KANO STATE COLLEGE OF HEALTH SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

SCHOOL OF HEALTH TECHNOLOGY, KANO

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH INFORMATION MAGANEMEN

1. In hypothesis testing decision rule, when t-calculated > t-tabulated, the null hypothesis is hereby….
A. accepted
B. rejected
C. tested
D. calculated

2. In a chi-square test, the calculated chi-square value is compared to ______.

a) the critical value from the chi-square distribution
b) the p-value from the chi-square distribution
c) the mean from the chi-square distribution
d) none of the above
3. A chi-square test is appropriate when both variables are ______.
a) Continuous
b) Categorical
c) Both continuous and categorical
d) None of the above
4. The degrees of freedom for a chi-square test of independence with a 4x3 contingency table are ______.
a) 3
b) 6
c) 7
d) 12
5. A chi-square test cannot determine the ______ of the relationship.
a) Strength
b) Direction
c) Statistical significance
d) all of the above
6. The correlation coefficient measures the ______ between two variables.
a) Strength of association
b) Direction of relationship
c) Both strength of association and direction of relationship
d) None of the above
7. Which of the following is NOT a type of correlation?
a) Pearson correlation
b) Spearman's correlation
c) Kendall's correlation
d) Chi-square correlation
8. A correlation coefficient of -0.8 indicates _______.
a) A weak negative relationship
b) A moderate negative relationship
c) A strong negative relationship
d) None of the above
9. In simple linear regression, the dependent variable is __________.
a) Continuous
b) Categorical
c) Both continuous and categorical
d) None of the above
10. The simple linear regression model can be stated as: __________.
 a) y = b0 + b1x +ei
b) y = a0 + b1 + ei
c) y = b0 + bx - ei
d) x = a0 + b1 - ei

11. Which of the following is NOT a condition for chi-square test validity?
a) Random sampling
b) Independence of observations
c) Sufficient sample size
d) Symmetric distribution
12. In a scatter plot, the slope of the best-fit line represents ______.
a) the strength of association
b) the direction of relationship
c) the rate of change
d) none of the above
13. Which of the following best describes regression analysis?
A) Determining the strength of the relationship between variables
B) Predicting the value of a dependent variable based on the value of one or more independent variables
C) Testing the differences between means
D) Calculating the mode of a data set
14. In a simple linear regression model, what does the slope represent?
A) The value of the dependent variable when the independent variable is zero
B) The rate of change of the dependent variable for each unit change in the independent variable
C) The intercept of the regression line
D) The error term

15. Correlation measures:

A) The causal relationship between two variables
B) The strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables
C) The difference between two sample means
D) The variation within a single variable
16. The null hypothesis for a correlation test typically states:
A) There is a significant correlation between the variables
B) There is no significant correlation between the variables
C) The correlation coefficient is positive
D) The correlation coefficient is negative
17. The chi-square test is used to:
A) Compare means between groups
B) Test the independence of two categorical variables
C) Estimate population parameters
D) Predict the value of a dependent variable
18. The chi-square statistic is calculated by:
A) Summing the squared differences between observed and expected frequencies divided by expected
frequencies
B) Summing the differences between observed and expected frequencies
C) Multiplying the observed frequencies by the expected frequencies
D) Subtracting the expected frequencies from the observed frequencies and squaring the result
19. In simple linear regression, the dependent variable is also known as the:
A) Predictor variable
B) Explanatory variable
C) Response variable
D) Independent variable
20. A chi-square test for independence assesses:
A) Whether two categorical variables are related
B) Whether two means are equal
 C) Whether a sample mean differs from a population mean
D) Whether a sample variance differs from a population variance
21. The correlation coefficient (r) ranges from:
A) 0 to 1
B) -1 to 0
C) -1 to 1
D) -∞ to ∞
22. A correlation coefficient of 0 indicates:
A) A strong positive relationship
B) No linear relationship
C) A strong negative relationship
D) A perfect linear relationship
23. A correlation coefficient of 0.9 indicates:
A) No correlation
B) A very weak positive correlation
C) A strong positive correlation
D) A perfect positive correlation
24. Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship?
A) 0.5
B) -0.8
C) 0.3
D) -0.2
25. Which type of correlation measures the relationship between ranks of data?
A) Pearson correlation
B) Spearman's rank correlation
C) Kendall's tau
D) Point-biserial correlation
26. When the relationship of two variables is to be determined, the regression is known as…..
A) Multiple regression
B) Bilateral regression
C) Simple regression
D) Double regression
27. In simple linear regression, the independent variable is also known as the:
A) Predictor variable
B) Explanatory variable
C) Response variable
D) Independent variable
28. Linear regression allow us to summarize and study relationship between two….
A. Categorical variables
B. Continuous variables
C. Discrete variables
D. Nominal variables
29. the difference between the actual value of the dependent variables and the value predicted by the model is
called……..
A. Correlation
B. Regression
C. Residual
D. Regression coefficient
30. the slope of the regression line is represented by…….
A. b0
B. b1
C. ei
D. a0
31. A contingency table is a table that can be used to:
A. Displays the frequency distribution of two categorical variables.
B. Displays the frequency distribution of two continuous variables.
 C. Displays the frequency distribution of two discrete variables.
D. None of the above
32. The expected frequency in chi square test can be calculated by:
A. multiplying row total and column total and divide by grand total
B. summing row total and column total and divide by grand total
C. subtracting row total from column total and divide by grand total
D. multiplying grand total and column total and divide by row total
33. In scatter plot, the dependent variable is being plotted on one of the following axis:
A. Y-axis
B. X-axis
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
34. The least square regression line is the line for which the distance between each data point and the predicted
data point is the…….
A. smallest
B. largest
C. medium
D. highest
35. Confidence interval is used to express the degree of ……….associated with a sample statistic.
A. uncertainty
B. relationship
C. hypothesis
D. assurance

