshadweep

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Q76. Purvanchal Himalayas does NOT comprise of:

A) Naga hills B) Pir Panjal range C) Manipur hills D) Mizo hills

Q77. Which of the following options is mostly caused by overpopulation?

A) Land and other renewable resources are under pressure B) Adequate natural resource storage

C) Reduction in the scarcity of water D) Increase in the area covered by forests

Q78. Which of the following is NOT a tributary of Ganga?

A) Yamuna B) Gandak C) Kosi D) Lohit

Q79. Which state in India was the most transformed by the Green Revolution?

A) Kerala B) Maharashtra C) West Bengal D) Punjab

Q80. Which of the following statements is correct?

r
Si
A) Pond water and sea water are considered as fresh water. B) Sea water is freshwater habitat.

C) Rivers and sea water are considered as fresh water. ap

at
D) Rivers, creeks, lakes, ponds, and streams are all freshwater habitats.
Pr
an

Q81. Tsang Po and Jamuna are other names of which river?

ag

A) Indus B) Ganga C) Narmada D) Brahmaputra

G

Q82. Which of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh?
By

A) Intensive use of manure B) Over-irrigation C) Deforestation due to mining D) Overgrazing

hs
at

Q83. According to the Tea Board of India’s report (2021-22), which group of states in India is the largest tea producer?
M

A) Andhra Pradesh and Kerala B) Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand C) West Bengal and Assam

D) Tamil Nadu and Kerala

Q84. Which of the following crops is NOT grown during the Zaid season in India?

A) Rice B) Cucumber C) Watermelon D) Muskmelon

Q85. Which physical feature of India prevents the cold winds from central Asia from entering the Indian subcontinents?

A) Indian plains B) Indian desert C) Coastal area D) Himalayas

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Q86. ‘Bhagirathi’ and ‘Alaknanda’ rivers confluence at:

A) Joshimath B) Haridwar C) Karanprayag D) Devaprayag

Q87. In which of the following states is the development of rail transport less, due to its geographical conditions?

A) Sikkim B) Haryana C) Bihar D) Uttar Pradesh

Q88. Which of the following rivers originates from the Himalayas?

A) Godavari B) Tapi C) Narmada D) Ganga

Q89. The outermost part of the Earth is known as __________.

A) volcano B) the crust C) the core D) the mantle

Q90. According to the Census of India 2001, which of the following is the main reason that Indian men migrate?

A) Education B) Marriage C) Work and employment D) Business

r
Si
Q91. Which of the following group of months is the coldest in North India?

A) February and March B) September and October

ap C) December and January
at
Pr

D) October and November

an

Q92. Which of the following states suffers from ‘Loo’?

ag

A) Karnataka B) Kerala C) Assam D) Rajasthan

G
By

Q93. Hot local wind that flows over north India in summer is known as:
hs

A) Loo B) Chinook C) Mango showers D) Purga

at
M

Q94. What kind of radiation is absorbed by the ozone layer?

A) Green radiation B) Infrared radiation C) Visible radiation D) Ultraviolet radiation

Polity

Q1. When was the High Court and Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Amendment Bill, 2021

introduced in Lok Sabha?

A) 27 September 2021 B) 30 November 2021 C) 29 March 2021 D) 28 April 2021

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Q2. Consider the following statements and identify the INCORRECT statement(s).
1. The ‘Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0’ scheme has been implemented under the National Food Security Act,

2003.

2. It is an ongoing, Central Government-sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

3. It is extended to children aged below 6 years only.

4. Six services are provided under this scheme through the National Health Mission and Public Health Infrastructure.

A) Only 1, 3 and 4 B) Only 4 C) Only 1, 2 and 3 D) Only 2 and 3

Q3. Which Article of the Constitution explains that the executive power of every state shall be so exercised as not to

impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the union shall

extend to the giving of such directions to a state as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that
purpose?

A) Article 261 B) Article 247 C) Article 257 D) Article 123

Q4. As per article 158, the Governor shall NOT be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the

r
Legislature of any State specified in ________ Schedule.

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A) Seventh B) Fifth C) First D) Third
ap
at
Q5. Who among the following, while praising the amending feature of the Indian Constitution said that ‘This variety in
Pr

the amending process is wise but is rarely found’?

an

A) Granville Austin B) Ivor Jennings C) K C Wheare D) HM Seervai

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G

Q6. In which of the following years was the Right of Persons with Disabilities Act passed?
By

A) 2010 B) 2002 C) 2016 D) 2019

hs

Q7. The Parliament passed the Marine Aids to Navigation Bill, 2021 to repeal and replace which of the following Acts?
at
M

A) The Dangerous Machines (Regulation) Act, 1983

B) The Personal Injuries (Emergency Provisions) Act, 1962 C) The Lighthouse Act, 1927

D) The Dourine Act, 1910

Q8. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the conduct of business of the Government of a state?

A) Article 177 B) Article 167 C) Article 164 D) Article 166

Q9. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Bills is related to the provision of modifying the list of Scheduled

Caste in Tamil Nadu?

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 A) The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2019

B) The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Amendment Act, 2013

C) The Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2015

D) The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021

Q10. Where was the 1912 session of the India National Congress held in Bihar?

A) Sahasaram B) Gaya C) Bankipore D) Madhubani

Q11. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘The State shall, in particular, direct its

policy towards securing that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed

as best to subserve the common good’?

A) Article 39(a) B) Article 39(b) C) Article 39(c) D) Article 39(d)

Q12. When was the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) established?

r
Si
A) 1926 B) 1924 C) 1928 D) 1920

Q13. Who among the following formed the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929?
ap
at
Pr

A) Kunwar Singh B) JM Sengupta C) Jayprakash Narayan D) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

an

Q14. ____________ Directive principles of State Policy were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional
ag

Amendment Act of 1976.

G

A) Two B) Three C) Five D) Four

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Q15. Under which of the following Acts, the Board of Control was established in England to control and supervise the
hs

administration of British India?

at
M

A) Charter Act of 1813 B) Regulating Act of 1773 C) Charter Act of 1793 D) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

Q16. Which article of the Constitution of India lays down that it shall be the duty of the Advocate-General to give

advice to the Government of the State upon legal matters?

A) Article 168 B) Article 165 C) Article 167 D) Article 166

Q17. Who among the following was the shortest-serving Prime Minister of India?

A) Chandra Shekhar B) Gulzarilal Nanda C) Charan Singh D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

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Q18. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India lays down that ‘The allocation of seats in the Council of
States to be filled by representatives of the States and of the Union territories shall be in accordance with the provisions

in that behalf contained in the fourth Schedule’?

A) Article 81 B) Article 82 C) Article 83 D) Article 80

Q19. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Directive Principles of State Policy?

A) They promote welfare of individuals. Hence, they are personal and individualistic.

B) These have moral and political sanctions.

C) They aim at establishing social and economic democracy in the country.

D) They are positive, as they require the State to do certain things.

Q20. Anna Chandy, the first Indian woman to serve as a judge at a high court was oppointed in which High Court?

A) West Bengal B) Kerala C) Tamil Nadu D) Andhra Pradesh

r
Si
Q21. Which Bill was passed by the Parliament, in July 2021, to help in the availability of working capital for the micro,

small and medium enterprises sector?

ap
at
A) The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020 B) The Minerals Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2020
Pr

C) The Factoring Regulation (Amendment) Bill, 2021

an

D) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2021

ag

Q22. UPSC is a Constitutional Body to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union and the
G

services of the State, respectively, under Article ________.

By

A) 320 B) 324 C) 328 D) 332

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at

Q23. When did a States Reorganisation Commission was set up, which recommended the creation of linguistic States on
M

the basis of larger linguistic groups?

A) December 1963 B) December 1953 C) December 1956 D) December 1958

Q24. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Directive Principles of State Policy as __________of the Indian constitution.

A) soul of the state B) identity card of the constitution C) The mostprecious part of the constitution

D) a novel feature of the constitution

Q25. Which writ is issued by a high court or supreme court when a lower court has considered a case going beyond its

jurisdiction?

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 A) Quo Warrant B) Habeas Corpus C) Certiorari D) Prohibition

Q26. Which Committee identified the existence of legal provisions for implementation of some of the Fundamental

Duties?

A) Justice Mulla Committee B) Justice Verma Committee C) Justice Sapre Committee

D) Justice VR Krishna Iyer Committee

Q27. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in _______________.

A) Switzerland B) Iceland C) USA D) New Zealand

Q28. Who is considered the highest law officer of the state in India?

A) Advocate general B) Attorney general C) Chief justice of high court D) Auditor general

Q29. Which of following is NOT a device of parliamentary proceedings?

r
A) Half-an-hour discussion B) Zero-hour discussion C) Two-hour (short) discussion

Si
D) Full-day discussion
ap
at
Q30. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides that the State must secure a social order to promote the welfare
Pr

of people?
an

A) Article 37 B) Article 38 C) Article 39 D) Article 36

ag
G

Q31. Which of the following commissions/committees identified the existence of legal provisions for implementation of
By

some of the Fundamental Duties?

A) Vasantrao Naik Committee B) Sarkaria Commission C) Rajamannar Commission

hs
at

D) Justice Verma Committee

M

Q32. Which Article of the Constitution of India grants power to the President to appoint Judges of the Supreme Court?

A) Article 124(2) B) Article 123(1) C) Article 127(3) D) Article 128(4)

Q33. Which country has the Republic feature of the Indian Constitution been borrowed from?

A) French Constitution B) Irish Constitution C) British Constitution D) Australian Constitution

Q34. Which Article in the fundamental duty is invoked when you see in a private party that the Indian flag has been
used as a covering for the speaker’s desk?

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 A) Article 51A (c) B) Article 51A (d) C) Article 51A (a) D) Article 51A (b)

Q35. Which Article of the Constitution of India expressly provides that the President is eligible for re-election?

A) Article 58 B) Article 56 C) Article 59 D) Article 57

Q36. Which Article in the fundamental duty applies, when a construction worker takes his 8-year son to the site rather

than sending him to school?

A) Article 51A (h) B) Article 51A (k) C) Article 51A (j) D) Article 51A (i)

Q37. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about the ‘Promotion of educational and economic interests of

Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections’?

A) Article 45 B) Article 48 C) Article 47 D) Article 46

Q38. Article 77 of the Indian Constitution deals with the __________.

r
A) term of office of the Vice-President B) Vice-President of India C) oath of office by the Vice-President

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D) conduct of business of the Government of India
ap
at
Q39. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits providing of any religious instruction in the educational
Pr

institutions maintained by the State?

an

A) Article 29 B) Article 28 C) Article 30 D) Article 31

ag

Q40. What is the tenure of office for the Chief Election Commissioner?
G
By

A) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years B) 5 years or up to the age of 65 years

C) 5 years or up to the age of 60 years D) 6 years or up to the age of 60 years

hs
at

Q41. Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the Indian Constitution deal with the ____________.
M

A) emergency provisions B) financial relations between the Centre and the states

C) legislative relations between the Centre and the states D) tribunals

Q42. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for protecting and improving the environment and safeguarding

forests and wildlife?

A) Article 47-A B) Article 47-B C) Article 48-A D) Article 49-C

Q43. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘The State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries

on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas’?

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 A) Article 44 B) Article 49 C) Article 43 D) Article 42

Q44. Who is called the father of Local Self-Government in India?

A) Lord Cornwallis B) Lord Wellesley C) Lord Ripon D) Lord William Bentinck

Q45. Which of the following Acts introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ by discontinuing the application of dyarchy?

A) Government of India Act, 1919 B) Charter Act of 1813 C) India Council Act, 1909

D) Government of India Act, 1935

Q46. If a 12-year-old is found to be working in a factory manufacturing carpets, which of the following Articles of the

Constitution of India will be violated?

A) Article 24 B) Article 25 C) Article 23 D) Article 26

Q47. As of March 2023, how many High Courts are there in India?

r
A) 25 B) 35 C) 30 D) 20

Si
ap
Q48. The organisation that Comptroller and Auditor General heads is known as ___________.
at
A) Indian Civil Accounts Organisation B) Controller General of Accounts
Pr

C) Indian Audit and Accounts Department D) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

an
ag

Q49. In which of the following years was the Election Commission of India founded?
G

A) 1955 B) 1952 C) 1950 D) 1947

By

Q50. Which of the following is NOT correct about Directive Principles of State Policy?
hs
at

A) They ensure social and economic development. B) They are justiciable in nature.
M

C) They provide guidelines for the governance of the country.

D) They are morally binding on the government.

Q51. A student, on his school assignment, is taking a session on how to make compost at home for using it at a park.

Which fundamental duty is he performing?

A) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

B) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

C) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry

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 D) To protect and improve the natural environment

Q52. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that ‘there shall be a Vice President of India’?

A) Article 61 B) Article 63 C) Article 65 D) Article 62

Q53. The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and not more than ______ other Judges appointed by the

President of India.

A) 37 B) 35 C) 38 D) 33

Q54. The Upper House of a State Legislature is known as the ____________.

A) Vidhan Parishad B) Rajya Sabha C) Lok Sabha D) Vidhan Sabha

Q55. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Election Commission?

A) Part XV B) Part XII C) Part IV D) Part XI

r
Si
Q56. Which of the following documents provides a framework, rules and regulations for setting up public and private

industries in India? ap
at
A) Industrial policy B) Annual report of the trade union C) Company’s financial statement
Pr

D) Union Budget
an
ag

Q57. Which of the following Constitutions inspired the law-making process in India?
G

A) Irish Constitution B) British Constitution C) US Constitution D) Canadian Constitution

By

Q58. Which of the following is NOT a condition for the President’s office in India?
hs

A) He shall not be entitled, without payment of rent, to use his official residence.
at
M

B) He shall not be a member of either House of the Parliament.

C) The allowances shall not be diminished during his term of office.

D) He shall not hold any office of profit.

Q59. Which of the following Articles deals with the composition of the Rajya Sabha?

A) Article 76 B) Article 80 C) Article 84 D) Article 92

Q60. Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of the Indian Constitution deal with the __________.

A) High Courts B) District Courts C) Subordinate Courts D) Supreme Court

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Q61. Which of the following Articles and Parts of the Indian Constitution deal with the State Legislature?

A) Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI B) Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI C) Articles 243 to 243-O in Part IX

D) Articles 79 to 122 in Part V

Q62. Which of the following is the most controversial Article in the Indian Constitution, which provides for President’s

rule in any state?

A) Article 358 B) Article 356 C) Article 360 D) Article 352

Q63. The concept of ‘Independence of judiciary’ in the Indian Constitution is taken from the Constitution of:

A) Ireland B) France C) The USA D) Britain

Q64. Which of the following Articles states that the Prime Minister should be appointed by the President?

A) Article 71 B) Article 66 C) Article 75 D) Article 62

r
Q65. Who among the following is NOT a member of the National Human Rights Commission?

Si
A) District Magistrate
ap
B) Former Chief Justice of the High Court
at
C) Former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court D) Former Judge of the Supreme Court
Pr

Q66. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts led to formation of the Goods and Services Tax Council?
an

A) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act B) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act

ag
G

C) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act D) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act

By

Q67. Which of the following duties has been NOT prescribed by the Indian Constitution as Fundamental Duties?
hs

1. To defend the country

at

2. To pay income tax

M

3. To cast the vote in election

4. To safeguard the public property

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 2 and 3 both D) 2 and 4 both

Q68. Which of the following states is one of those states that have no Panchayati Raj Institution at all?

A) Assam B) Gujarat C) Nagaland D) Punjab

Q69. Which of the following options is the legislative organ of the Union government?

A) Judiciary B) Legislative assembly C) Executive D) Parliament

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Q70. Which article has a similar provision to that of Article 32 and deals with writ jurisdiction?

A) Article 227 B) Article 228 C) Article 225 D) Article 226

Q71. As per article 123, the ordinance making power is the most important legislative power of ____________.

A) President B) Rajya Sabha C) Legislative council D) Chief Justice of India

Q72. In the state legislative assembly, the Money bill can be introduced with the prior permission of __________.

A) Governor B) Auditor General C) Finance Minister D) CAG

Q73. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Panchayats?

A) Part IV B) Part IX C) Part VII D) Part X

Q74. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding Fundamental Rights?

A) Fundamental Rights can be enforced by Law.

r
Si
B) Fundamental rights are derived from the Britain Constitution.

ap
C) The Fundamental Rights are mentioned in constitution from article 12 to 35.
at
D) Article 21 provids right to life.
Pr
an

Q75. The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the ________.

ag

A) Chief Justice of India B) President C) CAG D) Prime Minister

G

Q76. Which part of Indian Constitution deals with the election of the Vice President?
By

A) Part IV B) Part III C) Part VI D) Part V

hs
at

Q77. Which of the following articles from Directive Principles of state policy mentions about organization of Village
M

Panchayats?

A) Article 38 B) Article 42 C) Article 40 D) Article 36

Q78. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions about the organisation of ‘Village

Panchayats’?

A) Article 31 B) Article 38 C) Article 36 D) Article 40

Q79. Part IV A of the Indian Constitution was inserted in the Indian Constitution through _____________ Constitutional
Amendment Act.

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 A) 44th B) 46th C) 48th D) 42nd

Q80. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution CANNOT be suspended even during an emergency

declared on the grounds of war or external aggression?

A) Articles 15 and 17 B) Articles 20 and 21 C) Articles 14 and 16 D) Articles 30 and 32

Q81. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the political parties in India?

A) A political party symbol is assigned by the President of India.

B) India has a multi-party system classified as national, state or regional level.

C) All parties are registered with the Supreme Court of India.

D) Status of party is accorded by the Parliament.

Q82. Which Article mentions the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

A) Article 154 B) Article 156 C) Article 148 D) Article 136

r
Si
Q83. The Indian Constitution has established _________.

A) partial Judicial system B) dual judicial system

ap C) independent judicial system
at
Pr

D) plural judicial system

an

Q84. Which Article deals with the election of the President?

ag

A) Article 72 B) Article 54 C) Article 74 D) Article 66

G
By

Q85. Which fundamental duty applies on you when you see a few school students, on their educational trip to
hs

Humayun’s tomb, writing their names on the walls?

at

A) To safeguard public property B) To defend the country and render national service
M

C) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

D) To protect and improve the natural environment

Q86. How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?

A) 12 B) 10 C) 20 D) 15

Q87. Which fundamental duty applies to you when you see your college friends start fighting with the canteen person

when he passed a few anti-religious statements?

A) To promote harmony and spirit of brotherhood B) To value and preserve the rich heritage
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 C) To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry

D) To protect and improve our natural environment

Q88. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution was borrowed from Irish Constitution?

A) Directive Principles of State Policy B) Concurrent List C) Fundamental Rights D) Rule of Law

Q89. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?

A) To prohibit trade in rare and endangered species

B) To value and preserve rich heritage of the country’s composite culture

C) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

D) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

Q90. Which of the following are enumerated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, from Articles 36 to 51?

r
A) Fundamental Rights B) Fundamental Duties C) Directive Principles of State Policy D) the Union

Si
ap
Q91. Which of the following is mentioned in Article 1 of the Indian constitution?
at
A) India that is Bharat as federation of states B) India that is Bharat as parliamentary democracy
Pr

C) India that is Bharat shall be a Union of states D) India that is Bharat as presidential form of democracy
an
ag

Q92. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?
G

A) 32A B) 45A C) 62B D) 51A

By

Q93. Which of the following articles of the Indian constitution deals with the parliament and it's proceedings?
hs

A) Article 51A B) Article 36 to 51 C) Article 79 to 122 D) Article 12 to 35

at
M

Q94. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Constitution of India?

A) Universal Adult Franchise B) Independent Judiciary C) Dual Citizenship

D) Blend of rigidity & flexibility

Q95. Articles 52 to 78 in Part V of the Indian Constitution deal with __________.

A) Finance Commission of India B) Union Executive C) Amendment of the Constitution

D) National emergency

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Q96. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty of the Indian citizens?

A) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

B) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

C) To cherish and follow the noble ideas that inspired our national struggle for freedom.

D) Mandatory national service of 5 years.

Economics

Q1. As per a report of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, what was the rate of unemployment in Maharashtra for

the year 2021-22?

A) 3.5% B) 3.01% C) 4.2% D) 4.4%

Q2. Consider the following statements associated with the India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF).

1. IIPDF was set up in 2017.

r
Si
2. The funds for IIPDF are provided by the Central Government’?

3. This scheme is notified under the Department of Economic Affairs.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

ap
at
Pr

A) Only 2 and 3 B) Only 1 C) Only 1 and 2 D) Only 3

an

Q3. ___________ is an industry association and self-regulatory organisation (SRO) whose primary objective is to work
ag

towards the robust development of the microfinance sector.

G

A) Self-help Group Association B) Microfinance Institutions Network

By

C) Microfinance and Investments Regulatory Authority D) NABARD

hs
at

Q4. Who published the logistic equation model of population growth in 1838?
M

A) Howard Thomas Odum B) Alfred Russel Wallace C) Pierre François Verhulst

D) George Evelyn Hutchinson

Q5. Money supply is a _____ concept.

A) stock B) measurable C) non-measurable D) flow

Q6.

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 A) i (d), ii (a), iii (b), iv (c) B) i (b), ii (a), iii (d), iv (c) C) i (c), ii (d), iii (a), iv (b) D) i (b), ii (c), iii (d), iv (a)

Q7. When the analysis of population density is done by calculating it through net cultivated area, then the measure is

termed as:

A) Agricultural density B) Physiological density C) Gross density D) Net density

Q8. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding circular flow of income?

r
Si
A) Savings as well as government expenditure are injections to the circular flow.

B) The income of one sector becomes the expenditure of the other. ap

at
C) In a circular flow, leakages are equal to injections.
Pr

D) The real flow and monetary flow move in a circular manner in an opposite direction.
an
ag

Q9. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT regarding the grade of organisation and its example?
G

A) Cellular grade organisation - Sycon B) Protoplasmic grade organisation - Paramecium

By

C) Cell-tissue grade organisation - Jellyfish D) Tissue-organ grade organisation - Euplectella

hs
at

Q10. Which of the following is a component of the SHG-bank linkage program in India?
M

A) Microfinance institutions providing loans directly to SHGs

B) Banks providing loans to individual members of SHGs

C) Non-governmental organisations providing capacity building training to SHGs

D) State government providing subsidies to SHGs for credit

Q11. According to the Census of India 2011, the percentage of adolescent population (10-19 years) from the total

population is how much?

A) 22.9% B) 21.9% C) 20.9% D) 19.9%

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Q12. As per the Census of India 2011, the increase in literacy rates for males and females,respectively, as compared to

2001 Census was:

A) 3.88% and 13.79% B) 5.88% and 12.79% C) 6.88% and 11.79% D) 4.88% and 10.79%

Q13. According to the Census of India 2011, ‘Other Religions and Persuasions (ORP)’ comprise how much of the

population?

A) 3.9 million B) 7.9 million C) 5.9 million D) 9.9 million

Q14. The Flexible Inflation Targeting Framework (FITF) was introduced in India post the amendment of the Reserve

Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 in __________.

A) 2014 B) 2010 C) 2016 D) 2020

Q15. Which of the following is an example of joint sector industry?

A) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited B) Oil India Limited C) Tata Iron and Steel Company

r
D) Steel Authority of India Limited

Si
Q16. The CSO adopted the concept of Gross Value Added in ______. ap
at
A) January 2012 B) January 2015 C) January 2017 D) January 2013
Pr
an

Q17. The government of which of the following states allocated ₹11,728 crore for the Aasara pension scheme in its
ag

annual budget for the fiscal year 2022-23?

G

A) Telangana B) Odisha C) Gujarat D) Chhattisgarh

By

Q18. The Government of India allowed automatic approval of _____% of FDI by Reserve Bank of India in nine categories
hs

of industries.
at
M

A) Up to 51 B) Up to 60 C) Up to 41 D) Up to 74

Q19. According to Census of India 2011, female adolescents in the age group of 10-19 years had a share of:

A) 52.7% B) 47.3% C) 31.3% D) 20.9%

Q20. The Accelerated Female Literacy Programme was initiated in districts where the female literacy rate, based on the

2001 census, was _______.

A) below 35% B) below 45% C) below 30% D) below 50%

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Q21. According to Census of India 2011, in rural India, which state has the maximum female workforce participation

rate?

A) Arunachal Pradesh B) Uttar Pradesh C) Himachal Pradesh D) Andhra Pradesh

Q22. In which five-year plan was the 'food, work, and productivity' slogan used?

A) Sixth B) Fifth C) Fourth D) Seventh

Q23. Which of the following is NOT correct with regards to the history of calculating National Income (NI) in India?

A) First attempt to compute NI was made by Dadabhai Naoroji.

B) First official attempt to compute NI was made by PC Mahalanobis.

C) Dadabhai Naoroji divided the Indian economy into two parts: primary sector and secondary sector.

D) First scientific method to compute NI was used by Dr VKRV Rao.

Q24. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

r
Si
i. The first green revolution led to over-exploitation of natural resources.

ii. The second Green Revolution was more focused on Southern India.
ap
iii. The second green revolution ensured in achieving sustainable livelihood security.
at
Pr

A) i and iii B) Only ii C) ii and iii D) i and ii

an

Q25. Which of the following statements is correct about the composition of the agriculture sector and employment in
ag

GDP post-independence?
G

The proportion of employment has declined significantly but not the share of the agriculture sector in
A)
By

GDP.
hs

B) The proportion of both the agriculture sector and employment in GDP has increased significantly.
at

C) The proportion of both the agriculture sector and employment in GDP has declined significantly.
M

The proportion of GDP contributed by the agricultural sector declined significantly but not the
D)
employment depending on the agriculture sector.

Q26. How was the growth in all food grains after the Green Revolution?

A) Unitary B) Proportionate C) Unpredictable D) Disproportionate

Q27. Which of the following types of direct tax collection increased as of 10 February 2023 budget?

A) Personal income tax B) Octroi duties C) Corporate tax D) Commercial tax

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Q28. If assets of a bank are greater than liabilities, it will be recorded as:

A) liabilities B) net worth C) reserves D) assets

Q29. What correctly defines change of inventories of a firm during a year?

A) Production of the firm during the year – Sale of the firm during the year

B) Production of the firm during the previous year – Sale of the firm during the year

C) Sale of the firm during the year – Production of the firm during the year

D) Production of the firm during the year – Sale of the firm during the previous year

Q30. What is the empirically fitted relationship between the rate of change of money, wage, and rate of unemployment

known as?

A) Friedman’s model B) Keynesian model C) Baumol hypothesis D) Philips curve

Q31. Which of the following is NOT the socio-economic objective of Industrial Policy Statement 1980?

r
Si
A) Higher employment generation B) Consumer protection against high prices and bad quality

C) Promotion of export-oriented industries ap

D) Allowing the maximum foreign direct investment
at
Pr

Q32. Identify the sequence of implementation of the following taxes.

I.Land revenue
an

II.Sales tax
ag

III.MODVAT
G

IV.Service tax
By

A) III, II, IV, I B) II, IV, I, III C) IV, II, I, III D) I, II, III, IV
hs
at

Q33. What was the actual growth rate of the first five-year plan?
M

A) 4.2% B) 2.6% C) 3.6% D) 2.1%

Q34. What challenge does foreign investment often face in India?

A) Excessive foreign competition B) Inconsistent regulatory environment C) Lack of skilled labour

D) Lack of consumer base

Q35. Which of the following is a difference between self-help groups (SHGs) and microfinance institutions (MFIs) in

India?

A) SHGs are non-profit organisations, while MFIs are for-profit organisations.

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 B) SHGs provide only credit, while MFIs provide a range of financial services.

SHGs are typically small, community-based organisations, while MFIs are larger and more formal
C)
institutions.

D) SHGs rely on government subsidies for funding, while MFIs rely on commercial sources of funding.

Q36. Which state initiated the implementation of the Mid-day Meal scheme in elementary schools?

A) Tamil Nadu B) Madhya Pradesh C) Uttar Pradesh D) Karnataka

Q37. Which of the following ports was developed as a Satellite port to relieve the pressure at the Mumbai port?

A) New Mangalore Port B) Marmagao Port C) Deendayal Port Authority D) Jawaharlal Nehru Port

Q38. The National Youth Policy 2014 defines youth as population between the ages of ________ and _________.

A) 20; 29 B) 15; 25 C) 15; 29 D) 10; 19

r
Q39. What was the main objective of the Second Green Revolution in India?

Si
A) Ensuring food security in the western states B) Promoting conventional agricultural practices

C) Focusing on holistic development in agriculture

ap
at
Pr

D) Increasing the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides

an

Q40. Which of the following is Fisher's equation of exchange?

ag
G

A) B) C) D)
By

Q41. What gave a major impetus to the cotton textile industry in India after Independence?
hs
at

A) Partition of India in 1947 B) Export of raw cotton to England C) Swadeshi movement

M

D) Development of railway network

Q42. Which of the following definitions best describes the concept of microfinance?

A microfinance institution is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956, and engaged in the
A) business of loans and advances and acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued
by the government.

Microfinance is a banking service provided to unemployed or low-income individuals or groups, who

B)
otherwise would have no other access to financial services.

C) A microfinance institution is a digital-only and mobile-first bank.

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 D) Microfinance refers to providing banking services to individuals living in rural areas.

Q43. Which of the following is an example of capital receipts?

A) Revenue from the sale of government assets B) Taxes on income C) Interest on government bonds

D) Grants-in-aid from other governments

Q44. In Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas yojana, the cost of unit assistance is shared between Central and State

Governments in the ratio ___________ in plain areas.

A) 60 : 40 B) 40 : 60 C) 90 : 10 D) 30 : 70

Q45. What is the primary benefit offered to businesses in Special Economic Zones (SEZs)?

A) Tax and duty concessions B) Guaranteed market share C) Mandatory government contracts

D) Unlimited foreign investment

r
Q46. ______ is the provision of small credit to those who would have no other access to financial services.

Si
A) Microloan B) Microfinance C) Homeloan D) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
ap
at
Q47. When a person is NOT paying anything for public goods, it is known as _________.
Pr

A) non-excludable B) rivalrous C) free rider D) private good

an
ag

Q48. Which of the following goods needs further transformation in the economic process?
G

A) Consumer durable goods B) Finished goods C) Intermediate goods D) Capital goods

By

Q49. Under which scheme are collateral free loans of up to ₹10 Lakh extended by the Member Lending Institutions
hs

(MLIs) in India?
at
M

A) National Strategy for Financial Inclusion B) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana

C) Stand Up India scheme D) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

Q50. During the period of 1947 to 1990, how many five-year plans were completed?

A) 6 B) 7 C) 9 D) 8

Q51. Which of the following options best describes the primary cause of the per capita income decline?

A) Equitable distribution of income B) Increase in the population growth

C) Decline in the population growth D) Decline in the gross domestic product

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Q52. Match the concepts in column A with their respective descriptions in column B.

