Marking Scheme

Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Supplementary Examination, July-2024
SUBJECT NAME: Social Science SUBJECT CODE: 087 PAPER CODE: 32/S/2
General Instructions: -

1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of
the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the
future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is
requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation
guidelines carefully.
2. “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in
any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future
of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine
and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of the Board
and IPC.”
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done
according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly
adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on
latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their
correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two
competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not
from marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks
should be awarded.
4. The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.These are in the nature of
Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have their own
expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the
first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking
Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The
remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no
significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6. Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct
and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for
different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled.
This may also be followed strictly.
9. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be
retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11. A full scale of marks _____80_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question
Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day
and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other
subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in

Page 1 of 17
 the past:- Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly
and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked
as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15. Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by
the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also
of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the
instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title
page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18. The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the
prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once
again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for
each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

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 CBSE SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATION – JULY 2024
Marking Scheme
Class X -Social Science (087)
SET-32/S/2
SET-2 MM: 80

S.No. Values Points Page No. Marks-

Section A (20X1=20)
Multiple Choice Question
1 (A) Developed 65 E 1
2 (D) Kerala 10 E 1
3 (A) Primary- Mining 20 E 1
4 (C) Moneylender 48 E 1
5 (C) Money obtained as interest on loan from the borrower. 42 E 1
6 (C) It is mandatory for all the candidates to give details of 60 P 1
criminal cases on affidavit.
7 (D) Education, Forest, Marriage and Adoption 16 P 1
8 (A) Sinhalas 3P 1
9 (D) Only I and IV are correct 14 P 1
10 (D) Power is shared among different levels of governments. 8P 1
11 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation 6P 1
of (A).
12 (D) Geothermal energy 55 G 1
13 (A) Only I and II are correct 31 G 1
14 (B) Rajasthan 26 G 1
15 (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation 13 G 1
of (A).
16 (A) 1878 127 H 1
17 (A) Primary 20 E 1
For Visually impaired candidates only-
(A) Primary 20 E 1
18 (C) III, I, II, IV 40-42 H 1
19 (D) Germany, Japan and Italy 74 H 1

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20 (B) The abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movement 9H 1
of goods and capital.
Section B (4X2=8)
Very Short Answer Type Questions
21 Analyse the role Information and Communication Technology in 63 E 2X1=2
making globalisation possible.

(i) In recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications,

computers, Internet has been changing rapidly.
(ii) Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including
mobile phones, fax) are used to contact one another around the
world, to access information instantly, and to communicate
from remote areas.
(iii) This has been facilitated by satellite communication devices.
(iv) Computers have now entered almost every field of activity.
(v) With the help of Internet, information can be obtained and
shared
(vi) Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail (e-mail)
and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible costs.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be analysed.)

22 Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.” Support the 42 G 2X1=2

statement with examples.
(i) Almost everything we use, from a tiny pin to a towering
building or a big ship, all are made from minerals.
(ii) The railway lines and the tarmac (paving) of the roads, our
implements and machinery too are made from minerals.
(iii) Cars, buses, trains, aeroplanes are manufactured from minerals
and run on power resources derived from the earth.
(iv) Even the food that we eat contains minerals.
(v) In all stages of development, human beings have used
minerals for their livelihood, decoration, festivities, religious
and ceremonial rites
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained)

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23 How did measures taken by the Sri Lankan Government increase 3 P 2X1=2
the feeling of alienation among the Tamils? Explain.

(i) In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only

official language, thus disregarding Tamil.
(ii) The governments followed preferential policies that favoured
Sinhala applicants for university positions and government
jobs.
(iii) A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and
foster Buddhism.
(iv) They felt that none of the major political parties led by the
Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and
culture.
(v) They felt that the constitution and government policies denied
them equal political rights
(vi) Government discriminated against them in getting jobs and
other opportunities and ignored their interests.
(vii) The relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities
strained over time.
(viii) Their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by
the Tamils was repeatedly denied.
(ix) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained)

24 (a) How did the silk route connect the world? 54 H 2X1=2
(i) The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade
and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
(ii) Historians have identified several silk routes, over land and by
sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia
with Europe and northern Africa.
(iii) Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles
and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious
metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.
(iv) Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early
Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to
Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later.
(v) Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several
directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained)

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 OR

(b) How did our foods facilitates cultural exchanges between

distant countries? Explain with any two examples.
54 H 2X1=2
(i) Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the lands they
travelled. Even ‘ready’ foodstuff in distant parts of the world
might share common origins.
(ii) It is believed that noodles travelled west from China to
become spaghetti.
(iii) Arab traders took pasta to fifth-century Sicily, an island now in
Italy.
(iv) Similar foods were also known in India and Japan, so the truth
about their origins may never be known.
(v) Many of our common foods such as potatoes, soya,
groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies, sweet potatoes, and so
on were not known to our ancestors until about five centuries
ago.
(vi) These foods were only introduced in Europe and Asia after
Christopher Columbus accidentally discovered the vast
continent that would later become known as the Americas.
(vii) Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between
life and death. Europe’s poor began to eat better and live
longer with the introduction of the humble potato.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained)

Section C (5X3=15)
Short Answer Type Questions
25 Explain any three challenges before Indian political parties in the 57 P 3X1=3
present time.
(i) Lack of internal democracy.
(ii) Political parties do not conduct regular internal election and do
not hold meetings.
(iii) Dynastic succession
(iv) Money and muscle power
(v) They do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
(vi) Any other relevant point
(Any three points to be explained.)

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26 Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources. 2G 3X1=3
Renewable Resources Non Renewable Resources
(i) These resources are (i) These resources get
replenished by nature. exhausted after a few
years of use and cannot
be replenished
(ii) They do not have a fixed (ii) There is a fixed stock on
stock. earth
(iii) These are be non (iii) These are usually
conventional sources of conventional sources of
energy energy
(iv) Wind, water, solar, (iv) Fossil fuels like
plants, animals Coal, petroleum, etc
(v) These are pollution free. (v) Its usage creates
pollution.

(vi) Any other relevant point

(Any three points of difference to be explained)
27 Describe the main features of commercial farming in India. 31 G 3X1=3

(i) The main characteristics of this type of farming are the

use of higher doses of modern inputs e.g., HYV seeds,
Chemical fertilizers insecticides and pesticides.
(ii) It obtains higher productivity.
(iii) The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies
from one region to another.
(iv) Example: rice is a commercial crop in Haryana but in
Odisha, it is a subsistence crop.
(v) Any other relevant point
(Any three points to be explained.)
28 (a) Analyse the economic impacts of the Non-Cooperation 34 H 3X1=3
Movement.

(i) Boycott of Foreign Goods

(ii) Development of Indigenous Industries
(iii) Decline in Revenue for British Companies
(iv) Adverse impact on Government Revenue
(v) Economic Self-Reliance
(vi) Any other relevant point
(Any three points to be analysed)
OR

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 (b) “In India, the growth of modern nationalism was intimately
connected to the anti-colonial movement.” Analyse the statement. 29-H
3X1=3
(i) People began discovering their unity in the process of their
struggle with colonialism.
(ii) The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a
shared bond that tied many different groups together.
(iii) The Congress under Mahatma Gandhi tried of forge these
groups together within one movement.
(iv) Symbols of nationalism like Bharatmata and Vandemataram
(v) Anti-colonial movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil
Disobedience etc were directed against the British rule
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be analysed.)

29 “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect 16 E 3X1=3

national or state boundaries.” Explain the statement with
examples.
(i) The issue of environmental degradation is not region or nation
specific as our future is linked together.
(ii) Scientists, economists, philosophers and other social scientists
are working together in this area.
(iii) Global warming caused due to greenhouse effect gases and
ozone layer depletion is threatening the whole world.
(iv) Polluting of water bodies is another serious issue which again
needs joint efforts.
(v) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be explained.)
Section D (4X5=20)
Long Answer Type Questions
30 (a) Explain the aims of Treaty of Vienna of 1815. 11 H 5X1=5
(i) Treaty of Vienna of 1815 was drawn up with the object of
undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe
during the Napoleonic wars.
(ii) The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the
French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the
territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
(iii) A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to
prevent French expansion in future.
(iv) Kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was

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 set up in the north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the
south.
(v) Prussia was given important new territories on its western
frontiers
(vi) Austria was given control of northern Italy.
(vii) Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was given a
portion of Saxony.
(viii) German confederation of 39 states that had been set up by
Napoleon was left untouched.
(ix) The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had
been overthrown by Napoleon and create a new conservative
order in Europe.
(x) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)

OR
(b) How did the Greek war of independence mobilise
nationalist feelings among the educated elite across
13 H 5X1=5
Europe? Explain.
(i) An event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the
educated elite across Europe was the Greek war of
independence.
(ii) Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the
fifteenth century. The growth of revolutionary nationalism in
Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the
Greeks.
(iii) Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in
exile and also from many West Europeans who had sympathies
for ancient Greek culture.
(iv) Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European
civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle
against a Muslim empire.
(v) The English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to
fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824.
(vi) Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised
Greece as an independent nation.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)

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31 (a) Explain the rising importance of the tertiary sector in India. 24 E 5X1=5
(i) In any country several services such as hospitals, educational
institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts,
village administrative offices, municipal corporations, defense,
transport, banks, insurance companies, etc. are required. These
can be considered as basic services.
(ii) In a developing country the government has to take
responsibility for the provision of these services.
(iii) The development of agriculture and industry leads to the
development of services such as transport, trade, storage and
the like.
(iv) Greater the development of the primary and secondary sectors,
more would be the demand for such services.
(v) As income levels rise, certain sections of people start
demanding many more services like eating out, tourism,
shopping, private hospitals, private schools, professional
training etc.
(vi) Over the past decade or so, certain new services such as those
based on information and communication technology have
become important and essential. The production of these
services has been rising rapidly.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)

OR

(b) Explain the difference between organised and unorganised

sectors. 30 E
5X1=5
Organised Unorganised
(i) Covers those enterprises or (i) The unorganised sector is
places of work where the terms of characterised by small and
employment are regular. Therefore scattered units which are
people have assured work largely outside the control of
the government.
(ii) They have to follow some rules (ii) There are rules and
and regulations which are given in regulations but they are not
various laws such as Factory Act, followed
Minimum Wages Act, Payment of
Gratuity Act, Shops and
Establishments Act etc
(iii) It is called organised because it (iii) This sector includes a

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 has some formal processes and large number of people who
procedures. are employed on their own
doing small jobs such as
selling on the street or doing
repair work. They do not
follow any formal
procedure.
(iv) Workers in the organised (iv) Jobs are low-paid and
sector enjoy security of often not regular.
employment Employment is not secure.
People can be asked to leave
without any reason
(v) They are expected to work only (v) There are not fixed
a fixed number of hours working hours
(vi) If they work more, they have to (vi) There is no provision for
be paid overtime by the employer. overtime
(vii) They also get several other (vii) No extra benefits are
benefits from the employers given
(viii) They get paid leave, payment (viii) The workers do not get
during holidays, provident fund, paid leave, holidays, leave
gratuity etc due to sickness etc

(ix) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points of difference to be explained)
32 (a) How does democracy help in economic growth and 67 P 5X1=5
development of a country? Explain with an example.
(i) It is expected from the democratic government to fulfill basic
facilities.
(ii) Democratic governments provide support to all the sections of
society through public welfare schemes.
(iii) Democratic governments are expected to prepare economic
policies according to the need of all the sections of the society
as the value of votes of all the individuals is equal.
(iv) Democratic government introduces schemes for food security,
employment generation, poverty eradication etc
(v) Democratic governments try to minimize the economic
disparity among its citizens.
(vi) They develop infrastructure for better economic growth.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)

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 OR
(b) How does democracy stand much superior to any other form
of government, in respect of women dignity? Explain with 5X1=5
71 P
examples.
(i) Sensitivity towards gender equality in a democratic society is
created.
(ii) Democracy makes it easier for women to get equality.
(iii) In a democratic set up, gender discrimination does not have
any legal basis.
(iv) In a democracy, women enjoy equal rights, including the Right
to vote.
(v) In some democratic countries, seats are reserved for women in
legislatures.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)
33 (a) Explain the significance of industries in the Indian economy. 58 G 5X1=5

(i) Industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which

forms the backbone of our economy.
(ii) They also reduce the heavy dependence of people on
agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and
tertiary sectors.
(iii) Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of
unemployment and poverty from our country.
(iv) It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by
establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
(v) Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce,
and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
(vi) Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety
of finished goods of higher value are prosperous. India’s
prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing
industries as quickly as possible.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)

OR

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 (b) How are industries responsible for air pollution? Suggest any 66 G 2+3=5
three measures to control it.
(i) Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of
undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon
monoxide.
(ii) Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid
particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.
(iii) Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns,
refineries and smelting plants
(iv) Burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore
pollution norms.
(v) Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained) (2X1=2)

Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by-

(i) fitting smoke stacks to factories, with electrostatic precipitators
(ii) fabric filters
(iii) scrubbers and inertial separators.
(iv) Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in
factories.
(v) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be explained) (3X1=3)

Section E (3X4=12)
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
34 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 39 P 1+1+2=4
Social and Religious Diversity
The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian
after every ten years. The person who fills the Census form visits
every household and records the religion of each member of that
household exactly the way each person describes it. If someone
says she has ‘no religion’ or that he is an ‘atheist’, this is exactly
how it is recorded. Thus we have reliable information on the
proportion of different religious communities in the country and
how it has changed over the years. The record shows the
population proportion of six major religious communities in the
country. Since Independence, the total population of each
community has increased substantially.