36. When the correlation coefficient (r) = +1, it indicates…….

A. High positive correlation
B. Perfect positive correlation
C. Weaker relationship between the variables
D. Stronger relationship between the variables
37. Rank correlation coefficient can be used when the variables are…..
A. Ordinal
B. Nominal
C. Discrete
D. Continuous
38. The margin of error is calculated by….
A. Multiplying critical value and standard error
B. Multiplying Standard error and critical value
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
39. The b0 in simple linear regression model represents:
A. X’s slope of the gradient
B. Intercept on Y-axis
C. Intercept on X-axis
D. None of the above
40. The regression equation y=0.54 + 0.66X represent a model for a certain company week sales, the predicted 7 th
week sales in thousand can be represented as:
A. 5160
B. 5610
C. 6150
D. 6510
41. Which of the following is an example of a continuous variable?
a. Gender
b. Marital status
c. Age
d. Eye color
42. What is a variable in statistics?
 a. A specific value observed in a sample
b. A characteristic or property that can take on different values
c. A type of statistical test
d. A measure of how much data varies from the mean
43. What is a hypothesis?
a. A statement that describes the characteristics of a population
b. An educated guess about what the data might show
c. The process of drawing conclusions based on data
d. A measure of the strength of a relationship between two variables
44. In hypothesis testing, the null hypothesis represents what?
a. The alternative hypothesis
b. The hypothesis that there is no difference or relationship in the population
c. The hypothesis that there is a significant difference or relationship in the population
d. The hypothesis that there is a direct causal relationship between variables
45. What is a type I error in hypothesis testing?
a. Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
b. Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is true
c. Rejecting the alternative hypothesis when it is true
d. Failing to reject the alternative hypothesis when it is true
46. In a statistical test, what is the p-value?
a. The probability of observing the data given that the null hypothesis is true
b. The probability of observing the data given that the alternative hypothesis is true
c. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis
d. The probability of accepting the null hypothesis
47. Which of the following is an example of a categorical variable?
a. Height
b. Weight
c. Blood pressure
d. Hair color
48. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?
a. To make predictions about future data
b. To summarize and describe data
c. To test hypotheses about population parameters
d. To determine the sample size needed for a study
49. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?
a. Range
b. Standard deviation
c. Median
d. Variance
50. What is a type II error in hypothesis testing?
a. Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
b. Rejecting the alternative hypothesis when it is true
c. Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
d. Failing to reject the alternative hypothesis when it is false
51. Which of the following is an example of an independent variable?
a. Test scores
b. Age
c. Income
d. Gender
52. What is a one-tailed hypothesis test?
a) A hypothesis test that only considers one possible direction of a difference or relationship
b) A hypothesis test that considers both directions of a difference or relationship
c) A hypothesis test that uses a one-sample t-test
d) A hypothesis test that uses a Mann-Whitney U test
53. Which of the following is an example of a continuous variable?
a) Blood type
 b) Zip code
c) Temperature
d) Favorite color
Answer: c) Temperature
54. What is a dependent variable?
a) A variable that is not influenced by other variables
b) A variable that is manipulated by the researcher
c) A variable that depends on the values of other variables
d) A variable that is not used in statistical analysis
55. Which of the following is an example of a discrete variable?
a) Weight
b) Height
c) Number of children
d) Blood pressure
56. What is a research hypothesis?
a) A statement that describes the characteristics of a population
b) An educated guess about what the data might show
c) The process of drawing conclusions based on data
d) A measure of the strength of a relationship between two variables
57. Which of the following is an example of an ordinal variable?
a) Temperature
b) Weight
c) Education level
d) Blood type
58. Which statistical test is used to compare means between more than two independent groups?
a) t-test
b) ANOVA
c) Mann-Whitney U test
d) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
59. Which of the following is an example of a dichotomous variable?
a) Temperature
b) Weight
c) Gender
d) Number of children
60. What is a bar chart used for?
a) To display the relationship between two continuous variables
b) To compare means between two groups
c) To summarize categorical data
d) To summarize continuous data
61. Which of the following is an example of a measure of spread or dispersion?
a) Median
b) Mode
c) Geometric mean
d) Standard deviation
62. What is the first step in the data analysis process?
a. Data visualization
b. Data cleaning
c. Data collection
d. Data requirement analysis
63. Which of the following is NOT used in data visualization?
a) Histogram
b) Scatter plot
c) Line chart
d) Regression model
64. Which data analysis methods is used to predict future values based on past data?
a) Statistical Analysis
b) Diagnostic Analysis
c) Predictive Analysis
d) Prescriptive Analysis
65. The stages in data analysis include:
a) Categorization organization summarization
b) Categorization summarization organization
c) Organization summarization Categorization
d) Organization Categorization summarization
66. The questionnaire was invented by one of the following scholar
a. Sir Francis Galton
b. Cochran
c. John B Watson
d. Slovin and Yamane
67. Which of the following is a core objective of operations research?
A) Reduce costs
B) Maximize profits
C) Improve efficiency
D) All of the above

