ANANYA VIDYALAYA & TECHNOLOGY, KALOL

CH-1 To 7 STD:12 Date : 21/10/24

Total Marks: 100 FIRST TERM EXAM Time: 3 hr.
Section A
//X
• Choose correct answer from the given options. [Each carries 1 Mark] [50]

1. A relation S = {(a, b)|a ³ b, a, b Î R} then S is ......

(A) reflexive, symmetric and transitive. (B) reflexive, transitive but not symmetric.
(C) symmetric, transitive but not reflexive. (D) neither transitive nor reflexive but symmetric.

2. f : R ® R, f (x) = 3x + 3| x | is ......
(A) one-one and onto. (B) one-one but not onto.
(C) many-one and onto. (D) many-one and not onto.

3. f : R ® R, f (x) = x2 + 2x + 3 is ......
(A) a bijection. (B) one-one but not onto.
(C) onto but not one-one. (D) many-one and not onto.

x2
4. f : R ® A, f (x) = is a onto function then A = .........
1 + x2
(A) R (B) [0, 1] (C) (0, 1] (D) [0, 1)
1
5. f : R ® R, f (x) = then f is ......
1 + x2
(A) one-one and onto. (B) many-one and not onto.
(C) one-one and not onto. (D) many-one and onto.
7p
6. tan -1 æ tan ö = ......
è 4ø
p p 3p 3p
(A) - (B) (C) (D) -
4 4 4 4
æ 3ö 7p
7. sin -1 ç - ÷ + cos-1 æ cos ö = ......
è 2ø è 6ø
p 3p 5p
(A) (B) (C) (D) p
2 2 6
æ 7p ö
8. cot - 1 ç tan ÷ = ......
è 4 ø
3p p p 11p
(A) (B) (C) - (D)
4 4 4 4
1
9. If cos(2tan–1x) = , then the value of x is ......
2
1 1
(A) (B) 1 - 3 (C) 1- (D) 3
3 3
p
10. If sin –1x + sin–1y = then, x 1 - y 2 + y 1 - x 2 = ........
2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 1 (D) 2
116) sin(cot–1 (cos (tan–1x))) = ......... (x > 0)
11.
x2 + 1 x+2 x2 – 1 x2 + 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x2 + 2 x2 + 1 x2 + 1 x2 + 1

é æ 3 öù
12. sin -1 êcos ç sin -1 ú = ...... .
êë è 2 ø÷ úû
p p p p
(A) (B) (C) - (D) -
3 6 6 3
 é æ 3 öù
sin -1 êcos ç sin -1 ú = ...... .
ëê è 2 ø÷ ûú
p p p p
(A) (B) (C) - (D) -
3 6 6 3
æ 7p ö
13. The value of sin -1 ç sin ÷ is ......
è 6 ø
p 7p 7p p
(A) - (B) (C) - (D)
6 6 6 6
14. cos(tan –1x), | x | < 1 is equal to
x 1 1 x
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 - x2 1 + x2 1 - x2 1 + x2

éa 2 ù
ú and |A | = 125 then a = ......... . [Oct. - 2016]
15. If A = ê 3
ë2 aû
(A) ± 1 (B) ± 3 (C) ± 2 (D) ± 5
éa bù éx y ù
16. If A = ê and A2 = ê then, x = ......, y = ...... [Oct. : 2012, 2015]
ëb aûú ë y x úû
(A) x = a2 + b2 , y = a2 – b2 (B) x = 2ab, y = a2 + b2
(C) x = a2 + b2, y = ab (D) x = a2 + b2, y = 2ab
17. A and B are matrices of order 3 ´ 3 then (A + B)2 = ......
(A) A2 + AB + B2 (B) A2 + AB + BA + B2 (C) A2 + 2AB + B2 (D) A2 + B2
18. If A = diag[1, – 2, 1] and B = diag[3, 2, – 1] then 4A – 3B = ......
(A) diag[4, 0, 0] (B) diag [– 5, – 14, 7] (C) diag[5, 14, – 7] (D) diag[– 12]
19. If A and B are square matrices with same order then ......
(A) A + B = B + A (B) A + B = A – B (C) A – B = B – A (D) AB = BA
20. The value of the determinant of 3 ´ 3 matrix A is 6. Matrix B is such that B = 5A2, then the value
of determinant B is ......
(A) 180 (B) 100 (C) 80 (D) none of these
21. ) If area of a triangle with vertices (1, 1) (3, 3) and (5, k) is 2 sq. units then the value of k = ......
(A) 2 or 3 (B) 3 or 4 (C) 4 or 7 (D) 3 or 7

