09/12/2023 Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : System of Particles and Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties
of Fluids
Chemistry : Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Redox Reactions and Volumetric Analysis
Mathematics : Binomial Theorem, Permutations and Combinations, Statistics, Derivatives

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

i. Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
ii. Section-II : This section contains 10 numerical value based questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
CC-034

PHYSICS

Section-I

1. 2. Pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1.01

and 1.02 atmosphere, respectively. The ratio
of their volumes is
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 0.8 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
Shown in the figure is rigid and uniform one
meter long rod AB held in horizontal position (4) 8 : 1
by two strings tied to its ends and attached to
the ceiling. The rod is of mass ‘m’ and has
another weight of mass 2 m hung at a
distance of 75 cm from A. The tension in the
string at A is
(1) 0.5 mg
(2) 2 mg
(3) 0.75 mg
(4) 1 mg

1
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

3. The variation of acceleration due to gravity 5. Two steel wires having same length are
(g) with distance (r) from the center of the suspended from a ceiling under the same
earth is correctly represented by load. If the ratio of their energy stored per
(Given R = radius of earth) unit volume is 1 : 4, the ratio of their
(1) diameters is
(1) √– 2 : 1

(2) 2 : 1
–
(3) 1 : √2

(4) 1 : 2

6. A sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is

rolling with an initial speed of 1 ms–1 goes
(2) up an inclined plane which makes an angle
of 30° with the horizontal plane, without
slipping. How long will the sphere take to
return to the starting point A?

(1) 0.60 s
(3) (2) 0.80 s
(3) 0.57 s
(4) 0.52 s

7. Two objects of equal masses placed at

certain distance from each other attracts
each other with a force of F. If one-third mass
of one object is transferred to the other
object, then the new force will be
(4) CC-034 (1) 2 F
9

(2) 16
F
9

(3) 8
F
9

(4) F

8. Four particles each of mass M, move along a

circle of radius R under the action of their
mutual gravitational attraction as shown in
4. The approximate height from the surface of figure. The speed of each particle is
earth at which the weight of the body
1
becomes 3 of its weight on the surface of
earth is
[Radius of earth R = 6400 km and
–
√3 = 1.732 ]

(1) 3840 km
−−−−−−−
(2) 4685 km (1) 1 GM
√
2 R(2√2+1)
(3) 2133 km
−−−−−−−−−−
(4) 4267 km (2) 1 GM –
√ (2√2– 1)
2 R

−−−
(3) GM
√
R

−−−−−−−−−−−
(4) 1 GM –
√ (2√2 + 1)
2 R

2
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

9. Four equal masses, m each are placed at 11. A cylindrical vessel containing a liquid is
the corners of a square of length (l) as rotated about its axis so that the liquid rises
shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of at its sides as shown in the figure. The
the system about an axis passing through A radius of vessel is 5 cm and the angular
and parallel to DB would be: speed of rotation is ω rad s–1 . The difference
in the height, h (in cm) of liquid at the centre
of vessel and at the side will be

(1) 3 ml2
(2) 2 ml2
–
(3) √3 ml
2

(4) ml2

(1) 2ω
2

10. Given below are two statements: one is

25 g
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R (2) 5ω
2

Assertion A : A spherical body of radius (5 2g

± 0.1) mm having a particular density is (3) 2ω

2

falling through a liquid of constant density. 5g

The percentage error in the calculation of its (4) 25ω
2

terminal velocity is 4%. 2 g

Reason R : The terminal velocity of the
spherical body falling through the liquid is
inversely proportional to its radius. 12. Two satellites A and B of masses 200 kg and
In the light of the above statements, choose CC-034 400 kg are revolving round the earth at
the correct answer from the options given height of 600 km and 1600 km respectively.
below If TA and TB are the time periods of A and B
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the respectively then the value of TB – TA :
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

[Given : radius of earth = 6400 km, mass of

earth = 6 × 1024 kg]
(1) 4.24 × 102 s
(2) 1.33 × 103 s
(3) 4.24 × 103 s
(4) 3.33 × 102 s