68. What technique is used in linear programming to find optimal solutions?

A) Simplex method
B) Monte Carlo simulation
C) Heuristic method
D) Statistical analysis

69. In which type of model do decision variables take only integer values?
A) Linear programming
B) Non-linear programming
C) Integer programming
D) Stochastic programming

70. What is the primary purpose of the transportation problem in operations research?
A) Allocate resources efficiently
B) Schedule tasks
C) Minimize transportation costs
D) Maximize product output

71. In which scenario would you use a queuing model?

A) Manufacturing
B) Inventory management
C) Customer service
D) All of the above

72. What does the term "feasible region" refer to in linear programming?
A) A place where solutions can be implemented
B) A set of all possible solutions
C) The optimal solution location
D) Areas not defined by constraints

73. What are the constraints in a linear programming problem typically represented as?
A) Linear equations
B) Quadratic equations
C) Non-linear functions
D) Decision trees

74. In a decision tree, what does a circle represent?

 A) Chance node
B) Decision node
C) End node
D) None of the above
75. Which method is NOT used to solve the assignment problem in operations research?
A) Hungarian method
B) Least cost method
C) Branch and bound
D) Graphical method

76. What is the primary focus of simulation in operations research?

A) Predicting future outcomes
B) Analyzing historical data
C) Generating random variables
D) Minimizing costs

77. In the context of operations research, what does "sensitivity analysis" refer to?
A) Analyzing customer sensitivity
B) Examining how changes in inputs affect outputs
C) Assessing worker sensitivity
D) Evaluating technological impacts

78. Which of the following problems can be solved using network flow models?
A) Shortest path problem
B) Maximum flow problem
C) Minimum cost flow problem
D) All of the above

79. Which is NOT a step in the OR problem-solving process?

A) Problem definition
B) Model formulation
C) Data collection
D) Randomization

80. What approach is used when problems do not have a clearly defined objective?
A) Linear programming
B) Multi-objective optimization
C) Heuristic methods
D) Simulation

81. What does "goal programming" focus on?

A) Achieving a primary objective
B) Satisfying several conflicting objectives
C) Minimizing costs
D) Maximizing profits

82. What is an 'objective function' in linear programming?

A) A statement of constraints
B) A measure to be optimized
C) A graphical representation of the solution
D) A method for validating results

83. Which of the following is NOT a type of inventory control model?

A) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)
B) Just-in-Time (JIT)
C) Simplex model
 D) ABC analysis

84. What is the main benefit of using a simulation approach in OR?

A) Increased accuracy
B) Faster results
C) Flexibility in modeling complex processes
D) Reduces costs

85. In operations research, 'cold calling' in sales is best modeled by which method?
A) Linear programming
B) Simulation
C) Queuing theory
D) Decision trees

86. Which of the following is an example of deterministic inventory management?

A) Safety stock
B) Just-In-Time
C) Continuous review system
D) Demand forecasting