5 6 3
140) A = -4 3 2 , the cofactors of the elements in second row are .....
22.
-4 - 7 3
(A) 39, -3, 11 (B) -39, 3, 11 (C) -39, 27, 11 (D) -39, -3, 11
23. ) If A is a orthogonal matrix, then
(A) det(A) = 0 (B) det(A) = ± 1 (C) det(A) = 2 (D) None of these
151) If A2 – 3A = I, then A–1 = ......
24.
(A) 3I – A (B) A – 3I (C) 3A – I (D) I – 3A
25. ) For a square matrix A, A2 = I then A–1 = ..........
(A) A + I (B) A (C) 0 (D) 2A
ì tan x - 3 p
ï ; x¹
p 3 p
ï x-
26. The function f ( x ) = í 3 is continuous at x = then k = ......
3
ï p
ïî k ; x=
3
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) – 4 (D) – 3
dy
154) sin(x + y) = cos(x + y) then
27. = ...... .
dx
(A) 1 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) – 2
230) If f(x) = log7(log3x) then f '(x) = .......... .
28.
1 1 1 1
(A) x log7 log 3 (B) x × log x × log7 (C) x log x log7 (D) x × log x
230) If f(x) = log7(log3x) then f '(x) = .......... .
1 1 1 1
(A) x log7 log 3 (B) x × log x × log7 (C) x log x log7 (D) x × log x
x + ....¥
x +e x +e dy
257) If y = e
29. , then = ...... .
dx
y 1 y y
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1- y 1- y 1+ y y -1
dy
260) If x y = y x , then
30. = ...... .
dx
y( x log e y + y ) y( x log e y - y ) x( x loge y - y ) x( x loge y + y )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x( y log e x + x ) x( y log e x - x ) y( y log e x - x ) y( y log e x + x )
dy
31. If x = a(1 – cosq) and y = a(q + sinq) then = ...... .
dx
q q
(A) cotq (B) cot (C) tanq (D) tan
2 2
dy
32. If y = sin–1x + sin–1 1 - x 2 , 0 < x < 1, then = ......
dx
2 2
(A) 0 (B) (C) 1 (D) 2
1- x 2 1+ x

d log a x
33. a = .......; a Î R+ – {1}
dx
log x 1
(A) a a · log a (B) a log a x
(C) x (D)
2 x
34. The interval in which y = x2 e–x is increasing is ......
(A) (– ฀, ฀) (B) (–2, 0) (C) (2, ฀) (D) (0, 2)
1 - x + x2
35. For all real values of x, the minimum value of f ( x ) = , " x Î R is ...........
1 + x + x2
1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D)
3
1
36. The maximum value of f(x) = [ x( x - 1) + 1] 3 , 0 < x < 1 is ..... [Que. Bank - 2024]
1
æ 1ö 3 1
(A) ç ÷ (B) (C) 1 (D) 0
è 3ø 2
37. A cylindrical tank of radius 10 m is being filled with wheat at the rate of 314 cubic metre per hour.
Then the depth of the wheat is increasing at the rate of ..........
(A) 1 m/h (B) 0.1 m/h (C) 1.1 m/h (D) 0.5 m/h

38. The side of an equilateral triangle expands at the rate of 3 cm/sec. When the side is 12 cm, the
rate of increase of its area is ...... .
(A) 12 cm2/sec (B) 18 cm2/sec (C) 3 3 cm2/sec (D) 10 cm2/sec

ò sin x cos x
dx
39. 2 2 = ....... .

(A) tan x + cot x + c (B) tan x – cot x + c

(C) tan x cot x + c (D) tan x – cot 2x + c
sin2 x – cos2 x
40. ò sin2 x cos2 x
dx = ......... .

(A) tan x + cot x + c (B) tan x + cosec x + c (C) tan x + cot x + c D) tan x + sec x + c
 ò
dx
41. = ......... .
9x – 4x2
1 æ 9x – 8 ö 1 æ 8x – 9 ö
(A) sin –1 ç ÷ + c (B) sin –1 ç ÷ + c
9 è 8 ø 2 è 9 ø
1 æ 9x – 8 ö 1 æ 9x – 8 ö
(C) sin –1 ç ÷ + c (D) sin –1 ç ÷ + c
3 è 8 ø 2 è 9 ø
x dx
42. ò (x – 1) ( x – 2)
= .......... .

