COGNIZANT MOCK TEST – 3

INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE TEST

Total Sections: 3
Total Questions: 80
Total Allocated Time: 1 hour 40 minutes
Section Instructions:
Section 1: Aptitude
1. This section is based on Cognizant Aptitude Section Pattern.
2. Total there will be 25 MCQ questions with a single option correct.
3. A total of 35 minutes will be given to attempt this section.
Section 2: Logical Reasoning
1. This section is based on Cognizant Logical Reasoning Section Pattern.
2. Total there will be 35 MCQ questions with a single option correct.
3. A total of 45 minutes will be given to attempt this section.
Section 3: Verbal Ability (English)
1. This section is based on Cognizant Verbal Ability (English) Section Pattern.
2. Total there will be 20 MCQ questions with a single option correct.
3. A total of 20 minutes will be given to attempt this section.

SECTION 1: APTITUDE
Q1. In a farm of 50 hens lays 200 eggs in 2 days, how many days that 20 hens to lay 400
eggs?
(a) 10 days (b) 12 days (c) 7 days (d) 8 days

Q2. Cost price of 84 notebooks is equal to the selling price of 60 notebooks. The gain or
loss% is:
(a) 36% (b) 44% (c) 30% (d) 40%

Q3. A student is to answer 12 out of 16 questions in an examination such that he must

choose at least 5 from the first 6 questions. The number of choices available to him is?
(a) 4320 (b) 5180 (c) 4860 (d) 5090

Q4. Mohan takes 8 days less than the time taken by Ravi to finish a piece of work. If both
Mohan and Ravi together can finish it in 7.5 days, then how many days Ravi will take to
finish the work alone?
(a) 15 days (b) 18 days (c) 20 days (d) 24 days

Q5. The sum of nine consecutive odd numbers of set A is 657. What is the sum of seven
consecutive odd numbers whose lowest number is 18 more than the lowest number of
set A?
(a) 620 (b) 625 (c) 635 (d) 623

Q6. The profit after selling a pair of trousers for Rs. 863 is the same as the loss incurred
after selling the same pair of trousers for Rs. 631. What is the cost price of the trousers?
(a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 800 (c) Rs. 763 (d) None of these
Q7. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad invests some amount at the
beginning. Vikas invests double the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the
amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn a profit of Rs. 45000 at the end of
the year. What is Manav’s share in the profit?
(a) Rs. 25000 (b) Rs. 15000 (c) Rs. 12000 (d) Rs. 9000

Q8. A can complete a piece of work in 12 days. A and B together can complete the same
piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can B complete the same piece of work?
(a) 15 days (b) 18 days (c) 24 days (d) 28 days

Q9. Raman drove from home to a neighboring town at the speed of 50 km/hr and on his
return journey, he drove at the speed of 45 km/hr and also took an hour longer to reach
home. What distance did he cover each way?
(a) 450 km (b) 225 km (c) 900 km (d) 500 km

Q10. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “MIRACLE” be arranged?
(a) 720 (b) 5040 (c) 2520 (d) 40320

Q11. The average weight of a group of 75 girls was calculated 47 kg. It was later
discovered that the weight of one of the girls was read as 45 kg, whereas her actual
weight was 25 kg. What is the actual average weight of the group of 75 girls? (Rounded
off to two digits after decimal)
(a) 46.73 kg (b) 46.64 kg (c) 45.96 kg (d) None
Q12. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 12 and the difference between
the two digits of the two digit number is 6. What is the two digit number?
(a) 39 (b) 84 (c) 93 (d) None

Q13. If an amount of Rs. 74,336 is equally divided amongst 150 people, how much
approximate amount would each person get?
(a) Rs. 522 (b) Rs. 485 (c) Rs. 496 (d) Rs. 488

Q14. Mr. Sarang invests 6% of his monthly salary ie Rs. 2100 on insurance policies. Also
he invests 8% of his monthly salary on family mediclaim policies and another 9% of his
salary on NSCs. What is the total annual amount invested by Mr. Sarang?
(a) Rs. 11400 (b) Rs. 96600 (c) Rs. 8050 (d) Rs. 9500

Q15. 1 -2 + 3 – 4 + …………… + 200. Find the average of these 200 terms.