A) a-5, b-1, c-2, d-3 B) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 D) a-5, b-3, c-2, d-1

Q53. What is the relationship between interest rate and demand for money?

A) No relationship exists B) Inverse C) Direct D) Proportionate

Q54. What is subtracted from GDP to arrive at NDP?

A) Subsidies B) Depreciation C) Net indirect taxes D) Net factor income from abroad

r
Si
Q55. What is the economic justification for subsidies in the agriculture sector?

A) It is mostly used to provide benefits for rich farmers. ap

at
B) It is a part of government expenditure in the service sector.
Pr

C) It is an incentive to provide the benefits of advanced technology and decrease the cost of production.
an

D) It is used to provide benefits for capital goods producers in agriculture.

ag
G

Q56. Which industrial policy marked the beginning of liberalisation in the Indian industry, reducing the restrictions on
By

private companies?
hs

A) Industrial Policy 1991 B) Industrial Policy 1980 C) Industrial Policy 1977 D) Industrial Policy 1956
at
M

Q57. The term ‘Microfinancing’ was first used in the 1970s during the development of Grameen Bank of Bangladesh,

which was founded by ________.

A) Muhammad Yunus B) Adam Smith C) Jeremy Bentham D) Alfred Marshall

Q58. What is net investment?

A) Sum of all the investments in a country B) Gross investment + depreciation

C) Gross capital investment - indirect taxes D) Gross investment - depreciation

Q59. Match the concepts in column A with their respective descriptions in column B.

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 A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 B) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 C) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 D) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

Q60. Which of the following statements about the aims of National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) of India

is/are correct?

1.To make agriculture more productive.

2.To make agriculture more sustainable.

3.To promote organic farming.

A) Only 1 is correct. B) Only 2 and 3 are correct. C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. D) Only 1 and 2 are correct.

r
Si
Q61. If GNP is 16% higher than the last year and the rate of inflation is 9%, production in the economy has grown by:

A) 4% B) 6% C) 5% ap D) 7%
at
Pr

Q62. Which Five-Year Plan primarily focused on the 'Garibi Hatao' initiative?

A) Sixth Five-Year Plan B) Fourth Five-Year Plan C) Fifth Five-Year Plan D) Third Five-Year Plan
an
ag

Q63. Which is the National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, a basic savings
G

and deposits accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner?

By

A) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana B) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana

hs

C) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana D) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

at
M

Q64. Which of the following is an example of a non-tax revenue source for the government?

A) Fees and fines B) Personal income tax C) Corporate income tax D) Value-added tax

Q65. Which of the following institutions has contributed mainly in improving the economic status of the poor women

in rural areas?

A) Indira Awas Yojana B) Integrated Development Project C) Self-help Group

D) Rural Health Scheme

Q66. What were the main obstacles during the industrial development of India at the time of independence?

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 A) Market for industrial produce B) Capital investment in industries

C) Employment required for industries D) Land for industrial establishment

Q67. Which of the following statements is correct?.

A) The five-year plan focuses mostly on private intervention in the economy.

B) The five-year plan always focused on the growth of the tertiary sector.

C) The five-year plan permits long-term intervention by the government in the economy.

D) A five-year plan always stresses market-oriented activities.

Q68. The central bank of India or Reserve Bank of India was created before Independence, in the year 1934. The
recommendation to create a central bank was made by a commission called:

A) Dr. Raja Chelliah Committee B) Kothari Commission C) Narasimham Committee

D) Hilton Young Commission

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Si
Q69. Harrod Domar model was the main idea behind the __________ Five Year Plan.

A) Third B) First C) Second ap D) Fourth

at
Pr

Q70. The Mahalanobis model was the basis for which Five-Year Plan?
an

A) Fourth Five-Year Plan B) Second Five-Year Plan C) Sixth Five-Year Plan D) First Five-Year Plan
ag

Q71. Which of the following is an example of public sector industry in India?

G
By

A) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited B) Bajaj Auto C) Dabur D) Tata Iron Steel Company
hs

Q72. Which of the following statements about the second five-year plan is INCORRECT?
at

A) The plan stressed the rapid industrialisation of heavy and basic industries.
M

B) Electricity, Railway, Steel etc. industries were established during the plan.

C) The plan was based on the Keynesian Model.

D) The socialist pattern of the society was reflected in the plan.

Q73. In which form of exchange are goods used as medium of exchange?

A) Online exchange B) Credit exchange C) Currency exchange D) Barter exchange

Q74. Which of the following types of unemployment is found in India when people are employed for a certain period of

a year in tourist resorts and various tourism-related activities in the mountain regions, but are unemployed in off-
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seasons?

A) Seasonal unemployment B) Under employment C) Disguised unemployment

D) Cyclical unemployment

Q75. What is the primary objective of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act of 2006 in

India?

A) To regulate foreign companies B) To focus on large-scale industries only

C) To increase import tariffs to protect MSMEs D) To promote and facilitate the development of MSMEs

Q76. In which of the following situations does the government run a deficit budget?

A) When the government expenditure and revenue both are zero.

B) When the government expenditure exceeds revenue.

C) When the government expenditure equals revenue.

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D) When the government revenue exceeds expenditure.

Si
ap
Q77. Which of the following is an example of private sector industry in India?
at
A) Steel Authority of India Limited B) Tata Iron and Steel Company C) Oil India Limited
Pr

D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

an
ag

Q78. Which of the following sectors in India faces seasonal unemployment?

G

A) Agriculture B) Manufacturing C) Medical D) Information technology

By

Q79. Which of the following options is the most appropriate cause for unemployment in India?
hs
at

A) Over population B) Environment conditions C) High educational systems D) Lack of labour force
M

Q80. Which of the following is a public sector industry?

A) BHEL B) Reliance C) Tata D) Adani

Q81. The 'Make in India' initiative primarily focuses on which sector?

A) Manufacturing B) Service C) Agriculture D) Import

Q82. Which of the following statements correctly defines the green revolution?

A) It is a new strategy in agriculture to produce food grains, especially wheat and rice.

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 B) It is a new strategy to increase the share of the forest.

C) It is a new strategy to use green colour for all purposes.

D) It is a new strategy to use only herbal products.

Static GK

Q1. Mirabai Chanu secured a silver medal at which Commonwealth Games?

A) 2010 B) 2014 C) 2022 D) 2018

Q2. Where was the first women’s international test cricket match hosted in India in 1976?

A) New Delhi B) Bangalore C) Mumbai D) Kolkata

Q3. Agricultural shot is a term used in which of the following sports?

A) Lawn Tennis B) Cricket C) Football D) Table Tennis

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Si
Q4. At which Olympics was Kho-Kho featured in an exhibition in the main stadium?

A) 1936 B) 1932 C) 2008

ap D) 2016
at
Pr

Q5. Pandit Omkar Nath Thakur was a student of ____________.

an

A) Ustad Abdul Karim Khan B) Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar C) Pandit Gopal Shankar Mishra
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D) Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande

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By

Q6. Who has written the book Sangeet Bal Prakash?

hs

A) Pandit Narayan Rao B) Vishnu Digambar Paluskar C) Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande

at

D) Bhimsen Joshi
M

Q7. Nirupama Sanjeev is a famous ______ player of India?

A) badminton B) swimming C) tennis D) chess

Q8. Sardhana Christian Fair is held in which of the following states?

A) West Bengal B) Haryana C) Madhya Pradesh D) Uttar Pradesh

Q9. Which of the following Table Tennis World Championship events was held in India?

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 A) 19th World Championships, 1952 B) 17th World Championships, 1950

C) 20th World Championships, 1953 D) 18th World Championships, 1951

Q10. Which of the following districts of India is an example of an industrial district?

A) Faridabad B) Meerut C) Kota D) Jaipur

Q11. Where is the Gulf of Mannar located?

A) Between the south-eastern tip of India and the eastern coast of Sri Lanka

B) Between the south-eastern tip of India and the western coast of Sri Lanka

C) Between the south-eastern tip of India and the north-western coast of Sri Lanka

D) Between the south-eastern tip of India and the southern coast of Sri Lanka

Q12. Which of the following Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Awards was conferred on Ustad Amjad Ali Khan?

A) 20th B) 19th C) 21st D) 18th

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Si
Q13. Which Indian singer wrote ‘Raag Sarita’? ap
at
A) Kesarbai Kerkar B) Balasaheb Poonchwale C) Kumar Gandharva D) Chintaman Raghunath Vyas
Pr

Q14. Mohan Veena player, Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt won the ____________ Award in the year 1994.
an
ag

A) Sangita Kalanidhi B) Oscar C) Grammy D) Sangeet Natak Akademi

G

Q15. Which of the following schemes enables students mobility across Higher Education Institutions?
By

A) National Educational Technology Forum B) PM Umeed scheme

hs

C) Structured Assessment for Analysing Learning Levels (SAFAL) D) Academic Bank of Credits
at
M

Q16. Which of the following is the transboundary river between India and Pakistan?

A) Indus B) Ravi C) Beas D) Jhelum

Q17. When and where did India win its first World Championships medal in Athletics?

A) 2009, Germany B) 2005, Finland C) 2007, Japan D) 2003, France

Q18. When was the 1st Asian Kabaddi Championship held?

A) 1970 B) 1985 C) 1980 D) 1975

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Q19. About what percentage of passenger traffic is carried by roads in India?

A) 77% B) 87% C) 57% D) 67%

Q20. The first Indian Olympic Games was hosted by which of the following cities?

A) Lahore B) Madras C) Bombay D) Allahabad

Q21. How many athletes were selected to represent India at the 1924 Paris Summer Olympics?

A) 12 B) 10 C) 11 D) 8

Q22. In which year was the National Institute of Kathak Dance established?

A) 1964 B) 1961 C) 1954 D) 1969

Q23. When was a Madrasa opened in Kolkata to promote the study of Arabic, Persian and Islamic law?

A) 1772 C.E. B) 1783 C.E. C) 1781 C.E. D) 1774 C.E.

r
Si
Q24. Elelakkaradi dance of Kerala is performed by which of the following tribes?

A) Irular tribe B) Kurumba tribe

ap
C) Adiyan tribe D) Mavilan tribe
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Pr

Q25. Which of the following social reformers of 19th century India was the author of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’?
an

A) Tarabai Shinde B) Swarnakumari Devi C) Pandita Ramabai D) Usha Mehta

ag
G

Q26. Raja Bhalindra Singh trophy is associated with which of the following national sports events?
By

A) Khelo India Youth Games B) Khelo India Winter Games C) Khelo India University Games
hs

D) National Games
at
M

Q27. Which Indian marathon event is considered the largest marathon in Asia?

A) Kaveri Trail Marathon B) Pinkathon C) Delhi Half Marathon D) Mumbai Marathon

Q28. Which of the following states was the overall champion in both men and women categories in the first Janjatiya

Khel Mahotsav?

A) Maharashtra B) Chhattisgarh C) Jharkhand D) Odisha

Q29. Who among the following was the youngest recipient of the Sangeetha Kalanidhi awarded by the Music Academy

in 1947?

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 A) Semmangudi Radhakrishna Srinivasa Iyer B) Ariyakudi Ramanuja Iyengar

C) Mallikarjun Bheemarayappa Mansur D) Bhimsen Joshi

Q30. In the year 1952, who among the following lent his voice for the film ‘Amar Bhupali’, which was being produced in

two languages simultaneously and he sang in both Bengali and Marathi ?

A) Kishore Kumar B) Hemanta Mukherjee C) Debabrata Biswas D) Manna Dey

Q31. Ranjana Gauhar was awarded the Padma Shri Award (2003) for her contribution to which of the following Indian

dance forms?

A) Kuchipudi B) Sattriya C) Odissi D) Manipuri

Q32. Kajari Mahotsav is primarily celebrated in which of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Mirzapur B) Gorakhpur C) Kushi Nagar D) Jhansi

Q33. Which of the following festivals observed in Assam is majorly celebrated by Vaishnavites?

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Si
A) Bihu B) Doljatra C) Ambuchi Mela D) Rongker
ap
at
Q34. The Nandi Award for Best Male Playback Singer was instituted by which state in the year 1977?
Pr

A) Gujarat B) Andhra Pradesh C) Tripura D) Maharashtra

an
ag

Q35. In which of the following states is Govindji Nartanalaya located?

G

A) Manipur B) Assam C) Nagaland D) Tripura

By

Q36. Where was the 1st World Cup of Kabaddi organised in 2004?
hs

A) Mumbai B) Hyderabad C) Punjab D) Kolkata

at
M

Q37. ‘Padayani’, a local dance form primarily performed in ________ to please Goddess Bhadrakali.

A) Assam B) Kerala C) Odisha D) West Bengal

Q38. Bhakti Pradeep Kulkarni is associated with ________.

A) badminton B) kabaddi C) chess D) cricket

Q39. Ranjana Prakash Desai who became the first woman chairperson of the Press Council of India originally worked in

which of the following organs of the government?

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 A) Legislature B) Judiciary C) Vigilance D) Executive

Q40. When was the Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy established?

A) 1951 B) 1953 C) 1954 D) 1952

Q41. Where was the Durand Cup Tournament started in India in 1888?

A) Mumbai B) Calcutta C) Shimla D) Delhi

Q42. In which of the following states is the Nrityagram, an Odissi dance institution, located?

A) Kerala B) Karnataka C) Tamil Nadu D) Maharashtra

Q43. Which of the following is NOT related to reticulate venation?

A) China rose B) Tulsi C) Maize D) Coriander

Q44. In 1910, The United India House at Seattle, USA, was set up by ___________.

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Si
A) Shyamji Krishna Varma B) Tarak Nath Das and GD Kumar C) Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki

D) VD Savarkar and Ganesh

ap
at
Pr

Q45. Which of the following is the largest artificial lake of Asia?

an

A) Naini Lake B) Bhopal Lake C) Dal Lake D) Chilika Lake

ag
G

Q46. Where was the first successful textile mill established in India?
By

A) Kolkata B) Surat C) Mumbai D) Jaipur

hs

Q47. The Maharashtra Bhushan was conferred upon _________________ in the year 2002.
at
M

A) Pandit Ravi Shankar B) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi C) Pandit Jasraj D) Pandit Hari Prasad Chaurasia

Q48. Three Poets Pampa, Ponna and Ranna are called as the ‘Three Jewels’ of:

A) Kannada Literature B) Telugu Literature C) Tamil Literature D) Sanskrit Literature

Q49. In which city was the first golf club of India situated?

A) Shimla B) Gulmarg C) Mysore D) Kolkata

Q50. Who among the following is the hero of the Sanskrit historical poem, the 'Ramacharita' written by Sandhyakar

Nandi?
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 A) Gopala B) Devapala C) Ramapala D) Dharmapala

Q51. Who among the following classical dancers is NOT related to Odissi?

A) Geetanjali Lal B) Mayadhar Raut C) Kiran Segal D) Kumkum Mohanty

Q52.

A) i (b), ii (d), iii (a), iv (c) B) i (d), ii (a), iii (b), iv (c) C) i (b), ii (c), iii (d), iv (a) D) i (c), ii (d), iii (b), iv (a)

r
Si
Q53. The record obtained by the measurement of earthquake is called a:

A) seismograph B) seismogram C) seismology

ap D) seismic wave
at
Pr

Q54. Chittani Ramachandra Hegde was associated with which of the following dances?
an

A) Chhau dance B) Chappeli dance C) Yakshagana dance D) Huttari dance

ag
G

Q55. Consider the following statements related to the Online Dispute Resolution (ODR) handbook.

1.It will be launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology.

By

2.ODR is the resolution for cases outside courts using digital technology and techniques of Alternative Dispute
hs

Resolution (ADR), such as negotiation, mediation and arbitration.

at

3.The development of ICT and increased use of internet has played a major role for ODR.
M

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

A) Only 1 and 3 B) Only 2 and 3 C) Only 1 D) Only 2

Q56. Each of the following statements includes two terms. In three cases, the two terms mean the same as each other.

In which of the following cases do the two terms NOT mean the same as each other?

A) Nominal GDP and GDP at current prices B) The base period and the reference period

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 C) Changes in real GDP and the GDP deflator D) Real GDP and GDP at constant prices

Q57. Rottela Panduga or the Roti Festival is celebrated in which Indian state?

A) Karnataka B) Maharashtra C) Andhra Pradesh D) Tamil Nadu

Q58. Sangeet Natak Akademy Awardee Sulochana Chavan was a famous ________ singer.

A) Giddha B) Jhumair C) Ghumar D) Lavani

Q59. Kati Bihu is celebrated in which of the following months in Assam?

A) March B) October C) January D) November

Q60. The ‘Lokranjan’ festival celebrates the folk and tribal culture of which Indian state?

A) Madhya Pradesh B) Jharkhand C) Manipur D) Meghalaya

Q61. Which of the following institutes was founded by Mrinalini Sarabhai who was a Bharatanatyam and Kathakali

r
Si
dancer?

A) Sri Thyagaraja College of Music and Dance ap

B) Nrityanjali Institute of Performing Arts
at
C) Darpana Academy of Performing Arts D) Nalanda Nritya Kala Mahavidyalaya
Pr
an

Q62. Identify the Indian classical dancer associated with Kathak.

ag

A) Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma B) Kelucharan Mohapatra C) Rohini Bhate D) Sharodi Saikia

G
By

Q63. Rudrankksh Patil is associated with _________.

A) badminton B) shooting C) chess D) wrestling

hs
at

Q64. Padma Bhushan awardee, Ustad Sabri Khan played which of the following musical instruments?
M

A) Sarod B) Santoor C) Tabla D) Sarangi

Q65. ‘Castling’ is related to which of the following sports?

A) Table Tennis B) Billiards C) Tennis D) Chess

Q66. Ustad Zia Mohiuddin Dagar was a ___________ player of profound depth, favouring sparse and slow realisations of

ragas.

A) Sitar B) Violin C) Flute D) Rudra veena

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Q67. In which year was the International Olympic Committee formed?

A) 1896 B) 1892 C) 1898 D) 1894

Q68. When was the Indian Hockey Federation established?

A) 1925 B) 1955 C) 1945 D) 1935

Q69. Which of the following is a correct statement?

A) National Income is GNP at FC. B) National Income is NDP at MP. C) National Income is GDP at MP.

D) National Income is NNP at FC.

Q70. Classical Sarod player, Amjad Ali Khan was awarded ____________ in 2001 by the Government of India.

A) Bharat Ratna B) Padma Shri C) Padma Vibhushan D) Padma Bhushan

Q71. Hariprasad Chaurasia, an Indian flutist in the Hindustani classical tradition, was awarded with which of the

r
following awards in 2000?

Si
A) Padma Shri B) Padma Vibhushan
ap
C) Bharat Ratna D) Padma Bhushan
at
Q72. In which of the following states is Me-dam-me-phi festival primarily celebrated?
Pr

A) Bihar B) Assam C) Nagaland D) Odisha

an
ag

Q73. National Sports University is situated in ________.

G

A) Mizoram B) Tripura C) Meghalaya D) Manipur

By
hs

Q74. In which state of India is the Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary located?
at

A) Bihar B) Gujarat C) Uttar Pradesh D) Madhya Pradesh

M

Q75. Who among the following was the youngest instrumentalist to be awarded the Padma Bhushan, the third highest

civilian award of India in 2002?

A) Pandit Ravi Shankar B) Ustad Zakir Hussain C) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi D) Ustad Bismillah Khan

Q76. Gangubai Hangal belonged to the ________.

A) Gwalior gharana B) Kirana gharana C) Banaras gharana D) Agra gharana

Q77. In which state of India is the Tadoba National Park located?

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 A) Maharashtra B) Gujarat C) Madhya Pradesh D) Kerala

Q78. Tera Tali folk dance is primarily associated with which of the following states?

A) Rajasthan B) Assam C) Madhya Pradesh D) Haryana

Q79. In which of the following games is the ‘Baulk Line’ used?

A) Kabaddi B) Badminton C) Tennis D) Kho-Kho

Q80. Match the following books with their respective authors.

A) a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii B) a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i C) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii D) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv

r
Si
Q81. India hosted the Asian Games in which of the following years?

A) 1954 and 1986 B) 1951 and 1982 ap

C) 1951 and 1986 D) 1954 and 1982
at
Pr

Q82. The term Blue Line is associated with which of the following games?
an

A) Football B) Cricket C) Table Tennis D) Ice Hockey

ag
G

Q83. Ishwari Prasad is credited to have introduced the ________ Gharana of Kathak.
By

A) Jaipur B) Raigarh C) Banaras D) Lucknow

hs

Q84. In which sport did India win its first individual Olympic medal?
at

A) Swimming
M

B) Judo C) Wrestling D) Shooting

Q85. ’Poush Mela’ is a unique festival celebrated in which of the following Indian states?

A) Uttar Pradesh B) Himachal Pradesh C) West Bengal D) Madhya Pradesh

Q86. Gangu bai Hangal and Prabha Atre were exponents of the ___________ Gharana.

A) Rampur B) Jaipur C) Kirana D) Mewati

Q87. In 2002, Zakir Hussain became the youngest percussionist to be honoured with which award?

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 A) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award B) Grammy Award C) Padma Bhushan

D) National Heritage Fellowship

Q88. Umayalpuram K Sivaraman is an eminent musician associated with which of the following musical instruments?

A) Sitar B) Guitar C) Dhol D) Mridangam

Q89. Indian Olympic Association was established in which of the following years?

A) 1927 B) 1931 C) 1933 D) 1929

Q90. ‘Atla Taddi’ is the widely celebrated festival of which Indian state?

A) West Bengal B) Punjab C) Bihar D) Andhra Pradesh

Q91. Mohiniyattam is associated with which of the following traditional dance styles?

A) Samapadam B) Tribhanga C) Chowk D) Lasya style

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Si
Q92. When was pro kabaddi league inaugurated for the first time in India?

A) 2007 B) 2008 C) 2015

ap D) 2014
at
Pr

Q93. The first Indian woman to hold the Under-20 World Wrestling Championship is _________.
an

A) Antim Panghal B) Pranati Nayak C) Swati Sanjay D) Hina Khalifa

ag
G

Q94. Khuallam is a famous dance of:

By

A) Bihar B) Andhra Pradesh C) Mizoram D) Uttar Pradesh

hs

Q95. In which year did India make its Olympic debut in hockey?
at
M

A) 1936 B) 1932 C) 1924 D) 1928

Q96. In which of the following cities of Manipur is the Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy located?

A) Imphal B) Ukhrul C) Chandel D) Thoubal

Q97. Jaipal Singh Munda is associated with which of the following sports?

A) Badminton B) Cricket C) Kabaddi D) Hockey

Q98. The renowned ghazal singer Girija Devi was born in ________.

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 A) Karnataka B) Bihar C) Uttar Pradesh D) Punjab

Q99. Ustad Vilayat Ali Khan is a maestro in ________.

A) Tabla B) Mridangam C) Sitar D) Flute

Q100. Which playback singer was honoured with the Nightingale of Asia Award in 1987?

A) Pulapaka Susheela B) Asha Bhosle C) Mubarak Begum D) Kavita Krishnamurthy

Q101. Papanasam Ramayya Sivan was an Indian composer of which music style?

A) Qawwali B) Carnatic music C) Bhajan D) Folk music

Q102. Hola Mohalla is a festival associated with which religion/belief?

A) Jainism B) Islam C) Buddhism D) Sikhism

Q103. Pandit Ram Narayan was associated with which of the following musical instruments?

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Si
A) Sarod B) Rudra veena C) Sarangi D) Mohan veena
ap
at
Q104. Vishu festival is celebrated in which of the following states?
Pr

A) Kerala And Karnataka B) Kerala And Tamil Nadu C) Madhya Pradesh & Rajasthan
an

D) Gujarat and Maharashtra

ag
G

Q105. Which Indian political leader was called as Lok Nayak?

By

A) Ram Manohar Lohia B) Jai Prakash Narayan C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak D) Subhash Chandra Bose
hs

Q106. Who among the following is the first vocalist to receive the Bharat Ratna in 2008 and is also credited to have
at

popularised 'Khyal Gayaki'?

M

A) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi B) Begum Akhtar C) Vishnu Digambar Palushkar D) Gangubai Hangal

Q107. Harela is a festival of greenery, peace, prosperity, and environmental conservation, primarily celebrated in which

of the following states?

A) Madhya Pradesh B) Haryana C) Assam D) Uttarakhand

Q108. Thrissur Pooram is one of the famous temple festivals celebrated in _______.

A) Andhra Pradesh B) Kerala C) Karnataka D) Tamil Nadu

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Q109. The registered office of the Sangeet Natak Akademi is at:

A) Kolkata B) New Delhi C) Chennai D) Mumbai

Q110. Sitar maestro, Pandit Ravi Shankar was awarded which of the following awards by the Government of India in

1999?

A) Padma Shri B) Padma Bhushan C) Bharat Ratna D) Padma Vibhushan

Q111. In chess which of the following may move only diagonally?

A) The Bishop B) The Knight C) The Queen D) The Rook

Q112. Which of the following is a festival primarily celebrated in the state of Odisha?

A) Baishagu B) Chhath C) Raja Parba D) Me-Dam-Me-Phi

Q113. Which famous santoor player was honoured with the Ustad Hafiz Ali Khan Award in 1998?

r
Si
A) Tarun Bhattacharya B) Shivkumar Sharma C) Satish Vyas D) Abhay Sopori

ap
Q114. Paryushana festival is celebrated by the people of which of the following communities?
at
Pr

A) Jain B) Muslim C) Hindu D) Sikh

an

Q115. In which of the following states of India is Hojagiri dance predominantly performed?
ag

A) Tripura B) Kerala C) Himachal Pradesh D) Maharashtra

G
By

Q116. Matki dance is the famous folk dance associated with which of the following states?
hs

A) Punjab B) Gujarat C) Madhya Pradesh D) Maharashtra

at
M

Q117. The famous santoor player Pandit Shivkumar Sharma received the ________________________ in the year 1986.

A) Maharashtra Gurav Puraskar B) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award C) Sanskriti Award

D) Kalidas Samman

Q118. Which of the following awards was won by Lata Mangeshkar in the year 2001?

A) Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award B) Padma Vibhushan C) Dadasaheb Phalke Award

D) Bharat Ratna

Q119. ‘Nuakhai’ is the state festival of:

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 A) Meghalaya B) Odisha C) Tamil Nadu D) Bihar

Q120. Who among the following is a Sarod player popularly known as ‘Sarod Samrat’?

A) Pandit Kishan Maharaj B) Pandit Ravi Shankar C) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan Bangash

D) Pandit Shivkumar Sharma

Q121. In which of the following years did India NOT host the ICC Cricket World Cup Tournament?

A) 2011 B) 1996 C) 1983 D) 1987

Q122. Which of the following is India’s national academy of dance?

A) Lalit Kala Akademi B) Centre for Cultural Resources and Training

C) Centre for Indian Classical Dances D) Sangeet Natak Akademi

Q123. Follow On is related to which of the following cricket formats?

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Si
A) Only T20 matches B) Only Test Matches C) Only One Day matches

D) Both test and One-day matches ap

at
Pr

Q124. ‘Kuki dance’ is a folk dance of India that is predominantly performed in _________.

A) Nagaland B) Karnataka C) Uttar Pradesh D) Rajasthan

an
ag

Q125. Who among the following Indian classical dancers is associated with Kuchipudi?
G

A) Meenakshi Medhi B) Vempati Chinna Satyam C) Sanjukta Panigrahi D) Malavika Sarkar

By
hs

Q126. Fugdi dance is associated with which of the following states?

at

A) Goa B) Uttarakhand C) Uttar Pradesh D) Kerala

M

Q127. At which Olympic games did Abhinav Bindra win the gold medal?

A) Athens 2004 B) Rio 2016 C) Beijing 2008 D) London 2012

Q128. Which Indian musician and sitar player is the founder of the National Orchestra of India ?

A) Ravi Shankar B) Shahid Parvez Khan C) Kishan Maharaj D) Ayyagari Syamasundaram

Q129. In chess, which of the following may only move forward to the unoccupied square immediately in front of it?

A) The Bishop B) The Queen C) The Pawn D) The Rook

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Q130. Which award was started by the Government of Madhya Pradesh in 1980 to the exponents of Hindustani classical

music?

A) Kumar Gandharva Samman B) Tansen Samman C) Kishore Kumar Samman D) Iqbal Samman

Q131. By which of the following state governments is the Tansen Music Festival organised?

A) Maharashtra Government B) Madhya Pradesh Government C) Rajasthan Government

D) Uttar Pradesh Government

Q132. Ali Akbar Khan is known for playing the ________.

A) Ektara B) Sarangi C) Tanpura D) Sarod

Q133. Lata Mangeshkar was honoured with the Bharat Ratna in the year ________.

A) 2001 B) 2003 C) 2004 D) 2002

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Q134. Which of the following festivals is celebrated as the birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev?

Si
A) Hola Mohalla B) Baisakhi C) Gurpurab
ap D) Chappar Mela
at
Q135. The head office of Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is located in ________.
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A) Mumbai B) Kolkata C) New Delhi D) Chennai

an
ag

Q136. ‘Sangken’ is a festival celebrated in Arunachal Pradesh by people of which of the following religions?
G

A) Islam B) Buddhism C) Jainism D) Hinduism

By
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Q137. Chariot festival is dedicated to Lord Jagannath along with Subhadra and _________ .
at

A) Balabhadra B) Sudama C) Hanuman D) Arjuna

M

Q138. In which of the following states is the Chu-Faat dance performed?

A) Haryana B) Uttarakhand C) West Bengal D) Sikkim

Q139. Which of the following books is INCORRECTLY paired with its respective author?

A) Hind Swaraj – Mahatma Gandhi B) Gitanjali – Rabindranath Tagore

C) The Discovery of India – Subhash Chandra Bose D) Why I am an Atheist – Bhagat Singh

Q140. The ________ of every state unfurls the flag in its capital on the Republic Day.

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 A) Judge of High Court B) Chief Minister C) Governor D) Speaker

Q141. Makar Sankranti is the festival dedicated to which of the following Lords?

A) Ganesha B) Surya C) Chandra D) Indra

Q142. Alla Rakha is famous for playing which of the following musical instruments?

A) Damaru B) Bansuri C) Shehnai D) Tabla

Q143. How many ICC World Cups has India won in ODI?

A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4

Q144. Easter festival is celebrated by which community?

A) Christian B) Parsi C) Hindu D) Sikh

Q145. Which singer from Assam was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2019?

r
Si
A) Padmanav Bordoloi B) Rameshwar Pathak C) Archana Mahanta D) Bhupen Hazarika
ap
at
Q146. How many players are there on each side of the Kabaddi Team in the field?
Pr

A) 9 B) 7 C) 8 D) 10
an
ag

Q147. Shab-e-Barat is celebrated by which religious group?

G

A) Muslim B) Buddhist C) Jain D) Parsi

By

Q148. In November 2021, the government declared November 15 as ‘Janjatiya Gaurav Divas’. It happens to be the birth
hs

anniversary of which of the following freedom fighters?

at

A) Birsa Munda
M

B) Kanhu Murmu C) Arjun Munda D) Veer Narayan Singh

Q149. Which of the following numbers best describes the number of white pieces used in chess?

A) 18 B) 16 C) 19 D) 17

Q150. Who among the following dancers was the first one from the state of Odisha to be conferred the Padma
Vibhushan Award?

A) Uday Shankar B) Pandit Birju Maharaj C) Kelucharan Mohapatra D) Guru Bipin Singh

Q151. Taxus wallichiana Zucc (Himalayan yew) is a medicinal plant found in which of the following states?

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 A) Goa B) Jharkhand C) Himachal Pradesh D) Bihar

Q152. Who among the following is/was a famous sitarist?

A) Ravi Shankar B) Ustad Bismillah Khan C) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi D) Zakir Hussain

Q153. Lathmar Holi is primarily celebrated in the state of:

A) Karnataka B) Arunachal Pradesh C) Uttar Pradesh D) Himachal Pradesh

Q154. Yakshagan is a folk dance of which of the following states?

A) Odisha B) West Bengal C) Madhya Pradesh D) Karnataka

Q155. The idols of which three Gods are installed in Jagannath Temple, Puri?

A) Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh B) Radha, Krishna and Balram C) Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra

D) Ram, Lakshman and Janaki

r
Si
Q156. Which of the following celebrations is dedicated to Sun God and his wife Usha to thank them for sustaining life
on earth and for granting wishes?
ap
at
Pr

A) Madai Festival B) Chhath Puja C) Vishwakarma Puja D) Sorath Sabha

an

Q157. Who among the following is the world renowned exponent of the bamboo flute?
ag

A) MS Subbulakshmi B) Ravi Shankar C) Hariprasad Chaurasia D) Bismillah Khan

G
By

Q158. With which of the following dances is Yamini Krishnamurthy associated?

hs

A) Bharatanatyam B) Mohiniyattam C) Odissi D) Sattriya

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M

Q159. India won the ICC Men Cricket World Cup for the first time in which of the following years?

A) 1996 B) 1992 C) 1987 D) 1983

Q160. By what name is the festival of Makar Sankranti celebrated in Assam?

A) Pedda Padunga B) Thai Pongal C) Pongal D) Magh Bihu

Q161. Match the following neighbouring countries with their official languages correctly.

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 A) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d B) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b D) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

Q162. Who among the following was a poet who won Nobel Prize for literature in 1913?

A) Aurobindo Ghose B) Rudyard Kipling C) Bankin Chandra Chattopadhyay D) Rabindranath Tagore

Q163. In which state/UT is the Hemis festival celebrated?

A) Punjab B) Sikkim C) Lakshadweep D) Ladakh

Q164. The most common rainfall measurement is the total rainfall depth during a given period, which is expressed in

r
________.

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A) kilopascal (kPa) B) millimetres (mm)
ap
C) hectopascal (hPa) D) millibar (mbar)
at
Q165. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related to the Indian domestic cricket?
Pr

A) Duleep Trophy B) Durand Cup C) Deodhar Trophy D) Ranji Trophy

an
ag

Q166. Kathakali, one of the classical dances of India, is predominantly performed in which of the following states of
G

India?
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A) Assam B) Manipur C) Uttar Pradesh D) Kerala

hs

Q167. Which of the following festivals is celebrated in Madhya Pradesh?

at
M

A) Thaipusam Festival B) Jaisalmer Desert Festival C) Bihu Festival D) Khajuraho Dance Festival

Q168. Gangaur Festival, Pushkar Fair, Nagaur Fair and Urs Fair are the popular fairs and festivals of which state?

A) Rajasthan B) Tripura C) Punjab D) Maharashtra

Q169. Which of the following terms is related to football?

A) Third man B) Bicycle Kick C) Overs D) LBW

Q170. The Kuchipudi dance belongs to which of the following states?

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 A) Tamil Nadu B) Andhra Pradesh C) Madhya Pradesh D) Manipur

Q171. Bihu festival is the main festival of which state?

A) Kerala B) Punjab C) Rajasthan D) Assam

Q172. Bharatanatyam dance style is associated with which of the following states?

A) Karnataka B) Tamil Nadu C) Bihar D) Manipur

Q173. Navratri festival is dedicated to which of the following Goddesses?

A) Jawala B) Laxmi C) Durga D) Saraswati

Q174. Chhath Puja is the main festival of which state?

A) Bihar B) Tamil Nadu C) Karnataka D) Assam

Q175. In India, Teachers’ Day is celebrated annually on September 5 to mark the birthday of:

r
Si
A) APJ Abdul Kalam B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel C) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan D) Subash Chandra Bose
ap
at
Q176. The festival of ‘Rath Yatra’ of Puri in Odisha is dedicated to which deity?
Pr

A) Lord Jagannath B) Lord Ganesha C) Lord Shiva D) Lord Hanuman

an
ag

Q177. In which of the following games is one player known as the Wicketkeeper?
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A) Football B) Basketball C) Cricket D) Hockey

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Q178. Which of the following terms is NOT related to cricket?

hs

A) Wide Ball B) Wicket C) No Ball D) Deuce

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Current Affairs

Q1. In July 2020, which state initiated the 'Ashirwad Scheme' to extend financial support for a daughter's marriage who

belongs to a family earning a lower income?

A) Uttar Pradesh B) Bihar C) Punjab D) Rajasthan

Q2. When was the Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) Scheme for Least Developed Countries (LDCs) announced by

India?

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 A) 2010 B) 2009 C) 2006 D) 2008

Q3. Under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, the maximum premium payable by the farmers will be _________ for all

kharif food and oilseeds crops.

A) 4% B) 2% C) 6% D) 8%

Q4. When was the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana introduced to provide health insurance to people below the poverty

line?

A) 2017 B) 2009 C) 2014 D) 2008

Q5. MG Music Awards is presented annually by which of the following states?

A) Mizoram B) Nagaland C) Manipur D) Chhattisgarh

Q6. Who among the following was one of the recipients of the inaugural ‘Prof CR Rao Centenary Gold Medal’ award in

2021?

r
Si
A) Raghuram Rajan B) Surjit Bhalla C) Amartya Sen‎ D) Jagdish Bhagwati
ap
at
Q7. The Working Group under the chairmanship of __________ in the year_________ proposed a new intermediate
Pr

monetary aggregate to be referred to as NM2.

an

A) Dr. C Rangarajan; 1996 B) Dr. YV Reddy; 1998 C) Dr. KV Kamath; 1995 D) Dr. PK Mohanty; 1998
ag

Q8. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 deals with subsistence allowance in which of the
G

following Sections?
By

A) Section 5 B) Section 6 C) Section 7 D) Section 4

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at

Q9. Which of the following States has declared a social security scheme for registered newspaper hawkers in the State
M

in 2021 considering the losses they faced during the pandemic and that they are a part of the unorganised sector?

A) Gujarat B) Maharashtra C) Odisha D) Tamil Nadu

Q10. Presently, which of the following countries is NOT a beneficiary of India's Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP)

Scheme?

A) Rwanda B) Burundi C) Myanmar D) Angola

Q11. How many awards were presented at the National Sports and Adventure Awards-2022 ceremony held at

Rashtrapati Bhavan on 30 November 2022?

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 A) 32 B) 44 C) 52 D) 28

Q12. The government of which of the following states created a draft policy in 2022 for senior citizens on the basis of

article 41, which aims to form a directorate for the welfare of senior citizens?

A) Karnataka B) Telangana C) Tamil Nadu D) Kerala

Q13. In 2022, Vinay Mohan Kwatra took charge as the Foreign Secretary of India. Prior to this, he served as the

ambassador to which of the following countries?

A) Bhutan B) Sri Lanka C) Nepal D) Maldives

Q14. What is the disinvestment target of the Finance Ministry for the year 2023-24?

A) ₹54,000 crore B) ₹53,000 crore C) ₹50,000 crore D) ₹51,000 crore

Q15. Who assumed charge as the new Vice Chief of the Indian Navy on 31 July 2021?

r
A) Karambir Singh B) Ravneet Singh C) SN Ghormade D) Dinesh K Tripathi

Si
ap
Q16. Where was the first meeting of the Employment Working Group of G20 conducted?
at
A) Jaipur B) Jodhpur C) Lucknow D) Kolkata
Pr
an

Q17. The Election Laws Amendment Bill passed in the Parliament recently seeks to implement certain electoral reforms.

One of them is the eligibility date. Till now, only one date – 1 January was considered for deciding eligibility with
ag

respect to age. What reform does the Bill seek in this regard?
G

A) Introducing two dates – 1 January and 1 June

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B) Eliminating the idea of eligibility date – enrolment throughout the year

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C) Introducing four dates – 1 January, 1 April, 1 July, 1 October

at
M

D) Introducing three dates – 1 January, 1 May, 1 September

Q18. Who among the following sports persons is designated as brand ambassador for Nikshay Mitra, an initiative under

Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan by Ministry of Health and Family welfare of GOI in November 2022?

A) Mary Kom B) Abhinav Bindra C) Pullela Gopichand D) Deepa Malik

Q19. As per the UNDP, the rank of Sri Lanka in the Human Development Index (2022) is:

A) 74/189 B) 73/189 C) 75/189 D) 72/189

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Q20. Which of the following is NOT an amendment made to the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA)

Amendment Act, 2021?

A) The government can call any airport a major airport just by notification.

B) The government will club together profit-making and loss-making airports.

C) The government can offer airports as a package in PPP mode to the prospective bidders.

D) A major airport is one which has an annual traffic of minimum 35 lakh passengers.

Q21. The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 amended which of the following Acts?

A) The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1892 B) The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1895

C) The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1890 D) The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897

Q22. N. Rangasamy sworn in as the Chief Minister of Puducherry in May 2021. What is the name of the party he

formed?

A) Naam Tamilar Katchi B) All India NR Congress C) Amma Makkal Munnettra Kazagam

r
Si
D) Viduthalai Chiruthaigal Katchi
ap
at
Q23. Who holds the record for the longest long jump in India as of 2023?
Pr

A) Jeswin aldrin B) TC Yohannan C) Murali S D) Nayana James

an
ag

Q24. What is the cost of the ‘Nand Baba Milk Mission’ scheme launched by the Uttar Pradesh state government in 2023

to provide milk producers the facility of selling their milk at a reasonable price in villages through dairy co-operative
G

societies?
By

A) ₹500 crore B) ₹1,500 crore C) ₹2,000 crore D) ₹1,000 crore

hs
at

Q25. Which music-composer duo was honoured with the National Lata Mangeshkar Award for the year 2020?
M

A) Sachin–Jigar B) Jatin-Lalit C) Salim–Sulaiman D) Anand-Milind

Q26. Who among the following is the first Indian to win gold at Junior World Weightlifting Championship in May 2022?

A) Sathish Sivalingam B) Mirabai Chanu C) Santoshi Matsa D) Harshada Sharad Garud

Q27. Who among the following Indian women boxers was elected as the Chairperson and a voting member of the

International Boxing Association in 2022?

A) Pooja Rani B) Mary Kom C) Nikhat Zareen D) Lovlina Borgohain

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Q28. Tarun Bhattacharya, who was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2018, is known for playing which

musical instrument?

A) Santoor B) Violin C) Tabla D) Sitar

Q29. Who among the following was the Former Secretary (HRD), Information and Broadcasting (I&B) and has been

appointed as the advisor to the Prime Minister of India in October 2021?

A) Shri Apurva Chandra B) PK Sinha C) Amarjeet Sinha D) Amit Khare

Q30. In which year was the MPLADS scheme implemented?

A) 2003 B) 1983 C) 1993 D) 2013

Q31. In which year did the Central Government launch the National Air Sports Policy?

A) 2022 B) 2021 C) 2023 D) 2020

r
Q32. Madhuri Barthwal, a folk singer and Padma Shri 2022 awardee, belongs to which of the following states of India?

Si
A) Uttarakhand B) Himachal Pradesh C) Uttar Pradesh D) Maharashtra
ap
at
Q33. Who won the paralympic bronze medal in archery for India at Tokyo in 2020?
Pr

A) Atanu Das B) Pravin Jadhav C) Deepika Kumari D) Harvinder Singh

an
ag

Q34. Which of the following schemes of the Government of India is a part of the ‘Target Group’ approach?
G

A) Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP) B) Marginal Farmers Development Agency (MFDA)
By

C) Hill Areas Development Programme (HADP)

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D) Command Area Development & Water Management Programme (CADP)

at
M

Q35. Which of the following was the mascot of the FIH men’s Hockey World Cup – 2023?

A) Jitu B) Bheema C) Olly D) Asha

Q36. Who was the player of the match in the semi-final of the T20 Women's World Cup 2023 played between India and

Australia?

A) Deepti Sharma B) Ashleigh Gardner C) Meg Lanning D) Harmanpreet kaur

Q37. Who among the following won a Gold Medal at the 2021 World Cadet Wrestling Championship held in Budapest,

Hungary?

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 A) Geeta Phogat B) Vinesh Phogat C) Pooja Dhanda D) Priya Malik

Q38. Which of the following was the mascot of the Khelo India University Games 2022?

A) Bheema B) Moga C) Jitu D) Saavaj

Q39. In January 2023, Koneru Humpy won India’s first-ever silver medal at the __________ held in Almaty, Kazakhstan.

A) FIDE World Chess Championship B) World Blitz Chess Championship

C) World Correspondence Chess Championship D) World Rapid Chess Championship

Q40. As of Financial year 2019, which of the following state has the highest road density in India?

A) Haryana B) Tamil Nadu C) Kerala D) Punjab

Q41. Tabla maestro, Bickram Ghosh, was awarded with which of the following awards in 2023 in the Contemporary

Category?

r
A) Padma Shri B) Padma Bhushan C) Sangeet Natak Akademi D) Sangeet Kalanidhi

Si
ap
Q42. For which of the following states was the Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) Orders (Second
at
Amendment) Bill, 2022, introduced in the Parliament?
Pr

A) Odisha B) Bihar C) Uttar Pradesh D) Madhya Pradesh

an
ag

Q43. What is the position of India in the world’s telecommunication market, as of March 2024?
G

A) Fourth B) Third C) First D) Second

By

Q44. Arvind Parikh, a Padma Bhushan awardee, plays which of the following musical instruments?
hs

A) Sitar B) Bansuri C) Tabla D) Sarangi

at
M

Q45. The third edition of the Khelo India University Games was hosted by which of the following states?

A) Uttar Pradesh B) Haryana C) Punjab D) Madhya Pradesh

Q46. How many medals did India win in International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) World Cup 2022, which was

held in Cairo, Egypt?

A) 9 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8

Q47. Who is the author of the book ‘From Plassey to Partition and After : A History of Modern India’?

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 A) Romila Thapar B) Devid Hardiman C) Sekhar Bandyopadhyay D) Sumit Sarkar

Q48. At which Olympics did Gagan Narang win a bronze medal?

A) London 2012 B) Rio 2016 C) Athens 2004 D) Beijing 2008

Q49. Harivarasanam award is given in the field of music by which of the following state governments?

A) Kerala B) Karnataka C) Maharashtra D) Himachal Pradesh

Q50. Which of the following ministries launched the PM Daksh scheme?

A) Ministry of Education B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment D) Ministry of Food Processing Industries

Q51. Sankalp Gupta is associated with which of the following events?