(x – 1)
2
+ C
(x – 2)
2
+ C
(A) log x – 2 (B) log x –1

2
æ x – 1ö
(C) log çè x – 2 ø÷ + C (D) log |(x – 1) (x – 2)| + C

òe
x
43. sec x (1 + tan x ) dx = ......... .

(A) ex cos x + C (B) ex sec x + C (C) ex sin x + C (D) ex tan x + C

1
1
(x – )
x 3 3
44. The value of the integral ò x4
dx is ......
1
3
(A) 6 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 4

x4 + x2 + 1
45. ò x2 + 1
dx = .......... + c

-1 x4 x3 x3 1 x +1
(A) tan x + (B) + tan -1 x (C) log(x2 + 1) (D) + log
4 3 3 2 x –1
p

321)
46. ò cos 3
x × sin 4 x dx = .......... .
0
(A) – p (B) 0 (C) p (D) 2p

47.
335) ò x 2 + 4 x + 1 dx = .......... + C.

x+2 2 x+2 2 3
(A) x + 4 x + 1 - 9log x + 2 + x 2 + 4x + 1 (B) x + 4x + 1 - log x + 2 + x 2 + 4 x + 1
2 2 2
x+2 2 3 x+2 2
(C) x + 4x + 1 + log x + 2 + x 2 + 4 x + 1 (D) x + 4 x + 1 + 9log x + 2 + x 2 + 4x + 1
2 2 2
p
2
336) The value of
48.
ò (x 3
- cos x + tan5 x ) is ...... .
-p
(A) p 2
(B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 1

òx
2 3
339)
49. e x dx equals ..........

1 x3 1 x3 1 x2 1 x2
(A) e +C (B) e +C (C) e +C (D) e +C
2 3 3 2

ò x + x log x dx
1
360)
50. = .......... + C.

–1 log x
(A) (1 + log x )2 (B) 1 + logx (C) log | log(ex) | (D)
x
 ANANYA VIDYALAYA & TECHNOLOGY, KALOL
CH-1 To 7 STD:12 Date : 21/10/24
Total Marks: 100 FIRST TERM EXAM Time: 3 hr.

Section [ A ] : 1 Mark MCQ

No Ans Chap Sec Que Universal_QueId

1. B Chap 1 S6 24 QP24P11B1213_P1C1S6Q24
2. D Chap 1 S6 45 QP24P11B1213_P1C1S6Q45
3. D Chap 1 S6 48 QP24P11B1213_P1C1S6Q48
4. D Chap 1 S6 53 QP24P11B1213_P1C1S6Q53
5. B Chap 1 S6 56 QP24P11B1213_P1C1S6Q56
6. A Chap 2 S6 18 QP24P11B1213_P1C2S6Q18
7. A Chap 2 S6 28 QP24P11B1213_P1C2S6Q28
8. A Chap 2 S6 37 QP24P11B1213_P1C2S6Q37
9. A Chap 2 S6 73 QP24P11B1213_P1C2S6Q73
10. B Chap 2 S6 99 QP24P11B1213_P1C2S6Q99
11. A Chap 2 S6 116 QP24P11B1213_P1C2S6Q116
12. B Chap 2 S7 7 QP24P11B1213_P1C2S7Q7
13. A Chap 2 S7 9 QP24P11B1213_P1C2S7Q9
14. B Chap 2 S7 11 QP24P11B1213_P1C2S7Q11
15. B Chap 3 S8 5 QP24P11B1213_P1C3S8Q5
16. D Chap 3 S8 9 QP24P11B1213_P1C3S8Q9
17. B Chap 3 S8 20 QP24P11B1213_P1C3S8Q20
18. B Chap 3 S8 41 QP24P11B1213_P1C3S8Q41
19. A Chap 3 S8 59 QP24P11B1213_P1C3S8Q59
20. A Chap 4 S9 14 QP24P11B1213_P1C4S9Q14
21. D Chap 4 S9 130 QP24P11B1213_P1C4S9Q130
22. C Chap 4 S9 140 QP24P11B1213_P1C4S9Q140
23. B Chap 4 S9 144 QP24P11B1213_P1C4S9Q144
24. B Chap 4 S9 151 QP24P11B1213_P1C4S9Q151
25. B Chap 4 S9 162 QP24P11B1213_P1C4S9Q162
26. A Chap 5 S11 5 QP24P11B1213_P1C5S11Q5
27. B Chap 5 S11 154 QP24P11B1213_P1C5S11Q154
28. B Chap 5 S11 230 QP24P11B1213_P1C5S11Q230
29. A Chap 5 S11 257 QP24P11B1213_P1C5S11Q257
30. B Chap 5 S11 260 QP24P11B1213_P1C5S11Q260
31. B Chap 5 S12 8 QP24P11B1213_P1C5S12Q8
32. A Chap 5 S12 18 QP24P11B1213_P1C5S12Q18