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 (34.1) At what interval is census conducted in India? (1)
10 Years
(34.2) Why are India census data considered reliable? (1)
(i) The person who fills the Census form visits every household and
records the religion of each member.
(ii) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be explained.)

(34.3) How is the census an important tool to understand the

social diversity in India? (2x1=2)
(i) Census gives reliable information on the proportion of different
social communities in the country and how it has changed over the
years.
(ii) The record shows the population proportion of six major religious
communities in the country.
(iii) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained.)
35 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 108 H 1+1+2=4
Jikji
The Jikji of Korea is among the world’s oldest existing book printed
with movable metal type. It contains the essential features of Zen
Buddhism. About 150 monks of India, China and Korea are
mentioned in the book. It was printed in late 14th century. While the
first volume of the book is unavailable, the second one is available in
the National Library of France. This work marked an important
technical change in the print culture. That is why it was inscribed on
the UNESCO Memory of the World Register in 2001.
(35.1) Mention the significance of the Jikji in the history of
printing. (1)
(i) The Jikji of Korea is among the world’s oldest existing book
printed with movable metal type.
(ii) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be explained.)
(35.2) Why was the Jikji inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of
the World Register in 2001? (1)
(i) This work marked an important technical change in the print
culture. That is why it was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the
World Register in 2001.
(ii) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be explained.)

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 (35.3) How does the Jikji contribute to the understanding of Zen
Buddhism? (2x1=2)
(i)Jikji contains the essential features of Zen Buddhism.
(ii) About 150 monks of India, China and Korea are mentioned in the
book.
(iii) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained.)
36 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 14 E 1+1+2=4
Sustainability of Development
“Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious
threat of overuse in many parts of the country. About 300
districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters
during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is
overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60
percent of the country would be doing the same if the present way
of using this resource continues. Groundwater overuse is
particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of
Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau area of central and
south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban
settlements.”

(36.1) Explain the meaning of Sustainability of Development.

(1)
(i) Sustainable development means ‘development should take place
without damaging the environment and development in the present
should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.
(ii) Any other relevant point
(Any one point to be explained)

(36.2) Describe the serious threat caused by overuse of

underground water. (1)
(i) Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious
threat of overuse in many parts of the country.
(ii) About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4
meters during the past 20 years.
(iii) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be described.)
(36.3) Mention any two suggestions for the farmers to reduce the
overuse of the groundwater in agriculture. (2x1=2)
(i) Change in crop pattern.
(ii) Use of newer techniques of irrigation like sprinkler, drip irrigation
etc.

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 (iii) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be mentioned.)
Section F (2+3=5)
Map Based Questions
37 (a) Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political
outline map of India (on page 23). Identify these places with the
help of the following information and write their correct names
on the lines drawn near them:
(i) The place where Gandhiji organized Satyagraha to help the 1
peasants.
(ii) The place where the session of the Indian National
1
Congress was held in 1927.
(PLEASE SEE ATTACHED MAP FOR ANSWERS)
(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any 3x1=3
three of the following with suitable symbols :
(i) Leading Coffee-producing State
(ii) Durg: Major iron ore mines
(iii) Kochi: Major sea port
(iv) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
(PLEASE SEE ATTACHED MAP FOR ANSWERS)
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired 5x1=5
Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37.
Attempt any five questions.
(37.1) Name the place where Gandhi Ji organized Satyagrah to help
the peasants. – KHEDA/ CHAMPARAN 1
(37.2) Name the place where the session of the Indian National
Congress was held in 1927. – MADRAS (CHENNAI) 1
(37.3) Name the leading Coffee-producing state of India. -
KARNATAKA 1
(37.4) Name the state where Durg iron-ore mines are located.-
CHATTISGARH 1
(37.5) Name the state where Kochi sea port is located.- KERALA 1
(37.6) Name the place where Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is
located.- HYDERABAD 1

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