3
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

13. 16. The solid cylinder of length 80 cm and mass

M has a radius of 20 cm. Calculate the
density of the material used if the moment of
inertia of the cylinder about an axis CD
parallel to AB as shown in figure is 2.7 kg
m2 .
The figure shows a liquid of given density
flowing steadily in horizontal tube of varying
cross-section. Cross-sectional areas at A is
1.5 cm2 , and B is 25 mm2 , if the speed of
liquid at B is 60 cm/s then (PA – PB ) is
(Given PA and PB are liquid pressures at A
and B points. Density ρ = 1000 kg m–3 A and
B are on the axis of tube)
(1) 135 Pa (1) 7.5 × 101 kg/m3
(2) 27 Pa (2) 1.49 × 102 kg/m3
(3) 175 Pa (3) 7.5 × 102 kg/m3
(4) 36 Pa (4) 14.9 kg/m3

14. Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 5 kg are

17.
connected by a metal wire going over a
smooth pulley. The breaking stress of the
24 2 −2
metal is π × 10 Nm . What is the
minimum radius of the wire?
(take g = 10 ms–2 )

Two liquids of densities ρ1 and ρ2 (ρ2 = 2ρ1 )

CC-034 are filled up behind a square wall of side 10
m as shown in figure. Each liquid has a
height of 5 m. The ratio of the forces due to
these liquids exerted on upper part MN to
that at the lower part NO is (Assume that the
liquids are not mixing)
(1) 1250 cm (1) 1/4
(2) 125 cm (2) 1/2
(3) 1.25 cm (3) 2/3
(4) 12.5 cm (4) 1/3

15. Two narrow bores of diameter 5.0 mm and

8.0 mm are joined together to form a U-
shaped tube open at both ends. If this U-
tube contains water, what is the difference in
the level of two limbs of the tube?
[Take surface tension of water T = 7.3 × 10–2
Nm–1 , angle of contact = 0, g = 10 ms–2 and
density of water = 1.0 × 103 kg m–3 ]
(1) 2.19 mm
(2) 3.62 mm
(3) 5.34 mm
(4) 4.97 mm

4
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

18. A solid cylinder of mass m is wrapped with 20. An L- shaped object, made of thin rods of
an inextensible light string and, is placed on uniform mass density, is suspended with a
a rough inclined plane as shown in the string as shown in figure. If AB = BC, and the
figure. The frictional force acting between angle made by AB with downward vertical is
the cylinder and the inclined plane is θ, then

(1) tan θ =
1

(2) tan θ =
2

√3

(3) tan θ =
1

[The coefficient of static friction, μs, is 0.4] (4) 1

tan θ =
(1) 0 2√3

(2) 5 mg
(3) 7
mg
2

(4) mg

19. A body is projected vertically upwards from

the surface of earth with a velocity sufficient
enough to carry it to infinity. The time taken
by it to reach height h is ______________.
(1) −−−
3

CC-034
2Re h 2
√ [ (1 + ) − 1]
g Re

(2) −
−−
3

1 Re h 2

√ [ (1 + ) − 1]
3 2g Re

(3) −
−−
3

Re h 2

√ [ (1 + ) − 1]
2g Re

(4) −−−
3

1 2Re h 2
√ [ (1 + ) − 1]
3 g Re

Section-II

21. A square aluminium (shear modulus is 25 ×

109 Nm–2 ) slab of side 60 cm and thickness
15 cm is subjected to a shearing force (on its
narrow face) of 18.0 × 104 N. The lower
edge is riveted to the floor. The displacement
of the upper edge is ______μm.

5
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

22. A thin rod of mass 0.9 kg and length 1 m is 26. A uniform disc with mass M = 4 kg and
suspended, at rest, from one end so that it radius R = 10 cm is mounted on a fixed
can freely oscillate in the vertical plane. A horizontal axle as shown in figure. A block
particle of move 0.1 kg moving in a straight with mass m = 2 kg hangs from a massless
line with velocity 80 m/s hits the rod at its cord that is wrapped around the rim of the
bottom most point and sticks to it (see disc. During the fall of the block, the cord
figure). The angular speed (in rad/s) of the does not slip and there is no friction at the
rod immediately after the collision will be axle. The tension in the cord is _____ N.
________ . (Take g = 10 ms–2 )

23. The diameter of an air bubble which was

initially 2 mm, rises steadily through a
solution of density 1750 kg m–3 at the rate of
0.35 cms–1 . The coefficient of viscosity of the
solution is _______ poise (in nearest
integer). (The density of air is negligible).