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

33. D Chap 5 S12 28 QP24P11B1213_P1C5S12Q28
34. D Chap 6 S2 19 QP24P11B1213_P1C6S2Q19
35. D Chap 6 S3 28 QP24P11B1213_P1C6S3Q28
36. C Chap 6 S3 29 QP24P11B1213_P1C6S3Q29
37. A Chap 6 S4 16 QP24P11B1213_P1C6S4Q16
38. B Chap 6 S7 1 QP24P11B1213_P1C6S7Q1
39. B Chap 7 S2 39 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S2Q39
40. A Chap 7 S3 23 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S3Q23
41. B Chap 7 S4 25 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S4Q25
42. B Chap 7 S5 22 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S5Q22
43. B Chap 7 S6 24 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S6Q24
44. A Chap 7 S9 9 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S9Q9
45. B Chap 7 S14 13 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S14Q13
46. B Chap 7 S14 321 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S14Q321
47. B Chap 7 S14 335 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S14Q335
48. B Chap 7 S14 336 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S14Q336
49. B Chap 7 S14 339 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S14Q339
50. C Chap 7 S14 360 QP24P11B1213_P2C7S14Q360

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

 ANANYA VIDYALAYA & TECHNOLOGY, KALOL
CH-1 To 7 STD:12 Date : 21/10/24
: 50marks FIRST TERM EXAM 00 Hr.

Student Name : _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

Roll Number : 0 1 2 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1. 11. 21. 31. 41.
2. 12. 22. 32. 42.
3. 13. 23. 33. 43.
4. 14. 24. 34. 44.
5. 15. 25. 35. 45.
6. 16. 26. 36. 46.
7. 17. 27. 37. 47.
8. 18. 28. 38. 48.
9. 19. 29. 39. 49.
10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

ANANYA VIDYALAYA & TECHNOLOGY, KALOL

CH-1 To 7 STD:12 Date : 21/10/24
: 50marks FIRST TERM EXAM 00 Hr.

Student Name : _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

Roll Number : 0 1 2 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1. 11. 21. 31. 41.
2. 12. 22. 32. 42.
3. 13. 23. 33. 43.
4. 14. 24. 34. 44.
5. 15. 25. 35. 45.
6. 16. 26. 36. 46.
7. 17. 27. 37. 47.
8. 18. 28. 38. 48.
9. 19. 29. 39. 49.
10. 20. 30. 40. 50.
 ANANYA VIDYALAYA & TECHNOLOGY, KALOL
CH-1 To 7 STD:12 Date : 21/10/24
: 50marks FIRST TERM EXAM 00 Hr.

OMR ANSWER SHEET

Marks Identifier :

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1. 11. 21. 31. 41.
2. 12. 22. 32. 42.
3. 13. 23. 33. 43.
4. 14. 24. 34. 44.
5. 15. 25. 35. 45.
6. 16. 26. 36. 46.
7. 17. 27. 37. 47.
8. 18. 28. 38. 48.
9. 19. 29. 39. 49.
10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

ANANYA VIDYALAYA & TECHNOLOGY, KALOL

CH-1 To 7 STD:12 Date : 21/10/24
: 50marks FIRST TERM EXAM 00 Hr.

OMR ANSWER SHEET

Marks Identifier :

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1. 11. 21. 31. 41.
2. 12. 22. 32. 42.
3. 13. 23. 33. 43.
4. 14. 24. 34. 44.
5. 15. 25. 35. 45.
6. 16. 26. 36. 46.
7. 17. 27. 37. 47.
8. 18. 28. 38. 48.
9. 19. 29. 39. 49.
10. 20. 30. 40. 50.
 ANANYA VIDYALAYA & TECHNOLOGY, KALOL
CH-1 To 7 STD:12 Date : 21/10/24
Total Marks: 100 FIRST TERM EXAM Time: 3 hr.
Section A
//X
• Choose correct answer from the given options. [Each carries 1 Mark] [50]

1.

2.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

3.

4.

5.

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6.

7.

8.

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9.

10.

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11.

12.

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13.

14.

15.

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16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

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21.

22.

23.

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24.

25.

26.

27.

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28.

29.

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30.

31.

32.

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33.

34.

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35.

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36.

37.

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38.

39.

40.

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41.

42.

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43.

44.

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45.

46.

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47.

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48.

49.

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50.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper