VARC

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of four questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

At the close of the Middle Ages one of the main tasks of European thought was to bring about a fresh reorientation of historical studies.
The great theological and philosophical systems which had provided a basis for determining the general plan of history a priori had
ceased to command assent, and with the Renaissance a return was made to a humanistic view of history based on that of the ancients.
Accurate scholarship became important, because human actions were no longer felt to be dwarfed into insignificance in comparison with
a divine plan.
Historical thought once more placed man in the centre of its picture. But in spite of the new interest in Greco-Roman thought, the
Renaissance conception of man was profoundly different from the Greco-Roman; and when a writer like Machiavelli, in the early
sixteenth century, expressed his ideas about history in the shape of a commentary on the first ten books of Livy he was not reinstating
Livy's own view of history. Man, for the Renaissance historian, was not man as depicted by ancient philosophy, controlling his actions and
creating his destiny by the work of his intellect, but man as depicted by Christian thought, a creature of passion and impulse. History thus
became the history of human passions, regarded as necessary manifestations of human nature.
The positive fruits of this new movement were found first of all in a great clearing away of what had been fanciful and ill-founded medieval
historiography. By the beginning of the seventeenth century Bacon was able to sum up the situation by dividing his map of knowledge
into the three great realms of poetry, history, and philosophy, ruled over by the three faculties of imagination, memory, and understanding.
To say that memory presides over history is to say that the essential work of history is to recall and record the past in its actual facts as
they actually happened.
But the position of history as thus defined was precarious. It had a definite programme, the rediscovery of the past, but it had no methods
or principles by which this programme could be carried out. Actually, Bacon's definition of history as the realm of memory was wrong,
because the past only requires historical investigation so far as it is not and cannot be remembered. If it could be remembered, there
would be no need of historians. Bacon's own contemporary Camden was already at work in the best Renaissance tradition on the
topography and archaeology of Britain, showing how unremembered history could be reconstructed from data somewhat as, at the same
time, natural scientists were using data as the basis of scientific theories. The question how the historian's understanding works to
supplement the deficiencies of his memory was a question that Bacon never asked.
Q1. ‘Man as depicted by Christian thought’ was different from ‘man as depicted in the ancient philosophy’ because

a) the former placed the divine at the centre of historical thought, whereas the latter placed humans at the centre of
historical thought.
b) the former placed importance on human passions whereas the latter placed importance on human intellect.
c) the former was defined according to the Renaissance conception whereas the latter, according to the Greco-Roman
conception.
d) the former viewed history as a consequence of passion whereas the latter viewed it as a consequence of intellect.

Q2. It can be inferred from the first para of the passage that

a) the a priori determination of the general outline of history based on theological systems advocated a divine plan.
b) accurate scholarship allowed historians to proscribe the importance of human actions.
c) Renaissance ideas depicted the path of human ascension rather than divine supremacy.
d) theological systems distorted the actual history of events.
Q3.Bacon’s idea of history is invalidated by the author’s argument that

a) history is not just what our memory serves up but also that which our memory doesn’t retrieve.
b) history is the association of human interpretation with the human memory of events as they actually happened.
c) history is critical only because of the deficiencies of human memory.
d) history’s primary function is not to record or recall the past as it actually happened.

Q4.The author mentions Camden’s example in the last para of the passage to build on the hypothesis that

a) Bacon’s contemporaries didn’t agree with his idea of history.

b) history can be rebuilt without memory.
c) the purpose of historical investigation is to reconstruct what cannot be remembered.
d) a historian’s understanding supplements the deficiencies of memory.
DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of four questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

According to general opinion the concept of the Kunstwollen or “art drive” stands at the center of Riegl’s thought. What is the origin of this
concept?
Its starting point is the recognition of “style,” which took place during the course of the nineteenth century. If one classes them according to their
purely external appearance, the diverse works of art can be divided up into differing groups and subgroups of varying size. In general, these
groups of artworks form relatively closed spatial and temporal unities. They gather around certain central works which represent the “pure style.”
…
This concept of style as something grasped intuitively and described through highlighting individual stylistic characteristics is by its very nature
extremely erratic and uncertain. “The purely empirical depiction of styles by their individual characteristics is not scientific, in the proper sense of
the word. It stops with merely outward description.”
The phenomenon that has been observed is therefore the following. Forms are transformed, their “external character,” their style changes, now
the simple question is raised as to what drives this formal change. What is changing at a fundamental level, when the surface style changes?
One can thus also phrase the second question as follows: We know the dependent variable factor, namely the style of works of art; what is the
variable independent of all others? These two questions are not of equal importance; most immediately we shall give prominence to the second.
Various answers have been given to this question. One answer, or, more precisely, one apparent answer, that of [Semperians], is that purpose,
material, and techniques change, and that these are the determinants of style. There is an intellectual factor in addition which can be ignored
(and this is a mistake) because it is secondary. If one then asks further what these three variables depend on, one comes to the result that since
blind chance is not admitted the independent variable is the material culture: crass materialism! There is no need at all to develop this point of
view through to its final consequences. For it is clear that according to this answer, style means something quite different from what it meant in
our question, and that our question only has the appearance of having been answered... In terms of our concept of style, forms that have been
executed with different materials and techniques and for different purposes can remain unchanged. This solution is thus useless for us.
Riegl himself offered an opposing answer. The independent variable is the “direction of the Kunstwollen” to use the rough general expression.
The purpose, the material and the technique also change, but they are negative factors, mere “frictional coefficients,” which have to be
subtracted in order to recognize the pure “direction of the art drive” that is the positive determining factor. In any case, two of them are partly
dependent on the direction of the art drive, which also determine the choice of material and technique.
Here we have arrived at the concept and theory of the art drive on the basis of questions raised by the concrete praxis of scholarly research. The
concept is introduced to clarify the quite concrete phenomenon of style. The theory of the art drive is a “new explanation of style.”
Q5. Why does the author call Semperians’ answer as an “apparent answer” in the fifth paragraph of the passage?

a) The Semperians’ answer erroneously assumes that style can remain unchanged with changes in purpose,
material and technique.
b) The author believes that the Semperians are mistaken in not considering intellectual factor as a determinant of
style.
c) The Semperians do not consider the influence of Kunstwollen on style in answering the author’s question.
d) The concept of style according to the Semperians is different from that according to the author.

Q6. According to the Riegl, which of the following is true regarding the relation between ‘art drive’ and ‘purpose,
material and technique’?

a) Material and technique partly determine the direction of the art drive, which in turn determines the purpose.
b) The changes in purpose, material and technique indicate the direction of the art drive.
c) The changes in purpose, material and technique interfere when trying to understand the direction of the art
drive.
d) The direction of art drive determines the changes in purpose, material and technique.
Q7. Which of the following will Reigl most probably agree with regarding Kunstwollen?

a) The direction of the Kunstwollen changes whenever there is a change in the style of art.
b) The direction of the Kunstwollen is independent of the styles of art.
c) The direction of the Kunstwollen helps in identifying variations in an artistic form across temporal and spatial planes.
d) The direction of the Kunstwollen explains why the changes in style are highly erratic and uncertain.

Q8. Which of the following can be inferred from the third paragraph of the passage?

a) Defining concept of style in a scientific manner will result in an erratic and uncertain definition of the concept of style.
b) The concept of style should be defined independent of any external descriptions.
c) Direction of art drive should be used for defining the concept of style.
d) Defining the concept of style only through its visible manifestations will not be comprehensive.
DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of four questions. Choose the best answer to each question.…

The diversity discourse is primarily aimed at managers, particularly those sceptical about ‘equal opportunities’, which is defined as a state of
fairness in which job applicants are treated similarly, unhampered by artificial barriers or prejudices or preferences, with the intent that the
important jobs in an organization should go to the people who are most qualified – persons most likely to perform ably in a given task – and
not go to persons for reasons deemed arbitrary or irrelevant, such as circumstances of birth, upbringing, having well-connected relatives or
friends, religion, sex, ethnicity, race, caste, or involuntary personal attributes such as disability, age, gender identity, or sexual orientation. It
tends to encourage managers to take ‘ownership’ of diversity with the result that its particular meaning is derived from a managerial agenda.
Diversity is not owned by ordinary employees and their representatives; indeed, this is often deemed by diversity proponents to be one of its
strengths over traditional equal opportunity approaches because it supposedly depoliticizes the issues. In effect this is a fallacy because the
issues remain political. Control of policies and practices has always resided with management, but diversity extends this to cover the discourse
of equality.
A good illustration comes from Zanoni and Janssens (2004) who found that managers they interviewed resorted to stereotypes to explain
differences and were interested only in how such differences could be deployed in relation to organizational goals. In some cases, differences
were interpreted by managers as deficiencies (of skills, competences, dispositions, attitudes and so forth) and therefore provided a managerial
rationale for not appointing, promoting, rewarding, and so on. In other instances, the differences were interpreted as vulnerabilities and
consequently such employees were considered to be more compliant and malleable to managerial demands. Zanoni and Janssens conclude
that ‘diversity is conceived in a very selective and instrumental way with reference to the productive process in the specific organizational
context. In this way, these diversity discourses clearly reflect existing power relations between management and employees in the
organization.’
A retail case study by Foster and Harris (2005) is just as instructive in revealing the paradox in enacting diversity. Line managers struggle to
come to terms with the apparent contradiction in treating everyone the same (for consistency and perceived equity) while also recognizing the
individual needs of employees, which might require differential treatment. Indeed, the sameness–difference paradox evident in the policy and
practice of previous equal opportunities approaches is not reconciled by the turn to diversity.
Overall, within the workplace, diversity approaches might encourage a rethinking of policy and a review of practices from which ethnic minority
employees might benefit. It is, however, misguided to believe that diversity will deliver in ways that equal opportunities could not. Diversity
discourses are not constructed to confront power relations, dominant ideologies or organizational goals. They do not tackle the deep, structural
problems discussed by other commentators. Indeed, as these commentators have noted there is a tendency for the diversity discourse to be
underpinned by a business case rationale which is dangerously flawed.
Q9. Which of the following best represents the sameness-difference paradox?

a) Diversity and the practice of equal opportunities approaches are counterintuitive.

b) Individual needs of employees, who should be treated equally, demand differential treatment.
c) Diversity discourses only reflect existing power relations between management and employees in the organization.
d) Diversity approaches benefit ethnic minority employees more than they do others.

Q10. Which of the following is not a shortcoming of the diversity approach, as understood from the passage?

a) Deep-rooted structural issues that put ethnic minorities at a disadvantage in organisations are still not addressed.
b) The diversity argument doesn’t upend the existing counterproductive organisational ideologies.
c) The diversity discourse makes management the final voice on policies and practices.
d) Managers tasked with implementing the diversity approach could reinforce stereotypes.
Q11. The author’s central concern in the passage is alleviated by which of the following statements?

a) Diversity discourses, albeit through imperfect implementation, could lay the foundation for a change in mindset that
addresses deep-rooted issues at organisational level.
b) Diversity discourses are well-intentioned and can benefit ethnic minorities, even if the benefits don’t happen at an
expected scale.
c) Diversity discourses shift away from the equal opportunities approach that focuses on a narrow definition of workplace
value of an employee.
d) Diversity discourses make managers responsible for addressing the needs of their employees from ethnic minorities.

Q12. Zanoni and Janssens illustration of how managers treated the diversity discourse elucidates that

a) a business rationale behind diversity doesn’t address structural issues in an organisation.

b) differences between employees often agreed with pre-existing stereotypes in the organisation.
c) the definition of diversity as employed at an organisational level is quite myopic.
d) individual differences could be exploited for organisational benefit if managers are in-charge of the diversity
discourse.
DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of four questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

There are few things that have more changed our world than has science. Scientists and their discoveries have helped transform material
conditions and opened up new social and moral vistas. Yet it is the very notion of human-directed change that many people today find so
troubling. No period has been more penetrated by science, nor more dependent upon it, than the past half century. Yet no period has been
more uneasy about it, nor felt more that the relationship with scientific knowledge is a Faustian pact. ...
No science has seemed more to call all in doubt than the science of biology. From genetic engineering to cloning, from test tube babies to
xenotransplantation, from the mapping of the human genome to the possibility of ending the menopause, biology has truly disturbed our
universe. Opinion formers in society worry that man is now playing God, remaking nature in his own image. Bryan Appleyard is terrified by the
way that science has invaded the human realm. “The new biology entails the thwarting of nature at a very fundamental level. Genetics must be
contained, humbled.”
But while there is immense fear about the practical consequences of biological sciences, there is an equally immense support for biological
theories of human nature. …
This contrast between hostility to biological experimentation and embrace of evolutionary psychology should not surprise us. What many
people fear is a science that disturbs their moral compass, upsetting traditional ideas of Man and nature, a science that promises new forms of
control over nature, new types of mastery over human destiny. What many people are drawn to is a science that provides science and comfort,
and turns an explanation about the human condition into a parable about fate.
The common threads in hostility to biological science and a yearning for evolutionary stories are a debased view of what it means to be human
and an exalted view of nature. ‘In a secular civilization’, Mary Douglas and Aaron Wildavsky observe, ‘nature plays the role of general arbiter of
human designs more plausibly than God’…Today, nature is rapidly turning into a new deity to whom we turn for moral answer and personal
comfort… In an age in which humans and human activity are held in low esteem, there is a tendency to deify nature. In almost every aspect of
life, the ‘natural’ is regarded as morally superior to the artificial or the human…As Norman Levitt put it ‘The “natural” is the virtuous opposite of
the degraded manifestations of humanity’s fallen state.’
The deification of nature has led many both to decry science that seems to defile the purity of nature and to laud science that seems to make
us more natural. Biological technology that threatens to transform our relationship with nature is often seen as unnatural and blasphemous.
‘Have we the right’, the molecular biologist Ervin Chargaff asks, ‘to counteract, irreversibly, the evolutionary wisdom of millions of years? Each
generation must be allowed to struggle with human nature as it is given to them, and not with the irreversible biological results of their forbears’
actions.
Q13.Why do we feel that our relationship with science is a Faustian pact?

a) Over the past 50 years, we have come to depend on science more and more.
b) While science has given us immense power, it has disturbed our moral compass.
c) Science penetrates every aspect of our life calling accepted facts into question.
d) Scientific theories have continuously revolutionized the way we look at Nature.

Q14. In the passage, the author

a) examines the implications of scientific progress for man and nature.

b) justifies the need to examine scientific discoveries under the microscope of reality.
c) voices society’s concern over scientists playing God.
d) presents the society’s view of science as a double-edged sword.
Q15. According to the author, what kind of science is not feared by people?

a) Science that realigns their moral compass.

b) Science that upsets traditional ideas of man and nature.
c) Science that attributes the condition of humanity to destiny.
d) Science that results in new types of mastery over human destiny and nature.

Q16. Which of the following can be inferred to be definitely false from a reading of the passage?

a) According to Aaron Wildavsky, we turn to nature as a new deity because it provides us with a compass for our
behaviour.
b) Ervin Chargaff asserts that new generations must struggle with the irreversible biological results of their predecessors.
c) Norman Levitt viewed “the natural” as the contradiction of a human extreme.
d) Bryan Appleyard believes that fields like genetics and molecular biology upset the apple cart of nature’s principles.
Q17. DIRECTIONS for question 17: The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the four sentences and key in the
sequence of four numbers as your answer, in the input box given below the question.

1. The consensus reached is that that region was plagued by a particularly virulent strain of what sociologists call a “culture
of honour.”
2. When lots of families fight with one another in identical little towns up and down the same mountain range, it’s a pattern.
3. When one family fights with another, it’s a feud.
4. What was the cause of the Appalachian pattern?
Q18. DIRECTIONS for question 18: Four alternative summaries are given below the text. Choose the option that best
captures the essence of the text.

Almost all first-rate translators convey the story and spirit of the works at hand –– capturing Bovary’s yearning or
Raskolnikov’s torment. But then we remember Flaubert, who famously labored to find le seul mot juste (‘the one right
word’). Even a cursory glance of competing translations displays thousands of differing word choices, many of which alter
the rhythm, the syntax and, to varying degrees, the meaning of the work. To take one telling example, here is Lyngstad’s
translation of the third sentence from Hamsun’s novel, “Victoria”: “When he grew up he wanted to be a maker of matches.”
But this is how an earlier translator, Oliver Stallybrass, rendered it: “When he grew up he would work in a match factory.” I
cannot say which version is truer, but the differences are plain. Lyngstad gives us an ambitious boy determined to set the
world on fire. Stallybrass introduces us to a child whose grim fate seems predetermined.

a) While good translators can do their job very well, it is difficult to convey the same impression that the original work would
have.
b) A work in translation can never hope to convey the same impression as its original. Even a superficial reading of a
translation shows it is inferior to the original work.
c) A translation can express only the gist of the original story, but not the nuances of language accompanying it.
d) Translators play a central role in our experience of foreign works. While second-rate translators are usually handicapped
by certain limitations, a few of the best or first-rate translators can overcome them.
Q19. DIRECTIONS for question 19: There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the
paragraph and decide in which blank (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.

Sentence: She might also have no sense of the opportunity costs involved, and not appreciate that time caring
for this relative will take away precious time doing something else that is both valuable and enjoyable.

Paragraph: A child who volunteers to care for a relative with dementia for a couple of hours a day can’t authoritatively
endorse such a project if she finds it stressful. _____(1)_____ Unlike the writer or the doctor who can step back to
evaluate how stressful projects fit with her overall conception of a good life, and then authoritatively endorse them, a
child’s evaluative capacities are not sufficiently mature and developed for her to do the same. _____(2)_____ She is
therefore unable to assess such caring obligations against a background of adequate self-knowledge, realistic sense of
competing options, sufficient level of moral knowledge, and adequate understanding of the costs, risks and
opportunities involved. _____(3)_____ That’s why she might end up, say, giving unreasonable weight to pleasing her
family, or making a mistake about what morality requires. _____(4)_____ Such mistakes are not avoidable but a direct
result of the kind of creature a child is – a creature who is not yet in a position to go ahead with stressful and anxiety-
inducing projects because she is able to produce authoritative reasons in their favour.

a) Option 1
b) Option 2
c) Option 3
d) Option 4
Q20. DIRECTIONS for question 20: The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the four sentences and
key in the sequence of four numbers as your answer, in the input box given below the question.

1. Gerald Horne’s Jazz and Justice: Racism and the Political Economy of the Music examines the economic, social,
and political forces that shaped this music into a phenomenal U.S. – and Black American – contribution to global
arts and culture.
2. Jazz musicians battled organized crime, the Ku Klux Klan, and other variously malignant forces dominating the
nightclub scene where jazz became known.
3. The music we call “jazz” arose in late nineteenth century North America – most likely in New Orleans – based on
the musical traditions of Africans, newly freed from slavery.
4. Grounded in the music known as the “blues,” which expressed the pain, sufferings, and hopes of Black folk, this
new music entered the world via the instruments that had been abandoned by departing military bands after the
Civil War.
Q21. DIRECTIONS for question 21: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the
option that best captures the essence of the passage.

“The language of Europe is translation,” wrote Umberto Eco, an Italian author. The European Union is proud of its
everyday multilingualism, which becomes more fluent and accessible with every year as the use of machine translation
tools grows. Yet, the adoption of English as a common language should be seen not as a challenge but as a complement
to this tradition. Europe is about diversity, and its patchwork of languages and dialects must be promoted and protected.
But it is also about the sort of unity that is possible only with a common tongue, even imperfectly spoken. Universalising
English while upholding the EU’s native languages would be not a betrayal of the cosmopolitan European ideal, but its
affirmation.

a) In order to live up to its cosmopolitan ideal, the EU must adopt English as a common language.
b) The cosmopolitan ideal of European Union will not be undermined, but rather, be reaffirmed by making English the
common tongue.
c) If Europe has to achieve unity in its diversity, it has to adopt English as a common tongue, despite its plethora of
native languages.
d) While machine translation tools have aided the EU’s multilingualism, universalising English will take it one step further
by complementing the bevy of native languages.
Q22. DIRECTIONS for question 22: The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the four sentences and key in the
sequence of four numbers as your answer, in the input box given below the question.

1. These delusions also involve the misinterpretation of perceptions or experiences.

2. The main feature of this disorder is the presence of delusions, unshakable beliefs in something untrue or not based
on reality.
3. Delusional disorder, previously called paranoid disorder, is a type of serious mental illness called a "psychosis" in
which a person cannot tell what is real from what is imagined.
4. These delusions mainly involve situations that could occur in real life, such as being followed, poisoned, deceived,
conspired against, or loved from a distance.
Q23. DIRECTIONS for question 23: There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph
and decide in which blank (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.

Sentence: The history of science shows that major scientific revolutions typically occur without such incentives –
think of Nicolaus Copernicus, Isaac Newton, Charles Darwin and Albert Einstein.

Paragraph: _____(1)_____ A policy-level change, for which some now argue, is to reduce or eliminate the intellectual
property protection of medical interventions. This would have several consequences. It would, obviously, mitigate the
financial incentives that appear to be corrupting medical science. It would probably also mean that new drugs would be
cheaper. _____(2)_____ Certainly, the antics of people such as Martin Shkreli (who raised the price of the life-saving drug
Daraprim, used by people with suppressed immune systems, from $13.50 per pill to $750) would be impossible. Would it
also mean that there would be less innovative medical research and development? This is a tired argument often raised to
defend intellectual property laws. However, it has serious problems. _____(3)_____ Breakthroughs in medicine are no
different. _____(4)_____ The most important breakthroughs in medical interventions – antibiotics, insulin, the polio vaccine
– were developed in social and financial contexts that were completely unlike the context of pharmaceutical profit today.
Those breakthroughs were indeed radically effective, unlike most of the blockbusters today.

a) Option 1
b) Option 2
c) Option 3
d) Option 4
Q24. DIRECTIONS for question 24: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option
that best captures the essence of the passage.

When we think about education and equality, we tend to think first about distributive questions – for example, how to design
a system that will offer the real possibility of equal educational attainment, if not achievement, to all students. The
vocational approach imagines that this equal attainment will translate into a wider distribution of skills, which will reduce
income inequality. The civic conception of education suggests a very different way to understand the link between
education and equality. This understanding begins with the recognition that fair economic outcomes are aided by a robust
democratic process and, therefore, by genuine political equality. Thus, an education focused not merely on technical skills,
but also on what I call participatory readiness, provides a distinct and better way to promote equality through schooling.

a) While income inequality may be resolved through a vocational approach to education, political equality can only be
attained through the wider understanding of democratic process.
b) While a vocational solution advocates equal educational attainment to reduce income inequality, it isn’t as effective as
enhancing the political awareness of citizens.
c) Focusing merely on technical skills of individuals will not be enough to reduce inequality as individuals should also be
trained, more importantly, for participation in democratic processes.
d) Education can promote equality only when we shift from the vocational approach focused on income inequality to also
acknowledge the importance of political equality.
LRDI
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.

The manufacturing of an electronic component comprises eight processes, P1 through P8, which should be carried out in a specific order.
A factory has exactly eight machines, M1 through M8, which carry out the eight processes, P1 through P8, respectively.
These machines are arranged on a factory floor, the layout of which is given in the figure below. There are ten possible locations, A to J, on
the factory floor and the eight machines are placed in eight of these ten locations. During the manufacturing of the electronic component, it
has to be moved from one machine to another, based on the order in which the processes must be performed. The direction(s) in which a
component can move between any two locations is indicated in the figure by the arrows. Further, it is known that the manufacturing
process starts from one of the corner locations i.e. A, F, E, or J.

It is also known that

1.P1 must be started only after P2 ends.
2.immediately after P7 ends, P5 must be started.
3.each of P6 and P8 must be started only after P1 ends, and both P6 and P8 must end for P3 to start, which is not the final process.
4.M3 is not in location D.
5.P4 must start only after P1 ends but must start before P7 begins.
Q1. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Which of the following locations need not have any machines?

a) A
b) H
c) G
d) E

Q2. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

In how many ways could the machines have been placed on the factory floor?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

Q3.DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Which is the fifth process for manufacturing the component?

a) P6
b) P4
c) P3
d) P5
Q4. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Which of the following processes would occur immediately after P3?

a) P7
b) P5
c) P1
d) P4

Q5. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If location G has neither M6 nor M8, what BEST can be said about the location of M6?

a) It is in location C or location H.
b) It is in location C or location I.
c) It is in location H.
d) It is in location H or location I.
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.A college admission test was
attempted by 100 students during a particular year. The number of marks scored by the 100 students in the exam was a distinct even integer
between 0 and 300 (both inclusive). All the 100 students were given ranks in the descending order of their ranks from 1 to 100.
However, a few days after providing these ranks to the students, it became known that there was an issue in one of the questions. After
taking this issue into consideration, the marks of the 100 students were recalculated and based on the recalculated marks, revised ranks
were provided to the 100 students. For any student, the marks of the student changed by 0 or 2 or 4 marks (increase or decrease). Further,
the recalculated marks of the 100 students were also distinct even integers between 0 and 300 (both inclusive).
The following table provides the initial ranks and the revised ranks of six students, A through F, who were among the 100 students:

It is also known that

1.the difference between the recalculated marks of A and C is 148.
2.the difference between the recalculated marks of B and E is 94.
.
Q6. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
Which of the following BEST describes the number of marks score by A before the recalculation?

a) Exactly 60
b) Either 58 or 60
c) Exactly 58
d) Either 56 or 58

Q7. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
How many of the following can be the initial marks (i.e., prior to the recalculation) of the student whose revised rank is 20?

1.230
2.226
3.260
4.266
5.220

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5

Q8. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
Which of the following BEST describes the revised rank of the student whose initial rank is 31?

a) Either 29 or 30
b) Exactly 30
c) Either 28 or 30
d) Exactly 29
Q9. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 and 10: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.Before the recalculation, the marks
of the students whose initial ranks are from 33 to 50 formed an Arithmetic Progression.

What is the maximum possible difference between the initial marks of the student whose initial rank is 40 and the student whose initial rank is
42?

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 and 10: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.Before the recalculation, the marks of
the students whose initial ranks are from 33 to 50 formed an Arithmetic Progression.

If the common difference of the Arithmetic Progression is the maximum possible, what is the maximum possible initial marks of the student
whose initial rank is 55?
DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15: Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.Sachin watched a movie which
was exactly 90 minutes long. There were exactly fifteen actors, A through O, in the movie and these actors appeared on screen at different
times during the movie. Sachin tracked the actors who appeared on screen at different points of time during the runtime of the movie. The
following graph provides the details of when each actor appeared on screen during the runtime of the movie, with the horizontal axis
representing the runtime (in hh:mm) and the vertical axis representing the actors in the movie:
Q11. DIRECTIONS for question 11: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

For how many minutes in the movie were there exactly five actors on screen?

a) 0
b) 5
c) 10
d) 15

Q12. DIRECTIONS for questions 12 and 13: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

What is the maximum number of actors who appeared on screen at any given point of time in the movie?

Q13. DIRECTIONS for questions 12 and 13: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

If there are more than eight actors on screen at the same time, then the movie is said to have been crowded for that duration. For how long
(in minutes) was the movie crowded?
Q14. DIRECTIONS for question 14: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

The names of the actors were displayed at the end of the movie in the same order in which they first appeared on screen in the movie. If
two or more actors first appeared on screen at the same time, the names of these actors were displayed in the descending order of the
durations for which the actors appeared in the movie.

What is the ninth name to be displayed in the movie?

a) N
b) B
c) E
d) O

Q15. DIRECTIONS for question 15: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

The names of the actors were displayed at the end of the movie in the same order in which they first appeared on screen in the movie. If
two or more actors first appeared on screen at the same time, the names of these persons were displayed in the descending order of the
total duration for which each person appeared in the movie.

Considering only the actors whose names were the last nine to be displayed at the end of the movie, what is the maximum duration (in
minutes) for which any actor appeared on screen in the movie?
DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.

Eight persons – Anurag, Bhim, Chintu, Dev, Pranav, Rajiv, Satish and Varun – live on different floors in a building which has eight floors from
first floor to eighth floor. The building also has a basement which is one floor below the first floor of the building. The building has exactly one
lift which connects all the eight floors and the basement. On each day, each person leaves for office either at 8:00 AM or 9:00 AM or 10:00
AM. All the persons who leave for office at a particular time enter the lift at their respective floors and reach the basement together. Each of
the eight persons, when leaving for office, board the lift only when it is on its way down. Any two persons are said to share the lift for one
floor if they are in the lift together for one floor. For example, if two persons are in the lift when the lift went from first floor to the basement,
then the two persons are said to have shared the lift for one floor.

Further, it is also known that,

1.not more than three people leave for office at the same time and no two persons share the lift for more than five floors.
2.Anurag does not leave for office at 9:00 AM and he lives on the floor immediately above the one on which Dev lives.
3.Varun does not leave for office at 10:00 AM.
4.the person who lives on the floor three floors below the one on which Anurag lives leaves for office at 9:00 AM.
5.the person who lives on the third-floor leaves for office at 10:00 AM and neither is this person Satish nor does he share the lift with Satish.
6.the person who lives on the fourth-floor leaves for office at 9:00 AM and he shares the lift with Pranav, who lives on the second floor.
7.Chintu, who lives on one of the floors above the one on which Anurag lives, shares the lift with Bhim, while Dev shares the lift for five floors
with a person who leaves at 8:00 AM.
Q16. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Who lives on the fourth-floor of the building?

a) Dev
b) Varun
c) Bhim
d) Either Bhim or Rajiv

Q17. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Who among the following shares the lift with the least number of persons?

a) Dev
b) Bhim
c) Rajiv
d) Satish

Q18. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

At what time does the person who lives on the eighth-floor leave for office?

a) 8:00 AM
b) 9:00 AM
c) 10:00 AM
d) Either 9:00 AM or 10:00 AM
Q19. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Who among the following lives on a floor above the one on which Rajiv lives and leaves for office at the same time as him?

a) Bhim
b) Anurag
c) Satish
d) Either Anurag or Satish

Q20. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If Satish leaves for office one hour before Chintu leaves for office, who lives on the first-floor?

a) Satish
b) Rajiv
c) Either Rajiv or Varun
d) Either Satish or Varun
QA
Q1. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 and 2: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.
Nine distinct integers are divided into three groups of three integers each. Now, one integer is taken from each of the three groups and the
three integers so obtained are added. Each such possible sum is equal to a distinct integer from among 1 to 27. What is the minimum
possible value of the greatest of these nine integers?

Q2. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 and 2: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.
If the sum of the interior angles of a convex polygon is seven times the sum of its exterior angles, how many sides does the polygon have?

Q3. DIRECTIONS for question 3: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If Sm represents the sum of the first n terms of the mth arithmetic progression, whose first term is m2 and common difference is m, then the
value of S1 + S2 + S3 + … + Sm is
Q4. DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 9: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Q5. DIRECTIONS for question 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.P, Q and R can complete a work in 12, 15 and 20 days
respectively. If on any given day only two of them work and the same two people do not work on any two consecutive days, find the minimum
number of days in which the work can be done.

a) 88/9
b) 84/9
c) 6
d) 7
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 and 7: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
This morning, Madhu, the local milkman, was in a hurry to leave home for selling milk. In his hurry he asked Bhola, his servant, to pour half of
the water from the water drum into the milk drum containing pure milk and then to bring him a full can of the diluted milk for selling. However,
Bhola got confused and he poured half the milk from the milk drum into the water drum and brought out a full can of the contents from the
latter for his master to sell. The concentration of the milk in the can that Bhola brought was 1/n times that intended by Madhu.