87. Which method helps in prioritizing projects based on multiple criteria?

A) PERT
B) CPM
C) AHP
D) Gantt Chart

88. What does the term 'non-linear programming' refer to?

A) Programming with linear constraints only
B) Programming with non-linear constraints and/or objectives
C) Algorithms designed for integer programming
D) Methods for graphical representation of solutions

89. What is 'throughput' in the context of operations management?

A) Total input
B) Output produced by a system
C) Average processing time
D) Total customer satisfaction

90. Which of the following is commonly used for scheduling tasks?

A) Linear programming
B) PERT/CPM
C) Heuristic methods
D) Simulation

91. In an integer programming problem, which constraint type is often used?

A) Logical constraints
B) Non-negativity constraints
C) Bound constraints
D) All of the above

92. In the context of decision analysis, what does the "maximin" criterion entail?
A) Maximizing the worst possible outcome
B) Minimizing the best possible outcome
C) Maximizing the average returns
D) All of the above
93. Which technique is NOT part of project management methodologies?
A) Critical Path Method
B) Program Evaluation Review Technique
C) Summarization
D) Gantt Charts

94. What kind of problems does dynamic programming typically address?

A) Linear equations
B) Stage-wise decision-making
C) Random variable selection
D) Graphical constraints

95. Which of the following is the main output of a linear programming model?
A) Constraints
B) Optimal solution
C) Feasible region
D) None of the above

96. What technique is often used for solving complex optimization problems?
A) Simulation
B) Sensitivity analysis
C) Linear programming
D) Mixed-integer programming

97. In the transportation problem, what does ‘supply’ refer to?

A) Demand at various destinations
B) Available resources at the source
C) Excess inventory
D) Transportation routes

98. What is a 'bottleneck' in a process?

A) A point of maximum throughput
B) A stage that slows down the overall process
C) An excess capacity
D) A point of high efficiency

99. What is the conclusion drawn when a solution to a linear programming problem is unbounded?
A) No feasible solution exists
B) The solution is optimal
C) The objective can be improved indefinitely
D) The input data is incorrect

100. Which of the following can be classified as a stochastic model?

A) Linear programming
B) Simulation
C) Integer programming
D) Network flow

101. What is a 'shortest path problem' in operations research?

A) Finding the most direct route between two points
B) Determining the minimum distance in a network
C) Calculating travel times
D) All of the above
102. How is 'capacity planning' relevant in operations management?
A) Determines resource allocation
B) Forecasts supply and demand
 C) Plans workforce scheduling
D) All of the above

103. What does 'S-curve' refer to in project management?

A) Resource allocation
B) Project progress tracking
C) Cost utilization
D) Time estimation

104. What is the main constraint in a project scheduling problem?

A) Time
B) Cost
C) Resources
D) All of the above

105. What method is used to prioritize competing constraints?

A) Kanban
B) Linear programming
C) Theory of constraints
D) Six Sigma

106. Which analysis is used to evaluate risk in decision making?

A) Cost minimization
B) Sensitivity analysis
C) Monte Carlo simulation
D) Forecasting

107. What does 'operational efficiency' measure?

A) Cost per unit
B) Time taken for processes
C) Utilization of resources
D) All of the above

108. In a newsvendor model, what is the main goal?

A) Maximize profit
B) Minimize lost sales
C) Find optimal inventory levels
D) Control lead times

109. What is an 'aggregate plan' in operations?

A) Budget allocation
B) Workforce planning
C) Total production capacity
D) Sales forecasting

110. What is a 'feasibility study' primarily concerned with?

A) Costing estimates
B) Technical viability
C) Scheduling
D) All of the above

111.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of operations research?

A) Data-driven decision making
B) Focus on qualitative analysis
C) Optimization of processes
 D) Use of mathematical models

112. In resource allocation problems, what does 'optimal solution' imply?

A) Least amount of resources spent
B) Best utilization of available resources
C) A balance between costs and outputs
D) All of the above

113. What does 'benchmarking' involve in operations?

A) Setting performance standards
B) Comparing industry best practices
C) Evaluating success metrics
D) All of the above

114. In project management, what does 'float' refer to?

A) Delay in project timeline
B) Time lag between tasks
C) The amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the overall schedule
D) None of the above

115. What is the primary use of forecasting in operations research?

A) Determining potential sales
B) Planning production schedules
C) Managing inventory levels
D) All of the above