(a) 1/2 (b) -1/2 (c) 3/2 (d) -3/2

Q16. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and denominator is increased by

250%, then the resultant fraction is 3/14. What is the original fraction?
(a) 1/2 (b) 3/4 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/8

Q17. A man walks from 9.15 Am to 5.15 Pm from Monday to Friday and 9.00 Am to 12.00
Noon on Saturday. Each day he takes lunch for 45 min. How much time does he walk in a
week?
(a) 37 hrs 30 min (b) 37 hrs (c) 38 hrs 30 min (d) 38 hrs

Q18. It takes a train to travel 45 min from A to B. When the speed of the train is reduced
by 5 kmph, the new time taken is 48 min. What is the distance between A and B (in km)
(a) 60 (b) 65 (c) 70 (d) 80

Q19. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability
that either both are black or both are queen?
(a) 4/26 (b) 55/221 (c) 56/221 (d) 1/4

Q20. The speeds of two trains are in the ratio 5:3. If the speed of the first train is 350 km
in 2hours. Then the speed of the second train is (in kmph)?
 (a) 105 (b) 35 (c) 175 (d) 125

Q21. A supplier supplies cartridges to a news paper publishing house. He earns a profit of
20% by selling for Rs. 540. Find the cost price of the cartridges?
(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 480 (c) Rs.450 (d) Rs. 400

Q22. Spanish language broadcast records last 90 min on each of two sides. If it takes 3
hours to translate one hour of broadcast, how long will it take to translate 16 full records
(in hours)?
(a) 48 (b) 18 (c) 68 (d) 32

Q23. A goods train travels from a station at a certain time and at uniform speed. After 6
hrs an express train leaves the same station and move in same direction at uniform
speed of 90 kmph. The express tarin catches up the good train in 4 hrs. Find the speed of
the goods train.
(a) 60 kmph (b) 64 kmph (c) 32kmph (d) 36 kmph

Q24. In how many ways, a captain of a cricket team can be selected within 11 players
from squad of 14 players?
(a) 364 (b) 464 (c) 264 (d) 272

Q25. The angle of elevation of a ladder against a wall is 60 degree and the foot of the
ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:
(a) 2.3m (b) 4.6m (c) 7.8m (d) 9.2m

SECTION 2: LOGICAL REASONING SECTION

Q1. Faizal is standing at point A facing North, he walks 15 meters to his left and takes an
about-turn and walks 30 meters.How far and in which direction he is from the starting
point?
(a) 15 meters, West (c) 45 meters, East
(b) 15 meters, East (d) 45 meters, West

Q2. Choose the correct option:Find the odd man out.

(a) C5H (b) E6L (c) M4Q (d) T3W

Q3. Find the next number in the series.

3, 11, 25, 45, ..
(a) 65 (b) 71 (c) 61 (d) 75

Q4. Choose the correct option.From the given anagrams, select the odd out
(a) LABLOTOF (b) ONSELC (c) CEKTRIC (d) SNINET

Q5. A lady is facing South-East, she turns 180° in the clockwise direction. Then 360° in
the anticlockwise direction and then another 270° in the clockwise direction. Which
direction is she facing now?
(a) South (b) South-West (c) West (d) South-East

Q6. If COMPUTER is coded as GKQLYPIN, what is the code for SENATE?

(a) WAREXA (b) WAERXA (c) WARWXA (d) WAERAX

Q7. Pick the odd man out

(a) KML (b) PRQ (c) NPQ (d) TVU

Q8. Pick the odd man out.