Q6. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 and 7: Select the correct the alternative from the given choices.
If n = 3, what would be the concentration of the milk had Madhu mixed the entire contents of the milk drum and the water drum?

Q7. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 and 7: Select the correct the alternative from the given choices.
Find n, given that initially the total quantity of pure milk in the milk drum was 4.5 times that of water in the water drum.

a) 1.3
b) 1.7
c) 2
d) Cannot be determined
Q8. DIRECTIONS for question 8: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

Q9.DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 11: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
If two percent of the population of constituency A are octogenarians, whereas six percent of the population of constituency B are octogenarians,
and the population of B is three times that of A, what percent of the population of A and B together are octogenarians?

a) 4%
b) 5%
c) 3
d) 4
Q10. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 11: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
On a circular track, with center O, A starts at a point P and runs in the clockwise direction. At the same time, B starts at Q and runs in the
anticlockwise direction. The angle ∠POQ, measured in the clockwise direction, is 270°. The distance covered by B by the time he meets A for
the first time is equal to the distance covered by A between the first and second meetings. What fraction of the track length does A cover by
the first meeting?
Q11. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 11: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

a) Both II and IV
b) Both I and III
c) Both I and IV
d) Both II and III
Q12. DIRECTIONS for questions 12: The question is followed by two statements, I and II. You have to decide whether the information
provided in the statements is sufficient for answering the question and then select the correct alternative form the given choices.

Is |y – 2| < 1?
1.|y| > 1
2.|y – 1| < 2

a) The question can be answered by using only one of the statements.

b) The question can be answered by using either statement alone.
c) The question can be answered by using both the statements together but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
d) The question cannot be answered even when both the statements are used together.

Q13. DIRECTIONS for question 13: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.A cylindrical block of wood, of radius 14 cm and
height 20 cm, is cut into four identical pieces by making two cuts perpendicular to its base. If three of the four pieces are again glued back
together in their original configuration, then what is the total surface area of this new block of wood? (Consider π = )

a) 3728 sq.cm
b) 2704 sq.cm
c) 3608 sq.cm
d) 2804 sq.cm
Q14. DIRECTIONS for question 14: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

If the quadratic equations x2 – ax + 3 = 0 and x2 + ax − 5 = 0 have one positive root in common, find the value of a.

Q15. DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 17: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
st
On January 1 , 2003, the average age of 11 members of a cricket team was 30 years. After four years, a player X from the team was replaced
by another player Y. After one more year, player Y was replaced by another player Z, as a result of which the average age of the team then
became 344/11 years. If the age of player Y is 4 years less than that of player X, then the age of player Z is how many years more/less than
that of player Y?

a) 3 years less
b) 2 years more
c) 4 years less
d) Cannot be determined
Q16. DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 17: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
The number of quadrilaterals that can be formed by joining the corners of a regular nonagon, such that none of the quadrilaterals have any
side in common with the sides of the nonagon, is

a) 7.
b) 8.
c) 9.
d) 6.

Q17. DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 17: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
Rohan went to a casino to play a card game. At the end of each round of the game, he doubled the amount with him and gave ₹2,048 to his
friend. After playing ten rounds, he was left with no money. What was the amount he started with?

a) ₹3,071
b) ₹4,098
c) ₹2,046
d) ₹2,047

Q18. DIRECTIONS for question 18: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

Raghu, Ram and Rajan work in ABC Pvt. Ltd. If their monthly salaries are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5, and sum of their monthly salaries is ₹720000,
find Raghu’s monthly salary (in ₹).
Q19. DIRECTIONS for question 19: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Nine parallel chords are drawn in a circle of diameter 10 cm. If the distance between any two of the adjacent chords is 1 cm, which of the
following statements is always true?

a) One of the chords is the diameter of the circle.

b) At least two of the chords must be of equal length.
c) The difference between the lengths of any two adjacent chords on the same side of the diameter is greater than 1 cm.
d) None of the above

Q20. DIRECTIONS for questions 20: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.If a1, a2, a3…. a10 are in
A.P, h1, h2, h3…. h10 are in H.P., and a1 = h1 = 4, while a10 = h10 = 5, then a4h7 =

Q21. DIRECTIONS for questions 21 and 22: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
If the difference between a two-digit number and the sum of its digits is X times the sum of its digits, then the difference between the two-digit
number formed by interchanging the digits of the number and the sum of its digits is

a) (9 – X) times the sum of its digits.

b) (9 + X) times the sum of its digits.
c) (9 + X) times the difference of its digits.
d) (9 – X) times the difference of its digits.
Q22. DIRECTIONS for questions 21 and 22: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

a) 2p2
b) p2
c) p2/2
d) p2 + 1