A) Chess B) Wrestling C) Badminton D) Boxing

r
Si
Q52. In 2021, in which of the following states did the Prime Minister lay the foundation stone for the Raja Mahendra

Pratap Singh State University? ap

at
A) Uttar Pradesh B) Gujarat C) Himachal Pradesh D) Nagaland
Pr
an

Q53. Who among the following Indian cricketers were named the Wisden’s cricketer of the year in the 2022 edition of
ag

the Almanack?
G

A) Surya Kumar Yadav and Axar Patel B) Virat Kohli and Bhuvneshwar Kumar
By

C) Rohit Sharma and Jasprit Bumrah D) Rohit Sharma and Virat Kohli
hs

Q54. Which of the following personalities is a Padma Shri awardee folk singer from the state of Uttar Pradesh?
at
M

A) Ila Arun B) Ajita Srivastava C) Gurmeet Bawa D) Teejan Bai

Q55. When was the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award renamed as Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?

A) 6th August 2022 B) 5th January 2022 C) 6th August 2021 D) 5th January 2021

Q56. What is the primary objective of the 'Standup India' initiative?

A) To boost the manufacturing sector B) To promote digital transactions nationwide

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 C) To facilitate bank loans for SC/ST and women entrepreneurs D) To support all types of startups

Q57. Buddhadev Dasgupta is famous for playing which of the following musical instruments?

A) Sarod B) Sarangi C) Bansuri D) Mridangam

Q58. The National Youth Policy was launched in:

A) 2012 B) 2013 C) 2014 D) 2015

Q59. Which Lavani singer got Padma Shri 2022 by the President of India?

A) Sulochana Chavan B) Bela Shende C) Vaishali Samant D) Devaki Pandit

Q60. In which year was the 'Naye Bharat Ke Sapne' campaign launched by Meta and the Ministry of Women?

A) 2022 B) 2023 C) 2020 D) 2021

Q61. Which team won the T20 cricket event, Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy 2022-2023?

r
Si
A) Mumbai B) Punjab C) Vidarbha D) Himanchal Pradesh
ap
at
Q62. Which of the following organisations is NOT a winner of the $100,000 cash prize as ‘Best Small Business: Good
Pr

Food for All’, announced by the United Nations for providing inspiring, diverse and impactful solutions in improving
an

access to healthy and sustainable food?

ag

A) Patanjali B) Edible Routes Private Limited C) Oorja Development Solutions India Private Limited
G

D) Taru Naturals
By

Q63. In which year was the PM Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission launched?
hs

A) 2020 B) 2022 C) 2021 D) 2023

at
M

Q64. Indian classical violinist Annavarapu Rama Swamy was awarded with the _____________ in 2021.

A) Padma Shri B) Sangeet Natak Akademi C) Padma Vibhushan D) Padma Bhushan

Q65. Which of the following team events is included in the Target Olympic Podium Scheme?

A) Tennis B) Football C) Cricket D) Hockey

Q66. For which of the following tribal music and dance forms was Arjun Singh Dhurve conferred with Tulsi Samman?

A) Mardana B) Pawara C) Baiga D) Jhumta

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Q67. According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways’ annual report (2020-2021), which position does India

have in terms of road networks in the world?

A) First B) Second C) Fourth D) Third

Q68. Which port is developed as a satellite port?

A) Mormugao B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Haldia D) New Mangalore

Q69. The Parliament passed the Essential Defence Services Bill, 2021 in August 2021. Which of the following is an

objective behind passing it?

A) To encourage more FDI in defence services

B) To prohibit strikes, lockouts and layoffs in units engaged in essential defence services

C) To appoint more women in defence services D) To implement one rank one pension

Q70. Which of the following States have enacted the Cattle Preservation Act, 2021 in July-August 2021 to regulate

r
slaughter and transport of cattle and proposed an amendment in December 2021 to allow inter-district transportation

Si
of cattle for agricultural and animal husbandry except in districts sharing international border?

A) Tripura B) Sikkim C) Arunachal Pradesh

ap D) Assam
at
Pr

Q71. In which of the following years will India host the World Badminton Championship?
an

A) 2025 B) 2028 C) 2026 D) 2027

ag
G

Q72. For which film did Asha Bhosle win the International Indian Film Academy (IIFA) Award in the Best Playback Singer
By

Female category in 2002?

A) Devdas B) Humraz
hs

C) Om Jai Jagdish D) Lagaan

at

Q73. Who among the following is appointed as the new Chairman of Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
M

Authority (PFRDA) in March 2023?

A) Supratim Bandopadhyay B) Shasikanta Das C) Mamta Shankar D) Deepak Mohanty

Q74. Vijender Singh has represented India in Olympics for how many times?

A) 4 B) 5 C) 3 D) 2

Q75. What is iGOT launched by the Government of India in April 2020?

A) Online training portal for COVID-19 management B) Online portal for scholarships to single girl child

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 C) Online portal for digital payments D) Online portal for social security schemes

Q76. In which year was Ujala Yojana launched?

A) 2014 B) 2016 C) 2015 D) 2017

Q77. ‘Ungalil Oruvan’ (One Among You) is the autobiography of which of the following chief ministers?

A) MK Stalin B) K Chandrashekhar Rao C) Basavaraj Bommai D) Pinarayi Vijayan

Q78. In Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana, the cost of unit assistance is shared between Central and State

Governments in the ratio ___________ for the North-Eastern and the Himalayan states.

A) 90 : 10 B) 60 : 40 C) 45 : 55 D) 50 : 50

Q79. Which of the following State governments has launched a scheme ‘Ankur’ in May 2021 to promote planting of

trees in public, wherein people will be awarded for planting and taking care of the saplings?

r
A) Bihar B) West Bengal C) Uttarakhand D) Madhya Pradesh

Si
ap
Q80. Coir conductor Coomi Nariman Wadia was awarded with which of the following awards by the Government of
at
India in 2023?
Pr

A) Padma Bhushan B) Padma Vibhushan C) Bharat Ratna D) Padma Shri

an

Q81. At the 36th National Games, Hashika Ramchandra won six gold medals in which of the following sports?
ag
G

A) Boxing B) Wrestling C) Swimming D) Badminton

By

Q82. Three Indians were featured in Time Magazine’s list of ‘100 most influential people of 2021’. Whose name was NOT
hs

included in the list?

at

A) Narendra Modi B) Mamata Banerjee C) Amitabh Bachchan D) Adar Poonawalla

M

Q83. The number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall NOT be less than _______.

A) 11 B) 10 C) 13 D) 12

Q84. Which of the following organisations is associated with the development of the web version: e-GOPALA

application?

A) National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

C) National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) D) National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management

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Q85. Harmonium player, Tulsidas Borkar, was awarded with the ___________ in 2016.

A) Padma Shri B) Padma Bhushan C) Bharat Ratna D) Padma Vibhushan

Q86. Which of the following playback singers is the recipient of the Karnataka Ratna Award 2005?

A) Sistla Janaki B) Ravindra Jain C) Pandit Jasraj D) Bhimsen Joshi

Q87. Which television channel presents the IMMIES Awards every year with an aim to reward the best talent in the

Indian music industry?

A) B4U Music B) MTV C) Channel V D) 9XM

Q88. Which Ghazal singer was conferred with the prestigious Deenanath Mangeshkar Award in April 2023?

A) Talat Aziz B) Ghazal Srinivas C) Pankaj Udhas D) Bhupinder Singh

Q89. On 29th October 2020, the Ministry of Science and Technology launched the SERB-POWER Scheme. What is the

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objective of the scheme?

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A) To allow reservation for women in the Parliament and Judiciary

B) To strengthen the solar programme of India with France

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To mitigate gender disparity in science and engineering research funding in various academic
C)
programmes and laboratories
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D) To allow reservation for women in the Ministry of Science and Technology

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Q90. In which of the following years was Pro Kabaddi League established in India?
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A) 2015 B) 2016 C) 2013 D) 2014

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Q91. As per the report of the NITI Aayog in 2023, which among the following states in India has the lowest percentage
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of the total population that is multidimensionally poor?

A) Goa B) Kerala C) Sikkim D) Uttarakhand

Q92. The _________ portal is a platform provided by the Govt. of India for famers to attain any information related to

agriculture.

A) Cropland B) Farmer’s C) Agricultural D) Cultivation

Q93. Who was appointed as India’s 28th Controller General of Accounts (CGA) in March 2023?

A) Arun Goel B) Praveen Sharma C) Vikram Devdutt D) SS Dubey

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Q94. What is the aim of the PM Ujjwala 2.0 Yojna launched in August 2021?

A) Free LPG connections for commercial use

B) 20 million LPG connections will be provided to the beneficiaries

C) 10 million LPG connections will be provided to the beneficiaries D) Free gas stove for BPL Households

Q95. Who among the following was appointed as the Governor of Jharkhand in February 2023?

A) CP Radhakrishnan B) Ramesh Bais C) T Gahlot D) RN Ravi

Q96. Under the ‘Mero Rukh Mero Santati’ initiative launched by the Sikkim Chief Minister Prem Singh Tamang in 2023,

how many trees will be planted for every child born in Sikkim ?

A) 50 B) 150 C) 100 D) 200

Q97. Name the pension scheme that seeks to ensure old age protection for unorganised workers.

A) Atal Pension Yojana B) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojna C) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bhima Yojna

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D) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan
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Q98. Which of the following countries will host the ICC men’s Cricket World Cup in the year 2031?
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A) India, Bangladesh B) India, Sri Lanka C) Sri Lanka and Pakistan D) Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
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Q99. What is the amount of financial assistance provided per month to girl students studying in government schools
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under the ‘Tamil Nadu Pudhumai Penn Scheme’ launched by the Government of Tamil Nadu in 2023?
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A) ₹500 per month B) ₹3,000 per month C) ₹1,000 per month D) ₹2,000 per month
By
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Q100. Prabha Atre, who received the Padma Vibhushan Award 2022, belongs to which Gharana?
at

A) Indore gharana B) Kirana gharana C) Agra gharana D) Mewati gharana

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Q101. The Atal Innovation Mission was launched in year ________.

A) 2021 B) 2016 C) 2014 D) 2004

Q102. Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s) from the following:

1. The UDAN scheme has completed five years since its implementation in 2017.

2. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Science and Technology.

3. The Airports Authority of India is the implementing agency of this scheme.

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 A) Only statement 3 B) Only statement 2 C) Only statements 2 and 3 D) Only statements 1 and 3

Q103. What is the length of Indian Railways network, according to Railway Yearbook 2019-20?

A) 67,956 km B) 1,604 km C) 63,950 km D) 2,402 km

Q104. As in July 2021,The NIPUN Bharat Scheme was launched by which of the following Ministries?

A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare B) Ministry of Education C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

D) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers

Q105. Who is Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology as of July 2023?

A) Ramesh Pokhriyal B) Dharmendra Pradhan C) Ashwini Vaishnaw D) Jitendra Singh

Q106. In August 2022, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the ________ scheme, with an aim to

provide comprehensive rehabilitation services to people engaged in begging in 75 municipalities.

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A) TWINKLE-75 B) BEAM-75 C) SMILE-75 D) RISE-75

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Q107. ap
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By
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A) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D- iii B) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii C) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv D) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
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Q108. Which of the following is the first Indian woman Grandmaster in Chess?

A) Harika Dronavalli B) S Vijayalakshmi C) Tania Sachdev D) R Vaishali

Q109. Who was the first Indian woman wrestler to represent the country at the 2012 London Olympic Games?

A) Babita Phogat B) Sakshi Malik C) Vinesh Phogat D) Geeta Phogat

Q110. In which year was the Digital India mission launched?

A) 2014 B) 2016 C) 2015 D) 2017

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Q111. Pandwani singer Usha Barle was conferred with which of the following awards by the Government of India in

2023?

A) Padma Vibhushan B) Bharat Ratna C) Padma Bhushan D) Padma Shri

Q112. Which state Chief Minister launched the 'Kaushalya Matritva Yojana' in 2022, which provides financial assistance

of ₹5,000 to women giving birth to a second girl child for safe motherhood?

A) Gujarat B) Uttar Pradesh C) Rajasthan D) Chhattisgarh

Q113. Who was the chief coordinator for the G20 summit hosted by India?

A) S Jaishankar B) Vijay Gokhale C) Vinay Kwatra D) Harsh Vardhan Shringla

Q114. Which state government honoured Vani Jairam with the MS Subbulakshmi Award for 2019?

A) Maharashtra B) Karnataka C) Odissa D) Tamil Nadu

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Q115. AR Rehman, Gulzar and _____ won the 52nd annual Grammy Award for the best motion picture song ‘Jai ho’.

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A) Danny Boyle B) Tanvi Shah C) Dev Patel D) Freida Pinto
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Q116. Which of the following is a key focus area of the ‘Amrit Dharohar’ scheme launched by the Prime Minister
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Narendra Modi on World Environment Day, 2023?

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A) Preservation of ancient Indian heritage sites B) Development of rural infrastructure

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C) To promote values of local communities in conserving wetland ecosystem

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D) Promotion of organic farming

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Q117. According to the Agricultural and Processed food products Export Development Authority (APEDA) 2020-2021,
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which state of India has the first rank in grapes production?

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A) Maharashtra B) Karnataka C) Bihar D) Uttar Pradesh

Q118. Mahabalipuram emerged as an important centre of temple architecture under which of the following kingdoms

of south India?

A) Pallava B) Chola C) Chera D) Chalukya

Q119. As for the year 2020-21, which of the following states had the lowest unemployment rate among persons aged 15

years and above?

A) Sikkim B) Madhya Pradesh C) Gujarat D) Chhattisgarh

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Q120. Indira PP Bora is a Padma Shri Awardee 2020 for her contribution to which Indian classical dance?

A) Sattriya B) Kathak C) Kuchipudi D) Bharatanatyam

Q121. Who among the following was appointed as the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) to the Indian government in 2022?

A) Venkatramanan Anantha Nageswaran B) Kaushik Basu C) TV Somanathan D) Raghuram Rajan

Q122. Who among the following famous Indian women cricketers announced retirement in June 2022?

A) Smriti Mandhana B) Jhulan Goswami C) Anjum Chopra D) Mithali Raj

Q123. Hindustani singer Pandit Venkatesh Kumar was honoured with 'Kalidas Samman-2022' by which state

government?

A) Madhya Pradesh B) Maharashtra C) Uttar Pradesh D) Gujarat

Q124. Which is the joint digital skills initiative for employability through digital skills by National Career Service and

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Microsoft India?

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A) Digisaksham B) Vidyadaan C) Shiksha Vani D) Swayam
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at
Q125. Which Indian musician from Maharashtra received the Padma Vibhushan 2023?
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A) Ramdas Palsule B) Bharat Kamat C) Zakir Hussain D) Milind Date

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Q126. Which web portal was launched by the Department of Telecommunications for sharing information on mobile
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towers and EMF emission compliance?

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A) E-Amrit B) Namaste C) Tarang Sanchar D) PM-Daksh

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Q127. The inaugural match of the Women Premier League 2023 cricket was played in which of the following venues?
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A) Delhi B) Mumbai C) Chennai D) Kolkata

Q128. Tabla player, Ustad Zakir Hussain was awarded which of the following awards by the Government of India in

2023?

A) Bharat Ratna B) Padma Shri C) Padma Vibhushan D) Padma Bhushan

Q129. In 2022, which of the following railway stations has been selected for the ‘One Station One Product’ scheme

launched by Indian Railways, which identifies Kanchipuram sarees as the chosen product?

A) Howrah B) Visakhapatnam C) Chennai Central D) Patna Jn

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Q130. Annapurna Devi is associated with which of the following musical instruments?

A) Rudra veena B) Taal C) Ektara D) Surbahar

Q131. India finished on which of the following positions in overall medals tally at Commonwealth games 2022?

A) 3rd B) 4th C) 1st D) 2nd

Q132. Who among the following famous badminton players won Swiss Open 2022?

A) Jwala Gutta B) Aparna Popat C) Saina Nehwal D) PV Sindhu

Q133. Who among the following famous badminton players won Singapore Open 2022?

A) Aparna Popat B) Saina Nehwal C) Jwala Gutta D) PV Sindhu

Q134. In which year was Smart Cities Mission launched?

A) 2015 B) 2013 C) 2019 D) 2018

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Q135. Who among the following was selected as the Sherpa for India’s G20 hosted in 2022-23?

A) Piyush Goyal B) Ashwini Vaishnav

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C) Shaktikanta Das D) Amitabh Kant
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Q136. Which of the following countries won the first men’s Asian Hockey Championship trophy?
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A) Japan B) China C) India D) Pakistan

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Q137. In February 2023, BVR Subrahmanyam was appointed as the ________.

By

A) Chief Vigilance Commissioner B) Comptroller General Of India C) CEO NITI Ayog

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D) Chief Election Commissioner

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Q138. Who has written the book ‘Fearless Governance’, published in January 2021, describing her stint as Governor?

A) Draupadi Murmu B) Baby Rani Maurya C) Kiran Bedi D) Anandi ben Patel

Q139. Bhupen Hazarika was one of the most well-known personalities from the state of ________.

A) Odisha B) Assam C) Nagaland D) Manipur

Q140. In May 2022, Then President Ram Nath Kovind appointed _________ as the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.

A) Kiran Bedi B) Anil Baijal C) Vijai Kapoor D) Vinai Kumar Saxena

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Q141. The final match of IPL 2023 was hosted by which of the following cities?

A) Bengaluru B) Chennai C) Mumbai D) Ahmedabad

Q142. Who among the following players is related to table tennis?

A) Manish Narwal B) Manika Batra C) K Srikanth D) Pankaj Advani

Q143. Which Indian among the following has his name in Time Magazine’s list of ‘100 most influential people of 2021’?

A) Neeraj Chopra B) Narendra Modi C) Virat Kohli D) Amit Shah

Q144. Who among the following is one of the Deputy Chief Ministers of Uttar Pradesh as of July 2023?

A) Narottam Mishra B) Yogi Adityanath C) Manoj Sinha D) Keshav Prasad Maurya

Q145. Which government honoured a distinguished percussionist named Pandit Anindo Chatterjee with the Banga

Vibhushan Award in 2022?

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Si
A) Assam B) Tripura C) West Bengal D) Jharkhand

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Q146. As of 31 May 2021, only 47% of total routes and 39% of airports (unserved and underserved) have been
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operationalised under UDAN, according to ICRA. What is the full form of UDAN?
Pr

A) Udtha Desh Ka Aam Nayak B) Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik C) Unnath Desh Ka Aam Naagrik
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D) Ujwal Desh Ka Aam Naagrik

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Q147. In 2022, who has been appointed as new Attorney General of India?
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A) KK Venugopal B) Niren De C) Mukul Rohatgi D) R Venkatramani

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Q148. Which of the following schemes was launched for the welfare of the unorganised sector workers and labourers
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on 26 August 2021?

A) e-Shram Portal B) PM Mentoring Yuva Scheme C) PM Daksh Yojana D) Gram Ujala Scheme

Q149. In Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana, beneficiaries are provided with how much amount every year?

A) ₹6,000 B) ₹4,000 C) ₹5,000 D) ₹3,000

Q150. Which of the following nations won the seven times women’s Asia Cup cricket Championship?

A) Pakistan B) Bangladesh C) India D) Sri Lanka

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Q151. As of 14 October 2021, which Indian footballer was in the news for breaking Pele's 77 international goals?

A) Bhaichung Bhutia B) Sunil Chhetri C) Gurpreet Singh Sandhu D) Sandesh Jhingan

Q152. Mulayam Singh Yadav, who passed away in October 2022, served as the Chief Minister of which state?

A) Madhya Pradesh B) Gujarat C) Uttar Pradesh D) Bihar

Q153. Which group of people will be benefited by the Mukhya Mantri Sukh Ashray Yojana approved by Himachal
Pradesh?

A) Students and teachers B) Orphans, specially abled children, destitute women and senior citizens

C) Unemployed youth D) Farmers and agricultural labourers

Q154. Which of the following famous Indian athletes won the Zurich Diamond League final 2022 in September 2022?

A) Bajrang Punia B) Mirabai Chanu C) Neeraj Chopra D) PT Usha

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Q155. Which of the following Indian states has the least number of operational airports as of 2022?

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A) Bihar B) Maharashtra C) Mizoram
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Q156.
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By
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A) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii B) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii C) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii D) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
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Q157. Who is the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu as of July 2023?

A) Pinarayi Vijayan B) M Yedurappa C) KN Nehru D) MK Stalin

Q158. Which of the following nations won the ICC World Test Championship, defeating India, in 2023?

A) New Zealand B) Australia C) South Africa D) England

Q159. Who is the world’s most popular leader as per Global Leader Approval Ratings released by US-based Morning
Consult in February 2023?

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 A) Xi Jinping B) Vladimir Putin C) Joe Biden D) Narendra Modi

Q160. On which of the following dates does India celebrate its Constitution Day?

A) 26th January B) 26th November C) 15th August D) 2th October

Q161. Who among the following is known as ‘Captain Cool’ in Indian Cricket?

A) Virat Kohli B) Mahendra Singh Dhoni C) Kapil Dev D) Sachin Tendulkar

Q162. Sports Authority of India comes under which ministry?

A) Ministry of Education B) Ministry of Social Justice C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

D) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

Physics

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Q1. In the year 1925, who extracted lipids from an erythrocyte sample and found that lipid monolayers are good for

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measuring molecular surface area versus lateral pressure?

A) Gorter and Grendel B) Carson and Eccles

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C) Avery and Buck D) Margulis and Ruska
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Q2. How long will a sound wave take to travel 1.5km, which has a frequency of 5 kHz and wavelength of 6 cm?
an

A) 2.5 seconds B) 50 seconds C) 5 seconds D) 25 seconds

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G

Q3. Which of the following gases emits red light when electricity is passed through it?
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A) Neon B) Hydrogen C) Argon D) Helium

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Q4. An electric iron requires a ________ fuse to prevent short circuiting.

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A) 4 A B) 3 A C) 2 A D) 5 A

Q5. Who first stated the principle of refraction that postulates that every substance has a specific bending ratio –

‘refractive index’?

A) Dennis Gabor B) Thomas Young C) Willebrord Snellius D) David Brewster

Q6. Calorimeter is a small container made of a thin sheet of _________ with good thermal conductivity.

A) silver B) platinum C) copper D) cesium

Q7. Identify an example of plasma as a state of matter.

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 A) Blood B) Dry ice C) Freon D) Neon sign bulbs

Q8. In the context of vernier calliper, an internal jaw is used to measure:

A) the length correct up to 1 mm B) the depth of a beaker

C) the length of a rod and diameter of a sphere D) the internal diameter of a hollow cylinder and pipes

Q9. Who reconciled Dalton's atomic hypothesis with Gay-Lussac's results on the combination of volumes in 1811?

A) Robert Boyle B) Amadeo Avogadro C) Fred Hoyle D) Jacques Charles

Q10. A small object is placed on the focus on the left side of a convex lens. Where will be the image formed?

A) At the centre on the right side of the lens. B) At infinity on the left side of the lens.

C) At infinity on the right side of the lens. D) At the focus on the right side of the lens.

Q11. Ernest Rutherford used about ________ thick gold foil for alpha scattering experiments.

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Si
A) 500 atoms B) 1000 atoms C) 900 atoms D) 700 atoms

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Q12. Why does the milkman add a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk?
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Pr

A) To reduce the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly more acidic

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B) To increase the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline

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C) To maintain the pH of the fresh milk at 6 for a longer time

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D) To reduce the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline

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Q13. If a bar magnet is hung from a string, in which direction does its north pole point?
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A) West B) North C) East D) South

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Q14. In the Right-Hand Thumb Rule, the thumb is directed towards the direction of:

A) current B) electric field C) motion of the conductor D) magnetic field

Q15. Which type of radiation has very short (<10–3 nm) wavelengths, produced by nuclear explosions, lightning and less

dramatic activity of radioactive decay?

A) Gamma B) Infra-red C) Microwave D) Ultraviolet

Q16. Name the phenomenon where an opaque object on the path of light becomes very small and where light has a
tendency to bend around it and not walk in a straight line.

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 A) Reflection of light B) Diffraction of light C) Angle of refraction D) Angle of incidence

Q17. Which of the following two quantities have the same dimensions?

A) Work and torque B) Power and moment of inertia C) Work and angular displacement

D) Power and radius of circular motion

Q18. In the context of periodicity, a unit called picometre is used to measure the __________.

A) atomic radius B) molar mass C) atomic density D) spin quantum number

Q19. What happens when two forces act in the opposite directions on an object?

A) The net force acting on the object is the difference between the two objects.

B) The net force acting on the object is the difference between the two forces.

C) The net force acting on the object is the total of the two forces.

D) The net force acting on the object is the sum of the two objects.

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Si
ap
Q20. A dense mass of water drops on smoke or dust particles in the lower atmosphere layers is referred to as:
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A) mist B) blizzard C) frost D) smog
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Q21. Identify the INCORRECT pair regarding motion and their examples?
an
ag

A) Translatory motion – A ball falling from the cliff B) Periodic motion – Hands of a clock
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C) Oscillatory motion – Earth moving around the sun D) Rotatory motion – blades of a fan
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Q22. What was the name of the wind measuring instrument invented for the first time in 1450?
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A) Transmissometer B) Dropsonde C) Anemometer D) Ceiling Projector

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Q23. A javelin thrown by an athlete is in ________ motion.

A) oscillatory B) periodic C) rectilinear D) curvilinear

Q24. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy?

A) Joule B) Calorie C) Newton D) Kilowatt hour

Q25. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A) Light year is the unit of distance. B) Light year is the distance travelled by light in one year.

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 C) Light year is the unit of time. D) Angstrom is unit of length.

Q26. What is the unit of specific resistance?

A) Farad B) Ampere C) Coulomb D) Ohm meter

Q27. Which famous experiment was done by Michael Faraday in 1831?

A) Discovery of quantum magnetometers B) Discovery of law of elasticity

C) Discovery of electromagnetic induction D) Discovery of natural radioactivity

Q28. What is the unit of measurement for optical power of the lens?

A) Yotta B) Katal C) Radian D) Diopter

Q29. What is the SI unit of current?

A) Ohm B) Ampere C) Metre D) Volt

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Chemistry
ap
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Q1. Which two organic chemists are known for observing the peroxide effect in adding reagents to unsaturated
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compounds in 1933?
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A) Morris S Kharasch and Frank R Mayo B) C John Cadogan and Luis M Campos
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C) B Steven Bachrach and Roald Hoffmann D) Justus von Liebig and Friedrich Wöhler
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Q2. In which musical note did Newland put the metals Co and Ni with halogens?
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A) Fa B) Do C) Re D) Mi
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Q3. An organic reaction used to convert an aryl diazonium salt into an aryl halide using a copper(I) halide catalyst is
called:

A) Finkelstein reaction B) Gattermann reaction C) Sandmeyer reaction D) Balz-Schiemann reaction

Q4. Which of the following has the highest salinity?

A) Great salt lake B) Lake Van C) Red sea D) Dead sea

Q5. What is the IUPAC name of tertiarybutyl alcohol?

A) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol B) 1-propylpropan-3-ol C) 1-Methylpropan-3-ol D) 1-ethylpropan-3-ol

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Q6. Which of the following decomposition reactions is NOT a redox reaction?

A) Decomposition of dihydrogen monoxide B) Decomposition of sodium hydride

C) Decomposition of potassium chlorate D) Decomposition of calcium carbonate

Q7. Palladium on barium sulphate (Pd/BaSO4) is also known as:

A) a Hillman reaction catalyst B) a Cannizzaro reaction catalyst C) the Rosenmund catalyst

D) an aldol reaction catalyst

Q8. The decomposition of gaseous Ammonia on a hot platinum surface is a _______________ order reaction at high
pressure.

A) two B) zero C) three D) one

Q9. The type of reaction that is typically found when a material that is required for the reaction to proceed, such as a

surface or a catalyst, is saturated by the reactants is called a __________ order reaction.

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Si
A) first B) second C) zero D) third

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Q10. When haloalkanes and aryl and vinyl halides react with magnesium metal they yield which reagent?
at
Pr

A) Hinsberg reagent B) Grignard reagent C) Tollens’ reagent D) Fehling reagent

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Q11. Which of the following is a correct order of basicity?

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A) LiOH>NaOH>KOH>CsOH B) LiOH>KOH>CsOH>NaOH C) KOH>CsOH>NaOH>LiOH

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D) CsOH>KOH>NaOH>LiOH
By
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Q12. Who developed the theory of combustion as a chemical reaction with oxygen in the 18th century, that excluded
at

phlogiston theory?
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A) Antoine Lavoisier B) Robert Boyle C) Friedrich Wöhler D) Johann Becher

Q13. What is the salinity of the Dead Sea (per litre of water)?

A) 440 grams B) 240 grams C) 340 grams D) 390 grams

Q14. When you take Lead nitrate powder in a boiling tube and heat it, you will observe the emission of brown fumes
that are of _____________________.

A) Nitrous oxide B) Nitric oxide C) Nitrogen dioxide D) Dinitrogen trioxide

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Q15. As per Mendeleev’s prediction, atomic mass of eka-aluminium was:

A) 100 B) 44 C) 72 D) 68

Q16. For a chemical reaction with rise in temperature by 10°, the rate constant becomes nearly ____________________.

A) Double B) Triple C) one-fourth D) half

Q17. Grignard reagent is represented as:

A) CH3-Ca-F B) CH3-Be-F C) CH3-Mg-Cl D) H-Mg-H

Q18. What was Antoine-Laurent Lavoisier's most important contribution to chemistry in 1789?

A) Law of Conservation of Mass B) Law of Multiple Proportions C) Law of Definite Proportions

D) Law of Conservation of Energy

Q19. Calculate the oxidation number of ‘S’ in H2S2O7 .

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A) 3 B) 7 C) 6 D) 2

Q20. Which of the following is the most acidic?

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A) HCOOH B) C2H5COOH C) C3H7COOH D) CH3COOH

an

Q21.
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By

A) 40 B) 72 C) 53 D) 25
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Q22. Which allotrope of carbon was discovered by Robert F Curl, Harold W Kroto and Richard E Smalley in 1985?
at

A) Graphene B) Lonsdaleite C) Carbophene D) Fullerene

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Q23. To which group do the alkaline earth metals such as radium, barium and strontium belong?

A) Group 5A B) Group 2A C) Group 1A D) Group 3A

Q24. According to Mendeleev's Periodic Table, which elements’ properties matched up remarkably well with eka-

silicon?

A) Gallium B) Scandium C) Titanium D) Germanium

Q25. When electricity is passed through water, what kind of chemical reaction occurs?

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 A) Decomposition B) Displacement C) Double displacement D) Combination

Q26. Which among the following is NOT a classification criterion of drugs?