24. If the acceleration due to gravity

experienced by a point mass at a height h 27. Wires W1 and W2 are made of same
above the surface of earth is same as that of material having the breaking stress of 1.25 ×
the acceleration due to gravity at a depth αh 109 N/m2 . W1 and W2 have cross-sectional
(h <<Re ) from the earth surface. The value area of 8 × 10–7 m2 and 4 × 10–7 m2 ,
of α will be ________. respectively. Masses of 20 kg and 10 kg
(Use Re = 6400 km) hang from them as shown in the figure. The
maximum mass that can be placed in the
25. Consider a water tank as shown in the pan without breaking the wires is ––– kg.
figure. It's cross-sectional area is 0.4 m2 . The (Use g = 10 m/s2 )
tank has an opening B near the bottom
CC-034
whose cross-section area is 1 cm2 . A load of
24 kg is applied on the water at the top when
the height of the water level is 40 cm above
the bottom, the velocity of water coming out
the opening B is ν ms–1 . The value of ν, to
the nearest integer, is _____.
[Take value of g to be 10 ms–2 ]

28. The radius in kilometer to which the present

radius of earth (R = 6400 km) to be
compressed so that the escape velocity is
increased 10 times is ________.

6
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

29. A body of mass (2M) splits into four masses

{m, M – m, m, M – m}, which are rearranged
to form a square as shown in the figure. The
M
ratio of m for which, the gravitational
potential energy of the system becomes
maximum is x : 1. The value of x is –––––––.

a
30. A square shaped hole of side l = is
2
a
carved out at a distance d =
2
from the
centre ‘O’ of a uniform circular disk of radius
a. If the distance of the centre of mass of the
a
remaining portion from O is – X , value of X
(to the nearest integer) is __________.

CC-034

7
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

31. Enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is 34. The true statement amongst the following is
24 cal g
−1
at 200°C. If specific heat of I2 (s) (1) S is not a function of temperature but
and I2 (vap) are 0.055 and 0.031 cal g–1 K–1 ΔS is a function of temperature
respectively, then enthalpy of sublimation of (2) S is a function of temperature but ΔS is
iodine at 250°C in cal g–1 is: not a function of temperature
(1) 11.4 (3) Both ΔS and S are functions of
temperature
(2) 2.85
(4) Both S and ΔS are not functions of
(3) 5.7 temperature
(4) 22.8
35. (A) HOCl + H2 O2 → H3 O+ + CI– + O2
32. For the equilibrium A ⇌ B, the variation of
the rate of the forward (a) and reverse (b) (B) I2 + H2 O2 + 2 OH– → 2 I– + 2 H2 O + O2
reaction with time is given by Choose the correct option.
(1) (1) H2 O2 acts as oxidising agent in
equations (A) and (B).
(2) H2 O2 act as oxidizing and reducing
agent respectively in equations (A) and
(B).
(3) H2 O2 acts as reducing agent in
(2) equations (A) and (B).
(4) H2 O2 acts as reducing and oxidising
agent respectively in equations (A) and
CC-034 (B).

36. For silver, Cp (JK–1 mol–1 ) = 23 + 0.01T. If the

temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised
(3) from 300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the
value of ΔH will be close to
(1) 21 kJ
(2) 13 kJ
(3) 62 kJ
(4) 16 kJ
(4)
37. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal
compression from 5 m3 to 1 m3 against a
constant external pressure of 4 Nm-2 . Heat
released in this process is used to increase
the temperature of 1 mole of Al. If molar heat
capacity of Al is 24 J mol-1 K-1 , the
temperature of Al increases by:
33. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of (1) 1 K
each of FeC2 O4 , Fe2 (C2 O4 )3 , FeSO4 and (2) 2 K
Fe2 (SO4 )3 in acidic medium, the number of (3) 3 K
moles of KMnO4 required is 2