 (a) AEK (b) DFH (c) TWZ (d) MOQ

Q9. Suneeta moves a distance of 9 meters towards East. She then moves towards South
and travels a distance of 4 meters. Fromhere, she moves a distance of 6meters towards
West. How far is the starting point from her final position?
(a) 3 meters (b) 4 meters (c) 5 meters (d) 7 meters

Q10. Pointing towards a person in a photograph.Pinki said, "He is the cousin of my

mother's husband". How is that person related to Pinki?
(a) Father (b) Uncle (c) Brother (d) Brother-in-Law

Q11. If SPORTS is coded as TOPQUR, then GAME is coded as

(a) HZND (b) FBNF (c) HBND (d) FZNF

Q12. Decode the word(s) / pattern given in the question.

If MORNING is coded as NPSOJOH. Then what will SUNSHINE be coded as?
(a) TVOTGJOF (b) TVOTIJOD (c) TVOTIJOF (d) TWOTIJOF

Q13. Two friends A and B start walking from a common point. A goes 20 kms towards
north-east whereas B goes 16 kms towards east and then 12 kms towards north. How far
are A and B from each other.
(a) 14 kms (c) 15 kms
(b) They are at the same place (d) Data is insufficient

Q14. Choose the correct option: D4P: H4L: P5R:

(a) V4N (b) V5S (c) U5M (d) R4N

Q15. Choose the option that arranges the given set of words in the 'most' meaningful
order.
The words when put in order should make logical sense according to size quality,
quantity, occurrence of events, value, appearance, nature, process,etc.
1. Infant 2. Foetus 3. Zygote 4. Adult 5. Teenager
(a) 2,3,1,5, 4 (b) 3,2,1, 5, 4 (c) 4,5,1,3,2 (d) 2,1,5,4,3

Q16. A number is divisible by 24 if:

Statements:
I) The number is divisible by 3
II) The number is divisible by 8
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient in answering the problem question
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient in answering the problem question
(c) Either of the statements is sufficient in answering the problem question
(d) Both statements I and II together are sufficient in answering the problem question
(e) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient in answering the problem
question

Q17. A is the only brother of B. P is the only nephew of B. How is P related to A?

(a) Son (b) Daughter (c) Brother (d) Can't say

Q18. Shilpa walks 6 km towards South. From there, she walks 9 km towards East. Then
she walks 2 km towards the South. Again she walks 3 km towards West. How far is he
from her original position?
(a) 7 km (b) 8 km (c) 9 km (d) 10 km

Q19. Choose the correct option:

From the given choices select the odd one out.
(a) EGK (b) BEN (c) CGP (a) AEU
Q20. Symbols +,-, *,* and /mean the following:
A -B means A is equal to B.
A + B means A is 3 more than twice of B.
A * B means A is 70 percent of B.
A/B means A is less than B
Using these symbols and taking the given statements as true, find out that which of the
given conclusions is/are definitely true?
Statements: X+Y, Z*Y and Z -A
Conclusions:
I.Z/X
II.A/X
(a) Only I is true (c) Both are correct
(b) Only II is true (d) None of these is true

Q21. Choose the correct option:

Nancy is standing at point A facing North. She walks 50 meters to her right and takes a
left turn and walks another 40 meters, then she walks 30 meters to her left again and
then 20 meters to her right.
In which direction is she standing from her starting point?
(a) North-East (b) North-West (c) North (d) South-West

Q22. Decode the word(s) / pattern given in the question.