A) Chemical structure B) Molecular target C) Behavioural condition D) Pharmacological effect

Q27. Which of the following gases plays an important role in welding titanium, aluminium, stainless steel, and
magnesium?

A) Fluorine B) Neon C) Argon D) Chlorine

Q28. Which of the following is a straight-chain alkyl carboxylic acid with the chemical formula CH3CH2CH2CO2H?

A) Methanoic acid B) Propionic acid C) Ethanoic acid D) Butyric acid

Q29. In Newlands’ Octaves, the properties of lithium and ________ were found to be the same.

A) sodium B) aluminium C) magnesium D) beryllium

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Q30. Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

A) Methane B) Carbon dioxide ap

C) Nitrous oxide D) Nitric oxide
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Pr

Q31. Which polyatomic ionic compound is a white, crystalline powder used in fire extinguishers and to neutralise acids
an

and bases?
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A) Sodium Bisulphite B) Sodium Thiosulphate C) Sodium Chromate D) Sodium Bicarbonate

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Q32. Which of the following statements are true based on the 4NH3(g)+5O2(g)→4NO(g)+6H2O(g)?
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(a) N gets oxidized.

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(b) O gets oxidized.

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(c) N gets reduced.

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(d) O gets reduced.

A) (a) and (d) B) (a) and (b) C) (c) and (d) D) (b) and (c)

Q33. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding water remaining colder in an earthen pot (matka)?

A) Water gets evaporated at the surface of the earthen pot. B) The earthen pot is porous.

C) Environmental water vapour enters the pot through pores.

D) The water oozes out through the pores in an earthen pot.

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Q34. A chemical reaction in which the rate of reaction is directly proportional to the first power of the concentration of

the reacting substance is called:

A) zero order reaction B) third order reaction C) second order reaction D) first order reaction

Q35. How many carbon dioxide and water molecules will be there in the product side, if the following equation is made
balanced?

C2H5OH+O2→CO2+H2O

A) 3 and 6, respectively B) 1 and 1, respectively C) 2 and 3, respectively D) 3 and 2, respectively

Q36. Name the straight chain alkane having chemical formula C9H20, which is used as a research chemical and in
making biodegradable detergents.

A) Nonane B) Dodecane C) Nonadecane D) Icosane

Q37. Transition elements are the elements that are found in Groups 3-12 of the modern periodic table, that constitute
the _____.

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A) d-block B) s-block C) p-block D) f-block
ap
at
Q38. Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon?
Pr

A) C3H8 B) C6H6 C) C2H4 D) C4H8

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Q39. NDP = _________.

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A) GDP – Depreciation B) GDP + Depreciation C) GDP – Net factor income from abroad
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D) GDP + Net factor income from abroad

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Q40. Which of the following is NOT a physical change?

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A) Heating of iron rod to red hot B) Curdling of milk C) Evaporation of diesel D) Sublimation of NH4Cl

Q41. Which acid is used as a souring agent added to vinegar, pickled vegetables, and sauces, and as a raw material for
seasoning?

A) Citric acid B) Acetic acid C) Tartaric acid D) Formic acid

Q42. The cause of a redox reaction is the:

A) transfer of electrons between two reactants B) transfer of electrons between two products

C) transfer of neutrons between two reactants D) exchange of halogens between two reactants

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Q43. Identify a monoatomic molecule.

A) carbon monoxide B) Oxygen C) Helium D) Chlorine

Q44. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?.

A) Lactose: Milk B) Starch: Egg yolk C) Fructose: Grapes D) Maltose: Wheat, cornmeal and barley

Q45. What is the gas evolved when zinc reacts with sulphuric acid?

A) Hydrogen B) Oxygen C) Carbon dioxide D) Hydrogen sulphide

Q46.

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ap
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Pr

A) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c B) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a C) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d D) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
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Q47. Which of the following gases get released when dilute sulphuric acid (H2SO4) reacts with magnesium (Mg)?
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A) SO3 B) SO2 C) O2 D) H2
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By

Q48. What is the product formed when zinc and sulphuric acid react?
hs

A) Zinc sulphate B) Zinc hydroxide C) Zinc sulphide D) Zinc oxide

at
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Q49. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?

A) Iron B) Oxygen C) Sodium D) Silicon

Q50. Which gas is evolved when iron and water react?

A) Hydrogen B) Oxygen C) Ammonia D) Methane

Q51. Which of the following is NOT a halogen gas?

A) F B) He C) Cl D) Br

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Q52. ‘Au’ is the symbol for which of the following elements?

A) Gold B) Aluminium C) Silver D) Argon

Q53. Which number is called Avogadro's constant, named after the 19th century scientist Amedeo Avogadro?

A) 6.022 × 1023 B) 6.020 × 1020 C) 6.032 × 1019 D) 6.012 × 1021

Q54. Which of the following chemical reactions takes place when quick lime reacts with water?

A) CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca + H2(aq) B) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) C) CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq)

D) CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)

Q55. Identify the structural formula for magnesium hydroxide.

A) MgOH B) MgO2 C) Mg2H2 D) Mg(OH)2

Biology

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Q1. The growth form of a plant, comprising its size, shape and orientation is known as:
ap
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A) habit B) environment C) habitat D) growth pattern
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Q2. Hubbardia heptaneuron, which has become endangered, is a species of which of the following?
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A) Grass B) Bamboo C) Tiger D) Crane

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Q3. What kind of phyllotaxy was examined in the Guava plant?

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A) Superimposed B) Whorled C) Alternate D) Opposite

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Q4. The headquarters of the second Green Revolution cell was in ________.
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A) Raipur B) Patna C) Kolkata D) Bhubaneswar

Q5. Which species is known as black lipped pearl oyster found in the Indo-Pacific, within tropical coral reefs?

A) Aplysia dactylomela B) Dentalium neohexagonum C) Chaetopleura apiculata

D) Pinctada margaritifera

Q6.

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 A) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d B) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d C) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a D) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

Q7. The green revolution technology resulted in an increase in production of cereal production from 72.4 million tons in
1965-66 to ________ million tons in 1978-79.

A) 150.8 B) 165.9 C) 131.9 D) 141.2

Q8. Which of the following is NOT a member of the Aves (birds) class?

A) Psittacula B) Neophron C) Pteropus D) Struthio

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Q9. Which types of gametes are found in Spirogyra?

A) Isogamous and flagellated B) Heterogamous and non-flagellated

ap C) Heterogamous and flagellated
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D) Isogamous and non-flagellated
Pr
an

Q10. Which of the following categories does Gonyaulax belong to?

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A) Euglenoids B) Chrysophytes C) Protozoans D) Dinoflagellates

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By

Q11. In the context of cell division, which chromosomal behaviour takes place at the leptotene stage?
hs

A) Chromosomes are un-synapsed B) Synapsis is complete C) Homologous chromosomes pair

at

D) Chromosomes begin to condense

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Q12. Which marine carotenoid is abundant in brown seaweed, macroalgae and diatoms?

A) Fucoxanthin B) Astaxanthin C) Neoxanthin D) β-cryptoxanthin

Q13. Which law states that endothermic animals from cold climates have smaller extremities or appendages than
closely related species from warm climates?

A) Harper’s rule B) Reich's rule C) Allen's rule D) Moller’s rule

Q14. Which of the following is the best definition of ecological efficiency?

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 A) The amount of energy utilised at different trophic levels in a food chain

B) The amount of energy stored at different trophic levels in a food chain

C) The ratio between the mass and the energy flow at different trophic levels in a food chain

D) The ratio between energy flows at different points in a food chain

Q15. What do we mean by Allen’s rule?

A) Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss.

Desert lizards lack the physiological ability that mammals have to deal with the high temperatures of
B)
their habitat.

Some plants have no leaves – they are reduced to spines – and the photosynthetic function is taken
C)
over by the flattened stems.

The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production, decreasing the
D)
binding affinity of haemoglobin and by increasing the breathing rate.

r
Q16. Which essential amino acid enhances calcium absorption and also plays an important role in the formation of

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collagen?

A) Arginine B) Tyrosine C) Lysine

ap D) Histidine
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Pr

Q17. Which of the following is related to neem?

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A) Tendril B) Palmately C) Pinnately D) Spines

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G

Q18. What is the reason for the similar size of the vascular bundle in monocot leaves?
By

A) Cubical venation B) Radial venation C) Rectangular venation D) Parallel venation

hs

Q19. Which of the following options indicates the size of PPLO (Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms)?
at
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A) About 30 µm B) About 20 µm C) About 0.1 µm D) About 10 µm

Q20. What is the name of the inflammatory condition that causes cracks, crusting and scaling at the corners of the
mouth due to vitamin B2 deficiency?

A) Cheilosis B) Psoriasis C) Urticaria D) Atopic dermatitis

Q21. Which of the following is responsible for the red colour of beetroot?

A) Curcumin B) Betanin C) Beta carotene D) Lycopene

Q22. Which of the following is an inactivated (killed) polio vaccine developed in 1952?
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 A) Salk vaccine B) Imvanex vaccine C) HDCV vaccine D) TAB vaccine

Q23. Find out why white silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.

A) Due to rusting of silver in presence of oxygen B) Due to redox reaction

C) Due to the decomposition of silver chloride into silver and chlorine by light

D) Due to the displacement of silver chloride to silver oxide

Q24. Which of the following does NOT belong to the category of Porifera?

A) Hydra B) Sycon C) Spongilla D) Euplectella

Q25. Which of the following classes includes the family of turtles?

A) Chondrichthyes B) Reptilia C) Amphibia D) Aves

Q26. Which of the following illustrations is related to chloroplasts?

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ap
at
Pr

A) a B) c C) d D) b
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ag

Q27. Who published Systema Naturae in 1735 classifying the three kingdoms of nature and outlining the sexual system
G

for the classification of plants?

By

A) Carl Woese B) Robert Whittaker C) Ernst Haeckel D) Carolus Linnaeus

hs
at

Q28. Which cell organelle is defined as the small round organelle that undergoes oxidation reaction to produce
M

hydrogen peroxide?

A) Centrosome B) Vacuole C) Nucleus D) Peroxisomes

Q29. The organisms that do not have a defined nucleus or organelles are classified in to _______ Kingdom.

A) Fungi B) Protista C) Monera D) Plantae

Q30. Name a common electrolyte disorder that occurs when the amount of sodium in your blood becomes abnormally

low.

A) Hyperkalemia B) Hypokalemia C) Hyponatremia D) Hypernatremia

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Q31. What is the other name of tetanus caused by toxin producing bacteria called clostridium tetani?

A) Lockjaw B) Snap jaw C) Cleft jaw D) Broken jaw

Q32. By which of the following methods do red algae reproduce?

A) Grafting B) Cutting C) Micropropagation D) Fragmentation

Q33. Which of the following statements best defines the monoecious?

A) A flower with both androecium and gynoecium B) A flower with dithecous

C) A flower with gynoecium only D) A flower with androecium only

Q34. Which of the following characteristics is NOT of Aves?

A) They have four-chambered heart.

B) They give birth to live young ones with some exceptions those lay eggs.

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C) These are warm-blooded animals. D) They breathe through the lungs

Si
Q35. What are the five Fs of indirect transmission? ap
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A) Flies, fingers, fomites, food and fluid B) Fruit, fingers, flu, food and fluid
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C) Flies, fingers, friends, food and fruit D) Flies, fingers, fomites, food and fruit
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ag

Q36. Which is a serious contagious bacterial infection that usually affects the mucous membranes of the nose and
G

throat?
By

A) Meningococcal B) Diphtheria C) Shigellosis D) Chlamydia

hs

Q37. How many chambers are there in the heart of fishes?

at

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 3
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Q38. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A) Fats and oils get reduced over time and smell bad. B) Fats and oils are oxidised, they become rancid.

C) Antioxidants are added to foods containing fats and oil to prevent oxidation.

Chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with Nitrogen to prevent the chips from getting
D)
ranicid.

Q39. Identify a spiral-shaped bacteria.

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 A) Bacillus B) Spirillum C) Coccus D) Vibrio

Q40. Which of the following is an example of Phylum Arthropoda?

A) Nereis B) Butterfly C) Hirudinaria D) Pila

Q41. Which of the following is a non-perishable food?

A) Pulses B) Meat C) Curds D) Milk

Q42. Which of the following is an example of prokaryotic cells?

A) Plasmodium B) Leishmania C) Yeast D) Bacteria

Q43.

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ap
at
Pr

A) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a B) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d C) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d D) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
an

Q44. Which of the following options is associated with the class of cold-blooded animals?
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A) Chameleon B) Pavo C) Macropus D) Psittacula

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By

Q45. Which of the following researchers observed densely stained reticular structures surrounding the nucleus (Hint:
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Figure)?
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A) William Harvey B) Francis Crick C) Camillo Golgi D) Louis Pasteur

Q46. Which is the most important protein component in milk, both quantitatively and nutritionally, that accounts for

about 80% of the total protein in bovine milk?

A) Actin B) Albumin C) Pepsin D) Casein

Q47. Which of the following is a characteristic of both mammals and birds?

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 A) Viviparity B) Pigmented skin C) Pneumatic bones D) Warm blooded

Q48. Which of the following is NOT a component of a flower?

A) Androecium B) Corolla C) Spines D) Calyx

Q49. Which of the following are the two basic categories of an ecosystem?

A) Forest and Aquatic B) Terrestrial and Aquatic C) Lakes and Ponds D) Forest and Rivers

Q50.

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A) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d B) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a C) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d D) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

Q51. Which set of diseases are caused by bacteria?

ap
at
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A) Influenza, Dengue, Cholera B) Typhoid, Cholera, Tuberculosis C) Dengue, Malaria, Cholera

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D) Malaria, Common cold, Influenza

ag

Q52. Microbes like Rhizobium, Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are used for:
G

A) nitrogen cycling B) carbon cycling C) water cycling D) sulphur cycling

By
hs

Q53. Filtration of waste products in humans happens in the kidneys. There is a large number of filtration units present
at

inside the kidneys to help them in doing this job. These filtration units are called:
M

A) Bowman’s capsules B) nephrons C) capillaries D) alveoli

Q54. Which organisms are classified as Aves?

A) Fishes B) Frogs C) Snakes D) Birds

Q55. Digestion of food is an important function of the animal body. In animals like lions, cows, humans, etc., the

process involves use of various organs starting from the mouth and ending with the anus. The longest part of this canal
is known as the ________.

A) stomach B) large intestine C) oesophagus D) small intestine

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Q56. Which condition, also known as icterus, causes a yellowing of your skin and the whites of your eyes?

A) Ichthyosis B) Jaundice C) Eczema D) Pemphigus

Q57. Which of the following can be represented as a functional unit of nature?

A) Vehicles B) Ecosystem C) Humans D) Plants

Q58. Which branch of ecology deals with the characteristics of ancient environment and their relationship with ancient
plants and animals?

A) Demecology B) Ichthyology C) Paleoecology D) Mycology

Q59. Which of the following Illustrations shows the mitochondrion’s structural details?

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A) d B) b C) c D) a

Q60. Which of the following is another name of vitamin C?

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A) Pyridoxine B) Pyridoxal C) Pyridoxamine D) Ascorbic acid

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Q61. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

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A) Nucleus: Lipid metabolism B) Lysosomes: Suicidal bags C) Mitochondria: Power house of the cell
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D) Ribosomes: Protein factory

By
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Q62. Which of the following is a man-made ecosystem?

at

A) Aquarium B) Dessert C) Forest D) Grassland

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Q63. Which of the following plants is used to cure cold and cough?

A) Tulsi B) Babool C) Jamun D) Arjun

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