(1) 1.5 (4) 2

K
3

(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1

8
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

38. An example of a disproportionation reaction 43. Consider the following reaction :

is: N2 O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g); ΔHo = + 58 kJ
(1) 2M nO– + 10I– + 16H+→ 2Mn2+ + 5I For each of the following cases (a, b), the
4 2
+ 8H2 O direction in which the equilibrium shifts is :
(a) Temperature is decreased
(2) 2CuBr → CuBr2 + Cu (b) Pressure is increased by adding N2 at
(3) 2KMnO4 → K2 MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 constant T and V
(4) 2NaBr + Cl2 → 2NaCl + Br2 (1) (a) Towards product, (b) towards
reactant
(2) (a) Towards reactant, (b) no change
39. What is the molar solubility of Al(OH)3 in 0.2
(3) (a) Towards reactant, (b) towards
M NaOH solution? Given that, solubility
product
product of Al(OH)3 = 2.4 × 10–24 :
(4) (a) Towards product, (b) no change
(1) 3 × 10–19
(2) 12 × 10–21 44. 200 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL
(3) 12 × 10–23 of 0.01 M H2 SO4 . The pH of the mixture is
______.
(4) 3 × 10–22
[Given log 2 = 0.30, log 3 = 0. 48, log 5 =
0.70, log7 = 0.84, log 11 = 1.04.]
40. 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is needed to (1) 1.14
neutralize 25 mL of sodium hydroxide (2) 1.78
solution. The amount of NaOH in 50 mL of
(3) 2.34
the given sodium hydroxide solution is
(4) 3.02
(1) 10 g
(2) 4 g
45. In the reaction of oxalate with permanganate
(3) 20 g
in acidic medium, the number of electrons
(4) 80 g involved in producing one molecule of CO2
is
41. The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a (1) 1
chemical reaction at an absolute (2) 10
temperature T is given by
ΔrG° = A – BT CC-034 (3) 2
Where A and B are non-zero constants. (4) 5
Which of the following is true about this
reaction? 46. A compound ‘X’ is a weak acid and it
(1) Exothermic if B < 0 exhibits colour change at pH close to the
(2) Endothermic if A > 0 equivalence point during neutralization of
NaOH with CH3 COOH. Compound ‘X’ exists
(3) Endothermic if A < 0 and B > 0
in ionized from in basic medium. The
(4) Exothermic if A > 0 and B < 0 compound ‘X’ is
(1) Methyl orange
42. Consider the reaction (2) Methyl red
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)
(3) Phenolphthalein
The equilibrium constant of the above
reaction is KP. If pure ammonia is left to (4) Eriochrome Black T
dissociate, the partial pressure of ammonia
at equilibrium is given by 47. Oxidation number of potassium in K2 O,
(Assume that PNH << Ptotal at equilibrium) K2 O2 and KO2 , respectively, is
2

(1) Kρ
1/2
P
2 (1) +1, +2 and +4
4
(2) +2, +1 and + 1
2
(2) 3/2
1/2
2
3 K
P
P
(3) +1, +4 and +2
16
(4) +1, +1 and + 1
(3) Kρ
1/2
P
2

16

(4) 3
3/2
Kp
1/2
P
2

9
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

48. 25 mL of the given HCl solution requires 30 50. For the following Assertion and Reason,
mL of 0.1 M sodium carbonate solution. the correct option is
What is the volume of this HCl solution Assertion :The pH of water increases with
required to titrate 30 mL of 0.2 M aqueous increase in temperature.
NaOH solution? Reason : The dissociation of water into H+
(1) 25 mL and OH– is an exothermic reaction.
(2) 12.5 mL (1) Both assertion and reason are false
(3) 50 mL (2) Assertion is not true, but reason is true
(4) 75 mL (3) Both assertion and reason are true,
and the reason is the correct
explanation for the assertion
49. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true, but
List-I List-II
the reason is not the correct
Spontaneous explanation for the assertion
(A) (I) ΔH < 0
process
Process with
(B) ΔP = 0, ΔT = (II) ΔGT,P < 0
0
Isothermal and
(C) ΔHreaction (III)
isobaric process
[Bond energies of
molecules in
Exothermic
(D) (IV) reactants] – [Bond
Process
energies of product
molecules]
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
CC-034

Section-II

51. The magnitude of work done by a gas (in J) 53. The neutralization occurs when 10 mL of 0.1
that undergoes reversible expansion along M acid ‘A’ is allowed to react with 30 mL of
the path ABC shown in the figure is 0.05 M base M(OH)2 . The basicity of the acid
_____________. ‘A’ is _________.
[M is a metal]

54. For a reaction

X +Y ⇌ 2Z ,

1.0 mol of X, 1.5 mol of Y and 0.5 mol of Z

were taken in a 1 L vessel and allowed to
react. At equilibrium, the concentration of Z
was 1.0 mol L–1 . The equilibrium constant of
x
the reaction is ______ 15 . The value of x is
_______.

52. See the following chemical reaction: 55. At constant volume, 4 mol of an ideal gas
2− + 2+ 3+
when heated from 300 K to 500 K changes
Cr2 O +X H + 6F e → Y Cr
7 its internal energy by 5000 J. The molar heat
+ 6F e
3+
+ Z H2 O capacity at constant volume is x Jmol–1 K–1 .
The sum of X, Y and Z is The value of 8x is

10
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

56. The oxidation states of transition metal 58. Among the following the number of state
atoms in K2 Cr2 O7 , KMnO4 and K2 FeO4 , variables is ________.
respectively, are x, y and z. The sum of x, y Internal energy (U)
and z is _______. Volume (V)
Heat (q)
Enthalpy (H)
57. The internal energy change (in J) when 90 g
of water undergoes complete evaporation at
100°C is t × 104 , find out value of t 59. pH value of 0.001 M NaOH solution
________. (Nearest integer) is________.
(Given : ΔHvap for water at 373 K = 41
kJ/mol, R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 ) 60. For reaction :
1
S O2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ S O3 (g)
2

Kp = 2×1012 at 27°C and 1 atm pressure.

The Kc for the same reaction is __________
× 1013 . (Nearest integer)
(Given R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1 )

CC-034

11
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

61. The number of ways of selecting two 66. Let the mean and variance of the frequency
numbers a and b, distribution
a ∈ (2, 4, 6, ....., 100) and x : x1 = 2 x2 = 6 x3 = 8 x4 = 9

b ∈ (1, 3, 5, ...., 99) such that 2 is the f : 4 4 α β

remainder when a + b is divided by 23 is be 6 and 6.8 respectively. If x3 is changed
(1) 108 from 8 to 7, then the mean for the new data
(2) 186 will be :
(3) 54 (1) 5
(4) 268 (2) 4
(3) 17

62. Team 'A' consists of 7 boys and n girls and

(4) 16

Team 'B' has 4 boys and 6 girls. If a total of 3

52 single matches can be arranged between

these two teams when a boy plays against a
boy and a girl plays against a girl, then n is 67. Let in a series of 2n observations, half of
equal to them are equal to a and remaining half are
equal to –a. Also by adding a constant b in
(1) 5
each of these observations, the mean and
(2) 6 standard deviation of new set become 5 and
(3) 2 20, respectively. Then the value of a2 + b2 is
(4) 4 equal to :
(1) 925
63. Let (2) 650

(a + bx + cx )
2
10 20
= ∑
i=0
i
pi x , a, b, c ∈ N CC-034 (3) 425
. If p1 = 20 and p2 = 210, then 2(a + b + c) is (4) 250
equal to
(1) 6 68. Let sets A and B have 5 elements each. Let
the mean of the elements in sets A and B 5
(2) 15
and 8 respectively and the variance of the
(3) 12 elements in sets A and B be 12 and 20
(4) 8 respectively. A new set C of 10 elements is
formed by subtracting 3 from each element
of A and adding 2 to each element of B.
64. If Then the sum of the mean and variance of
n n n n
1 1 1

n+1
Cn +
n
Cn−1 + ... +
2
C1 + C0 the elements of C is ______ .
1023 (1) 40
=
10
(2) 32
then n is equal to
(3) 38
(1) 9
(4) 36
(2) 8
(3) 7
69. The number of triplets (x, y, z) where x, y, z
(4) 6
are distinct non negative integers satisfying
x + y + z = 15, is
65. The number of values of a ∈ N such that the (1) 80
variance of 3, 7, 12, a, 43 – a is a natural
(2) 136
number is
(3) 114
(1) 0
(4) 92
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) Infinite