1. B) rejected
2. Answer: a) the critical value from the chi-square distribution
3. Answer: b) categorical
4. Answer: b) 6
5. Answer: a) strength
6. Answer: c) both strength of association and direction of relationship
7. Answer: d) Chi-square correlation
8. Answer: c) a strong negative relationship
9. Answer: a) continuous
10. Answer: a) y = b0 + b1x +ei
11. Answer: d) Symmetric distribution
12. Answer: c) the rate of change
13. Answer: B) Predicting the value of a dependent variable based on the value of one or more
independent variables
14. Answer: B) The rate of change of the dependent variable for each unit change in the independent
variable
15. Answer: B) The strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables
16. Answer: B) There is no significant correlation between the variables
17. Answer: B) Test the independence of two categorical variables
18. Answer: A) Summing the squared differences between observed and expected frequencies divided by
 expected frequencies
19. Answer: C) Response variable
20. Answer: A) Whether two categorical variables are related
21. Answer: C) -1 to 1
22. Answer: B) No linear relationship
23. Answer: C) A strong positive correlation
24. Answer: B) -0.8
25. Answer: B) Spearman's rank correlation
26. C) Simple regression
27. B) Explanatory variables
28. B) Continuous variables
29. C) Residual
30. B) b1
31. A) Displays the frequency distribution of two categorical variables.
32. A) multiplying row total and column total and divide by grand total
33. A) Y-axis
34. A) smallest
35. A) uncertainty
36. B) Perfect positive correlation
37. A) Ordinal
38. C) All of the above
39. B) Intercept on Y-axis
40. A) 5160
41. Answer: c) Age
42. Answer: b) A characteristic or property that can take on different values
43. Answer: b) An educated guess about what the data might show
44. Answer: b) The hypothesis that there is no difference or relationship in the population
45. Answer: a) Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
46. Answer: a) The probability of observing the data given that the null hypothesis is true
47. Answer: d) Hair color
48. Answer: b) To summarize and describe data
49. Answer: c) Median
50. Answer: c) Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
51. Answer: d) Gender
52. Answer: a) A hypothesis test that only considers one possible direction of a difference or
relationship
53. Answer: c) Gender
54. Answer: c) A variable that depends on the values of other variables
55. Answer: c) Number of children
56. Answer: b) An educated guess about what the data might show
57. Answer: c) Education level
58. Answer: b) ANOVA
59. Answer: c) Gender
60. Answer: c) To summarize categorical data
61. Answer: d) Standard deviation
62. Answer: d) Data requirement analysis
63. Answer: d) Regression model
64. Answer: c) Predictive Analysis
65. Answer: Organization Categorization summarization
66. Sir Francis Galton
67. **Answer: D) All of the above**
68. **Answer: A) Simplex method**
69. **Answer: C) Integer programming**
70. **Answer: C) Minimize transportation costs**
71. **Answer: D) All of the above**
72. **Answer: B) A set of all possible solutions**
73. **Answer: A) Linear equations**
74. **Answer: A) Chance node**
75. **Answer: C) Branch and bound**
76. **Answer: A) Predicting future outcomes**
77. **Answer: B) Examining how changes in inputs affect outputs**
78. **Answer: D) All of the above**
79. **Answer: D) Randomization**
80. **Answer: C) Heuristic methods**
81. **Answer: B) Satisfying several conflicting objectives**
82. **Answer: B) A measure to be optimized**
83. **Answer: C) Simplex model**
84. **Answer: C) Flexibility in modeling complex processes**
85. **Answer: B) Simulation**
86. **Answer: C) Continuous review system**
87. **Answer: C) AHP**
88. **Answer: B) Programming with non-linear constraints and/or objectives**
89. **Answer: B) Output produced by a system**
90. **Answer: B) PERT/CPM**
91. **Answer: D) All of the above**
92. **Answer: A) Maximizing the worst possible outcome**
93. **Answer: C) Summarization**
94. **Answer: B) Stage-wise decision-making**
95. **Answer: B) Optimal solution**
96. **Answer: D) Mixed-integer programming**
97. **Answer: B) Available resources at the source**
98. **Answer: B) A stage that slows down the overall process**
99. **Answer: C) The objective can be improved indefinitely**
100. **Answer: B) Simulation**
101. **Answer: D) All of the above**
102. **Answer: D) All of the above**
103. **Answer: B) Project progress tracking**
104. **Answer: D) All of the above**
105. **Answer: C) Theory of constraints**
106. **Answer: C) Monte Carlo simulation**
107. **Answer: D) All of the above**
108. **Answer: C) Find optimal inventory levels**
109. **Answer: C) Total production capacity**
110. **Answer: D) All of the above**
111.**Answer: B) Focus on qualitative analysis**
112. **Answer: D) All of the above**
113. **Answer: D) All of the above**
114. **Answer: C) The amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the overall
schedule**
115. **Answer: D) All of the above**