If GULMOHAR is coded as TFONLSZI, PIPAL will be coded as:
(a) QJQBM (b) QJQBN (c) KRKZO (d) KIKZO

Q23. Decode the word(s)/ pattern given in the question.If CHAIR is coded as FKDLU, the
RICH is coded as:
(a) UKFD (b) ULDK (c) ULFK (d) UDLU

Q24. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II.
Find out if the information given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to
the problem.
Problem question: Out of five parties, which party won the election?
Statements:
I. Party 'X' got the least number of votes.
II. Party 'Y' got hundred more votes than party 'Z'.
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient in answering the problem question
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient in answering the problem question
(c) Either of the statements is sufficient in answering the problem question
(d) Both statements I and II together are sufficient in answering the problem question
(e) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient in answering the problem
question

Q25. Choose the correct option: Find the odd man out
(a) STV (b) XYA (c) KKT (d) BCE

Q26. P started from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 25 m. He turned
to the right and walked 10 m. He then again turned to the right and walked 15 m. After
this he is to turn right at 1350 and to cover 30 m. In which direction should he go?
(a) West (b) South (c) South-West (d) South-East

Q27. In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered
I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the
two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable
doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statements: The best evidence of India's glorious past is the growing popularity of
Ayurvedic medicines in the West.
Conclusions:
I. Ayurvedic medicines are not popular in India.
II. Allopathic medicines are more popular in India.
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient in answering the problem question
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient in answering the problem question
(c) Either of the statements is sufficient in answering the problem question
(d) Both statements I and II together are sufficient in answering the problem question
(e) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient in answering the problem
question

Q28. In each of the following questions, find out which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3)
and (4) completes the figure matrix?
Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q29. In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number
pattern. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series. JAK, KBL, LCM,
MDN, .
(a) OEP (b) NEO (c) MEN (d) PFQ

Q30. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions

numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: If it is easy to become an engineer, I don't want to be an engineer.
Assumptions:
I. An individual aspires to be professional.
II. One desires to achieve a thing which is hard earned.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Either I or II is implicit
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit
(e) Both I and II are implicit

Q31. One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he met
Stephen who was coming from opposite direction. Vimal watch that the shadow of
Stephen to the right of him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal was facing?
(a) East (b) West (c) South (d) Data inadequate

Q32. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions

numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement:
A warning in a train compartment - "To stop train, pull chain. Penalty for improper use Rs.
500."
Assumptions:
1. Some people misuse the alarm chain.
II. On certain occasions, people may want to stop a running train.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Either I or II is implicit
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit
(e) Both I and II are implicit

Q33. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related
to A?
(a) Brother (b) Sister (c) Nephew (d) Cannot be determined

Q34. Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and II. These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements.
Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Statements:
I. Many people visited the religious place during the week-end.
II. Few people visited the religious place during the week days.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(c) Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(d) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(e) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Q35. A boy rode his bicycle Northward, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned
left and rode 2 km. He found himself 1 km west of his starting point. How far did he ride
northward initially?
(a) 1km (b) 2 km (c) 3 km (d) 5 km

SECTION 3: VERBAL ABILITY (ENGLISH)

Directions (1-4): - Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis
of the information provided in the passage.

What needs to be set right is our approach to work. It is a common sight in our country
for employees to report for duty on time and at the same time do little work. If an
assessment is made of time they spend in gossiping, drinking tea, eating "pan" and
smoking cigarettes, it will be shocking to know that the time devoted to actual work is
negligible. The problem is the standard which the leadership in administration sets for
the staff. Forget the ministers because they mix politics and administration. What do top
bureaucrats do? What do the officials down below do? The administration set up remains
weak mainly because the employees do not have the right example to follow and they
are more concerned about being in the good books of the bosses than doing work.

Q1. The employees in our country

(a) are quite punctual but not duty conscious
(b) are not punctual, but somehow manage to complete their work
(c) Care somewhat lazy but good nature
(d) are not very highly qualified

Q2. According to the writer, the administration in India

(a) is by and large effective
(b) is very strict and firm
(c) is affected by red tape
(d) is more or less ineffective
Q3. The word 'assessment' means
(a) enquiry (b) report (c) evaluation (d)summary

Q4. The leadership in administration

(a) sets a fine example to the employees
(b) is of a reasonably high standard
(c) is composed of idealists
(d) is of a very poor standard

Directions (5-6): - Read the passage given below and select the most appropriate
answer:
If you wish to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view. All good
writers make us see things in a different light. You may be writing about the same thing
as your classmates, but your presentation must reflect your personality and individuality.
There are so many interesting subjects you can write about in different forms but here
we will try to attempt writing short stories. There is a good market for the following
types: the humorous stories, the adventurous stories, the domestic stories, the mysteries
and stories related to animals and strange experiences. Don't worry if your story turns
out to be short - some of the best stories are quite short. Be very careful about the
climax or end of the story. It must be what the reader fears, desires, expects or best of
all doesn't expect. So, get down to it. Think of a plot, make points on how the story will
progress and pen it down.

Q5. Most of the people like to read:

(a) horror stories (c) humorous and adventurous stories
(b) social stories (d) None of these

Q6. elect the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

SAGACIOUS
(a) Ingenious (b) Astute (c) Prudent (d) Ignorant

Q7. In each of these questions, a disarranged sentence is given in which words or

phrases lettered p, q, r and s. You are to arrange to form a meaningful sentence
Deign, most honorable, magnificent and sovereign Lords, (q) interest I take in your
common prosperity(s)this respectful testimony of the (r) to receive, and with equal
goodness.(p)
(a) qrsp (b) aprs (c) rspq (d) pqrs

Q8. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The error will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer (ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
Hundreds of passengers was(1)/ stranded in the bitterly cold national capital(2)/ as dense
fog led to numerous(3)/flight cancellations and train delays(4)/
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q9. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold.
FORMULATE
(a) regularize (b) contemplate (c) apply (d) frame

Q10. Each of the questions below contains one or more blank spaces, each blank space
indicating an omitted word or phrase. Beneath the sentence are four words or set of
words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank space that best fits the meaning
of the sentence as a whole.
Psychologists agree that human beings have a strong need to their time; having too
much idle time can be as stressful as having none at all.
(a) compartmentalize (b) structure (c) functionalise (d) remand
Q11. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold
VIABLE
(a) impossible (b) negative (c) deadly (d) practical

Q12. Each of the questions below contains one or more blank spaces, each blank space
indicating an omitted word or phrase. Beneath the sentence are four words or set of
words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank space that best fits the meaning
of the sentence as a whole.
The judge, after ruling that the news report had unjustly............ the reputation of the
Physician, ordered the newspaper .................... libellous statements in print.
(a) ainjured - retract (c) damaged - disseminate
(b) sullied – publicize (d) tarnished – cover up

Q13. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold
INEVITABLY
(a) avoidably (b) mostly (c) certainly (d) expectedly

Q14. In each of these questions, a disarranged sentence is given in which words or

phrases lettered p, q, r and s. You are to arrange to form a meaningful sentence
To the limits of the human faculties(s)I should have preferred a society (q)which had an
extent proportionate (r)If I had had to make choice of the place of my birth. (p)
(a) qrsp (b) qprs (c) rspq (d) pqrs

Q15. In each of these questions, a disarranged sentence is given in which words or

phrases lettered p, q, r and s. You are to arrange to form a meaningful sentence
Glory of their communities at heart(q)that the rulers of a civil society should(s) have the
welfare and (p) It ought not to be thought surprising(r)
(a) qrsp (b) aprs (c) rspq (d)pqrs

Q16. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold
ARDUOUS
(a) pleasurable (b) different (c) difficult (d) hazardous

What will be the replacement of the phrase in bold?

The Deloitte employees hope that the management would concede their demands.
(a) will concede to its (c) will concede with their
(b) will concede to their (d) No correction required

Q18. In the question below, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose "No improvement'.
Stop fighting for a trifle issue!
(a) Fighting with (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Fighting over (d) No improvement

Q19. Direction: Choose the correct option.

Columbus was in search ______ America.
(a) for (b) of (c) about (d) under

Q20. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The error will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer (ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
If you do intellectual labour continuous(1)/ for hours together, you will feel tired(2)/ and
that tiredness will not only be(3)/ of the mind but also of the body(4)./
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4