12
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

70. Let μ be the mean and σ be the standard 75. The number of ways to distribute 30 identical
deviation of the distribution candies among four children C1 , C2 , C3 and
xi 0 1 2 3 4 5 C4 so that C2 receives atleast 4 and atmost
fi k + 2 2k k2 – 1 k2 – 1 k2 + 1 k – 3 7 candies, C3 receives atleast 2 and atmost
6 candies, is equal to:
where ∑ fi = 62.
(1) 205
If [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x, then
(2) 615
[μ2 + σ2 ] is equal to
(3) 510
(1) 9
(4) 430
(2) 8
(3) 7
76. The mean and standard deviation of 10
(4) 6
observations are 20 and 8 respectively.
Later on, it was observed that one
71. All words, with or without meaning, are observation was recorded as 50 instead of
made using all the letters of the word 40. Then the correct variance is
MONDAY. These words are written as in a (1) 11
dictionary with serial numbers. The serial
(2) 13
number of the word MONDAY is
(3) 12
(1) 327
(4) 14
(2) 328
(3) 324
(4) 326 77. Consider a rectangle ABCD having 5, 7, 6, 9
points in the interior of the line segments AB,
CD, BC, DA respectively. Let α be the
72. The total number of functions, number of triangles having these points from
f : {1, 2, 3, 4} → {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} different sides as vertices and β be the
such that f(1) + f(2) = f(3), is equal to number of quadrilaterals having these points
(1) 60 from different sides as vertices. Then (β – α)
is equal to:
(2) 90
(1) 1890
(3) 108
(2) 717
(4) 126
(3) 795
CC-034 (4) 1173
73. Consider three observations a, b and c such
that b = a + c. If the standard deviation of a +
2, b + 2, c + 2 is d, then which of the 78. The sum of all those terms which are rational
following is true? numbers in the expansion of
12
(1) b2 = a2 + c2 + 3d2
1 1

(2 3
+2 4
) is
(2) b2 = 3(a2 + c2 ) – 9d2
(1) 43
(3) b2 = 3(a2 + c2 ) + 9d2
(2) 27
(4) b2 = 3(a2 + c2 + d2 ) (3) 35
(4) 89
74. If 2xy + 3yx = 20, then
dy
at (2, 2) is equal to
dx

(1) 2+loge 8
79. The coefficient of x5 in the expansion of
–( ) 5
3+loge 4 1
(2x
3
−
2
) is
3x
(2) 3+loge 16
–( )
4+loge 8 (1) 80

(3) 3+loge 8
(2) 9
–( )
2+loge 4

(3) 8
(4) 3+loge 4
–(
2+loge 8
) (4) 26
3

80. Let the number (22)2022 + (2022)22 leave

the remainder α when divided by 3 and β
when divided by 7. Then (α2 + β2 ) is equal to
(1) 20
(2) 13
(3) 5
(4) 10

13
Archive Test Series-2024_T02 (Code-A)

Section-II

81. Let b1 b2 b3 b4 be a 4-element permutation 86. If the mean and variance of the frequency
with bi ∈ {1, 2, 3,…..,100} for 1 ≤ i ≤ 4 and bi distribution
≠ bj for i ≠ j, such that either b1 , b2 , b3 are xi 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
consecutive integers or b2 , b3 , b4 are
fi 4 4 α 15 8 β 4 5
consecutive integers. Let the number of such
permutations b1 b2 b3 b4 is equal to N, then are 9 and 15.08 respectively, then the value
N of α2 + β2 – αβ is _______.
the value of is equal to _______.
485

87. Let the digits a, b, c be in A.P. Nine-digit

82. Let the positive numbers a1 , a2 , a3 , a4 and numbers are to be formed using each of
a5 be in a G.P. Let their mean and variance these three digits thrice such that three
be
31
and
m
respectively, where m and n consecutive digits are in A.P. at least once.
10 n
Let the number of such numbers be N, then
are co-prime. If the mean of their reciprocals N
31 m+n is equal to _________.
is 10 and a3 + a4 + a5 = 14, then 211 is 20

equal to _______.
88. The mean and standard deviation of the
marks of 10 students were found to be 50
83. Let the coefficient of x–6 , in the expansion of and 12 respectively. Later, it was observed
9
4x 5 K that two marks 20 and 25 were wrongly read
( + ) is K, then is equal to
5 2x
2
60 as 45 and 50 respectively. Let the correct
________. V
variance is V, then 269 is equal to
____________.
84. Let the term independent of `x' in the
expansion of
10
89. The mean of the coefficients of x, x2 , ….., x7
in the binomial expression of (2 + x)9 is M,
x+1 x+1
( − ) , where
/3
2
/3
1
/2
1
M
x −x +1 x−x then 912 is equal to _____________.
T
x ≠ 0, 1 is T, then the value of is equal
CC-034
10

to –––––––. 90. Some couples participated in a mixed

doubles badminton tournament. If the
85. If the mean of the frequency distribution number of matches played, so that no
couple played in a match, is 840, then the
Class : –
0 10 –
10 20 –
20 30 –
30 40 –
40 50
total numbers of persons, who participated
Frequency : 2 3 x 5 4 in the tournament, is ________.
V
is 28, then its variance is V, then 151
is
equal to ________.

14